qid int64 1 74.7M | question stringlengths 12 33.8k | date stringlengths 10 10 | metadata list | response_j stringlengths 0 115k | response_k stringlengths 2 98.3k |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
44,910 | iOS seems to refuse to allow me to email "long" voice memos, and I'm unaware of any way to extract them from iTunes backups of my phone. How can I retrieve entire voice memos that aren't really short? | 2012/03/21 | [
"https://apple.stackexchange.com/questions/44910",
"https://apple.stackexchange.com",
"https://apple.stackexchange.com/users/638/"
] | [This answer](https://apple.stackexchange.com/a/44914/5472) by [jmlumpkin](https://apple.stackexchange.com/users/181/jmlumpkin) is canonically correct, all existing memos sync over to a special "Voice Memos" playlist in iTunes. However, if you like to record voice memos that you will retrieve later on your computer, my suggestion would be to check out [DropVox](http://www.irradiatedsoftware.com/dropvox/). Instead of having to go through iTunes, DropVox uploads your recordings to your DropBox folder as soon as you finish recording, which for me is far more convenient than syncing and dealing with iTunes. Personally, I have completely dropped Voice Memos and now completely use DropVox for everything.
 
Another avenue to avoid iTunes but still use the Voice Memo app is to use a software package like [PhoneView](http://www.ecamm.com/mac/phoneview/) to grab your existing memos directly from the device. | There is an unclear aspect of iTunes which isn't mentioned in the other answers here.
After selecting the iPhone, iTunes (12.1.2.27) shows an *On My Device > Voice Memos* list in the sidebar. However, this list doesn't actually seem to show all the voice memos on the device(!).
In particular, newly recorded memos don't seem to show for me, although they do in the [PhoneView](http://www.ecamm.com/mac/phoneview/) app. Perhaps memos only appear in that list after the device has been synced.
So: don't try and use the *On My Device > Voice Memos* list to retrieve memos from the device. Use the solutions mentioned in the other answers here instead. |
44,910 | iOS seems to refuse to allow me to email "long" voice memos, and I'm unaware of any way to extract them from iTunes backups of my phone. How can I retrieve entire voice memos that aren't really short? | 2012/03/21 | [
"https://apple.stackexchange.com/questions/44910",
"https://apple.stackexchange.com",
"https://apple.stackexchange.com/users/638/"
] | There is a free third-party utility that I find very useful in situations like this. [Macroplant iExplorer](http://www.macroplant.com/iexplorer/), for Mac and Windows, lets you mount the file system of your iOS device in the Finder or Windows Explorer, so you can copy the voice memo files (and most other iOS document files) directly to your computer without using iTunes. Macroplant also provides other paid apps with additional functionality. | There is an unclear aspect of iTunes which isn't mentioned in the other answers here.
After selecting the iPhone, iTunes (12.1.2.27) shows an *On My Device > Voice Memos* list in the sidebar. However, this list doesn't actually seem to show all the voice memos on the device(!).
In particular, newly recorded memos don't seem to show for me, although they do in the [PhoneView](http://www.ecamm.com/mac/phoneview/) app. Perhaps memos only appear in that list after the device has been synced.
So: don't try and use the *On My Device > Voice Memos* list to retrieve memos from the device. Use the solutions mentioned in the other answers here instead. |
61,079 | I find when playing in a minor key I always end up playing the major version of the V chord. (So in Em I always end up playing a "B major" chord.)
However, the third of this chord should be played as a minor when looking at the key and it seems like using an accidental as frequently as I do is not really in the spirit of accidentals.
Am I making a mistake in my music theory? Am I playing the key I think I am? Is this just a mode? Do I need to start playing more B minors?
Please bear in mind I am relatively new to music theory and would appreciate it if you treat me like an idiot. Thanks. | 2017/08/13 | [
"https://music.stackexchange.com/questions/61079",
"https://music.stackexchange.com",
"https://music.stackexchange.com/users/43231/"
] | Although the D in the scale of B will be natural in the key signature, it will often be sharpened when leading to the key note E. Think of the melodic minor scale for E. D will be sharpened on the way up but natural on the way down.
So, if your chord is to resolve to the tonic E, the sharpened D will work nicely. You might find that a B minor chord works well if it goes somewhere else next. | Say we play in Em (relative major is G, one sharp). The V chord of Em should be Bm (B D F#). Although playing B major adds a sharp to D it is not considered as an "error" since it can naturaly lead to Em. It's clearer if you play B7 (B D# F# A) as it's the dominant chord of Em.
Sometimes the II chord of the major scale (Am in G) can also be played as a II7 to lead to the V chord. Even the I of the minor scale can be «dominant»-ized.
Try to play those progressions:
* G Bm Em Em Am D7 G G (nothing special)
* G B7 Em Em Am D7 G G (B7 leads to Em in a strong way)
* G B7 Em E7 Am D7 G G (same with E7 to Am)
* G B7 Em E7 A7 D7 G G (same with A7 to D7) |
61,079 | I find when playing in a minor key I always end up playing the major version of the V chord. (So in Em I always end up playing a "B major" chord.)
However, the third of this chord should be played as a minor when looking at the key and it seems like using an accidental as frequently as I do is not really in the spirit of accidentals.
Am I making a mistake in my music theory? Am I playing the key I think I am? Is this just a mode? Do I need to start playing more B minors?
Please bear in mind I am relatively new to music theory and would appreciate it if you treat me like an idiot. Thanks. | 2017/08/13 | [
"https://music.stackexchange.com/questions/61079",
"https://music.stackexchange.com",
"https://music.stackexchange.com/users/43231/"
] | Two points.
First: the scale of a key or mode is a framework. It doesn't instruct you NOT to use other notes. A piece of music that used ONLY diatonic (in the scale) notes and chords would be very basic and possibly very boring (although there's also beauty in simplicity).
Second: in traditional harmony the dominant chord of both a major or minor key is normally major. If we're writing the sort of music that deals in dominant > tonic relationships (and that's the bulk of Western music for the last few hundred years) the dominant chord NEEDS to tend toward the tonic chord. A large part of that tension comes from it including the 'leading note', the note a semitone below the tonic.
We don't HAVE to use major dominant chords. But we don't have to reject then either. You're doing nothing 'wrong' by sharpening that 7th into a leading note. Equally, you're doing nothing 'wrong' by investigating the sound of a minor dominant chord.
"Theory describes, it does not command". | Although the D in the scale of B will be natural in the key signature, it will often be sharpened when leading to the key note E. Think of the melodic minor scale for E. D will be sharpened on the way up but natural on the way down.
So, if your chord is to resolve to the tonic E, the sharpened D will work nicely. You might find that a B minor chord works well if it goes somewhere else next. |
61,079 | I find when playing in a minor key I always end up playing the major version of the V chord. (So in Em I always end up playing a "B major" chord.)
However, the third of this chord should be played as a minor when looking at the key and it seems like using an accidental as frequently as I do is not really in the spirit of accidentals.
Am I making a mistake in my music theory? Am I playing the key I think I am? Is this just a mode? Do I need to start playing more B minors?
Please bear in mind I am relatively new to music theory and would appreciate it if you treat me like an idiot. Thanks. | 2017/08/13 | [
"https://music.stackexchange.com/questions/61079",
"https://music.stackexchange.com",
"https://music.stackexchange.com/users/43231/"
] | Although the D in the scale of B will be natural in the key signature, it will often be sharpened when leading to the key note E. Think of the melodic minor scale for E. D will be sharpened on the way up but natural on the way down.
So, if your chord is to resolve to the tonic E, the sharpened D will work nicely. You might find that a B minor chord works well if it goes somewhere else next. | Yes, you are making a mistake in the theory you know. Each major key sig. has a relative minor to go with it - C- Am: G- Em; Bb- Gm etc. Whilst the majors adhere exactly to the # or b in their key sig., minors cannot and do not.
That's because the notes that make up the minor scales vary in their 6th and 7th notes. It's the way they are. Take A minor. 6th note can be F or F#, 7th can be G or G#. In your scenario, E minor can have C or C#, and D or D#.
The D/D# anomaly makes the chord based on B either B minor or B major respectively. Both are quite acceptable, and both are used. The B major, as you find by using it and it sounds good to you, uses the leading note of D# to sound more decisive going into E minor, but there's nothing in the theory that says we must use that, or we must use B minor. Whatever fits better is what we should use. Please don't use theory as a set of *rules*. It's more a set of *guidelines*. Usual adage - if it sounds good, it usually is - whether the 'rules' get broken or not! |
61,079 | I find when playing in a minor key I always end up playing the major version of the V chord. (So in Em I always end up playing a "B major" chord.)
However, the third of this chord should be played as a minor when looking at the key and it seems like using an accidental as frequently as I do is not really in the spirit of accidentals.
Am I making a mistake in my music theory? Am I playing the key I think I am? Is this just a mode? Do I need to start playing more B minors?
Please bear in mind I am relatively new to music theory and would appreciate it if you treat me like an idiot. Thanks. | 2017/08/13 | [
"https://music.stackexchange.com/questions/61079",
"https://music.stackexchange.com",
"https://music.stackexchange.com/users/43231/"
] | Although the D in the scale of B will be natural in the key signature, it will often be sharpened when leading to the key note E. Think of the melodic minor scale for E. D will be sharpened on the way up but natural on the way down.
So, if your chord is to resolve to the tonic E, the sharpened D will work nicely. You might find that a B minor chord works well if it goes somewhere else next. | One way to look at things is that, for music in a minor key, the chord on scale step 5 is minor (Gm in the key of Cm). In a cadence, scale step is usually raised to be a half step below the tonic (scale step 8). In non-cadential passages, often the minor chord on the 5th step is used. For example, in a cycle of fifths, one might have (in the major): I,IV,vii0,iii,vi,ii,V,I etc. In a minor key, an ending cycle might look like: i,iv,VII,III,VI,ii0,V,i. However if the passage contains two cycles one often gets: i,iv,VII,III,VI,ii0,v,i,VII,III,VI,ii0,V,i. The "interior" part of the passage is just a string of chords, not a cadence. Of course, this treatment is optional and neither is incorrect; they are just different.
A similar example occurs in sequence decent by thirds (Pachelbel canon for one example). In a major key: I,V,vi,iii,IV,I6,ii6,V (where the descending bass turns around for the last two chords, not the only choice.) In minor keys the following is often found, i,v,VI,III,iv,i6,ii06,V in a cadential context; the last chord can be v if not meant cadentially.
As an aside: this sequence is very flexible. In a minor key, the chords on the scale step 5 can be either major or minor; the iii chord can be a I64 (not really cadential or arpeggiated); the ii0 chord can be iv; the ii chord can be IV; the ii or ii0 chords can be in root position; and lastly the final V (or v) chord can be a vii06 leading to a I (or i) chord which can give a bass line that descends an octave. |
61,079 | I find when playing in a minor key I always end up playing the major version of the V chord. (So in Em I always end up playing a "B major" chord.)
However, the third of this chord should be played as a minor when looking at the key and it seems like using an accidental as frequently as I do is not really in the spirit of accidentals.
Am I making a mistake in my music theory? Am I playing the key I think I am? Is this just a mode? Do I need to start playing more B minors?
Please bear in mind I am relatively new to music theory and would appreciate it if you treat me like an idiot. Thanks. | 2017/08/13 | [
"https://music.stackexchange.com/questions/61079",
"https://music.stackexchange.com",
"https://music.stackexchange.com/users/43231/"
] | Two points.
First: the scale of a key or mode is a framework. It doesn't instruct you NOT to use other notes. A piece of music that used ONLY diatonic (in the scale) notes and chords would be very basic and possibly very boring (although there's also beauty in simplicity).
Second: in traditional harmony the dominant chord of both a major or minor key is normally major. If we're writing the sort of music that deals in dominant > tonic relationships (and that's the bulk of Western music for the last few hundred years) the dominant chord NEEDS to tend toward the tonic chord. A large part of that tension comes from it including the 'leading note', the note a semitone below the tonic.
We don't HAVE to use major dominant chords. But we don't have to reject then either. You're doing nothing 'wrong' by sharpening that 7th into a leading note. Equally, you're doing nothing 'wrong' by investigating the sound of a minor dominant chord.
"Theory describes, it does not command". | Say we play in Em (relative major is G, one sharp). The V chord of Em should be Bm (B D F#). Although playing B major adds a sharp to D it is not considered as an "error" since it can naturaly lead to Em. It's clearer if you play B7 (B D# F# A) as it's the dominant chord of Em.
Sometimes the II chord of the major scale (Am in G) can also be played as a II7 to lead to the V chord. Even the I of the minor scale can be «dominant»-ized.
Try to play those progressions:
* G Bm Em Em Am D7 G G (nothing special)
* G B7 Em Em Am D7 G G (B7 leads to Em in a strong way)
* G B7 Em E7 Am D7 G G (same with E7 to Am)
* G B7 Em E7 A7 D7 G G (same with A7 to D7) |
61,079 | I find when playing in a minor key I always end up playing the major version of the V chord. (So in Em I always end up playing a "B major" chord.)
However, the third of this chord should be played as a minor when looking at the key and it seems like using an accidental as frequently as I do is not really in the spirit of accidentals.
Am I making a mistake in my music theory? Am I playing the key I think I am? Is this just a mode? Do I need to start playing more B minors?
Please bear in mind I am relatively new to music theory and would appreciate it if you treat me like an idiot. Thanks. | 2017/08/13 | [
"https://music.stackexchange.com/questions/61079",
"https://music.stackexchange.com",
"https://music.stackexchange.com/users/43231/"
] | Say we play in Em (relative major is G, one sharp). The V chord of Em should be Bm (B D F#). Although playing B major adds a sharp to D it is not considered as an "error" since it can naturaly lead to Em. It's clearer if you play B7 (B D# F# A) as it's the dominant chord of Em.
Sometimes the II chord of the major scale (Am in G) can also be played as a II7 to lead to the V chord. Even the I of the minor scale can be «dominant»-ized.
Try to play those progressions:
* G Bm Em Em Am D7 G G (nothing special)
* G B7 Em Em Am D7 G G (B7 leads to Em in a strong way)
* G B7 Em E7 Am D7 G G (same with E7 to Am)
* G B7 Em E7 A7 D7 G G (same with A7 to D7) | One way to look at things is that, for music in a minor key, the chord on scale step 5 is minor (Gm in the key of Cm). In a cadence, scale step is usually raised to be a half step below the tonic (scale step 8). In non-cadential passages, often the minor chord on the 5th step is used. For example, in a cycle of fifths, one might have (in the major): I,IV,vii0,iii,vi,ii,V,I etc. In a minor key, an ending cycle might look like: i,iv,VII,III,VI,ii0,V,i. However if the passage contains two cycles one often gets: i,iv,VII,III,VI,ii0,v,i,VII,III,VI,ii0,V,i. The "interior" part of the passage is just a string of chords, not a cadence. Of course, this treatment is optional and neither is incorrect; they are just different.
A similar example occurs in sequence decent by thirds (Pachelbel canon for one example). In a major key: I,V,vi,iii,IV,I6,ii6,V (where the descending bass turns around for the last two chords, not the only choice.) In minor keys the following is often found, i,v,VI,III,iv,i6,ii06,V in a cadential context; the last chord can be v if not meant cadentially.
As an aside: this sequence is very flexible. In a minor key, the chords on the scale step 5 can be either major or minor; the iii chord can be a I64 (not really cadential or arpeggiated); the ii0 chord can be iv; the ii chord can be IV; the ii or ii0 chords can be in root position; and lastly the final V (or v) chord can be a vii06 leading to a I (or i) chord which can give a bass line that descends an octave. |
61,079 | I find when playing in a minor key I always end up playing the major version of the V chord. (So in Em I always end up playing a "B major" chord.)
However, the third of this chord should be played as a minor when looking at the key and it seems like using an accidental as frequently as I do is not really in the spirit of accidentals.
Am I making a mistake in my music theory? Am I playing the key I think I am? Is this just a mode? Do I need to start playing more B minors?
Please bear in mind I am relatively new to music theory and would appreciate it if you treat me like an idiot. Thanks. | 2017/08/13 | [
"https://music.stackexchange.com/questions/61079",
"https://music.stackexchange.com",
"https://music.stackexchange.com/users/43231/"
] | Two points.
First: the scale of a key or mode is a framework. It doesn't instruct you NOT to use other notes. A piece of music that used ONLY diatonic (in the scale) notes and chords would be very basic and possibly very boring (although there's also beauty in simplicity).
Second: in traditional harmony the dominant chord of both a major or minor key is normally major. If we're writing the sort of music that deals in dominant > tonic relationships (and that's the bulk of Western music for the last few hundred years) the dominant chord NEEDS to tend toward the tonic chord. A large part of that tension comes from it including the 'leading note', the note a semitone below the tonic.
We don't HAVE to use major dominant chords. But we don't have to reject then either. You're doing nothing 'wrong' by sharpening that 7th into a leading note. Equally, you're doing nothing 'wrong' by investigating the sound of a minor dominant chord.
"Theory describes, it does not command". | Yes, you are making a mistake in the theory you know. Each major key sig. has a relative minor to go with it - C- Am: G- Em; Bb- Gm etc. Whilst the majors adhere exactly to the # or b in their key sig., minors cannot and do not.
That's because the notes that make up the minor scales vary in their 6th and 7th notes. It's the way they are. Take A minor. 6th note can be F or F#, 7th can be G or G#. In your scenario, E minor can have C or C#, and D or D#.
The D/D# anomaly makes the chord based on B either B minor or B major respectively. Both are quite acceptable, and both are used. The B major, as you find by using it and it sounds good to you, uses the leading note of D# to sound more decisive going into E minor, but there's nothing in the theory that says we must use that, or we must use B minor. Whatever fits better is what we should use. Please don't use theory as a set of *rules*. It's more a set of *guidelines*. Usual adage - if it sounds good, it usually is - whether the 'rules' get broken or not! |
61,079 | I find when playing in a minor key I always end up playing the major version of the V chord. (So in Em I always end up playing a "B major" chord.)
However, the third of this chord should be played as a minor when looking at the key and it seems like using an accidental as frequently as I do is not really in the spirit of accidentals.
Am I making a mistake in my music theory? Am I playing the key I think I am? Is this just a mode? Do I need to start playing more B minors?
Please bear in mind I am relatively new to music theory and would appreciate it if you treat me like an idiot. Thanks. | 2017/08/13 | [
"https://music.stackexchange.com/questions/61079",
"https://music.stackexchange.com",
"https://music.stackexchange.com/users/43231/"
] | Two points.
First: the scale of a key or mode is a framework. It doesn't instruct you NOT to use other notes. A piece of music that used ONLY diatonic (in the scale) notes and chords would be very basic and possibly very boring (although there's also beauty in simplicity).
Second: in traditional harmony the dominant chord of both a major or minor key is normally major. If we're writing the sort of music that deals in dominant > tonic relationships (and that's the bulk of Western music for the last few hundred years) the dominant chord NEEDS to tend toward the tonic chord. A large part of that tension comes from it including the 'leading note', the note a semitone below the tonic.
We don't HAVE to use major dominant chords. But we don't have to reject then either. You're doing nothing 'wrong' by sharpening that 7th into a leading note. Equally, you're doing nothing 'wrong' by investigating the sound of a minor dominant chord.
"Theory describes, it does not command". | One way to look at things is that, for music in a minor key, the chord on scale step 5 is minor (Gm in the key of Cm). In a cadence, scale step is usually raised to be a half step below the tonic (scale step 8). In non-cadential passages, often the minor chord on the 5th step is used. For example, in a cycle of fifths, one might have (in the major): I,IV,vii0,iii,vi,ii,V,I etc. In a minor key, an ending cycle might look like: i,iv,VII,III,VI,ii0,V,i. However if the passage contains two cycles one often gets: i,iv,VII,III,VI,ii0,v,i,VII,III,VI,ii0,V,i. The "interior" part of the passage is just a string of chords, not a cadence. Of course, this treatment is optional and neither is incorrect; they are just different.
A similar example occurs in sequence decent by thirds (Pachelbel canon for one example). In a major key: I,V,vi,iii,IV,I6,ii6,V (where the descending bass turns around for the last two chords, not the only choice.) In minor keys the following is often found, i,v,VI,III,iv,i6,ii06,V in a cadential context; the last chord can be v if not meant cadentially.
As an aside: this sequence is very flexible. In a minor key, the chords on the scale step 5 can be either major or minor; the iii chord can be a I64 (not really cadential or arpeggiated); the ii0 chord can be iv; the ii chord can be IV; the ii or ii0 chords can be in root position; and lastly the final V (or v) chord can be a vii06 leading to a I (or i) chord which can give a bass line that descends an octave. |
61,079 | I find when playing in a minor key I always end up playing the major version of the V chord. (So in Em I always end up playing a "B major" chord.)
However, the third of this chord should be played as a minor when looking at the key and it seems like using an accidental as frequently as I do is not really in the spirit of accidentals.
Am I making a mistake in my music theory? Am I playing the key I think I am? Is this just a mode? Do I need to start playing more B minors?
Please bear in mind I am relatively new to music theory and would appreciate it if you treat me like an idiot. Thanks. | 2017/08/13 | [
"https://music.stackexchange.com/questions/61079",
"https://music.stackexchange.com",
"https://music.stackexchange.com/users/43231/"
] | Yes, you are making a mistake in the theory you know. Each major key sig. has a relative minor to go with it - C- Am: G- Em; Bb- Gm etc. Whilst the majors adhere exactly to the # or b in their key sig., minors cannot and do not.
That's because the notes that make up the minor scales vary in their 6th and 7th notes. It's the way they are. Take A minor. 6th note can be F or F#, 7th can be G or G#. In your scenario, E minor can have C or C#, and D or D#.
The D/D# anomaly makes the chord based on B either B minor or B major respectively. Both are quite acceptable, and both are used. The B major, as you find by using it and it sounds good to you, uses the leading note of D# to sound more decisive going into E minor, but there's nothing in the theory that says we must use that, or we must use B minor. Whatever fits better is what we should use. Please don't use theory as a set of *rules*. It's more a set of *guidelines*. Usual adage - if it sounds good, it usually is - whether the 'rules' get broken or not! | One way to look at things is that, for music in a minor key, the chord on scale step 5 is minor (Gm in the key of Cm). In a cadence, scale step is usually raised to be a half step below the tonic (scale step 8). In non-cadential passages, often the minor chord on the 5th step is used. For example, in a cycle of fifths, one might have (in the major): I,IV,vii0,iii,vi,ii,V,I etc. In a minor key, an ending cycle might look like: i,iv,VII,III,VI,ii0,V,i. However if the passage contains two cycles one often gets: i,iv,VII,III,VI,ii0,v,i,VII,III,VI,ii0,V,i. The "interior" part of the passage is just a string of chords, not a cadence. Of course, this treatment is optional and neither is incorrect; they are just different.
A similar example occurs in sequence decent by thirds (Pachelbel canon for one example). In a major key: I,V,vi,iii,IV,I6,ii6,V (where the descending bass turns around for the last two chords, not the only choice.) In minor keys the following is often found, i,v,VI,III,iv,i6,ii06,V in a cadential context; the last chord can be v if not meant cadentially.
As an aside: this sequence is very flexible. In a minor key, the chords on the scale step 5 can be either major or minor; the iii chord can be a I64 (not really cadential or arpeggiated); the ii0 chord can be iv; the ii chord can be IV; the ii or ii0 chords can be in root position; and lastly the final V (or v) chord can be a vii06 leading to a I (or i) chord which can give a bass line that descends an octave. |
230,787 | I just read a question with answers about the letter *u* making the sound /w/ in *penguin* and *sanguine*. However, the word *language* was not mentioned. What is the explanation for the spelling of *language*? | 2015/02/26 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/230787",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/111970/"
] | Here is how the spelling evolved:
<http://www.etymonline.com/index.php?term=language>
Pronunciation note: Because of the mentioned varied origins of English words, you pretty much need to memorize which words with "gui" or "gua" have a "w" sound. And which ones don't.
For example, "guarantee", "guard" "guest", guild", "guile", "guilt" "guillotine", and "guise" have no such sound; they have a simple "g" sound.
Words from Spanish with "gua" tend to have the "gwa" sound (guano, guacamole, Guantánamo). Also language, which is from French.
An then there's GUI, which stands for Graphical User Interface, and is pronounced "gooey"!
Good luck to you. Luckily, there aren't very many of these words. | Part of the problem of the differences and inconsistencies between spelling and pronunciation in English is that there is no central arbiter of what is "right" and what is "not right". France has the Académie Française and Spain has the Real Academia Española or RAE to keep things in some kind of order. English doesn't.
The French and the Spanish both began government backed standardisation of grammar and spelling as from the 16th and 18th centuries. As late as 1989, French prime minister Michel Rocard appointed the Superior Council of the French Language to simplify the orthography by standardising and bringing it up to date.
This has never happened for English. As far as I know,there is no English speaking state whose government has tried to impose standards.
The spelling and pronunciation of "language" as opposed to the spelling and pronunciation of "guard" often cause problems for non-native speakers.
Fortunately for the job security of English as a Foreign Language (EFL) teachers, there are many other examples that can cause problems, as the poem below shows. I don't remember where I found it, so hat's off to whoever wrote it:
I take it you already know
Of tough and bough and cough and dough?
Others may stumble, but not you,
On hiccough, thorough, lough and through?
Well done! and now you wish perhaps
To learn of less familiar traps?
Beware of heard, a dreadful word,
That looks like beard and sounds like bird.
And dead: it's said like bed, not bead
For goodness sake don't call it "deed"!
Watch out for meat and great and threat
(they rhyme with suite and straight and debt).
A moth is not a moth in mother
Nor both in bother, broth in brother,
And here is not a match for there,
Nor dear and fear for bear and pear,
And then there's dose and rose and lose -
Just look them up - and goose and choose,
And cork and work and card and ward.
And font and front and word and sword,
And do and go and thwart and cart -
Come, come, I've hardly made a start!
A dreadful language? Man alive,
I mastered it when I was five! |
25,252 | Was the early church a missionary church? Matthew 28:19-20 leads me to believe it was:
>
> Go ye therefore, and teach all nations, baptizing them in the name of
> the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost:
>
>
> Teaching them to observe all things whatsoever I have commanded you:
> and, lo, I am with you always, even unto the end of the world. Amen.
>
>
>
Can we take this to mean that if Jesus Christ's church is on the earth today that it should still be involved in missionary work (ie. teaching all nations, baptizing them, and teaching them to observe the commandments)?
If so, which churches today are the most missionary-minded (in terms of the number of missionaries they send)? | 2014/01/28 | [
"https://christianity.stackexchange.com/questions/25252",
"https://christianity.stackexchange.com",
"https://christianity.stackexchange.com/users/9652/"
] | **Mormons**
80 000+ missionaries in serving in more than 400 missions throughout the world.
[REF](http://www.mormonnewsroom.org/topic/missionary-program)
**Jehovah's Witnesses**
Total hours spent in the field ministry during their past service year (September 2012 - August 2013) 1,841,180,235
[REF](http://www.jw.org/en/publications/books/2014-yearbook/preaching-teaching-worldwide/)
**Christian**
Total number of foreign missionaries 419,000
[REF](http://www.statisticbrain.com/baptist-missionary-statistics/)
**Catholic**
The number of lay missionaries in the world is 335,502 units, [REF](http://www.fides.org/en/news/32421-VATICAN_WORLD_MISSION_DAY_CATHOLIC_CHURCH_STATISTICS_2012#.UutaAvmSwfg)
---
I would find it extremely hard to find actual usable statistical data on this.
Just a side stat which i find relevant only because Jesus basically spend his time healing people
**MSF Doctors without Borders**
MSF provides medical care to approximately 8 million people through more than 400 projects in nearly 70 countries worldwide.
Although they do not baptize people, they most certainly follow a very selfless dedication to the upliftment of humans without prejudice or pride. Which i kinda think jesus was ultimately teaching
[REF](http://www.globalgiving.org/donate/13463/doctors-without-borders/info/) | Currently The Church of Jesus Christ of Latter-day Saints has over 82,000 full time proselytizing missionaries and another 10,000 service or humanitarian missionaries. All serve on a volunteer basis and are required to pay most of their expenses. Financial assistance is also available for those who have limited resource. [See here for more info](http://www.mormonnewsroom.org/topic/missionary-program) Aside from full time missionary service, all members are taught to be missionary minded in their everyday lives and always look for opportunities to share the gospel of Jesus Christ. |
25,252 | Was the early church a missionary church? Matthew 28:19-20 leads me to believe it was:
>
> Go ye therefore, and teach all nations, baptizing them in the name of
> the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost:
>
>
> Teaching them to observe all things whatsoever I have commanded you:
> and, lo, I am with you always, even unto the end of the world. Amen.
