qid int64 1 74.7M | question stringlengths 12 33.8k | date stringlengths 10 10 | metadata list | response_j stringlengths 0 115k | response_k stringlengths 2 98.3k |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
6,743,605 | I have an asp page that contains a lot of data, images and objects -- and I want to know the size and the weight of those images and objects.
Is there any tool that can give me these kinds of details? | 2011/07/19 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/6743605",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/851458/"
] | You can use [YSlow](http://developer.yahoo.com/yslow/) in Firefox (and maybe other browsers); it will give you the info you need, separated by type. It also gives lots of information regarding cache usage and good practices | You might also try [Fiddler](http://www.fiddler2.com/fiddler2/). It tell you the size (in bytes) of each script, image, css, html, etc loaded during a particular page load. |
92,510 | I have an instrumental here (not particularly a fan of, but great reference for this question.)
This instrumental starts off with and contains a synth pluck with a simple melody. My interest in this synth pluck is how a single sound can fill out the sound spectrum all by itself.
What is the process behind achieving this in mixing? I suspect its a reverb with a long decay but i could be completely wrong.
How is it done?
Thank you! | 2019/11/30 | [
"https://music.stackexchange.com/questions/92510",
"https://music.stackexchange.com",
"https://music.stackexchange.com/users/60432/"
] | From my answer to [your stereo reverb question](https://music.stackexchange.com/questions/92393/what-is-the-difference-in-using-mono-reverb-vs-stereo-reverb)
>
> It's worth noting that (mono-in stereo-out) stereo reverb is one way
> to artificially create a stereo field from a mono input. Other
> stereoization methods include comb filtering with a delay on one of
> the stereo channels, complementary comb-shaped EQ curves for
> left/right, and special stereo chorus effects.
>
>
>
Here's an example of how to widen a sound with Ableton's stock chorus and reverb: | From the comments you seem to be asking not about the frequency spectrum, but about the stereo field.
Yes, this is probably done by adding pseudo-stereo information using a 'stereo reverb' plugin.
It conceivably COULD have been achieved by recording the (marimba?) sound in a very reverberant room with stereo microphones, but I suspect it's a dry sample with artificial reverb applied. |
377,121 | This is directly related to my [previous question](https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/376848/how-can-i-modify-this-opamp-circuits-logic), so it requires to first have a look at that. And the below LTspice implementation is based on Andy Aka's answer. The following circuit works in LTspice. But I have some observations and questions before I solder it on a board.
First of all, I would like to mention that since I couldn't find the SPICE model for DG419 (analog SPDT switch IC), I made an ADG419 from an ADG411. I read they use the same components inside. So I just needed to invert one input and tie two outputs and it works and mimics ADG419.
A 10k potentiometer Rth will set the threshold voltage, and another 10k pot Rset will set the pre-set voltage Vset.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/SY6mj.png)
(left-click to enlarge the schematics)
Here is the 0-10V DC sweep:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/NhOFj.png)
And here is a transient analysis plot for 0-10V in 1 sec (notice the glitch during the comparator action):
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/Hgx6o.png)
And here is the change at Vth during the comparator action (voltage at the node between R2 and Rth):
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/id4jv.png)
**My questions are:**
1. Is interfacing the comparator LM311 output to the ADG419's input fine this way as in the schematics?
2. Is that glitch the product of the change in Vth in comparator action? And can that be mitigated? (I don't see the glitch in DC sweep)
3. Is there any fundamental problem with this circuit or resistor values? Or any peculiarity. For example I'm not sure whether R4 is necessary? (I found it from a circuit I made years ago so I don't remember why it is there.)
**Edit:**
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/QSqu9.png) | 2018/05/29 | [
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/377121",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/16307/"
] | High or low charges on a stored lithium battery stress it, even with the battery otherwise idle. The best way to store lithium-ion or lipo is at about half charge and close to 0C (32F) without actually freezing it. Note that there's a lot of superstition about batteries, and you'll get different answers from different places, so don't be afraid to verify.
Also:
* Charge only at room temperature
* Use at room temperature or slightly below
* You'll get a lot more charge cycles if you keep it between 20-80% charge.
<http://batteryuniversity.com/learn/article/how_to_prolong_lithium_based_batteries> is a good detailed source. | All lithium ion cells will have a data sheet from the manufacturer almost always available online.
The full data sheets will define the manufacturer's recommended parameters for a "standard charge" and for a "standard discharge", and often for rapid charge and maximum continuous discharge as well. They will also list the guaranteed remaining capacity after "x" number of these standard charge and standard discharge cycles and the temperature and length of time the cell was allowed to rest in between each charge and discharge. Obviously its in the manufacturer's best interest to use the method that allows them to advertise the best cycle life. The shortest amount of time I've seen a manufacturer use is 15 minutes, the longest 1 hour. The rest period is often longer for one stage vs another, and the rapid charge and rapid discharges usually have longer rest periods as well.
If you know what cells are in your battery pack you can check the manufacturer's recommended rest period. If don't know 30 minutes will cover most cells. 15 minutes is the lowest I've seen recommended. And these are at fairly low charge and discharge rates, usually something like 0.5C charge and 0.2C discharge, with temperature maintain at 25°C |
919,528 | it's a bit long since I've done some research and loged my "findings"
but the question is only 2 lines and bolded...
I have searched anywhere and I'm stacked between C# and SQL\_SERVER:
I need to run a very big stored procedure which takes over 30 minutes
it got steps and I want to notify the dot.net on which step the SP is working now... some kind of status report.
from the SQL\_SERVER side I think I got it..
RAISERROR('HELLO WORLD.', 10, 1) with nowait
when the error level is less then 11 it is a warning
when the error level is between 11-19 it is an exception that can be handled
when the error level is greater then 19 it is a "fatal" error closing the connection warning
So I use 10 - I want to send a warning - that will not fail the run.
On the .net side I'm lost...
I read about threading, about RPC, about events and even... about a flag for framework above 1.0
I **need a complete code with complete settings that get the following job done:
Call a stored procedure and w h i l e executing it report status (while - not after!!!)**
I think that the best related information I got so far is:
geekswithblogs.net/mrnat/archive/2004/09/20/11431.aspx
www.eggheadcafe.com/forumarchives/NETFrameworkADONET/Nov2005/post24657346.asp
www.dotnet247.com/247reference/msgs/54/273728.aspx
msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms178592.aspx
www.devnewsgroups.net/group/microsoft.public.dotnet.framework.adonet/topic37218.aspx
If you can give a working example or refer me to a project in a site like(stackoverflow/codeproject etc.) of a SP which returns "Hello World" - during executing of a SP I'll be so grateful - right now I'm clicking the button and pray... and I really prefer the illusion of being in control :)
Thanks
And sorry for the story | 2009/05/28 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/919528",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/-1/"
] | Create a table that stores the current step number of your process, and have your process write this table at each step. Then you can either poll the 'current step' or set a SQLCacheDependency. | All you need is to catch **SqlException** then you can have
1. LineNumber (on which error occured in your SP)
2. Number (Error number [10 in your case])
3. Procedure (Name of Stored Procedure that caused the error)
4. State
5. SqlErrorCollection object
and many other goodies!!
EDIT:- OOPS this will not help you directly you have different requirements. |
12,498 | I'm building classrooms in the large basement of our home; we're in Spain and have an English school we're expanding.
Room to room sound insulation and resonance are the major concerns I have to consider, as well as costs. The actual ceiling is over three metres high and I plan on using acoustic ceiling tiles to help with echo, which currently is a major issue.
Does it make sense to build dry wall, say, two and a half metres tall with suspended ceiling lowered inside and insulated above with glass wool or similar? That would mean there would be a large open space above the classrooms which would be sound insulated from below. This would save (insulated) dry wall costs and glass wool is pretty cheap. | 2012/02/25 | [
"https://diy.stackexchange.com/questions/12498",
"https://diy.stackexchange.com",
"https://diy.stackexchange.com/users/5370/"
] | If sound proofing is your primary concern then you should build the walls all the way up to the roof, past the suspended ceiling. You should insulate the walls with sound-dampening insulation. If you are willing to spend more money and time, you should look into isolating channels that the drywall attaches to. This prevents sound from being carried through the walls and studs (normally sound hits drywall and vibrations are carried through the studs to the other side. The isolating channels prevent this).
I do not think a suspended ceiling will be able to hold the weight of the insulation. As well, usually a big benefit of a suspended ceiling is easy access to the plenum space above for running wires, accessing hvac/plumbing/fire equiptment, etc. If you have insulation on top, everytime you need to take a panel out, you'd also have to take out a lot of insulation. It would also be hard to get it back in properly after removing only a single tile. The tiles themselves should help eliminate the echo. | In general this is valid. I've done industrial networking, and this design is pretty prevalent. What I'm not sure about it where you are putting the "glass wool" insulation? Are you insulating the unfinished walls above the ceiling? Or were you putting the insulation flat on top of the acoustic tile?
It the latter, then it is imperative that it be kept dry. Those ceilings can't support much weight, and heavy wet insulation could cause it to come crashing down. Keep in mind that acoustic tile is already sound insulation. |
123,562 | This is similar to this question: [How can I determine a reasonable salary to ask for?](https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/896/how-can-i-determine-a-reasonable-salary-to-ask-for), but I think it's asking different questions.
I'm still in college and applying to jobs, so I'm a little thrown off when job applications ask for desired salary, because I'm not sure what to put. I use Glassdoor to get an estimate for postings at companies that are on the site, but I worry about putting the wrong thing down. If the question isn't required by the form, I avoid answering it.
So, my question is, why do companies ask this instead of just including the salary range in the posting, as some places do? If I put a desired salary that's much lower than they were expecting, will they underbid me? If I put a desired salary that's too high, will they not consider me because of that?
Are applicants ever rejected just because of the desired salary they entered?
Any insight is much appreciated. | 2018/11/28 | [
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/123562",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/91151/"
] | As you identified, there are lots of questions on here already about what number to put when an employer asks, or even whether or not you should fill that field in at all.
Your question seems different, since you seem focused on understanding *why* employers ask this. It's hard to answer this broadly because different employers will have different motivations for what seems like similar behaviors to a candidate. So, we can provide potential explanations but it may not play out that way at a particular employer.
You asked several related questions:
>
> why do companies ask this instead of just including the salary range in the posting, as some places do?
>
>
>
Let's turn this around a bit and instead, answer: "Why do some employers actually post a salary range?"
There are a few reasons:
* **They may be required to.** For instance, some government jobs, or jobs where pay structures are managed via unions or some other external body, are required to state salary in job postings (or, do so indirectly by including a reference a pay grade or other standard).
* **They may want to get a jump start on filtering out candidates who aren't going to work, based on fixed salary ranges.** If an employer has an internal salary management policy that strictly limits salaries for open positions (i.e. "Software Developer 1" fits in a band of 73,568 to 92,334) then there's really no point in trying to hide that, is there?
The second bullet leads to your other questions:
>
> If I put a desired salary that's much lower than they were expecting, will they underbid me?
>
>
>
Maybe. Shortsighted employers, i.e. those who are treating candidates as a one-dimensional resource they can attempt to buy at will for the lowest possible price, will probably do so. Other times, **if your salary requirement is significantly too low, an employer may take it as a sign that you're ignorant, unskilled, or otherwise unsuitable for the job** - I've watched hiring managers dismiss candidates who underbid themselves simply because, *"well, if that's all they think they're worth, they must not be very good."*
You also asked about the other end of the range,
>
> If I put a desired salary that's too high, will they not consider me because of that?
>
>
>
Again, the answer is "maybe." If an employer has strict requirements on salary ranges, and you're way outside it, it's probably in both parties' best interests that they do not consider you for the position, isn't it?
So. All that said, to directly answer your original question of why employers ask you to state a desired salary, there are really a few possible reasons:
* It helps them understand **your own perception of your value** as an employee.
* It helps them understand **if your self-worth fits in with what they have budgeted for the position,** or what they're allowed to offer for the position.
* It gives both parties **a starting place in terms of negotiating a salary** to include as part of a compensation package in a potential job offer. | Employers will want to get a 'good deal' out of hiring someone; stating a fixed salary on the job advertisement reduces the chance of that happening for them.
If two equally skilled and likeable candidates are being considered for a role, they will likely *want to* go for the one that is prepared to work for less money. Giving an expected salary that's very low may make you a more appealing candidate, but it doesn't serve the candidate much good. Yes, it runs the risk that you may be 'underbid', but it will be up to you to decide if the role is really worth working for less.
On the opposite side of that, if you give an expected salary that the employer thinks is too high, they may give **you** a chance to justify that extra pay. Do you have any additional skills that might prove useful? Something above and beyond the role you are applying for? Have you a year or a decade's worth of field experience? This gives your employer a chance to learn something about you and your usefulness that they might have overlooked. IMOE this is especially common in interviews where the role itself isn't clearly defined. The employer doesn't exactly know what they're looking for, but if a candidate has lots of additional skills, they could be worth the higher investment.
So long as the candidate does their homework - comparing the role against similar ones in other companies / industries - and doesn't propose an outrageous salary, they are unlikely to be automatically rejected. Having been on both sides of the interview desk, if a candidate suggests a higher-than-normal expected salary, it gives the candidate a chance to explain why they are worth it. |
123,562 | This is similar to this question: [How can I determine a reasonable salary to ask for?](https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/896/how-can-i-determine-a-reasonable-salary-to-ask-for), but I think it's asking different questions.
I'm still in college and applying to jobs, so I'm a little thrown off when job applications ask for desired salary, because I'm not sure what to put. I use Glassdoor to get an estimate for postings at companies that are on the site, but I worry about putting the wrong thing down. If the question isn't required by the form, I avoid answering it.
So, my question is, why do companies ask this instead of just including the salary range in the posting, as some places do? If I put a desired salary that's much lower than they were expecting, will they underbid me? If I put a desired salary that's too high, will they not consider me because of that?
Are applicants ever rejected just because of the desired salary they entered?
Any insight is much appreciated. | 2018/11/28 | [
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/123562",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/91151/"
] | As you identified, there are lots of questions on here already about what number to put when an employer asks, or even whether or not you should fill that field in at all.
Your question seems different, since you seem focused on understanding *why* employers ask this. It's hard to answer this broadly because different employers will have different motivations for what seems like similar behaviors to a candidate. So, we can provide potential explanations but it may not play out that way at a particular employer.
You asked several related questions:
>
> why do companies ask this instead of just including the salary range in the posting, as some places do?
>
>
>
Let's turn this around a bit and instead, answer: "Why do some employers actually post a salary range?"
There are a few reasons:
* **They may be required to.** For instance, some government jobs, or jobs where pay structures are managed via unions or some other external body, are required to state salary in job postings (or, do so indirectly by including a reference a pay grade or other standard).
* **They may want to get a jump start on filtering out candidates who aren't going to work, based on fixed salary ranges.** If an employer has an internal salary management policy that strictly limits salaries for open positions (i.e. "Software Developer 1" fits in a band of 73,568 to 92,334) then there's really no point in trying to hide that, is there?
The second bullet leads to your other questions:
>
> If I put a desired salary that's much lower than they were expecting, will they underbid me?
>
>
>
Maybe. Shortsighted employers, i.e. those who are treating candidates as a one-dimensional resource they can attempt to buy at will for the lowest possible price, will probably do so. Other times, **if your salary requirement is significantly too low, an employer may take it as a sign that you're ignorant, unskilled, or otherwise unsuitable for the job** - I've watched hiring managers dismiss candidates who underbid themselves simply because, *"well, if that's all they think they're worth, they must not be very good."*
You also asked about the other end of the range,
>
> If I put a desired salary that's too high, will they not consider me because of that?
>
>
>
Again, the answer is "maybe." If an employer has strict requirements on salary ranges, and you're way outside it, it's probably in both parties' best interests that they do not consider you for the position, isn't it?
So. All that said, to directly answer your original question of why employers ask you to state a desired salary, there are really a few possible reasons:
* It helps them understand **your own perception of your value** as an employee.
* It helps them understand **if your self-worth fits in with what they have budgeted for the position,** or what they're allowed to offer for the position.
* It gives both parties **a starting place in terms of negotiating a salary** to include as part of a compensation package in a potential job offer. | If you give a salary that is too low: Either the company concludes from your salary that you cannot be qualified for the job, or will quickly leave for a better paying job, and not hire you. Or they do hire you, and pay less than you deserve. In any case bidding too low is always bad for you.
If you give a salary that is too high: Either they decide it is more than they want to pay, and try to negotiate you down. Or they decide it is a lot more than they want to pay and don’t even try to negotiate, so you don’t get the job. Or they are completely bamboozled and pay what you ask for. So you can and should ask for more than you are willing to accept, but not too much more. |
33,361,670 | On click of button, I need to make an ajax request to the back-end to persist the current time and some more details in the database. So, if the user clicks the button multiple times continuously, multiple ajax requests will be fired to the back-end. I want these requests to be executed in a sequential way one after the other and I don't need to keep track of the success/failure of ajax request in the front-end. How to handle these scenarios? | 2015/10/27 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/33361670",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/3044493/"
] | you can use promises to trigger a particular function on the fulfillment of an async request. <https://docs.angularjs.org/api/ng/service/>$q | When you call ajax call
just add
>
> async: false
> or async: true
>
>
>
in function, the call will synchronise or not |
547 | The tag wiki is an important part of the information architecture of a SE site. It provides a dimension of navigation, and makes information about a specific topic findable by searching for the tag.
I've noticed several instances if unilateral and arbitrary retagging of this site, all of them carried out by the same individual, who is also a diamond moderator. This pattern of misbehavior was visible from the start. I even mentioned it in my pre-election objections to this person becoming a mod.
As an example of this type of mis-behavior, take for example edit 2 of [this one](https://opensource.stackexchange.com/questions/1579/when-is-my-project-a-derivative-work-in-an-interpreted-language), where the tag "licensing" is *removed* and a new tag, "interactive-environments", is *created*.
The "licensing" tag has the following summary:
>
> Licensing refers to applying a license to an area of software. Only use this tag if your question concerns the application of a license to an area of interest.
>
>
>
As it happens, the question is specifically about the application of the GNU GPL to a derivative work in an interpreted language. I cannot see that applying the "licensing" tag was wrong enough to warrant its removal.
Even stranger is the creation of the tag "interactive-environments" for this particular question. As far as I am able to tell the question has *nothing* do do with interactive environments. For instance. one the main applications for one of the interpreted languages mentioned, Python, is implementation of internet crawlers, FTP, IMAP, and very many other Internet protocols. These are applications that are typically used in *non-interactive* environments.
Assuming this is not malicious, the only explanation for this behavior must be that the diamond moderator in questions is lacking in knowledge about computer science fundamentals that matches his/her ignorance about free software and open source licensing. This need not be a problem, but when such ignorance is paired with a lack of self-restraint, it *becomes* a problem.
I know this is an unusual feature request, but: What I suggest is that the right to retag and to create tags is taken away from this particular diamond moderator at least for some time, in the hope of getting this person to show more restraint in creating and changing tags. | 2015/08/15 | [
"https://opensource.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/547",
"https://opensource.meta.stackexchange.com",
"https://opensource.meta.stackexchange.com/users/606/"
] | On this particular example
==========================
I've rolled the edit back.
The [licensing](https://opensource.stackexchange.com/questions/tagged/licensing "show questions tagged 'licensing'") tag was on the fence there: it's valid to think either it should be there *or* it shouldn't. Since that's the case, side with the OP and use the tag they added.
Bad tag edits in general
========================
If you see a bad tag edit, *do something about it*. If you're over 1k rep, you can freely edit - roll the edit back, or edit again.
*If* it then becomes an edit war, *disengage*. Raise a custom flag explaining that an edit war is going on and state and explain your point of view. Moderators will not handle flags about themselves, so if it's about a moderator you can be sure that another will handle it.
On the feature-request
======================
Taking privileges away from someone is not an action available to us moderators, and I'm not even sure that SE employees can do it. Bans are the accepted way of preventing problem behaviors, but we don't have a tagging ban. [status-declined](/questions/tagged/status-declined "show questions tagged 'status-declined'"), but I'll have a word with the moderator in question in our chat, and work it out there. | Wow. Are you for real?
>
> I've noticed several instances if unilateral and arbitrary retagging
>
>
>
Retagging is unilateral by definition, unless it's done via a suggested edit. Arbitrary is an accusation against the retagger's motives for which you state no justification altogether.
>
> As an example of this type of mis-behavior
>
>
>
*(and more similar language)*
What mis-behavior? It's a retag that you don't agree with. There is no misbehavior here except your violation of one of the fundamental rules of this site:
[**Be nice.**](https://opensource.stackexchange.com/help/be-nice)
=================================================================
Seriously, if you think a retag deserves such vitriolic language, take a break.
>
> knowledge about computer science fundamentals that matches his/her ignorance about free software and open source licensing
>
>
>
Given that absolutely no computer science is involved here, you're one to talk.
If you disagree with a retag, discussing on meta is the right place. But your tone is completely out of place. There's a constructive way, and calling for someone's head isn't. |
64,536 | I'm in Western Europe doing a Master's degree, and I expected the education quality to be much higher then what I've seen in my previous school which was in the Middle East, but some professors here still do this (taking exam and exercise questions from the internet) and they don't seem to understand the subject very well.
Now how common is this in European and North American universities? Is it even considered an accepted practice? | 2016/03/04 | [
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/questions/64536",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/users/50258/"
] | *they don't seem to understand the subject very well.*
You sound like you are in a level of expertise that you could judge the quality of the lectures. You may then ideally speak to the professor about your allegation *they still do this.* I am ignoring the regional limitations and considering the question in a general context.
>
> Is it even considered an accepted practice?
>
>
>
Assuming that there are no institutional guidelines that goes against assembling questions from the internet(which you must check if you haven't done already!), from a logical perspective viewing this as a student, the practice is similar to posting questions from the text book or peer reviewed journals. The professor in any case is responsible for the question and its relevance can be questioned with supporting evidence.
From the point of view of a student, you could also do a student peer review about the quality and relevance of the question supported by discussions and critical reasoning. If the result of such an assessment goes against the question, you could then report him/her with proof your views about the practice.
NOTE - This is not limited to *internet based* questions but also any questions even from the sources you think are authentic. | You get questions (and ideas for questions) from many places. Some you cook up yourself, others you water down from a step in a paper (even a very old one), or filch from a published exam, or a textbook, or even adapted from StackExchange. It varies. One of the selling points of textbooks is precisely that they provide lots of questions.
You should make up an exam by combining questions that (more or less, probably weighted by importance) evaluate the material covered. In my case of some 5 questions 2 or 3 are self made (probably inspired by previous ones or external sources), while the others come from different sources, often severely modified. |
7,068 | In this transcript of a conversation between Simon Critchley & Badiou on Badiou's book *Being and Event*, Badiou states:
>
> And after that, I have also to understand why there is in modern times a clear relationship between poetry and philosophy. As you know, it’s a Heideggerian idea: this renewal of a philosophical interest in poetics is fundamentally in the Heideggerian field. So it’s a great discovery of Heidegger that we have to learn something essential from poetry.
>
>
>
First, I note that Badiou talks of a *renewal* so that this *approchement* is merely the latest *rapprochement*.
Now, what is this *great discovery* and *something essential*? Is this *something* that Heidegger learnt from reading Hölderlin? (In fact, Heidegger delivered a lecture course on a single poem of Hölderlin's [*The Ister* (*The River*)](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/H%C3%B6lderlin%27s_Hymn_%22The_Ister%22) in 1942.) Is this *discovery* a source for Critical Theory in Literary Studies?
Holderlin was certainly interested in Heraclitus. But I don't want to posit Hölderlin as merely a middle term between Heraclitus and Heidegger. Rather as
Badiou himself says (in the same conversation) to see the poetic situation and subjectivity speak itself:
>
> What is for poetry the very nature of a situation? ...I think that a poetic situation is always a situation in language...it’s the state of affairs in the expressive dimension of language. What is a poetic event? It’s always the birth of a new possibility of naming inside the language,...[it] is the creation of the possibility of naming that which was without name...The consequences of a poetic event are the creation of poems and the appearance of a new poetic subjectivity – Romanticism, Surrealism, and so on. That is not too complicated. But we can say that there is always in every truth procedure a poetic moment.
>
>
> | 2013/05/30 | [
"https://philosophy.stackexchange.com/questions/7068",
"https://philosophy.stackexchange.com",
"https://philosophy.stackexchange.com/users/933/"
] | Maybe that for Heidegger poetry is the peak of language. That is: poetry can say something other forms of language (for example theoretical statements) cannot. For example, it can designate, circumscribe, reveal, speak of what is not obvious or in plain view. | I don't know what Heidegger thought. But it should be clear that philosophy has this in common with poetry : both are about using innovation in language and imagery to try to capture and describe new ways of experiencing and thinking about the world.
The poet crafts new metaphors and turns of phrase which can give you an insight into what something is like : perhaps it's the experience of being in love, of being amazed by nature, of the tragedy of a war etc.
Philosophy is also a history of powerful metaphors : Plato's shadows on the wall of a fire-lit cave give us a sense of the inadequateness of the mere world with respect to the forms. Wittgenstein's language "goes on holiday". Hobbes submits to a Leviathan and Deleuze talks of folds and war-machines.
Philosophy needs poetry's techniques to imagine and communicate novel ideas which would be hard, if not impossible, to convey and understand without them. |
7,068 | In this transcript of a conversation between Simon Critchley & Badiou on Badiou's book *Being and Event*, Badiou states:
>
> And after that, I have also to understand why there is in modern times a clear relationship between poetry and philosophy. As you know, it’s a Heideggerian idea: this renewal of a philosophical interest in poetics is fundamentally in the Heideggerian field. So it’s a great discovery of Heidegger that we have to learn something essential from poetry.
