qid int64 1 74.7M | question stringlengths 12 33.8k | date stringlengths 10 10 | metadata list | response_j stringlengths 0 115k | response_k stringlengths 2 98.3k |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
145,857 | Is there any way to export non Camera Roll or Photo Stream photo albums from an iPhone to a PC? There are a bunch of "free" software online than can do this, but they all require you to buy the software to transfer the photos, or they can only transfer a few photos before needing to buy the software.
The iPhone is hooked up to the computer right now and I can browse the DCIM folder, but those are only Camera Roll pictures. I'm not willing to jailbreak the iPhone either as it's not mine. | 2014/09/18 | [
"https://apple.stackexchange.com/questions/145857",
"https://apple.stackexchange.com",
"https://apple.stackexchange.com/users/91170/"
] | Go to settings, scroll down till you find a list of downloaded apps. Locate and tap Amazon app. You will find toggle switch to turn on/off touch id feature.
Good Luck. | I just received this email from Amazon that refutes the existence of the feature:
>
> Hello,
>
>
> Thank you for contacting Amazon. I've researched "Touch ID" feature
> and found this feature it isn't available with the Amazon Appstore
> apps at this time. We're constantly adding apps and features to our
> selection, and features not unavailable now may become available in
> the future.
>
>
> I've forwarded your message to our Appstore development team for
> consideration.
>
>
> We look forward to seeing you again soon.
>
>
> Best regards,
> Devender K
>
>
> |
145,857 | Is there any way to export non Camera Roll or Photo Stream photo albums from an iPhone to a PC? There are a bunch of "free" software online than can do this, but they all require you to buy the software to transfer the photos, or they can only transfer a few photos before needing to buy the software.
The iPhone is hooked up to the computer right now and I can browse the DCIM folder, but those are only Camera Roll pictures. I'm not willing to jailbreak the iPhone either as it's not mine. | 2014/09/18 | [
"https://apple.stackexchange.com/questions/145857",
"https://apple.stackexchange.com",
"https://apple.stackexchange.com/users/91170/"
] | The application keeps you logged in to your account once you log in unless you log out, but if you do anything that would require a password entry like managing your wish list, a Touch ID prompt comes up giving you the option to use your fingerprint instead of typing in your password | Settings>Passwords & Accounts>Website & App Passwords>Tap “+”
then type www.amazon.com
Then type username (your email address)
Then type a password of your choice
Worked for me. IPhone 6s iOS 13 |
145,857 | Is there any way to export non Camera Roll or Photo Stream photo albums from an iPhone to a PC? There are a bunch of "free" software online than can do this, but they all require you to buy the software to transfer the photos, or they can only transfer a few photos before needing to buy the software.
The iPhone is hooked up to the computer right now and I can browse the DCIM folder, but those are only Camera Roll pictures. I'm not willing to jailbreak the iPhone either as it's not mine. | 2014/09/18 | [
"https://apple.stackexchange.com/questions/145857",
"https://apple.stackexchange.com",
"https://apple.stackexchange.com/users/91170/"
] | Go to settings, scroll down till you find a list of downloaded apps. Locate and tap Amazon app. You will find toggle switch to turn on/off touch id feature.
Good Luck. | Ok, I just figured this out (finally), "and yes it does work". But it seems to be a combination of several of the answers provided above.
Probably the most important thing to point out is Tpoccu's posting.
"The application keeps you logged in to your account once you log in unless you log out", but if you're anything like me and you log out every time you're finished with the App, continue reading...
The first thing you'll need to do is go to Settings and scroll down to the Amazon App on your iPhone 6 (minimum) with an "Up To Date iOS", then scroll down to "Use Biometric authentication when available" and turn that on as Nura suggested.
Once that's done go to Settings/Passwords & Accounts/Website & App Passwords and Tap the “+” (top right) to provide the credentials that the App needs, and type in www.amazon.com under the Website Address and then just type in your Username and Password as Mr D suggested and you're done.
Then the next time you open the Amazon App and tap the Sign In button the App will ask you if you want to associate the App with the password that you saved earlier, just tap Ok and touch the finger print reader and you will be logged into the App automatically.
I hope this helps! |
145,857 | Is there any way to export non Camera Roll or Photo Stream photo albums from an iPhone to a PC? There are a bunch of "free" software online than can do this, but they all require you to buy the software to transfer the photos, or they can only transfer a few photos before needing to buy the software.
The iPhone is hooked up to the computer right now and I can browse the DCIM folder, but those are only Camera Roll pictures. I'm not willing to jailbreak the iPhone either as it's not mine. | 2014/09/18 | [
"https://apple.stackexchange.com/questions/145857",
"https://apple.stackexchange.com",
"https://apple.stackexchange.com/users/91170/"
] | The application keeps you logged in to your account once you log in unless you log out, but if you do anything that would require a password entry like managing your wish list, a Touch ID prompt comes up giving you the option to use your fingerprint instead of typing in your password | You're not alone, no one knows how to turn it on (or off!)
[Amazon app for iPhone adds Touch ID support, but nobody knows how to turn it on…or off](http://www.geekwire.com/2014/amazon-app-iphone-gives-new-meaning-1-click-touch-id-support/)
A friend of mine says it works on his iPhone 6+. And so, I log into the same Amazon app on my iPhone 6, via name and password, I order products, manage my wish list, and *never* see the TouchID interface appear. So strange! |
145,857 | Is there any way to export non Camera Roll or Photo Stream photo albums from an iPhone to a PC? There are a bunch of "free" software online than can do this, but they all require you to buy the software to transfer the photos, or they can only transfer a few photos before needing to buy the software.
The iPhone is hooked up to the computer right now and I can browse the DCIM folder, but those are only Camera Roll pictures. I'm not willing to jailbreak the iPhone either as it's not mine. | 2014/09/18 | [
"https://apple.stackexchange.com/questions/145857",
"https://apple.stackexchange.com",
"https://apple.stackexchange.com/users/91170/"
] | I just received this email from Amazon that refutes the existence of the feature:
>
> Hello,
>
>
> Thank you for contacting Amazon. I've researched "Touch ID" feature
> and found this feature it isn't available with the Amazon Appstore
> apps at this time. We're constantly adding apps and features to our
> selection, and features not unavailable now may become available in
> the future.
>
>
> I've forwarded your message to our Appstore development team for
> consideration.
>
>
> We look forward to seeing you again soon.
>
>
> Best regards,
> Devender K
>
>
> | Ok, I just figured this out (finally), "and yes it does work". But it seems to be a combination of several of the answers provided above.
Probably the most important thing to point out is Tpoccu's posting.
"The application keeps you logged in to your account once you log in unless you log out", but if you're anything like me and you log out every time you're finished with the App, continue reading...
The first thing you'll need to do is go to Settings and scroll down to the Amazon App on your iPhone 6 (minimum) with an "Up To Date iOS", then scroll down to "Use Biometric authentication when available" and turn that on as Nura suggested.
Once that's done go to Settings/Passwords & Accounts/Website & App Passwords and Tap the “+” (top right) to provide the credentials that the App needs, and type in www.amazon.com under the Website Address and then just type in your Username and Password as Mr D suggested and you're done.
Then the next time you open the Amazon App and tap the Sign In button the App will ask you if you want to associate the App with the password that you saved earlier, just tap Ok and touch the finger print reader and you will be logged into the App automatically.
I hope this helps! |
145,857 | Is there any way to export non Camera Roll or Photo Stream photo albums from an iPhone to a PC? There are a bunch of "free" software online than can do this, but they all require you to buy the software to transfer the photos, or they can only transfer a few photos before needing to buy the software.
The iPhone is hooked up to the computer right now and I can browse the DCIM folder, but those are only Camera Roll pictures. I'm not willing to jailbreak the iPhone either as it's not mine. | 2014/09/18 | [
"https://apple.stackexchange.com/questions/145857",
"https://apple.stackexchange.com",
"https://apple.stackexchange.com/users/91170/"
] | The application keeps you logged in to your account once you log in unless you log out, but if you do anything that would require a password entry like managing your wish list, a Touch ID prompt comes up giving you the option to use your fingerprint instead of typing in your password | I just received this email from Amazon that refutes the existence of the feature:
>
> Hello,
>
>
> Thank you for contacting Amazon. I've researched "Touch ID" feature
> and found this feature it isn't available with the Amazon Appstore
> apps at this time. We're constantly adding apps and features to our
> selection, and features not unavailable now may become available in
> the future.
>
>
> I've forwarded your message to our Appstore development team for
> consideration.
>
>
> We look forward to seeing you again soon.
>
>
> Best regards,
> Devender K
>
>
> |
145,857 | Is there any way to export non Camera Roll or Photo Stream photo albums from an iPhone to a PC? There are a bunch of "free" software online than can do this, but they all require you to buy the software to transfer the photos, or they can only transfer a few photos before needing to buy the software.
The iPhone is hooked up to the computer right now and I can browse the DCIM folder, but those are only Camera Roll pictures. I'm not willing to jailbreak the iPhone either as it's not mine. | 2014/09/18 | [
"https://apple.stackexchange.com/questions/145857",
"https://apple.stackexchange.com",
"https://apple.stackexchange.com/users/91170/"
] | Settings>Passwords & Accounts>Website & App Passwords>Tap “+”
then type www.amazon.com
Then type username (your email address)
Then type a password of your choice
Worked for me. IPhone 6s iOS 13 | You're not alone, no one knows how to turn it on (or off!)
[Amazon app for iPhone adds Touch ID support, but nobody knows how to turn it on…or off](http://www.geekwire.com/2014/amazon-app-iphone-gives-new-meaning-1-click-touch-id-support/)
A friend of mine says it works on his iPhone 6+. And so, I log into the same Amazon app on my iPhone 6, via name and password, I order products, manage my wish list, and *never* see the TouchID interface appear. So strange! |
48,675 | I got to thinking...
Should questions with an open bounty get bumped periodically? Maybe once halfway through the bounty. | 2010/05/04 | [
"https://meta.stackexchange.com/questions/48675",
"https://meta.stackexchange.com",
"https://meta.stackexchange.com/users/142114/"
] | I think
* having a dedicated tab on the homepage
* a visual marker that distinguishes them from every other question
* a potential reputation award for every new answer
* getting bumped to the homepage at the time the bounty is set
.. is sufficient. | I've had a few bounties that after making the question a bounty I only saw probably 20 or 30 more views and no new answers or anything. You put a bounty on something to get it answered. Not as the creator of some competition
So bounties could be bumped maybe every day of the bounty. This way the question has a much greater chance of being seen. I mean, who looks at the bounty tab exclusively? |
48,675 | I got to thinking...
Should questions with an open bounty get bumped periodically? Maybe once halfway through the bounty. | 2010/05/04 | [
"https://meta.stackexchange.com/questions/48675",
"https://meta.stackexchange.com",
"https://meta.stackexchange.com/users/142114/"
] | I think
* having a dedicated tab on the homepage
* a visual marker that distinguishes them from every other question
* a potential reputation award for every new answer
* getting bumped to the homepage at the time the bounty is set
.. is sufficient. | As with all questions, if you are finding that people are not answering, you have a few options.
1. Do extra research to try and find more information
2. Re-read the question, answers, comments and edit your question
3. Add a bounty.
At this point, you have already gone to step 3, so I'll consider steps 2 and 1.
**Re-read and edit**
Re-read your own question. If even twenty minutes has passed, I will find that even my most carefully considered questions seem very different once I publicize them. You might discover that there is contextual information missing, or irrelevant information contained. Try making it shorter or longer. The people on SO have a limited amount of time, and they will give up on questions for their own reasons. Small edits can have huge impacts.
Check the answers or comments (if any) they may indicate where the disjoint is between you and the community. If they ask for clarification, clarify, if they ask for more information, give it to them. This will show you are engaged, and it will be more likely that they answer.
And of course, each edit gives you a bump, regardless of having a bounty or not.
**Do More Research**
Most people will do a simply google/bing search before they post their issue onto SO, but it is entirely possible that the comments or answers, despite being wrong, can still give you clues that enable you to do some extra research. Maybe it will help you find your answer and maybe not, but it should enable you to add extra contextual information to the qusetion which means an edit. Every edit gives you a bump to the top of the active page, so once again you will generate extra interest.
**Bounty**
As [Jeff](https://meta.stackexchange.com/questions/48675/bounty-questions-should-get-bumped/48681#48681) says, you are already getting some bonuses from adding a Bounty, however it doesn't mean you should just give up and assume that your job is finished. Adding a bounty to a bad or unanswerable question does not make it answerable. It also doesn't mean that the problem you originally had will go away.
Bottom line, if you remain engaged, your question will stay in the active page, and you'll get more responses. Oftentimes, if you do that, you won't need the bounty at all. |
55,353 | I just started working in the UK for the first time and received my first payslip. Another colleague of mine got his second payslip here, from the same company.
We were surprised that in the detail no amount for "Tax" was deducted.
I researched a bit and found that for the tax code [1060L](http://taxaid.org.uk/guides/information/issues-for-employees/employee/form-p46), specified in our payslip, we got some tax free income for a while.
However, since I'm not an English native speaker, I still have some doubts on how it works.
As I understand it:
* I am entitled to 10600£ per year tax free and until I reach that value, I won't pay tax;
* When I do reach 10600£, taxes will be deducted as for everybody else;
Is this correct? | 2015/10/29 | [
"https://money.stackexchange.com/questions/55353",
"https://money.stackexchange.com",
"https://money.stackexchange.com/users/34465/"
] | CORRECT ANSWER FOUND!
I'm new to the UK and also started work in September 2015. It also drove me insane I had such a hard time understanding how the taxes worked. After a lot of research, I came upon this thread, and read the whole thing, including the bits in the chat where James, you posted the final excel table.
Then I actually realised HMRC gave a pretty useful tool for tax calculations for a given pay date anytime during a given tax year. There it is: [tax calculations](http://tools.hmrc.gov.uk/hmrctaxcalculator/investigate/Personal+Tax+Calculator/en-GB/Attribute~b3%40Rules_GlobalProceduralRules_doc~global~global/qs%24s54%40Interviews_Screens_xint%24global%24global?user=guest)
And I'm happy to say: the final table was correct! Chiapa, you can check for yourself with this tool.
To sum up, your taxes are calculated as followed (if you're taxed 20% and allowance is 10,600 per tax year, or 883 per month):
* **cumulative income tax = 0.2\*(income cumulative- tax free cumulative)**
* **income tax paid on month (n) = cumulative income tax on month (n) - cumulative income tax on month (n-1)**
:) | Your payslip should not show tax deductions until you have fully utilised your cumulative personal allowance for the tax year, if you started working somewhere in the middle of the tax year.
example,
Starting date: 01/01/2016
Salary: 2500
Income tax = 20%( £2500 - £7947(883 \*9) ) = 0
£7947 is cumulative personal allowance for 9 months from April, 2015 to Dec, 2015.
This employee will not pay tax for the entire tax year of 2015/2016 as his total income is only £7500 (3\*£2500), which is below the personal allowance.
Assume tax has been deducted by mistake from his income, it will be rebated later on.
Correct me if I made any mistake. |
55,353 | I just started working in the UK for the first time and received my first payslip. Another colleague of mine got his second payslip here, from the same company.
We were surprised that in the detail no amount for "Tax" was deducted.
I researched a bit and found that for the tax code [1060L](http://taxaid.org.uk/guides/information/issues-for-employees/employee/form-p46), specified in our payslip, we got some tax free income for a while.
However, since I'm not an English native speaker, I still have some doubts on how it works.
As I understand it:
* I am entitled to 10600£ per year tax free and until I reach that value, I won't pay tax;
* When I do reach 10600£, taxes will be deducted as for everybody else;
Is this correct? | 2015/10/29 | [
"https://money.stackexchange.com/questions/55353",
"https://money.stackexchange.com",
"https://money.stackexchange.com/users/34465/"
] | CORRECT ANSWER FOUND!
I'm new to the UK and also started work in September 2015. It also drove me insane I had such a hard time understanding how the taxes worked. After a lot of research, I came upon this thread, and read the whole thing, including the bits in the chat where James, you posted the final excel table.
Then I actually realised HMRC gave a pretty useful tool for tax calculations for a given pay date anytime during a given tax year. There it is: [tax calculations](http://tools.hmrc.gov.uk/hmrctaxcalculator/investigate/Personal+Tax+Calculator/en-GB/Attribute~b3%40Rules_GlobalProceduralRules_doc~global~global/qs%24s54%40Interviews_Screens_xint%24global%24global?user=guest)
And I'm happy to say: the final table was correct! Chiapa, you can check for yourself with this tool.
To sum up, your taxes are calculated as followed (if you're taxed 20% and allowance is 10,600 per tax year, or 883 per month):
* **cumulative income tax = 0.2\*(income cumulative- tax free cumulative)**
* **income tax paid on month (n) = cumulative income tax on month (n) - cumulative income tax on month (n-1)**
:) | In the UK, you pay income tax for your income in a tax year, which is from April to March. Roughly speaking, currently there is I think £10,600 of income tax free, then you pay 20% tax on the next £31,000 or so, 40% on another £110,000 and finally 45% on the rest (I'd love to have that problem).
Your employer should make sure that you pay the same amount of tax every month, and that over the tax year you pay the correct amount. If you started work in January and you make £2,000 a month, then your employer can see that you will make £6,000 in the tax year, which is tax free, so you don't pay tax.
If you started work in January and you make £4,000 a month, then your employer can see that you will make £12,000 in the tax year, so you should pay 20% of £1,400 = £280 in that year, so they should deduct about £93.33 of tax every month, so at the end of the year you have paid the right amount.
If this wasn't your first job, then they need to take into account what you made in your previous job, and how much tax was paid in your previous job; you would have a form P45 from your previous employer, which you hand to your next employer so they can do the tax calculation correctly.
"Emergency tax" was mentioned elsewhere: If you switch jobs, and you don't hand over your P45, then the next company doesn't know how much you made in your previous job. They must make sure that you don't pay too little, so they will assume that you made tons of money and have to pay 45% on everything you earn above that, so they will actually deduct 45% tax from your salary. That's called emergency tax. (I might be wrong and it might be only 40%). Of course you can do your tax return at the beginning of the next tax year in April, and HMRC will see that you paid much too much tax, and refund every penny that you overpaid. |
55,353 | I just started working in the UK for the first time and received my first payslip. Another colleague of mine got his second payslip here, from the same company.
We were surprised that in the detail no amount for "Tax" was deducted.
I researched a bit and found that for the tax code [1060L](http://taxaid.org.uk/guides/information/issues-for-employees/employee/form-p46), specified in our payslip, we got some tax free income for a while.
However, since I'm not an English native speaker, I still have some doubts on how it works.
As I understand it:
* I am entitled to 10600£ per year tax free and until I reach that value, I won't pay tax;
* When I do reach 10600£, taxes will be deducted as for everybody else;
Is this correct? | 2015/10/29 | [
"https://money.stackexchange.com/questions/55353",
"https://money.stackexchange.com",
"https://money.stackexchange.com/users/34465/"
] | Tax in the UK is handled on a monthly or weekly basis depending on how often you are paid, so your tax code means that for each month, you will get £10600/12 = £883 tax free and then the rest will be taxed. That means that normally people get about the same amount in each pay packet throughout the year, rather than initially paying no tax and then suddenly starting to pay tax
However, the allowance is actually an annual one for the entire tax year, from April 6th 2015 to April 5th 2016. So in your case if you haven't been working in the UK from April until you started this job, you get to "catch up" with all the allowance you haven't had so far. So in practice you'll get about £5300 of pay tax free and then will start paying tax at the usual monthly rate. That probably explains why you are paying very little tax in the initial months of your employment. | In the UK, you pay income tax for your income in a tax year, which is from April to March. Roughly speaking, currently there is I think £10,600 of income tax free, then you pay 20% tax on the next £31,000 or so, 40% on another £110,000 and finally 45% on the rest (I'd love to have that problem).
Your employer should make sure that you pay the same amount of tax every month, and that over the tax year you pay the correct amount. If you started work in January and you make £2,000 a month, then your employer can see that you will make £6,000 in the tax year, which is tax free, so you don't pay tax.
If you started work in January and you make £4,000 a month, then your employer can see that you will make £12,000 in the tax year, so you should pay 20% of £1,400 = £280 in that year, so they should deduct about £93.33 of tax every month, so at the end of the year you have paid the right amount.
If this wasn't your first job, then they need to take into account what you made in your previous job, and how much tax was paid in your previous job; you would have a form P45 from your previous employer, which you hand to your next employer so they can do the tax calculation correctly.
"Emergency tax" was mentioned elsewhere: If you switch jobs, and you don't hand over your P45, then the next company doesn't know how much you made in your previous job. They must make sure that you don't pay too little, so they will assume that you made tons of money and have to pay 45% on everything you earn above that, so they will actually deduct 45% tax from your salary. That's called emergency tax. (I might be wrong and it might be only 40%). Of course you can do your tax return at the beginning of the next tax year in April, and HMRC will see that you paid much too much tax, and refund every penny that you overpaid. |
55,353 | I just started working in the UK for the first time and received my first payslip. Another colleague of mine got his second payslip here, from the same company.
We were surprised that in the detail no amount for "Tax" was deducted.
I researched a bit and found that for the tax code [1060L](http://taxaid.org.uk/guides/information/issues-for-employees/employee/form-p46), specified in our payslip, we got some tax free income for a while.
However, since I'm not an English native speaker, I still have some doubts on how it works.
As I understand it:
* I am entitled to 10600£ per year tax free and until I reach that value, I won't pay tax;
* When I do reach 10600£, taxes will be deducted as for everybody else;
Is this correct? | 2015/10/29 | [
"https://money.stackexchange.com/questions/55353",
"https://money.stackexchange.com",
"https://money.stackexchange.com/users/34465/"
] | In the UK, you pay income tax for your income in a tax year, which is from April to March. Roughly speaking, currently there is I think £10,600 of income tax free, then you pay 20% tax on the next £31,000 or so, 40% on another £110,000 and finally 45% on the rest (I'd love to have that problem).
Your employer should make sure that you pay the same amount of tax every month, and that over the tax year you pay the correct amount. If you started work in January and you make £2,000 a month, then your employer can see that you will make £6,000 in the tax year, which is tax free, so you don't pay tax.
If you started work in January and you make £4,000 a month, then your employer can see that you will make £12,000 in the tax year, so you should pay 20% of £1,400 = £280 in that year, so they should deduct about £93.33 of tax every month, so at the end of the year you have paid the right amount.
If this wasn't your first job, then they need to take into account what you made in your previous job, and how much tax was paid in your previous job; you would have a form P45 from your previous employer, which you hand to your next employer so they can do the tax calculation correctly.
"Emergency tax" was mentioned elsewhere: If you switch jobs, and you don't hand over your P45, then the next company doesn't know how much you made in your previous job. They must make sure that you don't pay too little, so they will assume that you made tons of money and have to pay 45% on everything you earn above that, so they will actually deduct 45% tax from your salary. That's called emergency tax. (I might be wrong and it might be only 40%). Of course you can do your tax return at the beginning of the next tax year in April, and HMRC will see that you paid much too much tax, and refund every penny that you overpaid. | Your payslip should not show tax deductions until you have fully utilised your cumulative personal allowance for the tax year, if you started working somewhere in the middle of the tax year.
example,
Starting date: 01/01/2016
Salary: 2500
Income tax = 20%( £2500 - £7947(883 \*9) ) = 0
£7947 is cumulative personal allowance for 9 months from April, 2015 to Dec, 2015.
This employee will not pay tax for the entire tax year of 2015/2016 as his total income is only £7500 (3\*£2500), which is below the personal allowance.
Assume tax has been deducted by mistake from his income, it will be rebated later on.
Correct me if I made any mistake. |
55,353 | I just started working in the UK for the first time and received my first payslip. Another colleague of mine got his second payslip here, from the same company.
We were surprised that in the detail no amount for "Tax" was deducted.
I researched a bit and found that for the tax code [1060L](http://taxaid.org.uk/guides/information/issues-for-employees/employee/form-p46), specified in our payslip, we got some tax free income for a while.
However, since I'm not an English native speaker, I still have some doubts on how it works.
As I understand it:
* I am entitled to 10600£ per year tax free and until I reach that value, I won't pay tax;
* When I do reach 10600£, taxes will be deducted as for everybody else;
Is this correct? | 2015/10/29 | [
"https://money.stackexchange.com/questions/55353",
"https://money.stackexchange.com",
"https://money.stackexchange.com/users/34465/"
] | I've *never* had consistent pay for the first couple of months in a new job (UK). Typically there's no tax taken in the first month, most of the first month's tax in the second, and by the third month things have settled down. Although using up the personal allowance over the first few months is sometimes seen, I'm more used to seeing two months of unusual pay then tax taken at a rate to spread the remaining allowance evenly over the rest of the year.
Your pay may change again by more than you expect at the new tax year. In particular as the same personal allowance is spread over more months, your net pay may go down in April (assuming you didn't have a job for the first few months of this tax year)\*.
I suggest two things:
* You figure out roughly how much tax you should have paid in the first month, and make sure to not spend that as your second month's pay may be short a similar amount.
* At the end of the tax year you compare your P60 to an independent figure (actually the P60 can be a couple of months after the end of the tax year, but you can also use the year-to-date figures on your March payslip).
There are many online tax calculators to help you calculate your expected values. I won't recommend one as I haven't used any -- I tend to throw together a spreadsheet from HMRCs allowances data.
If you've had another job in this tax year, you'll need to take into account the figures on the P45 from that job. If you haven't received a P45 yet, your final payslip should give you that information. It's also possible you'll have to take into account any benefits you've received.
\*A bit more detail of how pay can go down in April. You're on a salary of £12,000 PA and you start a job at the beginning of June (having not previously worked this tax year). You therefore earn £10,000 over the course of the tax year, which is less than the personal allowance so you pay no income tax. Next year your salary is unchanged, but you work the entire year, thus over the course of the year you'll be taxed on (£12,000-£10,600=£1400) at 20%. That's a tax bill of £280 over the year, which is likely to be deducted in the form of around £23 per month -- your monthly pay goes down by £23.
A few caveats to this:
* I've ignored NI and any pension contributions.
* The personal allowance normally goes up a little.
* I could easily work a different example with a higher salary (£24,000 salary, start in November, pay goes down £223pm in April as no tax is due in the starting year).
+ Remember the personal allowance is annual. (NI works completely differently, on a weekly basis, but may be regarded as another tax).