>
>
>
Can we take this to mean that if Jesus Christ's church is on the earth today that it should still be involved in missionary work (ie. teaching all nations, baptizing them, and teaching them to observe the commandments)?
If so, which churches today are the most missionary-minded (in terms of the number of missionaries they send)? | 2014/01/28 | [
"https://christianity.stackexchange.com/questions/25252",
"https://christianity.stackexchange.com",
"https://christianity.stackexchange.com/users/9652/"
] | **Mormons**
80 000+ missionaries in serving in more than 400 missions throughout the world.
[REF](http://www.mormonnewsroom.org/topic/missionary-program)
**Jehovah's Witnesses**
Total hours spent in the field ministry during their past service year (September 2012 - August 2013) 1,841,180,235
[REF](http://www.jw.org/en/publications/books/2014-yearbook/preaching-teaching-worldwide/)
**Christian**
Total number of foreign missionaries 419,000
[REF](http://www.statisticbrain.com/baptist-missionary-statistics/)
**Catholic**
The number of lay missionaries in the world is 335,502 units, [REF](http://www.fides.org/en/news/32421-VATICAN_WORLD_MISSION_DAY_CATHOLIC_CHURCH_STATISTICS_2012#.UutaAvmSwfg)
---
I would find it extremely hard to find actual usable statistical data on this.
Just a side stat which i find relevant only because Jesus basically spend his time healing people
**MSF Doctors without Borders**
MSF provides medical care to approximately 8 million people through more than 400 projects in nearly 70 countries worldwide.
Although they do not baptize people, they most certainly follow a very selfless dedication to the upliftment of humans without prejudice or pride. Which i kinda think jesus was ultimately teaching
[REF](http://www.globalgiving.org/donate/13463/doctors-without-borders/info/) | Jehovah's Witnesses are very focused on preaching and teaching the good news of the kingdom, including missionary work. ([Matthew 24:14](http://www.jw.org/en/publications/bible/nwt/books/matthew/24/#v40024014), [1 Timothy 2:4](http://www.jw.org/en/publications/bible/nwt/books/1-timothy/2/#v54002004), [Acts 10:34, 35](http://www.jw.org/en/publications/bible/nwt/books/acts/10/#v44010034))
Here are the worldwide statistics for the preaching and teaching activity of Jehovah's Witnesses in the past servivce year according the [2014 Yearbook of Jehovah’s Witnesses](http://www.jw.org/en/publications/books/2014-yearbook/preaching-teaching-worldwide/) (the service year is from September - August, so these stats are for September 2012 - August 2013):
* Lands **239**
* Publishers **7,965,954** (number of people actively preaching and teaching)
* Total hours spent in the field ministry during the past service year **1,841,180,235**
* Bible studies during the past service year **9,254,963**.
That same yearbook [shows this information](http://www.jw.org/en/publications/books/2014-yearbook/highlights/jw-org-website/) for the website jw.org which contains lots of Bible based learning resources:
* 316 Languages in which the Web site is available
* 220,000+ Number of Web pages on the site
* 600 Languages in which downloadable publications are available
* 130 Requests for Bible studies per day from over 230 countries
* 5 million+ Videos viewed per month
* 1.5 million Downloads per day
* 900,000+ Visits per day from over 230 countries
Here are some statistics found in the April 2014 Watchtower magazine for the printing of each issue:
* 45,944,000
* 213 Languages
All of Jehovah's Witnesses are expected to have a regular, active share in preaching and teaching.
As far as missionary work goes, according to the lesson ["What Is Missionary Service?"](http://www.jw.org/en/publications/books/jehovahs-will/missionary-service/) from the brochure "Who Are Doing Jehovah’s Will Today?" since 1943, more than 8,000 Gilead-trained missionaries have been sent out to witness in some 200 lands. Unlike most people who claim to do "missionary" work, these missionaries primarily focus on preaching and teaching the Bible. That number of more than 8,000 only includes those sent out after training at Gilead. There are many more who make sacrifices to preach where there is a greater need than where they come from.
Jehovah's Witnesses imitate the greatest missionary, Jesus Christ. He was willing to leave his home and life in the heavens to live as a human for a time. ([John 6:38](http://www.jw.org/en/publications/bible/nwt/books/john/6/#v43006038); [Philippians 2:7](http://www.jw.org/en/publications/bible/nwt/books/philippians/2/#v50002007)) According to Jesus own words the main purpose of this was to "declare the good news of the kingdom". ([Luke 4:43](http://www.jw.org/en/publications/bible/nwt/books/luke/4/#v42004043))
For more information please see the lesson ["How Can You Recognize True Worship?"](http://www.jw.org/en/publications/books/good-news-from-god/recognize-true-worshippers/) from that same brochure. |
25,252 | Was the early church a missionary church? Matthew 28:19-20 leads me to believe it was:
>
> Go ye therefore, and teach all nations, baptizing them in the name of
> the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost:
>
>
> Teaching them to observe all things whatsoever I have commanded you:
> and, lo, I am with you always, even unto the end of the world. Amen.
>
>
>
Can we take this to mean that if Jesus Christ's church is on the earth today that it should still be involved in missionary work (ie. teaching all nations, baptizing them, and teaching them to observe the commandments)?
If so, which churches today are the most missionary-minded (in terms of the number of missionaries they send)? | 2014/01/28 | [
"https://christianity.stackexchange.com/questions/25252",
"https://christianity.stackexchange.com",
"https://christianity.stackexchange.com/users/9652/"
] | **Mormons**
80 000+ missionaries in serving in more than 400 missions throughout the world.
[REF](http://www.mormonnewsroom.org/topic/missionary-program)
**Jehovah's Witnesses**
Total hours spent in the field ministry during their past service year (September 2012 - August 2013) 1,841,180,235
[REF](http://www.jw.org/en/publications/books/2014-yearbook/preaching-teaching-worldwide/)
**Christian**
Total number of foreign missionaries 419,000
[REF](http://www.statisticbrain.com/baptist-missionary-statistics/)
**Catholic**
The number of lay missionaries in the world is 335,502 units, [REF](http://www.fides.org/en/news/32421-VATICAN_WORLD_MISSION_DAY_CATHOLIC_CHURCH_STATISTICS_2012#.UutaAvmSwfg)
---
I would find it extremely hard to find actual usable statistical data on this.
Just a side stat which i find relevant only because Jesus basically spend his time healing people
**MSF Doctors without Borders**
MSF provides medical care to approximately 8 million people through more than 400 projects in nearly 70 countries worldwide.
Although they do not baptize people, they most certainly follow a very selfless dedication to the upliftment of humans without prejudice or pride. Which i kinda think jesus was ultimately teaching
[REF](http://www.globalgiving.org/donate/13463/doctors-without-borders/info/) | **Denominational Missions**
The Pentecostal Assemblies of God (2800 cross cultural workers) and the Baptist International Missions Board (5200 cross cultural workers) are among the larger denominational missions movements. In denominational missions work missionaries generally function more as project managers, overseeing broader missions teams and budgets, and therefore smaller numbers reflect larger scale works.
**Interdenominational Missions**
Parachurch, interdenominational (primarily evangelical), missions organizations also represent significant percentage of Christian missions.
Larger parachurch missions organizations include Youth With A Mission (20,000 staff) and Campus Crusade For Christ (25,000 staff).
**Note about JW and LDS Missions**
The statistics offered here about the LDS and JW groups are a bit misleading because they are including work that is not cross cultural or pioneering in nature, which is the historical definition of missions. They are including all of their evangelistic and charitable work. Most churches wouldn't consider those activities as missions work, rather a function of the local church. This is an issue of poor semantics.
It also needs to be noted that JW and LDS missions efforts are centralized with a controlled hierarchical structure, while denominational and interdenominational missions are decentralized into, literally, tens of thousands of locally or independently governed missions organizations representing an estimated 400,000 missionaries.
---
Sources:
* [The Surprising Countries Most Missionaries Are Sent From and Go To - ChrisitianityToday.com](http://www.christianitytoday.com/gleanings/2013/july/missionaries-countries-sent-received-csgc-gordon-conwell.html?paging=off)
* [General Statistics - The Traveling Team](http://www.thetravelingteam.org/stats) |
144,317 | >
> Please be advised that the clerks Intake Specialist Unit is in receipt of the complaint you filed against Maple Lee alleging harassment, and retaliation, which has now been assigned Intake #123425.
>
>
>
My question is, should there be a comma before *and* in "alleging harassment, and retaliation"? | 2014/01/02 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/144317",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/61179/"
] | No. It adds nothing. No punctuation should be used unless it serves a purpose. | No, not in this case. The common is only needed before "and" if the list is three or more items. |
24,159 | The card Clerical Error has the text:
>
> Choose a player. Collect any noble of your choice from that player's
> score pile. That player then chooses any other noble from your score
> pile and collects it.
>
>
>
The noble Robespierre has the text:
>
> The day ends after you collect this noble. Discard any nobles
> remaining in line.
>
>
>
According to [this thread](https://boardgamegeek.com/thread/217462/offical-guillotine-faq) on their interaction:
>
> Clerical Error would work just fine, but end the day and discard all
> nobles in line if used to get Robespierre from someone else's score
> pile.
>
>
>
This seems to imply that noble abilities continue to work from the score area, which seems consistent with nobles like the Palace Guards, whose abilities must work from the score area. So, two-fold question:
1. Does this mean that if I use Clerical Error to collect someone else's Rival Executioner ("Collect the top noble of the noble deck after you collect this noble"), I get that ability? (I'm guessing yes)
2. Why doesn't the Master Spy ("After each action card is played, move this card to the end of the line.") move to the end of the line from your score area if anyone plays an action?
To put it differently, what rules framework can we construct for Guillotine about what types of abilities work in what zones of play to get the desired behavior? | 2015/05/14 | [
"https://boardgames.stackexchange.com/questions/24159",
"https://boardgames.stackexchange.com",
"https://boardgames.stackexchange.com/users/9999/"
] | A common Uno variant allows the recipient of a draw 2 to avoid drawing (and being skipped) by playing their own draw 2. The next player either needs to skip their turn and draw 4 cards, or play their own draw 2. If they play their own, the next player must either draw 6 cards or continue the sequence. Some variants allow similar behavior with draw 4 cards.
Assuming you're talking about this "stacking" draw cards, you aren't going to be able to get an official answer, because it isn't an official rule. This would explain why you and your friend are both adamant about it working in different ways. You're just going to have to come to an agreement on how you will play.
For what its worth, every place that I've seen this rule described you have to play the exact same card, so you cannot "stack" a draw 4 when receiving a draw 2 in order to make the next player draw 6. So I expect that is the more common way of playing the variant. | You can play a Wild card on top of *anything*, so long as it's your turn to play. Your friend is crazy.
For the Wild Draw 4, you should ideally be unable to match the color - it is possible to challenge a Wild Draw 4, and if the person who played it could have played a card to match the color instead (not the number), the person who played it has to draw the 4. If the challenge is wrong, the challenger draws 6 instead of 4. |
24,159 | The card Clerical Error has the text:
>
> Choose a player. Collect any noble of your choice from that player's
> score pile. That player then chooses any other noble from your score
> pile and collects it.
>
>
>
The noble Robespierre has the text:
>
> The day ends after you collect this noble. Discard any nobles
> remaining in line.
>
>
>
According to [this thread](https://boardgamegeek.com/thread/217462/offical-guillotine-faq) on their interaction:
>
> Clerical Error would work just fine, but end the day and discard all
> nobles in line if used to get Robespierre from someone else's score
> pile.
>
>
>
This seems to imply that noble abilities continue to work from the score area, which seems consistent with nobles like the Palace Guards, whose abilities must work from the score area. So, two-fold question:
1. Does this mean that if I use Clerical Error to collect someone else's Rival Executioner ("Collect the top noble of the noble deck after you collect this noble"), I get that ability? (I'm guessing yes)
2. Why doesn't the Master Spy ("After each action card is played, move this card to the end of the line.") move to the end of the line from your score area if anyone plays an action?
To put it differently, what rules framework can we construct for Guillotine about what types of abilities work in what zones of play to get the desired behavior? | 2015/05/14 | [
"https://boardgames.stackexchange.com/questions/24159",
"https://boardgames.stackexchange.com",
"https://boardgames.stackexchange.com/users/9999/"
] | You can play a Wild card on top of *anything*, so long as it's your turn to play. Your friend is crazy.
For the Wild Draw 4, you should ideally be unable to match the color - it is possible to challenge a Wild Draw 4, and if the person who played it could have played a card to match the color instead (not the number), the person who played it has to draw the 4. If the challenge is wrong, the challenger draws 6 instead of 4. | According to this link (<http://www.qcsalon.net/en/uno>), a +4 can't be played on top of +2 or vice-versa. There are other rules too, regarding playing of a +4 card, you can choose to follow. |
24,159 | The card Clerical Error has the text:
>
> Choose a player. Collect any noble of your choice from that player's
> score pile. That player then chooses any other noble from your score
> pile and collects it.
>
>
>
The noble Robespierre has the text:
>
> The day ends after you collect this noble. Discard any nobles
> remaining in line.
>
>
>
According to [this thread](https://boardgamegeek.com/thread/217462/offical-guillotine-faq) on their interaction:
>
> Clerical Error would work just fine, but end the day and discard all
> nobles in line if used to get Robespierre from someone else's score
> pile.
>
>
>
This seems to imply that noble abilities continue to work from the score area, which seems consistent with nobles like the Palace Guards, whose abilities must work from the score area. So, two-fold question:
1. Does this mean that if I use Clerical Error to collect someone else's Rival Executioner ("Collect the top noble of the noble deck after you collect this noble"), I get that ability? (I'm guessing yes)
2. Why doesn't the Master Spy ("After each action card is played, move this card to the end of the line.") move to the end of the line from your score area if anyone plays an action?
To put it differently, what rules framework can we construct for Guillotine about what types of abilities work in what zones of play to get the desired behavior? | 2015/05/14 | [
"https://boardgames.stackexchange.com/questions/24159",
"https://boardgames.stackexchange.com",
"https://boardgames.stackexchange.com/users/9999/"
] | You can play a Wild card on top of *anything*, so long as it's your turn to play. Your friend is crazy.
For the Wild Draw 4, you should ideally be unable to match the color - it is possible to challenge a Wild Draw 4, and if the person who played it could have played a card to match the color instead (not the number), the person who played it has to draw the 4. If the challenge is wrong, the challenger draws 6 instead of 4. | Yes you can me and my family had the same problem it comes in the uno manual |
24,159 | The card Clerical Error has the text:
>
> Choose a player. Collect any noble of your choice from that player's
> score pile. That player then chooses any other noble from your score
> pile and collects it.
>
>
>
The noble Robespierre has the text:
>
> The day ends after you collect this noble. Discard any nobles
> remaining in line.
>
>
>
According to [this thread](https://boardgamegeek.com/thread/217462/offical-guillotine-faq) on their interaction:
>
> Clerical Error would work just fine, but end the day and discard all
> nobles in line if used to get Robespierre from someone else's score
> pile.
>
>
>
This seems to imply that noble abilities continue to work from the score area, which seems consistent with nobles like the Palace Guards, whose abilities must work from the score area. So, two-fold question:
1. Does this mean that if I use Clerical Error to collect someone else's Rival Executioner ("Collect the top noble of the noble deck after you collect this noble"), I get that ability? (I'm guessing yes)
2. Why doesn't the Master Spy ("After each action card is played, move this card to the end of the line.") move to the end of the line from your score area if anyone plays an action?
To put it differently, what rules framework can we construct for Guillotine about what types of abilities work in what zones of play to get the desired behavior? | 2015/05/14 | [
"https://boardgames.stackexchange.com/questions/24159",
"https://boardgames.stackexchange.com",
"https://boardgames.stackexchange.com/users/9999/"
] | You can play a Wild card on top of *anything*, so long as it's your turn to play. Your friend is crazy.
For the Wild Draw 4, you should ideally be unable to match the color - it is possible to challenge a Wild Draw 4, and if the person who played it could have played a card to match the color instead (not the number), the person who played it has to draw the 4. If the challenge is wrong, the challenger draws 6 instead of 4. | My family has never put a draw 4 ontop of a draw 2 we will only do that if it is agreed on and that is the rules of uno but you can play however you want to play |
24,159 | The card Clerical Error has the text:
>
> Choose a player. Collect any noble of your choice from that player's
> score pile. That player then chooses any other noble from your score
> pile and collects it.
>
>
>
The noble Robespierre has the text:
>
> The day ends after you collect this noble. Discard any nobles
> remaining in line.
>
>
>
According to [this thread](https://boardgamegeek.com/thread/217462/offical-guillotine-faq) on their interaction:
>
> Clerical Error would work just fine, but end the day and discard all
> nobles in line if used to get Robespierre from someone else's score
> pile.
>
>
>
This seems to imply that noble abilities continue to work from the score area, which seems consistent with nobles like the Palace Guards, whose abilities must work from the score area. So, two-fold question:
1. Does this mean that if I use Clerical Error to collect someone else's Rival Executioner ("Collect the top noble of the noble deck after you collect this noble"), I get that ability? (I'm guessing yes)
2. Why doesn't the Master Spy ("After each action card is played, move this card to the end of the line.") move to the end of the line from your score area if anyone plays an action?
To put it differently, what rules framework can we construct for Guillotine about what types of abilities work in what zones of play to get the desired behavior? | 2015/05/14 | [
"https://boardgames.stackexchange.com/questions/24159",
"https://boardgames.stackexchange.com",
"https://boardgames.stackexchange.com/users/9999/"
] | A common Uno variant allows the recipient of a draw 2 to avoid drawing (and being skipped) by playing their own draw 2. The next player either needs to skip their turn and draw 4 cards, or play their own draw 2. If they play their own, the next player must either draw 6 cards or continue the sequence. Some variants allow similar behavior with draw 4 cards.
Assuming you're talking about this "stacking" draw cards, you aren't going to be able to get an official answer, because it isn't an official rule. This would explain why you and your friend are both adamant about it working in different ways. You're just going to have to come to an agreement on how you will play.
For what its worth, every place that I've seen this rule described you have to play the exact same card, so you cannot "stack" a draw 4 when receiving a draw 2 in order to make the next player draw 6. So I expect that is the more common way of playing the variant. | According to this link (<http://www.qcsalon.net/en/uno>), a +4 can't be played on top of +2 or vice-versa. There are other rules too, regarding playing of a +4 card, you can choose to follow. |
24,159 | The card Clerical Error has the text:
>
> Choose a player. Collect any noble of your choice from that player's
> score pile. That player then chooses any other noble from your score
> pile and collects it.
>
>
>
The noble Robespierre has the text:
>
> The day ends after you collect this noble. Discard any nobles
> remaining in line.
>
>
>
According to [this thread](https://boardgamegeek.com/thread/217462/offical-guillotine-faq) on their interaction:
>
> Clerical Error would work just fine, but end the day and discard all
> nobles in line if used to get Robespierre from someone else's score
> pile.
>
>
>
This seems to imply that noble abilities continue to work from the score area, which seems consistent with nobles like the Palace Guards, whose abilities must work from the score area. So, two-fold question:
1. Does this mean that if I use Clerical Error to collect someone else's Rival Executioner ("Collect the top noble of the noble deck after you collect this noble"), I get that ability? (I'm guessing yes)
2. Why doesn't the Master Spy ("After each action card is played, move this card to the end of the line.") move to the end of the line from your score area if anyone plays an action?
To put it differently, what rules framework can we construct for Guillotine about what types of abilities work in what zones of play to get the desired behavior? | 2015/05/14 | [
"https://boardgames.stackexchange.com/questions/24159",
"https://boardgames.stackexchange.com",
"https://boardgames.stackexchange.com/users/9999/"
] | A common Uno variant allows the recipient of a draw 2 to avoid drawing (and being skipped) by playing their own draw 2. The next player either needs to skip their turn and draw 4 cards, or play their own draw 2. If they play their own, the next player must either draw 6 cards or continue the sequence. Some variants allow similar behavior with draw 4 cards.
Assuming you're talking about this "stacking" draw cards, you aren't going to be able to get an official answer, because it isn't an official rule. This would explain why you and your friend are both adamant about it working in different ways. You're just going to have to come to an agreement on how you will play.
For what its worth, every place that I've seen this rule described you have to play the exact same card, so you cannot "stack" a draw 4 when receiving a draw 2 in order to make the next player draw 6. So I expect that is the more common way of playing the variant. | Yes you can me and my family had the same problem it comes in the uno manual |
24,159 | The card Clerical Error has the text:
>
> Choose a player. Collect any noble of your choice from that player's
> score pile. That player then chooses any other noble from your score
> pile and collects it.
>
>
>
The noble Robespierre has the text:
>
> The day ends after you collect this noble. Discard any nobles
> remaining in line.
>
>
>
According to [this thread](https://boardgamegeek.com/thread/217462/offical-guillotine-faq) on their interaction:
>
> Clerical Error would work just fine, but end the day and discard all
> nobles in line if used to get Robespierre from someone else's score
> pile.
>
>
>
This seems to imply that noble abilities continue to work from the score area, which seems consistent with nobles like the Palace Guards, whose abilities must work from the score area. So, two-fold question:
1. Does this mean that if I use Clerical Error to collect someone else's Rival Executioner ("Collect the top noble of the noble deck after you collect this noble"), I get that ability? (I'm guessing yes)
2. Why doesn't the Master Spy ("After each action card is played, move this card to the end of the line.") move to the end of the line from your score area if anyone plays an action?
To put it differently, what rules framework can we construct for Guillotine about what types of abilities work in what zones of play to get the desired behavior? | 2015/05/14 | [
"https://boardgames.stackexchange.com/questions/24159",
"https://boardgames.stackexchange.com",
"https://boardgames.stackexchange.com/users/9999/"
] | A common Uno variant allows the recipient of a draw 2 to avoid drawing (and being skipped) by playing their own draw 2. The next player either needs to skip their turn and draw 4 cards, or play their own draw 2. If they play their own, the next player must either draw 6 cards or continue the sequence. Some variants allow similar behavior with draw 4 cards.
Assuming you're talking about this "stacking" draw cards, you aren't going to be able to get an official answer, because it isn't an official rule. This would explain why you and your friend are both adamant about it working in different ways. You're just going to have to come to an agreement on how you will play.
For what its worth, every place that I've seen this rule described you have to play the exact same card, so you cannot "stack" a draw 4 when receiving a draw 2 in order to make the next player draw 6. So I expect that is the more common way of playing the variant. | My family has never put a draw 4 ontop of a draw 2 we will only do that if it is agreed on and that is the rules of uno but you can play however you want to play |
68,022 | What is the difference between 100 Mbit/s and 1 Gbit/s? What are the advantages of a 1 Gbit/s network and pricing? | 2009/09/23 | [
"https://serverfault.com/questions/68022",
"https://serverfault.com",
"https://serverfault.com/users/20996/"
] | **It's probably the line rate (speed) of the first network link, the one which attaches your server to the hosting providers network.** It matches the ubiquitous 100 Mbit/s and 1 Gbit/s Ethernet standards; and hosting providers have a habit of mentioning this link speed, as it gives such a nice high number to show.
The actual difference is between 100 megabit/second (which often comes to around 11 megabyte/s in practice), and 1000 megabit/s (often around 80 megabyte/s).
In most cases, **it is a pretty meaningless measurement on its own.** Large-scale Internet traffic is expensive, so no hosting provider will really sell you 100 or 1000 Mbit/s **out of their network** for a few hundred bucks per month. In other words, you will be limited elsewhere -- limited by the practical speed the hosting providers own network can handle, or by [traffic shaping](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Traffic_shaping), or by an "acceptable use policy" or other legal agreement.
**Edit:** I should add that if your site can work on a single server, then you most likely don't need more than a few megabit per second. Earlier on the Stack Overflow blog had a [nice post with numbers and bandwidth usage](http://blog.stackoverflow.com/2009/02/happy-100000th-question/), showing Stack Overflow consuming only around 6 Mbit/s. Now, Stack Overflow is a best-case example, as it is a site with mostly text, HTTP compression turned on, and a proper HTTP headers set. So analyze your own needs; [YMMV](http://en.wiktionary.org/wiki/YMMV). | 1 gigabit/s network is ten times faster, and therefore more capable, than 100 megabit/s - so 1 Gbit/s should be better than 100 Mbit/s - that said, if your server doesn't use this extra capacity, it may not be worth going for the 1 Gbit/s. What's the price difference? |
68,022 | What is the difference between 100 Mbit/s and 1 Gbit/s? What are the advantages of a 1 Gbit/s network and pricing? | 2009/09/23 | [
"https://serverfault.com/questions/68022",
"https://serverfault.com",
"https://serverfault.com/users/20996/"
] | 1 gigabit/s network is ten times faster, and therefore more capable, than 100 megabit/s - so 1 Gbit/s should be better than 100 Mbit/s - that said, if your server doesn't use this extra capacity, it may not be worth going for the 1 Gbit/s. What's the price difference? | I don't think people here gives you clear picture which leads me to believe they don't have real experience.
The point behind overselling is, that most servers will never need true 100 Mbit/s or 1 Gbit/s. The same at home, you don't buy fiber for downloading 24 hours a day at 50 Mbit/s, but for convenience - when you do, it does it fast.
What nobody mentioned to you, that for a true 1 GBit/s experience, just connection speed won't do the trick. At cheap rates you will usually get server hardware not capable of using such connection. At these rates you are usually limited by your hard disk drive and other hardware components. Cheap hard disk drives won't even push more than 10 MB/s constantly (you think they will give other than cheap hard disk drive to your cheap server?). I got a 1 GBit/s server with a very new SATA hard disk drive, and I was able to push mostly 20 MB/s from/to there (also a problem to test, because almost no server is truly capable of this). So if you really want to push 100 MB/s, you have to have high-end hardware, SSD drive instead of HDD. |
68,022 | What is the difference between 100 Mbit/s and 1 Gbit/s? What are the advantages of a 1 Gbit/s network and pricing? | 2009/09/23 | [
"https://serverfault.com/questions/68022",
"https://serverfault.com",
"https://serverfault.com/users/20996/"
] | **It's probably the line rate (speed) of the first network link, the one which attaches your server to the hosting providers network.** It matches the ubiquitous 100 Mbit/s and 1 Gbit/s Ethernet standards; and hosting providers have a habit of mentioning this link speed, as it gives such a nice high number to show.
The actual difference is between 100 megabit/second (which often comes to around 11 megabyte/s in practice), and 1000 megabit/s (often around 80 megabyte/s).
In most cases, **it is a pretty meaningless measurement on its own.** Large-scale Internet traffic is expensive, so no hosting provider will really sell you 100 or 1000 Mbit/s **out of their network** for a few hundred bucks per month. In other words, you will be limited elsewhere -- limited by the practical speed the hosting providers own network can handle, or by [traffic shaping](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Traffic_shaping), or by an "acceptable use policy" or other legal agreement.
**Edit:** I should add that if your site can work on a single server, then you most likely don't need more than a few megabit per second. Earlier on the Stack Overflow blog had a [nice post with numbers and bandwidth usage](http://blog.stackoverflow.com/2009/02/happy-100000th-question/), showing Stack Overflow consuming only around 6 Mbit/s. Now, Stack Overflow is a best-case example, as it is a site with mostly text, HTTP compression turned on, and a proper HTTP headers set. So analyze your own needs; [YMMV](http://en.wiktionary.org/wiki/YMMV). | I don't think people here gives you clear picture which leads me to believe they don't have real experience.
The point behind overselling is, that most servers will never need true 100 Mbit/s or 1 Gbit/s. The same at home, you don't buy fiber for downloading 24 hours a day at 50 Mbit/s, but for convenience - when you do, it does it fast.
What nobody mentioned to you, that for a true 1 GBit/s experience, just connection speed won't do the trick. At cheap rates you will usually get server hardware not capable of using such connection. At these rates you are usually limited by your hard disk drive and other hardware components. Cheap hard disk drives won't even push more than 10 MB/s constantly (you think they will give other than cheap hard disk drive to your cheap server?). I got a 1 GBit/s server with a very new SATA hard disk drive, and I was able to push mostly 20 MB/s from/to there (also a problem to test, because almost no server is truly capable of this). So if you really want to push 100 MB/s, you have to have high-end hardware, SSD drive instead of HDD. |
64,147 | I'm considering running a game, in which characters take on a role of courtiers in a sovereign ruler's court. The idea is that these courtiers all serve as spies, diplomats, enforcers etc. to some factions, domestic or foreign, to further their causes through intrigue and conspiracy. The PCs would not (initially) be orchestrators of any major plots, but instead given short-term goals to accomplish by their masters.