>
>
>
First, I note that Badiou talks of a *renewal* so that this *approchement* is merely the latest *rapprochement*.
Now, what is this *great discovery* and *something essential*? Is this *something* that Heidegger learnt from reading Hölderlin? (In fact, Heidegger delivered a lecture course on a single poem of Hölderlin's [*The Ister* (*The River*)](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/H%C3%B6lderlin%27s_Hymn_%22The_Ister%22) in 1942.) Is this *discovery* a source for Critical Theory in Literary Studies?
Holderlin was certainly interested in Heraclitus. But I don't want to posit Hölderlin as merely a middle term between Heraclitus and Heidegger. Rather as
Badiou himself says (in the same conversation) to see the poetic situation and subjectivity speak itself:
>
> What is for poetry the very nature of a situation? ...I think that a poetic situation is always a situation in language...it’s the state of affairs in the expressive dimension of language. What is a poetic event? It’s always the birth of a new possibility of naming inside the language,...[it] is the creation of the possibility of naming that which was without name...The consequences of a poetic event are the creation of poems and the appearance of a new poetic subjectivity – Romanticism, Surrealism, and so on. That is not too complicated. But we can say that there is always in every truth procedure a poetic moment.
>
>
> | 2013/05/30 | [
"https://philosophy.stackexchange.com/questions/7068",
"https://philosophy.stackexchange.com",
"https://philosophy.stackexchange.com/users/933/"
] | Maybe that for Heidegger poetry is the peak of language. That is: poetry can say something other forms of language (for example theoretical statements) cannot. For example, it can designate, circumscribe, reveal, speak of what is not obvious or in plain view. | 'Rediscovery' I think clearly applies to: from Romanticism - which was far more dominant and lasting in philosophy in Germany than in England. John Vervaeke has [a great lecture on Romanticism in the context of the history of philosophy](https://youtu.be/Noc1OH0CUBc), which was all news to me. I can't think of a figure like Goethe in the English speaking world, able to contribute significantly in natural philosophy, and make a lasting impact with poetry also. Maybe Thoreau.. It's notable Thoreau followed the post-Socratic traditions of cynics and Stoics, focusing his philosophy on ordinary life, and with a kind of existential introspection. Also, that he was a very marginal figure in his lifetime who's significance was only recognised later (unlike Goethe!).
The Analytic Philosophy tradition diverged from the arts, to adhere more to the models of mathematics & logic as templates, and consideration of what art is and is for, has ceased to be a central point of discussion. Whereas the Continental Philosophy tradition has been greatly affected by literary analysis and consideration of a far wider range of types texts as having philosophical import, or have cultural significance that has philosophical import, allowing literature & poetry being contemplated to be considered 'serious philosophy', rather then kept in a seperate cultural domain. Nietzsche and Kierkegaard, primary influences on Heidegger, saw art as a central concern.
There is an example of the contradictions that come from the limiting of philosophy to certain types of language, that came up in discussing the category of water: [Is steam necessarily ice?](https://philosophy.stackexchange.com/questions/76896/is-steam-necessarily-ice/76976#76976) There is a tendency to, rather arbitrarily distinguish between 'factual' and 'poetic' use of language, and regard the latter as frivolous and essentially, meangless - as the OP did there. But as Wittgenstein observed, language is use: "How did we learn the meaning of this word? From what sort of examples?"
Poetry is part of our use of language. We use metaphor so much we don't even notice: joining the fray is a metaphor from weaving we apply to battle, when moving we weave from side to side, and shuttle is another weaving term applied to spaceships! Much of this extending of language has come from poetry; the kennings of Darraðarljóð in the Njals saga made me notice the prevelance of weaving metaphors; chortle and gallumph have entered the language from The Jabberwock, a poem set expressly at creating portmanteaus, another word from the Alice books; 1498 words or phrases were [first attested in Shakespeare](https://en.wiktionary.org/wiki/Category:English_terms_first_attested_in_Shakespeare). I would look to WW1 poetry, and the early writing of Bob Dylan like Pawn In Their Game (sung at the same podium Martin Luther King Jr later that day gave his I Have A Dream speech from), for the cultural significance with philosophical import, of poetry. They said things in ways facts couldn't, that helped contribute to changing how we live.
Heidegger's ontology of time, is an essentially experiential and personal view, the idea of 'throwness' into circumstances, and that the full context of our lives can be only be understood from the perspective that they are finite. This is a kind of somatic, experiential, and poetic experience, of time, and knowledge of death. He viewed our own being as shaped by our doing, including rituals, architecture, and cultural practices - he saw the lived practice of these as actually shaping and changing the reality we live in. Our widest frame is *what makes a life worthwhile*, and of course if poetry is an important part of that for people, that makes it a philosophical concern, and/or the consequences of ceasing to value poetry in this way.
An example I think Heidegger would approve of, a poem commonly recited at funerals, that has so entered our language that it is part of the language of how we die, of how we approach death, and the reciting of which helps people live out a shift of attitude tomone that is more philosophical:
>
> "Death, be not proud, though some have called thee
>
>
> Mighty and dreadful, for thou art not so;
>
>
> ..
>
>
> One short sleep past, we wake eternally
>
>
> And death shall be no more; Death, thou shalt die." - John Donne
>
>
>
So if we address what it means to die, and how we die, that would fail I think without considering poetry. The Illiad is a much older example of holding a cultural record of war and death and grief, Hecuba being a kind of archetype of those raised up and thrown down by fate (mentioned in one of 13th C Carmina Burana poem like that). Ecclesiastes is considered a profoundly subversive book of the Old Testament, at odds on many points with the other parts, but I would say the participatory, recitable nature of it explains why it is there, and why it is read both at weddings & funerals, and even became a pop song:
>
> "To every thing there is a season, and a time to every purpose under
>
>
> heaven: A time to be born, and a time to die; a time to plant, and
>
>
> a time to pluck up that which is planted; A time to kill, and a time
>
>
> to heal; a time to break down, and a time to build up; A time to weep,
>
>
> and a time to laugh; a time to mourn, and a time to dance" - Ecclesiastes
>
>
>
'This too shall pass' and 'Know thyself' are strictly more aphorisms than poetry, but have gone on to influence literally millenia of philosoohy and literature.
Philosophy that ignores the significance of these kinds of experience, is impoverished by that. Philosophy that ignores the nature and purpose of art, has chosen early defeat in pursuit of understanding truth, wherever it leads. It is a modern folly to divide these out of the concerns of philosophy
(although I admit, Plato wanted no poets in his Republic; his involvement in the politics of Syracuse was, startlingly inneffective however, and I'm with Popper's judgement of him). |
7,068 | In this transcript of a conversation between Simon Critchley & Badiou on Badiou's book *Being and Event*, Badiou states:
>
> And after that, I have also to understand why there is in modern times a clear relationship between poetry and philosophy. As you know, it’s a Heideggerian idea: this renewal of a philosophical interest in poetics is fundamentally in the Heideggerian field. So it’s a great discovery of Heidegger that we have to learn something essential from poetry.
>
>
>
First, I note that Badiou talks of a *renewal* so that this *approchement* is merely the latest *rapprochement*.
Now, what is this *great discovery* and *something essential*? Is this *something* that Heidegger learnt from reading Hölderlin? (In fact, Heidegger delivered a lecture course on a single poem of Hölderlin's [*The Ister* (*The River*)](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/H%C3%B6lderlin%27s_Hymn_%22The_Ister%22) in 1942.) Is this *discovery* a source for Critical Theory in Literary Studies?
Holderlin was certainly interested in Heraclitus. But I don't want to posit Hölderlin as merely a middle term between Heraclitus and Heidegger. Rather as
Badiou himself says (in the same conversation) to see the poetic situation and subjectivity speak itself:
>
> What is for poetry the very nature of a situation? ...I think that a poetic situation is always a situation in language...it’s the state of affairs in the expressive dimension of language. What is a poetic event? It’s always the birth of a new possibility of naming inside the language,...[it] is the creation of the possibility of naming that which was without name...The consequences of a poetic event are the creation of poems and the appearance of a new poetic subjectivity – Romanticism, Surrealism, and so on. That is not too complicated. But we can say that there is always in every truth procedure a poetic moment.
>
>
> | 2013/05/30 | [
"https://philosophy.stackexchange.com/questions/7068",
"https://philosophy.stackexchange.com",
"https://philosophy.stackexchange.com/users/933/"
] | Maybe that for Heidegger poetry is the peak of language. That is: poetry can say something other forms of language (for example theoretical statements) cannot. For example, it can designate, circumscribe, reveal, speak of what is not obvious or in plain view. | ### Philosophy can learn how to reach the heart of people
It is basically about how to write truth in a way that reaches and permeates the public sphere, connecting reason with aesthetics.
Heidegger is deeply indebted to Hölderlin here and I'm surprised Badiou does not offer this obvious link himself. The main idea has been around since Hegel, Schelling, and Hölderlin wrote the fragment which Rosenzweig published under the name *The Oldest Program Towards a System in German Idealism* in 1917 (ie. Heidegger could have known it). The text is written by Hegel's hand but has a Hölderlinian swing to it. It is not without reason that the philosopher Hölderlin started to write solely in poetic style. The fragment explains the reasoning quite well:
>
> ...*an ethics*. Since the whole of metaphysics will in the future fall under moral
> [theory] - of which Kant, with his two practical postulates, has given merely an
> example, but not exhausted anything - this ethics will be nothing other than a
> complete system of all ideas (Ideen), or what comes to the same, of all practical
> postulates. The first idea is naturally the representation of myself as an absolutely
> free being (Wesen). Along with the free, self-conscious being there emerges -
> from out of nothing - an entire world, the one true and conceivable creation out of
> nothing. - Here I shall descend into the realm of physics; the question is this:
> how must a world be constituted for a moral being? I would like to lend wings
> once again to our sluggish physics, advancing so laboriously by experiments.
> So - if philosophy provides the ideas, experience the data, we can finally
> arrive at the physics on a grand scale that I expect of future ages. It does not
> appear that present-day physics could satisfy a creative spirit, such as ours is, or
> ought to be.
>
>
>
>
> From nature I come to the work of man. To begin with, the idea of humanity - I
> want to show that there is no idea of the state, since the state is something
> mechanical, any more than there is an idea of a machine. Only that which is an
> object of freedom is called an idea. So, we must also go beyond the state! - For
> every state must treat free human beings as cogs in a machine; and it ought not
> to; hence it ought to cease. You can see for yourselves that here all ideas, of
> perpetual peace, etc., are only subordinate ideas to a higher idea. At the same
> time I want here to set down the principles for a history of humanity, and strip
> bare to the skin the whole wretched human contrivance of state, constitution,
> government, legislation. Finally come the ideas of a moral world, of divinity, of
> immortality - the overthrow of all bogus faith, the prosecution, by reason itself,
> of the priesthood, which now apes reason. - Absolute freedom of all spirits who
> bear the intellectual world within themselves and who can seek neither God nor
> immortality outside themselves.
>
>
>
>
> **Lastly the idea that unites all the others, the idea of beauty, taking the word in
> the higher Platonic sense. I am now convinced that the highest act of reason, the
> one in which it embraces all ideas, is an aesthetic act, and that truth and goodness
> are sisters only in beauty - the philosophers must possess just as much aesthetic
> power as the poet; our literalist philosophers are men with no aesthetic sense.
> The philosophy of the spirit is an aesthetic philosophy. One cannot be inspired
> (geistreich) in anything, one cannot even reason intelligently (geistreich) about
> history - without aesthetic sense. Here it will become clear what is lacking in
> those who have no understanding of ideas - and who admit straightforwardly enough that everything becomes obscure to them as soon as it goes beyond
> tables and indices.**
>
>
>
>
> **Poetry thereby attains a higher dignity, in the end she becomes once again
> what she was in the beginning - the teacher of humanity; for there is no more
> philosophy, no more history, poetry alone will survive all the other sciences and
> arts.**
>
>
>
>
> At the same time, we hear so often that the great masses must have a sensuous
> religion. Not just the great masses, the philosopher needs it too. Monotheism of
> reason and of the heart, polytheism of the imagination and of art, this is what we
> need!
>
>
>
>
> Here first I shall speak of an idea which, as far as I know, has never before
> entered anyone's mind - we must have a new mythology, this mythology
> however must stand in the service of the ideas, it must become a mythology of
> reason.
>
>
>
>
> **Until we render the ideas aesthetic, i.e. mythological, they are of no interest to
> the people, and conversely until mythology is rational, the philosopher must be
> ashamed of it. Thus the enlightened and the unenlightened must in the end join
> hands, mythology must become philosophical, and the people rational, and
> philosophy must become mythological in order to make philosophers sensuous.
> Then eternal unity reigns among us. No more the contemptuous glance, no
> more the blind trembling of the people before its sages and priests. Then, for the
> first time, there awaits us the equal cultivation of all powers, of the individual as
> well as of all people. No longer shall any force be suppressed, then universal
> freedom and equality of spirits will reign! - A higher spirit, sent from heaven,
> must found this new religion among us, it will be the last, the greatest work of
> mankind**
>
>
>
(European Journal of Philosophy 3:2 ISSN 0966-8373 pp. 199-200. @ Blackwell Publishers Ltd. 1995, bolded mine) |
7,068 | In this transcript of a conversation between Simon Critchley & Badiou on Badiou's book *Being and Event*, Badiou states:
>
> And after that, I have also to understand why there is in modern times a clear relationship between poetry and philosophy. As you know, it’s a Heideggerian idea: this renewal of a philosophical interest in poetics is fundamentally in the Heideggerian field. So it’s a great discovery of Heidegger that we have to learn something essential from poetry.
>
>
>
First, I note that Badiou talks of a *renewal* so that this *approchement* is merely the latest *rapprochement*.
Now, what is this *great discovery* and *something essential*? Is this *something* that Heidegger learnt from reading Hölderlin? (In fact, Heidegger delivered a lecture course on a single poem of Hölderlin's [*The Ister* (*The River*)](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/H%C3%B6lderlin%27s_Hymn_%22The_Ister%22) in 1942.) Is this *discovery* a source for Critical Theory in Literary Studies?
Holderlin was certainly interested in Heraclitus. But I don't want to posit Hölderlin as merely a middle term between Heraclitus and Heidegger. Rather as
Badiou himself says (in the same conversation) to see the poetic situation and subjectivity speak itself:
>
> What is for poetry the very nature of a situation? ...I think that a poetic situation is always a situation in language...it’s the state of affairs in the expressive dimension of language. What is a poetic event? It’s always the birth of a new possibility of naming inside the language,...[it] is the creation of the possibility of naming that which was without name...The consequences of a poetic event are the creation of poems and the appearance of a new poetic subjectivity – Romanticism, Surrealism, and so on. That is not too complicated. But we can say that there is always in every truth procedure a poetic moment.
>
>
> | 2013/05/30 | [
"https://philosophy.stackexchange.com/questions/7068",
"https://philosophy.stackexchange.com",
"https://philosophy.stackexchange.com/users/933/"
] | I don't know what Heidegger thought. But it should be clear that philosophy has this in common with poetry : both are about using innovation in language and imagery to try to capture and describe new ways of experiencing and thinking about the world.
The poet crafts new metaphors and turns of phrase which can give you an insight into what something is like : perhaps it's the experience of being in love, of being amazed by nature, of the tragedy of a war etc.
Philosophy is also a history of powerful metaphors : Plato's shadows on the wall of a fire-lit cave give us a sense of the inadequateness of the mere world with respect to the forms. Wittgenstein's language "goes on holiday". Hobbes submits to a Leviathan and Deleuze talks of folds and war-machines.
Philosophy needs poetry's techniques to imagine and communicate novel ideas which would be hard, if not impossible, to convey and understand without them. | 'Rediscovery' I think clearly applies to: from Romanticism - which was far more dominant and lasting in philosophy in Germany than in England. John Vervaeke has [a great lecture on Romanticism in the context of the history of philosophy](https://youtu.be/Noc1OH0CUBc), which was all news to me. I can't think of a figure like Goethe in the English speaking world, able to contribute significantly in natural philosophy, and make a lasting impact with poetry also. Maybe Thoreau.. It's notable Thoreau followed the post-Socratic traditions of cynics and Stoics, focusing his philosophy on ordinary life, and with a kind of existential introspection. Also, that he was a very marginal figure in his lifetime who's significance was only recognised later (unlike Goethe!).
The Analytic Philosophy tradition diverged from the arts, to adhere more to the models of mathematics & logic as templates, and consideration of what art is and is for, has ceased to be a central point of discussion. Whereas the Continental Philosophy tradition has been greatly affected by literary analysis and consideration of a far wider range of types texts as having philosophical import, or have cultural significance that has philosophical import, allowing literature & poetry being contemplated to be considered 'serious philosophy', rather then kept in a seperate cultural domain. Nietzsche and Kierkegaard, primary influences on Heidegger, saw art as a central concern.
There is an example of the contradictions that come from the limiting of philosophy to certain types of language, that came up in discussing the category of water: [Is steam necessarily ice?](https://philosophy.stackexchange.com/questions/76896/is-steam-necessarily-ice/76976#76976) There is a tendency to, rather arbitrarily distinguish between 'factual' and 'poetic' use of language, and regard the latter as frivolous and essentially, meangless - as the OP did there. But as Wittgenstein observed, language is use: "How did we learn the meaning of this word? From what sort of examples?"
Poetry is part of our use of language. We use metaphor so much we don't even notice: joining the fray is a metaphor from weaving we apply to battle, when moving we weave from side to side, and shuttle is another weaving term applied to spaceships! Much of this extending of language has come from poetry; the kennings of Darraðarljóð in the Njals saga made me notice the prevelance of weaving metaphors; chortle and gallumph have entered the language from The Jabberwock, a poem set expressly at creating portmanteaus, another word from the Alice books; 1498 words or phrases were [first attested in Shakespeare](https://en.wiktionary.org/wiki/Category:English_terms_first_attested_in_Shakespeare). I would look to WW1 poetry, and the early writing of Bob Dylan like Pawn In Their Game (sung at the same podium Martin Luther King Jr later that day gave his I Have A Dream speech from), for the cultural significance with philosophical import, of poetry. They said things in ways facts couldn't, that helped contribute to changing how we live.
Heidegger's ontology of time, is an essentially experiential and personal view, the idea of 'throwness' into circumstances, and that the full context of our lives can be only be understood from the perspective that they are finite. This is a kind of somatic, experiential, and poetic experience, of time, and knowledge of death. He viewed our own being as shaped by our doing, including rituals, architecture, and cultural practices - he saw the lived practice of these as actually shaping and changing the reality we live in. Our widest frame is *what makes a life worthwhile*, and of course if poetry is an important part of that for people, that makes it a philosophical concern, and/or the consequences of ceasing to value poetry in this way.
An example I think Heidegger would approve of, a poem commonly recited at funerals, that has so entered our language that it is part of the language of how we die, of how we approach death, and the reciting of which helps people live out a shift of attitude tomone that is more philosophical:
>
> "Death, be not proud, though some have called thee
>
>
> Mighty and dreadful, for thou art not so;
>
>
> ..
>
>
> One short sleep past, we wake eternally
>
>
> And death shall be no more; Death, thou shalt die." - John Donne
>
>
>
So if we address what it means to die, and how we die, that would fail I think without considering poetry. The Illiad is a much older example of holding a cultural record of war and death and grief, Hecuba being a kind of archetype of those raised up and thrown down by fate (mentioned in one of 13th C Carmina Burana poem like that). Ecclesiastes is considered a profoundly subversive book of the Old Testament, at odds on many points with the other parts, but I would say the participatory, recitable nature of it explains why it is there, and why it is read both at weddings & funerals, and even became a pop song:
>
> "To every thing there is a season, and a time to every purpose under
>
>
> heaven: A time to be born, and a time to die; a time to plant, and
>
>
> a time to pluck up that which is planted; A time to kill, and a time
>
>
> to heal; a time to break down, and a time to build up; A time to weep,
>
>
> and a time to laugh; a time to mourn, and a time to dance" - Ecclesiastes
>
>
>
'This too shall pass' and 'Know thyself' are strictly more aphorisms than poetry, but have gone on to influence literally millenia of philosoohy and literature.
Philosophy that ignores the significance of these kinds of experience, is impoverished by that. Philosophy that ignores the nature and purpose of art, has chosen early defeat in pursuit of understanding truth, wherever it leads. It is a modern folly to divide these out of the concerns of philosophy
(although I admit, Plato wanted no poets in his Republic; his involvement in the politics of Syracuse was, startlingly inneffective however, and I'm with Popper's judgement of him). |
7,068 | In this transcript of a conversation between Simon Critchley & Badiou on Badiou's book *Being and Event*, Badiou states:
>
> And after that, I have also to understand why there is in modern times a clear relationship between poetry and philosophy. As you know, it’s a Heideggerian idea: this renewal of a philosophical interest in poetics is fundamentally in the Heideggerian field. So it’s a great discovery of Heidegger that we have to learn something essential from poetry.
>
>
>
First, I note that Badiou talks of a *renewal* so that this *approchement* is merely the latest *rapprochement*.
Now, what is this *great discovery* and *something essential*? Is this *something* that Heidegger learnt from reading Hölderlin? (In fact, Heidegger delivered a lecture course on a single poem of Hölderlin's [*The Ister* (*The River*)](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/H%C3%B6lderlin%27s_Hymn_%22The_Ister%22) in 1942.) Is this *discovery* a source for Critical Theory in Literary Studies?
Holderlin was certainly interested in Heraclitus. But I don't want to posit Hölderlin as merely a middle term between Heraclitus and Heidegger. Rather as
Badiou himself says (in the same conversation) to see the poetic situation and subjectivity speak itself:
>
> What is for poetry the very nature of a situation? ...I think that a poetic situation is always a situation in language...it’s the state of affairs in the expressive dimension of language. What is a poetic event? It’s always the birth of a new possibility of naming inside the language,...[it] is the creation of the possibility of naming that which was without name...The consequences of a poetic event are the creation of poems and the appearance of a new poetic subjectivity – Romanticism, Surrealism, and so on. That is not too complicated. But we can say that there is always in every truth procedure a poetic moment.
>
>
> | 2013/05/30 | [
"https://philosophy.stackexchange.com/questions/7068",
"https://philosophy.stackexchange.com",
"https://philosophy.stackexchange.com/users/933/"
] | I don't know what Heidegger thought. But it should be clear that philosophy has this in common with poetry : both are about using innovation in language and imagery to try to capture and describe new ways of experiencing and thinking about the world.
The poet crafts new metaphors and turns of phrase which can give you an insight into what something is like : perhaps it's the experience of being in love, of being amazed by nature, of the tragedy of a war etc.
Philosophy is also a history of powerful metaphors : Plato's shadows on the wall of a fire-lit cave give us a sense of the inadequateness of the mere world with respect to the forms. Wittgenstein's language "goes on holiday". Hobbes submits to a Leviathan and Deleuze talks of folds and war-machines.
Philosophy needs poetry's techniques to imagine and communicate novel ideas which would be hard, if not impossible, to convey and understand without them. | ### Philosophy can learn how to reach the heart of people
It is basically about how to write truth in a way that reaches and permeates the public sphere, connecting reason with aesthetics.
Heidegger is deeply indebted to Hölderlin here and I'm surprised Badiou does not offer this obvious link himself. The main idea has been around since Hegel, Schelling, and Hölderlin wrote the fragment which Rosenzweig published under the name *The Oldest Program Towards a System in German Idealism* in 1917 (ie. Heidegger could have known it). The text is written by Hegel's hand but has a Hölderlinian swing to it. It is not without reason that the philosopher Hölderlin started to write solely in poetic style. The fragment explains the reasoning quite well:
>
> ...*an ethics*. Since the whole of metaphysics will in the future fall under moral
> [theory] - of which Kant, with his two practical postulates, has given merely an
> example, but not exhausted anything - this ethics will be nothing other than a
> complete system of all ideas (Ideen), or what comes to the same, of all practical
> postulates. The first idea is naturally the representation of myself as an absolutely
> free being (Wesen). Along with the free, self-conscious being there emerges -
> from out of nothing - an entire world, the one true and conceivable creation out of
> nothing. - Here I shall descend into the realm of physics; the question is this:
> how must a world be constituted for a moral being? I would like to lend wings
> once again to our sluggish physics, advancing so laboriously by experiments.
> So - if philosophy provides the ideas, experience the data, we can finally
> arrive at the physics on a grand scale that I expect of future ages. It does not
> appear that present-day physics could satisfy a creative spirit, such as ours is, or
> ought to be.
>
>
>
>
> From nature I come to the work of man. To begin with, the idea of humanity - I
> want to show that there is no idea of the state, since the state is something
> mechanical, any more than there is an idea of a machine. Only that which is an
> object of freedom is called an idea. So, we must also go beyond the state! - For
> every state must treat free human beings as cogs in a machine; and it ought not
> to; hence it ought to cease. You can see for yourselves that here all ideas, of
> perpetual peace, etc., are only subordinate ideas to a higher idea. At the same
> time I want here to set down the principles for a history of humanity, and strip
> bare to the skin the whole wretched human contrivance of state, constitution,
> government, legislation. Finally come the ideas of a moral world, of divinity, of
> immortality - the overthrow of all bogus faith, the prosecution, by reason itself,
> of the priesthood, which now apes reason. - Absolute freedom of all spirits who
> bear the intellectual world within themselves and who can seek neither God nor
> immortality outside themselves.