**tl;dr** It will fluctuate at first, the year-end figures matter the most. | Your payslip should not show tax deductions until you have fully utilised your cumulative personal allowance for the tax year, if you started working somewhere in the middle of the tax year.
example,
Starting date: 01/01/2016
Salary: 2500
Income tax = 20%( £2500 - £7947(883 \*9) ) = 0
£7947 is cumulative personal allowance for 9 months from April, 2015 to Dec, 2015.
This employee will not pay tax for the entire tax year of 2015/2016 as his total income is only £7500 (3\*£2500), which is below the personal allowance.
Assume tax has been deducted by mistake from his income, it will be rebated later on.
Correct me if I made any mistake. |
55,353 | I just started working in the UK for the first time and received my first payslip. Another colleague of mine got his second payslip here, from the same company.
We were surprised that in the detail no amount for "Tax" was deducted.
I researched a bit and found that for the tax code [1060L](http://taxaid.org.uk/guides/information/issues-for-employees/employee/form-p46), specified in our payslip, we got some tax free income for a while.
However, since I'm not an English native speaker, I still have some doubts on how it works.
As I understand it:
* I am entitled to 10600£ per year tax free and until I reach that value, I won't pay tax;
* When I do reach 10600£, taxes will be deducted as for everybody else;
Is this correct? | 2015/10/29 | [
"https://money.stackexchange.com/questions/55353",
"https://money.stackexchange.com",
"https://money.stackexchange.com/users/34465/"
] | I've *never* had consistent pay for the first couple of months in a new job (UK). Typically there's no tax taken in the first month, most of the first month's tax in the second, and by the third month things have settled down. Although using up the personal allowance over the first few months is sometimes seen, I'm more used to seeing two months of unusual pay then tax taken at a rate to spread the remaining allowance evenly over the rest of the year.
Your pay may change again by more than you expect at the new tax year. In particular as the same personal allowance is spread over more months, your net pay may go down in April (assuming you didn't have a job for the first few months of this tax year)\*.
I suggest two things:
* You figure out roughly how much tax you should have paid in the first month, and make sure to not spend that as your second month's pay may be short a similar amount.
* At the end of the tax year you compare your P60 to an independent figure (actually the P60 can be a couple of months after the end of the tax year, but you can also use the year-to-date figures on your March payslip).
There are many online tax calculators to help you calculate your expected values. I won't recommend one as I haven't used any -- I tend to throw together a spreadsheet from HMRCs allowances data.
If you've had another job in this tax year, you'll need to take into account the figures on the P45 from that job. If you haven't received a P45 yet, your final payslip should give you that information. It's also possible you'll have to take into account any benefits you've received.
\*A bit more detail of how pay can go down in April. You're on a salary of £12,000 PA and you start a job at the beginning of June (having not previously worked this tax year). You therefore earn £10,000 over the course of the tax year, which is less than the personal allowance so you pay no income tax. Next year your salary is unchanged, but you work the entire year, thus over the course of the year you'll be taxed on (£12,000-£10,600=£1400) at 20%. That's a tax bill of £280 over the year, which is likely to be deducted in the form of around £23 per month -- your monthly pay goes down by £23.
A few caveats to this:
* I've ignored NI and any pension contributions.
* The personal allowance normally goes up a little.
* I could easily work a different example with a higher salary (£24,000 salary, start in November, pay goes down £223pm in April as no tax is due in the starting year).
+ Remember the personal allowance is annual. (NI works completely differently, on a weekly basis, but may be regarded as another tax).
**tl;dr** It will fluctuate at first, the year-end figures matter the most. | In the UK, you pay income tax for your income in a tax year, which is from April to March. Roughly speaking, currently there is I think £10,600 of income tax free, then you pay 20% tax on the next £31,000 or so, 40% on another £110,000 and finally 45% on the rest (I'd love to have that problem).
Your employer should make sure that you pay the same amount of tax every month, and that over the tax year you pay the correct amount. If you started work in January and you make £2,000 a month, then your employer can see that you will make £6,000 in the tax year, which is tax free, so you don't pay tax.
If you started work in January and you make £4,000 a month, then your employer can see that you will make £12,000 in the tax year, so you should pay 20% of £1,400 = £280 in that year, so they should deduct about £93.33 of tax every month, so at the end of the year you have paid the right amount.
If this wasn't your first job, then they need to take into account what you made in your previous job, and how much tax was paid in your previous job; you would have a form P45 from your previous employer, which you hand to your next employer so they can do the tax calculation correctly.
"Emergency tax" was mentioned elsewhere: If you switch jobs, and you don't hand over your P45, then the next company doesn't know how much you made in your previous job. They must make sure that you don't pay too little, so they will assume that you made tons of money and have to pay 45% on everything you earn above that, so they will actually deduct 45% tax from your salary. That's called emergency tax. (I might be wrong and it might be only 40%). Of course you can do your tax return at the beginning of the next tax year in April, and HMRC will see that you paid much too much tax, and refund every penny that you overpaid. |
55,353 | I just started working in the UK for the first time and received my first payslip. Another colleague of mine got his second payslip here, from the same company.
We were surprised that in the detail no amount for "Tax" was deducted.
I researched a bit and found that for the tax code [1060L](http://taxaid.org.uk/guides/information/issues-for-employees/employee/form-p46), specified in our payslip, we got some tax free income for a while.
However, since I'm not an English native speaker, I still have some doubts on how it works.
As I understand it:
* I am entitled to 10600£ per year tax free and until I reach that value, I won't pay tax;
* When I do reach 10600£, taxes will be deducted as for everybody else;
Is this correct? | 2015/10/29 | [
"https://money.stackexchange.com/questions/55353",
"https://money.stackexchange.com",
"https://money.stackexchange.com/users/34465/"
] | Tax in the UK is handled on a monthly or weekly basis depending on how often you are paid, so your tax code means that for each month, you will get £10600/12 = £883 tax free and then the rest will be taxed. That means that normally people get about the same amount in each pay packet throughout the year, rather than initially paying no tax and then suddenly starting to pay tax
However, the allowance is actually an annual one for the entire tax year, from April 6th 2015 to April 5th 2016. So in your case if you haven't been working in the UK from April until you started this job, you get to "catch up" with all the allowance you haven't had so far. So in practice you'll get about £5300 of pay tax free and then will start paying tax at the usual monthly rate. That probably explains why you are paying very little tax in the initial months of your employment. | I've *never* had consistent pay for the first couple of months in a new job (UK). Typically there's no tax taken in the first month, most of the first month's tax in the second, and by the third month things have settled down. Although using up the personal allowance over the first few months is sometimes seen, I'm more used to seeing two months of unusual pay then tax taken at a rate to spread the remaining allowance evenly over the rest of the year.
Your pay may change again by more than you expect at the new tax year. In particular as the same personal allowance is spread over more months, your net pay may go down in April (assuming you didn't have a job for the first few months of this tax year)\*.
I suggest two things:
* You figure out roughly how much tax you should have paid in the first month, and make sure to not spend that as your second month's pay may be short a similar amount.
* At the end of the tax year you compare your P60 to an independent figure (actually the P60 can be a couple of months after the end of the tax year, but you can also use the year-to-date figures on your March payslip).
There are many online tax calculators to help you calculate your expected values. I won't recommend one as I haven't used any -- I tend to throw together a spreadsheet from HMRCs allowances data.
If you've had another job in this tax year, you'll need to take into account the figures on the P45 from that job. If you haven't received a P45 yet, your final payslip should give you that information. It's also possible you'll have to take into account any benefits you've received.
\*A bit more detail of how pay can go down in April. You're on a salary of £12,000 PA and you start a job at the beginning of June (having not previously worked this tax year). You therefore earn £10,000 over the course of the tax year, which is less than the personal allowance so you pay no income tax. Next year your salary is unchanged, but you work the entire year, thus over the course of the year you'll be taxed on (£12,000-£10,600=£1400) at 20%. That's a tax bill of £280 over the year, which is likely to be deducted in the form of around £23 per month -- your monthly pay goes down by £23.
A few caveats to this:
* I've ignored NI and any pension contributions.
* The personal allowance normally goes up a little.
* I could easily work a different example with a higher salary (£24,000 salary, start in November, pay goes down £223pm in April as no tax is due in the starting year).
+ Remember the personal allowance is annual. (NI works completely differently, on a weekly basis, but may be regarded as another tax).
**tl;dr** It will fluctuate at first, the year-end figures matter the most. |
7,481,529 | I have xml configs which are very complex. They are validated using dtds. I am looking for some application which reads the dtds and provides a GUI interface to write xmls. So that we don't have to write xmls by hand. If there is nothing existing already, how to start with developing one? | 2011/09/20 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/7481529",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/463758/"
] | did you try [Eclipse](http://www.eclipse.org/)?
You can edit XML files according to the DTD.
If your audience is not development oriented, you can have a look to [Editix XML Editor](http://www.editix.com/) (the free version is already fully usable) or [Notepad++](http://notepad-plus-plus.org/) (a strange mix between the classic windows notepad and eclipse ;) ).
Otherwise, if you want to write come code, have a look to [wxPython](http://www.wxpython.org/) there are some widgets to edit/view HTML and XML. | Take a look at [oXygen XML Author](http://www.oxygenxml.com/xml_author.html). It's not intended for programmers/developers like oXygen XML Editor is. It's a WYSIWYG XML authoring tool. You can create CSS stylesheets to display the XML in a way that is easy for the authors to create/modify the XML.
It's not free and you'll have to create CSS for display, but it is *much* better than trying to develop something from scratch. It also supports creating templates so that authors can start with a base XML file and then modify/update. |
39,729 | >
> **Possible Duplicate:**
>
> [Which words in a title should be capitalized?](https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/14/which-words-in-a-title-should-be-capitalized)
>
>
>
If I'm using an idiom in a title then should all the elements of the phrase be capitalized or just the ones that are usually in capitals?
For example, which of the following should be used?
>
> be up and Running
>
>
> be Up and Running
>
>
> be Up And Running
>
>
> | 2011/08/28 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/39729",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/12476/"
] | An option is *trying to carry water in a sieve*. As this [book](http://books.google.com/books?id=CFO5rVMg4pkC&pg=PA167&lpg=PA167&dq=trying+to+carry+water+with+a+sieve+meaning&source=bl&ots=scJy80bH4n&sig=_-mOgGUa7bihnbjYwnkedQGW3Ao&hl=en&ei=nMVZTufjK4nfiALwiOyiCQ&sa=X&oi=book_result&ct=result&resnum=4&sqi=2&ved=0CCwQ6AEwAw#v=onepage&q=trying%20to%20carry%20water%20with%20a%20sieve%20meaning&f=false) explains, it means:
>
> to try to achieve a goal in a manner that dooms the action to failure, using a totally inappropriate means for attaining this objective
>
>
>
That is, it means to do something futile. [Examples](http://books.google.com/books?id=wuLrTJ0wtlMC&pg=PA81&lpg=PA81&dq=fetch%20%22water%20in%20a%20sieve%22%20meaning&source=bl&ots=cwAbjVC93K&sig=sMgXN6zluceAlu_B4zFFTNkhhng&hl=en&ei=4MZZTqXrE6fkiALV-um8CQ&sa=X&oi=book_result&ct=result&resnum=1&ved=0CBYQ6AEwAA#v=onepage&q=sieve&f=false) of this phrase (in various wordings) in use are:
>
> It doesn't look like I've accomplished anything today. I might as well have been carrying water in a sieve.
>
>
>
So, you could use this to *describe* the people. For example, you would say that
>
> the band trying to make themselves ready by arranging their chairs properly are trying to carry water with a sieve
>
>
>
Or,
>
> The girl is trying to swim by reading books. She may as well be carrying water in a sieve.
>
>
>
---
Another option is [*barking up the wrong tree*](http://www.eflnet.com/idioms/idiomlist.php), or:
>
> Pursue the wrong thing; to take the wrong approach.
>
>
> Don't ask me for a pay raise. You're barking up the wrong tree. I have no authority to give anybody a pay raise.
>
>
>
However, this phrase has the connotation of being a bit more aggressive than the previous one. If you are judging the people who are doing the wrong thing, then you can definitely use this phrase. But, if you want to take more of a neutral tone, I would recommend the first phrase. | From the examples you give, i can think of a few:
* misguided efforts
* benighted attempts
* foolish reasoning
and so on. Pretty much anything you want to come up with will do, i think.
As for idioms...perhaps
* going about things in the wrong way
* banging their heads against a wall",
* flailing about in the dark |
39,729 | >
> **Possible Duplicate:**
>
> [Which words in a title should be capitalized?](https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/14/which-words-in-a-title-should-be-capitalized)
>
>
>
If I'm using an idiom in a title then should all the elements of the phrase be capitalized or just the ones that are usually in capitals?
For example, which of the following should be used?
>
> be up and Running
>
>
> be Up and Running
>
>
> be Up And Running
>
>
> | 2011/08/28 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/39729",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/12476/"
] | An option is *trying to carry water in a sieve*. As this [book](http://books.google.com/books?id=CFO5rVMg4pkC&pg=PA167&lpg=PA167&dq=trying+to+carry+water+with+a+sieve+meaning&source=bl&ots=scJy80bH4n&sig=_-mOgGUa7bihnbjYwnkedQGW3Ao&hl=en&ei=nMVZTufjK4nfiALwiOyiCQ&sa=X&oi=book_result&ct=result&resnum=4&sqi=2&ved=0CCwQ6AEwAw#v=onepage&q=trying%20to%20carry%20water%20with%20a%20sieve%20meaning&f=false) explains, it means:
>
> to try to achieve a goal in a manner that dooms the action to failure, using a totally inappropriate means for attaining this objective
>
>
>
That is, it means to do something futile. [Examples](http://books.google.com/books?id=wuLrTJ0wtlMC&pg=PA81&lpg=PA81&dq=fetch%20%22water%20in%20a%20sieve%22%20meaning&source=bl&ots=cwAbjVC93K&sig=sMgXN6zluceAlu_B4zFFTNkhhng&hl=en&ei=4MZZTqXrE6fkiALV-um8CQ&sa=X&oi=book_result&ct=result&resnum=1&ved=0CBYQ6AEwAA#v=onepage&q=sieve&f=false) of this phrase (in various wordings) in use are:
>
> It doesn't look like I've accomplished anything today. I might as well have been carrying water in a sieve.
>
>
>
So, you could use this to *describe* the people. For example, you would say that
>
> the band trying to make themselves ready by arranging their chairs properly are trying to carry water with a sieve
>
>
>
Or,
>
> The girl is trying to swim by reading books. She may as well be carrying water in a sieve.
>
>
>
---
Another option is [*barking up the wrong tree*](http://www.eflnet.com/idioms/idiomlist.php), or:
>
> Pursue the wrong thing; to take the wrong approach.
>
>
> Don't ask me for a pay raise. You're barking up the wrong tree. I have no authority to give anybody a pay raise.
>
>
>
However, this phrase has the connotation of being a bit more aggressive than the previous one. If you are judging the people who are doing the wrong thing, then you can definitely use this phrase. But, if you want to take more of a neutral tone, I would recommend the first phrase. | If the people concerned are fussing over details while ignoring the big picture, you might say they are [bikeshedding](http://en.wiktionary.org/wiki/bikeshedding):
>
> implies technical disputes over minor, marginal issues conducted while more serious ones are being overlooked. The implied image is of people arguing over what color to paint the bicycle shed while the house is not finished.
>
>
> |
39,729 | >
> **Possible Duplicate:**
>
> [Which words in a title should be capitalized?](https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/14/which-words-in-a-title-should-be-capitalized)
>
>
>
If I'm using an idiom in a title then should all the elements of the phrase be capitalized or just the ones that are usually in capitals?
For example, which of the following should be used?
>
> be up and Running
>
>
> be Up and Running
>
>
> be Up And Running
>
>
> | 2011/08/28 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/39729",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/12476/"
] | An option is *trying to carry water in a sieve*. As this [book](http://books.google.com/books?id=CFO5rVMg4pkC&pg=PA167&lpg=PA167&dq=trying+to+carry+water+with+a+sieve+meaning&source=bl&ots=scJy80bH4n&sig=_-mOgGUa7bihnbjYwnkedQGW3Ao&hl=en&ei=nMVZTufjK4nfiALwiOyiCQ&sa=X&oi=book_result&ct=result&resnum=4&sqi=2&ved=0CCwQ6AEwAw#v=onepage&q=trying%20to%20carry%20water%20with%20a%20sieve%20meaning&f=false) explains, it means:
>
> to try to achieve a goal in a manner that dooms the action to failure, using a totally inappropriate means for attaining this objective
>
>
>
That is, it means to do something futile. [Examples](http://books.google.com/books?id=wuLrTJ0wtlMC&pg=PA81&lpg=PA81&dq=fetch%20%22water%20in%20a%20sieve%22%20meaning&source=bl&ots=cwAbjVC93K&sig=sMgXN6zluceAlu_B4zFFTNkhhng&hl=en&ei=4MZZTqXrE6fkiALV-um8CQ&sa=X&oi=book_result&ct=result&resnum=1&ved=0CBYQ6AEwAA#v=onepage&q=sieve&f=false) of this phrase (in various wordings) in use are:
>
> It doesn't look like I've accomplished anything today. I might as well have been carrying water in a sieve.
>
>
>
So, you could use this to *describe* the people. For example, you would say that
>
> the band trying to make themselves ready by arranging their chairs properly are trying to carry water with a sieve
>
>
>
Or,
>
> The girl is trying to swim by reading books. She may as well be carrying water in a sieve.
>
>
>
---
Another option is [*barking up the wrong tree*](http://www.eflnet.com/idioms/idiomlist.php), or:
>
> Pursue the wrong thing; to take the wrong approach.
>
>
> Don't ask me for a pay raise. You're barking up the wrong tree. I have no authority to give anybody a pay raise.
>
>
>
However, this phrase has the connotation of being a bit more aggressive than the previous one. If you are judging the people who are doing the wrong thing, then you can definitely use this phrase. But, if you want to take more of a neutral tone, I would recommend the first phrase. | succumbing to the sunk cost dilemma. Here's the link:
<http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Sunk_cost_dilemma> |
39,729 | >
> **Possible Duplicate:**
>
> [Which words in a title should be capitalized?](https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/14/which-words-in-a-title-should-be-capitalized)
>
>
>
If I'm using an idiom in a title then should all the elements of the phrase be capitalized or just the ones that are usually in capitals?
For example, which of the following should be used?
>
> be up and Running
>
>
> be Up and Running
>
>
> be Up And Running
>
>
> | 2011/08/28 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/39729",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/12476/"
] | If the people concerned are fussing over details while ignoring the big picture, you might say they are [bikeshedding](http://en.wiktionary.org/wiki/bikeshedding):
>
> implies technical disputes over minor, marginal issues conducted while more serious ones are being overlooked. The implied image is of people arguing over what color to paint the bicycle shed while the house is not finished.
>
>
> | From the examples you give, i can think of a few:
* misguided efforts
* benighted attempts
* foolish reasoning
and so on. Pretty much anything you want to come up with will do, i think.
As for idioms...perhaps
* going about things in the wrong way
* banging their heads against a wall",
* flailing about in the dark |
39,729 | >
> **Possible Duplicate:**
>
> [Which words in a title should be capitalized?](https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/14/which-words-in-a-title-should-be-capitalized)
>
>
>
If I'm using an idiom in a title then should all the elements of the phrase be capitalized or just the ones that are usually in capitals?
For example, which of the following should be used?
>
> be up and Running
>
>
> be Up and Running
>
>
> be Up And Running
>
>
> | 2011/08/28 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/39729",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/12476/"
] | If the people concerned are fussing over details while ignoring the big picture, you might say they are [bikeshedding](http://en.wiktionary.org/wiki/bikeshedding):
>
> implies technical disputes over minor, marginal issues conducted while more serious ones are being overlooked. The implied image is of people arguing over what color to paint the bicycle shed while the house is not finished.
>
>
> | succumbing to the sunk cost dilemma. Here's the link:
<http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Sunk_cost_dilemma> |
105,181 | I have a transactional Replication (Non-SQL Server Publishers - Oracle) implemented for one SQL Server Database. Let's say Publishers: A, B
Subscriber: C
Note:
* I can not modify the Oracle DBs.
* The Publishers have the same DB schema.
* On the subscriber I have the same tables, with one column more "Publisher" to identify where that line comes from.
I used the After-Snapshot Script to create and populate this column for the Initial Load for the Publisher A.
Also, created a (After-Snapshot) script for the publisher B to populate the column.
It works when I do the first snapshot for A, and my bulkload fails for B with the following error:
>
> Replication-Replication Distribution Subsystem: agent AgentName failed. The process could not bulk copy into table '"dbo"."EMployees"
>
>
> Error Log: Error: 14151, Severity: 18, State: 1.
>
>
> Replication Monitor Source: MSSQL\_REPL, Error number: MSSQL\_REPL20037)
>
>
>
Anyone has an idea? Is it due the schema difference between B and C, since when the A does the bulkload there is no table and first I create the table, then do the initial load, the do the alter table to add the column, update values to be ready for the second bulk load? | 2015/06/25 | [
"https://dba.stackexchange.com/questions/105181",
"https://dba.stackexchange.com",
"https://dba.stackexchange.com/users/68120/"
] | I'm not sure of the limitations of transactional replication, but with BCP you can create a view on the table that contains only columns that exist in the BCP file, and load into that view rather than the table. How do you define the data for the publisher column at the moment? | it is failing because snapshot agent is generating a bcp file that does *NOT* contain that extra column, when it runs against Publisher B. Distribution agent is trying to apply a bcp file that has one less column into the subscriber table. I think what you want to do it initialize without a snapshot. I don't know if that is supported for Oracle publisher though, you may need to try it out. |
6,115,960 | I am new to the world of coding as well as CSS and have noticed that when I resize my browser, all my float elements move to say the right and the user is forced to scroll horizontally to view say the menu.
Firstly is there a need to prevent float elements not changing their position?
Secondly, is there a way I can avoid this if I should be preventing it? | 2011/05/24 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/6115960",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/700543/"
] | Floats are a pain in the butt. Primarily because of the one browser that refuses to follow the universal web standards. Yeah, that one.
There are a million and one tricks to avoid these problems. I tell my team to follow these steps:
1. Use absolutely positioned elements sparingly. If you position based on another element, things can "auto-adjust" but not so much when things are mathematically glued to one spot. They have their place, just not on every element on a page.
2. Consider a "reset" or grid-based CSS layout. I personally prefer [960 Grids](http://www.960.gs) They take the guesswork out of the various different browsers. Will IE push your padding out? Will the IE-specific padding be too much or too little with Firefox? With a reset and/or a grid, it's not as big a deal.
3. When doing percentages (which I personally really like) remember that browser generally don't use math where 1 + 1 = 2. That is to say, if you have a 1000 pixel space and you do two 50% columns side by side, chances are very good one is going to push itself below the other. Why? Because floats, margins, borders, etc. add up, and all differently in different browsers. So, think that .9 + .9 = 2 when you design. Does it work all the time? Nope. But it's a start.
4. Test, test, test. Things like browsershots, Adobe Browser Labs, etc are your friend. Use them constantly to ensure you're putting out good quality code that looks consistent across all platforms.
5. Keep it simple. You might be working on a project that dictates 100 different style sheets covering every single version of every browser. Most of us work on real-world projects with real-world budgets...that means you have to deploy quickly and efficiently. Use good quality w3 compliant code and quality CSS and you can completely avoid hacks. | I'd suggest you figure out if you want to support differing resolutions, depending on your target audience. Elements moving around isn't necessarily a bad thing, and planning in advance how you want your site to layout depending on viewport size could be important.
If you can't find a fixed-width, "one layout to rule them all" that works for your needs, take a look at [CSS media queries](http://www.w3.org/TR/css3-mediaqueries/). For a more practical article on them, try [A List Apart](http://www.alistapart.com/articles/responsive-web-design/)
The basic idea is that, using separate stylesheets that depend on size, you can basically display a different layout to the user depending on their viewport. Users resizing their browsers will be able to see the new layout dynamically as well. |
22,380,864 | In previous versions of IE developer tools you were able to open the source of CSS files in the debugger.
This was of most use to verify that they had actually been downloaded / referenced correctly, ie if the request for a stylesheet returned a 404 error then thats the route cause of my styles not being applied.
However as of IE 11 the debugger no longer lists CSS files, so I can't use that to view their source and verify them.
I know that I can do this through the profiler - but that requires starting a profile trace and reloading the page, which is not exactly conducive to easy work flow. (Not to the frequent lock ups the F12 tools seem to experience on any of the profile tabs is used)
Is there still away through the dev tools to see the source of CSS files? | 2014/03/13 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/22380864",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1286358/"
] | I don't believe so. There is a Connect issue reporting this and MS says they have it on their backlog for a "potential" future release. [IE11: CSS tab missing in new F12 Developer Tools](http://connect.microsoft.com/IE/feedback/details/811076/ie11-css-tab-missing-in-new-f12-developer-tools)
Update: Microsoft has announced via the [UserVoice site for Internet Explorer](https://wpdev.uservoice.com/forums/257854-internet-explorer-platform/suggestions/6595812-developer-tools-bring-back-css-tab-and-put-it-in) that they are planning on bringing it back. | I was surprised to discover this today, and resorted to using the Chrome F12 tool - Under the Resources Tab in the left hand panel you can expand Frames to access Images, Scripts and Stylesheets for your page - CSS are in the last of these of course.
It goes without saying that this only helps if you have access to Chrome and the site supports it. |
22,380,864 | In previous versions of IE developer tools you were able to open the source of CSS files in the debugger.
This was of most use to verify that they had actually been downloaded / referenced correctly, ie if the request for a stylesheet returned a 404 error then thats the route cause of my styles not being applied.
However as of IE 11 the debugger no longer lists CSS files, so I can't use that to view their source and verify them.
I know that I can do this through the profiler - but that requires starting a profile trace and reloading the page, which is not exactly conducive to easy work flow. (Not to the frequent lock ups the F12 tools seem to experience on any of the profile tabs is used)
Is there still away through the dev tools to see the source of CSS files? | 2014/03/13 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/22380864",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1286358/"
] | I don't believe so. There is a Connect issue reporting this and MS says they have it on their backlog for a "potential" future release. [IE11: CSS tab missing in new F12 Developer Tools](http://connect.microsoft.com/IE/feedback/details/811076/ie11-css-tab-missing-in-new-f12-developer-tools)
Update: Microsoft has announced via the [UserVoice site for Internet Explorer](https://wpdev.uservoice.com/forums/257854-internet-explorer-platform/suggestions/6595812-developer-tools-bring-back-css-tab-and-put-it-in) that they are planning on bringing it back. | The CSS tab is missing, and the debugger does not list CSS files either.