To keep the group coherent, I would like to give them two sets of goals - major one, that is the same for the whole group, and a minor one, specific to each player. The minor goals would be divergent, but not mutually exclusive. An example would be to have a major goal: "Make sure Joe Traitor survives the trial he faces" and minor ones given to each player"Make sure he leaves the country", "Make sure he is acquitted of all charges" and "Make sure he escapes his arrest". While they potentially could be all achieved, it would be much more complicated than just achieving the major one.
I'm currently considering Fate Core as the system to run it, but that's [somewhat ill suited to include mystery elements](https://rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/64030/what-better-not-to-use-fate-core-for), if needed. I would like to be recommended a system that could support my idea with solid mechanics.
A perfect system would:
* have a mechanic to handle intrigue and influence of PCs
* be simple and light on dice rolling
* handle combat (duels, small skirmishes, assassinations) and mystery
* be possible to run in a Low Fantasy, Dark Fantasy or Gaslamp Fantasy settings
* support cloak and dagger moods of treachery, several-layer conspiracies and political struggle
* reward players for successful scheming more than a head-first approach
---
I see that the question attracted some bad answers, so I'd like to clarify.
I am not looking for a system as in "a mechanic to handle social conflict". I'm looking for a whole game that includes such a mechanic.
The mechanic (or tool, or methodology) has to support me in keeping track about who schemes what and what is going to happen. If every NPC has a plot of his own, keeping track of what happens in the end is very complicated very quickly without a way to do it.
Several layers of conspiracies would be a facility to have, well, exactly that. So the players plot to have Marshal Mutton assassinated, but that's just a part of a plot to have the Household Guard issue less patrols, which in turn is an element of a scheme to allow smuggling of Crazy Herb into the capital, which is needed to throw the city into turmoil, a part of the machinations by Baron Blaggard to swoop in and save the day. And that allows Scheming Steve to bang Baron's wife. | 2015/06/29 | [
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/64147",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/users/14670/"
] | Let me recommend [Polaris](http://www.tao-games.com/polaris/), which is a very odd game but potentially just what you're looking for. It's also potentially not at all what you're looking for, because Polaris is *weird*, but nothing ventured nothing gained eh?
By default in Polaris, you are knights under the command of a king who has begun to go mad. As a last resort, you have formed a kind of secret coalition among some of your fellows to try and secure the civilization you all love. You are also doomed to fail. I suspect changing the fluff so that you're spies in the house of a foreign king will not change the core system too much. (Though you don't have to- there are other remnants, and probably dukes or the like you could spy on. Also, I suspect that the Knight's relationship with their king is adversarial enough to work for what you want.) If you do not want to end in tragedy, that's a bit harder.
Has a mechanic to handle intrigue and influence of PCs
------------------------------------------------------
I'm not entirely sure of your meaning. If you want something like D&D 3.5's Attitude, Polaris doesn't exactly have this. If something more like Fate's aspects would do, Polaris almost gets there. Protagonists have themes and aspects and even cosmos that can relate to people, but you never really attach numbers to the question of how much an NPC likes you.
However, if you're comfortable with not having numbers attached to relationships, Polaris's mechanics transition smoothly from duels with blades to duels with words. I particularly like the negotiation aspects, as there's a sort of four way tug of war between the protagonist, the NPC, and the guides. It works really well, though it takes a few readings to be comfortable with it.
On the other hand, given the way that each protagonist has different guides (I'm controlling Urist McProtagonist as his Heart, but Urist's Mistaken is a different player and controls all the antagonists in his scenes, and Urist's Full Moon is a third player and they control about half the NPCs while the other half is controlled by the fourth player, called the New Moon) interplayer influence is fascinating, and by breaking up the DMing role like this you often wind up with very NPC focused challenges.
Simple and light on dice rolling
--------------------------------
Polaris is not diceless, but it comes very close.
Whether it counts as simple is up for debate. The entire rulebook is about sixty pages, half of which is fluff. The core system involves the use of key phrases, like "But only if" or "And so it was" that have specific meanings in the context of the game. For example, "And so it was" begins and ends scenes, "But only if" is a negotiation with another player, allowing what they said to be true if they accept the addition you're making. Polaris is honestly fairly simple, but tends to confuse experienced RPG grognards because it doesn't really use any of the standard mechanics of these games. (There's no real hit point equivalent, there are no dice, there is no DM...)
Handle combat and mystery
-------------------------
Combat is easy. Polaris can do swordfights, though as you may have gathered they won't play like anything you'd see in D&D. (Even though they might look a lot alike in-universe.)
By mystery, do you mean that the *player* is unaware of something and trying to find out, or the *character* is unaware of something and trying to find out? The latter is easily accomplished, and will probably run smoother than most mysteries you've played through. (The wonderful scene setting rules are perhaps the least noticed genius of this game.) The former could theoretically be done, but would probably require some fast and clever play on the part of one of the guides.
Low Fantasy, Dark Fantasy or Gaslamp Fantasy settings
-----------------------------------------------------
The main setting for Polaris is dark fantasy. The game is subtitled "Chivalric Tragedy at the Utmost North" and invariably ends badly for all concerned. The end of the world is coming, the end of an age of beauty and light and majesty, and demons and dawn both rise to end the world as we know it.
Mechanically, I can confirm the system works perfectly as low fantasy, though be very sure that all players are on the same page as to what is appropriate. If deviations occur during play, roll with it- whoever's Guide it falls under at the moment has say. My playgroup ran a Lies of Locke Lemora-inspired Polaris game, and it worked wonderfully. (Bug lived! Sweet, sweet victory!)
No idea on Gaslamp Fantasy. My instinct is that it might work, but gaslamp might also trend too optimistic for the tragedies that Polaris produces.
Cloak and dagger, several-layer conspiracies
--------------------------------------------
Read the section on Mysteries again for the distinction between player and character, and how Polaris handles that.
The mechanics do not prevent cloak and dagger; There's no equivalent to a sneak attack, but it will usually help in negotiations. Run as close to default as you can, the game starts out with on conspiracy (the Knights against the King) and will almost certainly have a conspiracy within a conspiracy before it ends (as one or more of the Knights turn against each other.) Add to that demons of the heart and soul, which are invisible, can possess people, easily penetrate your fortifications, and work for the downfall of all you hold dear (did I mention some can destroy your memories of love just for shits and giggles?) and you have a recipe for some pretty solid paranoia.
Reward players for successful scheming
--------------------------------------
By clever play and skilled negotiation, the things you want to happen will be brought about. By collusion, appeasement, and outright bribery of your Mistaken, you can greatly extend the lifespan of your character. Does that count? No?
How about this; experience is checked when you act in sympathy with the demons, in hatred of a person, or in despair or apathy towards the people as a whole. In other words, by fundamentally betraying your team, you get XP. (Of course, if you get too much XP then you completely betray your team and stop being called a protagonist. You can still play the character in scenes though.)
TL;DR
-----
I don't know if this is the best fit for what you want. It's a *weird* game, and requires a kind of solemnity of play that isn't what everyone's looking for. But it's a *great* game, and if you want a courtly feel I can't recommend anything better. It fits most of your criteria, though often in unusual ways. Give it a look. | There is a P&P system for Game of Thrones. You might want to look into that. More intriguing and backstabing than that isn't possible I guess.
<https://greenronin.com/sifrp/>
There is a quickstart PDF as well, if you want to see if it may fit your needs.
I haven't played it myself, but my Gamemaster has told me a little bit about it.
The intrigue part is very high in this game. Be aware, that you need to play a lot of NPC's, which may even talk to one another in front of the PC's. What would intrigues be without a large audience?
I don't know how the rolling is in the system. But the other points should all be fullfilled. It's supposed to be played similar to the books/TV show. So all your sneaky/evil characters have a higher chance of success than your honorably heroes. |
46,629 | I was trying to analyze one stock, where there was a link called Fibonacci value, which shows different prices of stock as bellow:
>
> Trading :: Fibonacci Values Stock Code ANDPRA Exchange NSE 1st
> Fibonacci Value 343.00 2nd Fibonacci Value 338.89 3rd Fibonacci
> Value 337.63 4th Fibonacci Value 336.36 5th Fibonacci Value 334.79 6th
> Fibonacci Value 332.25
>
>
> Fibonacci Retracements
>
>
> Fibonacci Retracements are ratios used to identify potential reversal
> levels. These ratios are found in the Fibonacci sequence. The most
> popular Fibonacci Retracements are 61.8%, 50% and 38.2%. Ratio of
> 61.8% is referred as golden ratio and holds highest significance of all.
>
>
> Application :
>
>
> After an advance, Fibonacci ratios are applied to price advance
> (difference between extremes) to define retracement levels and
> forecast the extent of a correction or pullback. Fibonacci
> Retracements can also be applied after a decline to forecast the
> length of a counter trend bounce. These retracements can be combined
> with other indicators and price patterns to create an overall
> strategy.
>
>
>
Can anyone make me understand what this Fibonacci values says about this stock? | 2015/04/09 | [
"https://money.stackexchange.com/questions/46629",
"https://money.stackexchange.com",
"https://money.stackexchange.com/users/26635/"
] | Usually when a stock is up-trending or down-trending the price does not go up or down in a straight line. In an uptrend the price may go up over a couple of days then it could go down the next day or two, but the general direction would be up over the medium term. The opposite for a downtrend.
So if the stock has been generally going up over the last few weeks, it may take a breather for a week or two before prices continue up again. This breather is called a retracement in the uptrend. The Fibonacci levels are possible amounts by which the price might retract before it continues on its way up again.
By the way 50% is not actually a Fibonacci Retracement level but it is a common retracement level which is usually used in combination with the Fibonacci Retracement levels. | This is how I've understood this concept. Fibonacci nos/levels/ratios/%s is based on concept of sequential increment. You may find lot of info about Fibonacci on net. In stock market this concept is used to predict psychological level. While a trend is form, usually price tend to accumulate/consolidate at these level. How the percentage/ ratio make impact is - check any long trend...Now draw a fibbo retracement from immediate previous high and connect it's low. You will see new levels of intermediate trend. In broader term you will find after reversal a leg (trend) is formed, then body and then head which is smaller; then price reverses. The first leg that forms if it refuses to break 23.6% or 38.2% then the previous trend may continue. 50% is normal; usually this level is indecision phase. Even 61.8% is seen as indecision but it is crucial level as it is breakout level towards 100%. Now if the stock retraces 100% then it is sign a new big trend is forming. Now for day trader 23.6%,38.2% and 50% level are very crucial from trading purpose. This concept is so realistic that every level is considered and respected. Suppose if a candle or bar starts at 23.6% level and crosses 38.2% and directly hits 50%. Then the next bar or candle will revert and first hit 38.2% and then continue with the trend. It means price comes back, forms it area at this level and then continue whichever direction the force directs it. You never trade fibo alone, you need help of oscillators or other tools to confirm it. |
9,657 | Does anyone know when and how *fail* became a noun? I'd love to see one of those charts that shows the date of origin and subsequent growth of this usage. | 2011/01/23 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/9657",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/1778/"
] | [Online Etymology Dictionary](http://www.etymonline.com/index.php?term=fail) says:
>
> Fail:
>
>
> The noun (e.g. *without fail*) is from
> **late 13c.**, from O.Fr. *faile* "deficiency," from *falir*. The
> Anglo-French form of the verb,
> *failer*, came to be used as a noun, hence *[failure](http://www.etymonline.com/index.php?term=failure)*.
>
>
> | Fail has been used as a noun with a quite different meaning by Rev John Davidson,DD in his book 'Old Aberdeenshire Ministers and their people' 1895.
He describes a parish school built in a day with dry-stone walls topped with FAIL or divot and a roof of open rafters covered by thatch. |
9,657 | Does anyone know when and how *fail* became a noun? I'd love to see one of those charts that shows the date of origin and subsequent growth of this usage. | 2011/01/23 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/9657",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/1778/"
] | The recent uprise in incidences of non-verb *fail* is due to its being an internet meme, possibly from a Japanese video game with poor translation to English. [Know your meme](http://knowyourmeme.com/memes/fail). | The correct answer is....
The exact date when the explosion of FAILs noun usage began probably cant be pin pointed. But where and why is absolutely and unquestionably.......
The online game WORLD OF WARCRAFT.
And more specifically it applied to RAIDs in WOW. In a raid you gather 15 or 30 online players at a specific location in the game. You all then enter a special area where your group must conquer a series of Bosses to compete the raid. They were a pivotal part of the game.
Before a raid would start the most knowledgeable players in the RAID would assess the 15 or 30 man partys likelyhood of completing the entire raid. Many fators were considered.
After assessing the party's strength the leaders of the raid would declare whether or not
"This RAID party is a FAIL"
Meaning it is ununlikley the party is strong enough to complete the entire raid.
Exactly when or who started using FAIL in this fashion in WOW we'll never know. But i started playing WOW shortly after its release. I remember the first time I saw FAIL used in this fashion. I'm thinking it was right before; or shortly after, the release of the first expansion pack. I also remember how it went from being used periodically to becoming a staple word used in the game vernacular. From there it spread like Corona-virus to the rest of the planet.
The release date of the first expansion pack for World of Warcraft is Nov 13, 2008.
At the time it was the #1 online PC game with about 100 million players.
I've read about the Japanese Arcade game meme and do remember it. But I dont remember a focus on FAIL. the entire poor translation was the joke. And its popularity was short lived.
It was the forcing of FAIL into the massive WOW community's vocabulary that gave it the traction it needed. |
9,657 | Does anyone know when and how *fail* became a noun? I'd love to see one of those charts that shows the date of origin and subsequent growth of this usage. | 2011/01/23 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/9657",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/1778/"
] | [Online Etymology Dictionary](http://www.etymonline.com/index.php?term=fail) says:
>
> Fail:
>
>
> The noun (e.g. *without fail*) is from
> **late 13c.**, from O.Fr. *faile* "deficiency," from *falir*. The
> Anglo-French form of the verb,
> *failer*, came to be used as a noun, hence *[failure](http://www.etymonline.com/index.php?term=failure)*.
>
>
> | My answer focuses on the emergence not of "fail" as a noun but of the phrase "a fail" in the sense of "a failure."
The earliest instance I've found in a Google Books search is from testimony given by Stian Finne—"a clerk with a stock sales house"—in May 1927 in [Duncan v. Stoneham](https://books.google.com/books?id=ftnCrjyj9-0C&pg=PA476&dq=%22a+fail%22&hl=en&newbks=1&newbks_redir=0&sa=X&ved=2ahUKEwj6l7ful-DvAhWYvZ4KHfk7D6EQ6AEwAnoECAEQAg#v=onepage&q=%22a%20fail%22&f=false), a New York state court case, where the term appears repeatedly as a short form for "a failure to deliver" or "a failure to perform:
>
> **Q.** Now, you testified that Stoneham gave Clarke & Company a check on **a fail to deliver or fail to receive**, and you took that check. Was that a wrong transaction? **A.** No.
>
>
> ...
>
>
> **Q.** If the delivery is in odd lots, is to be in odd lots, that might give rise to **a fail**, might it not? **A.** Yes.
>
>
> ...
>
>
> **Q.** If you are to deliver stock to another broker and the broker from whom you are to receive that stock has not delivered to you yet, that would give rise to **a fail**, would it not? That is a cause for **a fail to deliver**, isn't it? **A.** I don't understand your mind there.
>
>
> ...
>
>
> **Q.** If certain securities are out in loan of that character, and they have not come in and in the meantime you are transferring an account to which they belong that could give rise to **a fail**, could it not? **A.** Yes, that might give rise to **a fail**.
>
>
>
So it appears that in 1920s stock brokerage slang in New York, "a fail" was an understood short form of "a failure to deliver or a failure to receive." This form of expression seems to have persisted in market talk, as we see from this example in New York Institute of Finance, [*Introduction to Brokerage Operations Department Procedures*](https://books.google.com/books?id=HL9EAAAAIAAJ&q=%22a+fail%22&dq=%22a+fail%22&hl=en&newbks=1&newbks_redir=0&sa=X&ved=2ahUKEwj3wd3xmuDvAhXYpJ4KHfsbC0U4WhDoATADegQIAxAC) (1979) [combined snippets]:
>
> Under the trade-for-trade and balance-order settlement, securities have to be delivered and paid for to satisfy the firm[']s obligations. If the firm is unable to deliver securities on settlement date, the procedure is referred to as **a Fail**. The selling firm has a "fail to deliver," the buying firm records a "fail to receive." When the selling firm delivers the security , the buying firm pays the money due, and both firms clean up these **fails**.
>
>
>
Still, a more likely direct source of "a fail" as it is used in everyday speech today is the field of education—specifically in connection with the idea of "a failing grade." An instance of "a fail" used in this sense appears in "[The Meaning of School Certification](https://books.google.com/books?id=uDMnAAAAMAAJ&q=%22accumulated+a+fail%22&dq=%22accumulated+a+fail%22&hl=en&newbks=1&newbks_redir=0&sa=X&ved=2ahUKEwjdx4K-rODvAhUNQ80KHRsDAZcQ6AEwAHoECAEQAg)," in *The [London] Journal of Education*, volume 64 (May 1932) [combined snippets]:
>
> He ["Omega"] also asserts that standardization is essential for correct results. One wonders to what extent previous consultation could be effective in such cases as those of the three candidates who are awarded, for their essay and précis, **a fail** and a distinction by different examiners, or of the twenty-five who are failed by one or more examiners and given a credit by others. Would "standardization" here mean splitting the difference, or would certain examiners have to abandon their convictions? And what of the candidate who accumulated **a fail**, a pass, a credit, three special credits, and a distinction for his essay and précis, or the two who obtained a pass, four credits, a special credit, and a distinction for their literature? Would a majority vote carry the day?
>
>
>
The use of "a fail" seems to have caught on in the United States and the UK across multiple fields in the late 1960s and early 1970s. Here are some examples.
From an [unidentified speech](https://books.google.com/books?newbks=1&newbks_redir=0&id=M7YM20BcUiIC&dq=%22a+fail%22+%22A+levels%22&focus=searchwithinvolume&q=%22is+a+fail+or+a+pass+.+If+he%22) in *Parliamentary Debates: Standing Committees: House of Commons* (1965) [combined snippets]:
>
> The strange thing is that universities accept the B grades as sacrosanct. They will not look at a pupil who has not got more than two. But there is no check on the figures of B grades. If someone is around 49 per cent., a pass-fail, then he is examined to see if he is **a fail** or a pass. If he is a B grade it is not checked, in any way; its accuracy is taken for granted; possibly the difference between 59 per cent. and 61 per cent.
>
>
>
From John Valentine "[GCE—a Comedy and Tragedy of Errors](https://books.google.com/books?id=K7VJAAAAYAAJ&q=%22is+a+fail%22&dq=%22is+a+fail%22&hl=en&newbks=1&newbks_redir=0&sa=X&ved=2ahUKEwiA28q3r-DvAhX1dc0KHcpxCAw4KBDoATAGegQICBAC)," in *New Education and Programmed Learning News* (February 1967) [combined snippets]:
>
> The illusion that a grade of C on an 'A' level examination is a C, is a C, is a C when it is probably a case of a B or a C or a D, is a cruel illusion for students, and a foolish illusion for the universities that make distinctions between grades of C and B. The comfortable assurance that a pass is a pass, **a fail** is **a fail**, and a Certificate therefore rests on some bedrock of rational justice, is a very grand illusion.
>
>
>
From an [unidentified article](https://books.google.com/books?id=Z2hTAAAAYAAJ&q=%22a+fail%22&dq=%22a+fail%22&hl=en&newbks=1&newbks_redir=0&sa=X&ved=2ahUKEwi_8ceSmuDvAhUCrZ4KHd9pDR04HhDoATAGegQICBAC) in School & Society, volume 96 (1968) [combined snippets]:
>
> Still another approach to the problem will be under way at Ball State University (Ind.), Louisiana Polytechnic Institute, and California State College at Hayward, among other schools. They will offer students certain courses under a pass-fail option, through which the student receives either a "pass" or **a "fail"** for the course instead of a specific grade.
>
>
>
From an [unidentified article](https://books.google.com/books?id=yYaFtUjng9sC&q=%22is+a+fail%22&dq=%22is+a+fail%22&hl=en&newbks=1&newbks_redir=0&sa=X&ved=2ahUKEwiG5syAreDvAhXSHc0KHbCiBP84HhDoATAEegQIBBAC) in *Milk Producer*, volumes 18–20 (1970[?]):
>
> The results of the composition and hygiene tests are entered on the laboratory record card, and a carbon copy slip of the card showing butterfat, solids-not-fat and total solids percentages and hygiene test result—"Pass" or "Fail" is sent to the producer each month. The producer is notified of the antibiotics test result only if it is **a "Fail"** and then on a special form MQ.243.
>
>
>
From an [unidentified paper](https://books.google.com/books?id=Sx1QcaqMWDUC&q=%22predicts+a+fail%22&dq=%22predicts+a+fail%22&hl=en&newbks=1&newbks_redir=0&sa=X&ved=2ahUKEwjPhezysuDvAhUYVc0KHbZKAtsQ6AEwAHoECAAQAg) in *Proceedings of the Institution of Electrical Engineers*, volume 119 (1972) [combined snippets]:
>
> As mentioned above, *n* is related to the boundary mechanisms and the form of the static characteristics. The previous analysis has assumed *n* = 1, but it is now instructive to examine the effect of a variation in *n* by choosing another typical value (*n* = 0) and displaying the new clear/fail curve on the same axes in Fig. 4. It is seen that the effect of the change in *n* is to move the the curve into the 'fail' region, and so the curve for *n* = 0 predicts a 'clear' for some conditions for which the curve for *n* = 1 predicts **a 'fail'**. A circuit breaker having boundary conditions giving *n* = O would be more successful than one having conditions giving *n* = 1, as would be expected as the losses in a collapsing arc will be higher in the former case.
>
>
>
From an [unidentified paper](https://books.google.com/books?id=iNxTAAAAMAAJ&q=%22a+fail%22&dq=%22a+fail%22&hl=en&newbks=1&newbks_redir=0&sa=X&ved=2ahUKEwjJgMXnt-DvAhVZGs0KHX1iBjA4eBDoATAAegQIBBAC) in *Society of Plastics Engineers Annual Technical Conference* (1974):
>
> The Falling Dart Impact, FDI, test is used to obtain information on the resistance to failure of polymers in a realistic simulation of end-user abuse. During this test a weighted hemispherically tipped dart is dropped onto a test piece clamped between a pair of steel rings. For each piece tested, the operator notes the weight of the dart and whether a piece ""failed" or "held". For this study **a fail** is considered to be a sample with an easily discernible crack. The intent of the operator is usually to determine the energy (height times weight) at which 50% of the samples fail. This energy level is called the mean break energy, MB.
>
>
>
---
***Conclusions***
Although "a fail" can be found in stock brokerage patois dating to the 1920s, the current widespread usage of the term most likely originated in 1960s usage of the term in the context of education—specifically, in the context of pass/fail grading. From there it seems to have passed fairly rapidly into other fields where grading is important, and then to general usage as a short form of "failure" or in the sense of someone or something that deserves to receive a failing grade. |
9,657 | Does anyone know when and how *fail* became a noun? I'd love to see one of those charts that shows the date of origin and subsequent growth of this usage. | 2011/01/23 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/9657",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/1778/"
] | "Fail" has existed as a noun and has been part of our lexicon [for a long time](http://www.etymonline.com/index.php?term=fail), such as in the phrase "without fail." However, it gained a new meaning in the recent years with the fail Internet meme, where it started as an interjection first, capable of standing on alone in a sentence.
In fact, the first entry for "fail" to arrive [on Urban Dictionary](http://www.urbandictionary.com/define.php?term=fail) described fail as "an interjection used when one disapproves of something, or a verb" and one of the two examples cited was:
>
> You actually bought that? FAIL.
>
>
>
If the "FAIL" above was a noun, that sentence would not be syntactically correct. Nouns cannot be used in that manner. It would be like saying:
>
> You positioned your lips to form an upward curve? SMILE.
>
>
>
We understand what is meant but it's not syntactically correct. No one with a good command of English would ever say such a sentence. A correct way to articulate the thought while keeping "smile" as a noun would be to say:
>
> You positioned your lips to form an upward curve? That's a smile.
>
>
>
Therefore, the fail in the Urban Dictionary example is an interjection.
It's only afterward, probably through misinterpretation of the meme, that it came to be used as a noun. When you look at an image with only "FAIL" written on it, it's impossible to tell whether fail is being used as a noun or an interjection:
From that point on, the meme evolved - as memes often do - and started to be used [as a noun](https://i.stack.imgur.com/btSNh.jpg), [as an adjective](https://i.stack.imgur.com/YYNQj.jpg), and [as a noun modified by as an adjective](https://i.stack.imgur.com/ZLRSr.jpg).
As for the origin of the meme itself, which I assume is your original question, the origin most often given (by [Know Your Meme](http://knowyourmeme.com/memes/fail), [Slate](http://www.slate.com/id/2202262/pagenum/all/), and [the New York Times](http://www.nytimes.com/2009/08/09/magazine/09FOB-onlanguage-t.html)) is that it comes from a poor Japanese-to-English translation of the game Blazing Star.
Ben Zimmer of the New York Time says:
>
> This punchy stand-alone fail most likely originated as a shortened form of “You fail” or, more fully, “You fail it,” the taunting “game over” message in the late-’90s Japanese video game Blazing Star, notorious for its fractured English.
>
>
>
For reference, here's Blazing Star's game over message:
 | Although "fail" has been used sparingly in the past as a noun (e.g. "without fail"), there is evidence that the word is creeping toward ordinary usage as a noun to replace the word "failure." I just read the following headline in Bloomberg Businessweek (6/6/11-6/12/11 issue): "How Stephen Elop is trying to lead Nokia past its epic fail." My first reaction was that perhaps the word is only used to draw attention in headlines, but that it would not breach the body of the article. Well, the word did appear once inside the piece.
"Fail" (as an ordinary noun) is coming into our campsite, ladies & gents. Hey, compared to "refudiate," it's a gem! |
9,657 | Does anyone know when and how *fail* became a noun? I'd love to see one of those charts that shows the date of origin and subsequent growth of this usage. | 2011/01/23 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/9657",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/1778/"
] | "Fail" has existed as a noun and has been part of our lexicon [for a long time](http://www.etymonline.com/index.php?term=fail), such as in the phrase "without fail." However, it gained a new meaning in the recent years with the fail Internet meme, where it started as an interjection first, capable of standing on alone in a sentence.
In fact, the first entry for "fail" to arrive [on Urban Dictionary](http://www.urbandictionary.com/define.php?term=fail) described fail as "an interjection used when one disapproves of something, or a verb" and one of the two examples cited was:
>
> You actually bought that? FAIL.
>
>
>
If the "FAIL" above was a noun, that sentence would not be syntactically correct. Nouns cannot be used in that manner. It would be like saying:
>
> You positioned your lips to form an upward curve? SMILE.
>
>
>
We understand what is meant but it's not syntactically correct. No one with a good command of English would ever say such a sentence. A correct way to articulate the thought while keeping "smile" as a noun would be to say:
>
> You positioned your lips to form an upward curve? That's a smile.
>
>
>
Therefore, the fail in the Urban Dictionary example is an interjection.
It's only afterward, probably through misinterpretation of the meme, that it came to be used as a noun. When you look at an image with only "FAIL" written on it, it's impossible to tell whether fail is being used as a noun or an interjection:
From that point on, the meme evolved - as memes often do - and started to be used [as a noun](https://i.stack.imgur.com/btSNh.jpg), [as an adjective](https://i.stack.imgur.com/YYNQj.jpg), and [as a noun modified by as an adjective](https://i.stack.imgur.com/ZLRSr.jpg).
As for the origin of the meme itself, which I assume is your original question, the origin most often given (by [Know Your Meme](http://knowyourmeme.com/memes/fail), [Slate](http://www.slate.com/id/2202262/pagenum/all/), and [the New York Times](http://www.nytimes.com/2009/08/09/magazine/09FOB-onlanguage-t.html)) is that it comes from a poor Japanese-to-English translation of the game Blazing Star.
Ben Zimmer of the New York Time says:
>
> This punchy stand-alone fail most likely originated as a shortened form of “You fail” or, more fully, “You fail it,” the taunting “game over” message in the late-’90s Japanese video game Blazing Star, notorious for its fractured English.