>
>
>
>
> **Lastly the idea that unites all the others, the idea of beauty, taking the word in
> the higher Platonic sense. I am now convinced that the highest act of reason, the
> one in which it embraces all ideas, is an aesthetic act, and that truth and goodness
> are sisters only in beauty - the philosophers must possess just as much aesthetic
> power as the poet; our literalist philosophers are men with no aesthetic sense.
> The philosophy of the spirit is an aesthetic philosophy. One cannot be inspired
> (geistreich) in anything, one cannot even reason intelligently (geistreich) about
> history - without aesthetic sense. Here it will become clear what is lacking in
> those who have no understanding of ideas - and who admit straightforwardly enough that everything becomes obscure to them as soon as it goes beyond
> tables and indices.**
>
>
>
>
> **Poetry thereby attains a higher dignity, in the end she becomes once again
> what she was in the beginning - the teacher of humanity; for there is no more
> philosophy, no more history, poetry alone will survive all the other sciences and
> arts.**
>
>
>
>
> At the same time, we hear so often that the great masses must have a sensuous
> religion. Not just the great masses, the philosopher needs it too. Monotheism of
> reason and of the heart, polytheism of the imagination and of art, this is what we
> need!
>
>
>
>
> Here first I shall speak of an idea which, as far as I know, has never before
> entered anyone's mind - we must have a new mythology, this mythology
> however must stand in the service of the ideas, it must become a mythology of
> reason.
>
>
>
>
> **Until we render the ideas aesthetic, i.e. mythological, they are of no interest to
> the people, and conversely until mythology is rational, the philosopher must be
> ashamed of it. Thus the enlightened and the unenlightened must in the end join
> hands, mythology must become philosophical, and the people rational, and
> philosophy must become mythological in order to make philosophers sensuous.
> Then eternal unity reigns among us. No more the contemptuous glance, no
> more the blind trembling of the people before its sages and priests. Then, for the
> first time, there awaits us the equal cultivation of all powers, of the individual as
> well as of all people. No longer shall any force be suppressed, then universal
> freedom and equality of spirits will reign! - A higher spirit, sent from heaven,
> must found this new religion among us, it will be the last, the greatest work of
> mankind**
>
>
>
(European Journal of Philosophy 3:2 ISSN 0966-8373 pp. 199-200. @ Blackwell Publishers Ltd. 1995, bolded mine) |
2,273 | In the climatic battle of [**The Avengers**](http://www.imdb.com/title/tt0848228/), we see the full might of our heroes teaming up to protect the world.
However, [**one scene**](http://24.media.tumblr.com/03d89ab3fe7b118238963319b30994e8/tumblr_mmswbjHqd41r1mr1po1_500.gif) during this battle, while hilarious on it's own right, does not make much sense to me.
While battling the Chitauri together, Thor and Hulk eliminate what appears to be a small force residing in a building. While catching their breath, Hulk all of a sudden *punches Thor with great force away from him*.
But **why** does he do this?
The theories swirling in my head point to either a *revenge* punch for their fight in the Helicarrier. Or a *brofist* for beating a pack of Chitauri, taken a bit too far.
Is there any official wording on why this happened and Thor seemed to think *nothing* of it? | 2012/05/09 | [
"https://movies.stackexchange.com/questions/2273",
"https://movies.stackexchange.com",
"https://movies.stackexchange.com/users/130/"
] | It was obviously a case of Hulk having the last laugh, so to speak and was intended to make people smile or laugh.
I highly doubt that there is any "official" reasoning available for such a minor thing which is clearly intended for the viewers to make what they will of it, with the implication that it was in relation to their (Hulk & Thor's) earlier battle with one another. | I think the Hulk is a bit of an a-hole in the movie, not out of character for him or anyone who knows their power is unmatched. He undoubtedly remembers their battle in S.H.I.E.L.D.s' carrier and remembers he could not lift Mjolnir, Thor's hammer. He has a bit of contempt for demigods. Something Loki found out first-hand after announcing himself as a god and in the same breath insulting a Hulk that is much more in touch with his internal Banner! "Puny god!" |
2,273 | In the climatic battle of [**The Avengers**](http://www.imdb.com/title/tt0848228/), we see the full might of our heroes teaming up to protect the world.
However, [**one scene**](http://24.media.tumblr.com/03d89ab3fe7b118238963319b30994e8/tumblr_mmswbjHqd41r1mr1po1_500.gif) during this battle, while hilarious on it's own right, does not make much sense to me.
While battling the Chitauri together, Thor and Hulk eliminate what appears to be a small force residing in a building. While catching their breath, Hulk all of a sudden *punches Thor with great force away from him*.
But **why** does he do this?
The theories swirling in my head point to either a *revenge* punch for their fight in the Helicarrier. Or a *brofist* for beating a pack of Chitauri, taken a bit too far.
Is there any official wording on why this happened and Thor seemed to think *nothing* of it? | 2012/05/09 | [
"https://movies.stackexchange.com/questions/2273",
"https://movies.stackexchange.com",
"https://movies.stackexchange.com/users/130/"
] | Although I have nothing to back this up, I am a writer and one of my characters parallels the Hulk fairly closely. In my mind, there's little doubt why he did it. He loves to hit things, he just got through having an aggressive fight, Thor is still upright, and he knows that Thor won't be hurt by it. It's like punching your teammate on the shoulder pads after he makes the game-winning touchdown, only sized up to Superhero proportion. | Official wording? The answer is because Hulk is chaotic and unpredictable and loves to punch things. He's always been that way. |
2,273 | In the climatic battle of [**The Avengers**](http://www.imdb.com/title/tt0848228/), we see the full might of our heroes teaming up to protect the world.
However, [**one scene**](http://24.media.tumblr.com/03d89ab3fe7b118238963319b30994e8/tumblr_mmswbjHqd41r1mr1po1_500.gif) during this battle, while hilarious on it's own right, does not make much sense to me.
While battling the Chitauri together, Thor and Hulk eliminate what appears to be a small force residing in a building. While catching their breath, Hulk all of a sudden *punches Thor with great force away from him*.
But **why** does he do this?
The theories swirling in my head point to either a *revenge* punch for their fight in the Helicarrier. Or a *brofist* for beating a pack of Chitauri, taken a bit too far.
Is there any official wording on why this happened and Thor seemed to think *nothing* of it? | 2012/05/09 | [
"https://movies.stackexchange.com/questions/2273",
"https://movies.stackexchange.com",
"https://movies.stackexchange.com/users/130/"
] | It was obviously a case of Hulk having the last laugh, so to speak and was intended to make people smile or laugh.
I highly doubt that there is any "official" reasoning available for such a minor thing which is clearly intended for the viewers to make what they will of it, with the implication that it was in relation to their (Hulk & Thor's) earlier battle with one another. | Official wording? The answer is because Hulk is chaotic and unpredictable and loves to punch things. He's always been that way. |
2,273 | In the climatic battle of [**The Avengers**](http://www.imdb.com/title/tt0848228/), we see the full might of our heroes teaming up to protect the world.
However, [**one scene**](http://24.media.tumblr.com/03d89ab3fe7b118238963319b30994e8/tumblr_mmswbjHqd41r1mr1po1_500.gif) during this battle, while hilarious on it's own right, does not make much sense to me.
While battling the Chitauri together, Thor and Hulk eliminate what appears to be a small force residing in a building. While catching their breath, Hulk all of a sudden *punches Thor with great force away from him*.
But **why** does he do this?
The theories swirling in my head point to either a *revenge* punch for their fight in the Helicarrier. Or a *brofist* for beating a pack of Chitauri, taken a bit too far.
Is there any official wording on why this happened and Thor seemed to think *nothing* of it? | 2012/05/09 | [
"https://movies.stackexchange.com/questions/2273",
"https://movies.stackexchange.com",
"https://movies.stackexchange.com/users/130/"
] | It was obviously a case of Hulk having the last laugh, so to speak and was intended to make people smile or laugh.
I highly doubt that there is any "official" reasoning available for such a minor thing which is clearly intended for the viewers to make what they will of it, with the implication that it was in relation to their (Hulk & Thor's) earlier battle with one another. | That's just a bit of character development actually. They want people to like Hulk so they're showing that he actually has a personality and a sense of humor (though a wicked one) and can show respect to a compatriot, in his own unique way of course. Gleefully arm-punching a buddy he's learned to respect and just fought shoulder to shoulder with shows that he's growing as a person. |
2,273 | In the climatic battle of [**The Avengers**](http://www.imdb.com/title/tt0848228/), we see the full might of our heroes teaming up to protect the world.
However, [**one scene**](http://24.media.tumblr.com/03d89ab3fe7b118238963319b30994e8/tumblr_mmswbjHqd41r1mr1po1_500.gif) during this battle, while hilarious on it's own right, does not make much sense to me.
While battling the Chitauri together, Thor and Hulk eliminate what appears to be a small force residing in a building. While catching their breath, Hulk all of a sudden *punches Thor with great force away from him*.
But **why** does he do this?
The theories swirling in my head point to either a *revenge* punch for their fight in the Helicarrier. Or a *brofist* for beating a pack of Chitauri, taken a bit too far.
Is there any official wording on why this happened and Thor seemed to think *nothing* of it? | 2012/05/09 | [
"https://movies.stackexchange.com/questions/2273",
"https://movies.stackexchange.com",
"https://movies.stackexchange.com/users/130/"
] | Official wording? The answer is because Hulk is chaotic and unpredictable and loves to punch things. He's always been that way. | Hulk hates competition, and was still angry of the fact that Thor stood up to him. |
2,273 | In the climatic battle of [**The Avengers**](http://www.imdb.com/title/tt0848228/), we see the full might of our heroes teaming up to protect the world.
However, [**one scene**](http://24.media.tumblr.com/03d89ab3fe7b118238963319b30994e8/tumblr_mmswbjHqd41r1mr1po1_500.gif) during this battle, while hilarious on it's own right, does not make much sense to me.
While battling the Chitauri together, Thor and Hulk eliminate what appears to be a small force residing in a building. While catching their breath, Hulk all of a sudden *punches Thor with great force away from him*.
But **why** does he do this?
The theories swirling in my head point to either a *revenge* punch for their fight in the Helicarrier. Or a *brofist* for beating a pack of Chitauri, taken a bit too far.
Is there any official wording on why this happened and Thor seemed to think *nothing* of it? | 2012/05/09 | [
"https://movies.stackexchange.com/questions/2273",
"https://movies.stackexchange.com",
"https://movies.stackexchange.com/users/130/"
] | I think the Hulk is a bit of an a-hole in the movie, not out of character for him or anyone who knows their power is unmatched. He undoubtedly remembers their battle in S.H.I.E.L.D.s' carrier and remembers he could not lift Mjolnir, Thor's hammer. He has a bit of contempt for demigods. Something Loki found out first-hand after announcing himself as a god and in the same breath insulting a Hulk that is much more in touch with his internal Banner! "Puny god!" | Hulk hates competition, and was still angry of the fact that Thor stood up to him. |
2,273 | In the climatic battle of [**The Avengers**](http://www.imdb.com/title/tt0848228/), we see the full might of our heroes teaming up to protect the world.
However, [**one scene**](http://24.media.tumblr.com/03d89ab3fe7b118238963319b30994e8/tumblr_mmswbjHqd41r1mr1po1_500.gif) during this battle, while hilarious on it's own right, does not make much sense to me.
While battling the Chitauri together, Thor and Hulk eliminate what appears to be a small force residing in a building. While catching their breath, Hulk all of a sudden *punches Thor with great force away from him*.
But **why** does he do this?
The theories swirling in my head point to either a *revenge* punch for their fight in the Helicarrier. Or a *brofist* for beating a pack of Chitauri, taken a bit too far.
Is there any official wording on why this happened and Thor seemed to think *nothing* of it? | 2012/05/09 | [
"https://movies.stackexchange.com/questions/2273",
"https://movies.stackexchange.com",
"https://movies.stackexchange.com/users/130/"
] | That's just a bit of character development actually. They want people to like Hulk so they're showing that he actually has a personality and a sense of humor (though a wicked one) and can show respect to a compatriot, in his own unique way of course. Gleefully arm-punching a buddy he's learned to respect and just fought shoulder to shoulder with shows that he's growing as a person. | Hulk hates competition, and was still angry of the fact that Thor stood up to him. |
2,273 | In the climatic battle of [**The Avengers**](http://www.imdb.com/title/tt0848228/), we see the full might of our heroes teaming up to protect the world.
However, [**one scene**](http://24.media.tumblr.com/03d89ab3fe7b118238963319b30994e8/tumblr_mmswbjHqd41r1mr1po1_500.gif) during this battle, while hilarious on it's own right, does not make much sense to me.
While battling the Chitauri together, Thor and Hulk eliminate what appears to be a small force residing in a building. While catching their breath, Hulk all of a sudden *punches Thor with great force away from him*.
But **why** does he do this?
The theories swirling in my head point to either a *revenge* punch for their fight in the Helicarrier. Or a *brofist* for beating a pack of Chitauri, taken a bit too far.
Is there any official wording on why this happened and Thor seemed to think *nothing* of it? | 2012/05/09 | [
"https://movies.stackexchange.com/questions/2273",
"https://movies.stackexchange.com",
"https://movies.stackexchange.com/users/130/"
] | Although I have nothing to back this up, I am a writer and one of my characters parallels the Hulk fairly closely. In my mind, there's little doubt why he did it. He loves to hit things, he just got through having an aggressive fight, Thor is still upright, and he knows that Thor won't be hurt by it. It's like punching your teammate on the shoulder pads after he makes the game-winning touchdown, only sized up to Superhero proportion. | It was obviously a case of Hulk having the last laugh, so to speak and was intended to make people smile or laugh.
I highly doubt that there is any "official" reasoning available for such a minor thing which is clearly intended for the viewers to make what they will of it, with the implication that it was in relation to their (Hulk & Thor's) earlier battle with one another. |
2,273 | In the climatic battle of [**The Avengers**](http://www.imdb.com/title/tt0848228/), we see the full might of our heroes teaming up to protect the world.
However, [**one scene**](http://24.media.tumblr.com/03d89ab3fe7b118238963319b30994e8/tumblr_mmswbjHqd41r1mr1po1_500.gif) during this battle, while hilarious on it's own right, does not make much sense to me.
While battling the Chitauri together, Thor and Hulk eliminate what appears to be a small force residing in a building. While catching their breath, Hulk all of a sudden *punches Thor with great force away from him*.
But **why** does he do this?
The theories swirling in my head point to either a *revenge* punch for their fight in the Helicarrier. Or a *brofist* for beating a pack of Chitauri, taken a bit too far.
Is there any official wording on why this happened and Thor seemed to think *nothing* of it? | 2012/05/09 | [
"https://movies.stackexchange.com/questions/2273",
"https://movies.stackexchange.com",
"https://movies.stackexchange.com/users/130/"
] | Although I have nothing to back this up, I am a writer and one of my characters parallels the Hulk fairly closely. In my mind, there's little doubt why he did it. He loves to hit things, he just got through having an aggressive fight, Thor is still upright, and he knows that Thor won't be hurt by it. It's like punching your teammate on the shoulder pads after he makes the game-winning touchdown, only sized up to Superhero proportion. | I think the Hulk is a bit of an a-hole in the movie, not out of character for him or anyone who knows their power is unmatched. He undoubtedly remembers their battle in S.H.I.E.L.D.s' carrier and remembers he could not lift Mjolnir, Thor's hammer. He has a bit of contempt for demigods. Something Loki found out first-hand after announcing himself as a god and in the same breath insulting a Hulk that is much more in touch with his internal Banner! "Puny god!" |
2,273 | In the climatic battle of [**The Avengers**](http://www.imdb.com/title/tt0848228/), we see the full might of our heroes teaming up to protect the world.
However, [**one scene**](http://24.media.tumblr.com/03d89ab3fe7b118238963319b30994e8/tumblr_mmswbjHqd41r1mr1po1_500.gif) during this battle, while hilarious on it's own right, does not make much sense to me.
While battling the Chitauri together, Thor and Hulk eliminate what appears to be a small force residing in a building. While catching their breath, Hulk all of a sudden *punches Thor with great force away from him*.
But **why** does he do this?
The theories swirling in my head point to either a *revenge* punch for their fight in the Helicarrier. Or a *brofist* for beating a pack of Chitauri, taken a bit too far.
Is there any official wording on why this happened and Thor seemed to think *nothing* of it? | 2012/05/09 | [
"https://movies.stackexchange.com/questions/2273",
"https://movies.stackexchange.com",
"https://movies.stackexchange.com/users/130/"
] | Although I have nothing to back this up, I am a writer and one of my characters parallels the Hulk fairly closely. In my mind, there's little doubt why he did it. He loves to hit things, he just got through having an aggressive fight, Thor is still upright, and he knows that Thor won't be hurt by it. It's like punching your teammate on the shoulder pads after he makes the game-winning touchdown, only sized up to Superhero proportion. | Hulk hates competition, and was still angry of the fact that Thor stood up to him. |
128,063 | The explorers landed on a planet where the chirality was opposite that of Earth’s. For some reason they couldn’t leave, so one of the scientists isolated people’s cells, basically put them into an aquarium and added samples of the alien plant life so that the cells could evolve to make use of the wrong chirality. He then injected them back into the original people.
I’m not sure if it’s part of the same story, but I think when the back-up team came all of the original explorers had the same body (copies of the one person whose cells made the transition correctly) | 2016/05/14 | [
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/questions/128063",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/users/66133/"
] | **Short story: planet with wrong chirality**
["Contagion"](https://www.isfdb.org/cgi-bin/title.cgi?55208), a 1950 novelette by [Katherine Maclean](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Katherine_MacLean), apparently also the answer to [this old question](https://scifi.stackexchange.com/questions/93770/chirality-and-colonists). You can read it at [Project Gutenberg](http://www.gutenberg.org/ebooks/50774) or the [Internet Archive](http://archive.org/stream/galaxymagazine-1950-10/Galaxy_1950_10#page/n115/mode/2up), or listen to a reading at [LibriVox](https://librivox.org/contagion-by-katherine-maclean/) or [YouTube](https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=s90_Z_vRKoY), or you can read a review by [Doomsdayer](https://doomsdayer.wordpress.com/2012/07/10/maclean-katherine-contagion-1950/).
**The explorers landed on a planet where the chirality was opposite that of Earth’s.**
Patrick Mead, one of the original colonists, explains to the new arrivals:
>
> "Chemical differences in the basic protoplasm of Minos. Different amino linkages, left-handed instead of right-handed molecules in the carbohydrates, things like that. Nothing will be digestible here until you are adapted chemically by a little test-tube evolution. Till then you'd starve to death on a full stomach."
>
>
>
**For some reason they couldn’t leave,**
>
> *Plague*. "What was the disease?" Hal Barton asked.
>
>
> "Pretty gruesome, according to my father. They called it the 'melting sickness.' The doctors died too soon to find out what it was or what to do about it."
>
>
>
>
**so one of the scientists isolated people’s cells, basically put them into an aquarium and added samples of the alien plant life so that the cells could evolve to make use of the wrong chirality. He then injected them back into the original people.**
>
> "It's a story." Pat leaned back again. "Alexander P. Mead, the head of the Mead clan, was a plant geneticist, a very determined personality and no man to argue with. He didn't want us to go through the struggle of killing off all Minos plants and putting in our own, spoiling the face of the planet and upsetting the balance of its ecology. He decided that he would adapt our genes to this planet or kill us trying. He did it, all right."
>
>
>
>
**I think when the back-up team came**
Not a "back-up team", the new colonists who arrived three generations later were surprised to find the old colonists there.
**all of the original explorers had the same body (copies of the one person whose cells made the transition correctly)**
>
> June stepped closer and stood looking up at him, considering her own description. She was tall and tanned, like him; had a few freckles, like him; and wavy red hair, like his. She ignored the brightly luminous blue eyes.
>
>
>
> | Are you sure it was a short story, or could it be Larry Niven's novel [*Destiny's Road*](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Destiny's_Road)?
From [this page](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Chemical_chirality_in_popular_fiction):
>
> In Larry Niven's Destiny's Road, the title planet's indigenous life is based upon right-handed proteins. When human colonists arrive from Earth via a generation ship, extreme measures are taken to permit the colony's survival. A peninsula is sterilized with a lander's fusion drive, creating the titular "road" out of fused bedrock. The area is then reseeded with Earth life to provide the colonists with food. Though the soil lacks potassium due to other factors, necessitating supplements that produce a hydraulic empire common to Niven's fiction, the colony otherwise prospers. Native viruses and bacteria cannot infect colonists, resulting in longer lifespans. Sealife quickly recovers, and is consumed by the colonists as a "diet" food, as their digestive systems cannot metabolize it into fat.
>
>
>
See also [this older question](https://scifi.stackexchange.com/questions/93770/chirality-and-colonists) here. |
226,663 | Which is harder to exploit:
Password reset link with tokens/timestamps/code/ticket etc
Or, temporary password sent on user mail using which login can be done and password can be changed.
Any suggestions on how they can be exploited please? | 2020/03/02 | [
"https://security.stackexchange.com/questions/226663",
"https://security.stackexchange.com",
"https://security.stackexchange.com/users/228198/"
] | They could be, phishing sites are set up to do exactly this.
On non-malicious sites, this would be generally be considered poor practice, but there is no reason why they couldn't, beyond user privacy regulations. | In a previous job we logged failed credentials to a radius server used to authenticate internet connections. This was handy, we could reset customer's password to whatever their router was sending, or could see if the creds were from another ISP by the username.
My point is, there are times when logging failures is useful ("grandma you got caps-lock on again") However this was a decade ago, rules and regulations have moved on.
You are using a different password per service anyway right? So go to that one site, and change that one password that you think might have leaked. If its your default password for everything, then you have a lot more work to do. |
226,663 | Which is harder to exploit:
Password reset link with tokens/timestamps/code/ticket etc
Or, temporary password sent on user mail using which login can be done and password can be changed.
Any suggestions on how they can be exploited please? | 2020/03/02 | [
"https://security.stackexchange.com/questions/226663",
"https://security.stackexchange.com",
"https://security.stackexchange.com/users/228198/"
] | They could be, phishing sites are set up to do exactly this.
On non-malicious sites, this would be generally be considered poor practice, but there is no reason why they couldn't, beyond user privacy regulations. | I think the general answer here is that ***passwords*** are not normally logged by any legitimate service. Usernames certainly are.
To record passwords is a problem, even for the "correct" site. Services should not know what your passwords are, which is why there are some complicated processes used to store passwords. I have seen some very poorly designed systems where passwords are recorded, but this is an error/incompetence in design.
Malicious websites, on the other hand, do record your username and passwords, because they want to know them and abuse them. |
226,663 | Which is harder to exploit:
Password reset link with tokens/timestamps/code/ticket etc
Or, temporary password sent on user mail using which login can be done and password can be changed.
Any suggestions on how they can be exploited please? | 2020/03/02 | [
"https://security.stackexchange.com/questions/226663",
"https://security.stackexchange.com",
"https://security.stackexchange.com/users/228198/"
] | This would likely be recorded as an error on the website as it would return permission denied.
Many websites go through some kind of firewall or protection which might pick up failed attempted to try and block brute force log-in attempts or similar.
I would be pretty shocked to find that a (none compromised) website is storing passwords of failed log-in attempts, or any un-hashed/plaintext passwords at all. | Ignoring deliberately malicious websites, it can happen by accident or neglect. I refer you to Twitter: <https://www.theverge.com/2018/5/3/17316684/twitter-password-bug-security-flaw-exposed-change-now>
>
> May 3, 2018
>
>
> According to Twitter, the bug occurred due to an issue in the hashing process that masks passwords by replacing them with a random string of characters that get stored on Twitter’s system. But due to an error with the system, apparently passwords were being saved in plain text to an internal log, instead of masking them with the hashing process. Twitter claims to have found the bug on its own and removed the passwords. It’s working to make sure that similar issues don’t come up again.
>
>
> |
226,663 | Which is harder to exploit:
Password reset link with tokens/timestamps/code/ticket etc
Or, temporary password sent on user mail using which login can be done and password can be changed.
Any suggestions on how they can be exploited please? | 2020/03/02 | [
"https://security.stackexchange.com/questions/226663",
"https://security.stackexchange.com",
"https://security.stackexchange.com/users/228198/"
] | I think the general answer here is that ***passwords*** are not normally logged by any legitimate service. Usernames certainly are.
To record passwords is a problem, even for the "correct" site. Services should not know what your passwords are, which is why there are some complicated processes used to store passwords. I have seen some very poorly designed systems where passwords are recorded, but this is an error/incompetence in design.
Malicious websites, on the other hand, do record your username and passwords, because they want to know them and abuse them. | Ignoring deliberately malicious websites, it can happen by accident or neglect. I refer you to Twitter: <https://www.theverge.com/2018/5/3/17316684/twitter-password-bug-security-flaw-exposed-change-now>
>
> May 3, 2018
>
>
> According to Twitter, the bug occurred due to an issue in the hashing process that masks passwords by replacing them with a random string of characters that get stored on Twitter’s system. But due to an error with the system, apparently passwords were being saved in plain text to an internal log, instead of masking them with the hashing process. Twitter claims to have found the bug on its own and removed the passwords. It’s working to make sure that similar issues don’t come up again.
>
>
> |
226,663 | Which is harder to exploit:
Password reset link with tokens/timestamps/code/ticket etc
Or, temporary password sent on user mail using which login can be done and password can be changed.
Any suggestions on how they can be exploited please? | 2020/03/02 | [
"https://security.stackexchange.com/questions/226663",
"https://security.stackexchange.com",
"https://security.stackexchange.com/users/228198/"
] | They could be, phishing sites are set up to do exactly this.