However, If you find an element in the dom explorer with styles applied from a css file, you can then click on the file name and open the entire file. |
22,380,864 | In previous versions of IE developer tools you were able to open the source of CSS files in the debugger.
This was of most use to verify that they had actually been downloaded / referenced correctly, ie if the request for a stylesheet returned a 404 error then thats the route cause of my styles not being applied.
However as of IE 11 the debugger no longer lists CSS files, so I can't use that to view their source and verify them.
I know that I can do this through the profiler - but that requires starting a profile trace and reloading the page, which is not exactly conducive to easy work flow. (Not to the frequent lock ups the F12 tools seem to experience on any of the profile tabs is used)
Is there still away through the dev tools to see the source of CSS files? | 2014/03/13 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/22380864",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1286358/"
] | I don't believe so. There is a Connect issue reporting this and MS says they have it on their backlog for a "potential" future release. [IE11: CSS tab missing in new F12 Developer Tools](http://connect.microsoft.com/IE/feedback/details/811076/ie11-css-tab-missing-in-new-f12-developer-tools)
Update: Microsoft has announced via the [UserVoice site for Internet Explorer](https://wpdev.uservoice.com/forums/257854-internet-explorer-platform/suggestions/6595812-developer-tools-bring-back-css-tab-and-put-it-in) that they are planning on bringing it back. | In developer tools, go to the Network tab. Click the arrow (when you hover over it, it will say "Enable network traffic capturing"). It will turn into a square to indicate that it is capturing network traffic. Refresh the page. Click type to sort by type and look for "text/css". Double click the file. Click "Response body". You will see the CSS contents there.
To manually add styles, go to the DOM Explorer. Click an element in your webpage and it should bring you to that part of the webpage. You can add styles to the elements in the DOM Explorer or in the left window, you will see "Inline style" (if there are no CSS classes) or you'll see "Inline style" as well as the CSS class and its details. You can click in there to make changes. |
22,380,864 | In previous versions of IE developer tools you were able to open the source of CSS files in the debugger.
This was of most use to verify that they had actually been downloaded / referenced correctly, ie if the request for a stylesheet returned a 404 error then thats the route cause of my styles not being applied.
However as of IE 11 the debugger no longer lists CSS files, so I can't use that to view their source and verify them.
I know that I can do this through the profiler - but that requires starting a profile trace and reloading the page, which is not exactly conducive to easy work flow. (Not to the frequent lock ups the F12 tools seem to experience on any of the profile tabs is used)
Is there still away through the dev tools to see the source of CSS files? | 2014/03/13 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/22380864",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1286358/"
] | The CSS tab is missing, and the debugger does not list CSS files either.
However, If you find an element in the dom explorer with styles applied from a css file, you can then click on the file name and open the entire file. | I was surprised to discover this today, and resorted to using the Chrome F12 tool - Under the Resources Tab in the left hand panel you can expand Frames to access Images, Scripts and Stylesheets for your page - CSS are in the last of these of course.
It goes without saying that this only helps if you have access to Chrome and the site supports it. |
22,380,864 | In previous versions of IE developer tools you were able to open the source of CSS files in the debugger.
This was of most use to verify that they had actually been downloaded / referenced correctly, ie if the request for a stylesheet returned a 404 error then thats the route cause of my styles not being applied.
However as of IE 11 the debugger no longer lists CSS files, so I can't use that to view their source and verify them.
I know that I can do this through the profiler - but that requires starting a profile trace and reloading the page, which is not exactly conducive to easy work flow. (Not to the frequent lock ups the F12 tools seem to experience on any of the profile tabs is used)
Is there still away through the dev tools to see the source of CSS files? | 2014/03/13 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/22380864",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1286358/"
] | The CSS tab is missing, and the debugger does not list CSS files either.
However, If you find an element in the dom explorer with styles applied from a css file, you can then click on the file name and open the entire file. | In developer tools, go to the Network tab. Click the arrow (when you hover over it, it will say "Enable network traffic capturing"). It will turn into a square to indicate that it is capturing network traffic. Refresh the page. Click type to sort by type and look for "text/css". Double click the file. Click "Response body". You will see the CSS contents there.
To manually add styles, go to the DOM Explorer. Click an element in your webpage and it should bring you to that part of the webpage. You can add styles to the elements in the DOM Explorer or in the left window, you will see "Inline style" (if there are no CSS classes) or you'll see "Inline style" as well as the CSS class and its details. You can click in there to make changes. |
20,143 | I'm doing a research for conceptual Logodesigns which should fit into a ecosystem.
I'm not sure if logosystems, ecosystems or logofamilies are the right terms.
I'm thinking about logosets like the Adobe Creative suite or the logofamily of the wikipedia foundation.
Do you know any other Logofamilies like these two examples?
Thank you. | 2013/08/07 | [
"https://graphicdesign.stackexchange.com/questions/20143",
"https://graphicdesign.stackexchange.com",
"https://graphicdesign.stackexchange.com/users/9198/"
] | Family is a correct-ish term. There are various substitute terms available to describe branding and the many types of branding, but they all follow a general structure. The following infographic is a simple yet powerfully obvious example of **some** of the different types of ***brand sets*** (for want of a better term):
Taken from a report about [managing brand architecture strategy when extending from B2B to B2C](http://www.labbrand.com/knowledge/labreport/how-manage-brand-architecture-strategy-when-extending-b2b-b2c) | Depending on what you're looking for, there are a lot of ways to achieve harmony in an ecosystem of products and/or services. As JohnB said in a comment and as you note, Adobe Creative Suite and Microsoft Office are great examples:
An example that came to mind was the case where sports blogging network [SB Nation redesigned their logos](http://www.underconsideration.com/brandnew/archives/its_a_sports_nation_we_are_only_living_in_it.php). Below is a sample, but I encourage you to visit the post to see how disconnected they all were before and how unified they look now:
### Logos are kind of like Icons
Icons are a lot like logos in terms of the design process. With logos, you're trying to reduce a brand, an idea, a product into something that's simple, memorable, and flexible. With icons, it's a similar story. So when a commenter pointed out that the SB Nation logos reminded him of [Foursquare badges](http://mattersofgrey.com/foursquare-badge-list/), he makes a good connection.
Therefore, it might be worthwhile to check out some icons families, like this one designed by [Susan Kare](http://kare.com/portfolio/22_hyperion.html):
[Here](http://turbomilk.com/portfolio/icons/intuit-customer-manager/) are [some](http://www.yellowicon.com/portfolio/icons/ubuntu) other [icon](http://fortawesome.github.io/Font-Awesome/icons/) examples [that](http://webdesignledger.com/freebies/all-the-small-icons-youll-ever-need) could inspire you.
[An image on Wikimedia](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/File:Icon_design_process_%D1%81%D1%81.png) provides a nice infographic on the icon design process ([Here's a link to the author Andaja's page](http://gentleface.com/custom_icon_design_process.html)...not sure which link will stick around longer.). I reference it for this particular part:
So, logos or icons that share a color palette, or a type of perspective, or a certain degree or method of abstraction will look more unified.
### Identity is more than logos
Sometimes the logo stays the same, but a unified ecosystem can still be created by other means. [XL Insurance is a great example](http://www.underconsideration.com/brandnew/archives/an_xlent_redesign.php):
Branding firm Wolff Olins did this for [Staples](http://www.wolffolins.com/work/staples) and [USA Today](http://www.wolffolins.com/work/usa-today):
A final great example is when [Nickelodeon rebranded](http://www.underconsideration.com/brandnew/archives/new_nick.php). See how they went from logos that were pretty scattershot to a set of brands that were well-integrated:
You can't go wrong going to sites like [Brand New](http://www.underconsideration.com/brandnew/) and [Wolff Olins](http://www.wolffolins.com/work/) to see how brands do it! |
308,595 | I'm building a site with two main categories.
One side is portfolio work, the other is written work.
Among the written work, there will be personal blogs, tutorials, more in-depth articles, etc. I'm looking for a short, preferably single-word name for all of my written work.
I thought about using 'writings', but it feels a bit like bad choice because it's so close to the verb to *write*. Does anyone have opinions on this option or suggestion for a single word? | 2016/02/20 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/308595",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/132029/"
] | You could consider using "[**post**](http://www.oxforddictionaries.com/definition/english/post)" which means:
>
> A piece of writing, image, or other item of content **published online**,
> typically on a blog or social media website: '*in a recent post, he cautioned investors to be wary of these predictions*'.
>
>
>
It is better than "[writings](http://www.oxforddictionaries.com/definition/english/writing)" as they include
>
> books, stories, or other written works.
>
>
>
[Oxford Online Dictionary] | I have two suggestions. The first is **essays**. NOAD defines *essay* as
>
> **essay** (*n.*)
>
> a short piece of writing on a particular subject
>
>
>
The second would be **musings**. Again, from NOAD:
>
> **musing** (*n.*)
>
> (usu. **musings**)
>
> a period of reflection or thought
>
>
>
---
By itself, *musings* wouldn't necessarily imply written works – not in the same way *essays* would. However, in the context of a website, the word "musings" would imply *written* musings, I think. If most of these articles had a personal touch, such a heading could give your website a more "homey" feel. |
235,598 | I have a 30 mA sensitivity differential switch which cuts each time I lift the power switch even if the circuit breakers for the sockets and the lighting are off (even if all the circuit breakers on the panel are off).
I know that the differential switch cuts off if there is a current leak, but all the circuit breakers which supply the sub-circuits of the house are cut previously, I have searched a lot to solve this problem but the differential switch remains tripped, I replaced the differential switch but the problem is still happening.
Any idea why this problem still happening?
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/d5LwZ.jpg) | 2021/09/28 | [
"https://diy.stackexchange.com/questions/235598",
"https://diy.stackexchange.com",
"https://diy.stackexchange.com/users/142119/"
] | As usual, DrSparks beat me to it :)
But yeah, what's going on is the differential device (RCD or GFCI as we call it) is monitoring the current on both hot and neutral, and comparing them. They should be equal. If they're not equal, current is going somewhere it should not.
Your circuit breakers are single-pole. They switch hot, but they do not switch neutral. See the flaw in your testing? You are disconnecting the hot wires, but not the neutral wires. They are still in-circuit.
So what is going on?
First, we can cross off (eliminate) current going from protected hot to anywhere, since all the breakers are off. That leaves current going from protected neutral to anywhere else.
We would guess the current is moving to earth - but it could as easily be to any unprotectetd wiring, another apartment's load, or commons space loads.
#### Possibility 1: Poached neutral. A hot *not fed from this panel* is using your neutral.
Electrical codes requires every neutral be partner to a hot wire\*, and only serve loads served by that hot wire. RCD/GFCI keeps you honest. But before those, people were sloppy, and would attach any load to the most convenient neutral. (bad for other reasons). You find out about this when you try to add GFCI/RCD protection: the device trips instantly, and you're forced into a "bug hunt".
*However, in your case, all your circuit breakers are off, so this would have to be a circuit not served from this panel. Are you in a building with other panels or services?*
#### Possibility 2: Leakage from your neutral to earth
I say that because your diagram shows a [TT type](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Earthing_system#TT_network) earthing arrangement. With TT, you have a local earthing rod attached to your earth wiring... but *you do NOT bond it in your service panel to utility's neutral*. You are placing blind faith in the energy supplier to have the neutral bonded to earth before you receive it.
As such, there will inevitably be a (small) voltage difference between the power company's neutral and your locally derived earth. That difference means that neutral-ground leakage will result in current flow, which will trip the RCD. | If you have a neutral ground fault somewhere, having the sub CBs off will not prevent the RCCB from tripping. You probably have a neutral ground fault somewhere. |
95,937 | I'm currently a grad student in a moderately large department. I share an office with a few other grad students, and I get along with all of them fairly well. However, one of my officemates is rather loud and unfiltered with what he says in and around the department. The office walls are very thin, they are movable partitions, and the professor next to us clearly dislikes the noise and behavior. I'm very concerned with how this may be affecting my reputation around the department. I like my officemate, but the immature behavior is very noticeable.
How should I deal with this situation? I can't really ask for a new office, but I don't want to be associated with the poor behavior. I've talked to him about it, but I don't want to constantly remind him to be quiet or conscientious of other people. I am at a loss with this situation. Any suggestions would be greatly appreciated. Thanks. | 2017/09/14 | [
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/questions/95937",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/users/79842/"
] | If your only concern is for your reputation, I think any such concern is entirely unwarranted, and your best course of action is to do nothing and simply not worry about it. You are in no way becoming "associated" with the other student's poor behavior by occupying the same office as him, which you have been assigned by the department. The student's behavior will not reflect well on *him*, but unless you and him are identical twins or just happen to have extremely similar voices, which I find difficult to believe, as long as you do not emulate his behavior or egg him on in some conspicuous way, I don't see any chance that anyone will think you have a role in the way he behaves.
If the student's behavior bothers you for reasons unrelated to protecting your reputation, or if you are unwilling to accept the advice in my first paragraph, some options you may want to consider are:
1. Remind him again that his behavior bothers you, perhaps pointing out that you noticed that the professor in the office next door is unhappy with the noise and are concerned that his loudness may hurt *his* reputation.
2. Send an email to the department chair pointing out the student's loudness, and ask to be assigned to a different office and/or for the chair to do something to make the student improve his behavior.
3. Send an anonymous email if you prefer that it not become known that it was you who made the complaint.
4. Talk to your other officemates to try to get their assistance in getting the loud student to change his behavior. (Peer pressure can be a powerful inducement agent.)
5. This is a defeatist option that I would not recommend, but if all else fails you can stop coming to the office (or at least minimize your presence there as much as possible) and find some other place to do your work. | I don't see why you should feel associated with this person's actions, just because you share an office. If they are speaking loudly, those who can hear will recognise their voice.
While it may be that your office mate is simply immature, among grad students it may well be that something else is going on. It is possible that repeated reminders to be quieter would be the right thing.
Alternatively, if they start talking to you, you could say 'Let's go find somewhere we can talk without disturbing other people,' or you could try having an office agreement of fixed 'silent times' when everyone gets on with their own work without any discussion. |
86,076 | I have an [HTC Hero](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/HTC_Hero) Android (European version) unlocked phone. Is there an app that will let me type away all my text messages on my PC and send the SMSes directly from the PC through my phone?
I'm basically looking at something like a Nokia PC Suite's equivalent. | 2009/12/21 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/86076",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/19306/"
] | I strongly recommend [MyPhone Explorer](http://www.fjsoft.at/en/), Just install the myphone explorer client on the phone and that is it! | A lot of these answers are dated.
Installing [Airdroid](http://airdroid.com) on your device is the latest way to do this as of 2015 |
86,076 | I have an [HTC Hero](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/HTC_Hero) Android (European version) unlocked phone. Is there an app that will let me type away all my text messages on my PC and send the SMSes directly from the PC through my phone?
I'm basically looking at something like a Nokia PC Suite's equivalent. | 2009/12/21 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/86076",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/19306/"
] | It seems that [DroidMessenger](http://www.droidmessenger.com/) can do just that. | I have never of heard of what you're looking for, but if you're in a pinch Google allows SMS through your Gmail account and is independent of your phone. You have to enable the feature from Gmail Labs. |
86,076 | I have an [HTC Hero](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/HTC_Hero) Android (European version) unlocked phone. Is there an app that will let me type away all my text messages on my PC and send the SMSes directly from the PC through my phone?
I'm basically looking at something like a Nokia PC Suite's equivalent. | 2009/12/21 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/86076",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/19306/"
] | I've looked at DesktopSMS, EasySMS, RemoteSMS, Droid Messenger, MightyText and BrowserTexting.
Droid Messenger has you go through their website, which is a deal breaker for anyone who cares about the privacy of their text messages.
DekstopSMS is full of bugs and hasn't been maintained since August 2009.
I haven't tried RemoteSMS but the free version only supports WiFi and at work my laptop is on a network that my Android can't access, so I couldn't use it there.
[EasySMS](http://www.fireblade.org/EasySMS/) was the winner so far. Free with an option to donate 1 EUR for messages longer than 160 chars, with author actively working on the few outstanding issues, SMS threads are displayed in the browser over a local connection to the phone (no information leaves the phone or your computer). Worked fine over USB, including the in-browser notifications of new SMSes. Shows incoming MMSes. On the down-side, it can't mark as read on the phone the messages you have read in the browser, so if you have a notification LED flashing for incoming texts, it will keep flashing until you read the message on the Android.
[BrowserTexting](http://www.browsertexting.com/) is free (but not open source) and uses AES end-to-end encryption between browser and the Android. The website doesn't explain exactly how it works, but presumably the android app and your web browser both connect to the browsertexting.com server. Features include no need to have mobile on same network as the computer, desktop and sound notifications, Chrome extension, bulk SMS, autosync with the phone's Inbox etc. No mention of MMS support.
[MightyText](http://www.mightytext.net/) is a lot like browsertexting. Free. No info about security. More confusing GUI, less features and a bit more buggy. Unfortunately with signup, but a lot of users and also chrome extension. Also worth a try. | You could try [RemoteSMS](http://www.appszoom.com/android_applications/communication/remotesms-pro_kdx.html). It is pretty simple, and no registration is needed.
Notes: It creates a web server (accessible to anyone on the network, I might add) accessible via your Web browser via the phone's IP address and port 8080. |
86,076 | I have an [HTC Hero](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/HTC_Hero) Android (European version) unlocked phone. Is there an app that will let me type away all my text messages on my PC and send the SMSes directly from the PC through my phone?
I'm basically looking at something like a Nokia PC Suite's equivalent. | 2009/12/21 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/86076",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/19306/"
] | You could try [RemoteSMS](http://www.appszoom.com/android_applications/communication/remotesms-pro_kdx.html). It is pretty simple, and no registration is needed.
Notes: It creates a web server (accessible to anyone on the network, I might add) accessible via your Web browser via the phone's IP address and port 8080. | It seems that [DroidMessenger](http://www.droidmessenger.com/) can do just that. |
86,076 | I have an [HTC Hero](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/HTC_Hero) Android (European version) unlocked phone. Is there an app that will let me type away all my text messages on my PC and send the SMSes directly from the PC through my phone?
I'm basically looking at something like a Nokia PC Suite's equivalent. | 2009/12/21 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/86076",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/19306/"
] | You can now do that through gtalk or XMPP with
* GTalkSMS:
<https://code.google.com/p/gtalksms>
for Android >= 2.0
* TalkMyPhone:
<https://code.google.com/p/talkmyphone/>
for Android < 2.0 | I have never of heard of what you're looking for, but if you're in a pinch Google allows SMS through your Gmail account and is independent of your phone. You have to enable the feature from Gmail Labs. |
86,076 | I have an [HTC Hero](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/HTC_Hero) Android (European version) unlocked phone. Is there an app that will let me type away all my text messages on my PC and send the SMSes directly from the PC through my phone?
I'm basically looking at something like a Nokia PC Suite's equivalent. | 2009/12/21 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/86076",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/19306/"
] | My phone explorer is indeed great! Only disadvantage is that I can only send SMS with a max length of 2x160 tokens. If I do more it gives an error.
If you want to give the money, EasySMS is great as well!
An other option if you want to do everything from your PC as if you were on your phone is Droid VNC server. You can control and view the phone screen live from your PC.
This does lag slightly though. | Try [Mobile Cloud](http://cl4.mobi). I like it because it's easy to use. Enter any password in the app, automaticly get ID and you already can send messages from the site.
 ->  |
86,076 | I have an [HTC Hero](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/HTC_Hero) Android (European version) unlocked phone. Is there an app that will let me type away all my text messages on my PC and send the SMSes directly from the PC through my phone?
I'm basically looking at something like a Nokia PC Suite's equivalent. | 2009/12/21 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/86076",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/19306/"
] | My phone explorer is indeed great! Only disadvantage is that I can only send SMS with a max length of 2x160 tokens. If I do more it gives an error.
If you want to give the money, EasySMS is great as well!
An other option if you want to do everything from your PC as if you were on your phone is Droid VNC server. You can control and view the phone screen live from your PC.
This does lag slightly though. | I have never of heard of what you're looking for, but if you're in a pinch Google allows SMS through your Gmail account and is independent of your phone. You have to enable the feature from Gmail Labs. |
86,076 | I have an [HTC Hero](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/HTC_Hero) Android (European version) unlocked phone. Is there an app that will let me type away all my text messages on my PC and send the SMSes directly from the PC through my phone?
I'm basically looking at something like a Nokia PC Suite's equivalent. | 2009/12/21 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/86076",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/19306/"
] | I strongly recommend [MyPhone Explorer](http://www.fjsoft.at/en/), Just install the myphone explorer client on the phone and that is it! | I have never of heard of what you're looking for, but if you're in a pinch Google allows SMS through your Gmail account and is independent of your phone. You have to enable the feature from Gmail Labs. |
86,076 | I have an [HTC Hero](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/HTC_Hero) Android (European version) unlocked phone. Is there an app that will let me type away all my text messages on my PC and send the SMSes directly from the PC through my phone?
I'm basically looking at something like a Nokia PC Suite's equivalent. | 2009/12/21 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/86076",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/19306/"
] | You could try [RemoteSMS](http://www.appszoom.com/android_applications/communication/remotesms-pro_kdx.html). It is pretty simple, and no registration is needed.
Notes: It creates a web server (accessible to anyone on the network, I might add) accessible via your Web browser via the phone's IP address and port 8080. | You can now do that through gtalk or XMPP with
* GTalkSMS:
<https://code.google.com/p/gtalksms>
for Android >= 2.0
* TalkMyPhone:
<https://code.google.com/p/talkmyphone/>
for Android < 2.0 |
86,076 | I have an [HTC Hero](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/HTC_Hero) Android (European version) unlocked phone. Is there an app that will let me type away all my text messages on my PC and send the SMSes directly from the PC through my phone?
I'm basically looking at something like a Nokia PC Suite's equivalent. | 2009/12/21 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/86076",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/19306/"
] | I've looked at DesktopSMS, EasySMS, RemoteSMS, Droid Messenger, MightyText and BrowserTexting.
Droid Messenger has you go through their website, which is a deal breaker for anyone who cares about the privacy of their text messages.
DekstopSMS is full of bugs and hasn't been maintained since August 2009.
I haven't tried RemoteSMS but the free version only supports WiFi and at work my laptop is on a network that my Android can't access, so I couldn't use it there.
[EasySMS](http://www.fireblade.org/EasySMS/) was the winner so far. Free with an option to donate 1 EUR for messages longer than 160 chars, with author actively working on the few outstanding issues, SMS threads are displayed in the browser over a local connection to the phone (no information leaves the phone or your computer). Worked fine over USB, including the in-browser notifications of new SMSes. Shows incoming MMSes. On the down-side, it can't mark as read on the phone the messages you have read in the browser, so if you have a notification LED flashing for incoming texts, it will keep flashing until you read the message on the Android.
[BrowserTexting](http://www.browsertexting.com/) is free (but not open source) and uses AES end-to-end encryption between browser and the Android. The website doesn't explain exactly how it works, but presumably the android app and your web browser both connect to the browsertexting.com server. Features include no need to have mobile on same network as the computer, desktop and sound notifications, Chrome extension, bulk SMS, autosync with the phone's Inbox etc. No mention of MMS support.
[MightyText](http://www.mightytext.net/) is a lot like browsertexting. Free. No info about security. More confusing GUI, less features and a bit more buggy. Unfortunately with signup, but a lot of users and also chrome extension. Also worth a try. | Self promoting never hurts:
I had the same problem, so I wrote TextToCloud. It comes with a small PHP file you install onto your own private web server, and it connects to that.
It's free at <https://market.android.com/details?id=uk.co.jcitbournemouth.texttocloud>
Oh, the cool thing is it still works even if you're outside Wifi range of your phone.. :) |
371,796 | I love Stack Overflow and it has helped me tremendously. I have only asked 25 questions, but I cannot count the number of times an existing Q&A has been helpful for me. I am a firm believer that the primary objective of this site is to *build a library* of Q&A to which *helping the asker* is a secondary goal. I always thought that there is [some consensus](https://stackoverflow.com/tour) about that.
Sometimes, if a question is not clear enough to me, I refrain from answering a question even though I am almost sure that I have an answer that helps the asker. Instead I try to help improve the question through comments and edits - if that fails I try to filter through close and downvotes. This is often frustrating, but a recent event leaves me baffled.
A question with incomplete code and a non-verbatim error message
>
> \*init called after \*finalize invoked
>
>
>
which overall leads me to believe this error is just the tip of the iceberg. Anyway, an answer consisting of
>
> \*INIT() and \*FINALIZE can only be called once per program, as your error hints at.
>
>
>
and an referenced copy of another answer comes in. The asker seems happy with the answer while I suspect they still may have misconceptions - more importantly I believe the current Q&A would be useless or possibly dangerously confusing to anyone else.
Now these comments unfold:
---
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/YauCL.png)
---
The last two comments are now deleted.
The asker is a longtime user with > 200 questions on SO. They now have confirmation that the primary purpose of SO is to answer their questions rather than building a Q&A library.
Why was my last comment deleted? Was it not in line with the site philosophy or was it really abusive?
Is the primary purpose of SO still to build a Q&A library? If so, how can we communicate that better? | 2018/07/31 | [
"https://meta.stackoverflow.com/questions/371796",
"https://meta.stackoverflow.com",
"https://meta.stackoverflow.com/users/620382/"
] | There is no effective way to communicate this to users. And if SO is operating correctly, we shouldn't *need* to.
We have specific standards in place for questions. These standards help ensure that questions are reasonably scoped and genuinely answerable. But in so doing, such questions are *also* good candidates for building such a repository. Such questions are searchable by their problem statement, and they ought to produce good, actionable, focused answers. So as long as people ask questions according to the standards we lay out, we shouldn't have to tell people that their questions are part of a repository of knowledge.
The user gets the information they need, and we get the content we want. That's how the system is meant to work.
The problem is not that many users don't understand our purpose. The problem is that many users don't understand and frequently violate our *standards*. If they followed our standards, they wouldn't have to understand the purpose of those standards.