>
>
>
For reference, here's Blazing Star's game over message:
 | My answer focuses on the emergence not of "fail" as a noun but of the phrase "a fail" in the sense of "a failure."
The earliest instance I've found in a Google Books search is from testimony given by Stian Finne—"a clerk with a stock sales house"—in May 1927 in [Duncan v. Stoneham](https://books.google.com/books?id=ftnCrjyj9-0C&pg=PA476&dq=%22a+fail%22&hl=en&newbks=1&newbks_redir=0&sa=X&ved=2ahUKEwj6l7ful-DvAhWYvZ4KHfk7D6EQ6AEwAnoECAEQAg#v=onepage&q=%22a%20fail%22&f=false), a New York state court case, where the term appears repeatedly as a short form for "a failure to deliver" or "a failure to perform:
>
> **Q.** Now, you testified that Stoneham gave Clarke & Company a check on **a fail to deliver or fail to receive**, and you took that check. Was that a wrong transaction? **A.** No.
>
>
> ...
>
>
> **Q.** If the delivery is in odd lots, is to be in odd lots, that might give rise to **a fail**, might it not? **A.** Yes.
>
>
> ...
>
>
> **Q.** If you are to deliver stock to another broker and the broker from whom you are to receive that stock has not delivered to you yet, that would give rise to **a fail**, would it not? That is a cause for **a fail to deliver**, isn't it? **A.** I don't understand your mind there.
>
>
> ...
>
>
> **Q.** If certain securities are out in loan of that character, and they have not come in and in the meantime you are transferring an account to which they belong that could give rise to **a fail**, could it not? **A.** Yes, that might give rise to **a fail**.
>
>
>
So it appears that in 1920s stock brokerage slang in New York, "a fail" was an understood short form of "a failure to deliver or a failure to receive." This form of expression seems to have persisted in market talk, as we see from this example in New York Institute of Finance, [*Introduction to Brokerage Operations Department Procedures*](https://books.google.com/books?id=HL9EAAAAIAAJ&q=%22a+fail%22&dq=%22a+fail%22&hl=en&newbks=1&newbks_redir=0&sa=X&ved=2ahUKEwj3wd3xmuDvAhXYpJ4KHfsbC0U4WhDoATADegQIAxAC) (1979) [combined snippets]:
>
> Under the trade-for-trade and balance-order settlement, securities have to be delivered and paid for to satisfy the firm[']s obligations. If the firm is unable to deliver securities on settlement date, the procedure is referred to as **a Fail**. The selling firm has a "fail to deliver," the buying firm records a "fail to receive." When the selling firm delivers the security , the buying firm pays the money due, and both firms clean up these **fails**.
>
>
>
Still, a more likely direct source of "a fail" as it is used in everyday speech today is the field of education—specifically in connection with the idea of "a failing grade." An instance of "a fail" used in this sense appears in "[The Meaning of School Certification](https://books.google.com/books?id=uDMnAAAAMAAJ&q=%22accumulated+a+fail%22&dq=%22accumulated+a+fail%22&hl=en&newbks=1&newbks_redir=0&sa=X&ved=2ahUKEwjdx4K-rODvAhUNQ80KHRsDAZcQ6AEwAHoECAEQAg)," in *The [London] Journal of Education*, volume 64 (May 1932) [combined snippets]:
>
> He ["Omega"] also asserts that standardization is essential for correct results. One wonders to what extent previous consultation could be effective in such cases as those of the three candidates who are awarded, for their essay and précis, **a fail** and a distinction by different examiners, or of the twenty-five who are failed by one or more examiners and given a credit by others. Would "standardization" here mean splitting the difference, or would certain examiners have to abandon their convictions? And what of the candidate who accumulated **a fail**, a pass, a credit, three special credits, and a distinction for his essay and précis, or the two who obtained a pass, four credits, a special credit, and a distinction for their literature? Would a majority vote carry the day?
>
>
>
The use of "a fail" seems to have caught on in the United States and the UK across multiple fields in the late 1960s and early 1970s. Here are some examples.
From an [unidentified speech](https://books.google.com/books?newbks=1&newbks_redir=0&id=M7YM20BcUiIC&dq=%22a+fail%22+%22A+levels%22&focus=searchwithinvolume&q=%22is+a+fail+or+a+pass+.+If+he%22) in *Parliamentary Debates: Standing Committees: House of Commons* (1965) [combined snippets]:
>
> The strange thing is that universities accept the B grades as sacrosanct. They will not look at a pupil who has not got more than two. But there is no check on the figures of B grades. If someone is around 49 per cent., a pass-fail, then he is examined to see if he is **a fail** or a pass. If he is a B grade it is not checked, in any way; its accuracy is taken for granted; possibly the difference between 59 per cent. and 61 per cent.
>
>
>
From John Valentine "[GCE—a Comedy and Tragedy of Errors](https://books.google.com/books?id=K7VJAAAAYAAJ&q=%22is+a+fail%22&dq=%22is+a+fail%22&hl=en&newbks=1&newbks_redir=0&sa=X&ved=2ahUKEwiA28q3r-DvAhX1dc0KHcpxCAw4KBDoATAGegQICBAC)," in *New Education and Programmed Learning News* (February 1967) [combined snippets]:
>
> The illusion that a grade of C on an 'A' level examination is a C, is a C, is a C when it is probably a case of a B or a C or a D, is a cruel illusion for students, and a foolish illusion for the universities that make distinctions between grades of C and B. The comfortable assurance that a pass is a pass, **a fail** is **a fail**, and a Certificate therefore rests on some bedrock of rational justice, is a very grand illusion.
>
>
>
From an [unidentified article](https://books.google.com/books?id=Z2hTAAAAYAAJ&q=%22a+fail%22&dq=%22a+fail%22&hl=en&newbks=1&newbks_redir=0&sa=X&ved=2ahUKEwi_8ceSmuDvAhUCrZ4KHd9pDR04HhDoATAGegQICBAC) in School & Society, volume 96 (1968) [combined snippets]:
>
> Still another approach to the problem will be under way at Ball State University (Ind.), Louisiana Polytechnic Institute, and California State College at Hayward, among other schools. They will offer students certain courses under a pass-fail option, through which the student receives either a "pass" or **a "fail"** for the course instead of a specific grade.
>
>
>
From an [unidentified article](https://books.google.com/books?id=yYaFtUjng9sC&q=%22is+a+fail%22&dq=%22is+a+fail%22&hl=en&newbks=1&newbks_redir=0&sa=X&ved=2ahUKEwiG5syAreDvAhXSHc0KHbCiBP84HhDoATAEegQIBBAC) in *Milk Producer*, volumes 18–20 (1970[?]):
>
> The results of the composition and hygiene tests are entered on the laboratory record card, and a carbon copy slip of the card showing butterfat, solids-not-fat and total solids percentages and hygiene test result—"Pass" or "Fail" is sent to the producer each month. The producer is notified of the antibiotics test result only if it is **a "Fail"** and then on a special form MQ.243.
>
>
>
From an [unidentified paper](https://books.google.com/books?id=Sx1QcaqMWDUC&q=%22predicts+a+fail%22&dq=%22predicts+a+fail%22&hl=en&newbks=1&newbks_redir=0&sa=X&ved=2ahUKEwjPhezysuDvAhUYVc0KHbZKAtsQ6AEwAHoECAAQAg) in *Proceedings of the Institution of Electrical Engineers*, volume 119 (1972) [combined snippets]:
>
> As mentioned above, *n* is related to the boundary mechanisms and the form of the static characteristics. The previous analysis has assumed *n* = 1, but it is now instructive to examine the effect of a variation in *n* by choosing another typical value (*n* = 0) and displaying the new clear/fail curve on the same axes in Fig. 4. It is seen that the effect of the change in *n* is to move the the curve into the 'fail' region, and so the curve for *n* = 0 predicts a 'clear' for some conditions for which the curve for *n* = 1 predicts **a 'fail'**. A circuit breaker having boundary conditions giving *n* = O would be more successful than one having conditions giving *n* = 1, as would be expected as the losses in a collapsing arc will be higher in the former case.
>
>
>
From an [unidentified paper](https://books.google.com/books?id=iNxTAAAAMAAJ&q=%22a+fail%22&dq=%22a+fail%22&hl=en&newbks=1&newbks_redir=0&sa=X&ved=2ahUKEwjJgMXnt-DvAhVZGs0KHX1iBjA4eBDoATAAegQIBBAC) in *Society of Plastics Engineers Annual Technical Conference* (1974):
>
> The Falling Dart Impact, FDI, test is used to obtain information on the resistance to failure of polymers in a realistic simulation of end-user abuse. During this test a weighted hemispherically tipped dart is dropped onto a test piece clamped between a pair of steel rings. For each piece tested, the operator notes the weight of the dart and whether a piece ""failed" or "held". For this study **a fail** is considered to be a sample with an easily discernible crack. The intent of the operator is usually to determine the energy (height times weight) at which 50% of the samples fail. This energy level is called the mean break energy, MB.
>
>
>
---
***Conclusions***
Although "a fail" can be found in stock brokerage patois dating to the 1920s, the current widespread usage of the term most likely originated in 1960s usage of the term in the context of education—specifically, in the context of pass/fail grading. From there it seems to have passed fairly rapidly into other fields where grading is important, and then to general usage as a short form of "failure" or in the sense of someone or something that deserves to receive a failing grade. |
9,657 | Does anyone know when and how *fail* became a noun? I'd love to see one of those charts that shows the date of origin and subsequent growth of this usage. | 2011/01/23 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/9657",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/1778/"
] | [Online Etymology Dictionary](http://www.etymonline.com/index.php?term=fail) says:
>
> Fail:
>
>
> The noun (e.g. *without fail*) is from
> **late 13c.**, from O.Fr. *faile* "deficiency," from *falir*. The
> Anglo-French form of the verb,
> *failer*, came to be used as a noun, hence *[failure](http://www.etymonline.com/index.php?term=failure)*.
>
>
> | The correct answer is....
The exact date when the explosion of FAILs noun usage began probably cant be pin pointed. But where and why is absolutely and unquestionably.......
The online game WORLD OF WARCRAFT.
And more specifically it applied to RAIDs in WOW. In a raid you gather 15 or 30 online players at a specific location in the game. You all then enter a special area where your group must conquer a series of Bosses to compete the raid. They were a pivotal part of the game.
Before a raid would start the most knowledgeable players in the RAID would assess the 15 or 30 man partys likelyhood of completing the entire raid. Many fators were considered.
After assessing the party's strength the leaders of the raid would declare whether or not
"This RAID party is a FAIL"
Meaning it is ununlikley the party is strong enough to complete the entire raid.
Exactly when or who started using FAIL in this fashion in WOW we'll never know. But i started playing WOW shortly after its release. I remember the first time I saw FAIL used in this fashion. I'm thinking it was right before; or shortly after, the release of the first expansion pack. I also remember how it went from being used periodically to becoming a staple word used in the game vernacular. From there it spread like Corona-virus to the rest of the planet.
The release date of the first expansion pack for World of Warcraft is Nov 13, 2008.
At the time it was the #1 online PC game with about 100 million players.
I've read about the Japanese Arcade game meme and do remember it. But I dont remember a focus on FAIL. the entire poor translation was the joke. And its popularity was short lived.
It was the forcing of FAIL into the massive WOW community's vocabulary that gave it the traction it needed. |
9,657 | Does anyone know when and how *fail* became a noun? I'd love to see one of those charts that shows the date of origin and subsequent growth of this usage. | 2011/01/23 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/9657",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/1778/"
] | "Fail" has existed as a noun and has been part of our lexicon [for a long time](http://www.etymonline.com/index.php?term=fail), such as in the phrase "without fail." However, it gained a new meaning in the recent years with the fail Internet meme, where it started as an interjection first, capable of standing on alone in a sentence.
In fact, the first entry for "fail" to arrive [on Urban Dictionary](http://www.urbandictionary.com/define.php?term=fail) described fail as "an interjection used when one disapproves of something, or a verb" and one of the two examples cited was:
>
> You actually bought that? FAIL.
>
>
>
If the "FAIL" above was a noun, that sentence would not be syntactically correct. Nouns cannot be used in that manner. It would be like saying:
>
> You positioned your lips to form an upward curve? SMILE.
>
>
>
We understand what is meant but it's not syntactically correct. No one with a good command of English would ever say such a sentence. A correct way to articulate the thought while keeping "smile" as a noun would be to say:
>
> You positioned your lips to form an upward curve? That's a smile.
>
>
>
Therefore, the fail in the Urban Dictionary example is an interjection.
It's only afterward, probably through misinterpretation of the meme, that it came to be used as a noun. When you look at an image with only "FAIL" written on it, it's impossible to tell whether fail is being used as a noun or an interjection:
From that point on, the meme evolved - as memes often do - and started to be used [as a noun](https://i.stack.imgur.com/btSNh.jpg), [as an adjective](https://i.stack.imgur.com/YYNQj.jpg), and [as a noun modified by as an adjective](https://i.stack.imgur.com/ZLRSr.jpg).
As for the origin of the meme itself, which I assume is your original question, the origin most often given (by [Know Your Meme](http://knowyourmeme.com/memes/fail), [Slate](http://www.slate.com/id/2202262/pagenum/all/), and [the New York Times](http://www.nytimes.com/2009/08/09/magazine/09FOB-onlanguage-t.html)) is that it comes from a poor Japanese-to-English translation of the game Blazing Star.
Ben Zimmer of the New York Time says:
>
> This punchy stand-alone fail most likely originated as a shortened form of “You fail” or, more fully, “You fail it,” the taunting “game over” message in the late-’90s Japanese video game Blazing Star, notorious for its fractured English.
>
>
>
For reference, here's Blazing Star's game over message:
 | The recent uprise in incidences of non-verb *fail* is due to its being an internet meme, possibly from a Japanese video game with poor translation to English. [Know your meme](http://knowyourmeme.com/memes/fail). |
9,657 | Does anyone know when and how *fail* became a noun? I'd love to see one of those charts that shows the date of origin and subsequent growth of this usage. | 2011/01/23 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/9657",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/1778/"
] | Fail has been used as a noun with a quite different meaning by Rev John Davidson,DD in his book 'Old Aberdeenshire Ministers and their people' 1895.
He describes a parish school built in a day with dry-stone walls topped with FAIL or divot and a roof of open rafters covered by thatch. | The correct answer is....
The exact date when the explosion of FAILs noun usage began probably cant be pin pointed. But where and why is absolutely and unquestionably.......
The online game WORLD OF WARCRAFT.
And more specifically it applied to RAIDs in WOW. In a raid you gather 15 or 30 online players at a specific location in the game. You all then enter a special area where your group must conquer a series of Bosses to compete the raid. They were a pivotal part of the game.
Before a raid would start the most knowledgeable players in the RAID would assess the 15 or 30 man partys likelyhood of completing the entire raid. Many fators were considered.
After assessing the party's strength the leaders of the raid would declare whether or not
"This RAID party is a FAIL"
Meaning it is ununlikley the party is strong enough to complete the entire raid.
Exactly when or who started using FAIL in this fashion in WOW we'll never know. But i started playing WOW shortly after its release. I remember the first time I saw FAIL used in this fashion. I'm thinking it was right before; or shortly after, the release of the first expansion pack. I also remember how it went from being used periodically to becoming a staple word used in the game vernacular. From there it spread like Corona-virus to the rest of the planet.
The release date of the first expansion pack for World of Warcraft is Nov 13, 2008.
At the time it was the #1 online PC game with about 100 million players.
I've read about the Japanese Arcade game meme and do remember it. But I dont remember a focus on FAIL. the entire poor translation was the joke. And its popularity was short lived.
It was the forcing of FAIL into the massive WOW community's vocabulary that gave it the traction it needed. |
9,657 | Does anyone know when and how *fail* became a noun? I'd love to see one of those charts that shows the date of origin and subsequent growth of this usage. | 2011/01/23 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/9657",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/1778/"
] | Although "fail" has been used sparingly in the past as a noun (e.g. "without fail"), there is evidence that the word is creeping toward ordinary usage as a noun to replace the word "failure." I just read the following headline in Bloomberg Businessweek (6/6/11-6/12/11 issue): "How Stephen Elop is trying to lead Nokia past its epic fail." My first reaction was that perhaps the word is only used to draw attention in headlines, but that it would not breach the body of the article. Well, the word did appear once inside the piece.
"Fail" (as an ordinary noun) is coming into our campsite, ladies & gents. Hey, compared to "refudiate," it's a gem! | My answer focuses on the emergence not of "fail" as a noun but of the phrase "a fail" in the sense of "a failure."
The earliest instance I've found in a Google Books search is from testimony given by Stian Finne—"a clerk with a stock sales house"—in May 1927 in [Duncan v. Stoneham](https://books.google.com/books?id=ftnCrjyj9-0C&pg=PA476&dq=%22a+fail%22&hl=en&newbks=1&newbks_redir=0&sa=X&ved=2ahUKEwj6l7ful-DvAhWYvZ4KHfk7D6EQ6AEwAnoECAEQAg#v=onepage&q=%22a%20fail%22&f=false), a New York state court case, where the term appears repeatedly as a short form for "a failure to deliver" or "a failure to perform:
>
> **Q.** Now, you testified that Stoneham gave Clarke & Company a check on **a fail to deliver or fail to receive**, and you took that check. Was that a wrong transaction? **A.** No.
>
>
> ...
>
>
> **Q.** If the delivery is in odd lots, is to be in odd lots, that might give rise to **a fail**, might it not? **A.** Yes.
>
>
> ...
>
>
> **Q.** If you are to deliver stock to another broker and the broker from whom you are to receive that stock has not delivered to you yet, that would give rise to **a fail**, would it not? That is a cause for **a fail to deliver**, isn't it? **A.** I don't understand your mind there.
>
>
> ...
>
>
> **Q.** If certain securities are out in loan of that character, and they have not come in and in the meantime you are transferring an account to which they belong that could give rise to **a fail**, could it not? **A.** Yes, that might give rise to **a fail**.
>
>
>
So it appears that in 1920s stock brokerage slang in New York, "a fail" was an understood short form of "a failure to deliver or a failure to receive." This form of expression seems to have persisted in market talk, as we see from this example in New York Institute of Finance, [*Introduction to Brokerage Operations Department Procedures*](https://books.google.com/books?id=HL9EAAAAIAAJ&q=%22a+fail%22&dq=%22a+fail%22&hl=en&newbks=1&newbks_redir=0&sa=X&ved=2ahUKEwj3wd3xmuDvAhXYpJ4KHfsbC0U4WhDoATADegQIAxAC) (1979) [combined snippets]:
>
> Under the trade-for-trade and balance-order settlement, securities have to be delivered and paid for to satisfy the firm[']s obligations. If the firm is unable to deliver securities on settlement date, the procedure is referred to as **a Fail**. The selling firm has a "fail to deliver," the buying firm records a "fail to receive." When the selling firm delivers the security , the buying firm pays the money due, and both firms clean up these **fails**.
>
>
>
Still, a more likely direct source of "a fail" as it is used in everyday speech today is the field of education—specifically in connection with the idea of "a failing grade." An instance of "a fail" used in this sense appears in "[The Meaning of School Certification](https://books.google.com/books?id=uDMnAAAAMAAJ&q=%22accumulated+a+fail%22&dq=%22accumulated+a+fail%22&hl=en&newbks=1&newbks_redir=0&sa=X&ved=2ahUKEwjdx4K-rODvAhUNQ80KHRsDAZcQ6AEwAHoECAEQAg)," in *The [London] Journal of Education*, volume 64 (May 1932) [combined snippets]:
>
> He ["Omega"] also asserts that standardization is essential for correct results. One wonders to what extent previous consultation could be effective in such cases as those of the three candidates who are awarded, for their essay and précis, **a fail** and a distinction by different examiners, or of the twenty-five who are failed by one or more examiners and given a credit by others. Would "standardization" here mean splitting the difference, or would certain examiners have to abandon their convictions? And what of the candidate who accumulated **a fail**, a pass, a credit, three special credits, and a distinction for his essay and précis, or the two who obtained a pass, four credits, a special credit, and a distinction for their literature? Would a majority vote carry the day?
>
>
>
The use of "a fail" seems to have caught on in the United States and the UK across multiple fields in the late 1960s and early 1970s. Here are some examples.
From an [unidentified speech](https://books.google.com/books?newbks=1&newbks_redir=0&id=M7YM20BcUiIC&dq=%22a+fail%22+%22A+levels%22&focus=searchwithinvolume&q=%22is+a+fail+or+a+pass+.+If+he%22) in *Parliamentary Debates: Standing Committees: House of Commons* (1965) [combined snippets]:
>
> The strange thing is that universities accept the B grades as sacrosanct. They will not look at a pupil who has not got more than two. But there is no check on the figures of B grades. If someone is around 49 per cent., a pass-fail, then he is examined to see if he is **a fail** or a pass. If he is a B grade it is not checked, in any way; its accuracy is taken for granted; possibly the difference between 59 per cent. and 61 per cent.
>
>
>
From John Valentine "[GCE—a Comedy and Tragedy of Errors](https://books.google.com/books?id=K7VJAAAAYAAJ&q=%22is+a+fail%22&dq=%22is+a+fail%22&hl=en&newbks=1&newbks_redir=0&sa=X&ved=2ahUKEwiA28q3r-DvAhX1dc0KHcpxCAw4KBDoATAGegQICBAC)," in *New Education and Programmed Learning News* (February 1967) [combined snippets]:
>
> The illusion that a grade of C on an 'A' level examination is a C, is a C, is a C when it is probably a case of a B or a C or a D, is a cruel illusion for students, and a foolish illusion for the universities that make distinctions between grades of C and B. The comfortable assurance that a pass is a pass, **a fail** is **a fail**, and a Certificate therefore rests on some bedrock of rational justice, is a very grand illusion.
>
>
>
From an [unidentified article](https://books.google.com/books?id=Z2hTAAAAYAAJ&q=%22a+fail%22&dq=%22a+fail%22&hl=en&newbks=1&newbks_redir=0&sa=X&ved=2ahUKEwi_8ceSmuDvAhUCrZ4KHd9pDR04HhDoATAGegQICBAC) in School & Society, volume 96 (1968) [combined snippets]:
>
> Still another approach to the problem will be under way at Ball State University (Ind.), Louisiana Polytechnic Institute, and California State College at Hayward, among other schools. They will offer students certain courses under a pass-fail option, through which the student receives either a "pass" or **a "fail"** for the course instead of a specific grade.
>
>
>
From an [unidentified article](https://books.google.com/books?id=yYaFtUjng9sC&q=%22is+a+fail%22&dq=%22is+a+fail%22&hl=en&newbks=1&newbks_redir=0&sa=X&ved=2ahUKEwiG5syAreDvAhXSHc0KHbCiBP84HhDoATAEegQIBBAC) in *Milk Producer*, volumes 18–20 (1970[?]):
>
> The results of the composition and hygiene tests are entered on the laboratory record card, and a carbon copy slip of the card showing butterfat, solids-not-fat and total solids percentages and hygiene test result—"Pass" or "Fail" is sent to the producer each month. The producer is notified of the antibiotics test result only if it is **a "Fail"** and then on a special form MQ.243.
>
>
>
From an [unidentified paper](https://books.google.com/books?id=Sx1QcaqMWDUC&q=%22predicts+a+fail%22&dq=%22predicts+a+fail%22&hl=en&newbks=1&newbks_redir=0&sa=X&ved=2ahUKEwjPhezysuDvAhUYVc0KHbZKAtsQ6AEwAHoECAAQAg) in *Proceedings of the Institution of Electrical Engineers*, volume 119 (1972) [combined snippets]:
>
> As mentioned above, *n* is related to the boundary mechanisms and the form of the static characteristics. The previous analysis has assumed *n* = 1, but it is now instructive to examine the effect of a variation in *n* by choosing another typical value (*n* = 0) and displaying the new clear/fail curve on the same axes in Fig. 4. It is seen that the effect of the change in *n* is to move the the curve into the 'fail' region, and so the curve for *n* = 0 predicts a 'clear' for some conditions for which the curve for *n* = 1 predicts **a 'fail'**. A circuit breaker having boundary conditions giving *n* = O would be more successful than one having conditions giving *n* = 1, as would be expected as the losses in a collapsing arc will be higher in the former case.
>
>
>
From an [unidentified paper](https://books.google.com/books?id=iNxTAAAAMAAJ&q=%22a+fail%22&dq=%22a+fail%22&hl=en&newbks=1&newbks_redir=0&sa=X&ved=2ahUKEwjJgMXnt-DvAhVZGs0KHX1iBjA4eBDoATAAegQIBBAC) in *Society of Plastics Engineers Annual Technical Conference* (1974):
>
> The Falling Dart Impact, FDI, test is used to obtain information on the resistance to failure of polymers in a realistic simulation of end-user abuse. During this test a weighted hemispherically tipped dart is dropped onto a test piece clamped between a pair of steel rings. For each piece tested, the operator notes the weight of the dart and whether a piece ""failed" or "held". For this study **a fail** is considered to be a sample with an easily discernible crack. The intent of the operator is usually to determine the energy (height times weight) at which 50% of the samples fail. This energy level is called the mean break energy, MB.
>
>
>
---
***Conclusions***
Although "a fail" can be found in stock brokerage patois dating to the 1920s, the current widespread usage of the term most likely originated in 1960s usage of the term in the context of education—specifically, in the context of pass/fail grading. From there it seems to have passed fairly rapidly into other fields where grading is important, and then to general usage as a short form of "failure" or in the sense of someone or something that deserves to receive a failing grade. |
9,657 | Does anyone know when and how *fail* became a noun? I'd love to see one of those charts that shows the date of origin and subsequent growth of this usage. | 2011/01/23 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/9657",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/1778/"
] | Although "fail" has been used sparingly in the past as a noun (e.g. "without fail"), there is evidence that the word is creeping toward ordinary usage as a noun to replace the word "failure." I just read the following headline in Bloomberg Businessweek (6/6/11-6/12/11 issue): "How Stephen Elop is trying to lead Nokia past its epic fail." My first reaction was that perhaps the word is only used to draw attention in headlines, but that it would not breach the body of the article. Well, the word did appear once inside the piece.
"Fail" (as an ordinary noun) is coming into our campsite, ladies & gents. Hey, compared to "refudiate," it's a gem! | The correct answer is....
The exact date when the explosion of FAILs noun usage began probably cant be pin pointed. But where and why is absolutely and unquestionably.......
The online game WORLD OF WARCRAFT.
And more specifically it applied to RAIDs in WOW. In a raid you gather 15 or 30 online players at a specific location in the game. You all then enter a special area where your group must conquer a series of Bosses to compete the raid. They were a pivotal part of the game.
Before a raid would start the most knowledgeable players in the RAID would assess the 15 or 30 man partys likelyhood of completing the entire raid. Many fators were considered.
After assessing the party's strength the leaders of the raid would declare whether or not
"This RAID party is a FAIL"
Meaning it is ununlikley the party is strong enough to complete the entire raid.
Exactly when or who started using FAIL in this fashion in WOW we'll never know. But i started playing WOW shortly after its release. I remember the first time I saw FAIL used in this fashion. I'm thinking it was right before; or shortly after, the release of the first expansion pack. I also remember how it went from being used periodically to becoming a staple word used in the game vernacular. From there it spread like Corona-virus to the rest of the planet.
The release date of the first expansion pack for World of Warcraft is Nov 13, 2008.
At the time it was the #1 online PC game with about 100 million players.
I've read about the Japanese Arcade game meme and do remember it. But I dont remember a focus on FAIL. the entire poor translation was the joke. And its popularity was short lived.
It was the forcing of FAIL into the massive WOW community's vocabulary that gave it the traction it needed. |
26,438 | In the *Breaking Bad* episode "Breakage" (S02E05) one of *Jesse*'s dealers gets robbed by some junkies. When *Walt* comes to know this, he gives *Jesse* a gun and urges him to *"handle it"* in order for them not to lose their respect on the streets (which then leads to *Jesse*'s unpleasant experiences with a junkie family and an ATM). But at the beginning of "Negro y Azul" (S02E07) *Walt* suddenly changes his mind and after not having reached *Jesse* for quite some time just leaves him a message saying
>
> Oh and by the way, that thing we talked about, when I said "handle it". Well, don't, just let it go.