On non-malicious sites, this would be generally be considered poor practice, but there is no reason why they couldn't, beyond user privacy regulations. | This would likely be recorded as an error on the website as it would return permission denied.
Many websites go through some kind of firewall or protection which might pick up failed attempted to try and block brute force log-in attempts or similar.
I would be pretty shocked to find that a (none compromised) website is storing passwords of failed log-in attempts, or any un-hashed/plaintext passwords at all. |
226,663 | Which is harder to exploit:
Password reset link with tokens/timestamps/code/ticket etc
Or, temporary password sent on user mail using which login can be done and password can be changed.
Any suggestions on how they can be exploited please? | 2020/03/02 | [
"https://security.stackexchange.com/questions/226663",
"https://security.stackexchange.com",
"https://security.stackexchange.com/users/228198/"
] | This would likely be recorded as an error on the website as it would return permission denied.
Many websites go through some kind of firewall or protection which might pick up failed attempted to try and block brute force log-in attempts or similar.
I would be pretty shocked to find that a (none compromised) website is storing passwords of failed log-in attempts, or any un-hashed/plaintext passwords at all. | In a previous job we logged failed credentials to a radius server used to authenticate internet connections. This was handy, we could reset customer's password to whatever their router was sending, or could see if the creds were from another ISP by the username.
My point is, there are times when logging failures is useful ("grandma you got caps-lock on again") However this was a decade ago, rules and regulations have moved on.
You are using a different password per service anyway right? So go to that one site, and change that one password that you think might have leaked. If its your default password for everything, then you have a lot more work to do. |
226,663 | Which is harder to exploit:
Password reset link with tokens/timestamps/code/ticket etc
Or, temporary password sent on user mail using which login can be done and password can be changed.
Any suggestions on how they can be exploited please? | 2020/03/02 | [
"https://security.stackexchange.com/questions/226663",
"https://security.stackexchange.com",
"https://security.stackexchange.com/users/228198/"
] | A legitimate website will rather not do that.
Then again, there are possibilities:
1. The site being compromised
2. The site being run by incompetent people (never underestimate...), collecting the data and get compromised in some future point.
3. The site collecting some data of failed logins in order to analyse and prevent brute-force or similar attacks. "Some data" probably includes login names and may or may not include passwords, parts of the passwords or hashes of the passwords and the hash may or may not be strong. | This would likely be recorded as an error on the website as it would return permission denied.
Many websites go through some kind of firewall or protection which might pick up failed attempted to try and block brute force log-in attempts or similar.
I would be pretty shocked to find that a (none compromised) website is storing passwords of failed log-in attempts, or any un-hashed/plaintext passwords at all. |
226,663 | Which is harder to exploit:
Password reset link with tokens/timestamps/code/ticket etc
Or, temporary password sent on user mail using which login can be done and password can be changed.
Any suggestions on how they can be exploited please? | 2020/03/02 | [
"https://security.stackexchange.com/questions/226663",
"https://security.stackexchange.com",
"https://security.stackexchange.com/users/228198/"
] | A legitimate website will rather not do that.
Then again, there are possibilities:
1. The site being compromised
2. The site being run by incompetent people (never underestimate...), collecting the data and get compromised in some future point.
3. The site collecting some data of failed logins in order to analyse and prevent brute-force or similar attacks. "Some data" probably includes login names and may or may not include passwords, parts of the passwords or hashes of the passwords and the hash may or may not be strong. | In a previous job we logged failed credentials to a radius server used to authenticate internet connections. This was handy, we could reset customer's password to whatever their router was sending, or could see if the creds were from another ISP by the username.
My point is, there are times when logging failures is useful ("grandma you got caps-lock on again") However this was a decade ago, rules and regulations have moved on.
You are using a different password per service anyway right? So go to that one site, and change that one password that you think might have leaked. If its your default password for everything, then you have a lot more work to do. |
226,663 | Which is harder to exploit:
Password reset link with tokens/timestamps/code/ticket etc
Or, temporary password sent on user mail using which login can be done and password can be changed.
Any suggestions on how they can be exploited please? | 2020/03/02 | [
"https://security.stackexchange.com/questions/226663",
"https://security.stackexchange.com",
"https://security.stackexchange.com/users/228198/"
] | This would likely be recorded as an error on the website as it would return permission denied.
Many websites go through some kind of firewall or protection which might pick up failed attempted to try and block brute force log-in attempts or similar.
I would be pretty shocked to find that a (none compromised) website is storing passwords of failed log-in attempts, or any un-hashed/plaintext passwords at all. | They should not, but good security practice would be to consider the password used as compromised and change it.
After all, if you lose a set of keys for your home, wouldn't make you less worried to replace the locks? |
226,663 | Which is harder to exploit:
Password reset link with tokens/timestamps/code/ticket etc
Or, temporary password sent on user mail using which login can be done and password can be changed.
Any suggestions on how they can be exploited please? | 2020/03/02 | [
"https://security.stackexchange.com/questions/226663",
"https://security.stackexchange.com",
"https://security.stackexchange.com/users/228198/"
] | I think the general answer here is that ***passwords*** are not normally logged by any legitimate service. Usernames certainly are.
To record passwords is a problem, even for the "correct" site. Services should not know what your passwords are, which is why there are some complicated processes used to store passwords. I have seen some very poorly designed systems where passwords are recorded, but this is an error/incompetence in design.
Malicious websites, on the other hand, do record your username and passwords, because they want to know them and abuse them. | They should not, but good security practice would be to consider the password used as compromised and change it.
After all, if you lose a set of keys for your home, wouldn't make you less worried to replace the locks? |
15,519,014 | I want to know(study) about the network driver interfacing with the linux kernel or the TCP/IP stack.
For this i would like to use my own system driver as a case study.
Can you please tell me any good references from where i can study the above concept.
I will be very thankful to you | 2013/03/20 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/15519014",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/2087340/"
] | I recommend:
(1)One book "Understanding the Linux Network Internals" by Benvenuti; This book can be ordered on amazon: [http://www.amazon.com/Understanding-Network-Internals-Christian-Benvenuti/dp/0596002556](https://rads.stackoverflow.com/amzn/click/com/0596002556)
(2)One demo code inside the Linux Kernel source tree: ./drivers/net/pci-skeleton.c, or other real NIC driver codes inside the Linux Kernel, there are tons of NIC driver codes; | I think some parts of the interface are explained in Linux Device Drivers book.
You can get a legal and free copy here:
<http://lwn.net/Kernel/LDD3/>
Have a look on the code example of a network device driver, it should show you how the interface between device driver and kernel network subsystem is working. |
70,778 | I'm just learning photography and I found this picture
<http://www.michaelkormos.com/blog/a-lovely-afternoon-family-photography-nyc-family-photographer>
The background was warm with yellow soft tones ... but the subjects are clear. I wondered how can I do that?
Yesterday I did a test, but failed ... lOLz ... It was a bright sunny day at the lake nearby and I changed the white balance color to warm and shot with the flash on her face. But ... her face become darker, as seen in this picture:
I want to know how to make her skin tone natural. Which flash gel should I use for this?
Another case, I did this shoot at night with very low light.
I used off-camera flash and shot at the subject but I saw my flash became blueish, like the garden lamp. Here is the picture:
how can I fix this color and, if possible, could you reference an article or book that can help me learn more about color and white balance? | 2015/11/09 | [
"https://photo.stackexchange.com/questions/70778",
"https://photo.stackexchange.com",
"https://photo.stackexchange.com/users/46231/"
] | A shot like this requires you to **shoot during the [golden hour](https://photo.stackexchange.com/questions/16028/what-is-golden-hour)**. The light at this time of day will be very warm/yellow with very pronounced shadows. Other factors that can help you get a shot similar to this include careful application of additional light sources such as a reflector, as well as special consideration for what lens may produce the desired effect such as lens flare.
Further, if you want to replicate the effect that this photographer achieved, I would recommend you **read some of his blog posts** such as this one: [5 Easy Backlighting tips by Michael Kormos](http://www.clickinmoms.com/blog/easy-backlighting-tips-for-your-photography-by-michael-kormos/)
Here is an example I shot 20 mins before sunset at my location:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/ZCWZz.jpg) | First, to get this warm and yellow background, you need to be shooting in that kind of light, which generally only happens at sunrise and sunset. You can see by the catchlight in the eyes that the photographer was using a fairly large reflector to get light back onto the subjects. Also, you will notice that the super golden part of the light is way off in the distance - the further away, the more golden, so being close to the subject with the camera means less gold, more natural.
So it's essentially three things: shoot just before sunset, put the light source behind your subject and a good distance away, and use a reflector to get light onto your subject's face. |
70,778 | I'm just learning photography and I found this picture
<http://www.michaelkormos.com/blog/a-lovely-afternoon-family-photography-nyc-family-photographer>
The background was warm with yellow soft tones ... but the subjects are clear. I wondered how can I do that?
Yesterday I did a test, but failed ... lOLz ... It was a bright sunny day at the lake nearby and I changed the white balance color to warm and shot with the flash on her face. But ... her face become darker, as seen in this picture:
I want to know how to make her skin tone natural. Which flash gel should I use for this?
Another case, I did this shoot at night with very low light.
I used off-camera flash and shot at the subject but I saw my flash became blueish, like the garden lamp. Here is the picture:
how can I fix this color and, if possible, could you reference an article or book that can help me learn more about color and white balance? | 2015/11/09 | [
"https://photo.stackexchange.com/questions/70778",
"https://photo.stackexchange.com",
"https://photo.stackexchange.com/users/46231/"
] | First, to get this warm and yellow background, you need to be shooting in that kind of light, which generally only happens at sunrise and sunset. You can see by the catchlight in the eyes that the photographer was using a fairly large reflector to get light back onto the subjects. Also, you will notice that the super golden part of the light is way off in the distance - the further away, the more golden, so being close to the subject with the camera means less gold, more natural.
So it's essentially three things: shoot just before sunset, put the light source behind your subject and a good distance away, and use a reflector to get light onto your subject's face. | It's basically about how you use the gels and white balance in combination. Your subject is lit by the flash. Your ambient background is not. So you can make a color temperature difference between the two, in any balance you want, by adjusting the color of the light on your subject, and then white balancing to match.
If you want a warmer background with a neutral subject, then gel your flash to be cooler (blue), and then shoot or post-process to warm up the entire image until your subject is neutral. The background, which was its normal temperature in the original shot, is now even warmer. On the flip side, if you want your background to be cooler (say, turning a grey sky blue), then gel your flash to be warmer (orange/yellow), and then white balance the image in-camera or in post to get a neutral subject, but a cooler background.
See: <http://www.slrlounge.com/simple-way-change-color-sky-camera/> for good visual examples. |
70,778 | I'm just learning photography and I found this picture
<http://www.michaelkormos.com/blog/a-lovely-afternoon-family-photography-nyc-family-photographer>
The background was warm with yellow soft tones ... but the subjects are clear. I wondered how can I do that?
Yesterday I did a test, but failed ... lOLz ... It was a bright sunny day at the lake nearby and I changed the white balance color to warm and shot with the flash on her face. But ... her face become darker, as seen in this picture:
I want to know how to make her skin tone natural. Which flash gel should I use for this?
Another case, I did this shoot at night with very low light.
I used off-camera flash and shot at the subject but I saw my flash became blueish, like the garden lamp. Here is the picture:
how can I fix this color and, if possible, could you reference an article or book that can help me learn more about color and white balance? | 2015/11/09 | [
"https://photo.stackexchange.com/questions/70778",
"https://photo.stackexchange.com",
"https://photo.stackexchange.com/users/46231/"
] | A shot like this requires you to **shoot during the [golden hour](https://photo.stackexchange.com/questions/16028/what-is-golden-hour)**. The light at this time of day will be very warm/yellow with very pronounced shadows. Other factors that can help you get a shot similar to this include careful application of additional light sources such as a reflector, as well as special consideration for what lens may produce the desired effect such as lens flare.
Further, if you want to replicate the effect that this photographer achieved, I would recommend you **read some of his blog posts** such as this one: [5 Easy Backlighting tips by Michael Kormos](http://www.clickinmoms.com/blog/easy-backlighting-tips-for-your-photography-by-michael-kormos/)
Here is an example I shot 20 mins before sunset at my location:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/ZCWZz.jpg) | You can get different white balance on subject and background when you use flash and gels. That's one of the points of using flashes.
<http://neilvn.com/tangents/gelling-your-flash-for-effect-blue-background/>
<http://neilvn.com/tangents/photo-shoot-progression-of-an-idea/> (and many more on his blog)
The white balance of the flash is fixed. The color of the ambient light/background is fixed (assuming it's not affected by the flash). If you want a background warmer than the subject, put an opposite (cold = blueish) gel on the flash and then do white balance on the subject. The background will result warmer than the subject.
Of course you have to tune the intensity of the gel depending on the actual difference in color: if you want a background much warmer than the subject, but it is already sunset and you are lighting the subject with a flash, you may not need a gel at all: the flash is daylight and the background is already warm. |
70,778 | I'm just learning photography and I found this picture
<http://www.michaelkormos.com/blog/a-lovely-afternoon-family-photography-nyc-family-photographer>
The background was warm with yellow soft tones ... but the subjects are clear. I wondered how can I do that?
Yesterday I did a test, but failed ... lOLz ... It was a bright sunny day at the lake nearby and I changed the white balance color to warm and shot with the flash on her face. But ... her face become darker, as seen in this picture:
I want to know how to make her skin tone natural. Which flash gel should I use for this?
Another case, I did this shoot at night with very low light.
I used off-camera flash and shot at the subject but I saw my flash became blueish, like the garden lamp. Here is the picture:
how can I fix this color and, if possible, could you reference an article or book that can help me learn more about color and white balance? | 2015/11/09 | [
"https://photo.stackexchange.com/questions/70778",
"https://photo.stackexchange.com",
"https://photo.stackexchange.com/users/46231/"
] | A shot like this requires you to **shoot during the [golden hour](https://photo.stackexchange.com/questions/16028/what-is-golden-hour)**. The light at this time of day will be very warm/yellow with very pronounced shadows. Other factors that can help you get a shot similar to this include careful application of additional light sources such as a reflector, as well as special consideration for what lens may produce the desired effect such as lens flare.
Further, if you want to replicate the effect that this photographer achieved, I would recommend you **read some of his blog posts** such as this one: [5 Easy Backlighting tips by Michael Kormos](http://www.clickinmoms.com/blog/easy-backlighting-tips-for-your-photography-by-michael-kormos/)
Here is an example I shot 20 mins before sunset at my location:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/ZCWZz.jpg) | It's basically about how you use the gels and white balance in combination. Your subject is lit by the flash. Your ambient background is not. So you can make a color temperature difference between the two, in any balance you want, by adjusting the color of the light on your subject, and then white balancing to match.
If you want a warmer background with a neutral subject, then gel your flash to be cooler (blue), and then shoot or post-process to warm up the entire image until your subject is neutral. The background, which was its normal temperature in the original shot, is now even warmer. On the flip side, if you want your background to be cooler (say, turning a grey sky blue), then gel your flash to be warmer (orange/yellow), and then white balance the image in-camera or in post to get a neutral subject, but a cooler background.
See: <http://www.slrlounge.com/simple-way-change-color-sky-camera/> for good visual examples. |
70,778 | I'm just learning photography and I found this picture
<http://www.michaelkormos.com/blog/a-lovely-afternoon-family-photography-nyc-family-photographer>
The background was warm with yellow soft tones ... but the subjects are clear. I wondered how can I do that?
Yesterday I did a test, but failed ... lOLz ... It was a bright sunny day at the lake nearby and I changed the white balance color to warm and shot with the flash on her face. But ... her face become darker, as seen in this picture:
I want to know how to make her skin tone natural. Which flash gel should I use for this?
Another case, I did this shoot at night with very low light.
I used off-camera flash and shot at the subject but I saw my flash became blueish, like the garden lamp. Here is the picture:
how can I fix this color and, if possible, could you reference an article or book that can help me learn more about color and white balance? | 2015/11/09 | [
"https://photo.stackexchange.com/questions/70778",
"https://photo.stackexchange.com",
"https://photo.stackexchange.com/users/46231/"
] | You can get different white balance on subject and background when you use flash and gels. That's one of the points of using flashes.
<http://neilvn.com/tangents/gelling-your-flash-for-effect-blue-background/>
<http://neilvn.com/tangents/photo-shoot-progression-of-an-idea/> (and many more on his blog)
The white balance of the flash is fixed. The color of the ambient light/background is fixed (assuming it's not affected by the flash). If you want a background warmer than the subject, put an opposite (cold = blueish) gel on the flash and then do white balance on the subject. The background will result warmer than the subject.
Of course you have to tune the intensity of the gel depending on the actual difference in color: if you want a background much warmer than the subject, but it is already sunset and you are lighting the subject with a flash, you may not need a gel at all: the flash is daylight and the background is already warm. | It's basically about how you use the gels and white balance in combination. Your subject is lit by the flash. Your ambient background is not. So you can make a color temperature difference between the two, in any balance you want, by adjusting the color of the light on your subject, and then white balancing to match.
If you want a warmer background with a neutral subject, then gel your flash to be cooler (blue), and then shoot or post-process to warm up the entire image until your subject is neutral. The background, which was its normal temperature in the original shot, is now even warmer. On the flip side, if you want your background to be cooler (say, turning a grey sky blue), then gel your flash to be warmer (orange/yellow), and then white balance the image in-camera or in post to get a neutral subject, but a cooler background.
See: <http://www.slrlounge.com/simple-way-change-color-sky-camera/> for good visual examples. |
6,040 | I am fairly new to this forum but I am repeatably running into the same problem. This is the user who has found a formula or data on the internet which they think can be applied to a problem. They go ahead and post or quote this blindly without giving any thought to its applicability and then insist they are correct because they can refer to some web page. Can we do anything in the guidelines reputation or flagging system to discourage this behavior?
The voting system on answers seems to address the problem there. But it does not apply to comments, Perhaps there should be a flag category a little stronger than not helpful say "just plain wrong". If upheld it could lead to a loss of a little reputation which might just make people think before posting spurious information.
So far I have succeeded in remaining polite but the temptation to call some people idiots is becoming overwhelming. | 2016/12/19 | [
"https://electronics.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/6040",
"https://electronics.meta.stackexchange.com",
"https://electronics.meta.stackexchange.com/users/115446/"
] | [Help center](https://electronics.stackexchange.com/help/privileges/flag-posts) says, for the flagging privilege (obtained at 15 rep):
>
> **When should I flag?**
>
>
> If anything happens on our site that makes you feel uncomfortable or that, in your opinion, clearly does not belong here, please flag it and bring it to our attention!
>
>
>
You saw something that, in your opinion, clearly did not belong here, and you flagged. Fine.
What happens when you "flag to close" before having the close privilege is that the question goes to the close queue, and users with sufficient privileges will then cast their votes according to what they think (but the flag does not count as a vote).
Nothing wrong here.
On the other hand, most of the time, other users with sufficient rep will likely close the post by themselves anyway, and the result will be the same. But in that case, the fact you flagged does *not* induce any overhead on the higher-rep users, so it doesn't matter. There is an overhead only if you are the *only* one who thinks this post must be closed (but you don't flag wrongly, do you?). | Flags are meant for signaling exception conditions to the moderators.
Closing a post is routine business. You only need 3000 rep to be able to vote to close questions. We have a reasonably large number of users at 3000 or higher, so bad questions will get closed soon enough. If you don't have 3000 rep yet, just move on and let someone else handle it.
Early in the site's history, there were few users that could vote to close. Back then, flagging a question to be closed made some sense. It no longer does today.
The privilege of flagging to close is still there. It's not wrong to use it, but also not necessary and now how the site operates today. If you see a question that should be closed, just move along and let others handle it until you have the necessary rep. You could still leave a message telling the OP what is wrong with the question, and warn him that it will likely be closed if he doesn't attend to it soon. |
6,040 | I am fairly new to this forum but I am repeatably running into the same problem. This is the user who has found a formula or data on the internet which they think can be applied to a problem. They go ahead and post or quote this blindly without giving any thought to its applicability and then insist they are correct because they can refer to some web page. Can we do anything in the guidelines reputation or flagging system to discourage this behavior?
The voting system on answers seems to address the problem there. But it does not apply to comments, Perhaps there should be a flag category a little stronger than not helpful say "just plain wrong". If upheld it could lead to a loss of a little reputation which might just make people think before posting spurious information.
So far I have succeeded in remaining polite but the temptation to call some people idiots is becoming overwhelming. | 2016/12/19 | [
"https://electronics.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/6040",
"https://electronics.meta.stackexchange.com",
"https://electronics.meta.stackexchange.com/users/115446/"
] | [Help center](https://electronics.stackexchange.com/help/privileges/flag-posts) says, for the flagging privilege (obtained at 15 rep):
>
> **When should I flag?**
>
>
> If anything happens on our site that makes you feel uncomfortable or that, in your opinion, clearly does not belong here, please flag it and bring it to our attention!
>
>
>
You saw something that, in your opinion, clearly did not belong here, and you flagged. Fine.
What happens when you "flag to close" before having the close privilege is that the question goes to the close queue, and users with sufficient privileges will then cast their votes according to what they think (but the flag does not count as a vote).
Nothing wrong here.
On the other hand, most of the time, other users with sufficient rep will likely close the post by themselves anyway, and the result will be the same. But in that case, the fact you flagged does *not* induce any overhead on the higher-rep users, so it doesn't matter. There is an overhead only if you are the *only* one who thinks this post must be closed (but you don't flag wrongly, do you?). | In addition to the other answers, moderators can take some flak when community moderation isn't allowed to take it's course before they zoom in and close something. It takes 5 users to close a question, but just one moderator. They tend to reserve that action for cases that might fall between the cracks, or for cases where there is a reason to get something closed FAST (like site sabotage, profanity,...)
The places where flags are most useful are for things that won't work their way onto the close cue, like questions posted as answers to similar questions, answers that are really comments, etc. |
6,040 | I am fairly new to this forum but I am repeatably running into the same problem. This is the user who has found a formula or data on the internet which they think can be applied to a problem. They go ahead and post or quote this blindly without giving any thought to its applicability and then insist they are correct because they can refer to some web page. Can we do anything in the guidelines reputation or flagging system to discourage this behavior?
The voting system on answers seems to address the problem there. But it does not apply to comments, Perhaps there should be a flag category a little stronger than not helpful say "just plain wrong". If upheld it could lead to a loss of a little reputation which might just make people think before posting spurious information.
So far I have succeeded in remaining polite but the temptation to call some people idiots is becoming overwhelming. | 2016/12/19 | [
"https://electronics.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/6040",
"https://electronics.meta.stackexchange.com",
"https://electronics.meta.stackexchange.com/users/115446/"
] | In addition to the other answers, moderators can take some flak when community moderation isn't allowed to take it's course before they zoom in and close something. It takes 5 users to close a question, but just one moderator. They tend to reserve that action for cases that might fall between the cracks, or for cases where there is a reason to get something closed FAST (like site sabotage, profanity,...)
The places where flags are most useful are for things that won't work their way onto the close cue, like questions posted as answers to similar questions, answers that are really comments, etc. | Flags are meant for signaling exception conditions to the moderators.
Closing a post is routine business. You only need 3000 rep to be able to vote to close questions. We have a reasonably large number of users at 3000 or higher, so bad questions will get closed soon enough. If you don't have 3000 rep yet, just move on and let someone else handle it.
Early in the site's history, there were few users that could vote to close. Back then, flagging a question to be closed made some sense. It no longer does today.
The privilege of flagging to close is still there. It's not wrong to use it, but also not necessary and now how the site operates today. If you see a question that should be closed, just move along and let others handle it until you have the necessary rep. You could still leave a message telling the OP what is wrong with the question, and warn him that it will likely be closed if he doesn't attend to it soon. |
4,032,829 | Assuming this is possible, I would like my iOS application, when backgrounded, to poll a server (i.e. essentially, retrieve the contents of a URL every 30 minutes and notify the user if it contains something "interesting"), essentially in a similar way to the way the built-in mail client assumedly works if you're not using push notifications.
Now, from my reading so far (I'm an experienced programmer, but new to iOS), I think there may be two potential ways to do this:
* Method 1: In applicationDidEnterBackground:, start a background task which does the periodic polling;
* Method 2: Send your own app a UILocalNotification with no visible text to the user, but which simply serves to wake your app up in X minutes time to do the polling (and then send itself another notification for next tim etc).
I see in Apple's documentation of [Scheduling, Registering, and Handling Notifications](http://developer.apple.com/library/ios/#documentation/NetworkingInternet/Conceptual/RemoteNotificationsPG/IPhoneOSClientImp/IPhoneOSClientImp.html), they actually seem to have an example usign Method 1 (their "chat" example, Listing 2-2). But what is surprising about this method is that it appears to just sit in a continual loop doing the polling, with no intervening sleep; on platforms I'm more familiar with, this would be inadvisable and would burn CPU.
So subparts of my question are essentially:
- Is Method 2 possible (or *must* a UILocalNotification always cause a visible alert to the user, which is not what I want) and if so is it the recommended way to do this?
- If the way to do it is Method 1, is Apple's "chat" example of sitting in a continual loop actually OK (e.g. does iOS ration the CPU so that this isn't an issue), and if not what is the way in iOS to tell the background process to "sleep for X seconds/minutes"? And if Apple's continuous loop is OK for whatever reason, what would then be the way to time the intervals between polling?