As for how we uphold that, we do as we have done. You upvote good content; you downvote bad content. You close questions that violate our standards. And so forth. SE is trying to build some tools to make it less likely for users to post bad content, which will hopefully reduce the torrent of bad questions. | SO is no longer about building a Q&A library. What's important now is making people who don't know the rules of this site, don't know how to program, don't want to put any effort into writing a good questions, don't want to learn anything feel "welcomed".
If you care about quality of content more than people's feelings prepare to get banned for a month for no reason at all and then for 3 months for a one time transgression.
I'm done with this site, maybe I will use the unpaid volunteers here once in a while to do some research for me and save me a few minutes but I'm done being one, I suggest you do the same, if enough people who are actually capable of answering questions will leave for awhile maybe there is still a chance to save SO. |
371,796 | I love Stack Overflow and it has helped me tremendously. I have only asked 25 questions, but I cannot count the number of times an existing Q&A has been helpful for me. I am a firm believer that the primary objective of this site is to *build a library* of Q&A to which *helping the asker* is a secondary goal. I always thought that there is [some consensus](https://stackoverflow.com/tour) about that.
Sometimes, if a question is not clear enough to me, I refrain from answering a question even though I am almost sure that I have an answer that helps the asker. Instead I try to help improve the question through comments and edits - if that fails I try to filter through close and downvotes. This is often frustrating, but a recent event leaves me baffled.
A question with incomplete code and a non-verbatim error message
>
> \*init called after \*finalize invoked
>
>
>
which overall leads me to believe this error is just the tip of the iceberg. Anyway, an answer consisting of
>
> \*INIT() and \*FINALIZE can only be called once per program, as your error hints at.
>
>
>
and an referenced copy of another answer comes in. The asker seems happy with the answer while I suspect they still may have misconceptions - more importantly I believe the current Q&A would be useless or possibly dangerously confusing to anyone else.
Now these comments unfold:
---
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/YauCL.png)
---
The last two comments are now deleted.
The asker is a longtime user with > 200 questions on SO. They now have confirmation that the primary purpose of SO is to answer their questions rather than building a Q&A library.
Why was my last comment deleted? Was it not in line with the site philosophy or was it really abusive?
Is the primary purpose of SO still to build a Q&A library? If so, how can we communicate that better? | 2018/07/31 | [
"https://meta.stackoverflow.com/questions/371796",
"https://meta.stackoverflow.com",
"https://meta.stackoverflow.com/users/620382/"
] | There is no effective way to communicate this to users. And if SO is operating correctly, we shouldn't *need* to.
We have specific standards in place for questions. These standards help ensure that questions are reasonably scoped and genuinely answerable. But in so doing, such questions are *also* good candidates for building such a repository. Such questions are searchable by their problem statement, and they ought to produce good, actionable, focused answers. So as long as people ask questions according to the standards we lay out, we shouldn't have to tell people that their questions are part of a repository of knowledge.
The user gets the information they need, and we get the content we want. That's how the system is meant to work.
The problem is not that many users don't understand our purpose. The problem is that many users don't understand and frequently violate our *standards*. If they followed our standards, they wouldn't have to understand the purpose of those standards.
As for how we uphold that, we do as we have done. You upvote good content; you downvote bad content. You close questions that violate our standards. And so forth. SE is trying to build some tools to make it less likely for users to post bad content, which will hopefully reduce the torrent of bad questions. | Nicol's [answer](https://meta.stackoverflow.com/a/371804/50049) communicates the gist of what I was going to say. Asking questions is *not* a shallow puddle, and folks often unwittingly fall into a pond that they weren't expecting.
We're making some changes on the front end to help people discover that there *is* a skill to asking beyond pasting code into the editor, and helping to better set people's expectations when it comes to what *we* expect. Those are the most important things, because if done correctly, we continue to build a high-quality resource even if 80% of the folks using the site simply see it as a convenient way to get answers, even if we're a little strict about quality.
But, that's not to say that we're doing great in communicating that mission, either. Stack Overflow was built, well, by programmers. Programmers aren't *always* the best folks to come up with UX copy, or notice when (to an outside perspective) stuff seems like it's been bolted on multiple times to multiple things. Our design department has always been great, but now it's even more awesome, because we have the talents of researchers and folks that have a primary focus on owning and unifying the user experience (UX).
That means, while we don't need to scream WE'RE BUILDING A HIGH QUALITY REPOSITORY OF ANSWERS TO ALL PROGRAMMING QUESTIONS until our voices echo off the moon, we can be giving users a better sense of *purpose* based on their endeavor, which will increase engagement, and the probability that any given person will stick around after hitting 250-ish rep. And yes, a sense of purpose tends to make people care quite a bit more about the fine details of something.
There's one thing about your question that particularly drew my attention, however:
>
> Sometimes, if a question is not clear enough to me, I refrain from answering a question even though I am almost sure that I have an answer that helps the asker.
>
>
>
That's good instinct to have, because I've seen great answers pull mediocre questions well above water, *especially* if the person answering (who understands the question well) actually goes back and edits the question. It's not always that you can do this, and you kinda need the OP to be responsive so you can be sure you're on the right track, but if you get a feeling in your stomach that you could nail something - it's probably worth investigating. Check for duplicates, be *sure* to engage and edit, but you might end up hitting the rep cap and getting a couple of badges for your time.
Again, these gems aren't common, but usually worth your time if you spot one. Otherwise, just leave helpful feedback and try to be friendly so the person is more likely to accept and internalize it. Even if we perfect the input to the *very best* it could possibly be, a less-than-trivial percent of questions asked are still going to lack details needed to be answered. Programmers learn by making mistakes, and a few belly-flops while trying to get help from busy volunteers is an experience that many of us have had starting out. |
3,618 | Recently, this forum has seen many questions of the *what is the single word for* type.
Is this really such a concern in English?
Single words such as obfuscate or elucidate can obfuscate as much they can elucidate.
This quest for a single word might be considered stylistically important in some languages but how important is it in English? | 2013/01/14 | [
"https://english.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/3618",
"https://english.meta.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.meta.stackexchange.com/users/30820/"
] | It can be interesting:
Q. What is the single word that best means "smelling of a horse's urine"?
A. *Jumentous*, adj. smelling of a horse's urine.
Comment: Why thank you kind sir, that is indeed an interesting word. Now what a shame I'll almost never have a need to use it except perhaps in word games.
In terms of good English, no, not particularly useful, rarely necessary, just about never going to lead to as great a turn of phrase as expressing the same idea with several words.
And which is better:
>
> It's jumentous.
>
>
>
Or:
>
> That is horse piss and rotted straw, he thought. It is a good odour to breathe. It will calm my heart. My heart is quite calm now. I will go back. (James Joyce, *A Portrait of the Artist as a Young Man*)
>
>
> | I have asked questions like this before, and for me the motivation is to achieve a level of precision, not necessarily conciseness. To me, the question "is there a word for..." is really an open query on established terminology for specific concepts. If there isn't any, then of course the English language is quite easily able to convey even the most complex ideas effectively. That can be achieved by layering concepts on each other until the overall ideas are communicated, but if there is already a word or phrase that communicates the idea, why would I want to go to the trouble to express it in another way unless I had a specific reason to do so? |
3,618 | Recently, this forum has seen many questions of the *what is the single word for* type.
Is this really such a concern in English?
Single words such as obfuscate or elucidate can obfuscate as much they can elucidate.
This quest for a single word might be considered stylistically important in some languages but how important is it in English? | 2013/01/14 | [
"https://english.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/3618",
"https://english.meta.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.meta.stackexchange.com/users/30820/"
] | 1. This is not recent: it has been going on since the beginning, or as long as I remember.
2. Single words no more necessary in English than in most other languages. Although needless wordiness is undesirable, needless compression can be equally bad; and excessive compression at one point usually leads to destruction or inflation at some other point.
3. These questions are generally not encouraged: experienced writers don't need or want single words except in the specific context of a longer text, at least not that often.
4. Part of this desire comes from inexperience, but another part may be typical of programmers, who abound on Stack Exchange. They are often dealing with constraints of space and length. And they are also used to operate upon single entities, such as variables and values. Computer code is discrete rather than gradual, in that it resembles a set of building blocks rather than a lump of soft clay or a growing plant, if you will allow me my little metaphor. A single word is easy to handle as a block. However, in natural or literary language, a single idea normally does not fit into a single word very well, nor should it have to. | And I think it's important, yes.
Whole books have been written with new words to accommodate for the fact that some concepts have no single word in English.
One such books writes in its foreword:
>
> In Life, there are many hundreds of common experiences, feelings, situations and even objects which we all know and recognize, but for which no words exist.
>
> On the other hand, the world is littered with thousands of spare words which spend their time doing nothing but loafing about on signposts pointing at places.
>
> Our job, as we see it, is to get these words down off the signposts and into the mouths of babes and sucklings and so on, where they can start earning their keep in everyday conversation and make a more positive contribution to society.
>
>
>
'Nuff said. |
3,618 | Recently, this forum has seen many questions of the *what is the single word for* type.
Is this really such a concern in English?
Single words such as obfuscate or elucidate can obfuscate as much they can elucidate.
This quest for a single word might be considered stylistically important in some languages but how important is it in English? | 2013/01/14 | [
"https://english.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/3618",
"https://english.meta.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.meta.stackexchange.com/users/30820/"
] | >
> Is this really such a concern in English?
>
>
> This quest for a single word might be considered stylistically important in some languages but how important is it in English?
>
>
>
Why is English different from other languages? The difference is not the language but why you need a single word for a certain concept.
Getting a single word is often good in terms of Linguistic Economy (usually languages seek that), and if there's a case where you need one word (for a title, a website, etc) then yes, it's important. There must be other reasons certainly, I must have forgotten something. | And I think it's important, yes.
Whole books have been written with new words to accommodate for the fact that some concepts have no single word in English.
One such books writes in its foreword:
>
> In Life, there are many hundreds of common experiences, feelings, situations and even objects which we all know and recognize, but for which no words exist.
>
> On the other hand, the world is littered with thousands of spare words which spend their time doing nothing but loafing about on signposts pointing at places.
>
> Our job, as we see it, is to get these words down off the signposts and into the mouths of babes and sucklings and so on, where they can start earning their keep in everyday conversation and make a more positive contribution to society.
>
>
>
'Nuff said. |
3,618 | Recently, this forum has seen many questions of the *what is the single word for* type.
Is this really such a concern in English?
Single words such as obfuscate or elucidate can obfuscate as much they can elucidate.
This quest for a single word might be considered stylistically important in some languages but how important is it in English? | 2013/01/14 | [
"https://english.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/3618",
"https://english.meta.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.meta.stackexchange.com/users/30820/"
] | >
> Is this really such a concern in English?
>
>
> This quest for a single word might be considered stylistically important in some languages but how important is it in English?
>
>
>
Why is English different from other languages? The difference is not the language but why you need a single word for a certain concept.
Getting a single word is often good in terms of Linguistic Economy (usually languages seek that), and if there's a case where you need one word (for a title, a website, etc) then yes, it's important. There must be other reasons certainly, I must have forgotten something. | I have asked questions like this before, and for me the motivation is to achieve a level of precision, not necessarily conciseness. To me, the question "is there a word for..." is really an open query on established terminology for specific concepts. If there isn't any, then of course the English language is quite easily able to convey even the most complex ideas effectively. That can be achieved by layering concepts on each other until the overall ideas are communicated, but if there is already a word or phrase that communicates the idea, why would I want to go to the trouble to express it in another way unless I had a specific reason to do so? |
3,618 | Recently, this forum has seen many questions of the *what is the single word for* type.
Is this really such a concern in English?
Single words such as obfuscate or elucidate can obfuscate as much they can elucidate.
This quest for a single word might be considered stylistically important in some languages but how important is it in English? | 2013/01/14 | [
"https://english.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/3618",
"https://english.meta.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.meta.stackexchange.com/users/30820/"
] | FWIW, I happen to have more rep on [single-word-requests](https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/tagged/single-word-requests "show questions tagged 'single-word-requests'") than on any other tag, and am sitting at about 21'st on its all time users list. So I have a bit of experience with this particular type of question.
It seems to me that a very large percentage of the questions on [single-word-requests](https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/tagged/single-word-requests "show questions tagged 'single-word-requests'") are from people who want to translate a very nuanced word from another language into English, and for some reason believe English ought to have an exactly equivalent word. For anybody who knows linguistics, this is clearly hookum.
However, its a fun challenge for those of us who like to stretch our vocabulary muscles. So we all play along and try to win the "game". This has the unfortunate side-effect that more correct multi-word answers get bypassed in favor of less correct single-word answers.
So if I had a complaint about our current handling of single-word requests, it would be that we **allow answers to be multi-word** if need be. Brevity ought to count for something, but try to moderate for meaning, rather that just unblinkingly rejecting multi-word answers. | The hunt for le mot juste is interesting if not entertaining, but the goal of linguistic economy stems from Classics, which is why using a word like +obfusomething (nod to @lucounu) is not part the regression to the mean vocabulary. Yes, a concise word for any given concept maybe be favorable and helpful, but we don't want to end up epigrammatic, either.
I understand your question as asking if this a result of having discarded so many words over time, or is it of greater concern to non-native English speakers because it is daunting to realize you are translating ideas and not words? It seems many posts seeking the magic one word are really more concerned with **translation** of a concept in one word vs. simply as concisely as possible finding an acceptable translation of an idea.
@SimonHoare, excellent point about register vs. conciseness. Veuillez agréer, Monsieur Hoare, de mes sentiments les plus sincères is high register but many words.
At the same time, an infamous German word like [Donaudampfschiffahrtsgesellschaftskapitänskajütenfenster](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Donaudampfschiffahrtsgesellschaft) refers to the view of the Danube out of the window of the ship captain's cabin for a particular shipping company in Germany. @DWright, absolutely there are wonderful borrows from other languages like *Schadenfreude*, which was finally added to the OED (O Freunde! Nicht diese töner!) *Déjà vu* is a classic example.
Though we seek the magical one-word bullet to describe the *je ne sais quoi*, cases like this do not mandate one and only one word. Take the example of the German ship captain's cabin window. Is this concept ever going to come across as one word in English?
To answer your question, to determine if a concise adjectival or adverbial phrase is preferable to an \*obstetrifrugal word that a reader would have to look up, that preference would be based on style, i.e. APA. |
3,618 | Recently, this forum has seen many questions of the *what is the single word for* type.
Is this really such a concern in English?
Single words such as obfuscate or elucidate can obfuscate as much they can elucidate.
This quest for a single word might be considered stylistically important in some languages but how important is it in English? | 2013/01/14 | [
"https://english.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/3618",
"https://english.meta.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.meta.stackexchange.com/users/30820/"
] | 1. This is not recent: it has been going on since the beginning, or as long as I remember.
2. Single words no more necessary in English than in most other languages. Although needless wordiness is undesirable, needless compression can be equally bad; and excessive compression at one point usually leads to destruction or inflation at some other point.
3. These questions are generally not encouraged: experienced writers don't need or want single words except in the specific context of a longer text, at least not that often.
4. Part of this desire comes from inexperience, but another part may be typical of programmers, who abound on Stack Exchange. They are often dealing with constraints of space and length. And they are also used to operate upon single entities, such as variables and values. Computer code is discrete rather than gradual, in that it resembles a set of building blocks rather than a lump of soft clay or a growing plant, if you will allow me my little metaphor. A single word is easy to handle as a block. However, in natural or literary language, a single idea normally does not fit into a single word very well, nor should it have to. | Sometimes it can be frustrating when somebody asks for a single word, and there doesn't seem to be one. However, how can that person know that such a word doesn't exist, when there might be a perfect word hidden somewhere in the dictionary?
In other words, I don't mind when someone asks the question – although I do find it irksome when an O.P. or other passersby start criticizing suggested answers with, "But that's not one word."
I think the questions are generally fair questions, but the O.P.'s should always be ready to accept the fact that a perfect-fit word may not exist, in which case they'll probably get a lot of "close but no cigar" suggestions. The more difficult the original question, the more near misses will probably be offered. Such answers should be received graciously rather than criticized or downvoted; some people probably spent a fair amount of time racking their brains and are simply sharing the best they could come up with. |
3,618 | Recently, this forum has seen many questions of the *what is the single word for* type.
Is this really such a concern in English?
Single words such as obfuscate or elucidate can obfuscate as much they can elucidate.
This quest for a single word might be considered stylistically important in some languages but how important is it in English? | 2013/01/14 | [
"https://english.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/3618",
"https://english.meta.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.meta.stackexchange.com/users/30820/"
] | 1. This is not recent: it has been going on since the beginning, or as long as I remember.
2. Single words no more necessary in English than in most other languages. Although needless wordiness is undesirable, needless compression can be equally bad; and excessive compression at one point usually leads to destruction or inflation at some other point.
3. These questions are generally not encouraged: experienced writers don't need or want single words except in the specific context of a longer text, at least not that often.
4. Part of this desire comes from inexperience, but another part may be typical of programmers, who abound on Stack Exchange. They are often dealing with constraints of space and length. And they are also used to operate upon single entities, such as variables and values. Computer code is discrete rather than gradual, in that it resembles a set of building blocks rather than a lump of soft clay or a growing plant, if you will allow me my little metaphor. A single word is easy to handle as a block. However, in natural or literary language, a single idea normally does not fit into a single word very well, nor should it have to. | Given the astonishing number of English words, there often is an astonishingly apt single word choice. I think asking about the single word silver bullet may be a way of saying: Surprise and delight me again, English: can it be done, is there one word that covers this? English is normally so fit for this, that when a word is missing, it just grabs it. Ergo, *Schadenfreude*. |
3,618 | Recently, this forum has seen many questions of the *what is the single word for* type.
Is this really such a concern in English?
Single words such as obfuscate or elucidate can obfuscate as much they can elucidate.
This quest for a single word might be considered stylistically important in some languages but how important is it in English? | 2013/01/14 | [
"https://english.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/3618",
"https://english.meta.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.meta.stackexchange.com/users/30820/"
] | Given the astonishing number of English words, there often is an astonishingly apt single word choice. I think asking about the single word silver bullet may be a way of saying: Surprise and delight me again, English: can it be done, is there one word that covers this? English is normally so fit for this, that when a word is missing, it just grabs it. Ergo, *Schadenfreude*. | From the non-native speaker's perspective, English is the language where so many things can be expressed by single word. So I feel uncomfortable when I can't find single word for something that can be described by single word in my native language. I feel I'm missing something. And I think I'm not the only one who feels like that.
Anyway, the ability to express something by single word instead of repeating ten-word description ten times makes you more expressive. This is also the economy of the language.
And yes, single word is much more appropriate for column name in database than five words. It is not only the beautification, there's 30-character name limit in some databases, and files in DOS had some day 8-character limit. |
3,618 | Recently, this forum has seen many questions of the *what is the single word for* type.
Is this really such a concern in English?
Single words such as obfuscate or elucidate can obfuscate as much they can elucidate.
This quest for a single word might be considered stylistically important in some languages but how important is it in English? | 2013/01/14 | [
"https://english.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/3618",
"https://english.meta.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.meta.stackexchange.com/users/30820/"
] | I know that tag is called **single**-word-requests, but I think it's a mistake to get hung up on that word. What these types of questions are really asking for is a concise way to express a concept, and a single word —being as concise as you can get— is the ultimate goal; but you can't always reach that goal, and that's OK.
That said, some s-w-r questions do explicitly want a single-word answer, sometimes because of space considerations in a user interface or some similar programming need, but also sometimes because the OP wants to construct a sentence a particular way (perhaps because of parallelism or poetic considerations) which requires a single word. This doesn't mean that English speakers/writers are particularly hung up on single words; it just means that these situations are, in a sense, *harder* than situations where a whole descriptive phrase can be used. In other words, if a writer can take as many words as he needs to describe a concept, he'll do so, and we here on ELU will never hear about it. | >
> This quest for a single word might be considered stylistically important in some languages but how important is it in English?
>
>
>
Particular contexts or milieus call for particular levels of style; for example, use of the right word or words seems more important in formal speech or writing than informal. For formal speech or writing that will be widely published and widely discussed, intensive searches for the right words and right phrases are worthwhile.
The language chosen for discourse is much less of a style-determining factor than is the context of discourse. |
3,618 | Recently, this forum has seen many questions of the *what is the single word for* type.
Is this really such a concern in English?
Single words such as obfuscate or elucidate can obfuscate as much they can elucidate.
This quest for a single word might be considered stylistically important in some languages but how important is it in English? | 2013/01/14 | [
"https://english.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/3618",
"https://english.meta.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.meta.stackexchange.com/users/30820/"
] | I know that tag is called **single**-word-requests, but I think it's a mistake to get hung up on that word. What these types of questions are really asking for is a concise way to express a concept, and a single word —being as concise as you can get— is the ultimate goal; but you can't always reach that goal, and that's OK.
That said, some s-w-r questions do explicitly want a single-word answer, sometimes because of space considerations in a user interface or some similar programming need, but also sometimes because the OP wants to construct a sentence a particular way (perhaps because of parallelism or poetic considerations) which requires a single word. This doesn't mean that English speakers/writers are particularly hung up on single words; it just means that these situations are, in a sense, *harder* than situations where a whole descriptive phrase can be used. In other words, if a writer can take as many words as he needs to describe a concept, he'll do so, and we here on ELU will never hear about it. | >
> Is this really such a concern in English?
>
>
> This quest for a single word might be considered stylistically important in some languages but how important is it in English?
>
>
>
Why is English different from other languages? The difference is not the language but why you need a single word for a certain concept.
Getting a single word is often good in terms of Linguistic Economy (usually languages seek that), and if there's a case where you need one word (for a title, a website, etc) then yes, it's important. There must be other reasons certainly, I must have forgotten something. |
51,427 | Outside my house, there is a gap visible below some of my windows. I have attached pictures to make it clear, since I don't know the terminology.
The gap is about the width of my thumb. I can see the insulation easily.
Should I fill this, and if so, how?
Gallery link: [http://imgur.com/a/P3Sl6](https://imgur.com/a/P3Sl6)
Note: this question is different from my other question I recently asked [here](https://diy.stackexchange.com/q/51426/14069). This is specifically dealing with the windows, whereas the other question simply involves some decorative trim. | 2014/10/19 | [
"https://diy.stackexchange.com/questions/51427",
"https://diy.stackexchange.com",
"https://diy.stackexchange.com/users/14069/"
] | Backer rod and sealant can fill the joint. Provided the installation prevents bulk water infiltration, it provides an additional layer of protection. If the joint currently allows the passage of water, this is a stopgap versus reinstalling the windows properly. | It looks to me like the window unit itself *(what looks to be the newer vinyl clad window)* may have been installed over the original sill and inside the frame of the original window. No telling why this may have been done other than to avoid having to deal with the interface between the old frame and siding.
Anyway it looks like insulation was shoved up between the original sill and the bottom of the inserted window unit. From what I think that I am seeing there does not look like there is any good way to cover over this crack.
It is possible that your pictures are warping my understanding. If you could add some more pictures that show a bit more detail regarding how the window is fitted to the house structure including the outside frame, wider view of the sill and maybe even a view near the upper part of the window it may be possible to offer better advice. |
198,159 | About 2 month ago I upgraded my Dell Latitude E6500 laptop with a Corsair Force F120 SSD drive. Everything worked well until about a week or so back.
I started the computer and was faced with a beep and a message saying "No boot sector on Internal HDD (IRRT). No bootable devices". Since I figured that the boot sector had somehow got corrupt I tried booting from the Windows 7 dvd in order to repair the boot sector. But the Windows 7 installation program only found a blank drive with 111GB of unallocated space. I panicked and brought the drive with me to work to let a colleague have a look at it. We made a disk image of the entire drive and ran the drive through Testdisk in Linux. Testdisk did not find any partitions. It appears that the drive has been completely erased...
What has happened? What is causing this behavior on an SSD? | 2010/11/04 | [
"https://serverfault.com/questions/198159",
"https://serverfault.com",
"https://serverfault.com/users/-1/"
] | Corsair F Series drives have a firmware problem that arises if you change system states. From another forum: "It runs fine as long as you don't try to put the laptop to sleep, wake it up, or change the hardware profile (say, by docking or undocking it)". Allegedly there is a firmware update to 2.0 which may address it along with having the latest BIOS and having AHCI set (vs IDE) in your BIOS. See <http://forum.corsair.com/v3/showthread.php?t=90759> | Call the vendor for support and/or RMA, and stand by for a restore from backup. (You do have a backup, right?) |
198,159 | About 2 month ago I upgraded my Dell Latitude E6500 laptop with a Corsair Force F120 SSD drive. Everything worked well until about a week or so back.
I started the computer and was faced with a beep and a message saying "No boot sector on Internal HDD (IRRT). No bootable devices". Since I figured that the boot sector had somehow got corrupt I tried booting from the Windows 7 dvd in order to repair the boot sector. But the Windows 7 installation program only found a blank drive with 111GB of unallocated space. I panicked and brought the drive with me to work to let a colleague have a look at it. We made a disk image of the entire drive and ran the drive through Testdisk in Linux. Testdisk did not find any partitions. It appears that the drive has been completely erased...
What has happened? What is causing this behavior on an SSD? | 2010/11/04 | [
"https://serverfault.com/questions/198159",
"https://serverfault.com",
"https://serverfault.com/users/-1/"
] | Corsair F Series drives have a firmware problem that arises if you change system states. From another forum: "It runs fine as long as you don't try to put the laptop to sleep, wake it up, or change the hardware profile (say, by docking or undocking it)". Allegedly there is a firmware update to 2.0 which may address it along with having the latest BIOS and having AHCI set (vs IDE) in your BIOS. See <http://forum.corsair.com/v3/showthread.php?t=90759> | Sounds like something that happened to me:
A systemcrash rendered the partition on the harddrive useless. I rebooted and startet up Knoppix to investigate further. I wasn't able to find partitions.
What had happened was that (after being unable to find something he thought was useful) a `trim` command got issued and the "useless" data got purged.
Problem with SSD is that SSD self is the problem. Many SSD failures are in fact unrecoverable - because if the remapping tables get trashed - the media data is effectively randomized - and mixed up with blocks which were marked as corrupted and unusable even before the SSD failed.
Hope you have a backup. |
198,159 | About 2 month ago I upgraded my Dell Latitude E6500 laptop with a Corsair Force F120 SSD drive. Everything worked well until about a week or so back.