>
>
>
But **why did he suddenly change his mind about this matter?** Was he simply feeling a bit of remorse, not being the hardened gangster yet (though, he was quite determined when he persuaded *Jesse* to handle it), or is there more to it? Or does it have something to do with the stupid-ass student he justed talked to right before making this call (maybe he didn't have confidence in *Jesse* anymore and thought he'd screw it up)? | 2014/10/20 | [
"https://movies.stackexchange.com/questions/26438",
"https://movies.stackexchange.com",
"https://movies.stackexchange.com/users/49/"
] | My Personal Interpretation:
**Walt cares for Jesse**
Walt cares for Jesse, I mean, in the previous episodes when Tuco beats Jesse badly, Walt gets so worked up and goes to Tuco with full rage and destroys the place and gets the money (may be he wouldn't have gone to a place full of gangsters if it's just for the money especially a guy who cares about his family so much) and another time when Tuco was trying to Kill Jesse on the couch in an isolated house with Don Salamanca, Walt tries real hard to convince Tuco that he needs Jesse. In the further episodes, especially in "ABQ" S02E13 you'll understand that Walt stays with Jesse in tough times and acts as a fatherly figure.
**Walt needs Jesse**
Walt wants to make more money and the only key for it is Jesse, he's a drug dealer and he can make money for Walt by selling Meth and he is the only guy Walt trusts.
May be because of the above reasons, Walt doesn't want Jesse to be hurt and I think Walt was genuinely concerned about Jesse while saying
>
> Oh and by the way, that thing we talked about, when I said "handle it". Well, don't, just let it go.
>
>
>
because he thinks Jesse might get hurt. | Walt is aware of the possibility that Jesse decides to disobey him, given what he already knows about Jesse's personality and their complex relationship.
Therefore, when Walt pulls out his order, he is using what is called "reverse psychology". He really aims to get Jesse to do it. |
24,070 | 1. e4 e5 2. Nf3 Nc6 3. Bc4 Nf6 4. Ng5 Bc5 5. Nxf7 Bxf2+ 6. Kf1 Qe7
1) Chess.com computer at Level 10 plays 5. Nxf7. Theory recommends 5. Bxf7. Which line to follow in my game in tournaments? Please advice as I am confused now.
2) After analyzing the game with computer of chess.com it suggests 4. ... Bc5 as Blunder. The best move suggested by it is 4. ... d5. Again confused as I know that this theory is Traxler Counter Attack and another is going for main line of Two Knights Defense. Kindly give your valuable suggestion. I played this game just now with play computer option of chess.com without login but as a guest. Waiting for your valuable answers. Thanks in advance | 2019/03/30 | [
"https://chess.stackexchange.com/questions/24070",
"https://chess.stackexchange.com",
"https://chess.stackexchange.com/users/11904/"
] | Bxf7+ is definitely the way to go in practice in my opinion. I have done quite a lot of analysis with stockfish on Nxf7 and am not at all sure it is better for white despite the computer evaluation early on.
Bxf7+ almost certainly is a lot better for white and is a lot simpler to learn which is important for a repertoire choice against an unusual line (most people won't have the guts to play Traxler!) | As previously suggested by Hamish, Bxf7 instead of Nxf7 is a safe way for white to gain an edge, though Nxf7 is unsound anyways.
In my opinion, if you want a swashbuckling defense against the fried liver,
e4 e5 Nf3 Nc6 Bc4 Nf6 Ng5 **Nxe4!?**
This move is much less known than traxler counter gambit and full of tricks. For example, if
Nxf7, black is equal, if not better(Nxf7 wins for white in the traxler (see Saglione vs Moreno carretero or any chess engine)).
Nxf7 Qh4 O-O(best move is Qe2, very difficult to find because it invites Nd4) Bc5 (black is already winning) Nxh8 Nxf2 .... and that's just one of the lines.
But both of these lines are UNSOUND to Bxf7, so really you should play d5.
e4 e5 Nf3 Nc6 Bc4 Nf6 Ng5 d5 exd5 Na5 Bb5+ c6 and I'll let you investigate yourself, but this line is the reason why strong players seldom play Ng5. |
684,890 | So I got the mathematical aspects down of what it means for a vector field to not be conservative, but I'm trying to make sense of the physical intuition. Why are so many vector fields found in nature conservative? What can be said about vector fields found in nature that are not conservative, for example, an induced electric field ([Conservative nature of electric field](https://physics.stackexchange.com/questions/612484/conservative-nature-of-electric-field)). This is a pretty open ended question. Thanks! | 2021/12/23 | [
"https://physics.stackexchange.com/questions/684890",
"https://physics.stackexchange.com",
"https://physics.stackexchange.com/users/323589/"
] | A vector fields is conservative if it is the gradient of a scalar field. In static cases we can use the the scalar Coulomb and the Newton potentials. The force fields are then conservative. In the more general case they are not. The Coulomb and 'magnetic' vector potential form a Lorentz vector. For gravity you have to use General Relativity, which I guess does not lead to a conservative force either. | Your description gives the impression that most of the fields in nature are conservative which is not true and quite the opposite in classical applications and open systems. Force fields and systems where for example friction or drag is found are not overall conservative. Many confuse the law of conservation of energy with these two definitions which is irrelevant.
In general a force field in a system that does not produce any work that consumes energy which is expelled out of the system (i.e. energy transformed from one form to the other for example electric power to heat leaving the system) is considered a conservative acting field. Other characteristics of conservative fields are that the overall work done in a closed loop path is path independent which is another way to say that the overall energy consumption, work done in the system by the field is zero. For example a gravitational field without air all the potential energy is transformed to kinetic and back, independent of the path trajectory chosen going from point A to point B and back to point A again inside the field. Therefore, no work is done that consumes energy thus no energy leaves the system and therefore a gravitational field is a conservative field. However, the situation in the system totally changes when you add air drag and friction where work done consumes energy in the form of heat expelled out of the system.
Another helpful characteristic-criterion of a conservative field is that the field force in most cases acts along to the motion vector whereas in an non-conservative field the force is in many cases perpendicular to the motion vector. But these are not general rules and there are exceptions like for example, friction which is not perpendicular to the motion of an object but still is a non-conservative force.
So in the case of an electric charge moving linearly inside a magneto-static field the electromagnetic Lorentz force is always perpendicular to the linear charge motion and therefore we say that the interacting magnetic field does zero work on the linear direction of the charge's motion however the charge will now move on a spiral trajectory changing therefore its linear velocity therefore the magnetic field in this case is non-conservative since it reduces the energy of the moving electric charge.
An electrostatic field on the other hand when acting on an stationary electric charge moved on a closed loop trajectory as in the case of a gravitational field, will in overall not change the energy of the moving charge, overall there is no energy consumed by the electrostatic field on the electric charge, therefore a conservative field.
An electric field generated by a changing magnetic field caused by a moving magnet, in this case the electrostatic field projected is [irrotational](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Conservative_vector_field) (i.e. has a vanishing curl, vortex structure) which is another characteristic of conservative fields. See below the electrostatic field projected by moving magnet:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/lkhE7.png)
However when this conservative electrostatic field generated by the moving magnet is projected on a conductive loop or a solenoid or circuit only the field vectors which coincide with the loop wire will be induced inside the wire therefore creating a rotational field instead and thus a non-conservative electric field.
The list can go forever and the concept of conservative and non-conservative fields is one of the most complex subjects.
As a general conclusion a field is characterized as conservative or non-conservative always in relation with the system applied to. |
30,972 | I want to send the mail only when creating the new contact through workflow. so what criteria i should set in the criteria field.
Note: if I update the contact no need send the mail. | 2014/03/26 | [
"https://salesforce.stackexchange.com/questions/30972",
"https://salesforce.stackexchange.com",
"https://salesforce.stackexchange.com/users/7107/"
] | You can simply use the `ISNEW()` function in your criteria.
Take a look here for this and other formula functions
<https://help.salesforce.com/HTViewHelpDoc?id=customize_functions.htm&language=en_US> | Or just select "Everytime a record is created" (the first radio option) and set the formula value to True |
26,705,071 | I had just installed eclipse luna and I use the marketplace to install oracle package to use glassfish v4.0. Everything went ok but when I'm trying to install it they still show me an error at the server root path (Error: The specified directory is not a valid GlassFish installation.)...I don't know why? this happen even giving it a path. have anyone resolve this issue?. | 2014/11/02 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/26705071",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/4208512/"
] | I got caught by this trying to following along with the Lynda.com tutorial on web services with Java EE. You need to download and install Glassfish and then point the server root to the glassfish directory. Here are the steps I took:
1. download glassfish from here: <https://glassfish.java.net/download.html>
2. unzip the zip file: this is essentially the install step
3. navigate into the installation to the **glassfish** folder: this what you point eclipse to
The high level answer is here: [How do I use Glass fish server with eclipse luna for Java EE?](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/26723197/how-do-i-use-glass-fish-server-with-eclipse-luna-for-java-ee) | Possible duplicate of [How do I use Glass fish server with eclipse luna for Java EE?](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/26723197/how-do-i-use-glass-fish-server-with-eclipse-luna-for-java-ee)
However, you need to specify the "glassfish" folder under the extracted GlassFish files, for example ...\glassfish4\glassfish |
26,705,071 | I had just installed eclipse luna and I use the marketplace to install oracle package to use glassfish v4.0. Everything went ok but when I'm trying to install it they still show me an error at the server root path (Error: The specified directory is not a valid GlassFish installation.)...I don't know why? this happen even giving it a path. have anyone resolve this issue?. | 2014/11/02 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/26705071",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/4208512/"
] | I got caught by this trying to following along with the Lynda.com tutorial on web services with Java EE. You need to download and install Glassfish and then point the server root to the glassfish directory. Here are the steps I took:
1. download glassfish from here: <https://glassfish.java.net/download.html>
2. unzip the zip file: this is essentially the install step
3. navigate into the installation to the **glassfish** folder: this what you point eclipse to
The high level answer is here: [How do I use Glass fish server with eclipse luna for Java EE?](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/26723197/how-do-i-use-glass-fish-server-with-eclipse-luna-for-java-ee) | First Download full platform from <https://glassfish.java.net/download.html>
Unzip it.
At the window you read this error, go to the browse for server root and find the glassfish folder inside your unzipped folder. Click on it and your error will be gone. |
52,910 | >
> **Possible Duplicate:**
>
> [Equivalent of “both” when referring three or more items?](https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/22357/equivalent-of-both-when-referring-three-or-more-items)
>
>
>
Consider this statement:
>
> Salads are both tasty and delicious.
>
>
>
Is there a natural way to use that construct with more than two adjectives? I can't come up with anything that sounds right to me. Two things that came to my mind were:
>
> Salads are all three tasty, delicious, and healthy.
>
>
>
* This one doesn't sound natural to me.
>
> Salads are each tasty, delicious, healthy, and cheap.
>
>
>
* I'm not sure if this is even valid English.
*If someone can come up with a better title for this question, please do (and then remove this comment). Thanks!* | 2011/12/27 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/52910",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/12448/"
] | You could add italics:
>
> Salads are tasty, delicious, healthy, *and* cheap.
>
>
>
It emphasizes the "and"; that is, that salads have all of these qualities, not just some. It also has a side effect of putting a bit more emphasis on the last adjective in the list, but that might be an effect you are looking for. | You seem to ask for a way of implying a contrast between adjectives, i.e., healthy vs tasty.
One might say:
"Salads are not only healthy, they are tasty and delicious."
Implying a contrast between three adjectives might use a little italicizing as a hint about how to stress words:
"Not only are salads healthy, they are tasty, *and* they are inexpensive." |
52,910 | >
> **Possible Duplicate:**
>
> [Equivalent of “both” when referring three or more items?](https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/22357/equivalent-of-both-when-referring-three-or-more-items)
>
>
>
Consider this statement:
>
> Salads are both tasty and delicious.
>
>
>
Is there a natural way to use that construct with more than two adjectives? I can't come up with anything that sounds right to me. Two things that came to my mind were:
>
> Salads are all three tasty, delicious, and healthy.
>
>
>
* This one doesn't sound natural to me.
>
> Salads are each tasty, delicious, healthy, and cheap.
>
>
>
* I'm not sure if this is even valid English.
*If someone can come up with a better title for this question, please do (and then remove this comment). Thanks!* | 2011/12/27 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/52910",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/12448/"
] | If you need to call it out explicitly (as you do with "both"), then:
>
> Salads are all of tasty, delicious, healthy, and cheap.
>
>
>
You could say "each of" instead of "all of", but not just "each" -- that would be ungrammatical the way you have it, and could lead people to believe you're talking about multiple salads instead of multiple characteristics.
You wouldn't say "all three", but you could say "all three of".
But in most cases you don't need the word at all:
>
> Salads are tasty, delicious, healthy, and cheap.
>
>
> | You seem to ask for a way of implying a contrast between adjectives, i.e., healthy vs tasty.
One might say:
"Salads are not only healthy, they are tasty and delicious."
Implying a contrast between three adjectives might use a little italicizing as a hint about how to stress words:
"Not only are salads healthy, they are tasty, *and* they are inexpensive." |
52,910 | >
> **Possible Duplicate:**
>
> [Equivalent of “both” when referring three or more items?](https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/22357/equivalent-of-both-when-referring-three-or-more-items)
>
>
>
Consider this statement:
>
> Salads are both tasty and delicious.
>
>
>
Is there a natural way to use that construct with more than two adjectives? I can't come up with anything that sounds right to me. Two things that came to my mind were:
>
> Salads are all three tasty, delicious, and healthy.
>
>
>
* This one doesn't sound natural to me.
>
> Salads are each tasty, delicious, healthy, and cheap.
>
>
>
* I'm not sure if this is even valid English.
*If someone can come up with a better title for this question, please do (and then remove this comment). Thanks!* | 2011/12/27 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/52910",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/12448/"
] | I agree with Monica that the form "Salads are a, b, c and d" is reasonable, and with Irene that placing *All* at the beginning of the sentence works ok.
Sticking a little closer to your original "Salads are both a and b" form, substituting *at once* for *both* allows
>
> Salads are at once a, b, c and d
>
>
>
which to my ear is markedly less clumsy than the previously suggested form,
>
> Salads are all of a, b, c and d
>
>
> | You seem to ask for a way of implying a contrast between adjectives, i.e., healthy vs tasty.
One might say:
"Salads are not only healthy, they are tasty and delicious."
Implying a contrast between three adjectives might use a little italicizing as a hint about how to stress words:
"Not only are salads healthy, they are tasty, *and* they are inexpensive." |
52,910 | >
> **Possible Duplicate:**
>
> [Equivalent of “both” when referring three or more items?](https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/22357/equivalent-of-both-when-referring-three-or-more-items)
>
>
>
Consider this statement:
>
> Salads are both tasty and delicious.
>
>
>
Is there a natural way to use that construct with more than two adjectives? I can't come up with anything that sounds right to me. Two things that came to my mind were:
>
> Salads are all three tasty, delicious, and healthy.
>
>
>
* This one doesn't sound natural to me.
>
> Salads are each tasty, delicious, healthy, and cheap.
>
>
>
* I'm not sure if this is even valid English.
*If someone can come up with a better title for this question, please do (and then remove this comment). Thanks!* | 2011/12/27 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/52910",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/12448/"
] | If you need to call it out explicitly (as you do with "both"), then:
>
> Salads are all of tasty, delicious, healthy, and cheap.
>
>
>
You could say "each of" instead of "all of", but not just "each" -- that would be ungrammatical the way you have it, and could lead people to believe you're talking about multiple salads instead of multiple characteristics.
You wouldn't say "all three", but you could say "all three of".
But in most cases you don't need the word at all:
>
> Salads are tasty, delicious, healthy, and cheap.
>
>
> | Your sentence would be correct like this:
>
> All the salads are tasty, delicious, healthy and cheap.
>
>
>
The use of **all** in the beginning of the sentence ensures that the qualities described by each adjective apply to all the salads.
If you have different types of salads, then you can have a sentence of this style:
>
> All four types of salads are tasty, delicious, healthy and cheap.
>
>
>
EDIT upon comments: Since you are talking about salads in general, then it should be:
>
> All salads are tasty, delicious, healthy and cheap.
>
>
> |
52,910 | >
> **Possible Duplicate:**
>
> [Equivalent of “both” when referring three or more items?](https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/22357/equivalent-of-both-when-referring-three-or-more-items)
>
>
>
Consider this statement:
>
> Salads are both tasty and delicious.
>
>
>
Is there a natural way to use that construct with more than two adjectives? I can't come up with anything that sounds right to me. Two things that came to my mind were:
>
> Salads are all three tasty, delicious, and healthy.
>
>
>
* This one doesn't sound natural to me.
>
> Salads are each tasty, delicious, healthy, and cheap.
>
>
>
* I'm not sure if this is even valid English.
*If someone can come up with a better title for this question, please do (and then remove this comment). Thanks!* | 2011/12/27 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/52910",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/12448/"
] | Your sentence would be correct like this:
>
> All the salads are tasty, delicious, healthy and cheap.
>
>
>
The use of **all** in the beginning of the sentence ensures that the qualities described by each adjective apply to all the salads.
If you have different types of salads, then you can have a sentence of this style:
>
> All four types of salads are tasty, delicious, healthy and cheap.
>
>
>
EDIT upon comments: Since you are talking about salads in general, then it should be:
>
> All salads are tasty, delicious, healthy and cheap.
>
>
> | You seem to ask for a way of implying a contrast between adjectives, i.e., healthy vs tasty.
One might say:
"Salads are not only healthy, they are tasty and delicious."
Implying a contrast between three adjectives might use a little italicizing as a hint about how to stress words:
"Not only are salads healthy, they are tasty, *and* they are inexpensive." |
52,910 | >
> **Possible Duplicate:**
>
> [Equivalent of “both” when referring three or more items?](https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/22357/equivalent-of-both-when-referring-three-or-more-items)
>
>
>
Consider this statement:
>
> Salads are both tasty and delicious.
>
>
>
Is there a natural way to use that construct with more than two adjectives? I can't come up with anything that sounds right to me. Two things that came to my mind were:
>
> Salads are all three tasty, delicious, and healthy.
>
>
>
* This one doesn't sound natural to me.
>
> Salads are each tasty, delicious, healthy, and cheap.
>
>
>
* I'm not sure if this is even valid English.
*If someone can come up with a better title for this question, please do (and then remove this comment). Thanks!* | 2011/12/27 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/52910",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/12448/"
] | I agree with Monica that the form "Salads are a, b, c and d" is reasonable, and with Irene that placing *All* at the beginning of the sentence works ok.
Sticking a little closer to your original "Salads are both a and b" form, substituting *at once* for *both* allows
>
> Salads are at once a, b, c and d
>
>
>
which to my ear is markedly less clumsy than the previously suggested form,
>
> Salads are all of a, b, c and d
>
>
> | If you need to call it out explicitly (as you do with "both"), then:
>
> Salads are all of tasty, delicious, healthy, and cheap.
>
>
>
You could say "each of" instead of "all of", but not just "each" -- that would be ungrammatical the way you have it, and could lead people to believe you're talking about multiple salads instead of multiple characteristics.
You wouldn't say "all three", but you could say "all three of".
But in most cases you don't need the word at all:
>
> Salads are tasty, delicious, healthy, and cheap.
>
>
> |
52,910 | >
> **Possible Duplicate:**
>
> [Equivalent of “both” when referring three or more items?](https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/22357/equivalent-of-both-when-referring-three-or-more-items)
>
>
>
Consider this statement:
>
> Salads are both tasty and delicious.
>
>
>
Is there a natural way to use that construct with more than two adjectives? I can't come up with anything that sounds right to me. Two things that came to my mind were:
>
> Salads are all three tasty, delicious, and healthy.
>
>
>
* This one doesn't sound natural to me.
>
> Salads are each tasty, delicious, healthy, and cheap.
>
>
>
* I'm not sure if this is even valid English.
*If someone can come up with a better title for this question, please do (and then remove this comment). Thanks!* | 2011/12/27 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/52910",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/12448/"
] | I agree with Monica that the form "Salads are a, b, c and d" is reasonable, and with Irene that placing *All* at the beginning of the sentence works ok.
Sticking a little closer to your original "Salads are both a and b" form, substituting *at once* for *both* allows
>
> Salads are at once a, b, c and d
>
>
>
which to my ear is markedly less clumsy than the previously suggested form,
>
> Salads are all of a, b, c and d
>
>
> | We say *all three of them, all four of them, ..., all seventy-nine of them, ...*, etc. It turns out, though, that \**all two of them* is ungrammatical.
As is often the case with special numbers like *one* or *two* or *twelve*, there is a special word, *both*, which we use instead of the ungrammatical \**all two*. If you want technical terminology, it's a Definite Dual Universal Quantifier -- and it's a Suppletive variant of \**all two*, just like *ever* is a Suppletive variant of \**anywhen*. |
52,910 | >
> **Possible Duplicate:**
>
> [Equivalent of “both” when referring three or more items?](https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/22357/equivalent-of-both-when-referring-three-or-more-items)
>
>
>
Consider this statement:
>
> Salads are both tasty and delicious.
>
>
>
Is there a natural way to use that construct with more than two adjectives? I can't come up with anything that sounds right to me. Two things that came to my mind were:
>
> Salads are all three tasty, delicious, and healthy.
>
>
>
* This one doesn't sound natural to me.
>
> Salads are each tasty, delicious, healthy, and cheap.
>
>
>
* I'm not sure if this is even valid English.
*If someone can come up with a better title for this question, please do (and then remove this comment). Thanks!* | 2011/12/27 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/52910",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/12448/"
] | You could add italics:
>
> Salads are tasty, delicious, healthy, *and* cheap.
>
>
>
It emphasizes the "and"; that is, that salads have all of these qualities, not just some. It also has a side effect of putting a bit more emphasis on the last adjective in the list, but that might be an effect you are looking for. | We say *all three of them, all four of them, ..., all seventy-nine of them, ...*, etc. It turns out, though, that \**all two of them* is ungrammatical.
As is often the case with special numbers like *one* or *two* or *twelve*, there is a special word, *both*, which we use instead of the ungrammatical \**all two*. If you want technical terminology, it's a Definite Dual Universal Quantifier -- and it's a Suppletive variant of \**all two*, just like *ever* is a Suppletive variant of \**anywhen*. |
52,910 | >
> **Possible Duplicate:**
>
> [Equivalent of “both” when referring three or more items?](https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/22357/equivalent-of-both-when-referring-three-or-more-items)
>
>
>
Consider this statement:
>
> Salads are both tasty and delicious.
>
>
>
Is there a natural way to use that construct with more than two adjectives? I can't come up with anything that sounds right to me. Two things that came to my mind were:
>
> Salads are all three tasty, delicious, and healthy.
>
>
>
* This one doesn't sound natural to me.
>
> Salads are each tasty, delicious, healthy, and cheap.
>
>
>
* I'm not sure if this is even valid English.
*If someone can come up with a better title for this question, please do (and then remove this comment). Thanks!* | 2011/12/27 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/52910",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/12448/"
] | I agree with Monica that the form "Salads are a, b, c and d" is reasonable, and with Irene that placing *All* at the beginning of the sentence works ok.
Sticking a little closer to your original "Salads are both a and b" form, substituting *at once* for *both* allows
>
> Salads are at once a, b, c and d
>
>
>
which to my ear is markedly less clumsy than the previously suggested form,
>
> Salads are all of a, b, c and d
>
>
> | Your sentence would be correct like this:
>
> All the salads are tasty, delicious, healthy and cheap.
>
>
>
The use of **all** in the beginning of the sentence ensures that the qualities described by each adjective apply to all the salads.
If you have different types of salads, then you can have a sentence of this style:
>
> All four types of salads are tasty, delicious, healthy and cheap.
>
>
>
EDIT upon comments: Since you are talking about salads in general, then it should be:
>
> All salads are tasty, delicious, healthy and cheap.
>
>
> |
52,910 | >
> **Possible Duplicate:**
>
> [Equivalent of “both” when referring three or more items?](https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/22357/equivalent-of-both-when-referring-three-or-more-items)
>
>
>
Consider this statement:
>
> Salads are both tasty and delicious.
>
>
>
Is there a natural way to use that construct with more than two adjectives? I can't come up with anything that sounds right to me. Two things that came to my mind were:
>
> Salads are all three tasty, delicious, and healthy.
>
>
>
* This one doesn't sound natural to me.
>
> Salads are each tasty, delicious, healthy, and cheap.
>
>
>
* I'm not sure if this is even valid English.
*If someone can come up with a better title for this question, please do (and then remove this comment). Thanks!* | 2011/12/27 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/52910",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/12448/"
] | I agree with Monica that the form "Salads are a, b, c and d" is reasonable, and with Irene that placing *All* at the beginning of the sentence works ok.
Sticking a little closer to your original "Salads are both a and b" form, substituting *at once* for *both* allows
>
> Salads are at once a, b, c and d
>
>
>
which to my ear is markedly less clumsy than the previously suggested form,
>
> Salads are all of a, b, c and d
>
>
> | *Both* in such sentences may be replaced with ***simultaneously*** without your having to alter the structure of the sentence.
>
> Salads are simultaneously tasty, delicious, healthy, and cheap.
>
>
>
*Both* essentially means *two together*; *simultaneously* means *occurring at the same moment.* |
342,991 | I read [this](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/42041948/making-boxes-around-circles-with-numbers) question and flagged it as *too broad* along with some constructive comments.
The question was how to make an user draw shapes in a window and then calculate how many circles were enclosed, with some restrictions. I commented what was wrong with the question and gave some guidelines on how the questioner could solve the problem. He/she commented back and said that the guidelines I provided was the answer he/she was looking for.
**Is it on topic to ask for *guidelines* to solve a bigger problem?**
Some acceptable answers contains no actual code but instead general guidelines or pseudo-code, so it seems to be acceptable in certain cases. But in many cases I would believe that these questions are too broad since there are many possible ways to answer them, but I cannot find anything in [what can I ask?](https://stackoverflow.com/help/on-topic) and [what should I avoid?](https://stackoverflow.com/help/dont-ask) about these types of questions.
And still, too broad is defined as *"There are either too many possible answers, or good answers would be too long for this format"*. An answer with a couple of bullet points don't need to be too long and thus not too broad. Could it be that these questions aren't specific enough?
I understand that asking about specific algorithms is on-topic but is asking *"What are the procedures to implement a help pop-up window?"* a valid question? In other words; questions that are about bigger concepts than just one algorithm. | 2017/02/05 | [
"https://meta.stackoverflow.com/questions/342991",
"https://meta.stackoverflow.com",
"https://meta.stackoverflow.com/users/6486738/"
] | >
> Is it on topic to ask for guidelines to solve a bigger problem?
>
>
>
Yes, *as long as* the asker frames their question with enough detail on what they are trying to do so that the question doesn't:
* *Unavoidably* require unreasonably long answers (be it due to needing too much code or explanations of too many things);
* Make speculative answers unavoidable (i.e. you have to guess what the asker is trying to do);
* Invite an endless list of suggestions in the answers.
>
> I would believe that these questions are too broad since there are many possible ways to answer them
>
>
>
["Many" isn't necessarily "*too* many"](https://meta.stackoverflow.com/a/261370/2751851). In particular, there being more than one way to explain something doesn't make a question about it too broad.
>
> I understand that asking about specific algorithms is on-topic but is asking *"What are the procedures to implement a help pop-up window?"* a valid question? In other words; questions that are about bigger concepts than just one algorithm.
>
>
>
A vague *"What are the procedures to implement a help pop-up window?"* question is indeed too broad, but not because it is "about bigger concepts". From the point of view of the asker, it isn't about any specific concepts; in such cases, the asker typically just wants to achieve something and have no idea how to do so. That forces the answerer to cover way too much ground in order to cover the (real, or presumed) gaps in the asker's knowledge -- *ergo*, too broad.
>
> I read [this](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/42041948/making-boxes-around-circles-with-numbers) question and flagged it as too broad along with some constructive comments.
>
>
>
You did correctly. The original revision of the question is too broad, as to answer it you would have to either write the whole thing for the asker or to guide them by the hand, step by step, from the very beginning. The current revision isn't stellar either, as the added code doesn't seem quite minimal, and isn't explicitly connected to what is written in the paragraph above it, but it probably could be worked into something acceptable. | Asking how to *go about* doing something is definitely on-topic, and many times such questions and their answers are more useful than questions just asking for code. Such requests *can* still be too broad if there are too many possible answers or good answers would be too long for the format.
Who knows, such questions may even eventually be able to be solved very simply using a new built-in method, library, etc. |
342,991 | I read [this](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/42041948/making-boxes-around-circles-with-numbers) question and flagged it as *too broad* along with some constructive comments.
The question was how to make an user draw shapes in a window and then calculate how many circles were enclosed, with some restrictions. I commented what was wrong with the question and gave some guidelines on how the questioner could solve the problem. He/she commented back and said that the guidelines I provided was the answer he/she was looking for.