N.B. I appreciate that being able to run in the background at all is essentially an iOS 4 feature. I don't mind if my app will only run in iOS 4. | 2010/10/27 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/4032829",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/48933/"
] | What you want to do, is not covered under the multitasking features of iOS4. There are only a few types of applications allowed to run in the background for long periods of time (more than 10 minutes), and generic networking applications aren't one of them.
However, all is not lost. What you can do, and what I believe you ***should*** do is to use push notifications. On your server, you link up with apple's push notification service, the user registers for push notifications, and you either know what "interesting data" is, or they tell you. When that data is available, you send it to the user immediately via a push notification.
It provides a nicer user experience, and your app doesn't need to be running in the background. iOS will handle delivery of the push notification. If they swipe to unlock the phone when they get the notification, your app will open up, and at which time, you can load that useful information in your app.
Your method 1 won't work long term, even if you do manage to pause input for a while, and this is why: Launching a background task runs a task for NO MORE than 10 minutes, unless you are one of the three types of applications that is allowed to stay running. After 10 minutes, the OS will suspend you.
Your method 2 won't work at all. All local notifications present an alert view to users. | >
> Assuming this is possible...
>
>
>
Unfortunately that's a faulty assumption(!).
You can't do it using the "multi tasking" on the iPhone, as it only allows certain kinds of background processing (GPS, VoIP, music). To do what you want you'll need to do the work on a server and use push notifications. |
2,159,916 | [diagram http://img526.imageshack.us/img526/2506/picture1lx.jpg](http://img526.imageshack.us/img526/2506/picture1lx.jpg)
The question is pretty self-explanatory. Is there a technical name for that diagram? Is it considered UML? Second of all, what sort of program might have been used to generate it? I'd like to make one of my own. I'm running Windows 7, but suggestions for programs on other operating systems are welcome too. | 2010/01/29 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/2159916",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/47493/"
] | It is not UML.
Most probably not a standard, just blocks with not-well-defined meanings.
There might be tools, but this one was probably drawn with OpenOffice or similar. | It's not UML as Nicolas suggests.
The closest term I know is [Layered Architecture](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Abstraction_(computer_science)#Layered_architecture) diagram.
As it seems like there is no agreed rules/convention on this type of diagram (as compared to UML,) any graphics tool would do e.g. Visio, [Creately](http://creately.com/) (online one.) |
2,159,916 | [diagram http://img526.imageshack.us/img526/2506/picture1lx.jpg](http://img526.imageshack.us/img526/2506/picture1lx.jpg)
The question is pretty self-explanatory. Is there a technical name for that diagram? Is it considered UML? Second of all, what sort of program might have been used to generate it? I'd like to make one of my own. I'm running Windows 7, but suggestions for programs on other operating systems are welcome too. | 2010/01/29 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/2159916",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/47493/"
] | It is not UML.
Most probably not a standard, just blocks with not-well-defined meanings.
There might be tools, but this one was probably drawn with OpenOffice or similar. | You could abuse a UML class diagram with packages, or a component diagram to draw something like this. |
2,159,916 | [diagram http://img526.imageshack.us/img526/2506/picture1lx.jpg](http://img526.imageshack.us/img526/2506/picture1lx.jpg)
The question is pretty self-explanatory. Is there a technical name for that diagram? Is it considered UML? Second of all, what sort of program might have been used to generate it? I'd like to make one of my own. I'm running Windows 7, but suggestions for programs on other operating systems are welcome too. | 2010/01/29 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/2159916",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/47493/"
] | It's not UML as Nicolas suggests.
The closest term I know is [Layered Architecture](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Abstraction_(computer_science)#Layered_architecture) diagram.
As it seems like there is no agreed rules/convention on this type of diagram (as compared to UML,) any graphics tool would do e.g. Visio, [Creately](http://creately.com/) (online one.) | You could abuse a UML class diagram with packages, or a component diagram to draw something like this. |
2,159,916 | [diagram http://img526.imageshack.us/img526/2506/picture1lx.jpg](http://img526.imageshack.us/img526/2506/picture1lx.jpg)
The question is pretty self-explanatory. Is there a technical name for that diagram? Is it considered UML? Second of all, what sort of program might have been used to generate it? I'd like to make one of my own. I'm running Windows 7, but suggestions for programs on other operating systems are welcome too. | 2010/01/29 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/2159916",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/47493/"
] | You might consider using a layer diagram, which you can use to describe the logical structure of your system. You can create layer diagrams bottom up from code or from the top-down in Visual Studio 2010 Ultimate. In addition, VS 2010 lets you validate code against a layer diagram that is mapped to it.
For more information, see the product documentation:
**Layer Diagrams: Reference**: <http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/dd409462%28VS.100%29.aspx>
>
> You can use a layer diagram to visualize the logical architecture of your system. A layer diagram
> organizes the physical artifacts in your system into logical, abstract groups called layers. These
> layers help you identify, describe, and differentiate the kinds of tasks that those artifacts perform.
> Each layer can also contain additional layers, or sublayers, that describe smaller specific tasks that
> discrete groups of artifacts perform. You can also show the intended or existing dependencies
> between certain layers. These dependencies indicate which layers can use or currently use the
> functionality in other layers. By organizing your system into layers that describe distinct roles and
> functions, a layer diagram can help make it easier for you to understand, reuse, and maintain
> your code.
>
>
>
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/RrBJP.png)
**How to: Validate Code Against Layer Diagrams**: <http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/dd409395%28VS.100%29.aspx>
>
> Validating code against a layer
> diagram helps you enforce
> architectural constraints on the code
> as it evolves. When you perform this
> task, dependencies in the code are
> compared with dependencies on the
> diagram.
>
>
> | It's not UML as Nicolas suggests.
The closest term I know is [Layered Architecture](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Abstraction_(computer_science)#Layered_architecture) diagram.
As it seems like there is no agreed rules/convention on this type of diagram (as compared to UML,) any graphics tool would do e.g. Visio, [Creately](http://creately.com/) (online one.) |
2,159,916 | [diagram http://img526.imageshack.us/img526/2506/picture1lx.jpg](http://img526.imageshack.us/img526/2506/picture1lx.jpg)
The question is pretty self-explanatory. Is there a technical name for that diagram? Is it considered UML? Second of all, what sort of program might have been used to generate it? I'd like to make one of my own. I'm running Windows 7, but suggestions for programs on other operating systems are welcome too. | 2010/01/29 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/2159916",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/47493/"
] | You might consider using a layer diagram, which you can use to describe the logical structure of your system. You can create layer diagrams bottom up from code or from the top-down in Visual Studio 2010 Ultimate. In addition, VS 2010 lets you validate code against a layer diagram that is mapped to it.
For more information, see the product documentation:
**Layer Diagrams: Reference**: <http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/dd409462%28VS.100%29.aspx>
>
> You can use a layer diagram to visualize the logical architecture of your system. A layer diagram
> organizes the physical artifacts in your system into logical, abstract groups called layers. These
> layers help you identify, describe, and differentiate the kinds of tasks that those artifacts perform.
> Each layer can also contain additional layers, or sublayers, that describe smaller specific tasks that
> discrete groups of artifacts perform. You can also show the intended or existing dependencies
> between certain layers. These dependencies indicate which layers can use or currently use the
> functionality in other layers. By organizing your system into layers that describe distinct roles and
> functions, a layer diagram can help make it easier for you to understand, reuse, and maintain
> your code.
>
>
>
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/RrBJP.png)
**How to: Validate Code Against Layer Diagrams**: <http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/dd409395%28VS.100%29.aspx>
>
> Validating code against a layer
> diagram helps you enforce
> architectural constraints on the code
> as it evolves. When you perform this
> task, dependencies in the code are
> compared with dependencies on the
> diagram.
>
>
> | You could abuse a UML class diagram with packages, or a component diagram to draw something like this. |
160,697 | I mean, *of course* I can do anything the DM allows, etc. But is there a rules-as-written sequence of events that ends with a character with only Ur-Priest levels? I.e. ECL = Ur-Priest class level.
I have been playing with this question as a sort of puzzle for the past few months, and haven’t found anything solid yet. I thought other folks on here might enjoy trying too.
So far, my best attempt relies on humanoid HD and lycanthropy, but I am not convinced that a character can start with a single humanoid HD instead of class levels.
I suspect that any solution will involve losing levels. My default assumption is that the most recently gained level or HD is lost first. There are some exceptions (e.g. werewolf HD on curing lycanthropy, “bonus” HD), but please be sure to explain any reasoning needed. | 2019/12/03 | [
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/160697",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/users/25662/"
] | **Bottom line up front:** a Chaotic Evil belgoi werebattletitan could take ur-priest levels without any other class levels, and then have lycanthropy cured and the belgoi race changed to another without RHD, to end up as a pure ur-priest, at least through 10th level.
---
Ur-priest only has 10 levels to it, and even if you make an epic extension of it—as is recommended for 10-level prestige classes—you can’t take the 11th level until you are epic.1 Even a dragonwrought kobold can’t get out of that one, since *Draconomicon* only waives the 21st-level requirement from epic feats,2 not from other epic options including epic prestige classes. So if nothing else, you cannot be a pure ur-priest with more than 10 class levels.
Another sticking point here is the actual definition of prestige classes as “a new form of multiclassing,” that use “the rules for level advancement (see page 58 of the *Player’s Handbook*).”3 The very word “multiclass” indicates “multiple classes,” and if your first level were to be ur-priest, you would not have multiclassed into it. The referenced rules from page 58 are specifically about gaining levels after 1st, as well.
Moreover, officially, the rules require you to select your race and first class level at the same time, before doing anything else.4 So even if you could go directly into ur-priest, you would have to qualify on the strengths of race alone—a rather tall order when the requirements include feats (which you haven’t gained yet) and skill ranks (which you haven’t gotten points for yet).
The only conceivable approach, then, is as you suggest: by losing HD after you have gained ur-priest levels, removing anything you had before taking any ur-priest levels and leaving you with only those levels. Conveniently, ur-priest doesn’t require anything beyond raw hit dice to qualify: alignment, base save bonuses, skill ranks, and two feats that both have no prerequisites.
However, as you note, you are not allowed to start with no hit dice—you have to *be something* before you can contract lycanthropy. Whatever that this was will require at least one hit die, and that hit die won’t go away when lycanthropy does. While a 1-HD race does have that HD replaced by a class level, that happens immediately upon character creation, and can neither be delayed nor opted out of:
>
> If a monster has 1 Hit Die or less, or if it is a template creature (such as a vampire or a lycanthrope; see the *Monster Manual*), it must start the game with one or more class levels, like a regular character.[5]
>
>
>
There is *some hope* though, from the very next line: “If a monster has 2 or more Hit Dice, **it can start with no class levels** (though it can gain them later),” **emphasis** mine.5 The problem is, unlike lycanthropy, other forms of racial hit dice can’t be easily removed.
Losing levels via energy drain is notoriously underspecified, and nothing *explicitly* says you can’t pick and choose which you lose—but even by theoretical optimization standards, that’s patently absurd. The rules include “The victim’s experience point total is immediately set to the midpoint of **the previous level**,” which strongly implies that the level lost is the most recent one.6
The one hope I thought of, though it is massively within the DM’s adjudication and is hard to call RAW, is *reincarnate*. *Reincarnate* specifies that “For a humanoid creature, the new incarnation is determined using the following table. For nonhumanoid creatures, a similar table of creatures of the same type should be created.”7 That means that—arguably—you could use a creature with multiple racial hit dice, qualify for and take levels of ur-priest, and then *reincarnate* into a creature has just 1 racial hit die. Then—**arguably**—that hit die is replaced by a class level, which—***arguably***—could be a level of ur-priest, since you already have levels of it.
If you can find a humanoid-type creature with lots of RHD then you are on pretty solid RAW footing to use the listed table, which include 1-HD creatures. [I asked whether any such creatures exist](https://rpg.stackexchange.com/q/160720/4563), and it turns out several do, including the 4-HD belgoi.8 A belgoi lycanthrope could have quite a lot of RHD, and thereby qualify for ur-priest without taking any other class levels.9 All of those RHD could then be removed (by curing lycanthropy and being subject to *reincarnate*).
Even if you manage that, though, the rules around the replacement of the RHD from 1-HD creatures simply don’t cover this situation at all, which means we can’t really say that, RAW, it’s going to work in your favor—it’s going to need a ruling. Most DMs, unsurprisingly, are likely to rule that your 1 HD from your new race has to be replaced with a base class, and you can’t pick ur-priest for it.
But short of that, I didn’t think you can do any better. [It turns out I was wrong, as [topquark’s excellent answer](https://rpg.stackexchange.com/a/160722/4563) indicates—the *ritual of vitality* avoids *reincarnate*’s randomness and furthermore has an explicit example of RHD being removed and only existing class levels remaining.10
Even that, though, is still going to limit you to being a 10th-level ur-priest.
1. *Epic Level Handbook* pages 5-6
2. *Draconomicon* page 66
3. *Dungeon Master’s Guide* page 176
4. *Player’s Handbook* page 6
5. *Dungeon Master’s Guide* page 172
6. *Dungeon Master’s Guide* page 296
7. *Player’s Handbook* page 270
8. *Dungeon* vol. 111 page 88
9. A belgoi lycanthrope has humanoid and animal RHD, which means none of them provide a good Will saving throw progression. That means you need a minimum of 9 RHD to meet the base Will save requirement of +3. Taking the Education feat1 or Well Read feat2 gets you all Knowledge skills in-class, and the Flexible Mind feat3 can get you any two skills—pick Bluff and Spellcraft. The other two feats available at 9 HD would go towards Iron Will and Spell Focus (evil) as required by ur-priest. In total ur-priest will require 32 skill points, which means at 9 HD with 2 + Int skill points you need to have Int 14 to get them all—which is kind of a problem since belgoi apply a −4 penalty. Having more HD, though, reduces how much Intelligence you need, so you could freely go with a larger animal and need much less Intelligence. To get the minimum 9 HD, you could be a werelion, but if you want to just maximize your HD, you could be a werebattletitan,4 with a whopping 36 animal HD—then no matter how low your Intelligence is, the minimum 1 skill point per level is enough to get the ranks you need.
1. *Eberron Campaign Setting* page 52, *Forgotten Realms Campaign Setting* page 34, *Ghostwalk* page 31, *Player’s Guide to Faerûn* page 38. Note that belgoi are Dark Sun creatures, and that is conspicuously not one of the campaign settings listed here.
2. *Dragon* vol. 315 page 54
3. *Dragon* vol. 326 page 80
4. *Monster Manual III* page 38
10. *Savage Species* pages 149-151 | 1. Start as any monster race that can meet Ur-Priest's prereqs.
(i.e. 5RHD dragon or outsider with the right class skills, or 9RHD with the right skills and any type, or just anything with 13RHD. I can't off-hand think of anything that qualifies earlier than a Blue Dragon Wyrmling (ECL10), but I haven't done an exhaustive search.)
2. Take a level of Ur-Priest.
3. Invoke the *Ritual of Vitality* (Savage Species p.150) to turn you into a normal PC race.
This gets rid of all statistics derived from your original race, including RHD and LA (which reduces your XP total, you *don't* gain class levels to compensate), and gives you all statistics derived from your new race... With the one weird exception of ability scores. Your Str, Dex, and Con become average for your new race, i.e. 10 + new racial modifier, ignoring your original roll or point-buy; whereas Int, Wis, and Cha remain at their previous values, including their old racial modifiers.
In the case of turning into a normal PC race (i.e. one that normally has only class levels and no RHD), the ritual definitely leaves you with only your class levels and no RHD. (The RAW example is an ogre barbarian turning into an elf barbarian.)
The ritual costs 7000 gp and 1000 XP, in addition to the XP lost by reducing your ECL. It takes 1 day and the assistance of a 7th-level spellcaster with no particular spells. (There's three versions of the species-change ritual, with the same end result but differing in cost and method of payment; *Vitality* is the cheapest one for your use-case.) |
22,064 | Do we learn to improve our working memory capacity without sitting WM tests?
Working memory capacity can be [measured](https://psychology.stackexchange.com/questions/1670/how-to-reliably-measure-working-memory-capacity), but I wondered whether the only way to improve it is learning techniques for working memory tests, such as the digit span test.
I *think* I remember that working memory capacity is relatively stable in adulthood and reaches that level at a relatively young age in childhood. Hence, I'm asking whether general education improves our WMC, not for supposed brain training techniques. | 2019/04/18 | [
"https://cogsci.stackexchange.com/questions/22064",
"https://cogsci.stackexchange.com",
"https://cogsci.stackexchange.com/users/-1/"
] | I'm not a psychologist so be cautious about drawing conclusions from what I say.
Education can teach us to use our working memory more effectively by:
1. Learning how to do better chunking (which sometimes comes at a cost of time and effort spent on recall and on creating the chunk, but this can be improved with practice).
2. Using our strongest domain(s) when appropriate, taking into account our capacity and "chunking skills" in each domain.
3. According to [this answer](https://psychology.stackexchange.com/a/10449/24277):
>
> The evidence for domain-specific modalities is largely based on the (lack of otherwise expected) interference between them.
>
>
>
This means that **maybe** you could spread your items-to-remember across different domains to use otherwise untapped capacity, and (based on information from the linked answer) the usage order of domains matters.
However, since some (if not all) of these methods come at a cost and require conscious effort, the advantages of remembering more this way are limited and not equivalent to increasing your actual working memory capacity.
Examples:
---------
Remembering a number by the pattern it draws on a phone's unlock screen.
Remembering a shopping list by imagining a set of (memorable, ridiculous) images where each image includes 2 items, one of which is also included in the next image (1st image: items 1 and 2, 2nd image: items 2 and 3, and so on). Then you can recall the first image, and recall each next image by asking what other image included an item from the current image. This is a good example of how verbal/auditory memory isn't always the best choice for remembering a list, unless your visual memory is much worse.
Remembering a number by recognizing (mathematical or other) patterns in it, so you can reconstruct the number (or part of it) from these patterns.
---
While you didn't ask for "brain training techniques", training is part of learning, if you want to become educated on how to use your working memory more effectively, you will need to practice the methods and see them in action, and they involve using skills that will improve with more practice.
For more information, read about methods of [memory champions](https://www.smithsonianmag.com/science-nature/why-you-can-train-your-brain-memory-champion-still-forget-your-car-keys-180962496/) - people who manage to quickly memorize many things, such as card decks, long numbers and speeches. Their methods can be used by anyone, you don't have to be an exceptional person to be able to do impressive things with your memory, I tried it myself and was surprized at how well and how easily it worked for me. | Based on what I'll explain below, I'm going to have to say yes—but I don't know that there's a lot permanency to it.
I'm not a psychologist, but I do have low working memory and seem to notice when and how it improves and worsens (for me, personally). So, I can give you my personal anecdotal opinions (with no guarantees as to their accuracy, nor to how they might affect other people besides myself):
As a teenager, I seemed to notice dramatic gains in working memory through playing Chess regularly with a challenging, but realistic opponent (one I could work up to beating, rather than one that trounced me all the time no matter how much I practiced). These gains actually seem to last a long time (potentially up to several months after stopping), but they're initially very stressful (and later addictive) for me to work at gaining, and after that long time has elapsed and the benefit is gone, I don't know that they have any lasting benefit with regard to working memory. It seemed to take a few weeks of serious playing to get a particularly nice effect. It's important to note that at the time, I was not impulsive in my decisions, and I analyzed all my options before making a move (rather than using intuition). I didn't memorize moves in advance. Finding a proper Chess opponent is difficult. The stress comes back when the working memory goes.
The Chess seemed to help me with decision-making, and foreseeing obstacles and solutions (outside of Chess). It improved the number of things I could foresee in my working memory, and such.
I discovered that listening to audiobooks while typing out what I heard (as best as I could), seemed to improve my working memory (and my typing speed).
Recently, I discovered that practicing four-part songs on a digital piano seemed to increase my working memory (including as it pertains to story-writing). I like this method quite a bit, and it's what I do now.
Stress seems to decrease my available working memory, while comfort seems to increase it.
I think memorizing paragraphs of text every day for a long time actually had a negative impact on my working memory (although it might have had initial gains). I think the reason is that I wasn't working on long-term retention, but just on like one or two-day retention. I tried memorizing too much stuff.
I'm light-sensitive, and it seems that some kinds of light can negatively impact my working memory.
Some drugs are supposed to impact working memory.
So you know, here is a list of situations that require working memory that I struggle with:
* Taking directions (people usually lose me after the first two steps)
* Audio lectures
* Reading (Even though I know what all the words mean, I sometimes have to reread a paragraph several times)
* Answering questions that require me to make a decision
* Conversations
* Explaining things I know, vocally
* Doing much of anything when I'm nervous
* Transitioning between activities
* Completing/ending activities
* Taking notes (yes, that's a coping mechanism that just isn't ideal)
* Consulting multiple sources to complete an assignment
* Telling people what I just read. The need to do so seems to take the working memory required to remember the stuff I read.
* Knowing what people are talking about, especially if they they answer simple questions with long stories (instead of with one word or one sentence answers).
* Helping people with their computer software-related stuff. I still do it, successfully, but I usually have to waste a lot of time listening to them talk about stuff that I just can't process, before I do it.
* Taking messages for other people
* Making commitments wherein it wasn't my idea to make the commitment; I mean if someone asks, Will you do such and such after you finish what you're doing? I prefer them just to ask after I finish instead.
* In-class assignments (where the teacher tells the assignment vocally, without writing it down)
* Listening to people, especially if they talk slowly (it's easier for me to understand people that talk fast, because I can fit it in all at once more easily)
However, I'm good with some of the working memory tests they give. Like, where they ask you to repeat back numbers. That's not really a challenging environment for me by comparison to the above. Numbers are easy because they're in small, separable chunks, and they have simple meanings, often without much context. Numbers are also easy to repeat quickly. Words in a conversation or in instructions are more difficult, because they're bigger and involve more things, and not just a linear process that requires little effort. Plus, it's harder to get distracted with numbers. I can remember a license plate number a lot more easily than I can remember a list of three or four things someone else wants me to do. |
116,992 | The expression I came up with this circuit is A'B + A'CD + C, would the output change to AB' + AC'D' + C' since it is inverted? I'm assuming the D input compliments and cancels out? What would the logical expression actually be? I am confused about the inverter on the output.
 | 2014/06/28 | [
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/116992",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/46422/"
] | I can't give you the full works on this but for a transmitting antenna, the evanescent fields are the E fields and H fields directly produced by the antenna and localized about the antenna. Eventually they can give rise to an electromagnetic wave but this isn't an evanescent field.
Typical usage that I'm aware of is magnetic field coupling between two slightly distance devices such a wireless charger for a phone. Magnetic field flux density generally reduces with distance as a cube law unlike regular EM waves whose E or H content reduce with distance rather than distance squared (EM power). | Near field and far field are names given to mathematical expressions. Consider a radiation source and a imaginary sphere around it. The power crossing the sphere is given by
P= (4πr^2)*P'= 4π*(C1 + C2/r + C3/r^2+ C4/r^3+ ….) , where P' is the power density.
The first term is a constant, so no matter the size of the sphere this power will always be there. In other words, this power will always be radiated from the source. Thus, it is only due to radiated field.
Now, at small r (near source), all terms involving r will be significant and the constant term is insignificant. The power expression at small r thus becomes (approximately) P= (4πr^2)*P'= 4π*( C2/r + C3/r^2+ C4/r^3+ …). This collective expression is then termed to be the near field.
Hence the equation is then lumped into two terms, the first being the radiated field term, and the exponentially decaying fields lumped into another term called the ‘evanescent fields’(since their intensity decay with distance).
This grouping of the exponentially decaying components of the near field non-radiative EM field types are then mathematically examined as a single term called the evanescent fields, which is **not in itself a physical entity**, but a **summation of the effects and characteristics of the various EM waves present near the source**. |
143,251 | I see that, for example:
>
> A cleric or paladin can use a holy symbol as a spellcasting focus, as described in chapter 10. To use the symbol in this way, the caster must hold it in hand, **wear it visibly,** or bear it on a shield.
>
>
>
Further, I see that the standard arcane focuses -- orbs, crystals, rods, etc. -- all have to be held in the hand. That makes sense to me.
What I'm *not* sure about is, for example, the *Hat of Wizardry* or the *Dark Shard Amulet* from XGTE. Both specify they can be used as a spellcasting focus (for wizards and warlocks respectively), but it does not make sense to me that e.g. a wizard would be required to hold their *Hat of Wizardry* in their hand to use it as a spellcasting focus, instead of wearing it. I can imagine a warlock having to grip their *Dark Shard Amulet* with a free hand, but that still seems like a bit of a stretch, especially when combined with somatic components.
Can these specific foci be used without holding them in hand? | 2019/03/15 | [
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/143251",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/users/52922/"
] | The *[Hat of Wizardry](https://www.dndbeyond.com/magic-items/hat-of-wizardry)* says:
>
> This antiquated, cone-shaped hat is adorned with gold crescent moons and stars. While you are wearing it, you gain the following benefits:
>
>
> * You can use the hat as a spellcasting focus for your wizard spells.
> * You can try to cast a cantrip that you don’t know. [...]
>
>
>
The text seems pretty clear to me - while you're wearing it, you can use it as a focus. Holy symbols for clerics and paladins work the same way (they only need to be worn, not held), so it is not unprecedented. It has a specific verbiage that overrides the general rules.
Furthermore, it seems relatively well balanced: It consumes a precious attunement slot and only works for wizard spells. If the character is multi-classed, they'll still need a different focus, even for classes that can use a more general arcane focus. Sure, it has a second property, but it's only once per long rest.