I started the computer and was faced with a beep and a message saying "No boot sector on Internal HDD (IRRT). No bootable devices". Since I figured that the boot sector had somehow got corrupt I tried booting from the Windows 7 dvd in order to repair the boot sector. But the Windows 7 installation program only found a blank drive with 111GB of unallocated space. I panicked and brought the drive with me to work to let a colleague have a look at it. We made a disk image of the entire drive and ran the drive through Testdisk in Linux. Testdisk did not find any partitions. It appears that the drive has been completely erased...
What has happened? What is causing this behavior on an SSD? | 2010/11/04 | [
"https://serverfault.com/questions/198159",
"https://serverfault.com",
"https://serverfault.com/users/-1/"
] | Corsair F Series drives have a firmware problem that arises if you change system states. From another forum: "It runs fine as long as you don't try to put the laptop to sleep, wake it up, or change the hardware profile (say, by docking or undocking it)". Allegedly there is a firmware update to 2.0 which may address it along with having the latest BIOS and having AHCI set (vs IDE) in your BIOS. See <http://forum.corsair.com/v3/showthread.php?t=90759> | This type of thing happens when the controller screws up somehow. The flash memory itself is fine, most likely, as well as the data on it but you can't get to it without a functional controller. Usually the only way to restore controller functionality is to re-flash the drive's firmware, which incidentally wipes out all your data. This is why I tell everyone who uses an SSD to be extra sure you do backups.
SSD manufacturers need to come up with a way to re-flash a controller without causing it to wipe the drive clean. |
117,393 | When the user enters a valid email on the login like Google did some time ago, is there any problem to show the avatar?
Does make the experience better?
Is a there is any security risk? | 2018/04/17 | [
"https://ux.stackexchange.com/questions/117393",
"https://ux.stackexchange.com",
"https://ux.stackexchange.com/users/114316/"
] | This would be bad from the security point of view. Anyone will be able to enter any name and see if this login (if this person) is registered at this site.
Suppose you enter the name of your neighbor at some web site that sells drugs or weapon and see his picture. This would mean he is registered at this web site (unless it is a fake account). This would be a huge security problem because it discloses personal details of this person without knowing his/her password.
I'd suggest you don't display avatar until user is logged in.
To user experience:
1. If because of security reason you don't display it, then there is not much sense to discuss UX.
2. Even if you would display it, the users would think "Holy s...! They don't care about my security! What else security problems they have?" | In the case of a legitimate user signing in with their email address, this can be helpful.
There's a privacy question you should consider: if I wasn't the legitimate user owning the account, and I was just trying to snoop on someone else by entering their email address into your service, would the legitimate user be pissed off? They may not be, for example if it's already possible to look up your users' profile by email address using some kind of public search form. But if there's a chance that they will be annoyed, or if you're not sure, then sounds like a bad idea. You can somewhat guard against this case by doing it only if the user has previously signed into the same account in the same browser but this can add quite a bit of complexity.
It may also not be very valuable. In the case of Google, it helps users who share a single computer between multiple users, because it's easier to choose from a short list of accounts when their profile photo is visible than when just their email address is shown. But Google only has this problem because it has so many users that some of them end up in the same household sharing the same desktop computer, repeatedly signing in and out of the same accounts all the time. If your service doesn't have this case to handle very frequently (e.g. if most browser sessions that sign into your service only ever sign into one account) then this could be overkill. |
4,709,293 | In Hibernate, the default value of the property dynamic-update = false. But it seems, that this is not good for performance. Then why is this set to false by default? | 2011/01/17 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/4709293",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/454671/"
] | The only drawback I can see here is that many different queries can increase a load on query parser or confuse query optimizer. Therefore Hibernate documentation recommends you to check performance impact in your particular case:
>
> Although these settings can increase performance in some cases, they can actually decrease performance in others.
>
>
> | The reason that they have as default dynamic-update = false is because they want to be backwards compatible to their previous hibernate versions as this is a new feature and they didn't had it before. They don't want to enable this feature by default to a project that updated to newer hibernate version and they give the developers the option to decide if they want this feature as in some cases it can decrease performance as they say. |
180,095 | What type of quality combinations exist? In TF2, there are Strangifiers which can add the Strange Quality to an item. I have seen Strange Genuines, but what other types of combinations exist? | 2014/08/14 | [
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com/questions/180095",
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com",
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com/users/9608/"
] | This is a difficult question to answer, because the different qualities that are possible for weapons are [specific to each weapon with almost no rhyme or reason](https://wiki.teamfortress.com/wiki/Item_quality/Possible_weapon_qualities).
You can apply a [Strangifier](https://wiki.teamfortress.com/wiki/Strangifier) to any quality type, so you can have Strange Vintage, Strange Collector's, Strange Unusual, or Strange Genuine weapons/miscs. You can also apply a [Killstreak Kit](https://wiki.teamfortress.com/wiki/Killstreak) to any quality weapon as well, so you can have Strange Killstreak Vintage and Strange Killstreak Collector's weapons. However there are no Unusual quality items that also have a Killstreak kit (since Professional Killstreak Kits are essentially Unusual-ifiers for weapons).
It gets down to what kits you can apply to an item. The qualities that cannot be "applied" are Genuine, Vintage, Unusual, and Collector's (I'm not counting the less-common ones like Haunted, Self-Made, Community, etc). From that base quality, you can apply Strangifiers and Killstreak kits.
And the names just stack up. If you apply any kind of kit, the weapon just gains a new name. This is demonstrated by my Wicked Nasty Professional Killstreak Southern Hospitality. I'd like to go find a Collector's weapon that can be Strangified and Killstreaked.
EDIT: Cosmetics can now have professional killstreaks! Therefore there are hats that can be Unusual Professional Killstreak or even Strange Unusual Professional Killstreak, I believe. | Well, if you're asking about items, which have 2 types of qualities (Like Genuine Strange, which you already mentioned), yes, there're some, and there isn't many of them. Here's a list of such items.:
* **Strange Collector's:** PBPP/Cow Mangler/Air Strike/Righteous Bison/Phlogistonator/Manmelter/Third Degree/Widowmaker/Pomson 6000/Vaccinator/Classic/Cleaner's Carbine/
* **Strange Genuine:** Widowmaker/Righteous Bison/Anger/Camera Beard/Merc's Pride Scarf/Foppish Pschycian/Archimedies
* **Strange Vintage:** Camera Beard/Stockbrocker's Scarf
A-a-and that's all. Most of others Genuine and Vintage items don't have strangifiers for them, and I haven't mentioned **Strange Haunted** and **Strange Unusual**, because there're tons of them (You can check on market). |
334,604 | I currently Dual Boot Windows 7 and Ubuntu 13.04. I would like to be able to use Ubuntu as my only OS but unfortunately there are programs for my job that only play with Windows. I know that Virtual Box will allow me to run Ubuntu and have Windows opened in a window as vmware. Unfortunately, it looks like I would be installing Windows from scratch within the VM. Is there a way to access my current windows installation within the VM environment? | 2013/08/19 | [
"https://askubuntu.com/questions/334604",
"https://askubuntu.com",
"https://askubuntu.com/users/185502/"
] | Yes. You need to use the microsoft disk2vhd program to create a VHD copy of your hard drive. You'll likely need a backup drive to put the exported copy on. Before you copy your harddrive, delete all unecessary programs and files. Empty your recycle bin and temporary internet files as well as defrag the harddrive. If the computer is attached to a domain (even if it's a .local) disjoin it from the domain before capturing a copy.
Get disk2vhd here:
<http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/sysinternals/ee656415.aspx>
Once you have an image of the HDD, you can create a VM with that drive as the "existing hard drive". I once created a knowledge document on how to p2v a workstation, here's its text...
>
> Before beginning the P2V process you should:
>
>
> 1. Defragment the Host to be virtualized.
> 2. Remove any unnecessary programs.
> 3. Delete temp files and anything else that isn't necessary.
> 4. Unjoin the workstation from the Domain.
>
>
> When ready to initiate the P2V process, create the VHD copy of the harddrive:
>
>
> 1. Determine where the VHD copy will be stored. If you're exporting to the Hard Drive being copied, ensure the Drive has at least twice it's used space available as free space.
> 2. Download the Disk2VHD application onto the workstation which will be virtualized. You can find that executable attached to this KB in the attachments section as well as the Disk2VHD help file.
> 3. Launch the Disk2VHD.exe file and agree to the TOS.
> 4. Determine where the .vhd file will be saved to, and deselect any unnecessary drives. By default, the tool will want to export all attached hard drives, inluding the external drive you're trying to export to (if present).
> 5. Select the "create" button and allow the process to finish. The time to completion depends on the size of the VHD file.
> 6. If necessary, move the finished VHD file to it's final storage place. The file is now ready to be used with VirtualBox.
>
>
> Using the VHD with VirtualBox:
>
>
> 1. If you're creating a new VM then select "New" from the menu bar and follow the prompts until you reach the Virtual Hard Disk page.
> 2. Change the radio button on the Virtual Hard Disk page to "Use existing hard disk" and select the folder icon which will let you navigate to where the VHD file is stored. Select it, and click next.
> 3. Continue with the prompts until the new VM is created.
> 4. Depending on the system, special settings may be required in order to get the VM to boot. For most XP VM's, "Enable IO APIC" must be checked for the VM to run.
>
>
> | VMware offers a convert program which runs on a running Windows system and writes out a virtual machine file, usable with VMplayer. |
334,604 | I currently Dual Boot Windows 7 and Ubuntu 13.04. I would like to be able to use Ubuntu as my only OS but unfortunately there are programs for my job that only play with Windows. I know that Virtual Box will allow me to run Ubuntu and have Windows opened in a window as vmware. Unfortunately, it looks like I would be installing Windows from scratch within the VM. Is there a way to access my current windows installation within the VM environment? | 2013/08/19 | [
"https://askubuntu.com/questions/334604",
"https://askubuntu.com",
"https://askubuntu.com/users/185502/"
] | Yes. You need to use the microsoft disk2vhd program to create a VHD copy of your hard drive. You'll likely need a backup drive to put the exported copy on. Before you copy your harddrive, delete all unecessary programs and files. Empty your recycle bin and temporary internet files as well as defrag the harddrive. If the computer is attached to a domain (even if it's a .local) disjoin it from the domain before capturing a copy.
Get disk2vhd here:
<http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/sysinternals/ee656415.aspx>
Once you have an image of the HDD, you can create a VM with that drive as the "existing hard drive". I once created a knowledge document on how to p2v a workstation, here's its text...
>
> Before beginning the P2V process you should:
>
>
> 1. Defragment the Host to be virtualized.
> 2. Remove any unnecessary programs.
> 3. Delete temp files and anything else that isn't necessary.
> 4. Unjoin the workstation from the Domain.
>
>
> When ready to initiate the P2V process, create the VHD copy of the harddrive:
>
>
> 1. Determine where the VHD copy will be stored. If you're exporting to the Hard Drive being copied, ensure the Drive has at least twice it's used space available as free space.
> 2. Download the Disk2VHD application onto the workstation which will be virtualized. You can find that executable attached to this KB in the attachments section as well as the Disk2VHD help file.
> 3. Launch the Disk2VHD.exe file and agree to the TOS.
> 4. Determine where the .vhd file will be saved to, and deselect any unnecessary drives. By default, the tool will want to export all attached hard drives, inluding the external drive you're trying to export to (if present).
> 5. Select the "create" button and allow the process to finish. The time to completion depends on the size of the VHD file.
> 6. If necessary, move the finished VHD file to it's final storage place. The file is now ready to be used with VirtualBox.
>
>
> Using the VHD with VirtualBox:
>
>
> 1. If you're creating a new VM then select "New" from the menu bar and follow the prompts until you reach the Virtual Hard Disk page.
> 2. Change the radio button on the Virtual Hard Disk page to "Use existing hard disk" and select the folder icon which will let you navigate to where the VHD file is stored. Select it, and click next.
> 3. Continue with the prompts until the new VM is created.
> 4. Depending on the system, special settings may be required in order to get the VM to boot. For most XP VM's, "Enable IO APIC" must be checked for the VM to run.
>
>
> | I am using VM. And VM offers something that is called Shared Folders. You can add folders and access them in VM. More information at: <https://forums.virtualbox.org/viewtopic.php?t=15868>. |
63,500 | I wonder what are some good sample ways for breaking down tedious processes, e.g., creation of long content. Most sites present long forms - for example, eBay presents one long form for the details of a selling item. In contrast, I fairly like the way Airbnb breaks down the listing process into, first, a clean outline submission and then several tabs asking for details. I think this substantially reduces mental burden.
Does anyone know of any other sites out there that break down content creation well?
Ref: <https://www.airbnb.com/rooms/new> | 2014/08/25 | [
"https://ux.stackexchange.com/questions/63500",
"https://ux.stackexchange.com",
"https://ux.stackexchange.com/users/53484/"
] | You're asking how to make it **extremely obvious**, so you could write
*Click to select other dates*
into the textfield. E.g.
*24 August, 2014 (click to select other dates)* | By virtue of having a control which resembles a text field and a button, you have already provided the user with something he or she knows can be clicked. I would also suggest adding placeholder text ('Enter a date...' perhaps?) rather than a default date to prevent the user from assuming that the default date is unchangeable. |
63,500 | I wonder what are some good sample ways for breaking down tedious processes, e.g., creation of long content. Most sites present long forms - for example, eBay presents one long form for the details of a selling item. In contrast, I fairly like the way Airbnb breaks down the listing process into, first, a clean outline submission and then several tabs asking for details. I think this substantially reduces mental burden.
Does anyone know of any other sites out there that break down content creation well?
Ref: <https://www.airbnb.com/rooms/new> | 2014/08/25 | [
"https://ux.stackexchange.com/questions/63500",
"https://ux.stackexchange.com",
"https://ux.stackexchange.com/users/53484/"
] | You're asking how to make it **extremely obvious**, so you could write
*Click to select other dates*
into the textfield. E.g.
*24 August, 2014 (click to select other dates)* | If you want it to be extremely obvious, that the user should click on the button to select a date, I suggest you add a label to the button or replace the icon with a label. The label could say something like "Change Date", or maybe just "Change" or "Select," given that it follows a text control that already contains a date. |
5,488 | Our puppy (8 months old, Husky/Shepherd mix) is getting to be good enough on the leash that I can take him for a nice run. I live near a park with a 5K loop road, which I used to run regularly.
When I first started taking him out around the loop road, he'd jump at me and bite and try to get me to play right away, or at least at fairly arbitrary intervals. I got a good lesson in dominant walking, and a better slip lead that actually loosens again after I tug it so I can keep it high on his neck, give it a quick tug and re-orient him to following me and we can keep going. That had a huge impact--he's way, way more manageable. My pace is pretty slow, he seems to handle it very comfortably, and we stop for water.
But since the walking lesson I've noticed that about 2/3 to 3/4 of the way through, he still gets really unmanageable. He tries to jump on me and bite playfully, but he forgets his bite inhibition entirely. The other day he did this really manic digging for a few minutes. Just scraping at the soil with dirt flying and shaking his head and jumping around. In general, it seems like he just gets manic and bonkers, jumping around and barking at me.
It occurred to me (this might be obvious to everyone else?) that 5K might just be too long for him to run. Do I need to find a shorter route, or is there something else going on?
P.S. There's a mention of overtiredness at [What can I do if my puppy is hyperactive?](https://pets.stackexchange.com/questions/141/what-can-i-do-if-my-puppy-is-hyperactive?lq=1) which seems to suggest that's exactly what is going on. But I'd love to know more about how to tell when a young dog is getting overtired. | 2014/06/18 | [
"https://pets.stackexchange.com/questions/5488",
"https://pets.stackexchange.com",
"https://pets.stackexchange.com/users/1222/"
] | Good morning! Your puppy is probably sizable and physically immature, so his joints are not really ready for a lot of intense road work. Your veterinarian can probably guide you on this, as your dogs’ conditioning needs to be done carefully. For instance, an overweight dog would probably do well to lose some of the weight prior to pounding the pavement.
The duration on these walks may need to be shorter, initially. Intermittently rewarding your pup for calmly walking in a loose lead position will probably enable you to minimize tugging on the lead - the tugging could spark off some of the “manic” behavior.
Keep it light and easy, with a lot of positive reinforcement, and I suspect you’ll see rapid improvement. | I have a Siberian Husky that is not much older than your dog. As I take him for a jog/walk, he will do the same thing sometimes such as bite the leash or jump around.
It could very well be the case that your dog is bored of walking and wants to run or at least go faster. This makes sense for a Husky Shepherd. They have lots of energy and your goal should be to help them exert it. |
5,488 | Our puppy (8 months old, Husky/Shepherd mix) is getting to be good enough on the leash that I can take him for a nice run. I live near a park with a 5K loop road, which I used to run regularly.
When I first started taking him out around the loop road, he'd jump at me and bite and try to get me to play right away, or at least at fairly arbitrary intervals. I got a good lesson in dominant walking, and a better slip lead that actually loosens again after I tug it so I can keep it high on his neck, give it a quick tug and re-orient him to following me and we can keep going. That had a huge impact--he's way, way more manageable. My pace is pretty slow, he seems to handle it very comfortably, and we stop for water.
But since the walking lesson I've noticed that about 2/3 to 3/4 of the way through, he still gets really unmanageable. He tries to jump on me and bite playfully, but he forgets his bite inhibition entirely. The other day he did this really manic digging for a few minutes. Just scraping at the soil with dirt flying and shaking his head and jumping around. In general, it seems like he just gets manic and bonkers, jumping around and barking at me.
It occurred to me (this might be obvious to everyone else?) that 5K might just be too long for him to run. Do I need to find a shorter route, or is there something else going on?
P.S. There's a mention of overtiredness at [What can I do if my puppy is hyperactive?](https://pets.stackexchange.com/questions/141/what-can-i-do-if-my-puppy-is-hyperactive?lq=1) which seems to suggest that's exactly what is going on. But I'd love to know more about how to tell when a young dog is getting overtired. | 2014/06/18 | [
"https://pets.stackexchange.com/questions/5488",
"https://pets.stackexchange.com",
"https://pets.stackexchange.com/users/1222/"
] | I would definitely ask his vet how much he thinks is too much for the dog's age and physical state.
Then I suggest you see how long does he sleep after he arrives home (if you are not running just before going to bed). Dogs can easily get overexcited and push themselves too hard just to please their owners. What gives me the best idea of how much exercise my dog needs is not how he behaves while outside (he's a Boston Terrier 10 months old, could stay out running, jumping and playing with other dogs forever) but how he behaves once he has arrived. If he sleeps for two hours straight it was a good workout, if he sleeps for four it was definitely too much, anything less than two hours of straight sleep and we have to go out again later in the day if we want a calm dog at night. Of course those numbers might not apply to your dog, but I think you'll find this method to give you a good idea of how much exercise he needs to be happy. | I have a Siberian Husky that is not much older than your dog. As I take him for a jog/walk, he will do the same thing sometimes such as bite the leash or jump around.
It could very well be the case that your dog is bored of walking and wants to run or at least go faster. This makes sense for a Husky Shepherd. They have lots of energy and your goal should be to help them exert it. |
5,488 | Our puppy (8 months old, Husky/Shepherd mix) is getting to be good enough on the leash that I can take him for a nice run. I live near a park with a 5K loop road, which I used to run regularly.
When I first started taking him out around the loop road, he'd jump at me and bite and try to get me to play right away, or at least at fairly arbitrary intervals. I got a good lesson in dominant walking, and a better slip lead that actually loosens again after I tug it so I can keep it high on his neck, give it a quick tug and re-orient him to following me and we can keep going. That had a huge impact--he's way, way more manageable. My pace is pretty slow, he seems to handle it very comfortably, and we stop for water.
But since the walking lesson I've noticed that about 2/3 to 3/4 of the way through, he still gets really unmanageable. He tries to jump on me and bite playfully, but he forgets his bite inhibition entirely. The other day he did this really manic digging for a few minutes. Just scraping at the soil with dirt flying and shaking his head and jumping around. In general, it seems like he just gets manic and bonkers, jumping around and barking at me.
It occurred to me (this might be obvious to everyone else?) that 5K might just be too long for him to run. Do I need to find a shorter route, or is there something else going on?
P.S. There's a mention of overtiredness at [What can I do if my puppy is hyperactive?](https://pets.stackexchange.com/questions/141/what-can-i-do-if-my-puppy-is-hyperactive?lq=1) which seems to suggest that's exactly what is going on. But I'd love to know more about how to tell when a young dog is getting overtired. | 2014/06/18 | [
"https://pets.stackexchange.com/questions/5488",
"https://pets.stackexchange.com",
"https://pets.stackexchange.com/users/1222/"
] | There's not enough information in your post to provide a valid clinical picture. All of the behaviors you mentioned are *natural dog behaviors* that can occur in many situations.
Context Matters
---------------
Consider that digging can be self-rewarding play or prey drive, or it may be stress-displacement behavior. "Jumping around" in a bouncy way is generally a play behavior, but would generally be paired with play bows and other cues if it were all in fun. "Barking" has [a whole range of meanings](http://www.psychologytoday.com/blog/canine-corner/201103/what-are-dogs-trying-say-when-they-bark), but rapid bursts of barking with bouncy body language is most likely excitement or attention-seeking behavior.
"Just the Facts, Ma'am"
-----------------------
Focus on the facts:
1. *Your dog loses interest in the walk (or gains an interest in something else) after a given distance or time interval.*
Experiment. Try shorter distances or time intervals. Try avoiding specific areas that trigger arousal. Learn more about dog body language, and respect your dog's signals that he's tired, bored, or over-stimulated.
2. *Your dog loses bite inhibition when aroused.*
Avoid situations that cause excessive arousal. Learn to read the signals that your dog is becoming aroused before he hits DefCon 1. You might also train an alternate behavior (like a down-stay) that is designed to reduce arousal.
By focusing on observable behavior, rather than trying to guess about your dog's internal processes, you can avoid or manage almost any behavior. Your dog is clearly trying to communicate with you; however, learning *what* he's trying to communicate will require time, effort, and research on your part. | I have a Siberian Husky that is not much older than your dog. As I take him for a jog/walk, he will do the same thing sometimes such as bite the leash or jump around.
It could very well be the case that your dog is bored of walking and wants to run or at least go faster. This makes sense for a Husky Shepherd. They have lots of energy and your goal should be to help them exert it. |
5,488 | Our puppy (8 months old, Husky/Shepherd mix) is getting to be good enough on the leash that I can take him for a nice run. I live near a park with a 5K loop road, which I used to run regularly.
When I first started taking him out around the loop road, he'd jump at me and bite and try to get me to play right away, or at least at fairly arbitrary intervals. I got a good lesson in dominant walking, and a better slip lead that actually loosens again after I tug it so I can keep it high on his neck, give it a quick tug and re-orient him to following me and we can keep going. That had a huge impact--he's way, way more manageable. My pace is pretty slow, he seems to handle it very comfortably, and we stop for water.
But since the walking lesson I've noticed that about 2/3 to 3/4 of the way through, he still gets really unmanageable. He tries to jump on me and bite playfully, but he forgets his bite inhibition entirely. The other day he did this really manic digging for a few minutes. Just scraping at the soil with dirt flying and shaking his head and jumping around. In general, it seems like he just gets manic and bonkers, jumping around and barking at me.
It occurred to me (this might be obvious to everyone else?) that 5K might just be too long for him to run. Do I need to find a shorter route, or is there something else going on?
P.S. There's a mention of overtiredness at [What can I do if my puppy is hyperactive?](https://pets.stackexchange.com/questions/141/what-can-i-do-if-my-puppy-is-hyperactive?lq=1) which seems to suggest that's exactly what is going on. But I'd love to know more about how to tell when a young dog is getting overtired. | 2014/06/18 | [
"https://pets.stackexchange.com/questions/5488",
"https://pets.stackexchange.com",
"https://pets.stackexchange.com/users/1222/"
] | There's not enough information in your post to provide a valid clinical picture. All of the behaviors you mentioned are *natural dog behaviors* that can occur in many situations.
Context Matters
---------------
Consider that digging can be self-rewarding play or prey drive, or it may be stress-displacement behavior. "Jumping around" in a bouncy way is generally a play behavior, but would generally be paired with play bows and other cues if it were all in fun. "Barking" has [a whole range of meanings](http://www.psychologytoday.com/blog/canine-corner/201103/what-are-dogs-trying-say-when-they-bark), but rapid bursts of barking with bouncy body language is most likely excitement or attention-seeking behavior.
"Just the Facts, Ma'am"
-----------------------
Focus on the facts:
1. *Your dog loses interest in the walk (or gains an interest in something else) after a given distance or time interval.*
Experiment. Try shorter distances or time intervals. Try avoiding specific areas that trigger arousal. Learn more about dog body language, and respect your dog's signals that he's tired, bored, or over-stimulated.
2. *Your dog loses bite inhibition when aroused.*
Avoid situations that cause excessive arousal. Learn to read the signals that your dog is becoming aroused before he hits DefCon 1. You might also train an alternate behavior (like a down-stay) that is designed to reduce arousal.
By focusing on observable behavior, rather than trying to guess about your dog's internal processes, you can avoid or manage almost any behavior. Your dog is clearly trying to communicate with you; however, learning *what* he's trying to communicate will require time, effort, and research on your part. | Good morning! Your puppy is probably sizable and physically immature, so his joints are not really ready for a lot of intense road work. Your veterinarian can probably guide you on this, as your dogs’ conditioning needs to be done carefully. For instance, an overweight dog would probably do well to lose some of the weight prior to pounding the pavement.
The duration on these walks may need to be shorter, initially. Intermittently rewarding your pup for calmly walking in a loose lead position will probably enable you to minimize tugging on the lead - the tugging could spark off some of the “manic” behavior.
Keep it light and easy, with a lot of positive reinforcement, and I suspect you’ll see rapid improvement. |
5,488 | Our puppy (8 months old, Husky/Shepherd mix) is getting to be good enough on the leash that I can take him for a nice run. I live near a park with a 5K loop road, which I used to run regularly.
When I first started taking him out around the loop road, he'd jump at me and bite and try to get me to play right away, or at least at fairly arbitrary intervals. I got a good lesson in dominant walking, and a better slip lead that actually loosens again after I tug it so I can keep it high on his neck, give it a quick tug and re-orient him to following me and we can keep going. That had a huge impact--he's way, way more manageable. My pace is pretty slow, he seems to handle it very comfortably, and we stop for water.
But since the walking lesson I've noticed that about 2/3 to 3/4 of the way through, he still gets really unmanageable. He tries to jump on me and bite playfully, but he forgets his bite inhibition entirely. The other day he did this really manic digging for a few minutes. Just scraping at the soil with dirt flying and shaking his head and jumping around. In general, it seems like he just gets manic and bonkers, jumping around and barking at me.