**Is it on topic to ask for *guidelines* to solve a bigger problem?**
Some acceptable answers contains no actual code but instead general guidelines or pseudo-code, so it seems to be acceptable in certain cases. But in many cases I would believe that these questions are too broad since there are many possible ways to answer them, but I cannot find anything in [what can I ask?](https://stackoverflow.com/help/on-topic) and [what should I avoid?](https://stackoverflow.com/help/dont-ask) about these types of questions.
And still, too broad is defined as *"There are either too many possible answers, or good answers would be too long for this format"*. An answer with a couple of bullet points don't need to be too long and thus not too broad. Could it be that these questions aren't specific enough?
I understand that asking about specific algorithms is on-topic but is asking *"What are the procedures to implement a help pop-up window?"* a valid question? In other words; questions that are about bigger concepts than just one algorithm. | 2017/02/05 | [
"https://meta.stackoverflow.com/questions/342991",
"https://meta.stackoverflow.com",
"https://meta.stackoverflow.com/users/6486738/"
] | Asking how to *go about* doing something is definitely on-topic, and many times such questions and their answers are more useful than questions just asking for code. Such requests *can* still be too broad if there are too many possible answers or good answers would be too long for the format.
Who knows, such questions may even eventually be able to be solved very simply using a new built-in method, library, etc. | >
> Is it on topic to ask for guidelines to solve a bigger problem?
>
>
>
Lets put it this way: asking about how to get to the moon is too broad, asking how to build the rocket to get to the moon is too broad, asking about what route has to be taken to get to the moon is too broad; asking about how to get telemetry out of a device that happens to be to give you the information you need to calculate the route in your rocket to get to the moon, is not too broad. |
342,991 | I read [this](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/42041948/making-boxes-around-circles-with-numbers) question and flagged it as *too broad* along with some constructive comments.
The question was how to make an user draw shapes in a window and then calculate how many circles were enclosed, with some restrictions. I commented what was wrong with the question and gave some guidelines on how the questioner could solve the problem. He/she commented back and said that the guidelines I provided was the answer he/she was looking for.
**Is it on topic to ask for *guidelines* to solve a bigger problem?**
Some acceptable answers contains no actual code but instead general guidelines or pseudo-code, so it seems to be acceptable in certain cases. But in many cases I would believe that these questions are too broad since there are many possible ways to answer them, but I cannot find anything in [what can I ask?](https://stackoverflow.com/help/on-topic) and [what should I avoid?](https://stackoverflow.com/help/dont-ask) about these types of questions.
And still, too broad is defined as *"There are either too many possible answers, or good answers would be too long for this format"*. An answer with a couple of bullet points don't need to be too long and thus not too broad. Could it be that these questions aren't specific enough?
I understand that asking about specific algorithms is on-topic but is asking *"What are the procedures to implement a help pop-up window?"* a valid question? In other words; questions that are about bigger concepts than just one algorithm. | 2017/02/05 | [
"https://meta.stackoverflow.com/questions/342991",
"https://meta.stackoverflow.com",
"https://meta.stackoverflow.com/users/6486738/"
] | >
> Is it on topic to ask for guidelines to solve a bigger problem?
>
>
>
Yes, *as long as* the asker frames their question with enough detail on what they are trying to do so that the question doesn't:
* *Unavoidably* require unreasonably long answers (be it due to needing too much code or explanations of too many things);
* Make speculative answers unavoidable (i.e. you have to guess what the asker is trying to do);
* Invite an endless list of suggestions in the answers.
>
> I would believe that these questions are too broad since there are many possible ways to answer them
>
>
>
["Many" isn't necessarily "*too* many"](https://meta.stackoverflow.com/a/261370/2751851). In particular, there being more than one way to explain something doesn't make a question about it too broad.
>
> I understand that asking about specific algorithms is on-topic but is asking *"What are the procedures to implement a help pop-up window?"* a valid question? In other words; questions that are about bigger concepts than just one algorithm.
>
>
>
A vague *"What are the procedures to implement a help pop-up window?"* question is indeed too broad, but not because it is "about bigger concepts". From the point of view of the asker, it isn't about any specific concepts; in such cases, the asker typically just wants to achieve something and have no idea how to do so. That forces the answerer to cover way too much ground in order to cover the (real, or presumed) gaps in the asker's knowledge -- *ergo*, too broad.
>
> I read [this](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/42041948/making-boxes-around-circles-with-numbers) question and flagged it as too broad along with some constructive comments.
>
>
>
You did correctly. The original revision of the question is too broad, as to answer it you would have to either write the whole thing for the asker or to guide them by the hand, step by step, from the very beginning. The current revision isn't stellar either, as the added code doesn't seem quite minimal, and isn't explicitly connected to what is written in the paragraph above it, but it probably could be worked into something acceptable. | >
> Is it on topic to ask for guidelines to solve a bigger problem?
>
>
>
Lets put it this way: asking about how to get to the moon is too broad, asking how to build the rocket to get to the moon is too broad, asking about what route has to be taken to get to the moon is too broad; asking about how to get telemetry out of a device that happens to be to give you the information you need to calculate the route in your rocket to get to the moon, is not too broad. |
18,561,457 | **Context**
I'm learning how to use Google's - GTFS-realtime
The timestamps that are supplied by a service adhering to this standard are described on this page: <https://developers.google.com/transit/gtfs-realtime/reference>
Part of the instructions include this sentence:
"To avoid time skew between systems producing and consuming realtime information it is strongly advised to derive timestamp from a time server."
**Steps Taken To Understand**
1. I looked over the wikipedia page on time servers - <http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Time_server>
**Question**
1. Can someone clarify what this instruction means in practical terms? | 2013/09/01 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/18561457",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1193977/"
] | Suppose that your application is running on multiple machines. Some event occurs concurrently (at the same time) on two or more machines. If the machines time is **not** synchronous (machine 1 says 01.09.2013 **08:00:00.000** and machine 2 says 01.09.2013 **07:58:45.123**). The events will not have the correct appearence in your log (or display, or whatever)!
If you ask a time server for the timestamp, then both events will have **the same timestamp** respectively all events (no matter on which machine) will have the timestamp from the **same source**! Timestamp could be important (event order, priority, and so on). | In practical terms, what this means is whenever you want to get a timestamp for use in your application, instead of using your own copmauter's timesatmp, you should get it from a time server on the network. To set this up , you can read this: <http://www.pool.ntp.org/en/use.html> |
18,561,457 | **Context**
I'm learning how to use Google's - GTFS-realtime
The timestamps that are supplied by a service adhering to this standard are described on this page: <https://developers.google.com/transit/gtfs-realtime/reference>
Part of the instructions include this sentence:
"To avoid time skew between systems producing and consuming realtime information it is strongly advised to derive timestamp from a time server."
**Steps Taken To Understand**
1. I looked over the wikipedia page on time servers - <http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Time_server>
**Question**
1. Can someone clarify what this instruction means in practical terms? | 2013/09/01 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/18561457",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1193977/"
] | Suppose that your application is running on multiple machines. Some event occurs concurrently (at the same time) on two or more machines. If the machines time is **not** synchronous (machine 1 says 01.09.2013 **08:00:00.000** and machine 2 says 01.09.2013 **07:58:45.123**). The events will not have the correct appearence in your log (or display, or whatever)!
If you ask a time server for the timestamp, then both events will have **the same timestamp** respectively all events (no matter on which machine) will have the timestamp from the **same source**! Timestamp could be important (event order, priority, and so on). | You ask the server what time it is, because your local hardware clock might be inaccurate. For some algorithms it is important that time is synchronized.
Even if it is not a strict requirement, synchronous clocks are helpful for debugging. You need to correlate logs sometimes. |
54,118 | I made two characters and I noticed I get the Paragon Interrupt (the flashing icon that lets you interrupt a cutscene to say something Paragon/Renegade-y) when my character is mostly Paragon and I get Renegade when my character matches that. I haven't played with a neural character at all.
What determines which Interrupt you can perform? Do you just always get the Interrupt matching the morality you most commonly choose? Do I occasionally get the option of either Interrupt? | 2012/03/08 | [
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com/questions/54118",
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com",
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com/users/11920/"
] | From the [ME wiki](http://masseffect.wikia.com/wiki/Interrupt):
>
> Unlike Charm and Intimidate, Shepard is not required to have any
> minimum amount of Paragon or Renegade points in order for an interrupt
> to be presented. All characters will encounter the interrupt at the
> appropriate time, assuming they made the correct dialogue choices to
> reach that interrupt as described below (if any).
>
>
>
Shepard always has the option to perform both kinds of interrupt. If you don't see a Paragon / Renegade interrupt, it's because there isn't one, not because of your character's reputation.
For instance, as a paragon Shepard, I was able to take the Renegade interrupts while boxing with James Vega.
What Mass Effect 3 has added is *variable* reputation interrupts, that change based on whether your morality leans blue or red. This does not mean, however, that you cannot perform renegade interrupts, or that you will never see renegade interrupts as a paragon Shepard - it just means that, on average, you will see more Paragon interrupts than Renegade. | First off, Interrupts are scripted. Not every conversation has one, and not every opportunity to use a Paragon Interrupt has a corresponding Renegade Interrupt, and vice versa.
As for what determines whether you can use them, much like charm and intimidate options, there are occasionally minimum reputation or Paragon/Renegade scores that determine whether one is available to you. In other(/most?) cases, the interrupt will always be availiable, regardless of your existing reputation scores. Additionally, in some cases there are mirrored interrupt options, and the game will only provide you with the interrupt corresponding to the higher of your Paragon/Renegade scores. |
71,346,924 | I have created new dataset using snowflake connector and used the same as source dataset in lookup activity.
Then I am trying to INSERT the record into snowflake using following query.
'INSERT INTO SAMPLE\_TABLE VALUES('TEST',1,1,CURRENT\_TIMESTAMP,'TEST'-- (all values are passed)
Result: **The row getting inserted into snowflake but my pipeline got failed stating the below error.**
Failure happened on 'Source' side. ErrorCode=UserErrorOdbcInvalidQueryString,'Type=Microsoft.DataTransfer.Common.Shared.HybridDeliveryException,Message=The following ODBC Query is not valid: 'INSERT INTO SAMPLE\_TABLE VALUES('TEST',1,1,CURRENT\_TIMESTAMP,'TEST');'
Could you please share you advise or anylead to solve this problem.
Thanks.
Rajesh | 2022/03/04 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/71346924",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/18297532/"
] | Lookup, as the name suggests, is for searching and retrieving data, not for inserting. However, you can enclose your INSERT code in a procedure and execute it using the Lookup activity.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/ufsgk.png)
However, I strongly **do not recommend such an action**, remember that when inserting data into Snowflake, you create at least one micro-partition with a size of 16MB, if you insert one line at a time, the performance will be terrible and the data will take up a disproportionate amount of space. Remember Snowlfake is not a transaction database (! OLTP).
Instead, it's better to save all the records in an intermediate file and then import the entire file in one move. | You *can* use the lookup activity to perform operations other than selects, it just HAS to have an output. I've gotten around it with a postgres database doing create tables, truncates, one off inserts by just concatenating a
select current\_date;
after the main query.
Note, the sql script activity will definitely be better for this, we are waiting on postgres support in that though. |
7,640,694 | Simple question, when the test is done executing, does the Start item in the Run menu become enabled again ? I see it disabled for a period while my test is running and then become enabled again. I ask because I've been running Jmeter for 3 days and don't see the tests completing but see start become re-enabled.
Cheers | 2011/10/03 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/7640694",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/977430/"
] | As with most computer vision algorithms, [Google Scholar](http://scholar.google.com/schhp?hl=en&as_sdt=0,1&as_vis=1) is your friend :) I would suggest reading a few papers on how it works. [Here](http://citeseerx.ist.psu.edu/viewdoc/download?doi=10.1.1.115.404&rep=rep1&type=pdf) is one of the most referenced papers on HoG for you to start with.
Another tip when researching in computer vision is to note the authors of the papers you find interesting, and try to find their websites. They will tend to have an implementation of their algorithms as well as rules of thumb on how to use them. Also, look up the references that are sited in the paper about your algorithm. This can be very helpful in aquiring the background knowledge to truly understand how the algorithm works and why. | Your terminology is a bit mixed up. HOG is a feature descriptor. You can train a classifier using HOG, which can in turn be used for object detection. OpenCV includes a people detector that uses HOG features and an SVM classifier. It also includes CascadeClassifier, which can use HOG, and which is typically used for face detection.
There is a program in OpenCV called [opencv\_traincascade](http://docs.opencv.org/doc/user_guide/ug_traincascade.html), which lets you train a cascade object detector, an which gives you the option to use HOG. There is a function in the Computer Vision System Toolbox for MATLAB called [trainCascadeObjectDetector](http://www.mathworks.com/help/vision/ug/train-a-cascade-object-detector.html), which does the same thing. |
62,481 | Seems like it should be simple to turn off conversation mode, I was able to do it in my Outlook client pretty easily. However, I can't find the option in the web client (which I'm now stuck using due to my thick client refusing to connect (I've hit a known MS bug that currently has no resolution)). To help me keep my sanity until we can get the thick client fixed, how do I go about turning off that annoying conversation mode in the web client?
**edit**
Exchange Server 2013 in case it makes a difference. | 2014/06/11 | [
"https://webapps.stackexchange.com/questions/62481",
"https://webapps.stackexchange.com",
"https://webapps.stackexchange.com/users/3897/"
] | Go to [GitHub settings](https://github.com/settings/notifications)
You'll see this:
>
> **Automatic Watching**
>
>
> **☑ Automatically watch repositoiries**
>
>
> When you’re given push access to a repository, automatically receive notifications for it.
>
>
>
If you uncheck or untick that box you should now have to manually watch repositories that are added by your joined organisation if they've also given you push access.
You can't set it on a per organisation level though. It's all or nothing at the moment. | Go to [github.com/settings/notifications](https://github.com/settings/notifications) and uncheck "Automatically watch repositories" under "Automatic Watching". |
409,653 | **Short version of the issue**
* We have a 3rd party workflow tool that needs to check e-mail inboxes.
* The tool only supports checking e-mail with pop3 or IMAP
* Our network guys don't allow pop3 or IMAP access to our exchange server.
**My working solution / Concept**
* Install some kind of pop3/imap mail server software on the web server with the workflow tool.
* Have the workflow tool import via exchange/MAPI the e-mail for this one mailbox, then serve it up (only to the local machine for security reasons) using Pop3/IMAP so the workflow tool can check the inbox.
Essentially I need a way to "translate" or some kind of adapter to have a pop3 client talk to exchange via MAPI/Exchange protocols.
Do you know of any tool like the one I described above? Is there perhaps a better solution to the problem that I'm missing? | 2012/07/20 | [
"https://serverfault.com/questions/409653",
"https://serverfault.com",
"https://serverfault.com/users/14344/"
] | I'd seriously push for fighting the political battle to allow IMAP access to the Exchange system. IMAP and POP can be enabled on a per-account basis. Since this is a workflow item with a defined business application, there's definitely a purpose...
I'd be more suspicious of a the long-term viability of a workaround solution or anything that adds more complexity to the stack. | Probably too late for you but I am posting an answer for posterity. Check out DavMail - <http://davmail.sourceforge.net>
This is a cross-platform gateway for Exchange or Office365. In their own words -
"DavMail is a POP/IMAP/SMTP/Caldav/Carddav/LDAP gateway allowing users to use any mail client with Exchange, even from the internet through Outlook Web Access on any platform, tested on MacOSX, Linux and Windows" |
165,656 | A lot of the satellite SE sites have jargon that is specific to the site's domain. For example: Cooks might suggest a user sauté something; Home Brewers may talk about their wort; Photographers will discuss fancy lens terms I don't understand.
Is there a recommended way to provide definitions for these terms? The SO platform has a [glossary](https://meta.stackexchange.com/questions/40353/stack-exchange-glossary-dictionary-of-commonly-used-terms) meta-question and all sites have tag wikis. Both seem like good solutions.
Is there even a place for glossaries on these sites? i.e. Should we expect users to have a certain base domain knowledge when participating? | 2013/01/31 | [
"https://meta.stackexchange.com/questions/165656",
"https://meta.stackexchange.com",
"https://meta.stackexchange.com/users/156776/"
] | I would recommend simply asking a question eg. "what is sauté?".
It will either be closed as general reference (on english.se) or lead to a series of very good answers about the best way to sauté, why you saute, where it comes from etc..
I don't see the point of a site-specific glossary, I think dictionaries are fairly well available on the net. | Mi Yodeya has rather a bit of jargon. We have a [glossary](http://meta.judaism.stackexchange.com/questions/581/mi-yodeya-glossary) with one post per term (not one big mega-post like the SO glossary). This facilitates linking to the glossary from the main site. That seems to be working pretty well, though our glossary is harder to browse because it doesn't maintain alphabetical order. |
165,656 | A lot of the satellite SE sites have jargon that is specific to the site's domain. For example: Cooks might suggest a user sauté something; Home Brewers may talk about their wort; Photographers will discuss fancy lens terms I don't understand.
Is there a recommended way to provide definitions for these terms? The SO platform has a [glossary](https://meta.stackexchange.com/questions/40353/stack-exchange-glossary-dictionary-of-commonly-used-terms) meta-question and all sites have tag wikis. Both seem like good solutions.
Is there even a place for glossaries on these sites? i.e. Should we expect users to have a certain base domain knowledge when participating? | 2013/01/31 | [
"https://meta.stackexchange.com/questions/165656",
"https://meta.stackexchange.com",
"https://meta.stackexchange.com/users/156776/"
] | Google is an excellent dictionary, most SE sites tend to focus on creating repositories of useful but hard to find information in a question and answer format. Google and Wikipedia already have a far better format to explain basic terminology than SE. Most sites are geared towards people that already have a basic understanding of the topic so creating glossaries would largely be counter intuitive or a waste of time. | Mi Yodeya has rather a bit of jargon. We have a [glossary](http://meta.judaism.stackexchange.com/questions/581/mi-yodeya-glossary) with one post per term (not one big mega-post like the SO glossary). This facilitates linking to the glossary from the main site. That seems to be working pretty well, though our glossary is harder to browse because it doesn't maintain alphabetical order. |
1,167,022 | i have the following geometrical issue in 2D:
i have a point from which i cast an infinite angle (2D-cone) which is given by a direction and an angle. (the point and the direction form a vector and to each side half of the angle forms the 2D-cone)
now i want to check if another point in 2D is inside this cone or outside.
how can this be achieved?
thanks! | 2009/07/22 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/1167022",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/97688/"
] | Calculate the vector from the center of the cone to the query point. Normalize the vector to be of length 1, Take the center vector of the cone and normalize this as well to the length of 1.
Now take the dot product between the vectors. The dot product between two normalized vectors is the cosinus of the angle between them. Take the arccos (`acos` in most languages) of the dot product and you'll get the angle. compare this angle to the cone's angle (half angle in your description). if its lower, then point in question is inside the cone.
This works in 2D and 3D. | Calculate the angle of the direction using arctg of the direction. Substract the origin from the checked point. Calculate its angle (again via arctg of a normalized vector), and check if it lies within angle boundaries. |
1,167,022 | i have the following geometrical issue in 2D:
i have a point from which i cast an infinite angle (2D-cone) which is given by a direction and an angle. (the point and the direction form a vector and to each side half of the angle forms the 2D-cone)
now i want to check if another point in 2D is inside this cone or outside.
how can this be achieved?
thanks! | 2009/07/22 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/1167022",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/97688/"
] | Calculate the vector from the center of the cone to the query point. Normalize the vector to be of length 1, Take the center vector of the cone and normalize this as well to the length of 1.
Now take the dot product between the vectors. The dot product between two normalized vectors is the cosinus of the angle between them. Take the arccos (`acos` in most languages) of the dot product and you'll get the angle. compare this angle to the cone's angle (half angle in your description). if its lower, then point in question is inside the cone.
This works in 2D and 3D. | I would say the best way is to project the point onto the 2D surface perpendicular to the cones direction. Then you calculate the othogonal distance between that same plane and the point. Finally, you know the width of the cone at that height, so you can see if the point is outside that width. |
1,167,022 | i have the following geometrical issue in 2D:
i have a point from which i cast an infinite angle (2D-cone) which is given by a direction and an angle. (the point and the direction form a vector and to each side half of the angle forms the 2D-cone)
now i want to check if another point in 2D is inside this cone or outside.
how can this be achieved?
thanks! | 2009/07/22 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/1167022",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/97688/"
] | Calculate the vector from the center of the cone to the query point. Normalize the vector to be of length 1, Take the center vector of the cone and normalize this as well to the length of 1.
Now take the dot product between the vectors. The dot product between two normalized vectors is the cosinus of the angle between them. Take the arccos (`acos` in most languages) of the dot product and you'll get the angle. compare this angle to the cone's angle (half angle in your description). if its lower, then point in question is inside the cone.
This works in 2D and 3D. | Let the vector from the point of origin to the specified point makes an angle A with the normal that runs through the center. If the angle A is less than the half angle of the cone it lies inside else outside. |
51,034 | If the car's acceleration is higher when the wheel's angular acceleration is higher(tangential acceleration=alpha x radius). Why are higher gears not used to accomplish the acceleration of the car instead of lower gears? | 2022/05/19 | [
"https://engineering.stackexchange.com/questions/51034",
"https://engineering.stackexchange.com",
"https://engineering.stackexchange.com/users/35653/"
] | ### The Rotational Inertia of individual gears doesn't matter.
You are way overestimating the effect of rotating gears on overall acceleration. The mass of gears is inconsequential compared to the weight of the vehicle (and the rest of the rotating mass. So a larger diameter first gear does have a slightly larger rotational inertia. But gear ratios overpower this small effect and renders it inconsequential.
In the end, acceleration is related to both the rotational and non-rotational mass. The small change in rotational inertia between first and second physical gears is immaterial. | It is down to power against drag ie rolling & aerodynamic. After about 40mph, the aerodynamic drag is larger and increases with the square of the speed.
Basically the vehicle has to push more and more air out of the way the faster it goes. Once the power equals the sum of the drag, acceleration will be zero.
And it won't matter if you have 4, 14 or 40 gears or an automatic or cvt. |
51,034 | If the car's acceleration is higher when the wheel's angular acceleration is higher(tangential acceleration=alpha x radius). Why are higher gears not used to accomplish the acceleration of the car instead of lower gears? | 2022/05/19 | [
"https://engineering.stackexchange.com/questions/51034",
"https://engineering.stackexchange.com",
"https://engineering.stackexchange.com/users/35653/"
] | ### The Rotational Inertia of individual gears doesn't matter.
You are way overestimating the effect of rotating gears on overall acceleration. The mass of gears is inconsequential compared to the weight of the vehicle (and the rest of the rotating mass. So a larger diameter first gear does have a slightly larger rotational inertia. But gear ratios overpower this small effect and renders it inconsequential.
In the end, acceleration is related to both the rotational and non-rotational mass. The small change in rotational inertia between first and second physical gears is immaterial. | You are mixed UP. The angular acceleration of the wheel does not effect the entire car's acceleration. What will, is the force applied to the ground from the tires. |
51,034 | If the car's acceleration is higher when the wheel's angular acceleration is higher(tangential acceleration=alpha x radius). Why are higher gears not used to accomplish the acceleration of the car instead of lower gears? | 2022/05/19 | [
"https://engineering.stackexchange.com/questions/51034",
"https://engineering.stackexchange.com",
"https://engineering.stackexchange.com/users/35653/"
] | ### The Rotational Inertia of individual gears doesn't matter.
You are way overestimating the effect of rotating gears on overall acceleration. The mass of gears is inconsequential compared to the weight of the vehicle (and the rest of the rotating mass. So a larger diameter first gear does have a slightly larger rotational inertia. But gear ratios overpower this small effect and renders it inconsequential.
In the end, acceleration is related to both the rotational and non-rotational mass. The small change in rotational inertia between first and second physical gears is immaterial. | Every engine will start to choke when demand torque from the transmission, or better said from the tires, gets close to the engine's output torque at that state, RPM, breathing, engine capacity to shed the heat, and many other factors.
All engines need a burst of torque to accelerate their angular speed and that torque comes from the gap between available and demand torque.
A good driver or a good automatic transmission will keep the demand torque under available torque to let the engine breathe and rev up and deliver the best performance till the RPM nears the maximum engine's design RPM and available torque is so much more than the demand torque that will allow up-shifting for speed without choking.
And then and only then what you mean to say (if I understand correctly) is applied, higher gears are engaged or even overdrive. |
69,987 | My party is about to enter a room full of enemies so I cast Spirit Guardians on myself designating my party as friendly. Our druid casts fog cloud or our warlock casts magical darkness in the room then I proceed to move through the fog or darkness using dodge as my action hoping to damage the enemy with the spirits.
Will the spirits be able to ignore the fog or darkness since they are spirits or will it hinder their attacks? If it does hinder their attacks, how so? | 2015/10/16 | [
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/69987",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/users/25227/"
] | How to use [wild shape](http://www.d20pfsrd.com/classes/core-classes/druid#TOC-Wild-Shape-Su-)
==============================================================================================
The creature takes a standard action that doesn't provoke attacks of opportunity to use the [supernatural ability](http://www.d20pfsrd.com/magic#TOC-Supernatural-Abilities-Su-) [wild shape](http://www.d20pfsrd.com/classes/core-classes/druid#TOC-Wild-Shape-Su-). Then you make a new character sheet.
### From [wild shape](http://www.d20pfsrd.com/classes/core-classes/druid#TOC-Wild-Shape-Su-), the druid...
* loses the ability to speak if an animal form is assumed, but while in the assumed animal form the druid can make noises and gesticulate like a typical creature of the assumed form.
* gains the ability to communicate with other animals of the same general grouping. *Note:* Ask the DM what a *general grouping* is for the assumed form. (That is, do tigers speak the same language as house cats?)
### From the effect of a supernatural ability duplicating the effect of the spell [*beast shape I*](http://www.d20pfsrd.com/magic/all-spells/b/beast-shape), the druid...
* gains the [base land speed](http://www.d20pfsrd.com/alignment-description/movement) of the assumed form.
* gains a [climb speed](http://www.d20pfsrd.com/bestiary/rules-for-monsters/universal-monster-rules#TOC-Climb) equal to the assumed form's climb speed but not more than 30 ft.
* gains a [fly speed](http://www.d20pfsrd.com/bestiary/rules-for-monsters/universal-monster-rules#TOC-Flight-Ex-or-Su-) equal to the assumed form's fly speed but not more than 30 ft. This fly speed always has average maneuverability.
* gains a [swim speed](http://www.d20pfsrd.com/alignment-description/movement) equal to the assumed form's swim speed but not more than 30 ft. The druid also gains the ability to breathe underwater while swimming.
* gains [darkvision](http://www.d20pfsrd.com/gamemastering/special-abilities#TOC-Darkvision) with a range equal to the range of the assumed form's darkvision but not more than 60 ft.
* gains [low-light vision](http://www.d20pfsrd.com/gamemastering/special-abilities#TOC-Low-Light-Vision) if the assumed form also has low-light vision.
* gains [scent](http://www.d20pfsrd.com/gamemastering/special-abilities#TOC-Scent) if the assumed form also has scent.
* gains bonuses based on the assumed form's size. Assuming the form of a Small animal grants the druid a +2 size bonus to Dexterity and a +1 natural armor bonus. Assuming the form of a Medium animal grants the druid a +2 size bonus to Strength and a +2 natural armor bonus.
### From the effect of a supernatural ability duplicating the effect of a spell of the transmutation subschool [polymorph](http://www.d20pfsrd.com/magic#TOC-Transmutation-Polymorph), the druid...
* gains the [natural attacks](http://www.d20pfsrd.com/bestiary/rules-for-monsters/universal-monster-rules#TOC-Natural-Attacks) of the assumed form and proficiency sufficient to use those attacks. *Note:* The druid uses his own base attack bonus but his modified ability scores to determine attack bonus and final damage with these natural attacks.
* gains a +10 bonus on [Disguise](http://www.d20pfsrd.com/skills/disguise) skill checks made to masquerade as an animal of the assumed form, although specific creatures' forms can't be assumed.
* gains the appropriate [size modifiers](http://www.d20pfsrd.com/gamemastering/combat/space-reach-threatened-area-templates) to armor class and on his attack bonus, Combat Maneuver Bonus, and Stealth skill checks if the druid has changed size. *Note:* This should also likely include modifiers to Fly skill checks, but this goes unmentioned by the text.
* sees all his carried gear meld into his new form because the assumed form is that of an animal (or plant or elemental). The only magic items that continue functioning are those that *both* provide constant bonuses *and* do not need to be activated to function ([see here](https://rpg.stackexchange.com/q/68572/8610)). *Note:* Enhancement bonuses from magic armor and shields don't usually work either.