The [Dark Shard Amulet](https://www.dndbeyond.com/magic-items/dark-shard-amulet) has functionally similar text, except aimed at warlocks. | **Yes**, the *Hat of Wizardry* and the *Dark Shard Amulet* must be held in hand to be used as focus.
The rule for material components is found in the Player Handbook's errata:
>
> **Material (M)** A spellcaster must have a hand free to access a spell’s material components—or to hold a spellcasting focus — but it can be the same hand that he or she uses to perform somatic components.
>
>
>
This makes it clear that a free hand is required to hold the spellcasting focus.
For the Holy Symbol, its description (p. 151) specifically states that it can be used as a spellcasting focus under broader conditions than normally allowed by the rules:
>
> **Holy Symbol**. A cleric or paladin can use a holy symbol as a spellcasting focus, as described in chapter 10. To use the symbol in this way, the caster must hold it in hand, wear it visibly, or bear it on a shield.
>
>
>
However, there is no such mention in the description of the *Hat of Wizardry* and the *Dark Shard Amulet*. The text only states that they can be used a a focus:
>
> **Hat of Wizardry**. You can use the hat as a spellcasting focus for your wizard spells.
>
>
> **Dark Shard Amulet**. You can use the amulet as a spellcasting focus for your warlock spells.
>
>
>
This is not different than the description for other foci, such as the Arcane Focus:
>
> **Arcane Focus**. A sorcerer, warlock, or w izard can use such an item as a spellcasting focus, as described in chapter 10.
>
>
>
The only difference is that the hat and amulet have the additional requirement that they be worn before they can be used a focus. |
143,251 | I see that, for example:
>
> A cleric or paladin can use a holy symbol as a spellcasting focus, as described in chapter 10. To use the symbol in this way, the caster must hold it in hand, **wear it visibly,** or bear it on a shield.
>
>
>
Further, I see that the standard arcane focuses -- orbs, crystals, rods, etc. -- all have to be held in the hand. That makes sense to me.
What I'm *not* sure about is, for example, the *Hat of Wizardry* or the *Dark Shard Amulet* from XGTE. Both specify they can be used as a spellcasting focus (for wizards and warlocks respectively), but it does not make sense to me that e.g. a wizard would be required to hold their *Hat of Wizardry* in their hand to use it as a spellcasting focus, instead of wearing it. I can imagine a warlock having to grip their *Dark Shard Amulet* with a free hand, but that still seems like a bit of a stretch, especially when combined with somatic components.
Can these specific foci be used without holding them in hand? | 2019/03/15 | [
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/143251",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/users/52922/"
] | The *[Hat of Wizardry](https://www.dndbeyond.com/magic-items/hat-of-wizardry)* says:
>
> This antiquated, cone-shaped hat is adorned with gold crescent moons and stars. While you are wearing it, you gain the following benefits:
>
>
> * You can use the hat as a spellcasting focus for your wizard spells.
> * You can try to cast a cantrip that you don’t know. [...]
>
>
>
The text seems pretty clear to me - while you're wearing it, you can use it as a focus. Holy symbols for clerics and paladins work the same way (they only need to be worn, not held), so it is not unprecedented. It has a specific verbiage that overrides the general rules.
Furthermore, it seems relatively well balanced: It consumes a precious attunement slot and only works for wizard spells. If the character is multi-classed, they'll still need a different focus, even for classes that can use a more general arcane focus. Sure, it has a second property, but it's only once per long rest.
The [Dark Shard Amulet](https://www.dndbeyond.com/magic-items/dark-shard-amulet) has functionally similar text, except aimed at warlocks. | They don't need to be held in the hand to be used as a focus.
The magical items Hat of Wizardry and Dark Shard Amulet are templated differently than the nonmagical Holy Symbol because of the additional ability they have. Instead of a single statement, they use a bulleted list. The list could be expanded into statements to match the templating on Holy Symbol:
>
> A wizard can use a Hat of Wizardry as a spellcasting focus for wizard spells. To use the hat in this way, the caster must wear it visibly.
>
>
> While you are wearing the hat you can try to cast a cantrip that you
> don't know. The cantrip must be on the Wizard spell list, and you must
> make a DC 10 Intelligence (Arcana) check. If the check succeeds, you
> cast the spell. If the check fails, so does the spell, and the action
> used to cast the spell is wasted. In either case, you can't use this
> property again until you finish a long rest.
>
>
>
And we could change the Holy Symbol templating to be worded with the (single item) bulleted list of effects:
>
> A holy symbol is a representation of a god or pantheon. While holding the symbol, wearing it visibly or wielding a shield with the symbol emblazoned upon it you gain the following benefits:
>
>
> * You may use the symbol as a spellcasting focus for your cleric or paladin spells.
>
>
>
These are both awkward - the first combines multiple abilities into blocks of text and references the wearing condition twice, the second has a list with only one item in it. These are simply two ways of saying the same thing, written differently based on the other circumstances of the item. |
143,251 | I see that, for example:
>
> A cleric or paladin can use a holy symbol as a spellcasting focus, as described in chapter 10. To use the symbol in this way, the caster must hold it in hand, **wear it visibly,** or bear it on a shield.
>
>
>
Further, I see that the standard arcane focuses -- orbs, crystals, rods, etc. -- all have to be held in the hand. That makes sense to me.
What I'm *not* sure about is, for example, the *Hat of Wizardry* or the *Dark Shard Amulet* from XGTE. Both specify they can be used as a spellcasting focus (for wizards and warlocks respectively), but it does not make sense to me that e.g. a wizard would be required to hold their *Hat of Wizardry* in their hand to use it as a spellcasting focus, instead of wearing it. I can imagine a warlock having to grip their *Dark Shard Amulet* with a free hand, but that still seems like a bit of a stretch, especially when combined with somatic components.
Can these specific foci be used without holding them in hand? | 2019/03/15 | [
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/143251",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/users/52922/"
] | They don't need to be held in the hand to be used as a focus.
The magical items Hat of Wizardry and Dark Shard Amulet are templated differently than the nonmagical Holy Symbol because of the additional ability they have. Instead of a single statement, they use a bulleted list. The list could be expanded into statements to match the templating on Holy Symbol:
>
> A wizard can use a Hat of Wizardry as a spellcasting focus for wizard spells. To use the hat in this way, the caster must wear it visibly.
>
>
> While you are wearing the hat you can try to cast a cantrip that you
> don't know. The cantrip must be on the Wizard spell list, and you must
> make a DC 10 Intelligence (Arcana) check. If the check succeeds, you
> cast the spell. If the check fails, so does the spell, and the action
> used to cast the spell is wasted. In either case, you can't use this
> property again until you finish a long rest.
>
>
>
And we could change the Holy Symbol templating to be worded with the (single item) bulleted list of effects:
>
> A holy symbol is a representation of a god or pantheon. While holding the symbol, wearing it visibly or wielding a shield with the symbol emblazoned upon it you gain the following benefits:
>
>
> * You may use the symbol as a spellcasting focus for your cleric or paladin spells.
>
>
>
These are both awkward - the first combines multiple abilities into blocks of text and references the wearing condition twice, the second has a list with only one item in it. These are simply two ways of saying the same thing, written differently based on the other circumstances of the item. | **Yes**, the *Hat of Wizardry* and the *Dark Shard Amulet* must be held in hand to be used as focus.
The rule for material components is found in the Player Handbook's errata:
>
> **Material (M)** A spellcaster must have a hand free to access a spell’s material components—or to hold a spellcasting focus — but it can be the same hand that he or she uses to perform somatic components.
>
>
>
This makes it clear that a free hand is required to hold the spellcasting focus.
For the Holy Symbol, its description (p. 151) specifically states that it can be used as a spellcasting focus under broader conditions than normally allowed by the rules:
>
> **Holy Symbol**. A cleric or paladin can use a holy symbol as a spellcasting focus, as described in chapter 10. To use the symbol in this way, the caster must hold it in hand, wear it visibly, or bear it on a shield.
>
>
>
However, there is no such mention in the description of the *Hat of Wizardry* and the *Dark Shard Amulet*. The text only states that they can be used a a focus:
>
> **Hat of Wizardry**. You can use the hat as a spellcasting focus for your wizard spells.
>
>
> **Dark Shard Amulet**. You can use the amulet as a spellcasting focus for your warlock spells.
>
>
>
This is not different than the description for other foci, such as the Arcane Focus:
>
> **Arcane Focus**. A sorcerer, warlock, or w izard can use such an item as a spellcasting focus, as described in chapter 10.
>
>
>
The only difference is that the hat and amulet have the additional requirement that they be worn before they can be used a focus. |
148,764 | I have a 10W SMPS circuit powering a home appliance like this:
I need to extract a zero-crossing pulse from this circuit which would then be fed to a micro-controller. To this end, I am considering the following modification to the circuit:
Specifically, I have added an opto-coupler [PC817](http://www.sharpsme.com/download/pc817x-eJpdf) whose input LED would be driven from the rectified ~340V (0 to peak) through R16 (330k, 1/2W resistor). The maximum input current to the opto-coupler would thus be ~1mA. Considering the CTR to be 0.8, from the datasheet, the collector current would be ~0.8mA. Accordingly, I am considering a 33k resistor for R17. Have also added D10 ([1N4007](http://www.diodes.com/datasheets/ds28002.pdf)) to isolate it from the smoothing capacitor.
1. Are the calculations correct? Will the circuit work?
2. Is it okay to drive the opto-coupler LED from ~340V? Would it damage the components or make the circuit less reliable?
3. How to estimate and minimize the pulse width at the zero-cross output so that it is closer to the zero-crossing? | 2015/01/12 | [
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/148764",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/41571/"
] | The rise/fall time of the opto is about 20 microseconds (1000 ohm load) and the time when the rectified voltage is close to zero is maybe 2 degrees of one cycle. At a 20ms period of AC, a couple of degrees is about 100us. It's getting to close to not working is my impression.
Looking at the frequency response graph on page 8, with a collector resistor of 33k you'll be lucky to get 1kHz through this device so I reckon you won't see much of a signal. Even with a 100 ohm load the bandwidth is only going to be about 50kHz and will probably just about work. This would mean a rehash to your optical receiver circuit.
None of this takes into account the reverse recovery time of the bridge rectifier and 1N400x diode or any stray capacitance that might slug the shape of the full-wave rectified signal you hope to have. | Andy aka is correct, but if you still want to give it a try I'd suggest the following modification
[simulate this circuit](/plugins/schematics?image=http%3a%2f%2fi.stack.imgur.com%2f3nRcg.png) – Schematic created using [CircuitLab](https://www.circuitlab.com/)
ETA - Please ignore this paragraph - The reverse diode corrects the immediate flaw in your design - reverse voltage on the LED. The opto data sheet, oddly, has no spec on maximum reverse voltage, but I'll guarantee you that your LED would not survive a single cycle of the mains voltage.
By putting the optocoupler on the input of the bridge, you get a more positive zero indication than when you look at the output. It's not a panacea, though, since optos are famous for having different turn-on and turn-off times. To get around this, you can try
[simulate this circuit](/plugins/schematics?image=http%3a%2f%2fi.stack.imgur.com%2fsk0QX.png)
with two optos back to back and the outputs wire-or'ed. Even this is not guaranteed, though, since if the turn-off time is too much greater than the turn-on time, you'll get no output pulses at all.
Actually, your idea has merit, but if you want to try it, you need to look at faster optocouplers. They do exist. |
94,181 | [Source](http://www.imdb.com/title/tt1371111/synopsis?ref_=tt_stry_pl)
>
> she meets a man named Hae-Joo Im, who it is revealed was behind her friend, and then her.
>
>
>
What does this mean behind her friend, and then her? | 2016/06/19 | [
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/questions/94181",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/users/36149/"
] | I like to think of it as the difference between "weather" and "climate".
Weather is what's going on right now. Being "cheerful" means that, right now, you're upbeat and feeling good. - Like if the weather is sunny.
Climate is what the overall weather is like for a region. While it may be sunny today, if the general climate is for cold, damp weather, the sunny day is unusual. Same with being happy. In this case, he's using happy to mean that he's not sure he's generally happy with his life but, for the time being, he's cheerful. | The definitions can be confusing since it would lead one to believe that to being happy is a condition of being cheerful.
Robbins is referring to "happy" as a general contented state of being. We all know the feeling when things are going our way, the sun is to our back, and everything is going smoothly and well.
Being "cheerful" is a state of not being angry mainly characterised by have outward displays of being happy, particularly having a smile. The definition of "cheerful" is a noticeable display of happiness.
It is possible to be cheery on the outside, having a facade, while being sad on the inside, thereby not showing ones true emotions. This is what Robbins is referring to. |
94,181 | [Source](http://www.imdb.com/title/tt1371111/synopsis?ref_=tt_stry_pl)
>
> she meets a man named Hae-Joo Im, who it is revealed was behind her friend, and then her.
>
>
>
What does this mean behind her friend, and then her? | 2016/06/19 | [
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/questions/94181",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/users/36149/"
] | The definitions can be confusing since it would lead one to believe that to being happy is a condition of being cheerful.
Robbins is referring to "happy" as a general contented state of being. We all know the feeling when things are going our way, the sun is to our back, and everything is going smoothly and well.
Being "cheerful" is a state of not being angry mainly characterised by have outward displays of being happy, particularly having a smile. The definition of "cheerful" is a noticeable display of happiness.
It is possible to be cheery on the outside, having a facade, while being sad on the inside, thereby not showing ones true emotions. This is what Robbins is referring to. | Be cheerful no matter what happens... |
94,181 | [Source](http://www.imdb.com/title/tt1371111/synopsis?ref_=tt_stry_pl)
>
> she meets a man named Hae-Joo Im, who it is revealed was behind her friend, and then her.
>
>
>
What does this mean behind her friend, and then her? | 2016/06/19 | [
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/questions/94181",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/users/36149/"
] | I like to think of it as the difference between "weather" and "climate".
Weather is what's going on right now. Being "cheerful" means that, right now, you're upbeat and feeling good. - Like if the weather is sunny.
Climate is what the overall weather is like for a region. While it may be sunny today, if the general climate is for cold, damp weather, the sunny day is unusual. Same with being happy. In this case, he's using happy to mean that he's not sure he's generally happy with his life but, for the time being, he's cheerful. | Be cheerful no matter what happens... |
127,754 | When using **Notes** I often find myself changing the color of the text (usually to blue or red) as an additional way to indicate emphasis (alongside *italics* and **bold**).
The shortcut for displaying the available colors is **Command-Shift-C** but that still requires the user to use the mouse to click on a particular color.
Does anyone know how I can add a single shortcut that will switch to a given color and then, when pressed again, switch back to black? (So it, in effect, works the same way the *italics* and **bold** shortcuts work).
I don't need to make a shortcut for *every* color--one for blue would do just fine. Any ideas? | 2014/04/16 | [
"https://apple.stackexchange.com/questions/127754",
"https://apple.stackexchange.com",
"https://apple.stackexchange.com/users/74154/"
] | This isn't **exactly** what you were asking for, but perhaps it is close enough.
Just below the menu place where you bring up the color picker (Format->Font->Show Colors) are two other menu items: Copy Style and Paste Style. This is what worked for me:
1. Select some text in your note
2. Manually set the color, like you do now (via Show Colors)
3. Set the cursor anywhere inside the colored text (don't select any text, just put the cursor there)
4. Choose Format->Font->Copy Style
5. From now on (including across relaunches of the Notes app) you can select the text you want to color and simply use the keyboard shortcut for Paste Style!
Hope this works well enough for you. | You are right -- there's no shortcut (yet) to change the color in Notes (source:<https://support.apple.com/en-au/HT201236>).
The closest shortcut would be command + T which opens the Font window where you can change font color. |
244,868 | I am new to physics and I understand *gravity* is a pulling force.
Let's assume a *ball* has been placed on the ground. Does *gravity* has any role after I placed an object (e.g. ball) on ground?
Sorry, if I asked something silly or the question was wrong. | 2016/03/22 | [
"https://physics.stackexchange.com/questions/244868",
"https://physics.stackexchange.com",
"https://physics.stackexchange.com/users/111520/"
] | yes: the gravity maintain the ball on the floor. And if the ball is soft, it is maintained squeezed. | The force of gravity never stops acting on the object. However, the gravity is balanced out by an equal and opposite normal force. Gravity simply keeps the object stuck to the floor. It does not stop existing; it is merely balanced and therefore has no overall impact on the object's motion. Hope this helps! -Alm. |
244,868 | I am new to physics and I understand *gravity* is a pulling force.
Let's assume a *ball* has been placed on the ground. Does *gravity* has any role after I placed an object (e.g. ball) on ground?
Sorry, if I asked something silly or the question was wrong. | 2016/03/22 | [
"https://physics.stackexchange.com/questions/244868",
"https://physics.stackexchange.com",
"https://physics.stackexchange.com/users/111520/"
] | All object with mass has gravity. mass is the amount of matter in that object.
That's why the weight of an object feels less on moon even if the mass is same. Earth's gravity is that force that attracts every objects towards its centre. Due to this gravity we could land on the earth surface even after we jump on it. without gravity, if we jump on the surface of earth we go upwards with uniform speed (neglecting air friction). | The force of gravity never stops acting on the object. However, the gravity is balanced out by an equal and opposite normal force. Gravity simply keeps the object stuck to the floor. It does not stop existing; it is merely balanced and therefore has no overall impact on the object's motion. Hope this helps! -Alm. |
244,868 | I am new to physics and I understand *gravity* is a pulling force.
Let's assume a *ball* has been placed on the ground. Does *gravity* has any role after I placed an object (e.g. ball) on ground?
Sorry, if I asked something silly or the question was wrong. | 2016/03/22 | [
"https://physics.stackexchange.com/questions/244868",
"https://physics.stackexchange.com",
"https://physics.stackexchange.com/users/111520/"
] | The ball is in an equillibrium of two forces: the gravity and the pressing force from the ground.
You can say, that the two cancel out. But there is, in practice a difference, if you have no forces acting or some forces that cancel out. Because usually the forces change, if you change the system. In your example, the force from the ground gets smaller if you lift the ball a litte, because it is sqeezed less. The ball takes such a position, that the two forces are equal, because it experiences a net force and gets moved as long as they are not.
I hope the difference between cancelling forces and no forces is clear? - the former makes possible a stable system. With no force the smallest excitation would set the ball moving (with time arbitrarily far). | The force of gravity never stops acting on the object. However, the gravity is balanced out by an equal and opposite normal force. Gravity simply keeps the object stuck to the floor. It does not stop existing; it is merely balanced and therefore has no overall impact on the object's motion. Hope this helps! -Alm. |
67,120 | In *Tractatus Logico-Philosophicus* Ludwig Wittgenstein says that every elementary proposition is a picture. It is clear that we must make a distinction between elementary propositions and other propositions, because we cannot consider a negation of an elementary proposition to be a picture.
For example the proposition "This house is not red" would be true if "This house is blue" or "This house is gray" is true but they can`t both be in same picture, because they are contradictory claims. But if we think about a finite conjunction of elementary propositions it seems possible to consider it to be a picture.
So would a solution be those truth functions that are true only in one row in a truth table? | 2019/09/16 | [
"https://philosophy.stackexchange.com/questions/67120",
"https://philosophy.stackexchange.com",
"https://philosophy.stackexchange.com/users/42315/"
] | Propositions associated with facts or states of affair are pictures of those facts or states of affairs. In contrast to tautologies and contradictions they have sense and because of that they have true-false poles. Anat Biletzki and Anat Matar provide this description:
>
> Tautologies and contradictions, the propositions of logic, are the limits of language and thought, and thereby the limits of the world. Obviously, then, they do not picture anything and do not, therefore, have sense. They are, in Wittgenstein’s terms, senseless (sinnlos). Propositions which do have sense are bipolar; they range within the truth-conditions drawn by the truth-tables. But the propositions of logic themselves are “not pictures of the reality … for the one allows every possible state of affairs, the other none” ([TLP 4.462](https://archive.org/details/WittgensteinLudwig.TractatusLogicoPhilosophicus19222019/page/n65)).
>
>
>
Consider the OP's example:
>
> For example the proposition "This house is not red" would be true if "This house is blue" or "This house is gray" is true but they can`t both be in same picture, because they are contradictory claims.
>
>
>
A picture of either a gray house or a blue house would also be a picture of a house that is *not* red. Propositions associated with a state of affairs have true-false poles. They are "bipolar". They may be either true or false. If the proposition is "This house is not red" and the picture is of a blue house then the proposition would be true and associated with the picture of a blue house.
However, a proposition that is a tautology such as "This house is red **or** this house is not red" would not be a state of affairs or a fact. It does not have true-false poles because it is always true. A proposition that is a contradiction such as "This house is red **and** this house is not red" would also not have true-false poles because it is always false.
Here is the question:
>
> So would a solution be those truth functions that are true only in one row in a truth table?
>
>
>
Propositions that are neither tautologies nor contradictions would have at least one row in a truth table that is true and at least one row in a truth table that is false. These propositions would have true-false poles. They are [contingent](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Contingency_(philosophy)). They would have sense and be pictures of reality. From those pictures one could tell if the propositions actually represent the state of affairs (they are true) or they do not (they are false).
---
Biletzki, Anat and Matar, Anat, "Ludwig Wittgenstein", The Stanford Encyclopedia of Philosophy (Summer 2018 Edition), Edward N. Zalta (ed.), URL = <https://plato.stanford.edu/archives/sum2018/entries/wittgenstein/>. | >
> In Tractatus Logico-Philosophicus Ludwig Wittgenstein says that every elementary proposition is a picture.
>
>
>
Clearly, propositions are not visual pictures.
Dictionaries provide apt definitions of the meaning of the word "picture" as it was used by Wittgenstein:
>
> Picture
>
>
> 6. The main circumstances of an event or a time; the situation.
>
>
>
This is a generalisation of the notion of picture. Pictures in the ordinary sense also fit this definition.
A picture, broadly considered, is a representation which is not expected to be complete. It only has to bring together a few snippets of truth.
Different kinds of pictures may show different kinds of things. Photographs are not painting are not drawings.
>
> It is clear that we must make a distinction between elementary propositions and other propositions, because we cannot consider a negation of an elementary proposition to be a picture.
>
>
>
I fail to see why we should make this distinction. A novel may be considered, broadly, as a very large conjunction of many elementary propositions, some negations, some disjunctions, and a novel seems indeed like a tableau about life, hence, a picture.
A painting does not explicitly use negations while propositions, at least as described using words, can. But this difference can be attributed to the various means you can use to express a proposition and propositions need not include negations.
If we insist that propositions can include negations, then perhaps we may just as well give up the notion that they are pictures. For example, it may be enough to take propositions to be logically dignified ideas or beliefs.
>
> For example the proposition "This house is not red" would be true if "This house is blue" or "This house is gray" is true but they don`t both can be in same picture, because they are contradictory claims.
>
>
>
We could represent the same house twice in one picture, once blue, once gray, and therefore ... not red. The house would be represented as not red. In statements using words, "blue" does not imply "not red". In a picture, blue implies not red. And maybe that makes propositions not pictures after all.
Strictly speaking, we consider propositions and pictures without any identification of the things represented outside the propositions or pictures themselves. Whatever extraneous identification we may consider will not be in the proposition or in the picture itself.
Thus, propositions and pictures both can be true not only of what we choose to think of as being represented by them, but of other things as well as long as they fit the description. The painting of a twin will often be true of the other twin.
For the same reason, the same proposition or the same picture will be false of many things beside the one we may have in mind.
Thus, if we represent the same house twice in one picture, once blue, once gray, the two parts of the picture will be false of any red house, as indeed of mountains, people and neutrons.
The two parts of this picture may each be true of what we think of as the same house but at different times, once when it was blue, once when it was gray.
>
> But if we think about finite conjuction of elementary propositions it seems possible to consider it to be a picture. So a solution would be those truth functions that are true only in one row in a truth table?
>
>
>
It is possible but rather limiting. Why not use disjunctions and negations? Or indeed implications? A truth table looks indeed somewhat like a kind of picture, although they are generally used to prove validity, not to present a picture of the factual truth.
Not very practical, but we could use a truth table, without any implication in it, to paint the picture of Mona Lisa. It would be a proposition. Aren't all forms of expression logically equivalent? I would hope so. |
412,236 | When recording a video, sometimes it's preferable to blur the background, especially when working from home or outside the typical office environment.
I didn't figure out [how to blur the background of a photo booth video recording](https://apple.stackexchange.com/q/412180/290197), so I record without blurring the background. But blurring the background usually makes videos look much more professional. Example:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/3ITQ5m.png)
What is the quickest and easiest way to record a video from a mac webcam that blurs the background? (preferably using software that comes with macOS, but if not, something free and very light weight is preferred) | 2021/01/28 | [
"https://apple.stackexchange.com/questions/412236",
"https://apple.stackexchange.com",
"https://apple.stackexchange.com/users/290197/"
] | The easiest approach to attain your goal is to use a video calling application in combination with screen recording.
For the video calling application I suggest [Jitsi](https://jitsi.org/) as it works in your browser, but you can also look into any other popular application like Teams, Zoom or Skype.
1. Go to [meet.jitsi.com](https://meet.jit.si) to start a video call in your browser. For other applications follow the steps they need to start a video call.
2. Configure the calling application to use your camera and microphone.
3. Configure background blurring.
* In Jitsi you can go to the three dot menu in the lower right and select "Blur my background [BETA]".