It occurred to me (this might be obvious to everyone else?) that 5K might just be too long for him to run. Do I need to find a shorter route, or is there something else going on?
P.S. There's a mention of overtiredness at [What can I do if my puppy is hyperactive?](https://pets.stackexchange.com/questions/141/what-can-i-do-if-my-puppy-is-hyperactive?lq=1) which seems to suggest that's exactly what is going on. But I'd love to know more about how to tell when a young dog is getting overtired. | 2014/06/18 | [
"https://pets.stackexchange.com/questions/5488",
"https://pets.stackexchange.com",
"https://pets.stackexchange.com/users/1222/"
] | Good morning! Your puppy is probably sizable and physically immature, so his joints are not really ready for a lot of intense road work. Your veterinarian can probably guide you on this, as your dogs’ conditioning needs to be done carefully. For instance, an overweight dog would probably do well to lose some of the weight prior to pounding the pavement.
The duration on these walks may need to be shorter, initially. Intermittently rewarding your pup for calmly walking in a loose lead position will probably enable you to minimize tugging on the lead - the tugging could spark off some of the “manic” behavior.
Keep it light and easy, with a lot of positive reinforcement, and I suspect you’ll see rapid improvement. | Young dog is very curious about the world surrounding him and if you take him for a walk and force him to walk besides you like a walking robot and not having a chance to examine the world around him - he won't be very happy with that.
You should allow him to sniff around, to take a better look into various details he finds interesting, wait patiently while he examines smells and markings from other dogs and animals etc... This is very important to him.
Not allowing the dog to do his "doggy things" is like taking a child into a kid's playground and expecting him to sit quietly on the bench.
Be aware that the smell is the dominant sense in dogs, way more important then the sight, and the dog that doesn't get his chance to sniff around is like a man who goes for a walk with his eyes covered.
Remember, when you're spending time with your dog try to do things that pleases him too, not only you.
The reason why your dog starts doing "weird" things near the end of your walk is probably that - as the walk approaches it's end - he realizes the time is almost up and he won't get any of that he hoped for, and then he tries to do something about that at the very last moment.
Let him go for the first half of walk his way, and end up the rest of the walk your way.
He'll be very grateful to you.
And yes - huskies like to dig.
Leave him a few days in your backyard and he'll make you a beautiful large scale model of Moon's surface on your lawn yard. |
5,488 | Our puppy (8 months old, Husky/Shepherd mix) is getting to be good enough on the leash that I can take him for a nice run. I live near a park with a 5K loop road, which I used to run regularly.
When I first started taking him out around the loop road, he'd jump at me and bite and try to get me to play right away, or at least at fairly arbitrary intervals. I got a good lesson in dominant walking, and a better slip lead that actually loosens again after I tug it so I can keep it high on his neck, give it a quick tug and re-orient him to following me and we can keep going. That had a huge impact--he's way, way more manageable. My pace is pretty slow, he seems to handle it very comfortably, and we stop for water.
But since the walking lesson I've noticed that about 2/3 to 3/4 of the way through, he still gets really unmanageable. He tries to jump on me and bite playfully, but he forgets his bite inhibition entirely. The other day he did this really manic digging for a few minutes. Just scraping at the soil with dirt flying and shaking his head and jumping around. In general, it seems like he just gets manic and bonkers, jumping around and barking at me.
It occurred to me (this might be obvious to everyone else?) that 5K might just be too long for him to run. Do I need to find a shorter route, or is there something else going on?
P.S. There's a mention of overtiredness at [What can I do if my puppy is hyperactive?](https://pets.stackexchange.com/questions/141/what-can-i-do-if-my-puppy-is-hyperactive?lq=1) which seems to suggest that's exactly what is going on. But I'd love to know more about how to tell when a young dog is getting overtired. | 2014/06/18 | [
"https://pets.stackexchange.com/questions/5488",
"https://pets.stackexchange.com",
"https://pets.stackexchange.com/users/1222/"
] | There's not enough information in your post to provide a valid clinical picture. All of the behaviors you mentioned are *natural dog behaviors* that can occur in many situations.
Context Matters
---------------
Consider that digging can be self-rewarding play or prey drive, or it may be stress-displacement behavior. "Jumping around" in a bouncy way is generally a play behavior, but would generally be paired with play bows and other cues if it were all in fun. "Barking" has [a whole range of meanings](http://www.psychologytoday.com/blog/canine-corner/201103/what-are-dogs-trying-say-when-they-bark), but rapid bursts of barking with bouncy body language is most likely excitement or attention-seeking behavior.
"Just the Facts, Ma'am"
-----------------------
Focus on the facts:
1. *Your dog loses interest in the walk (or gains an interest in something else) after a given distance or time interval.*
Experiment. Try shorter distances or time intervals. Try avoiding specific areas that trigger arousal. Learn more about dog body language, and respect your dog's signals that he's tired, bored, or over-stimulated.
2. *Your dog loses bite inhibition when aroused.*
Avoid situations that cause excessive arousal. Learn to read the signals that your dog is becoming aroused before he hits DefCon 1. You might also train an alternate behavior (like a down-stay) that is designed to reduce arousal.
By focusing on observable behavior, rather than trying to guess about your dog's internal processes, you can avoid or manage almost any behavior. Your dog is clearly trying to communicate with you; however, learning *what* he's trying to communicate will require time, effort, and research on your part. | I would definitely ask his vet how much he thinks is too much for the dog's age and physical state.
Then I suggest you see how long does he sleep after he arrives home (if you are not running just before going to bed). Dogs can easily get overexcited and push themselves too hard just to please their owners. What gives me the best idea of how much exercise my dog needs is not how he behaves while outside (he's a Boston Terrier 10 months old, could stay out running, jumping and playing with other dogs forever) but how he behaves once he has arrived. If he sleeps for two hours straight it was a good workout, if he sleeps for four it was definitely too much, anything less than two hours of straight sleep and we have to go out again later in the day if we want a calm dog at night. Of course those numbers might not apply to your dog, but I think you'll find this method to give you a good idea of how much exercise he needs to be happy. |
5,488 | Our puppy (8 months old, Husky/Shepherd mix) is getting to be good enough on the leash that I can take him for a nice run. I live near a park with a 5K loop road, which I used to run regularly.
When I first started taking him out around the loop road, he'd jump at me and bite and try to get me to play right away, or at least at fairly arbitrary intervals. I got a good lesson in dominant walking, and a better slip lead that actually loosens again after I tug it so I can keep it high on his neck, give it a quick tug and re-orient him to following me and we can keep going. That had a huge impact--he's way, way more manageable. My pace is pretty slow, he seems to handle it very comfortably, and we stop for water.
But since the walking lesson I've noticed that about 2/3 to 3/4 of the way through, he still gets really unmanageable. He tries to jump on me and bite playfully, but he forgets his bite inhibition entirely. The other day he did this really manic digging for a few minutes. Just scraping at the soil with dirt flying and shaking his head and jumping around. In general, it seems like he just gets manic and bonkers, jumping around and barking at me.
It occurred to me (this might be obvious to everyone else?) that 5K might just be too long for him to run. Do I need to find a shorter route, or is there something else going on?
P.S. There's a mention of overtiredness at [What can I do if my puppy is hyperactive?](https://pets.stackexchange.com/questions/141/what-can-i-do-if-my-puppy-is-hyperactive?lq=1) which seems to suggest that's exactly what is going on. But I'd love to know more about how to tell when a young dog is getting overtired. | 2014/06/18 | [
"https://pets.stackexchange.com/questions/5488",
"https://pets.stackexchange.com",
"https://pets.stackexchange.com/users/1222/"
] | I would definitely ask his vet how much he thinks is too much for the dog's age and physical state.
Then I suggest you see how long does he sleep after he arrives home (if you are not running just before going to bed). Dogs can easily get overexcited and push themselves too hard just to please their owners. What gives me the best idea of how much exercise my dog needs is not how he behaves while outside (he's a Boston Terrier 10 months old, could stay out running, jumping and playing with other dogs forever) but how he behaves once he has arrived. If he sleeps for two hours straight it was a good workout, if he sleeps for four it was definitely too much, anything less than two hours of straight sleep and we have to go out again later in the day if we want a calm dog at night. Of course those numbers might not apply to your dog, but I think you'll find this method to give you a good idea of how much exercise he needs to be happy. | Young dog is very curious about the world surrounding him and if you take him for a walk and force him to walk besides you like a walking robot and not having a chance to examine the world around him - he won't be very happy with that.
You should allow him to sniff around, to take a better look into various details he finds interesting, wait patiently while he examines smells and markings from other dogs and animals etc... This is very important to him.
Not allowing the dog to do his "doggy things" is like taking a child into a kid's playground and expecting him to sit quietly on the bench.
Be aware that the smell is the dominant sense in dogs, way more important then the sight, and the dog that doesn't get his chance to sniff around is like a man who goes for a walk with his eyes covered.
Remember, when you're spending time with your dog try to do things that pleases him too, not only you.
The reason why your dog starts doing "weird" things near the end of your walk is probably that - as the walk approaches it's end - he realizes the time is almost up and he won't get any of that he hoped for, and then he tries to do something about that at the very last moment.
Let him go for the first half of walk his way, and end up the rest of the walk your way.
He'll be very grateful to you.
And yes - huskies like to dig.
Leave him a few days in your backyard and he'll make you a beautiful large scale model of Moon's surface on your lawn yard. |
5,488 | Our puppy (8 months old, Husky/Shepherd mix) is getting to be good enough on the leash that I can take him for a nice run. I live near a park with a 5K loop road, which I used to run regularly.
When I first started taking him out around the loop road, he'd jump at me and bite and try to get me to play right away, or at least at fairly arbitrary intervals. I got a good lesson in dominant walking, and a better slip lead that actually loosens again after I tug it so I can keep it high on his neck, give it a quick tug and re-orient him to following me and we can keep going. That had a huge impact--he's way, way more manageable. My pace is pretty slow, he seems to handle it very comfortably, and we stop for water.
But since the walking lesson I've noticed that about 2/3 to 3/4 of the way through, he still gets really unmanageable. He tries to jump on me and bite playfully, but he forgets his bite inhibition entirely. The other day he did this really manic digging for a few minutes. Just scraping at the soil with dirt flying and shaking his head and jumping around. In general, it seems like he just gets manic and bonkers, jumping around and barking at me.
It occurred to me (this might be obvious to everyone else?) that 5K might just be too long for him to run. Do I need to find a shorter route, or is there something else going on?
P.S. There's a mention of overtiredness at [What can I do if my puppy is hyperactive?](https://pets.stackexchange.com/questions/141/what-can-i-do-if-my-puppy-is-hyperactive?lq=1) which seems to suggest that's exactly what is going on. But I'd love to know more about how to tell when a young dog is getting overtired. | 2014/06/18 | [
"https://pets.stackexchange.com/questions/5488",
"https://pets.stackexchange.com",
"https://pets.stackexchange.com/users/1222/"
] | There's not enough information in your post to provide a valid clinical picture. All of the behaviors you mentioned are *natural dog behaviors* that can occur in many situations.
Context Matters
---------------
Consider that digging can be self-rewarding play or prey drive, or it may be stress-displacement behavior. "Jumping around" in a bouncy way is generally a play behavior, but would generally be paired with play bows and other cues if it were all in fun. "Barking" has [a whole range of meanings](http://www.psychologytoday.com/blog/canine-corner/201103/what-are-dogs-trying-say-when-they-bark), but rapid bursts of barking with bouncy body language is most likely excitement or attention-seeking behavior.
"Just the Facts, Ma'am"
-----------------------
Focus on the facts:
1. *Your dog loses interest in the walk (or gains an interest in something else) after a given distance or time interval.*
Experiment. Try shorter distances or time intervals. Try avoiding specific areas that trigger arousal. Learn more about dog body language, and respect your dog's signals that he's tired, bored, or over-stimulated.
2. *Your dog loses bite inhibition when aroused.*
Avoid situations that cause excessive arousal. Learn to read the signals that your dog is becoming aroused before he hits DefCon 1. You might also train an alternate behavior (like a down-stay) that is designed to reduce arousal.
By focusing on observable behavior, rather than trying to guess about your dog's internal processes, you can avoid or manage almost any behavior. Your dog is clearly trying to communicate with you; however, learning *what* he's trying to communicate will require time, effort, and research on your part. | Young dog is very curious about the world surrounding him and if you take him for a walk and force him to walk besides you like a walking robot and not having a chance to examine the world around him - he won't be very happy with that.
You should allow him to sniff around, to take a better look into various details he finds interesting, wait patiently while he examines smells and markings from other dogs and animals etc... This is very important to him.
Not allowing the dog to do his "doggy things" is like taking a child into a kid's playground and expecting him to sit quietly on the bench.
Be aware that the smell is the dominant sense in dogs, way more important then the sight, and the dog that doesn't get his chance to sniff around is like a man who goes for a walk with his eyes covered.
Remember, when you're spending time with your dog try to do things that pleases him too, not only you.
The reason why your dog starts doing "weird" things near the end of your walk is probably that - as the walk approaches it's end - he realizes the time is almost up and he won't get any of that he hoped for, and then he tries to do something about that at the very last moment.
Let him go for the first half of walk his way, and end up the rest of the walk your way.
He'll be very grateful to you.
And yes - huskies like to dig.
Leave him a few days in your backyard and he'll make you a beautiful large scale model of Moon's surface on your lawn yard. |
172,023 | The Modrons have the following trait:
>
> **Axiomatic Mind.** The [modron] can't be compelled to act in a manner contrary to its nature or its instructions.
>
>
>
**What does this mean?**
It sounds to me like *nonphysical* means fail to make it act in a *contrary manner*. It is pretty clear that persuasion and intimidation would never work in such a case and since I, as GM, decide on skill checks anyway, that is no problem.
But, does this mean that the modron is immune against spells such as *suggestion*? Or against the charmed and frightened conditions when they would ask for *contrary actions*?
Clarification: "spells like *suggestion*" means spells that can be used to force a course of action, also including *mass suggestion*, *command* and *dominate monster*. | 2020/07/16 | [
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/172023",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/users/64093/"
] | It keeps the modrons from doing things contrary to their instructions
---------------------------------------------------------------------
**But instructions are not infallible!**
In the general description of Modron's in the MM:
>
> **Absolute Law and Order**. Under the direction of their leader, Primus, modrons increase order in the multiverse in accordance with laws beyond the comprehension of mortal minds. Their own minds are networked in a hierarchal pyramid, in which each modron receives commands from superiors and delegates orders to underlings. *A modron carries out commands with total obedience*, utmost efficiency, and an absence of morality or ego.
>
>
>
This puts a greater burden on the caster to make things like *suggestion* and *command* work.
An example would be if a a modron was told to guard a door. If this was a normal being you could suggest falling asleep, the door is moved, or so forth. But these would all be contrary to the instruction. It knows where the door is, it cannot move, it cannot be watched if the modron is asleep, etc.
But I could suggest, "Guard the door from the other side."
That is still well within the parameters of guarding the door. So it could still obey the suggestion by opening the door, walking through, and standing on the other side of the door.
*Dominate Monster* would work similarly. You cannot make them do anything contrary to their programming such as attacking another modron. However you could say, "That modron to the west of you has turned rogue. Subdue it so that it may be reprogrammed."
This means there should not be a blanket statement of "immunity to charmed and frightened". The caster just has to work harder to make it stick. | This is slightly vague but it's useful to note this general aspect written in the descriptions of each of the various Modron types:
>
> Their own minds are networked in a hierarchal pyramid, in which each
> modron receives commands from superiors and delegates orders to
> underlings. A modron carries out commands with total obedience, utmost
> efficiency, and an absence of morality or ego.
>
>
>
As beings of absolute law and order, this suggests that *no* form of persuasion or intimidation and so on, magical or otherwise, can deter a Modron from following it's explicit instructions or duties. As a specific feature, this would override spells such as *suggestion*, *dominate monster* and similar. |
56,932 | When John fell down to worship the angel that had just showed him the prophetic visions of Revelation, the angel quickly stopped him in his tracks and corrected him for doing so, as he (the angel) was just a fellow servant and God is the only one to be worshipped:
>
> 8 I, John, am the one who heard and saw these things. And when I heard and saw them, I fell down to worship at the feet of the angel who showed them to me, 9 **but he said to me, “You must not do that! I am a fellow servant with you and your brothers the prophets, and with those who keep the words of this book. Worship God**.” [Revelation 22:8-9 ESV]
>
>
>
However, angels are reported to have worshipped Jesus as well. For example:
Hebrews 1:5-6 ESV:
>
> 5 For to which of the angels did God ever say,
>
>
> “**You are my Son**, today I have begotten you”?
>
>
> Or again,
>
>
> “I will be to him a father, and he shall be to me a son”?
>
>
> 6 And again, when he brings **the firstborn** into the world, he says,
>
>
> **“Let all God's angels worship him.”**
>
>
>
Revelation 5:11-14 ESV:
>
> 11 Then I looked, and I heard around the throne and the living
> creatures and the elders **the voice of many angels**, numbering myriads
> of myriads and thousands of thousands, 12 saying with a loud voice,
>
>
> **“Worthy is the Lamb** who was slain, to receive power and wealth and
> wisdom and might and honor and glory and blessing!”
>
>
> 13 And I heard **every creature in heaven and on earth and under the**
> **earth and in the sea, and all that is in them**, saying,
>
>
> “To him who sits on the throne **and to the Lamb** be blessing and honor
> and glory and might forever and ever!”
>
>
> 14 And the four living creatures said, “Amen!” **and the elders fell**
> **down and worshiped**.
>
>
>
Why didn't the angel at Revelation 22:9 mention Jesus when he said to John that God is the one to be worshipped? Shouldn't the angel have concluded the verse with "Worship God **and his Son**"? Did the angel forget about Jesus? | 2021/03/20 | [
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/56932",
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com",
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/users/-1/"
] | There are numerous places in the NT where people worship Jesus as God such as: Matt 2:11, 14:33, 28:9, 17; Luke 4:8; 24:52; John 9:38; Rom 10:9, Heb 1:5, 6, Phil 2:10; Rev 5:6-12.
Further, we have numerous instances where people pray to Jesus as God such as: John 4:10, 14:13, 14, Acts 1:24, 24; Acts 7:59, 60, 9:5, 10-14, 1 Cor 1:1, 2, 16:22, 2 Cor 12:8, 9, 1 Tim 1:12, Rev 5:8-13, 22:20; 1 Thess 3:11-14, 2 Thess 2:16, 17, etc.
Thus, the simplest solution to Rev 22:9 is understand "God" in the generic sense of including the entire Godhead. | I'm confused as to why you even ask the question. Scripture is clear that God is three in one trinity, the Father, the Son, and the Holy Spirit. What is so hard to figure out?
You can not pick and choose Scripture. It's all or nothing.
Jesus is God. Jesus claimed to be God. Jesus is named as God in Scripture other than the Gospels. |
56,932 | When John fell down to worship the angel that had just showed him the prophetic visions of Revelation, the angel quickly stopped him in his tracks and corrected him for doing so, as he (the angel) was just a fellow servant and God is the only one to be worshipped:
>
> 8 I, John, am the one who heard and saw these things. And when I heard and saw them, I fell down to worship at the feet of the angel who showed them to me, 9 **but he said to me, “You must not do that! I am a fellow servant with you and your brothers the prophets, and with those who keep the words of this book. Worship God**.” [Revelation 22:8-9 ESV]
>
>
>
However, angels are reported to have worshipped Jesus as well. For example:
Hebrews 1:5-6 ESV:
>
> 5 For to which of the angels did God ever say,
>
>
> “**You are my Son**, today I have begotten you”?
>
>
> Or again,
>
>
> “I will be to him a father, and he shall be to me a son”?
>
>
> 6 And again, when he brings **the firstborn** into the world, he says,
>
>
> **“Let all God's angels worship him.”**
>
>
>
Revelation 5:11-14 ESV:
>
> 11 Then I looked, and I heard around the throne and the living
> creatures and the elders **the voice of many angels**, numbering myriads
> of myriads and thousands of thousands, 12 saying with a loud voice,
>
>
> **“Worthy is the Lamb** who was slain, to receive power and wealth and
> wisdom and might and honor and glory and blessing!”
>
>
> 13 And I heard **every creature in heaven and on earth and under the**
> **earth and in the sea, and all that is in them**, saying,
>
>
> “To him who sits on the throne **and to the Lamb** be blessing and honor
> and glory and might forever and ever!”
>
>
> 14 And the four living creatures said, “Amen!” **and the elders fell**
> **down and worshiped**.
>
>
>
Why didn't the angel at Revelation 22:9 mention Jesus when he said to John that God is the one to be worshipped? Shouldn't the angel have concluded the verse with "Worship God **and his Son**"? Did the angel forget about Jesus? | 2021/03/20 | [
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/56932",
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com",
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/users/-1/"
] | There are numerous places in the NT where people worship Jesus as God such as: Matt 2:11, 14:33, 28:9, 17; Luke 4:8; 24:52; John 9:38; Rom 10:9, Heb 1:5, 6, Phil 2:10; Rev 5:6-12.
Further, we have numerous instances where people pray to Jesus as God such as: John 4:10, 14:13, 14, Acts 1:24, 24; Acts 7:59, 60, 9:5, 10-14, 1 Cor 1:1, 2, 16:22, 2 Cor 12:8, 9, 1 Tim 1:12, Rev 5:8-13, 22:20; 1 Thess 3:11-14, 2 Thess 2:16, 17, etc.
Thus, the simplest solution to Rev 22:9 is understand "God" in the generic sense of including the entire Godhead. | The Biblical Unitarian view on this is fairly straightforward. Although Jesus can and ought to be worshipped as King, God is a larger ultimate object of worship. So the angel mentioned God and not Jesus.
See [Should we "worship" Jesus Christ?](https://www.biblicalunitarian.com/videos/can-we-worship-jesus-christ) which lays out the issue of worship and Jesus from a Biblical Unitarian perspective. |
56,932 | When John fell down to worship the angel that had just showed him the prophetic visions of Revelation, the angel quickly stopped him in his tracks and corrected him for doing so, as he (the angel) was just a fellow servant and God is the only one to be worshipped:
>
> 8 I, John, am the one who heard and saw these things. And when I heard and saw them, I fell down to worship at the feet of the angel who showed them to me, 9 **but he said to me, “You must not do that! I am a fellow servant with you and your brothers the prophets, and with those who keep the words of this book. Worship God**.” [Revelation 22:8-9 ESV]
>
>
>
However, angels are reported to have worshipped Jesus as well. For example:
Hebrews 1:5-6 ESV:
>
> 5 For to which of the angels did God ever say,
>
>
> “**You are my Son**, today I have begotten you”?
>
>
> Or again,
>
>
> “I will be to him a father, and he shall be to me a son”?
>
>
> 6 And again, when he brings **the firstborn** into the world, he says,
>
>
> **“Let all God's angels worship him.”**
>
>
>
Revelation 5:11-14 ESV:
>
> 11 Then I looked, and I heard around the throne and the living
> creatures and the elders **the voice of many angels**, numbering myriads
> of myriads and thousands of thousands, 12 saying with a loud voice,
>
>
> **“Worthy is the Lamb** who was slain, to receive power and wealth and
> wisdom and might and honor and glory and blessing!”
>
>
> 13 And I heard **every creature in heaven and on earth and under the**
> **earth and in the sea, and all that is in them**, saying,
>
>
> “To him who sits on the throne **and to the Lamb** be blessing and honor
> and glory and might forever and ever!”
>
>
> 14 And the four living creatures said, “Amen!” **and the elders fell**
> **down and worshiped**.
>
>
>
Why didn't the angel at Revelation 22:9 mention Jesus when he said to John that God is the one to be worshipped? Shouldn't the angel have concluded the verse with "Worship God **and his Son**"? Did the angel forget about Jesus? | 2021/03/20 | [
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/56932",
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com",
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/users/-1/"
] | There are numerous places in the NT where people worship Jesus as God such as: Matt 2:11, 14:33, 28:9, 17; Luke 4:8; 24:52; John 9:38; Rom 10:9, Heb 1:5, 6, Phil 2:10; Rev 5:6-12.
Further, we have numerous instances where people pray to Jesus as God such as: John 4:10, 14:13, 14, Acts 1:24, 24; Acts 7:59, 60, 9:5, 10-14, 1 Cor 1:1, 2, 16:22, 2 Cor 12:8, 9, 1 Tim 1:12, Rev 5:8-13, 22:20; 1 Thess 3:11-14, 2 Thess 2:16, 17, etc.
Thus, the simplest solution to Rev 22:9 is understand "God" in the generic sense of including the entire Godhead. | When John “fell down to worship at the feet of the angel who showed” these visions to him, the angel said, “You must not do that! I am a fellow servant … Worship God” (Rev 22:8-9). The question is, why didn't the angel tell John to worship both God and Jesus?
From a Trinitarian perspective, a possible answer may be that “God” includes Jesus. However, that is not how the word “God” is used in Revelation. The title "God" is found about 100 times in Revelation. The title "God" is found about 100 times in Revelation. In most instances, nobody else is mentioned in the context so it is not immediately clear to whom the title "God" refers. However, in the following 17 instances, **the title is used to identify the Father in distinction from Jesus**, making it clear that Jesus is NEVER called God and that **the title "God" ALWAYS refers exclusively to the Father**. The point of the following is not to show that the Father and Son are different Persons, but that GOD AND THE SON ARE DIFFERENT PERSONS:
>
> “The Revelation of **Jesus Christ**, which **God** gave Him” (Rev 1:1).
>
>
> “John, who testified to the word of **God** and to the testimony of **Jesus
> Christ**” (Rev 1:2)
>
>
> “I, John … was on the island called Patmos because of the word of **God**
> and the testimony of **Jesus**” (Rev 1:9).
>
>
> “You (the **Lamb** – Jesus) were slain, and purchased for **God** with Your
> blood men from every tribe …” (Rev 5:9).
>
>
> “Salvation to our **God** who sits on the throne, and to the **Lamb**” (Rev
> 7:10).
>
>
> “The **Lamb** … will be their shepherd … and **God** will wipe every tear from
> their eyes” (Rev 7:17).
>
>
> “She gave birth to a son, a **male child**, who is to rule all the
> nations with a rod of iron; and her child was caught up to **God** and to
> His throne” (Rev 12:5).