* loses the ability to cast spells because the assumed form is that of an animal (or, probably, a plant). *Note:* The feats [Eschew Material](http://www.d20pfsrd.com/feats/general-feats/eschew-materials---final) and [Natural Spell](http://www.d20pfsrd.com/feats/general-feats/natural-spell---final) help a druid cast spells while in an assumed form that normally prohibits casting.
* loses extraordinary and supernatural abilities dependent upon on his original form, including keen senses, scent, darkvision, natural attacks, and movement modes.
* loses class features dependent upon his original form, but those class features that allow *adding* features to the original form can still be used to add such features to the new form. *Note:* Special restrictions apply to effects of the polymorph subschool (see below).
* gains immunity to other effects of the polymorph subschool. The druid can allow himself to be affected a new polymorph subschool effect, but such an allowance ends this current polymorph subschool effect. *Note:* This is actually a bigger deal than you might expect.
* gains immunity to effects that change his size.
* gains and loses whatever the GM says he gains and loses if there are any questions. *Note:* That's actually in the rules.
When the druid gains the ability to also use, for example, *beast shape II*, the second section is, I think, the only part that needs changing.
Nothing *else* changes, but the druid's Dexterity-based or Strength-based stuff will need to be adjusted for his modified ability scores. Specifically, a creature that uses the special ability wild shape does *not* gain the assumed form's skills, does *not* gain the assumed form's [size-based modifiers as if it were advancing as a monster](http://www.d20pfsrd.com/bestiary/rules-for-monsters/monster-advancement) (instead using the special polymorph subschool size change rules), and does *not* gain the assumed form's base attack bonus nor the assumed form's saving throw bonuses (although the druid's attack bonus and saving throw bonuses may change due to the modified ability scores). | * You do not gain racial skill bonuses from the type of creature that you shapeshift into.
* In addition to the size modifiers to stats listed under the spell that you're mimicking with Wild Shape (ie, Beast Shape II, etc.), you also gain the standard size modifiers to attack, CMB, CMD, AC, and Stealth checks. If you are carrying a weapon and shapeshift into something that can wield that weapon (eg, using Giant Form), then the weapon grows or shrinks with you and its damage dice change. Your reach may also change. These size modifiers are not listed under the spells because they're part of the universal combat rules.
* You do not get the creature's BAB, saves, etc. The only attribute adjustments that you get are the ones listed under the spell that you're mimicking with Wild Shape.
Basically, if it's not part of the universal combat rules and it's not described under either Wild Shape or the spell that you're mimicking with it, you don't get it. |
69,987 | My party is about to enter a room full of enemies so I cast Spirit Guardians on myself designating my party as friendly. Our druid casts fog cloud or our warlock casts magical darkness in the room then I proceed to move through the fog or darkness using dodge as my action hoping to damage the enemy with the spirits.
Will the spirits be able to ignore the fog or darkness since they are spirits or will it hinder their attacks? If it does hinder their attacks, how so? | 2015/10/16 | [
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/69987",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/users/25227/"
] | * You do not gain racial skill bonuses from the type of creature that you shapeshift into.
* In addition to the size modifiers to stats listed under the spell that you're mimicking with Wild Shape (ie, Beast Shape II, etc.), you also gain the standard size modifiers to attack, CMB, CMD, AC, and Stealth checks. If you are carrying a weapon and shapeshift into something that can wield that weapon (eg, using Giant Form), then the weapon grows or shrinks with you and its damage dice change. Your reach may also change. These size modifiers are not listed under the spells because they're part of the universal combat rules.
* You do not get the creature's BAB, saves, etc. The only attribute adjustments that you get are the ones listed under the spell that you're mimicking with Wild Shape.
Basically, if it's not part of the universal combat rules and it's not described under either Wild Shape or the spell that you're mimicking with it, you don't get it. | I would add that you also do not get special attacks/abilities from the form that are not explicitly listed under the "Wild Shape" spell. For example, Giant Toad has a swallow whole ability, but no level of Wild Shape lets you get that ability. So no swallow whole attack for you! |
69,987 | My party is about to enter a room full of enemies so I cast Spirit Guardians on myself designating my party as friendly. Our druid casts fog cloud or our warlock casts magical darkness in the room then I proceed to move through the fog or darkness using dodge as my action hoping to damage the enemy with the spirits.
Will the spirits be able to ignore the fog or darkness since they are spirits or will it hinder their attacks? If it does hinder their attacks, how so? | 2015/10/16 | [
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/69987",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/users/25227/"
] | How to use [wild shape](http://www.d20pfsrd.com/classes/core-classes/druid#TOC-Wild-Shape-Su-)
==============================================================================================
The creature takes a standard action that doesn't provoke attacks of opportunity to use the [supernatural ability](http://www.d20pfsrd.com/magic#TOC-Supernatural-Abilities-Su-) [wild shape](http://www.d20pfsrd.com/classes/core-classes/druid#TOC-Wild-Shape-Su-). Then you make a new character sheet.
### From [wild shape](http://www.d20pfsrd.com/classes/core-classes/druid#TOC-Wild-Shape-Su-), the druid...
* loses the ability to speak if an animal form is assumed, but while in the assumed animal form the druid can make noises and gesticulate like a typical creature of the assumed form.
* gains the ability to communicate with other animals of the same general grouping. *Note:* Ask the DM what a *general grouping* is for the assumed form. (That is, do tigers speak the same language as house cats?)
### From the effect of a supernatural ability duplicating the effect of the spell [*beast shape I*](http://www.d20pfsrd.com/magic/all-spells/b/beast-shape), the druid...
* gains the [base land speed](http://www.d20pfsrd.com/alignment-description/movement) of the assumed form.
* gains a [climb speed](http://www.d20pfsrd.com/bestiary/rules-for-monsters/universal-monster-rules#TOC-Climb) equal to the assumed form's climb speed but not more than 30 ft.
* gains a [fly speed](http://www.d20pfsrd.com/bestiary/rules-for-monsters/universal-monster-rules#TOC-Flight-Ex-or-Su-) equal to the assumed form's fly speed but not more than 30 ft. This fly speed always has average maneuverability.
* gains a [swim speed](http://www.d20pfsrd.com/alignment-description/movement) equal to the assumed form's swim speed but not more than 30 ft. The druid also gains the ability to breathe underwater while swimming.
* gains [darkvision](http://www.d20pfsrd.com/gamemastering/special-abilities#TOC-Darkvision) with a range equal to the range of the assumed form's darkvision but not more than 60 ft.
* gains [low-light vision](http://www.d20pfsrd.com/gamemastering/special-abilities#TOC-Low-Light-Vision) if the assumed form also has low-light vision.
* gains [scent](http://www.d20pfsrd.com/gamemastering/special-abilities#TOC-Scent) if the assumed form also has scent.
* gains bonuses based on the assumed form's size. Assuming the form of a Small animal grants the druid a +2 size bonus to Dexterity and a +1 natural armor bonus. Assuming the form of a Medium animal grants the druid a +2 size bonus to Strength and a +2 natural armor bonus.
### From the effect of a supernatural ability duplicating the effect of a spell of the transmutation subschool [polymorph](http://www.d20pfsrd.com/magic#TOC-Transmutation-Polymorph), the druid...
* gains the [natural attacks](http://www.d20pfsrd.com/bestiary/rules-for-monsters/universal-monster-rules#TOC-Natural-Attacks) of the assumed form and proficiency sufficient to use those attacks. *Note:* The druid uses his own base attack bonus but his modified ability scores to determine attack bonus and final damage with these natural attacks.
* gains a +10 bonus on [Disguise](http://www.d20pfsrd.com/skills/disguise) skill checks made to masquerade as an animal of the assumed form, although specific creatures' forms can't be assumed.
* gains the appropriate [size modifiers](http://www.d20pfsrd.com/gamemastering/combat/space-reach-threatened-area-templates) to armor class and on his attack bonus, Combat Maneuver Bonus, and Stealth skill checks if the druid has changed size. *Note:* This should also likely include modifiers to Fly skill checks, but this goes unmentioned by the text.
* sees all his carried gear meld into his new form because the assumed form is that of an animal (or plant or elemental). The only magic items that continue functioning are those that *both* provide constant bonuses *and* do not need to be activated to function ([see here](https://rpg.stackexchange.com/q/68572/8610)). *Note:* Enhancement bonuses from magic armor and shields don't usually work either.
* loses the ability to cast spells because the assumed form is that of an animal (or, probably, a plant). *Note:* The feats [Eschew Material](http://www.d20pfsrd.com/feats/general-feats/eschew-materials---final) and [Natural Spell](http://www.d20pfsrd.com/feats/general-feats/natural-spell---final) help a druid cast spells while in an assumed form that normally prohibits casting.
* loses extraordinary and supernatural abilities dependent upon on his original form, including keen senses, scent, darkvision, natural attacks, and movement modes.
* loses class features dependent upon his original form, but those class features that allow *adding* features to the original form can still be used to add such features to the new form. *Note:* Special restrictions apply to effects of the polymorph subschool (see below).
* gains immunity to other effects of the polymorph subschool. The druid can allow himself to be affected a new polymorph subschool effect, but such an allowance ends this current polymorph subschool effect. *Note:* This is actually a bigger deal than you might expect.
* gains immunity to effects that change his size.
* gains and loses whatever the GM says he gains and loses if there are any questions. *Note:* That's actually in the rules.
When the druid gains the ability to also use, for example, *beast shape II*, the second section is, I think, the only part that needs changing.
Nothing *else* changes, but the druid's Dexterity-based or Strength-based stuff will need to be adjusted for his modified ability scores. Specifically, a creature that uses the special ability wild shape does *not* gain the assumed form's skills, does *not* gain the assumed form's [size-based modifiers as if it were advancing as a monster](http://www.d20pfsrd.com/bestiary/rules-for-monsters/monster-advancement) (instead using the special polymorph subschool size change rules), and does *not* gain the assumed form's base attack bonus nor the assumed form's saving throw bonuses (although the druid's attack bonus and saving throw bonuses may change due to the modified ability scores). | I would add that you also do not get special attacks/abilities from the form that are not explicitly listed under the "Wild Shape" spell. For example, Giant Toad has a swallow whole ability, but no level of Wild Shape lets you get that ability. So no swallow whole attack for you! |
41,342,668 | Looks like I am being held hostage by the Atomineer Pro Documentation add-in for Visual Studio! The trail period is over, I have no use for it! But now everytime I do something in Visual Studio I get an error message and get sent to their web site!
I have looked all over to find out how to uninstall it and have not found away to uninstall it!
WARNING TO EVERYONE - This Atomineer Pro is not easy to uninstall!! Just from the problems of uninstalling it, I would highly recomend no one ever installs it! | 2016/12/27 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/41342668",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1863408/"
] | I ran into this too running on Windows 10 and VS 2013. Ended up installing and running IObit Uninstaller, which clean up the registry, but Atomineer was still loading in Visual Studio. My second pass was to search my C: drive for "Atomineer" which got several hits including some in a VS AddIns folder (I think). I just deleted everything and that did the trick. | *Visual Studio 2015 onwards (Standard VS Extension)*
* In Visual Studio, go to **Tools > Extensions and Updates**, select Atomineer from the list, and click the Uninstall button.
*Visual Studio 2005-2013 (Standard VS Add-in)*
* Use **Control Panel > Programs and Features** to uninstall it just like any other app, **or**
* Run the Atomineer installer and select "uninstall", **or**
* In the unlikely case that neither of the above work, you can manually search your drive and delete any "AtomineerUtils.Addin" files you find.
In any case if you have any problems, **email Atomineer support** and we'll be happy to help. |
100,658 | The [Stone Warder](http://www.d20pfsrd.com/classes/core-classes/sorcerer/archetypes/paizo-sorcerer-archetypes/stone-warder-sorcerer/) archetype for Sorcerer includes:
>
> Power of Stone (Su)
>
>
> A stone warder draws power from natural rock, and gains a +1 bonus to her caster level when in hills, mountains, or underground terrain. This bonus increases to +2 at 5th level, and by an additional 1 every 5 sorcerer levels thereafter. **However, this strong elemental tie prevents a stone warder from casting spells that have the air, cold, electricity, fire, or water descriptor.**
>
>
>
Emphasis added. Would taking a spell with the denied descriptors, but casting it with the [earth] tag, be a valid choice or am I barred from selecting any of these spells?
For example, the Elemental (earth) Bloodline Arcana allows me to "Whenever you cast a spell that deals energy damage, you can change the type of damage to match the type of your bloodline. **This also changes the spell’s type to match the type of your bloodline.**" and the Elemental Spell metamagic has similar wording. Would I be able to take Fireball as a spell and cast it as Evocation [earth]? | 2017/05/31 | [
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/100658",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/users/28326/"
] | The [Magic](http://www.d20pfsrd.com/magic/) rules don't mention "spell type" or anything close to it at all. Then the wording for the elemental bloodline arcana must be wrong, and "spell's type" may refer to spell descriptor. Then your damaging spells should all get the acid or earth descriptor in place of their original elemental descriptor and deal acid damage and you should be able to cast them as a stone warder. | Yes, it's a valid choice.
-------------------------
You can learn those spells just fine, the ability simply prevents you from **casting** spells with those descriptors. Nothing prevents you from using extraordinary or supernatural abilities that emulate those spells, or from learning those spells, or even from activating magic items that have those spells, as long as they arent spell trigger or spell completation (scrolls and wands).
>
> However, this strong elemental tie prevents a stone warder from **casting spells** that have the air, cold, electricity, fire, or water descriptor.
>
>
>
This means you can learn [Fireball](http://paizo.com/pathfinderRPG/prd/coreRulebook/spells/fireball.html) just fine, as it has the [fire] descriptor, but **you cannot cast** fireball with the [fire] descriptor, **you must change it to [earth] in order to be able to cast it**. |
101,146 | From Obama's second inaugural speech:
>
> We, the people, declare today that the most evident of truths – that all of us are created equal – is the star that guides us still; just as it guided our forebears through Seneca Falls, and Selma, and Stonewall; just as it guided all those men and women, sung and unsung, who left footprints along this great Mall, to hear a preacher say that we cannot walk alone; to hear **a King** proclaim that our individual freedom is inextricably bound to the freedom of every soul on Earth.
>
>
>
I know that he was referring to Martin Luther King, Jr. But why did he use the indefinite article "a" before "King"? Is it better, for example, to use "Dr. King" or just "King" instead? Does the use of the word "a King" provide a sense that Dr. King was the king of something, such as righteousness, justice, etc? | 2013/01/23 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/101146",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/36258/"
] | By adding the *a*, Obama elevated MLK to an archetype, just as an intellectually average or above person might say, "I'm no [= not **an**] Einstein, but it seems to me that doing the same thing and expecting a different outcome is insanity in this case". It doesn't mean that MLK was the king of anything, only that he is a symbol. | It is a pun being used stylistically. MLK is likened unto a king, and King happens to be his name. |
101,146 | From Obama's second inaugural speech:
>
> We, the people, declare today that the most evident of truths – that all of us are created equal – is the star that guides us still; just as it guided our forebears through Seneca Falls, and Selma, and Stonewall; just as it guided all those men and women, sung and unsung, who left footprints along this great Mall, to hear a preacher say that we cannot walk alone; to hear **a King** proclaim that our individual freedom is inextricably bound to the freedom of every soul on Earth.
>
>
>
I know that he was referring to Martin Luther King, Jr. But why did he use the indefinite article "a" before "King"? Is it better, for example, to use "Dr. King" or just "King" instead? Does the use of the word "a King" provide a sense that Dr. King was the king of something, such as righteousness, justice, etc? | 2013/01/23 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/101146",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/36258/"
] | By adding the *a*, Obama elevated MLK to an archetype, just as an intellectually average or above person might say, "I'm no [= not **an**] Einstein, but it seems to me that doing the same thing and expecting a different outcome is insanity in this case". It doesn't mean that MLK was the king of anything, only that he is a symbol. | Perhaps he meant to give the phrase a subtle *double entendre*. I could be read to mean Martin Luther King Jr. and it could also have a meaning that we need to be guided by leaders (even if they are kings) who value individual freedom for all people.
This is perhaps a subtle, somewhat ironic reference to some kings elswhere who do not put freedom of their own subjects, let alone the freedom of all people, as their first priority. |
101,146 | From Obama's second inaugural speech:
>
> We, the people, declare today that the most evident of truths – that all of us are created equal – is the star that guides us still; just as it guided our forebears through Seneca Falls, and Selma, and Stonewall; just as it guided all those men and women, sung and unsung, who left footprints along this great Mall, to hear a preacher say that we cannot walk alone; to hear **a King** proclaim that our individual freedom is inextricably bound to the freedom of every soul on Earth.
>
>
>
I know that he was referring to Martin Luther King, Jr. But why did he use the indefinite article "a" before "King"? Is it better, for example, to use "Dr. King" or just "King" instead? Does the use of the word "a King" provide a sense that Dr. King was the king of something, such as righteousness, justice, etc? | 2013/01/23 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/101146",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/36258/"
] | It is a pun being used stylistically. MLK is likened unto a king, and King happens to be his name. | Perhaps he meant to give the phrase a subtle *double entendre*. I could be read to mean Martin Luther King Jr. and it could also have a meaning that we need to be guided by leaders (even if they are kings) who value individual freedom for all people.
This is perhaps a subtle, somewhat ironic reference to some kings elswhere who do not put freedom of their own subjects, let alone the freedom of all people, as their first priority. |
101,146 | From Obama's second inaugural speech:
>
> We, the people, declare today that the most evident of truths – that all of us are created equal – is the star that guides us still; just as it guided our forebears through Seneca Falls, and Selma, and Stonewall; just as it guided all those men and women, sung and unsung, who left footprints along this great Mall, to hear a preacher say that we cannot walk alone; to hear **a King** proclaim that our individual freedom is inextricably bound to the freedom of every soul on Earth.
>
>
>
I know that he was referring to Martin Luther King, Jr. But why did he use the indefinite article "a" before "King"? Is it better, for example, to use "Dr. King" or just "King" instead? Does the use of the word "a King" provide a sense that Dr. King was the king of something, such as righteousness, justice, etc? | 2013/01/23 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/101146",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/36258/"
] | Stylistically, the phrase "to hear a King proclaim..." echoes the previous construction "to hear a preacher say...." The repetition of the indefinite article maintains the flow of the speech. (Imagine how awkward it would have sounded if, in place of "to hear a King proclaim," Obama had said "to hear the Reverend Dr. Martin Luther King, Jr. proclaim....") Of course, the construction also invites the listener to consider the double-meaning of "King"--as the other answers say, it identifies the speaker (MLK) and also the speaker's symbolic importance (as a leader of the Civil Rights movement and as the "moral leader of our nation"). | It is a pun being used stylistically. MLK is likened unto a king, and King happens to be his name. |
101,146 | From Obama's second inaugural speech:
>
> We, the people, declare today that the most evident of truths – that all of us are created equal – is the star that guides us still; just as it guided our forebears through Seneca Falls, and Selma, and Stonewall; just as it guided all those men and women, sung and unsung, who left footprints along this great Mall, to hear a preacher say that we cannot walk alone; to hear **a King** proclaim that our individual freedom is inextricably bound to the freedom of every soul on Earth.
>
>
>
I know that he was referring to Martin Luther King, Jr. But why did he use the indefinite article "a" before "King"? Is it better, for example, to use "Dr. King" or just "King" instead? Does the use of the word "a King" provide a sense that Dr. King was the king of something, such as righteousness, justice, etc? | 2013/01/23 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/101146",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/36258/"
] | Stylistically, the phrase "to hear a King proclaim..." echoes the previous construction "to hear a preacher say...." The repetition of the indefinite article maintains the flow of the speech. (Imagine how awkward it would have sounded if, in place of "to hear a King proclaim," Obama had said "to hear the Reverend Dr. Martin Luther King, Jr. proclaim....") Of course, the construction also invites the listener to consider the double-meaning of "King"--as the other answers say, it identifies the speaker (MLK) and also the speaker's symbolic importance (as a leader of the Civil Rights movement and as the "moral leader of our nation"). | Perhaps he meant to give the phrase a subtle *double entendre*. I could be read to mean Martin Luther King Jr. and it could also have a meaning that we need to be guided by leaders (even if they are kings) who value individual freedom for all people.
This is perhaps a subtle, somewhat ironic reference to some kings elswhere who do not put freedom of their own subjects, let alone the freedom of all people, as their first priority. |
5,061,629 | I'm trying to find and create/import the Northwind database to practice my Linq-fu.
I cannot find it for the life of me, searching just turns me to this page, which in turn tells me to find it on the official page which isn't there.
<http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms227484%28v=vs.90%29.aspx>
Where can I find the Northwind database? | 2011/02/21 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/5061629",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/-1/"
] | Northwind doesn't come installed with SQL Server 2008. You can instead:
* [download *scripts* for creating the Northwind and pubs sample databases](http://www.microsoft.com/downloads/en/details.aspx?FamilyId=06616212-0356-46A0-8DA2-EEBC53A68034&displaylang=en).
* [download Northwind and pubs MDF/LDF from Microsoft](http://archive.msdn.microsoft.com/northwind/Release/ProjectReleases.aspx?ReleaseId=1401). The article is titled "SQL Server 2000 Sample Databases".
They come in SQL Server 2000 format / compatibility mode. Microsoft seems to have stopped using these 2 in favour of the new sample database for SQL Server 2008: AdventureWorks.
You can [download AdventureWorks 2008 R2 SR1](http://msftdbprodsamples.codeplex.com/releases/view/55926).
Microsoft has its [SQL Server Product Database samples at CodePlex](http://msftdbprodsamples.codeplex.com/). | Try this for a step by step tutorial on how to find the download and install the Northwind and Pubs databases for Sql Server 2008.
[northwind database sql server 2008](http://www.codeproject.com/KB/database/InstallingNorthwindAndPub.aspx) |
5,061,629 | I'm trying to find and create/import the Northwind database to practice my Linq-fu.
I cannot find it for the life of me, searching just turns me to this page, which in turn tells me to find it on the official page which isn't there.
<http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms227484%28v=vs.90%29.aspx>
Where can I find the Northwind database? | 2011/02/21 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/5061629",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/-1/"
] | Try this for a step by step tutorial on how to find the download and install the Northwind and Pubs databases for Sql Server 2008.
[northwind database sql server 2008](http://www.codeproject.com/KB/database/InstallingNorthwindAndPub.aspx) | For any edition of SQL SERVER. You can create the database yourself using Northwind database creation script.
Download Northwind.sql.zip from this site
<https://northwinddatabase.codeplex.com/downloads/get/269239>
then create a database called `Northwind` in your Sql Server then.
Unzip / decompress the file then open the sql file in Sql Server Management Studio
select all code (ctrl+a) then press execute. |
5,061,629 | I'm trying to find and create/import the Northwind database to practice my Linq-fu.
I cannot find it for the life of me, searching just turns me to this page, which in turn tells me to find it on the official page which isn't there.
<http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms227484%28v=vs.90%29.aspx>
Where can I find the Northwind database? | 2011/02/21 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/5061629",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/-1/"
] | Northwind doesn't come installed with SQL Server 2008. You can instead:
* [download *scripts* for creating the Northwind and pubs sample databases](http://www.microsoft.com/downloads/en/details.aspx?FamilyId=06616212-0356-46A0-8DA2-EEBC53A68034&displaylang=en).
* [download Northwind and pubs MDF/LDF from Microsoft](http://archive.msdn.microsoft.com/northwind/Release/ProjectReleases.aspx?ReleaseId=1401). The article is titled "SQL Server 2000 Sample Databases".
They come in SQL Server 2000 format / compatibility mode. Microsoft seems to have stopped using these 2 in favour of the new sample database for SQL Server 2008: AdventureWorks.
You can [download AdventureWorks 2008 R2 SR1](http://msftdbprodsamples.codeplex.com/releases/view/55926).
Microsoft has its [SQL Server Product Database samples at CodePlex](http://msftdbprodsamples.codeplex.com/). | For any edition of SQL SERVER. You can create the database yourself using Northwind database creation script.
Download Northwind.sql.zip from this site
<https://northwinddatabase.codeplex.com/downloads/get/269239>
then create a database called `Northwind` in your Sql Server then.
Unzip / decompress the file then open the sql file in Sql Server Management Studio
select all code (ctrl+a) then press execute. |
1,050,187 | I have a HP ProBook with Windows 10.
My keyboard just started acting super strange. When I press certain keys (shift, arrow keys, etc.), it acts weird; however, all the letter and number keys work fine.
I went to a laptop repair shop today and they said it seems to be a software problem.
They advised me to install Windows 7 instead of Windows 10 because they thought the keyboard driver in Windows 10 is defect or not compatible with my computer which came with Windows 7 pre-installed.
The weird thing is that it worked for a long time without any problems, but suddenly it stopped working. I had my computer turned off for some days and suddenly, the keyboard was back to normal without any problems. But it lasted only for a couple hours.
I have tried to change keyboard input language, and it seems to change the behavior of the keys; however, it is still not as it is supposed to be.
I have tried reinstalling drivers, but it says that it already has the most up to date drivers installed.
What can I do to find out what's wrong? And what can I do to repair it? Since it seems to not work to simply replace the keyboard, I have really no idea what to do.
I don't have a Windows 7 CD, so I don't know how to downgrade from Windows 10 to Windows 7.
Edit
====
When I press SHIFT, my computer will automatically go one line down and highlight, so it seems that it presses the down arrow key while it holds the shift button.
If I press right arrow key, the screen rotates just like if I press ALT GR + RIGHT on a normal computer.
If I press CTRL in a browser window, it zooms out, so it indicates that the minus/hyphen key is being pressed.
I have checked on-screen keyboard, and it seems no keys are actually being pressed, so I don't know why it acts like this.
And as previously mentioned, some of the keys' strange behavior change to another strange behavior if I use another keyboard input language. | 2016/03/08 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/1050187",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/393183/"
] | I'm seeing this on two different Win10 boxes.
I think it's related (somehow) to the April 2018 Windows update.
On one machine whenever you type the letter "d" into an Excel cell, Excel exits (!). This was fixed by reverting to the previous version of Windows.
On another machine, whenever I type "We" into the first line of an email, the "We" turns immediately into "INd".
Pretty strange. | Happen on both my laptop and desktop. When it happens I click "alt + tab" then click on a program that seems to fix it. |
1,050,187 | I have a HP ProBook with Windows 10.
My keyboard just started acting super strange. When I press certain keys (shift, arrow keys, etc.), it acts weird; however, all the letter and number keys work fine.
I went to a laptop repair shop today and they said it seems to be a software problem.
They advised me to install Windows 7 instead of Windows 10 because they thought the keyboard driver in Windows 10 is defect or not compatible with my computer which came with Windows 7 pre-installed.
The weird thing is that it worked for a long time without any problems, but suddenly it stopped working. I had my computer turned off for some days and suddenly, the keyboard was back to normal without any problems. But it lasted only for a couple hours.
I have tried to change keyboard input language, and it seems to change the behavior of the keys; however, it is still not as it is supposed to be.
I have tried reinstalling drivers, but it says that it already has the most up to date drivers installed.
What can I do to find out what's wrong? And what can I do to repair it? Since it seems to not work to simply replace the keyboard, I have really no idea what to do.
I don't have a Windows 7 CD, so I don't know how to downgrade from Windows 10 to Windows 7.
Edit
====
When I press SHIFT, my computer will automatically go one line down and highlight, so it seems that it presses the down arrow key while it holds the shift button.
If I press right arrow key, the screen rotates just like if I press ALT GR + RIGHT on a normal computer.
If I press CTRL in a browser window, it zooms out, so it indicates that the minus/hyphen key is being pressed.
I have checked on-screen keyboard, and it seems no keys are actually being pressed, so I don't know why it acts like this.
And as previously mentioned, some of the keys' strange behavior change to another strange behavior if I use another keyboard input language. | 2016/03/08 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/1050187",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/393183/"
] | Try to install a new language. In my case, for example, the problem didn't get solved until I installed English (United Kingdom) Language although English (United States) was already installed. | maybe its a little late, I started having this issues too. It was a Windows update that was causing this. Uninstalled it and everything back to normal. Hope it helps. |
1,050,187 | I have a HP ProBook with Windows 10.
My keyboard just started acting super strange. When I press certain keys (shift, arrow keys, etc.), it acts weird; however, all the letter and number keys work fine.
I went to a laptop repair shop today and they said it seems to be a software problem.