* Here are instructions for other applications: [Teams](https://support.microsoft.com/en-us/office/change-your-background-for-a-teams-meeting-f77a2381-443a-499d-825e-509a140f4780), [Zoom](https://support.zoom.us/hc/en-us/articles/210707503-Virtual-Background), [Skype](https://www.skype.com/en/blogs/2019-02-background-blur/)
4. Now you should have a screen, showing live what is being recorded by your camera.
5. Open Quicktime, and follow [these steps](https://support.apple.com/guide/quicktime-player/record-your-screen-qtp97b08e666/mac) to record your screen, in particular the window of your video calling application.
This will generate a recording of your screen, and as that screen shows your webcam with a blurred background you will have a video of yourself with a blurred background.
Note that some video calling applications have a built in recording option, allowing you to skip step 5. | There is an app for Mac and Windows called ChromaCam.
It has minimum requirements such as MacOs 10.14 but it can accomplish this as well. |
23 | On iOS devices you can take a screenshot by pressing the home & sleep buttons at the same time. Is there a similar way to take a screenshot with Windows Phone? | 2012/04/24 | [
"https://windowsphone.stackexchange.com/questions/23",
"https://windowsphone.stackexchange.com",
"https://windowsphone.stackexchange.com/users/13/"
] | There are a few ways to take screenshots:
1. If you're just a developer and just want to take screenshots for marketing your app, you can use the [emulator's screenshot tool](http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/gg442300%28v=VS.92%29.aspx).
2. If you have a developer-unlocked phone ([$99 a year from Microsoft](http://create.msdn.com/), or via unofficial tools) you can use [third-party apps like the one described here](http://www.winsupersite.com/article/windowsphone75/windows-phone-75-screenshots-141063). | In Windows Phone 8 you are able to save a screenshot by holding both the power button (often on the side of the phone, between the volume buttons and the camera button) and the home button (the middle button under the screen, with the Windows logo on it) for some time. Such screenshots are saved in the Screenshot album of the Picture Hub.
And just to be complete: in Windows Phone 8.1 Preview this combination was changed to holding both the volume up and the power button. If you use the older Windows Phone 8.0 key combination, you get shown a message box that tells you of this change.
For normal users (no developers) in Windows Phone 7.5 and earlier there is *no* way to make a screenshot of your phone except using another camera(phone) to do it. I think this is still the case in the Windows Phone 7.8 update that brings the smaller home screen tiles from Windows Phone 8. |
23 | On iOS devices you can take a screenshot by pressing the home & sleep buttons at the same time. Is there a similar way to take a screenshot with Windows Phone? | 2012/04/24 | [
"https://windowsphone.stackexchange.com/questions/23",
"https://windowsphone.stackexchange.com",
"https://windowsphone.stackexchange.com/users/13/"
] | There are a few ways to take screenshots:
1. If you're just a developer and just want to take screenshots for marketing your app, you can use the [emulator's screenshot tool](http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/gg442300%28v=VS.92%29.aspx).
2. If you have a developer-unlocked phone ([$99 a year from Microsoft](http://create.msdn.com/), or via unofficial tools) you can use [third-party apps like the one described here](http://www.winsupersite.com/article/windowsphone75/windows-phone-75-screenshots-141063). | Windows Phone 8
---------------
Press and hold Start button and Power icon at the same time to take a picture of your screen.
Windows Phone 8.1
-----------------
Press the Power icon and Volume Up buttons at the same time to take a picture of your screen.
Windows Phone 7, 7.5
--------------------
It do not provide a way to take screenshots without unlocking the phone with developer tools.
*The screenshot will then be stored into a "Screenshots" album in the photos.* |
23 | On iOS devices you can take a screenshot by pressing the home & sleep buttons at the same time. Is there a similar way to take a screenshot with Windows Phone? | 2012/04/24 | [
"https://windowsphone.stackexchange.com/questions/23",
"https://windowsphone.stackexchange.com",
"https://windowsphone.stackexchange.com/users/13/"
] | In Windows Phone 8 you are able to save a screenshot by holding both the power button (often on the side of the phone, between the volume buttons and the camera button) and the home button (the middle button under the screen, with the Windows logo on it) for some time. Such screenshots are saved in the Screenshot album of the Picture Hub.
And just to be complete: in Windows Phone 8.1 Preview this combination was changed to holding both the volume up and the power button. If you use the older Windows Phone 8.0 key combination, you get shown a message box that tells you of this change.
For normal users (no developers) in Windows Phone 7.5 and earlier there is *no* way to make a screenshot of your phone except using another camera(phone) to do it. I think this is still the case in the Windows Phone 7.8 update that brings the smaller home screen tiles from Windows Phone 8. | Windows Phone 8
---------------
Press and hold Start button and Power icon at the same time to take a picture of your screen.
Windows Phone 8.1
-----------------
Press the Power icon and Volume Up buttons at the same time to take a picture of your screen.
Windows Phone 7, 7.5
--------------------
It do not provide a way to take screenshots without unlocking the phone with developer tools.
*The screenshot will then be stored into a "Screenshots" album in the photos.* |
111,296 | It took 5-6 months to hear from the referee in both of my accepted papers. In my one rejection it was only a couple of weeks.
I do not think it could possibly take 5-6 months to read and understand my papers.
Should I conclude that my referee's wait a few months to even begin reading my papers? Are they trying to answer questions I posed, to piggy-back before others see the publication? I just am having a hard time understanding the delay. | 2018/06/16 | [
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/questions/111296",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/users/54843/"
] | Reading your paper is not the only obligation your referee has. They are active researchers who, besides their own research, have teaching, administration, thesis defenses, other papers to review etc. They are also normal people, who have to make their personal life function.
5-6 months is a long time, but depending on the field and the length of your paper, it is not unusual.
Don't be so worried about other people stealing your ideas. Most likely the referees has more ideas of their own than they have available time. | It’s unlikely they’re all sitting on the paper, although as has been mentioned it’s very field-dependent. A six-month delay in my field without any feedback would be approaching a four- to five-sigma event, but in math or some humanities fields, for instance, it might be more common.
What is possible is that the editor has *some* reviews in hand, but not enough to render her decision. If somebody is straggling, then a new review has to be solicited, leading to more delays. |
111,296 | It took 5-6 months to hear from the referee in both of my accepted papers. In my one rejection it was only a couple of weeks.
I do not think it could possibly take 5-6 months to read and understand my papers.
Should I conclude that my referee's wait a few months to even begin reading my papers? Are they trying to answer questions I posed, to piggy-back before others see the publication? I just am having a hard time understanding the delay. | 2018/06/16 | [
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/questions/111296",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/users/54843/"
] | Reading your paper is not the only obligation your referee has. They are active researchers who, besides their own research, have teaching, administration, thesis defenses, other papers to review etc. They are also normal people, who have to make their personal life function.
5-6 months is a long time, but depending on the field and the length of your paper, it is not unusual.
Don't be so worried about other people stealing your ideas. Most likely the referees has more ideas of their own than they have available time. | Reviewing a paper takes me 4 hours upto 2 days. I only accept review invitations when I have time to read those papers. I have not yet declined any serious invitation. I try to submit my (naturally constructive) review within two weeks after being invited by an editor, no matter the time being given.
In contrast, I had to wait seven months once to receive a rejection. Other peer-reviewed journals accepted within two - three months, including revision. Therefore, I have the same question as you have. I think it strongly depends on the journal and the reviewers it relies on.
I have a theory but it is just a theory. Some journals have procedures about how often a reviewer can be approached. What if you just have to wait until a reviewer in your field becomes available?
Further I notice that reviewers easily exploit the maximum time given by an editor. An editor probably waits for all reviews to return. Then there are reviewers that need reminders or just never respond after having accepted an invitation, forcing an editor to start all over again. I even consider the possibility that a small number of reviewers intentionally slows down the process for competitive reasons.
I feel the whole review and decision process would benefit from more transparency and behavioral professionalism. Being busy is no excuse. Nobody is enforced to accept an invitation. We all, without exception, have 24 hours in a day.
You could consider sharing your review experience at SciRev.org |
111,296 | It took 5-6 months to hear from the referee in both of my accepted papers. In my one rejection it was only a couple of weeks.
I do not think it could possibly take 5-6 months to read and understand my papers.
Should I conclude that my referee's wait a few months to even begin reading my papers? Are they trying to answer questions I posed, to piggy-back before others see the publication? I just am having a hard time understanding the delay. | 2018/06/16 | [
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/questions/111296",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/users/54843/"
] | Reading your paper is not the only obligation your referee has. They are active researchers who, besides their own research, have teaching, administration, thesis defenses, other papers to review etc. They are also normal people, who have to make their personal life function.
5-6 months is a long time, but depending on the field and the length of your paper, it is not unusual.
Don't be so worried about other people stealing your ideas. Most likely the referees has more ideas of their own than they have available time. | A personal experience as editor (which might help understand why this happens):
An interesting paper finds its way to me via the editorial office. I usually try to use one of the suggested reviewers and another one - so those are invited and have about 3 weeks to reply. Both reviewers fail to reply within 21 days and the next on the list are invited ... After about 12 weeks, I have two reviews: "Reject" and "Minor Revision". In that case, I prefer to get a third opinion (which is also policy) - so add another 6 to 8 weeks. In total it took 24 weeks from submission to a 'Major revision' decision - and resulted in a very unhappy author.
Unfortunately there is no easy solution: it is difficult to find (good) reviewers, and they tend to be inundated with review requests as they are known to be reliable.
Complain to the editor-in-chief (or publisher) - in a friendly way of course - perhaps they can reduce the time given to reviewers or find other ways. |
111,296 | It took 5-6 months to hear from the referee in both of my accepted papers. In my one rejection it was only a couple of weeks.
I do not think it could possibly take 5-6 months to read and understand my papers.
Should I conclude that my referee's wait a few months to even begin reading my papers? Are they trying to answer questions I posed, to piggy-back before others see the publication? I just am having a hard time understanding the delay. | 2018/06/16 | [
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/questions/111296",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/users/54843/"
] | It’s unlikely they’re all sitting on the paper, although as has been mentioned it’s very field-dependent. A six-month delay in my field without any feedback would be approaching a four- to five-sigma event, but in math or some humanities fields, for instance, it might be more common.
What is possible is that the editor has *some* reviews in hand, but not enough to render her decision. If somebody is straggling, then a new review has to be solicited, leading to more delays. | A personal experience as editor (which might help understand why this happens):
An interesting paper finds its way to me via the editorial office. I usually try to use one of the suggested reviewers and another one - so those are invited and have about 3 weeks to reply. Both reviewers fail to reply within 21 days and the next on the list are invited ... After about 12 weeks, I have two reviews: "Reject" and "Minor Revision". In that case, I prefer to get a third opinion (which is also policy) - so add another 6 to 8 weeks. In total it took 24 weeks from submission to a 'Major revision' decision - and resulted in a very unhappy author.
Unfortunately there is no easy solution: it is difficult to find (good) reviewers, and they tend to be inundated with review requests as they are known to be reliable.
Complain to the editor-in-chief (or publisher) - in a friendly way of course - perhaps they can reduce the time given to reviewers or find other ways. |
111,296 | It took 5-6 months to hear from the referee in both of my accepted papers. In my one rejection it was only a couple of weeks.
I do not think it could possibly take 5-6 months to read and understand my papers.
Should I conclude that my referee's wait a few months to even begin reading my papers? Are they trying to answer questions I posed, to piggy-back before others see the publication? I just am having a hard time understanding the delay. | 2018/06/16 | [
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/questions/111296",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/users/54843/"
] | Reviewing a paper takes me 4 hours upto 2 days. I only accept review invitations when I have time to read those papers. I have not yet declined any serious invitation. I try to submit my (naturally constructive) review within two weeks after being invited by an editor, no matter the time being given.
In contrast, I had to wait seven months once to receive a rejection. Other peer-reviewed journals accepted within two - three months, including revision. Therefore, I have the same question as you have. I think it strongly depends on the journal and the reviewers it relies on.
I have a theory but it is just a theory. Some journals have procedures about how often a reviewer can be approached. What if you just have to wait until a reviewer in your field becomes available?
Further I notice that reviewers easily exploit the maximum time given by an editor. An editor probably waits for all reviews to return. Then there are reviewers that need reminders or just never respond after having accepted an invitation, forcing an editor to start all over again. I even consider the possibility that a small number of reviewers intentionally slows down the process for competitive reasons.
I feel the whole review and decision process would benefit from more transparency and behavioral professionalism. Being busy is no excuse. Nobody is enforced to accept an invitation. We all, without exception, have 24 hours in a day.
You could consider sharing your review experience at SciRev.org | A personal experience as editor (which might help understand why this happens):
An interesting paper finds its way to me via the editorial office. I usually try to use one of the suggested reviewers and another one - so those are invited and have about 3 weeks to reply. Both reviewers fail to reply within 21 days and the next on the list are invited ... After about 12 weeks, I have two reviews: "Reject" and "Minor Revision". In that case, I prefer to get a third opinion (which is also policy) - so add another 6 to 8 weeks. In total it took 24 weeks from submission to a 'Major revision' decision - and resulted in a very unhappy author.
Unfortunately there is no easy solution: it is difficult to find (good) reviewers, and they tend to be inundated with review requests as they are known to be reliable.
Complain to the editor-in-chief (or publisher) - in a friendly way of course - perhaps they can reduce the time given to reviewers or find other ways. |
7,780,521 | I'm doing a homework assignment for my theory of computation class and am a bit confused how to combine 2 DFAs. The book says it uses the "intersection construction" to do so, but I'm not sure what that is. Here are 2 examples:
 | 2011/10/15 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/7780521",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/385051/"
] | The idea is pretty straightforward, although I can see where the confusion comes in. I will give a text/symbolic description of the process for making the intersection (union, difference) machines via the Cartesian Product Machine construction (same thing as you are talking about).
A DFA is a 5-tuple (E, Q, q0, A, f) where
1. E is the input alphabet, a non-empty finite set of symbols
2. Q is the set of states, non-empty and finite
3. q0 is the start state, an element of Q
4. A is the set of accepting or final states, a subset of Q
5. f is the transition function, taking pairs from Q x E to Q
Say we have two machines M' = (E', Q', q0', A', f') and M'' = (E'', Q'', q0'', A'', f''). To make the discussion easier, we assume E' = E''. We will now construct M''' so that L(M''') = L(M') intersect (or union or difference) L(M'').
1. Take E''' = E'' = E'
2. Take Q''' = Q' x Q''
3. Take q0''' = (q0', q0'')
4. Take A''' = (x, y) where x in A' and y in A'' (for union, x in A' or y in A''; for difference, x in A' but not y in A'').
5. Take f'''((x, y), e) = (f'(x, e), f''(y, e)).
There you go! Let's now consider two machines: one which accepts a^2n, and one which accepts a^3n (the intersection should be a machine accepting a^6n... right?).
For M', we have...
1. E' = {a}
2. Q' = {s0, s1}
3. q0' = s0
4. A' = {s0}
5. f'(s0, a) = s1, f'(s1, a) = s0
For M'', we have...
1. E'' = {a}
2. Q'' = {t0, t1, t2}
3. q0'' = t0
4. A'' = {t0}
5. f''(t0, a) = t1, f''(t1, a) = t2, f''(t2, a) = t0
For M''', we get...
1. E''' = {a}
2. Q''' = {(s0, t0), (s0, t1), (s0, t2), (s1, t0), (s1, t1), (s1, t2)}
3. q0''' = (s0, t0)
4. A''' = {(s0, t0)} for intersection, {(s0, t0), (s0, t1), (s0, t2), (s1, t0)} for union, {(s0, t1), (s0, t2)} for difference.
5. f'''((s0, t0), a) = (s1, t1), f'''((s1, t1), a) = (s0, t2), f'''((s0, t2), a) = (s1, t0), f'''((s1, t0), a) = (s0, t1), f'''((s0, t1), a) = (s1, t2), f'''((s1, t2), a) = (s0, t0).
And there you go! Please let me know if this needs clarification. | These are:
{s∈{a,b,c}∗:every a in s is immediately followed by a b}
{s∈{a,b,c}∗:every a in s is immediately followed by a b}
and
{s∈{a,b,c}∗: every c in s is immediately preceded by a b}
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/fCT4M.jpg)
In front and another automaton, you can join states "0" and "2".
and you need to retain that ...
There is a precise way for performing automatons for the crossing of languages. Let AA and BB be the input automatons. The cases of new automaton will be all pairs of states of AA and BB, that is SA∩B=SA×SBSA∩B=SA×SB, the initial state will be iA∩B=⟨iA,iB⟩iA∩B=⟨iA,iB⟩, where iAiA and iBiB are the initial states of AA and BB, and FA∩B=FA×FBFA∩B=FA×FB where FXFX denotes the set of accepting states of XX. Finally, the transition function δA∩BδA∩B is defined as follows for any letter α∈Σα∈Σ and states p1,p2∈SAp1,p2∈SA, q1,q2∈SBq1,q2∈SB:
⟨p1,q1⟩−→−−A∩B α ⟨p2,q2⟩ iff p1−→A α p2andq1−→B α q2
⟨p1,q1⟩→A∩B α ⟨p2,q2⟩ iff p1→A α p2andq1→B α q2
Please note, that such automaton usually is not minimal (e.g. the intersection might be just an empty language). Also, it might be useful (but it is not necessary) to make input automatons minimal since the output is quadratic in size.
// Reference: math.stackexchange.com
Happy Coding ... |
4,125 | **What subset of Hegel should a person know to understand Marxist philosophy?**
In political alignment i'm a Marxist, and mostly subscribe to social and political positions of the kinds like Slavoj Žižek or István Mészáros. However in philosophy i was always a logical positivist and was never interested in continental tradition. For example, i'm not interested in Žižek's philosophical insights.
Lenin [said](http://www.marxists.org/archive/lenin/works/1914/cons-logic/ch03.htm#LCW38_179) on Hegel:
>
> It is impossible completely to understand Marx's Capital, and especially its first Chapter, without having thoroughly studied and understood the whole of Hegel's Logic. Consequently, half a century later none of the Marxists understood Marx!!
>
>
>
What absolute minimum of Hegel should a person deeply entrenched in analytical camp know and comprehend? Can you please recommend an introduction to Hegel's thought from Marxist perspective? | 2012/11/02 | [
"https://philosophy.stackexchange.com/questions/4125",
"https://philosophy.stackexchange.com",
"https://philosophy.stackexchange.com/users/945/"
] | You might be interested in Alexandre Kojève's *Introduction to the Reading of Hegel*. The first chapter is available on the site DBK recommended (www.marxists.org). Kojève has a few other works of note (though only the *Introduction* and *Outline of a Phenomenology of Right* have been translated into English--though *The Concept, Time, and Discourse* is supposed to be released soon). He is probably the most influential interpreter of Hegel. (He was also a Marxist.)
As far as Hegel goes, I'd suggest reading, at the very least, the Master-Slave Dialectic in the *Phenomenology of Spirit*. The *Philosophy of History* is also worth reading (it's quite a bit easier than the *Phenomenology*, and is a good introduction to Hegel's historicism). | The site you link to (marxism.org) has lots of freely available material:
* [Index of Marxists.org Hegel Archives](http://www.marxists.org/reference/archive/hegel/index.htm)
* [Some Helpful Reference Materials from Marxists.org](http://www.marxists.org/reference/archive/hegel/li_help.htm)
In particular you might want to have a look at these real classics:
* [Marxists.org Criticisms of Hegel](http://www.marxists.org/reference/archive/hegel/li_other.htm)
Marx and Engels wrote copiously on Hegel themselves.
* [Marxists.org Archive of Marx on Hegel](http://www.marxists.org/reference/archive/hegel/li_marx.htm)
Also, it might be of interest to you that **most logical empiricists in Vienna and Berlin were, politically, left-leaning socialists and some saw themselves as acting within the marxist tradition**. The most interesting example is [**Otto Neurath**](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Otto_Neurath), who thought of marxism and logical empiricism as *convergent* theoretical and practical efforts. Some relevant writings are reprinted (in German) in
* Rainer Hegselmann, *Wissenschaftliche Weltauffassung, Sozialismus und logischer Empirismus*, Frankfurt a.M.: Suhrkamp 1979. |
4,125 | **What subset of Hegel should a person know to understand Marxist philosophy?**
In political alignment i'm a Marxist, and mostly subscribe to social and political positions of the kinds like Slavoj Žižek or István Mészáros. However in philosophy i was always a logical positivist and was never interested in continental tradition. For example, i'm not interested in Žižek's philosophical insights.
Lenin [said](http://www.marxists.org/archive/lenin/works/1914/cons-logic/ch03.htm#LCW38_179) on Hegel:
>
> It is impossible completely to understand Marx's Capital, and especially its first Chapter, without having thoroughly studied and understood the whole of Hegel's Logic. Consequently, half a century later none of the Marxists understood Marx!!
>
>
>
What absolute minimum of Hegel should a person deeply entrenched in analytical camp know and comprehend? Can you please recommend an introduction to Hegel's thought from Marxist perspective? | 2012/11/02 | [
"https://philosophy.stackexchange.com/questions/4125",
"https://philosophy.stackexchange.com",
"https://philosophy.stackexchange.com/users/945/"
] | The site you link to (marxism.org) has lots of freely available material:
* [Index of Marxists.org Hegel Archives](http://www.marxists.org/reference/archive/hegel/index.htm)
* [Some Helpful Reference Materials from Marxists.org](http://www.marxists.org/reference/archive/hegel/li_help.htm)
In particular you might want to have a look at these real classics:
* [Marxists.org Criticisms of Hegel](http://www.marxists.org/reference/archive/hegel/li_other.htm)
Marx and Engels wrote copiously on Hegel themselves.
* [Marxists.org Archive of Marx on Hegel](http://www.marxists.org/reference/archive/hegel/li_marx.htm)
Also, it might be of interest to you that **most logical empiricists in Vienna and Berlin were, politically, left-leaning socialists and some saw themselves as acting within the marxist tradition**. The most interesting example is [**Otto Neurath**](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Otto_Neurath), who thought of marxism and logical empiricism as *convergent* theoretical and practical efforts. Some relevant writings are reprinted (in German) in
* Rainer Hegselmann, *Wissenschaftliche Weltauffassung, Sozialismus und logischer Empirismus*, Frankfurt a.M.: Suhrkamp 1979. | I liked *Reason and Revolution: Hegel and the Rise of Social Theory* by Herbert Marcuse.
<https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Reason_and_Revolution> |
4,125 | **What subset of Hegel should a person know to understand Marxist philosophy?**
In political alignment i'm a Marxist, and mostly subscribe to social and political positions of the kinds like Slavoj Žižek or István Mészáros. However in philosophy i was always a logical positivist and was never interested in continental tradition. For example, i'm not interested in Žižek's philosophical insights.
Lenin [said](http://www.marxists.org/archive/lenin/works/1914/cons-logic/ch03.htm#LCW38_179) on Hegel:
>
> It is impossible completely to understand Marx's Capital, and especially its first Chapter, without having thoroughly studied and understood the whole of Hegel's Logic. Consequently, half a century later none of the Marxists understood Marx!!
>
>
>
What absolute minimum of Hegel should a person deeply entrenched in analytical camp know and comprehend? Can you please recommend an introduction to Hegel's thought from Marxist perspective? | 2012/11/02 | [
"https://philosophy.stackexchange.com/questions/4125",
"https://philosophy.stackexchange.com",
"https://philosophy.stackexchange.com/users/945/"
] | You might be interested in Alexandre Kojève's *Introduction to the Reading of Hegel*. The first chapter is available on the site DBK recommended (www.marxists.org). Kojève has a few other works of note (though only the *Introduction* and *Outline of a Phenomenology of Right* have been translated into English--though *The Concept, Time, and Discourse* is supposed to be released soon). He is probably the most influential interpreter of Hegel. (He was also a Marxist.)
As far as Hegel goes, I'd suggest reading, at the very least, the Master-Slave Dialectic in the *Phenomenology of Spirit*. The *Philosophy of History* is also worth reading (it's quite a bit easier than the *Phenomenology*, and is a good introduction to Hegel's historicism). | I liked *Reason and Revolution: Hegel and the Rise of Social Theory* by Herbert Marcuse.
<https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Reason_and_Revolution> |
6,026 | I am playing bass in a humorous metal band. The idea is to make parody out of metal using as many cliches as possible (at the same time respecting the scene and having fun, of course). We have some bass solos in our songs and I am feeling that my 4 strings just aren't enough for playing the high pitched notes in solos and the low metal riffs with D tuning. I am considering getting a 6 string bass guitar for this purpose. I would like to achieve the Cannibal Corpse sound while playing bass lines and something specific (I am undecided) for the solo parts. Since it's a metal parody, the bass guitar should look as evil as possible. My questions are:
1. Does 6 string bass make sense in the described type of use?
2. What type of bass is good for achieving a sound like Cannibal Corpse?
3. Do I need some pedals etc. to flexibly change my sound within songs? If yes, what? | 2012/04/23 | [
"https://music.stackexchange.com/questions/6026",
"https://music.stackexchange.com",
"https://music.stackexchange.com/users/2281/"
] | When you think "evil" and "bass guitar" the brand that immediately comes to mind is BC Rich:
These guys practically invented the ultra-spiky death metal instrument look. If you want to look the part, get a BC Rich. If you don't go this route, look at some of the more out-there Ibanezes; their basses are usually the more conservative Gibson- or Fender-esque styles, but they do a lot of finish colors, textures and wood choices that don't look out of place on the metal stage.
As far as number of strings, strings on a bass aren't quite as big a deal as far as conforming to a "metal" stereotype. The guys with ERBs are typically found in the jazz, fusion and solo-bass genres. The stereotypical hair metal player generally has a DADG-tuned four-string bass, while the typical nu-metal player has a fiver, sometimes a sixer. AAFs bassist used a six-string custom Fender. Korn's Fieldy is usually seen with his signature Ibanez 5-string, and Fuzz from Disturbed alternated between a Traben fiver and a Music Man fiver.