>
>
> “Now … the kingdom of our **God** and the authority of His **Christ** have
> come” (Rev 12:10).
>
>
> “The dragon … went off to make war with the rest of her children, who
> keep the commandments of **God** and hold to the testimony of **Jesus**” (Rev
> 12:17).
>
>
> “These have been purchased from among men as first fruits to **God and
> to the Lamb**” (Rev 14:4).
>
>
> “The saints who keep the commandments of **God** and their faith in **Jesus**”
> (Rev 14:12)
>
>
> “Those who had been beheaded because of their testimony of **Jesus** and
> because of the word of **God**” (Rev 20:4)
>
>
> “They will be priests of **God and of Christ** and will reign with Him for
> a thousand years” (Rev 20:6).
>
>
> “I saw no temple in it, for **the Lord God the Almighty and the Lamb** are
> its temple” (Rev 21:22).
>
>
> “The glory of **God** has illumined it, and its lamp is the **Lamb**” (Rev
> 21:23).
>
>
> “A river of the water of life, clear as crystal, coming from the
> throne **of God and of the Lamb**” (Rev 22:1)
>
>
> “There will no longer be any curse; and the throne **of God and of the
> Lamb** will be in it” (Rev 22:3).
>
>
>
The above shows that God and His unique Son belong together. For example, they share one single throne (22:1, 3) and, together, they are the temple and the light of the New Jerusalem (21:22-23). Nevertheless, God is one Person and Jesus is somebody else. People who do not accept this VERY CLEAR conclusion will argue that Jesus is elsewhere called God. That is simply not true.
VERY FEW
========
The word theos appears about 1300 times in the New Testament. Of those, Trinitarians propose about 7 instances where Jesus is called God. The extremely small number of instances where Jesus is POSSIBLY called God shows that, in the other 99.5% of the instances, there is no dispute. In the other 99.5% instances, it is agreed that “God” refers to the Father ONLY. In other words, IT IS OVERWHELMINGLY CLEAR THAT THE TITLE "GOD" REFERS PREDOMINANTLY TO THE FATHER.
PAUL
====
Paul should be our main interpreter of the gospels. I have done a similar exercise as the above for [the book of Colossians](https://revelationbyjesuschrist.com/is-jesus-god/), which has Paul’s highest Christology, and I similarly found that the title God is used for the Father ONLY.
Furthermore, with the exception of two disputed passages in Paul's other letters, PAUL NEVER REFERS TO JESUS AS GOD.
>
> The one is [Romans 9 verse 5](https://revelationbyjesuschrist.com/romans-95/), but that depends entirely on
> punctuation. In 50% of the translations, the punctuation is such that
> it does not describe Jesus as God, but says that Jesus is blessed by
> God.
>
>
> The other is Titus 2:13, which reads, “Our great God and Savior,
> Christ Jesus.” Trinitarians read this as referring to only one Person
> but it can just as well be a reference to two Persons; God and Jesus.
>
>
>
Just think of it: In all of Paul’s letters, which is about half of the New Testament, and which should be our main guide to doctrine, there are ONLY TWO instances where he POSSIBLY refers to Jesus as God. Since Paul never clearly refers to Jesus as God but maintains a clear and consistent distinction between God and Jesus (e.g., I Cor 8:6; 1 Tim 6:13), do we not have abundant evidence that Paul does not describe Jesus as God?
JOHN
====
The main verse Trinitarians use to say that Jesus is called God is John 1:1. I feel very passionate about this verse because the translators KNOW that theos is used in that verse in a qualitative sense. But they argue that this means that Jesus is like God in nature and that this means that He is God. Consequently, the average Christian reads the translation of John 1:1 as an identification of Jesus as God, rather than as a qualitative description. A better translation, I believe, would be something like: "And the word was with God and the word was like God."
The other verse in John is when Thomas sees Jesus after His resurrection and exclaimed, “My Lord and my God!” (John 20:28)! Can you imagine? Jesus never taught His disciples that He is God! In fact, in the very same chapter He refers to His Father as His God (John 20:17). And John summarises the purpose of his entire gospel a few verses later. Does he say his purpose is to show that Jesus is God? No! His purpose was to proclaim Jesus as Christ (John 20:31)! But Thomas, about 60 years before John made this summary of his gospel, miraculously simply knew that Jesus is God!
What the poor average churchgoer is not told is that there is a [huge difference between the word theos and the word God](https://revelationbyjesuschrist.com/theos-2/). Hanson explains:
>
> “The word theos or deus, for the first four centuries of the existence
> of Christianity had a wide variety of meanings. There were many
> different types and grades of deity in popular thought and religion
> and even in philosophical thought.” ([link](https://revelationbyjesuschrist.com/hanson/#theos))
>
>
>
In Thomas’ day, the word theos was used for any immortal being with supernatural powers. And there were thought to be quite a number of such beings; including the Greek pantheon. In contrast, the word “God” is a name for one specific Being. Since the standard explanation of John 20:28 cannot be right, I think that Thomas used the word theos in a generic sense. Namely, seeing the risen Jesus, he used theos in the sense of an immortal being with supernatural powers.
HEBREWS 1:8
-----------
In Hebrews 1:8 Jesus is called theos but the very next verse refers to God as His theos. At least, that means that Jesus is subordinate to His Father. But Hebrews 1:8 is simply a quote from Psalm 45:6 where the king of Israel is called god IN A GENERIC SENSE. Hebrews 1 applies this to Jesus and also calls Him theos IN A GENERIC SENSE. It does not identify Jesus as God Almighty.
2 PETER 1:1
-----------
In the NASB, 2 Peter 1:1 reads “our God and Savior, Jesus Christ.” However, since this is the only possible instance when Peter describes Jesus as God and since, in the very next verse, Peter makes a distinction between God and Jesus (“The knowledge of God and of Jesus our Lord” (2 Peter 1:2)), we should read verse 1 as referring to two Persons; the Father and the Son.
CONCLUSION
----------
The evidence that the New Testament refers to Jesus as God is negligible. Since the title “God” is consistently used to identify the Father in distinction from Jesus, when the angel told John, "*worship God*,” he referred to the Father ONLY.
I am not disputing that the Son always existed or that God created all things through Him. My point is that only the Father is the Ultimate Reality; the Source of all else, and that the Son is subordinate to the Father.
This answers the question: WHY did the angel not include Jesus? Why must only the Father be worshiped? Since only the Father is identified as “God,” all other beings, including His unique Son, are subordinate to Him. Therefore, we worship Him.
JESUS IS WORSHIPED.
-------------------
But, as the question rightly states, angels and the entire creation worship Jesus (Heb 1:6; Rev 5:13-14). That does not contradict the statement that we must worship God only. [The Greek word translated as “worship” (proskunuo)](https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/a/69890/45536) merely means to show extreme respect by falling down before somebody else. It is also used when people fall down before other people such as kings. For example, in Revelation 3:9, Jesus said, “I will make them come and bow down at your feet.” “Bow down,” here, translates proskuneó.
Furthermore, as we read in Philippians 2:9-11 and Hebrews 1:6, Jesus is worshiped by the entire creation BECAUSE THAT IS GOD’S WILL. There is, therefore, nothing wrong with showing extreme respect to the One through whom God created all things. But, as Philippians 2:11 adds, it is all “*to the glory of God the Father*.” |
56,932 | When John fell down to worship the angel that had just showed him the prophetic visions of Revelation, the angel quickly stopped him in his tracks and corrected him for doing so, as he (the angel) was just a fellow servant and God is the only one to be worshipped:
>
> 8 I, John, am the one who heard and saw these things. And when I heard and saw them, I fell down to worship at the feet of the angel who showed them to me, 9 **but he said to me, “You must not do that! I am a fellow servant with you and your brothers the prophets, and with those who keep the words of this book. Worship God**.” [Revelation 22:8-9 ESV]
>
>
>
However, angels are reported to have worshipped Jesus as well. For example:
Hebrews 1:5-6 ESV:
>
> 5 For to which of the angels did God ever say,
>
>
> “**You are my Son**, today I have begotten you”?
>
>
> Or again,
>
>
> “I will be to him a father, and he shall be to me a son”?
>
>
> 6 And again, when he brings **the firstborn** into the world, he says,
>
>
> **“Let all God's angels worship him.”**
>
>
>
Revelation 5:11-14 ESV:
>
> 11 Then I looked, and I heard around the throne and the living
> creatures and the elders **the voice of many angels**, numbering myriads
> of myriads and thousands of thousands, 12 saying with a loud voice,
>
>
> **“Worthy is the Lamb** who was slain, to receive power and wealth and
> wisdom and might and honor and glory and blessing!”
>
>
> 13 And I heard **every creature in heaven and on earth and under the**
> **earth and in the sea, and all that is in them**, saying,
>
>
> “To him who sits on the throne **and to the Lamb** be blessing and honor
> and glory and might forever and ever!”
>
>
> 14 And the four living creatures said, “Amen!” **and the elders fell**
> **down and worshiped**.
>
>
>
Why didn't the angel at Revelation 22:9 mention Jesus when he said to John that God is the one to be worshipped? Shouldn't the angel have concluded the verse with "Worship God **and his Son**"? Did the angel forget about Jesus? | 2021/03/20 | [
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/56932",
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com",
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/users/-1/"
] | The Biblical Unitarian view on this is fairly straightforward. Although Jesus can and ought to be worshipped as King, God is a larger ultimate object of worship. So the angel mentioned God and not Jesus.
See [Should we "worship" Jesus Christ?](https://www.biblicalunitarian.com/videos/can-we-worship-jesus-christ) which lays out the issue of worship and Jesus from a Biblical Unitarian perspective. | I'm confused as to why you even ask the question. Scripture is clear that God is three in one trinity, the Father, the Son, and the Holy Spirit. What is so hard to figure out?
You can not pick and choose Scripture. It's all or nothing.
Jesus is God. Jesus claimed to be God. Jesus is named as God in Scripture other than the Gospels. |
56,932 | When John fell down to worship the angel that had just showed him the prophetic visions of Revelation, the angel quickly stopped him in his tracks and corrected him for doing so, as he (the angel) was just a fellow servant and God is the only one to be worshipped:
>
> 8 I, John, am the one who heard and saw these things. And when I heard and saw them, I fell down to worship at the feet of the angel who showed them to me, 9 **but he said to me, “You must not do that! I am a fellow servant with you and your brothers the prophets, and with those who keep the words of this book. Worship God**.” [Revelation 22:8-9 ESV]
>
>
>
However, angels are reported to have worshipped Jesus as well. For example:
Hebrews 1:5-6 ESV:
>
> 5 For to which of the angels did God ever say,
>
>
> “**You are my Son**, today I have begotten you”?
>
>
> Or again,
>
>
> “I will be to him a father, and he shall be to me a son”?
>
>
> 6 And again, when he brings **the firstborn** into the world, he says,
>
>
> **“Let all God's angels worship him.”**
>
>
>
Revelation 5:11-14 ESV:
>
> 11 Then I looked, and I heard around the throne and the living
> creatures and the elders **the voice of many angels**, numbering myriads
> of myriads and thousands of thousands, 12 saying with a loud voice,
>
>
> **“Worthy is the Lamb** who was slain, to receive power and wealth and
> wisdom and might and honor and glory and blessing!”
>
>
> 13 And I heard **every creature in heaven and on earth and under the**
> **earth and in the sea, and all that is in them**, saying,
>
>
> “To him who sits on the throne **and to the Lamb** be blessing and honor
> and glory and might forever and ever!”
>
>
> 14 And the four living creatures said, “Amen!” **and the elders fell**
> **down and worshiped**.
>
>
>
Why didn't the angel at Revelation 22:9 mention Jesus when he said to John that God is the one to be worshipped? Shouldn't the angel have concluded the verse with "Worship God **and his Son**"? Did the angel forget about Jesus? | 2021/03/20 | [
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/56932",
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com",
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/users/-1/"
] | When John “fell down to worship at the feet of the angel who showed” these visions to him, the angel said, “You must not do that! I am a fellow servant … Worship God” (Rev 22:8-9). The question is, why didn't the angel tell John to worship both God and Jesus?
From a Trinitarian perspective, a possible answer may be that “God” includes Jesus. However, that is not how the word “God” is used in Revelation. The title "God" is found about 100 times in Revelation. The title "God" is found about 100 times in Revelation. In most instances, nobody else is mentioned in the context so it is not immediately clear to whom the title "God" refers. However, in the following 17 instances, **the title is used to identify the Father in distinction from Jesus**, making it clear that Jesus is NEVER called God and that **the title "God" ALWAYS refers exclusively to the Father**. The point of the following is not to show that the Father and Son are different Persons, but that GOD AND THE SON ARE DIFFERENT PERSONS:
>
> “The Revelation of **Jesus Christ**, which **God** gave Him” (Rev 1:1).
>
>
> “John, who testified to the word of **God** and to the testimony of **Jesus
> Christ**” (Rev 1:2)
>
>
> “I, John … was on the island called Patmos because of the word of **God**
> and the testimony of **Jesus**” (Rev 1:9).
>
>
> “You (the **Lamb** – Jesus) were slain, and purchased for **God** with Your
> blood men from every tribe …” (Rev 5:9).
>
>
> “Salvation to our **God** who sits on the throne, and to the **Lamb**” (Rev
> 7:10).
>
>
> “The **Lamb** … will be their shepherd … and **God** will wipe every tear from
> their eyes” (Rev 7:17).
>
>
> “She gave birth to a son, a **male child**, who is to rule all the
> nations with a rod of iron; and her child was caught up to **God** and to
> His throne” (Rev 12:5).
>
>
> “Now … the kingdom of our **God** and the authority of His **Christ** have
> come” (Rev 12:10).
>
>
> “The dragon … went off to make war with the rest of her children, who
> keep the commandments of **God** and hold to the testimony of **Jesus**” (Rev
> 12:17).
>
>
> “These have been purchased from among men as first fruits to **God and
> to the Lamb**” (Rev 14:4).
>
>
> “The saints who keep the commandments of **God** and their faith in **Jesus**”
> (Rev 14:12)
>
>
> “Those who had been beheaded because of their testimony of **Jesus** and
> because of the word of **God**” (Rev 20:4)
>
>
> “They will be priests of **God and of Christ** and will reign with Him for
> a thousand years” (Rev 20:6).
>
>
> “I saw no temple in it, for **the Lord God the Almighty and the Lamb** are
> its temple” (Rev 21:22).
>
>
> “The glory of **God** has illumined it, and its lamp is the **Lamb**” (Rev
> 21:23).
>
>
> “A river of the water of life, clear as crystal, coming from the
> throne **of God and of the Lamb**” (Rev 22:1)
>
>
> “There will no longer be any curse; and the throne **of God and of the
> Lamb** will be in it” (Rev 22:3).
>
>
>
The above shows that God and His unique Son belong together. For example, they share one single throne (22:1, 3) and, together, they are the temple and the light of the New Jerusalem (21:22-23). Nevertheless, God is one Person and Jesus is somebody else. People who do not accept this VERY CLEAR conclusion will argue that Jesus is elsewhere called God. That is simply not true.
VERY FEW
========
The word theos appears about 1300 times in the New Testament. Of those, Trinitarians propose about 7 instances where Jesus is called God. The extremely small number of instances where Jesus is POSSIBLY called God shows that, in the other 99.5% of the instances, there is no dispute. In the other 99.5% instances, it is agreed that “God” refers to the Father ONLY. In other words, IT IS OVERWHELMINGLY CLEAR THAT THE TITLE "GOD" REFERS PREDOMINANTLY TO THE FATHER.
PAUL
====
Paul should be our main interpreter of the gospels. I have done a similar exercise as the above for [the book of Colossians](https://revelationbyjesuschrist.com/is-jesus-god/), which has Paul’s highest Christology, and I similarly found that the title God is used for the Father ONLY.
Furthermore, with the exception of two disputed passages in Paul's other letters, PAUL NEVER REFERS TO JESUS AS GOD.
>
> The one is [Romans 9 verse 5](https://revelationbyjesuschrist.com/romans-95/), but that depends entirely on
> punctuation. In 50% of the translations, the punctuation is such that
> it does not describe Jesus as God, but says that Jesus is blessed by
> God.
>
>
> The other is Titus 2:13, which reads, “Our great God and Savior,
> Christ Jesus.” Trinitarians read this as referring to only one Person
> but it can just as well be a reference to two Persons; God and Jesus.
>
>
>
Just think of it: In all of Paul’s letters, which is about half of the New Testament, and which should be our main guide to doctrine, there are ONLY TWO instances where he POSSIBLY refers to Jesus as God. Since Paul never clearly refers to Jesus as God but maintains a clear and consistent distinction between God and Jesus (e.g., I Cor 8:6; 1 Tim 6:13), do we not have abundant evidence that Paul does not describe Jesus as God?
JOHN
====
The main verse Trinitarians use to say that Jesus is called God is John 1:1. I feel very passionate about this verse because the translators KNOW that theos is used in that verse in a qualitative sense. But they argue that this means that Jesus is like God in nature and that this means that He is God. Consequently, the average Christian reads the translation of John 1:1 as an identification of Jesus as God, rather than as a qualitative description. A better translation, I believe, would be something like: "And the word was with God and the word was like God."
The other verse in John is when Thomas sees Jesus after His resurrection and exclaimed, “My Lord and my God!” (John 20:28)! Can you imagine? Jesus never taught His disciples that He is God! In fact, in the very same chapter He refers to His Father as His God (John 20:17). And John summarises the purpose of his entire gospel a few verses later. Does he say his purpose is to show that Jesus is God? No! His purpose was to proclaim Jesus as Christ (John 20:31)! But Thomas, about 60 years before John made this summary of his gospel, miraculously simply knew that Jesus is God!
What the poor average churchgoer is not told is that there is a [huge difference between the word theos and the word God](https://revelationbyjesuschrist.com/theos-2/). Hanson explains:
>
> “The word theos or deus, for the first four centuries of the existence
> of Christianity had a wide variety of meanings. There were many
> different types and grades of deity in popular thought and religion
> and even in philosophical thought.” ([link](https://revelationbyjesuschrist.com/hanson/#theos))
>
>
>
In Thomas’ day, the word theos was used for any immortal being with supernatural powers. And there were thought to be quite a number of such beings; including the Greek pantheon. In contrast, the word “God” is a name for one specific Being. Since the standard explanation of John 20:28 cannot be right, I think that Thomas used the word theos in a generic sense. Namely, seeing the risen Jesus, he used theos in the sense of an immortal being with supernatural powers.
HEBREWS 1:8
-----------
In Hebrews 1:8 Jesus is called theos but the very next verse refers to God as His theos. At least, that means that Jesus is subordinate to His Father. But Hebrews 1:8 is simply a quote from Psalm 45:6 where the king of Israel is called god IN A GENERIC SENSE. Hebrews 1 applies this to Jesus and also calls Him theos IN A GENERIC SENSE. It does not identify Jesus as God Almighty.
2 PETER 1:1
-----------
In the NASB, 2 Peter 1:1 reads “our God and Savior, Jesus Christ.” However, since this is the only possible instance when Peter describes Jesus as God and since, in the very next verse, Peter makes a distinction between God and Jesus (“The knowledge of God and of Jesus our Lord” (2 Peter 1:2)), we should read verse 1 as referring to two Persons; the Father and the Son.
CONCLUSION
----------
The evidence that the New Testament refers to Jesus as God is negligible. Since the title “God” is consistently used to identify the Father in distinction from Jesus, when the angel told John, "*worship God*,” he referred to the Father ONLY.
I am not disputing that the Son always existed or that God created all things through Him. My point is that only the Father is the Ultimate Reality; the Source of all else, and that the Son is subordinate to the Father.
This answers the question: WHY did the angel not include Jesus? Why must only the Father be worshiped? Since only the Father is identified as “God,” all other beings, including His unique Son, are subordinate to Him. Therefore, we worship Him.
JESUS IS WORSHIPED.
-------------------
But, as the question rightly states, angels and the entire creation worship Jesus (Heb 1:6; Rev 5:13-14). That does not contradict the statement that we must worship God only. [The Greek word translated as “worship” (proskunuo)](https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/a/69890/45536) merely means to show extreme respect by falling down before somebody else. It is also used when people fall down before other people such as kings. For example, in Revelation 3:9, Jesus said, “I will make them come and bow down at your feet.” “Bow down,” here, translates proskuneó.
Furthermore, as we read in Philippians 2:9-11 and Hebrews 1:6, Jesus is worshiped by the entire creation BECAUSE THAT IS GOD’S WILL. There is, therefore, nothing wrong with showing extreme respect to the One through whom God created all things. But, as Philippians 2:11 adds, it is all “*to the glory of God the Father*.” | I'm confused as to why you even ask the question. Scripture is clear that God is three in one trinity, the Father, the Son, and the Holy Spirit. What is so hard to figure out?
You can not pick and choose Scripture. It's all or nothing.
Jesus is God. Jesus claimed to be God. Jesus is named as God in Scripture other than the Gospels. |
3,358,239 | I am wondering whether its possible to change/set/delete my session variable AS A USER.
I am re-thinking the way that I do login realm in PHP. The way that I do it now is that I check whether a certain session variable is set or not. However, this would break if someone can just change his/her session variable. | 2010/07/28 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/3358239",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/364253/"
] | Given that you do not have a method / form (inadvertently or actively) to allow the user to actively change this data, no. They should not be able to change their username etc.
Since session data is stored on the server, yea, they would be hard set to set this themselves. If register\_globals is turned on, this might be a possibility, but that would also require other circumstances to be true.
But in the whole, no, a user should not be able to change the session data unless you provide them a means to. | No, you have complete control over the session content.
All the user can do is remove the session cookie, thus dissociating himself from a given session, but he cannot change its contents. |
3,358,239 | I am wondering whether its possible to change/set/delete my session variable AS A USER.
I am re-thinking the way that I do login realm in PHP. The way that I do it now is that I check whether a certain session variable is set or not. However, this would break if someone can just change his/her session variable. | 2010/07/28 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/3358239",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/364253/"
] | Given that you do not have a method / form (inadvertently or actively) to allow the user to actively change this data, no. They should not be able to change their username etc.
Since session data is stored on the server, yea, they would be hard set to set this themselves. If register\_globals is turned on, this might be a possibility, but that would also require other circumstances to be true.
But in the whole, no, a user should not be able to change the session data unless you provide them a means to. | The user can't act on session variables, except through whatever functionality you expose. The session variables are stored on the server and are not exposed to the user automatically.
The only thing that the user may be able to do is mess with the session id. |
509,662 | I am considering porting a small portion of the code in a C# project of mine to C/ASM for performance benefits. (This section of code uses many bitwise operations and is one of the few places where there may exist a real performance increase by using native code.) I then plan to simply call the native function in the separate DLL via P/Invoke. Now, the only data that will be passed between the managed and native code will be purely primitive types (bool, int, long, 1D arrays, etc.). So my question is: will there be any significant overhead using P/invoke simply with primitive types? I am aware that there is a substatial overhead when using more complex types, since they need to be marshalled (pinned/copied), but perhaps in my situation it will be relatively efficient (compared to calling the code from within the native DLL itself even)? If someone could clarify this matter for me, explaining the degrees of performance advantages/hits and the reasons behind them, it would be much appreciated. An alternative way to accomplish the whole task would also be welcome, though since C# lacks support for inline assembly/CIL, I don't believe there is one. | 2009/02/04 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/509662",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/44389/"
] | I seem to recall hearing that there's at least a 30 machine op overhead for each P/Invoke call. But ignore the theory, profile your options and choose the fastest. | You could generate a compiled, optimized version of your .NET assembly by using `ngen` on the end-user's computer (as part of the install process).
In my experience properly formatted C# (e.g., keep allocation outside of loops) will perform very well. |
509,662 | I am considering porting a small portion of the code in a C# project of mine to C/ASM for performance benefits. (This section of code uses many bitwise operations and is one of the few places where there may exist a real performance increase by using native code.) I then plan to simply call the native function in the separate DLL via P/Invoke. Now, the only data that will be passed between the managed and native code will be purely primitive types (bool, int, long, 1D arrays, etc.). So my question is: will there be any significant overhead using P/invoke simply with primitive types? I am aware that there is a substatial overhead when using more complex types, since they need to be marshalled (pinned/copied), but perhaps in my situation it will be relatively efficient (compared to calling the code from within the native DLL itself even)? If someone could clarify this matter for me, explaining the degrees of performance advantages/hits and the reasons behind them, it would be much appreciated. An alternative way to accomplish the whole task would also be welcome, though since C# lacks support for inline assembly/CIL, I don't believe there is one. | 2009/02/04 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/509662",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/44389/"
] | I would personally setup a test harness with a simple expression written in C# and unmanaged C++, then profile the app to see what kind of performance delta you're working with.
Something else to consider is that you'd be introducing a maintenance issue with the app, especially if you have junior-level developers expected to maintain the code. Make sure you know what you're gaining and what what you're losing respective to performance as well as code-clarity and maintainability.
As an aside, JIT'd C# code should have performance on par with C++ with respect to arithmetic operations. | You could generate a compiled, optimized version of your .NET assembly by using `ngen` on the end-user's computer (as part of the install process).
In my experience properly formatted C# (e.g., keep allocation outside of loops) will perform very well. |
509,662 | I am considering porting a small portion of the code in a C# project of mine to C/ASM for performance benefits. (This section of code uses many bitwise operations and is one of the few places where there may exist a real performance increase by using native code.) I then plan to simply call the native function in the separate DLL via P/Invoke. Now, the only data that will be passed between the managed and native code will be purely primitive types (bool, int, long, 1D arrays, etc.). So my question is: will there be any significant overhead using P/invoke simply with primitive types? I am aware that there is a substatial overhead when using more complex types, since they need to be marshalled (pinned/copied), but perhaps in my situation it will be relatively efficient (compared to calling the code from within the native DLL itself even)? If someone could clarify this matter for me, explaining the degrees of performance advantages/hits and the reasons behind them, it would be much appreciated. An alternative way to accomplish the whole task would also be welcome, though since C# lacks support for inline assembly/CIL, I don't believe there is one. | 2009/02/04 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/509662",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/44389/"
] | From MSDN (<http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/aa712982.aspx>):
"PInvoke has an overhead of between 10 and 30 x86 instructions per call. In addition to this fixed cost, marshaling creates additional overhead. There is no marshaling cost between blittable types that have the same representation in managed and unmanaged code. For example, there is no cost to translate between int and Int32."