They advised me to install Windows 7 instead of Windows 10 because they thought the keyboard driver in Windows 10 is defect or not compatible with my computer which came with Windows 7 pre-installed.
The weird thing is that it worked for a long time without any problems, but suddenly it stopped working. I had my computer turned off for some days and suddenly, the keyboard was back to normal without any problems. But it lasted only for a couple hours.
I have tried to change keyboard input language, and it seems to change the behavior of the keys; however, it is still not as it is supposed to be.
I have tried reinstalling drivers, but it says that it already has the most up to date drivers installed.
What can I do to find out what's wrong? And what can I do to repair it? Since it seems to not work to simply replace the keyboard, I have really no idea what to do.
I don't have a Windows 7 CD, so I don't know how to downgrade from Windows 10 to Windows 7.
Edit
====
When I press SHIFT, my computer will automatically go one line down and highlight, so it seems that it presses the down arrow key while it holds the shift button.
If I press right arrow key, the screen rotates just like if I press ALT GR + RIGHT on a normal computer.
If I press CTRL in a browser window, it zooms out, so it indicates that the minus/hyphen key is being pressed.
I have checked on-screen keyboard, and it seems no keys are actually being pressed, so I don't know why it acts like this.
And as previously mentioned, some of the keys' strange behavior change to another strange behavior if I use another keyboard input language. | 2016/03/08 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/1050187",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/393183/"
] | Try to install a new language. In my case, for example, the problem didn't get solved until I installed English (United Kingdom) Language although English (United States) was already installed. | Happen on both my laptop and desktop. When it happens I click "alt + tab" then click on a program that seems to fix it. |
1,050,187 | I have a HP ProBook with Windows 10.
My keyboard just started acting super strange. When I press certain keys (shift, arrow keys, etc.), it acts weird; however, all the letter and number keys work fine.
I went to a laptop repair shop today and they said it seems to be a software problem.
They advised me to install Windows 7 instead of Windows 10 because they thought the keyboard driver in Windows 10 is defect or not compatible with my computer which came with Windows 7 pre-installed.
The weird thing is that it worked for a long time without any problems, but suddenly it stopped working. I had my computer turned off for some days and suddenly, the keyboard was back to normal without any problems. But it lasted only for a couple hours.
I have tried to change keyboard input language, and it seems to change the behavior of the keys; however, it is still not as it is supposed to be.
I have tried reinstalling drivers, but it says that it already has the most up to date drivers installed.
What can I do to find out what's wrong? And what can I do to repair it? Since it seems to not work to simply replace the keyboard, I have really no idea what to do.
I don't have a Windows 7 CD, so I don't know how to downgrade from Windows 10 to Windows 7.
Edit
====
When I press SHIFT, my computer will automatically go one line down and highlight, so it seems that it presses the down arrow key while it holds the shift button.
If I press right arrow key, the screen rotates just like if I press ALT GR + RIGHT on a normal computer.
If I press CTRL in a browser window, it zooms out, so it indicates that the minus/hyphen key is being pressed.
I have checked on-screen keyboard, and it seems no keys are actually being pressed, so I don't know why it acts like this.
And as previously mentioned, some of the keys' strange behavior change to another strange behavior if I use another keyboard input language. | 2016/03/08 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/1050187",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/393183/"
] | @Jamgreen: ok I got it it's the graphic driver hotkey enabled. disable the same. If its intel Graphics, right click-> graphics options-> hot key -> disable.
same kind of Steps for other graphics driver. | Try a USB keyboard and also try whether the issue is reproducible. If the issue is not reproducible, disable the laptop keyboard and use the USB.
If the issue is also happening on the USB keyboard check that:
1. The Windows Speech Recognition is turned off
2. Sticky Keys is turned off |
1,050,187 | I have a HP ProBook with Windows 10.
My keyboard just started acting super strange. When I press certain keys (shift, arrow keys, etc.), it acts weird; however, all the letter and number keys work fine.
I went to a laptop repair shop today and they said it seems to be a software problem.
They advised me to install Windows 7 instead of Windows 10 because they thought the keyboard driver in Windows 10 is defect or not compatible with my computer which came with Windows 7 pre-installed.
The weird thing is that it worked for a long time without any problems, but suddenly it stopped working. I had my computer turned off for some days and suddenly, the keyboard was back to normal without any problems. But it lasted only for a couple hours.
I have tried to change keyboard input language, and it seems to change the behavior of the keys; however, it is still not as it is supposed to be.
I have tried reinstalling drivers, but it says that it already has the most up to date drivers installed.
What can I do to find out what's wrong? And what can I do to repair it? Since it seems to not work to simply replace the keyboard, I have really no idea what to do.
I don't have a Windows 7 CD, so I don't know how to downgrade from Windows 10 to Windows 7.
Edit
====
When I press SHIFT, my computer will automatically go one line down and highlight, so it seems that it presses the down arrow key while it holds the shift button.
If I press right arrow key, the screen rotates just like if I press ALT GR + RIGHT on a normal computer.
If I press CTRL in a browser window, it zooms out, so it indicates that the minus/hyphen key is being pressed.
I have checked on-screen keyboard, and it seems no keys are actually being pressed, so I don't know why it acts like this.
And as previously mentioned, some of the keys' strange behavior change to another strange behavior if I use another keyboard input language. | 2016/03/08 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/1050187",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/393183/"
] | Try a USB keyboard and also try whether the issue is reproducible. If the issue is not reproducible, disable the laptop keyboard and use the USB.
If the issue is also happening on the USB keyboard check that:
1. The Windows Speech Recognition is turned off
2. Sticky Keys is turned off | Happen on both my laptop and desktop. When it happens I click "alt + tab" then click on a program that seems to fix it. |
1,050,187 | I have a HP ProBook with Windows 10.
My keyboard just started acting super strange. When I press certain keys (shift, arrow keys, etc.), it acts weird; however, all the letter and number keys work fine.
I went to a laptop repair shop today and they said it seems to be a software problem.
They advised me to install Windows 7 instead of Windows 10 because they thought the keyboard driver in Windows 10 is defect or not compatible with my computer which came with Windows 7 pre-installed.
The weird thing is that it worked for a long time without any problems, but suddenly it stopped working. I had my computer turned off for some days and suddenly, the keyboard was back to normal without any problems. But it lasted only for a couple hours.
I have tried to change keyboard input language, and it seems to change the behavior of the keys; however, it is still not as it is supposed to be.
I have tried reinstalling drivers, but it says that it already has the most up to date drivers installed.
What can I do to find out what's wrong? And what can I do to repair it? Since it seems to not work to simply replace the keyboard, I have really no idea what to do.
I don't have a Windows 7 CD, so I don't know how to downgrade from Windows 10 to Windows 7.
Edit
====
When I press SHIFT, my computer will automatically go one line down and highlight, so it seems that it presses the down arrow key while it holds the shift button.
If I press right arrow key, the screen rotates just like if I press ALT GR + RIGHT on a normal computer.
If I press CTRL in a browser window, it zooms out, so it indicates that the minus/hyphen key is being pressed.
I have checked on-screen keyboard, and it seems no keys are actually being pressed, so I don't know why it acts like this.
And as previously mentioned, some of the keys' strange behavior change to another strange behavior if I use another keyboard input language. | 2016/03/08 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/1050187",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/393183/"
] | Try a USB keyboard and also try whether the issue is reproducible. If the issue is not reproducible, disable the laptop keyboard and use the USB.
If the issue is also happening on the USB keyboard check that:
1. The Windows Speech Recognition is turned off
2. Sticky Keys is turned off | maybe its a little late, I started having this issues too. It was a Windows update that was causing this. Uninstalled it and everything back to normal. Hope it helps. |
1,050,187 | I have a HP ProBook with Windows 10.
My keyboard just started acting super strange. When I press certain keys (shift, arrow keys, etc.), it acts weird; however, all the letter and number keys work fine.
I went to a laptop repair shop today and they said it seems to be a software problem.
They advised me to install Windows 7 instead of Windows 10 because they thought the keyboard driver in Windows 10 is defect or not compatible with my computer which came with Windows 7 pre-installed.
The weird thing is that it worked for a long time without any problems, but suddenly it stopped working. I had my computer turned off for some days and suddenly, the keyboard was back to normal without any problems. But it lasted only for a couple hours.
I have tried to change keyboard input language, and it seems to change the behavior of the keys; however, it is still not as it is supposed to be.
I have tried reinstalling drivers, but it says that it already has the most up to date drivers installed.
What can I do to find out what's wrong? And what can I do to repair it? Since it seems to not work to simply replace the keyboard, I have really no idea what to do.
I don't have a Windows 7 CD, so I don't know how to downgrade from Windows 10 to Windows 7.
Edit
====
When I press SHIFT, my computer will automatically go one line down and highlight, so it seems that it presses the down arrow key while it holds the shift button.
If I press right arrow key, the screen rotates just like if I press ALT GR + RIGHT on a normal computer.
If I press CTRL in a browser window, it zooms out, so it indicates that the minus/hyphen key is being pressed.
I have checked on-screen keyboard, and it seems no keys are actually being pressed, so I don't know why it acts like this.
And as previously mentioned, some of the keys' strange behavior change to another strange behavior if I use another keyboard input language. | 2016/03/08 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/1050187",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/393183/"
] | @Jamgreen: ok I got it it's the graphic driver hotkey enabled. disable the same. If its intel Graphics, right click-> graphics options-> hot key -> disable.
same kind of Steps for other graphics driver. | I'm seeing this on two different Win10 boxes.
I think it's related (somehow) to the April 2018 Windows update.
On one machine whenever you type the letter "d" into an Excel cell, Excel exits (!). This was fixed by reverting to the previous version of Windows.
On another machine, whenever I type "We" into the first line of an email, the "We" turns immediately into "INd".
Pretty strange. |
1,050,187 | I have a HP ProBook with Windows 10.
My keyboard just started acting super strange. When I press certain keys (shift, arrow keys, etc.), it acts weird; however, all the letter and number keys work fine.
I went to a laptop repair shop today and they said it seems to be a software problem.
They advised me to install Windows 7 instead of Windows 10 because they thought the keyboard driver in Windows 10 is defect or not compatible with my computer which came with Windows 7 pre-installed.
The weird thing is that it worked for a long time without any problems, but suddenly it stopped working. I had my computer turned off for some days and suddenly, the keyboard was back to normal without any problems. But it lasted only for a couple hours.
I have tried to change keyboard input language, and it seems to change the behavior of the keys; however, it is still not as it is supposed to be.
I have tried reinstalling drivers, but it says that it already has the most up to date drivers installed.
What can I do to find out what's wrong? And what can I do to repair it? Since it seems to not work to simply replace the keyboard, I have really no idea what to do.
I don't have a Windows 7 CD, so I don't know how to downgrade from Windows 10 to Windows 7.
Edit
====
When I press SHIFT, my computer will automatically go one line down and highlight, so it seems that it presses the down arrow key while it holds the shift button.
If I press right arrow key, the screen rotates just like if I press ALT GR + RIGHT on a normal computer.
If I press CTRL in a browser window, it zooms out, so it indicates that the minus/hyphen key is being pressed.
I have checked on-screen keyboard, and it seems no keys are actually being pressed, so I don't know why it acts like this.
And as previously mentioned, some of the keys' strange behavior change to another strange behavior if I use another keyboard input language. | 2016/03/08 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/1050187",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/393183/"
] | I'm seeing this on two different Win10 boxes.
I think it's related (somehow) to the April 2018 Windows update.
On one machine whenever you type the letter "d" into an Excel cell, Excel exits (!). This was fixed by reverting to the previous version of Windows.
On another machine, whenever I type "We" into the first line of an email, the "We" turns immediately into "INd".
Pretty strange. | maybe its a little late, I started having this issues too. It was a Windows update that was causing this. Uninstalled it and everything back to normal. Hope it helps. |
1,050,187 | I have a HP ProBook with Windows 10.
My keyboard just started acting super strange. When I press certain keys (shift, arrow keys, etc.), it acts weird; however, all the letter and number keys work fine.
I went to a laptop repair shop today and they said it seems to be a software problem.
They advised me to install Windows 7 instead of Windows 10 because they thought the keyboard driver in Windows 10 is defect or not compatible with my computer which came with Windows 7 pre-installed.
The weird thing is that it worked for a long time without any problems, but suddenly it stopped working. I had my computer turned off for some days and suddenly, the keyboard was back to normal without any problems. But it lasted only for a couple hours.
I have tried to change keyboard input language, and it seems to change the behavior of the keys; however, it is still not as it is supposed to be.
I have tried reinstalling drivers, but it says that it already has the most up to date drivers installed.
What can I do to find out what's wrong? And what can I do to repair it? Since it seems to not work to simply replace the keyboard, I have really no idea what to do.
I don't have a Windows 7 CD, so I don't know how to downgrade from Windows 10 to Windows 7.
Edit
====
When I press SHIFT, my computer will automatically go one line down and highlight, so it seems that it presses the down arrow key while it holds the shift button.
If I press right arrow key, the screen rotates just like if I press ALT GR + RIGHT on a normal computer.
If I press CTRL in a browser window, it zooms out, so it indicates that the minus/hyphen key is being pressed.
I have checked on-screen keyboard, and it seems no keys are actually being pressed, so I don't know why it acts like this.
And as previously mentioned, some of the keys' strange behavior change to another strange behavior if I use another keyboard input language. | 2016/03/08 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/1050187",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/393183/"
] | @Jamgreen: ok I got it it's the graphic driver hotkey enabled. disable the same. If its intel Graphics, right click-> graphics options-> hot key -> disable.
same kind of Steps for other graphics driver. | Try to install a new language. In my case, for example, the problem didn't get solved until I installed English (United Kingdom) Language although English (United States) was already installed. |
1,050,187 | I have a HP ProBook with Windows 10.
My keyboard just started acting super strange. When I press certain keys (shift, arrow keys, etc.), it acts weird; however, all the letter and number keys work fine.
I went to a laptop repair shop today and they said it seems to be a software problem.
They advised me to install Windows 7 instead of Windows 10 because they thought the keyboard driver in Windows 10 is defect or not compatible with my computer which came with Windows 7 pre-installed.
The weird thing is that it worked for a long time without any problems, but suddenly it stopped working. I had my computer turned off for some days and suddenly, the keyboard was back to normal without any problems. But it lasted only for a couple hours.
I have tried to change keyboard input language, and it seems to change the behavior of the keys; however, it is still not as it is supposed to be.
I have tried reinstalling drivers, but it says that it already has the most up to date drivers installed.
What can I do to find out what's wrong? And what can I do to repair it? Since it seems to not work to simply replace the keyboard, I have really no idea what to do.
I don't have a Windows 7 CD, so I don't know how to downgrade from Windows 10 to Windows 7.
Edit
====
When I press SHIFT, my computer will automatically go one line down and highlight, so it seems that it presses the down arrow key while it holds the shift button.
If I press right arrow key, the screen rotates just like if I press ALT GR + RIGHT on a normal computer.
If I press CTRL in a browser window, it zooms out, so it indicates that the minus/hyphen key is being pressed.
I have checked on-screen keyboard, and it seems no keys are actually being pressed, so I don't know why it acts like this.
And as previously mentioned, some of the keys' strange behavior change to another strange behavior if I use another keyboard input language. | 2016/03/08 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/1050187",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/393183/"
] | @Jamgreen: ok I got it it's the graphic driver hotkey enabled. disable the same. If its intel Graphics, right click-> graphics options-> hot key -> disable.
same kind of Steps for other graphics driver. | Happen on both my laptop and desktop. When it happens I click "alt + tab" then click on a program that seems to fix it. |
16,437,761 | When we are making images for android app, I wanted to know which way is correct for making **XHDPI**, **HDPI**, **MDPI**, **LDPI**. (both may be wrong)
**The first way** is get the original image, open in photoshop, change the DPI to 320 (the original has 326 DPI) then save the image as XHDPI, then change the DPI to 240 for HDPI, 160 for MDPI, 120 for LDPI.
**Second way**, open the original image, then half the image size (without changing the DPI) and that would be MDPI, resize the image to 0.75 of MDPI's size and that would be LDPI, resize it to 1.5 of MDPI's size and that would be HDPI.
So basically, first way is change the DPI and photoshop automatically resizes the image, the second way is keep the dpi same and manually resize the image.
If both ways are wrong, please let me know the correct way to create these images in photoshop. | 2013/05/08 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/16437761",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/2361731/"
] | Sorry, i'm a little bit late but this can help other people too.
I use the free plugin ["Cut&Slice me"](http://www.cutandslice.me/).
It's very easy to use.
Just click on the layer you want to export and the plugin automatically create folders (drawable-xhdpi, drawable-hdpi...) and put them on.
I hope this can help you ;) | I guess you can use the [asset studio](http://android-ui-utils.googlecode.com/hg/asset-studio/dist/index.html) webapp instead. It's really convenient.
Choose the option you need depending on the use you are going to give to the icons (it's not the same a notification icon than a launcher icon, for instance). |
930 | The following stanza is from Robert Frost's *Into My Own*:
>
> One of my wishes is that those dark trees,
>
> So old and firm they scarcely show the breeze,
>
> Were not, as ’twere, the merest mask of gloom,
>
> But stretched away unto the **edge of doom**.
>
>
>
(Emphasis mine.)
I am guessing that the "edge of doom" is referring to the end of time -- as in, The trees are stretching into the end of time and space. Is this reading correct? Where does the phrase the "edge of doom" come from? At first when I read it, I thought that the "edge of doom" was a dark reference (similar to "mask of gloom"), but it seems to be closer to a wedding vow, such as "Our marriage will last unto the edge of doom". | 2017/01/25 | [
"https://literature.stackexchange.com/questions/930",
"https://literature.stackexchange.com",
"https://literature.stackexchange.com/users/286/"
] | Your reading of the poem makes sense. It might help to know that the dark trees are symbolizing the future in this poem. The second line tells us that these trees rarely show a breeze. This means that we cannot predict the future.
In the fourth line, Frost expresses his wish that those dark trees in the first line were stretched away to the edge of doom. This means that he hoped that the future is stretched far away. So, the edge of doom means here far away (in time). This seems consistent with your view, since it is also used in that way in the sentence you quoted, "Our marriage will last unto the edge of doom".
Based on: [Analysis of "Into My Own"](https://letterpile.com/writing/Robert-Frosts-Into-My-Own-Analysis). | The author could be alluding to Shakespeare's [*Macbeth* (Act IV, Scene 1, with the witches)](http://www.gutenberg.org/cache/epub/2264/pg2264.html) :
>
> A shew of eight Kings, and Banquo last, with a glasse in his hand.
>
>
> Macb. Thou art too like the Spirit of Banquo: Down:
>
>
> Thy Crowne do's seare mine Eye-bals. And thy haire
>
>
> Thou other Gold-bound-brow, is like the first:
>
>
> A third, is like the former. **Filthy Hagges**,
>
>
> Why do you shew me this? - A fourth? Start eyes!
>
>
> **What will the Line stretch out to'th' cracke of Doome?**
>
>
>
[*Macbeth* (Act IV, Scene 1, emphasis mine)](http://www.gutenberg.org/cache/epub/2264/pg2264.html)
Here, Shakespeare is using the verb *stretch* in a very similar manner, having a character inquire of the witches whether something (in this case, a family dynasty of kings, each succeeding his father, which have appeared in an apparition) will last until doomsday.
The "Filthy Hagges" (i.e. the witches) could be being referenced or alluded to by Frost's gloomy imagery that could be an apt metaphor to describe a stereotypical witch's lair.
Earlier in this scene in Macbeth, we see some tree and forest related imagery, which could map to Frost's use of arboreal language:
>
> Thunder 3 Apparation, a **Childe Crowned, with a Tree in his hand**.
>
>
> What is this, that rises like the issue of a King,
>
>
> And weares vpon his Baby-brow, the round
>
>
> And top of Soueraignty?
> All. Listen, but speake not too't
>
>
> 3 Appar. Be Lyon metled, proud, and take no care:
>
>
> Who chafes, who frets, or where Conspirers are:
>
>
> Macbeth shall neuer vanquish'd be, vntill
>
>
> **Great Byrnam Wood, to high Dunsmane Hill**
>
>
> **Shall come against him.**
>
>
>
[*Macbeth* (Act IV, Scene 1, emphasis mine)](http://www.gutenberg.org/cache/epub/2264/pg2264.html) |
930 | The following stanza is from Robert Frost's *Into My Own*:
>
> One of my wishes is that those dark trees,
>
> So old and firm they scarcely show the breeze,
>
> Were not, as ’twere, the merest mask of gloom,
>
> But stretched away unto the **edge of doom**.
>
>
>
(Emphasis mine.)
I am guessing that the "edge of doom" is referring to the end of time -- as in, The trees are stretching into the end of time and space. Is this reading correct? Where does the phrase the "edge of doom" come from? At first when I read it, I thought that the "edge of doom" was a dark reference (similar to "mask of gloom"), but it seems to be closer to a wedding vow, such as "Our marriage will last unto the edge of doom". | 2017/01/25 | [
"https://literature.stackexchange.com/questions/930",
"https://literature.stackexchange.com",
"https://literature.stackexchange.com/users/286/"
] | Your reading of the poem makes sense. It might help to know that the dark trees are symbolizing the future in this poem. The second line tells us that these trees rarely show a breeze. This means that we cannot predict the future.
In the fourth line, Frost expresses his wish that those dark trees in the first line were stretched away to the edge of doom. This means that he hoped that the future is stretched far away. So, the edge of doom means here far away (in time). This seems consistent with your view, since it is also used in that way in the sentence you quoted, "Our marriage will last unto the edge of doom".
Based on: [Analysis of "Into My Own"](https://letterpile.com/writing/Robert-Frosts-Into-My-Own-Analysis). | In Sonnet 116 of Shakespeare, we also find the phrase "the edge of doom":
>
> Love's not Time's fool, though rosy lips and cheeks
>
> Within his bending sickle's compass come;
>
> Love alters not with his brief hours and weeks,
>
> But bears it out even to **the edge of doom**.
>
>
>
Indeed, it suggests "the end of time", since according to the sonnet, love could not be altered by hours or weeks (weight of time), nevertheless Love will remain and bear the time out until the end of time and space. |
930 | The following stanza is from Robert Frost's *Into My Own*:
>
> One of my wishes is that those dark trees,
>
> So old and firm they scarcely show the breeze,
>
> Were not, as ’twere, the merest mask of gloom,
>
> But stretched away unto the **edge of doom**.
>
>
>
(Emphasis mine.)
I am guessing that the "edge of doom" is referring to the end of time -- as in, The trees are stretching into the end of time and space. Is this reading correct? Where does the phrase the "edge of doom" come from? At first when I read it, I thought that the "edge of doom" was a dark reference (similar to "mask of gloom"), but it seems to be closer to a wedding vow, such as "Our marriage will last unto the edge of doom". | 2017/01/25 | [
"https://literature.stackexchange.com/questions/930",
"https://literature.stackexchange.com",
"https://literature.stackexchange.com/users/286/"
] | Your reading of the poem makes sense. It might help to know that the dark trees are symbolizing the future in this poem. The second line tells us that these trees rarely show a breeze. This means that we cannot predict the future.
In the fourth line, Frost expresses his wish that those dark trees in the first line were stretched away to the edge of doom. This means that he hoped that the future is stretched far away. So, the edge of doom means here far away (in time). This seems consistent with your view, since it is also used in that way in the sentence you quoted, "Our marriage will last unto the edge of doom".
Based on: [Analysis of "Into My Own"](https://letterpile.com/writing/Robert-Frosts-Into-My-Own-Analysis). | The phrase “the edge of doom” comes from Shakespeare’s [sonnet 116](https://archive.org/details/shakespearesson01shakgoog/page/n108/mode/2up):
>
> Loue alters not with his breefe houres and weekes,
>
> But beares it out euen to the edge of doome
>
>
>
“Doom” means “fate” or “judgement” and here it is being used with the meaning:
>
> **Doom, *n.*, 6.** The last or great Judgement at the end of the world
>
>
> *Oxford English Dictionary*
>
>
>
So that “to the edge of doom” means “until the end of the world”.
In the context of ‘[Into My Own](https://www.bartleby.com/117/1.html)’ the phrase turns the dimension of space (the trees stretching away into the distance) into a metaphor for the passage of time until the end of the world, and the speaker’s journey through the trees into a metaphor for his life and poetic career. And just as the speaker in Shakespeare’s sonnet says that true love never alters, so the speaker in ‘Into My Own’ says that *he* will never alter:
>
> They would not find me changed from him they knew—
>
> Only more sure of all I thought was true.
>
>
>
One way to read this is that the speaker is determined to stick to his own style of writing poetry, regardless of the judgement or “doom” of his critics. |
930 | The following stanza is from Robert Frost's *Into My Own*:
>
> One of my wishes is that those dark trees,
>
> So old and firm they scarcely show the breeze,
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> Were not, as ’twere, the merest mask of gloom,
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> But stretched away unto the **edge of doom**.
>
>
>
(Emphasis mine.)
I am guessing that the "edge of doom" is referring to the end of time -- as in, The trees are stretching into the end of time and space. Is this reading correct? Where does the phrase the "edge of doom" come from? At first when I read it, I thought that the "edge of doom" was a dark reference (similar to "mask of gloom"), but it seems to be closer to a wedding vow, such as "Our marriage will last unto the edge of doom". | 2017/01/25 | [
"https://literature.stackexchange.com/questions/930",
"https://literature.stackexchange.com",
"https://literature.stackexchange.com/users/286/"
] | The author could be alluding to Shakespeare's [*Macbeth* (Act IV, Scene 1, with the witches)](http://www.gutenberg.org/cache/epub/2264/pg2264.html) :
>
> A shew of eight Kings, and Banquo last, with a glasse in his hand.
>
>
> Macb. Thou art too like the Spirit of Banquo: Down:
>
>
> Thy Crowne do's seare mine Eye-bals. And thy haire
>
>
> Thou other Gold-bound-brow, is like the first:
>
>
> A third, is like the former. **Filthy Hagges**,
>
>
> Why do you shew me this? - A fourth? Start eyes!
>
>
> **What will the Line stretch out to'th' cracke of Doome?**
>
>
>
[*Macbeth* (Act IV, Scene 1, emphasis mine)](http://www.gutenberg.org/cache/epub/2264/pg2264.html)
Here, Shakespeare is using the verb *stretch* in a very similar manner, having a character inquire of the witches whether something (in this case, a family dynasty of kings, each succeeding his father, which have appeared in an apparition) will last until doomsday.
The "Filthy Hagges" (i.e. the witches) could be being referenced or alluded to by Frost's gloomy imagery that could be an apt metaphor to describe a stereotypical witch's lair.
Earlier in this scene in Macbeth, we see some tree and forest related imagery, which could map to Frost's use of arboreal language:
>
> Thunder 3 Apparation, a **Childe Crowned, with a Tree in his hand**.
>
>
> What is this, that rises like the issue of a King,
>
>
> And weares vpon his Baby-brow, the round
>
>
> And top of Soueraignty?
> All. Listen, but speake not too't
>
>
> 3 Appar. Be Lyon metled, proud, and take no care:
>
>
> Who chafes, who frets, or where Conspirers are:
>
>
> Macbeth shall neuer vanquish'd be, vntill
>
>
> **Great Byrnam Wood, to high Dunsmane Hill**
>
>
> **Shall come against him.**
>
>
>
[*Macbeth* (Act IV, Scene 1, emphasis mine)](http://www.gutenberg.org/cache/epub/2264/pg2264.html) | The phrase “the edge of doom” comes from Shakespeare’s [sonnet 116](https://archive.org/details/shakespearesson01shakgoog/page/n108/mode/2up):
>
> Loue alters not with his breefe houres and weekes,
>
> But beares it out euen to the edge of doome
>
>
>
“Doom” means “fate” or “judgement” and here it is being used with the meaning:
>
> **Doom, *n.*, 6.** The last or great Judgement at the end of the world
>
>
> *Oxford English Dictionary*
>
>
>
So that “to the edge of doom” means “until the end of the world”.
In the context of ‘[Into My Own](https://www.bartleby.com/117/1.html)’ the phrase turns the dimension of space (the trees stretching away into the distance) into a metaphor for the passage of time until the end of the world, and the speaker’s journey through the trees into a metaphor for his life and poetic career. And just as the speaker in Shakespeare’s sonnet says that true love never alters, so the speaker in ‘Into My Own’ says that *he* will never alter:
>
> They would not find me changed from him they knew—
>
> Only more sure of all I thought was true.
>
>
>
One way to read this is that the speaker is determined to stick to his own style of writing poetry, regardless of the judgement or “doom” of his critics. |
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