So, it's reasonably cheap, but as always you should measure carefully to be sure you are benefitting from it, and bear in mind any maintenance overhead. As an aside, I would recommend C++/CLI ("managed" C++) over P/Invoke for any complex interop, especially if you're comfortable with C++. | You could generate a compiled, optimized version of your .NET assembly by using `ngen` on the end-user's computer (as part of the install process).
In my experience properly formatted C# (e.g., keep allocation outside of loops) will perform very well. |
509,662 | I am considering porting a small portion of the code in a C# project of mine to C/ASM for performance benefits. (This section of code uses many bitwise operations and is one of the few places where there may exist a real performance increase by using native code.) I then plan to simply call the native function in the separate DLL via P/Invoke. Now, the only data that will be passed between the managed and native code will be purely primitive types (bool, int, long, 1D arrays, etc.). So my question is: will there be any significant overhead using P/invoke simply with primitive types? I am aware that there is a substatial overhead when using more complex types, since they need to be marshalled (pinned/copied), but perhaps in my situation it will be relatively efficient (compared to calling the code from within the native DLL itself even)? If someone could clarify this matter for me, explaining the degrees of performance advantages/hits and the reasons behind them, it would be much appreciated. An alternative way to accomplish the whole task would also be welcome, though since C# lacks support for inline assembly/CIL, I don't believe there is one. | 2009/02/04 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/509662",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/44389/"
] | From MSDN (<http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/aa712982.aspx>):
"PInvoke has an overhead of between 10 and 30 x86 instructions per call. In addition to this fixed cost, marshaling creates additional overhead. There is no marshaling cost between blittable types that have the same representation in managed and unmanaged code. For example, there is no cost to translate between int and Int32."
So, it's reasonably cheap, but as always you should measure carefully to be sure you are benefitting from it, and bear in mind any maintenance overhead. As an aside, I would recommend C++/CLI ("managed" C++) over P/Invoke for any complex interop, especially if you're comfortable with C++. | I seem to recall hearing that there's at least a 30 machine op overhead for each P/Invoke call. But ignore the theory, profile your options and choose the fastest. |
509,662 | I am considering porting a small portion of the code in a C# project of mine to C/ASM for performance benefits. (This section of code uses many bitwise operations and is one of the few places where there may exist a real performance increase by using native code.) I then plan to simply call the native function in the separate DLL via P/Invoke. Now, the only data that will be passed between the managed and native code will be purely primitive types (bool, int, long, 1D arrays, etc.). So my question is: will there be any significant overhead using P/invoke simply with primitive types? I am aware that there is a substatial overhead when using more complex types, since they need to be marshalled (pinned/copied), but perhaps in my situation it will be relatively efficient (compared to calling the code from within the native DLL itself even)? If someone could clarify this matter for me, explaining the degrees of performance advantages/hits and the reasons behind them, it would be much appreciated. An alternative way to accomplish the whole task would also be welcome, though since C# lacks support for inline assembly/CIL, I don't believe there is one. | 2009/02/04 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/509662",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/44389/"
] | I seem to recall hearing that there's at least a 30 machine op overhead for each P/Invoke call. But ignore the theory, profile your options and choose the fastest. | This link provides some insights: <http://www.codeproject.com/Articles/253444/PInvoke-Performance>
Also note the performance difference when [SuppressUnmanagedCodeSecurity] attribute is applied. |
509,662 | I am considering porting a small portion of the code in a C# project of mine to C/ASM for performance benefits. (This section of code uses many bitwise operations and is one of the few places where there may exist a real performance increase by using native code.) I then plan to simply call the native function in the separate DLL via P/Invoke. Now, the only data that will be passed between the managed and native code will be purely primitive types (bool, int, long, 1D arrays, etc.). So my question is: will there be any significant overhead using P/invoke simply with primitive types? I am aware that there is a substatial overhead when using more complex types, since they need to be marshalled (pinned/copied), but perhaps in my situation it will be relatively efficient (compared to calling the code from within the native DLL itself even)? If someone could clarify this matter for me, explaining the degrees of performance advantages/hits and the reasons behind them, it would be much appreciated. An alternative way to accomplish the whole task would also be welcome, though since C# lacks support for inline assembly/CIL, I don't believe there is one. | 2009/02/04 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/509662",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/44389/"
] | From MSDN (<http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/aa712982.aspx>):
"PInvoke has an overhead of between 10 and 30 x86 instructions per call. In addition to this fixed cost, marshaling creates additional overhead. There is no marshaling cost between blittable types that have the same representation in managed and unmanaged code. For example, there is no cost to translate between int and Int32."
So, it's reasonably cheap, but as always you should measure carefully to be sure you are benefitting from it, and bear in mind any maintenance overhead. As an aside, I would recommend C++/CLI ("managed" C++) over P/Invoke for any complex interop, especially if you're comfortable with C++. | I would personally setup a test harness with a simple expression written in C# and unmanaged C++, then profile the app to see what kind of performance delta you're working with.
Something else to consider is that you'd be introducing a maintenance issue with the app, especially if you have junior-level developers expected to maintain the code. Make sure you know what you're gaining and what what you're losing respective to performance as well as code-clarity and maintainability.
As an aside, JIT'd C# code should have performance on par with C++ with respect to arithmetic operations. |
509,662 | I am considering porting a small portion of the code in a C# project of mine to C/ASM for performance benefits. (This section of code uses many bitwise operations and is one of the few places where there may exist a real performance increase by using native code.) I then plan to simply call the native function in the separate DLL via P/Invoke. Now, the only data that will be passed between the managed and native code will be purely primitive types (bool, int, long, 1D arrays, etc.). So my question is: will there be any significant overhead using P/invoke simply with primitive types? I am aware that there is a substatial overhead when using more complex types, since they need to be marshalled (pinned/copied), but perhaps in my situation it will be relatively efficient (compared to calling the code from within the native DLL itself even)? If someone could clarify this matter for me, explaining the degrees of performance advantages/hits and the reasons behind them, it would be much appreciated. An alternative way to accomplish the whole task would also be welcome, though since C# lacks support for inline assembly/CIL, I don't believe there is one. | 2009/02/04 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/509662",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/44389/"
] | I would personally setup a test harness with a simple expression written in C# and unmanaged C++, then profile the app to see what kind of performance delta you're working with.
Something else to consider is that you'd be introducing a maintenance issue with the app, especially if you have junior-level developers expected to maintain the code. Make sure you know what you're gaining and what what you're losing respective to performance as well as code-clarity and maintainability.
As an aside, JIT'd C# code should have performance on par with C++ with respect to arithmetic operations. | This link provides some insights: <http://www.codeproject.com/Articles/253444/PInvoke-Performance>
Also note the performance difference when [SuppressUnmanagedCodeSecurity] attribute is applied. |
509,662 | I am considering porting a small portion of the code in a C# project of mine to C/ASM for performance benefits. (This section of code uses many bitwise operations and is one of the few places where there may exist a real performance increase by using native code.) I then plan to simply call the native function in the separate DLL via P/Invoke. Now, the only data that will be passed between the managed and native code will be purely primitive types (bool, int, long, 1D arrays, etc.). So my question is: will there be any significant overhead using P/invoke simply with primitive types? I am aware that there is a substatial overhead when using more complex types, since they need to be marshalled (pinned/copied), but perhaps in my situation it will be relatively efficient (compared to calling the code from within the native DLL itself even)? If someone could clarify this matter for me, explaining the degrees of performance advantages/hits and the reasons behind them, it would be much appreciated. An alternative way to accomplish the whole task would also be welcome, though since C# lacks support for inline assembly/CIL, I don't believe there is one. | 2009/02/04 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/509662",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/44389/"
] | From MSDN (<http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/aa712982.aspx>):
"PInvoke has an overhead of between 10 and 30 x86 instructions per call. In addition to this fixed cost, marshaling creates additional overhead. There is no marshaling cost between blittable types that have the same representation in managed and unmanaged code. For example, there is no cost to translate between int and Int32."
So, it's reasonably cheap, but as always you should measure carefully to be sure you are benefitting from it, and bear in mind any maintenance overhead. As an aside, I would recommend C++/CLI ("managed" C++) over P/Invoke for any complex interop, especially if you're comfortable with C++. | This link provides some insights: <http://www.codeproject.com/Articles/253444/PInvoke-Performance>
Also note the performance difference when [SuppressUnmanagedCodeSecurity] attribute is applied. |
2,587 | >
> How would you prefer to handle a Question, if the source of the problem is only a typo in the OP's source code?
>
>
>
has been made a question on the current [Moderator Election's Questionnaire](https://arduino.meta.stackexchange.com/q/2586/17196). I could not retrieve any [standing policy](https://arduino.meta.stackexchange.com/search?q=typo) on that matter on meta nor is it part of the guidelines laid out in the helpcenter.
Given that a site's policy should be defined by its community and not just the moderators (or at least that is my take on it) I would like to discuss the issue here.
Stackoverflow has an [appropriate rule](https://stackoverflow.com/help/on-topic):
>
> Some questions are still off-topic, even if they fit into one of the categories listed above:
>
>
> 2. Questions about a problem that can no longer be reproduced or that was caused by a simple typographical error. While similar questions may be on-topic here, these are often resolved in a manner unlikely to help future readers. This can often be avoided by identifying and closely inspecting the shortest program necessary to reproduce the problem before posting.
>
>
>
So the question is: do we recognize the wisdom of SO's rule or do we consider code with *simple typographical errors* a phenomenon common enough to the users of Arduino - including questioners at a beginner's level - that might profit from answering such questions? | 2019/05/19 | [
"https://arduino.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/2587",
"https://arduino.meta.stackexchange.com",
"https://arduino.meta.stackexchange.com/users/17196/"
] | Many of our users are just starting out in programming. To them, it can be hard to spot the difference between digitalWrite and DigitalWrite, or digtalWrite. Also, there is a well-known phenomenon that we all suffer from called Code Blindness - from looking at the code for so long that you can no longer really see what is there.
In these situations, a fresh pair of eyes is essential to spot little errors like these.
Is it off topic? Possibly. However, that's not helpful to the novice user trying to get their first (non-built-in example) program to compile.
So I say answer the question pointing out (gently) what is wrong.
They come here looking for our help. It's our job to give them that help (as long as they're asking something about Arduino and not C++ programming in general unless pertaining to working on a microcontroller and the restrictions that imposes) - whether or not that question and answer help someone else in the future.
Who knows? These small typos made by novice users are common. Maybe it will help someone else in future. Probably not though. But still, that user went away happy and the overall impression of the helpfulness of this site increased by a tiny margin.
If the question ends up being closed by the community in the future, no matter - the OP is happy and will come back again and maybe bring their friends with them. | The trouble is, it isn't just typos that are likely to be things that are "one-off" problems. Sometimes we get highly-specific questions about certain code that may have a logic error. Next time it will be a different logic error, so answering the question doesn't necessarily help anyone later on.
This is unlike, say, questions about Linux about how to combine stderr and stdout into one file. This is a question that a lot of people will want the answer to.
Having said all that, I would also agree with Majenko's answer. |
2,587 | >
> How would you prefer to handle a Question, if the source of the problem is only a typo in the OP's source code?
>
>
>
has been made a question on the current [Moderator Election's Questionnaire](https://arduino.meta.stackexchange.com/q/2586/17196). I could not retrieve any [standing policy](https://arduino.meta.stackexchange.com/search?q=typo) on that matter on meta nor is it part of the guidelines laid out in the helpcenter.
Given that a site's policy should be defined by its community and not just the moderators (or at least that is my take on it) I would like to discuss the issue here.
Stackoverflow has an [appropriate rule](https://stackoverflow.com/help/on-topic):
>
> Some questions are still off-topic, even if they fit into one of the categories listed above:
>
>
> 2. Questions about a problem that can no longer be reproduced or that was caused by a simple typographical error. While similar questions may be on-topic here, these are often resolved in a manner unlikely to help future readers. This can often be avoided by identifying and closely inspecting the shortest program necessary to reproduce the problem before posting.
>
>
>
So the question is: do we recognize the wisdom of SO's rule or do we consider code with *simple typographical errors* a phenomenon common enough to the users of Arduino - including questioners at a beginner's level - that might profit from answering such questions? | 2019/05/19 | [
"https://arduino.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/2587",
"https://arduino.meta.stackexchange.com",
"https://arduino.meta.stackexchange.com/users/17196/"
] | Many of our users are just starting out in programming. To them, it can be hard to spot the difference between digitalWrite and DigitalWrite, or digtalWrite. Also, there is a well-known phenomenon that we all suffer from called Code Blindness - from looking at the code for so long that you can no longer really see what is there.
In these situations, a fresh pair of eyes is essential to spot little errors like these.
Is it off topic? Possibly. However, that's not helpful to the novice user trying to get their first (non-built-in example) program to compile.
So I say answer the question pointing out (gently) what is wrong.
They come here looking for our help. It's our job to give them that help (as long as they're asking something about Arduino and not C++ programming in general unless pertaining to working on a microcontroller and the restrictions that imposes) - whether or not that question and answer help someone else in the future.
Who knows? These small typos made by novice users are common. Maybe it will help someone else in future. Probably not though. But still, that user went away happy and the overall impression of the helpfulness of this site increased by a tiny margin.
If the question ends up being closed by the community in the future, no matter - the OP is happy and will come back again and maybe bring their friends with them. | I am the author of that question. And I am for the SO approach. Why? Because it is possible to generate endless count of this kind of questions as anonymous user and then answer them. I don't know if an anonymous user can accept an answer, but this answers tend to get upvotes.
A comment can point out the error and the question should be closed as "Unclear what you are asking" in the meaning "it is obvious". |
2,587 | >
> How would you prefer to handle a Question, if the source of the problem is only a typo in the OP's source code?
>
>
>
has been made a question on the current [Moderator Election's Questionnaire](https://arduino.meta.stackexchange.com/q/2586/17196). I could not retrieve any [standing policy](https://arduino.meta.stackexchange.com/search?q=typo) on that matter on meta nor is it part of the guidelines laid out in the helpcenter.
Given that a site's policy should be defined by its community and not just the moderators (or at least that is my take on it) I would like to discuss the issue here.
Stackoverflow has an [appropriate rule](https://stackoverflow.com/help/on-topic):
>
> Some questions are still off-topic, even if they fit into one of the categories listed above:
>
>
> 2. Questions about a problem that can no longer be reproduced or that was caused by a simple typographical error. While similar questions may be on-topic here, these are often resolved in a manner unlikely to help future readers. This can often be avoided by identifying and closely inspecting the shortest program necessary to reproduce the problem before posting.
>
>
>
So the question is: do we recognize the wisdom of SO's rule or do we consider code with *simple typographical errors* a phenomenon common enough to the users of Arduino - including questioners at a beginner's level - that might profit from answering such questions? | 2019/05/19 | [
"https://arduino.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/2587",
"https://arduino.meta.stackexchange.com",
"https://arduino.meta.stackexchange.com/users/17196/"
] | The trouble is, it isn't just typos that are likely to be things that are "one-off" problems. Sometimes we get highly-specific questions about certain code that may have a logic error. Next time it will be a different logic error, so answering the question doesn't necessarily help anyone later on.
This is unlike, say, questions about Linux about how to combine stderr and stdout into one file. This is a question that a lot of people will want the answer to.
Having said all that, I would also agree with Majenko's answer. | I am the author of that question. And I am for the SO approach. Why? Because it is possible to generate endless count of this kind of questions as anonymous user and then answer them. I don't know if an anonymous user can accept an answer, but this answers tend to get upvotes.
A comment can point out the error and the question should be closed as "Unclear what you are asking" in the meaning "it is obvious". |
5,112 | Ive seen television programmes and videos of buddhist shaolin monks who perfom incredible techniques such as breaking iron bars with their heads, impaling themselves with spears, throwing needles through glasses windows etc.
It was said that these monks create, harness and use Qi Energy which makes it possible for them to perform these techniques. I have two questions:
What is this Qi Energy?
Is it a strong and profound level of concentration like the Jhanas in Theravada Buddhism?
Thank you for your time. | 2015/05/31 | [
"https://martialarts.stackexchange.com/questions/5112",
"https://martialarts.stackexchange.com",
"https://martialarts.stackexchange.com/users/-1/"
] | When Dave's answer says "It's a metaphor", then I guess he mean something like this.
When you're a beginner, learning, a teacher might try to teach you to change your posture slightly, to stand straighter, to better balance your head on your spine, and your spine on your hips, and so on.
When they do that they might say to you something like, "Imagine that your head and body are hanging suspended by a rope" (or imagine that energy is projecting from the top of your head to the sky).
When you hear that and try to make sense of it and comply, then you might stand straighter like they wanted you to. In future when they want to remind you it might become a verbal short-hand command – "Remember: a thread, above your head".
Now in one sense there is no physically observable thread: it's not a real thread, the thread is a "metaphor", or an analogy that intended to help you to comply. On the other hand it may actually have an effect: in that it helps you to stand straighter... :-) | Qi is a metaphor
Qi is cultish social pressure
Qi is a hand-waving pre-scientific explanation for basic bodily functions
Qi is the object of irrational fixation for people who cling to magical thinking
Qi is cover for ludicrous lies about "miracles" like teleportation and flying whose most impressive feature is deft avoidance of proof
Qi is, sometimes, a vague description of that amalgam of trained athleticism, learned technique, and plain concentration that allows one to accomplish feats of strength |
44,910 | iOS seems to refuse to allow me to email "long" voice memos, and I'm unaware of any way to extract them from iTunes backups of my phone. How can I retrieve entire voice memos that aren't really short? | 2012/03/21 | [
"https://apple.stackexchange.com/questions/44910",
"https://apple.stackexchange.com",
"https://apple.stackexchange.com/users/638/"
] | [This answer](https://apple.stackexchange.com/a/44914/5472) by [jmlumpkin](https://apple.stackexchange.com/users/181/jmlumpkin) is canonically correct, all existing memos sync over to a special "Voice Memos" playlist in iTunes. However, if you like to record voice memos that you will retrieve later on your computer, my suggestion would be to check out [DropVox](http://www.irradiatedsoftware.com/dropvox/). Instead of having to go through iTunes, DropVox uploads your recordings to your DropBox folder as soon as you finish recording, which for me is far more convenient than syncing and dealing with iTunes. Personally, I have completely dropped Voice Memos and now completely use DropVox for everything.
 
Another avenue to avoid iTunes but still use the Voice Memo app is to use a software package like [PhoneView](http://www.ecamm.com/mac/phoneview/) to grab your existing memos directly from the device. | There is a free third-party utility that I find very useful in situations like this. [Macroplant iExplorer](http://www.macroplant.com/iexplorer/), for Mac and Windows, lets you mount the file system of your iOS device in the Finder or Windows Explorer, so you can copy the voice memo files (and most other iOS document files) directly to your computer without using iTunes. Macroplant also provides other paid apps with additional functionality. |
44,910 | iOS seems to refuse to allow me to email "long" voice memos, and I'm unaware of any way to extract them from iTunes backups of my phone. How can I retrieve entire voice memos that aren't really short? | 2012/03/21 | [
"https://apple.stackexchange.com/questions/44910",
"https://apple.stackexchange.com",
"https://apple.stackexchange.com/users/638/"
] | [This answer](https://apple.stackexchange.com/a/44914/5472) by [jmlumpkin](https://apple.stackexchange.com/users/181/jmlumpkin) is canonically correct, all existing memos sync over to a special "Voice Memos" playlist in iTunes. However, if you like to record voice memos that you will retrieve later on your computer, my suggestion would be to check out [DropVox](http://www.irradiatedsoftware.com/dropvox/). Instead of having to go through iTunes, DropVox uploads your recordings to your DropBox folder as soon as you finish recording, which for me is far more convenient than syncing and dealing with iTunes. Personally, I have completely dropped Voice Memos and now completely use DropVox for everything.
 
Another avenue to avoid iTunes but still use the Voice Memo app is to use a software package like [PhoneView](http://www.ecamm.com/mac/phoneview/) to grab your existing memos directly from the device. | You can extract the voice memos from your iPhone back up by downloading this free application: <http://www.iclarified.com/entry/index.php?enid=4974>
This will allow you to read the files from your back up files. (saved my life)
The site also walks you through how to use it - it's really simple.
Once you have extracted the IOS files, go to the media folder and you will find recordings. That's where your voice memos will be! |
44,910 | iOS seems to refuse to allow me to email "long" voice memos, and I'm unaware of any way to extract them from iTunes backups of my phone. How can I retrieve entire voice memos that aren't really short? | 2012/03/21 | [
"https://apple.stackexchange.com/questions/44910",
"https://apple.stackexchange.com",
"https://apple.stackexchange.com/users/638/"
] | [This answer](https://apple.stackexchange.com/a/44914/5472) by [jmlumpkin](https://apple.stackexchange.com/users/181/jmlumpkin) is canonically correct, all existing memos sync over to a special "Voice Memos" playlist in iTunes. However, if you like to record voice memos that you will retrieve later on your computer, my suggestion would be to check out [DropVox](http://www.irradiatedsoftware.com/dropvox/). Instead of having to go through iTunes, DropVox uploads your recordings to your DropBox folder as soon as you finish recording, which for me is far more convenient than syncing and dealing with iTunes. Personally, I have completely dropped Voice Memos and now completely use DropVox for everything.
 
Another avenue to avoid iTunes but still use the Voice Memo app is to use a software package like [PhoneView](http://www.ecamm.com/mac/phoneview/) to grab your existing memos directly from the device. | First, you don't need to download any software.
Visit [this article](http://www.tech-recipes.com/rx/6403/iphone-transfer-voice-memos-from-iphone-to-computer/), which explains how to transfer the memo to iTunes.
>
> 1. Dock your iPhone via USB
> 2. Click the name of your iPhone under Devices in the left column
> 3. Click the Music tab
> 4. Click the checkbox for Include voice memos
> 5. Sync your device
> 6. Your files will appear under a new Voice Memos playlist
>
>
>
Then, if you want to have it play on Apple Tv or hear it from your phone and it still doesn't work, there is another trick.
Go into iTunes, hold the `Ctrl` button and click on the song/memo you've imported. Choose the "Create an AAC Version" option. It will make a copy of the song above or below the original in iTunes. Then you can play this on Apple TV or off your phone like a regular song. |
44,910 | iOS seems to refuse to allow me to email "long" voice memos, and I'm unaware of any way to extract them from iTunes backups of my phone. How can I retrieve entire voice memos that aren't really short? | 2012/03/21 | [
"https://apple.stackexchange.com/questions/44910",
"https://apple.stackexchange.com",
"https://apple.stackexchange.com/users/638/"
] | You can extract the voice memos from your iPhone back up by downloading this free application: <http://www.iclarified.com/entry/index.php?enid=4974>
This will allow you to read the files from your back up files. (saved my life)
The site also walks you through how to use it - it's really simple.
Once you have extracted the IOS files, go to the media folder and you will find recordings. That's where your voice memos will be! | First, you don't need to download any software.
Visit [this article](http://www.tech-recipes.com/rx/6403/iphone-transfer-voice-memos-from-iphone-to-computer/), which explains how to transfer the memo to iTunes.
>
> 1. Dock your iPhone via USB
> 2. Click the name of your iPhone under Devices in the left column
> 3. Click the Music tab
> 4. Click the checkbox for Include voice memos
> 5. Sync your device
> 6. Your files will appear under a new Voice Memos playlist
>
>
>
Then, if you want to have it play on Apple Tv or hear it from your phone and it still doesn't work, there is another trick.
Go into iTunes, hold the `Ctrl` button and click on the song/memo you've imported. Choose the "Create an AAC Version" option. It will make a copy of the song above or below the original in iTunes. Then you can play this on Apple TV or off your phone like a regular song. |
44,910 | iOS seems to refuse to allow me to email "long" voice memos, and I'm unaware of any way to extract them from iTunes backups of my phone. How can I retrieve entire voice memos that aren't really short? | 2012/03/21 | [
"https://apple.stackexchange.com/questions/44910",
"https://apple.stackexchange.com",
"https://apple.stackexchange.com/users/638/"
] | There is a free third-party utility that I find very useful in situations like this. [Macroplant iExplorer](http://www.macroplant.com/iexplorer/), for Mac and Windows, lets you mount the file system of your iOS device in the Finder or Windows Explorer, so you can copy the voice memo files (and most other iOS document files) directly to your computer without using iTunes. Macroplant also provides other paid apps with additional functionality. | You can extract the voice memos from your iPhone back up by downloading this free application: <http://www.iclarified.com/entry/index.php?enid=4974>
This will allow you to read the files from your back up files. (saved my life)
The site also walks you through how to use it - it's really simple.
Once you have extracted the IOS files, go to the media folder and you will find recordings. That's where your voice memos will be! |
44,910 | iOS seems to refuse to allow me to email "long" voice memos, and I'm unaware of any way to extract them from iTunes backups of my phone. How can I retrieve entire voice memos that aren't really short? | 2012/03/21 | [
"https://apple.stackexchange.com/questions/44910",
"https://apple.stackexchange.com",
"https://apple.stackexchange.com/users/638/"
] | There is an unclear aspect of iTunes which isn't mentioned in the other answers here.
After selecting the iPhone, iTunes (12.1.2.27) shows an *On My Device > Voice Memos* list in the sidebar. However, this list doesn't actually seem to show all the voice memos on the device(!).
In particular, newly recorded memos don't seem to show for me, although they do in the [PhoneView](http://www.ecamm.com/mac/phoneview/) app. Perhaps memos only appear in that list after the device has been synced.
So: don't try and use the *On My Device > Voice Memos* list to retrieve memos from the device. Use the solutions mentioned in the other answers here instead. | First, you don't need to download any software.
Visit [this article](http://www.tech-recipes.com/rx/6403/iphone-transfer-voice-memos-from-iphone-to-computer/), which explains how to transfer the memo to iTunes.
>
> 1. Dock your iPhone via USB
> 2. Click the name of your iPhone under Devices in the left column
> 3. Click the Music tab
> 4. Click the checkbox for Include voice memos
> 5. Sync your device
> 6. Your files will appear under a new Voice Memos playlist
>
>
>
Then, if you want to have it play on Apple Tv or hear it from your phone and it still doesn't work, there is another trick.
Go into iTunes, hold the `Ctrl` button and click on the song/memo you've imported. Choose the "Create an AAC Version" option. It will make a copy of the song above or below the original in iTunes. Then you can play this on Apple TV or off your phone like a regular song. |
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