It's less about number of strings as it is how you look playing them; sling the bass somewhere between "rock" (neckplate about at your groin) and "punk" (neckplate at your knees) and either play it fast and tight with a pick, or be brutal with big strokes, slaps and string-stretches. Either way the normal posture is leaning forward, head down slinging your long hair in a circle. | A1: it is not about how many strings the bass has. if you need them all, buy it. you won't lose!
A2: I know more about guitar, but I would recommend Ibanez and yamaha basses.
A3: yes! there are bass distortions, and you'll need some compression, too! |
6,026 | I am playing bass in a humorous metal band. The idea is to make parody out of metal using as many cliches as possible (at the same time respecting the scene and having fun, of course). We have some bass solos in our songs and I am feeling that my 4 strings just aren't enough for playing the high pitched notes in solos and the low metal riffs with D tuning. I am considering getting a 6 string bass guitar for this purpose. I would like to achieve the Cannibal Corpse sound while playing bass lines and something specific (I am undecided) for the solo parts. Since it's a metal parody, the bass guitar should look as evil as possible. My questions are:
1. Does 6 string bass make sense in the described type of use?
2. What type of bass is good for achieving a sound like Cannibal Corpse?
3. Do I need some pedals etc. to flexibly change my sound within songs? If yes, what? | 2012/04/23 | [
"https://music.stackexchange.com/questions/6026",
"https://music.stackexchange.com",
"https://music.stackexchange.com/users/2281/"
] | Why would it need to look evil if it's a parody? Wouldn't that mean it shouldn't look evil? Shouldn't you use a Hello Kitty bass?
Just the same you should get the cheapest basses you can find on Craigslist so you can smash them.
Alex Webster's bass is a Spectre custom 5 string ... $2800 list.. so there's no joke about the equipment. | A1: it is not about how many strings the bass has. if you need them all, buy it. you won't lose!
A2: I know more about guitar, but I would recommend Ibanez and yamaha basses.
A3: yes! there are bass distortions, and you'll need some compression, too! |
6,026 | I am playing bass in a humorous metal band. The idea is to make parody out of metal using as many cliches as possible (at the same time respecting the scene and having fun, of course). We have some bass solos in our songs and I am feeling that my 4 strings just aren't enough for playing the high pitched notes in solos and the low metal riffs with D tuning. I am considering getting a 6 string bass guitar for this purpose. I would like to achieve the Cannibal Corpse sound while playing bass lines and something specific (I am undecided) for the solo parts. Since it's a metal parody, the bass guitar should look as evil as possible. My questions are:
1. Does 6 string bass make sense in the described type of use?
2. What type of bass is good for achieving a sound like Cannibal Corpse?
3. Do I need some pedals etc. to flexibly change my sound within songs? If yes, what? | 2012/04/23 | [
"https://music.stackexchange.com/questions/6026",
"https://music.stackexchange.com",
"https://music.stackexchange.com/users/2281/"
] | When you think "evil" and "bass guitar" the brand that immediately comes to mind is BC Rich:
These guys practically invented the ultra-spiky death metal instrument look. If you want to look the part, get a BC Rich. If you don't go this route, look at some of the more out-there Ibanezes; their basses are usually the more conservative Gibson- or Fender-esque styles, but they do a lot of finish colors, textures and wood choices that don't look out of place on the metal stage.
As far as number of strings, strings on a bass aren't quite as big a deal as far as conforming to a "metal" stereotype. The guys with ERBs are typically found in the jazz, fusion and solo-bass genres. The stereotypical hair metal player generally has a DADG-tuned four-string bass, while the typical nu-metal player has a fiver, sometimes a sixer. AAFs bassist used a six-string custom Fender. Korn's Fieldy is usually seen with his signature Ibanez 5-string, and Fuzz from Disturbed alternated between a Traben fiver and a Music Man fiver.
It's less about number of strings as it is how you look playing them; sling the bass somewhere between "rock" (neckplate about at your groin) and "punk" (neckplate at your knees) and either play it fast and tight with a pick, or be brutal with big strokes, slaps and string-stretches. Either way the normal posture is leaning forward, head down slinging your long hair in a circle. | Why would it need to look evil if it's a parody? Wouldn't that mean it shouldn't look evil? Shouldn't you use a Hello Kitty bass?
Just the same you should get the cheapest basses you can find on Craigslist so you can smash them.
Alex Webster's bass is a Spectre custom 5 string ... $2800 list.. so there's no joke about the equipment. |
51,768 | I will soon be working on a self employed basis for a company based in Poland,but I'm still going to be based in the UK (working remotely/online as a consultant) and my question is do I need to pay taxes and national insurance in Poland as all my income will come from a Polish based company or in the UK as I will still be a UK resident? Is it at all possible?
Many thanks | 2015/08/11 | [
"https://money.stackexchange.com/questions/51768",
"https://money.stackexchange.com",
"https://money.stackexchange.com/users/32140/"
] | If you are *really* self employed, you will pay UK tax as a self employed person. This can be quite useful as there may well be some legitimate costs you can deduct.
If, however, you are in effect an employee, the tax situation will be different, and you will be taxed as an employee. If you continue to live in the UK, this will be subject to normal UK tax. | If you are a UK resident, you'll pay UK tax and will need to do a tax return every year as a self-employed worker. It's really easy to file your taxes on the [HMRC website](https://www.gov.uk/topic/personal-tax/self-assessment) and you can also use an [online calculator](https://salarycalculatorpro.com) to work out how much money you need to save in tax and national insurance so you have it ready to pay.
If you want to pay to submit your self assessment, there is site called [SimpleTax](http://l.gosimpletax.com/zen/) which can do that and the main benefit is that it includes hints on what you can claim tax back on as a self-employed worker (although you can research that on the HMRC site and file your return for free). |
44,856,181 | I have XCode 8.3.3., and testing an app that makes REST API calls. When open another app in foreground ( some of the stock simulator apps: calendar, news, etc. ), my app still continues to make periodic REST calls. This is not what happens on the real device (iPhone 5S). It makes the calls, even if I Lock my simulator out.
Is this intended behavior? How can I get real device compliance?
Thanks. | 2017/07/01 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/44856181",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/801319/"
] | Good news: As of Xcode 9 Beta 3 we suspend background processes in the Simulator. | The question is answered in the comments.
Basically XCode simulator doesn't enforce background tasks. |
6,455 | At the professional level, for what purpose is reverse software engineering used? What software is targeted and why?
For reasonably complex compiled code that's doing something novel, making meaningful insights into how that code operates via reverse engineering seems like it would be enormously intensive of expertise, labor, and time. In particular, I imagine that hiring competent assembly programmers is extremely difficult and possibly expensive. And yet, I haven't the foggiest idea where entities with the resources to do so would want to spend those resources.
This is my list of possibilities...
1. Writing malware
2. Writing counter-malware
3. Maybe analyzing competitors products?
It's not a great list. What is the reality here? What sort of software justifies the expense to be reverse engineered?
*See the comments on 0xC0000022L's answer for some refinement of the question.* | 2014/10/15 | [
"https://reverseengineering.stackexchange.com/questions/6455",
"https://reverseengineering.stackexchange.com",
"https://reverseengineering.stackexchange.com/users/9772/"
] | 4. Finding undocumented features of a product.
* for instance for locating a registry key or setting to turn on a debug mode.
5. Finding how exactly a poorly documented feature works.
6. Debugging
* sometimes i find myself loading my own software in IDA to find what code the compiler produced, either to find bugs, or to see how an optimization worked out.
7. Cracking copy protection
* keygens are usually created by reverse engineering an application's licensekey validation algorithm.
* sometimes a company may have lost licene codes to some ancient piece of software.
8. Evaluating the security of a closed source product.
9. Modify an existing product
* like flashing your own custom rom to a phone.
10. Interface current products with ancient software. | 10. Honing your skills and keeping up-to-date with them (as well as with using the tools).
11. Curiosity. Yep, doesn't have to be purely goal-driven like 4. and 5. in Willem's answer.
12. Establishing compatibility with a legacy product, file format or architecture. Motivation can be 11 in that case or 4 or 5 or possibly something completely different. |
6,455 | At the professional level, for what purpose is reverse software engineering used? What software is targeted and why?
For reasonably complex compiled code that's doing something novel, making meaningful insights into how that code operates via reverse engineering seems like it would be enormously intensive of expertise, labor, and time. In particular, I imagine that hiring competent assembly programmers is extremely difficult and possibly expensive. And yet, I haven't the foggiest idea where entities with the resources to do so would want to spend those resources.
This is my list of possibilities...
1. Writing malware
2. Writing counter-malware
3. Maybe analyzing competitors products?
It's not a great list. What is the reality here? What sort of software justifies the expense to be reverse engineered?
*See the comments on 0xC0000022L's answer for some refinement of the question.* | 2014/10/15 | [
"https://reverseengineering.stackexchange.com/questions/6455",
"https://reverseengineering.stackexchange.com",
"https://reverseengineering.stackexchange.com/users/9772/"
] | 10. Honing your skills and keeping up-to-date with them (as well as with using the tools).
11. Curiosity. Yep, doesn't have to be purely goal-driven like 4. and 5. in Willem's answer.
12. Establishing compatibility with a legacy product, file format or architecture. Motivation can be 11 in that case or 4 or 5 or possibly something completely different. | I have carried out reverse engineering projects professionally a fair bit. Generally we are commissioned to:
1) Determine how hard it would be to create a crack for some piece of software (by the developers of that software).
2) Understand a specific exploit (in the security sense, e.g. a buffer overflow). In other words, "here's the email we got; tell us what happened", or "here's the exploit. How, *exactly*, does it work and how can we defend against this kind of exploit in future?"
3) Find bugs in a piece of software by examining the binary without reference to the source code, as part of a larger security audit of the code. This is surprisingly useful because some kinds of dangerous behaviour that aren't obvious in code can "leap out" at you in the binary, e.g. complex preprocessor macros causing dangerous behaviour in C/C++. So, counterintuitively, we sometimes use reversing because it's faster. Check out IDA pro and Hopper for the sorts of "quick reversing" features that help in this area - decompiling to pseudocode, finding all calls to X or just searching the string table then finding all references to a dangerous/suspect looking string, and so on. Sometimes just running 'strings' on a binary can give you ideas as to where the bugs might be; following that up with a real, pro reversing tool can help. This isn't restricted to C/C++/Objective C - if we're working in .Net or Java, we'd use .Net Reflector or the Java Decompiler and other environments have their equivalents.
Sometimes we use reverse engineering to help us in a larger project. For instance, we might want to test a component in isolation; to do this without the source code we might want to edit the binary to introduce logging calls or shortcut some behaviour.
Then there's fuzzing, of course, but that's probably not really reversing in the true sense, although it can involve examining code at the assembly level, to understand why the code crashed / where the bug is / whether it's a security problem.
There are many, many reasons why reverse engineering is helpful even in a general development context. In the security field, it's pretty much essential.
In terms of professional development, if you're in the security field and you have good reversing skills, you will probably be at the upper end of the pay scale. You need to be able to do the other stuff, but if you have reversing on your CV - and you can back it up - then getting hired shouldn't be a problem (in the security field at least). |
6,455 | At the professional level, for what purpose is reverse software engineering used? What software is targeted and why?
For reasonably complex compiled code that's doing something novel, making meaningful insights into how that code operates via reverse engineering seems like it would be enormously intensive of expertise, labor, and time. In particular, I imagine that hiring competent assembly programmers is extremely difficult and possibly expensive. And yet, I haven't the foggiest idea where entities with the resources to do so would want to spend those resources.
This is my list of possibilities...
1. Writing malware
2. Writing counter-malware
3. Maybe analyzing competitors products?
It's not a great list. What is the reality here? What sort of software justifies the expense to be reverse engineered?
*See the comments on 0xC0000022L's answer for some refinement of the question.* | 2014/10/15 | [
"https://reverseengineering.stackexchange.com/questions/6455",
"https://reverseengineering.stackexchange.com",
"https://reverseengineering.stackexchange.com/users/9772/"
] | 4. Finding undocumented features of a product.
* for instance for locating a registry key or setting to turn on a debug mode.
5. Finding how exactly a poorly documented feature works.
6. Debugging
* sometimes i find myself loading my own software in IDA to find what code the compiler produced, either to find bugs, or to see how an optimization worked out.
7. Cracking copy protection
* keygens are usually created by reverse engineering an application's licensekey validation algorithm.
* sometimes a company may have lost licene codes to some ancient piece of software.
8. Evaluating the security of a closed source product.
9. Modify an existing product
* like flashing your own custom rom to a phone.
10. Interface current products with ancient software. | I have carried out reverse engineering projects professionally a fair bit. Generally we are commissioned to:
1) Determine how hard it would be to create a crack for some piece of software (by the developers of that software).
2) Understand a specific exploit (in the security sense, e.g. a buffer overflow). In other words, "here's the email we got; tell us what happened", or "here's the exploit. How, *exactly*, does it work and how can we defend against this kind of exploit in future?"
3) Find bugs in a piece of software by examining the binary without reference to the source code, as part of a larger security audit of the code. This is surprisingly useful because some kinds of dangerous behaviour that aren't obvious in code can "leap out" at you in the binary, e.g. complex preprocessor macros causing dangerous behaviour in C/C++. So, counterintuitively, we sometimes use reversing because it's faster. Check out IDA pro and Hopper for the sorts of "quick reversing" features that help in this area - decompiling to pseudocode, finding all calls to X or just searching the string table then finding all references to a dangerous/suspect looking string, and so on. Sometimes just running 'strings' on a binary can give you ideas as to where the bugs might be; following that up with a real, pro reversing tool can help. This isn't restricted to C/C++/Objective C - if we're working in .Net or Java, we'd use .Net Reflector or the Java Decompiler and other environments have their equivalents.
Sometimes we use reverse engineering to help us in a larger project. For instance, we might want to test a component in isolation; to do this without the source code we might want to edit the binary to introduce logging calls or shortcut some behaviour.
Then there's fuzzing, of course, but that's probably not really reversing in the true sense, although it can involve examining code at the assembly level, to understand why the code crashed / where the bug is / whether it's a security problem.
There are many, many reasons why reverse engineering is helpful even in a general development context. In the security field, it's pretty much essential.
In terms of professional development, if you're in the security field and you have good reversing skills, you will probably be at the upper end of the pay scale. You need to be able to do the other stuff, but if you have reversing on your CV - and you can back it up - then getting hired shouldn't be a problem (in the security field at least). |
6,455 | At the professional level, for what purpose is reverse software engineering used? What software is targeted and why?
For reasonably complex compiled code that's doing something novel, making meaningful insights into how that code operates via reverse engineering seems like it would be enormously intensive of expertise, labor, and time. In particular, I imagine that hiring competent assembly programmers is extremely difficult and possibly expensive. And yet, I haven't the foggiest idea where entities with the resources to do so would want to spend those resources.
This is my list of possibilities...
1. Writing malware
2. Writing counter-malware
3. Maybe analyzing competitors products?
It's not a great list. What is the reality here? What sort of software justifies the expense to be reverse engineered?
*See the comments on 0xC0000022L's answer for some refinement of the question.* | 2014/10/15 | [
"https://reverseengineering.stackexchange.com/questions/6455",
"https://reverseengineering.stackexchange.com",
"https://reverseengineering.stackexchange.com/users/9772/"
] | 4. Finding undocumented features of a product.
* for instance for locating a registry key or setting to turn on a debug mode.
5. Finding how exactly a poorly documented feature works.
6. Debugging
* sometimes i find myself loading my own software in IDA to find what code the compiler produced, either to find bugs, or to see how an optimization worked out.
7. Cracking copy protection
* keygens are usually created by reverse engineering an application's licensekey validation algorithm.
* sometimes a company may have lost licene codes to some ancient piece of software.
8. Evaluating the security of a closed source product.
9. Modify an existing product
* like flashing your own custom rom to a phone.
10. Interface current products with ancient software. | There are already a lot of great answers. If I may add my two cents. Reverse engineering software is akin to the mechanic or tinkerer whom just enjoys taking things apart, understanding how they work, putting them back together, and possibly modifying their subject to adapt its behavior so it is more to their liking. There is no shortage of examples in the physical realm.
Any Electrical Engineer, hardware designer, and the most eliete QA engineers are talented reverse engineers; which is to say, they have an expertise in debugging/analyzing software/hardware implementations. I interned at AMD as I worked my way through school and my debugging skills not only helped me advance to more serious roles within the company, but it is also *really* fun! Like a game or puzzle that you can play for as long as you want. The challenges will never stop coming.
My favorite example of a legitimate need for reverse engineers is NASA. They are not the only outfit where the phrase "mission critical" applies, where people's lives depend on the quality of their work, but it is the only one that has to fix problems even if their product is hurtling through space. They have to set and freeze product versions *years* before that software / hardware ever goes to the launch pad. That may seem silly, because the phones in our pocket have more computing power than the entire shuttle, but they can't use modern technology. It's too risky. They have to accept what is available at the time that the specs are frozen and that's it - lest they incur the scheduling and workload that upgrading, testing, fixing, re-testing, verifying again, simulating realistic conditions to determine failure points, fixing it, and starting over.... it is serious business and those engineers do not take their responsibility lightly.
Would you be surprised to learn that NASA projects have used Microsoft OSes on hardware went into shuttle components? It is not much different than using a M$ OS as the foundation for, say for instance, a point-of-sale terminal or for the control system at a power plant. Now consider a scenario where the OS, the hardware, or some portion of third-party software is found to have a flaw in it. Moreover, imagine that the vendor does not care about the flaw to the degree that NASA does and decides that there is no fiscal motivation for them to fix the issue - even if lives depend upon that component not failing. NASA is stuck.
At this point their options are to either replace the component and start their processes all over - a huge cost in time, man-hours, and no guarentee that they won't discover another critical flaw after upgrading; or, instead of upgrading, they can reverse engineer the hardware/software failure and determine if they could fix the problem themselves - maybe it would take some curcuit re-design, changing the values of a few resistors so that voltage levels on the memory bus stayed within required limits under the extreme conditions that were making them fail or maybe there is a binary patch that they can apply that to mitigate the error state they discovered where life-support systems began failing or a probe's batteries drained and left it unable to re-charge itself.
I'm not totally making these scenarios up. They come from stories I have been told, by friends who worked at JPL, my engineering professors when I was in the University, or colleagues that have worked with in the tech industry. All this, and more, has been surmounted by NASA's engineers. It did cost quite a bit more than India paid (tip of the hat to them too), to do what they have done, but the first time through is always more costly.
Technically, NASA engineers would be violating one or more of the intellectual property laws that vendors claim they have (they may or may not actually have those rights; I"m not trying to debate that here). If you bought a corvette, you would be completely within your rights to bore out the cylinders to change your car's performance profile. Different tires. Modified suspension. Tweaked timing and mixture ratios in the fuel injection system. The famous Shelby Cobra is not only modified, but also remarketed with its aftermarket modifications- all entirely legal.
If you bought a radio and wanted to make some modifications, so that it was water proof and you could take it on the lake with you. Amplify it's output so that it would still be audible over the boat engine, or anything of that sort... legal.
Now, jailbreak your iPhone, modify your xBox or the Kinect system that came with it, or, in NASA's case, modify the OS and/or re-engineer the memory bus on a motherboard, to ensure the safety of a human mind you. All of these activities have evoked fierce reactions from the vendors that, for whatever their reasoning, do not want those activities to be continue nor become more widespread. Ultimately, this led to the DMCA laws that we have today being passed. Before that, even if you were clicking "I agree" to the rediculus terms and services that were put before you there was still the question if that contract was legal enforceable.
The DMCA, which does nothing to disuade the massive blackmarkets in China or South America, carries harsh penalties and has been treated as a kind of "hunting license" for those that wish to go after consumers can and have. Should it be illegal to make unlicensed copies of someone elses music; to sell, trade, or even give it away?
Clearly, that should be illegal. Artwork, books, patented processes, protected trademarks; yes, those should be protected too. Software and hardware; again, yes the the author of software should be able to enforce resonalbe aspects of their licensing that protect the the investment that have made to create said software or hardware. Explicitly, it is, and should remain, illegal to puchase one copy legitimately, turn around and make copies, and then sell/trade/or give the unlicensed copies. Microsoft, VMWare, Adobe, and similar big companies should retain that right.
Now, once I have licensed the software or hardware can I make modifications and then sell/trade/or give away the software/hardware that featured *my* modifications. That depends. It i, and should be illegal, to profit from derivatives works beyond the limit to which you originally licended the art (i.e. software). For example, you could not draw the likeness of a Disney character, change the name, and then claim it as your own and profit from it's use. I believe that Mikey no longer protected, but when he was that was and should be illegal.
Should a computer hobbyist, like the ones that we credit for founding the industry today, be allowed to to explore, tinker, change, discuss, show, or teach any manner of activity that they desire on their legally licensed software and hardware? I won't answer that, but I will say that the DMCA says "no". In fact, the same tools that a reverse engineer would use for debugging the operating system are the very same tools that the prosecution will cite as evidence of illegal activity.
Let's be a little more giving for someone prosecuting a DMCA case where the accused was know to have accessed the cryptographic keys that, among other things, would allow the defendant to make copies of protected art (e.g. music and movies). There are some legitimate reasons that could explain the defendants actions, but not many and the illegal activities that could be pursued are costly to those that are trying to protect themselves. At the end of the day, even though they tried their best, there is no way to actually prevent anyone from accessing those cryptographic keys.
It reminds me of the tag on a mattress waring of insanely harsh penalties for removing said tag, but there is no protection for the tag. Just threats and overreaching penalties that are used to make examples out of as they stoke the fire and declare a witch hunt.
Should Apple be able to prosicute a security research whom respectfully, and sincerely trying to help and support Apple make better products, be prosicuted by the technology giant? Hell no, but you better believe that they tried - that happened. The employees of Target or Home Depot that warned of potential dangers; where are they now? They were fired, run-off, considered a nuisance to the company, shunned, and labeled as "not a team player". In the wake of the data breaches that Target, Home Depot, and countless others (certainly at least one of these events has impacted your life) it is more apparent now than ever that reverse engineering is not only a right, but an aspect of our emerging social structure that is going to be needed more than ever to 1) protect the innocent consumers and digital citizens of the world like yourself and 2) hold accountable those whom are responsible to take reasonable measure to protect the community that entrusted them with their well being (granted in exchange for a service).
The NSAs, the CIAs, the DeutcheBanks, the HealthCare.govs, and the hospitals that we all wanted and empowered to do what they have done. It is the reverse engineer who will become the modern freedom fighter, tomorrows activist, that is going to be on your side, the little guy, when power corrupts and greed lets way to disregard for the responsibilities that were implicit in the power granted to those organizations. To be just a bit more dramatic about it; reverse engineers are the priests of a new religion. We should honor them, applaud their bravery standing up to those drunk on power, and protect them when they risk the privacy of their family to step into the line of fire, on our behalf, because it is "the right thing to do".
If you know one of these individuals- buy them a beer tonight and say thank you. As much as any soldier, they are going to be the ones that protect us when the next digital tragedy is impending. |
6,455 | At the professional level, for what purpose is reverse software engineering used? What software is targeted and why?
For reasonably complex compiled code that's doing something novel, making meaningful insights into how that code operates via reverse engineering seems like it would be enormously intensive of expertise, labor, and time. In particular, I imagine that hiring competent assembly programmers is extremely difficult and possibly expensive. And yet, I haven't the foggiest idea where entities with the resources to do so would want to spend those resources.
This is my list of possibilities...
1. Writing malware
2. Writing counter-malware
3. Maybe analyzing competitors products?
It's not a great list. What is the reality here? What sort of software justifies the expense to be reverse engineered?
*See the comments on 0xC0000022L's answer for some refinement of the question.* | 2014/10/15 | [
"https://reverseengineering.stackexchange.com/questions/6455",
"https://reverseengineering.stackexchange.com",
"https://reverseengineering.stackexchange.com/users/9772/"
] | Reverse engineering is commonly used in many ways. Here is a list of just some of the most common professional activities where reverse engineering is involved.
1. Malware research. Withouth doing reverse engineering, it's hard to determine what an actual piece of malware does, how and, more important, how to clean it or prevent infections.
2. Plagiarism detection: Reverse engineering is often legally used to determine if company or particular X plagiarized code from company or particular Y.
3. Forensics.
4. Compatibility. Reverse engineering supported, and still does, many open source projects like Samba or Star/Libre/OpenOffice. Without professional (and hobbistic) reverse engineers, nobody would have been able to write a software like the previous ones as there was no specification available at all for the protocols or file formats involved. If you're using Libre/OpenOffice or MacOSX or Linux, you're actually using the result of the work of many reverse engineers during many years.
5. Vulnerability research/development. In order to discover undocumented features, vulnerabilities or backdoors left by the company, programmers or a 3rd party, reverse engineering is naturally required.
6. Modification of legacy programs. This is one of the most other common tasks I have seen in this field: company X bought program Y but the company producing it, Z, disappeared and they have no source code at all. That company X contracts reverse engineering services to fix bugs and/or adapt the old (dead) application for their own purposes. If the program was also protected, the reverse engineers would also need to first break the the copy protection.
7. Analysing competitors products. Naturally, this is a very common thing. Specially when talking about hardware products. And it, by the way, happens in all fields. Do you think that Porsche doesn't reverse engineer Ferrari cars and the other way around?
8. Source code recovery. Company X lost the source code of one of their programs/products for whatever reason and they only have the binaries. That company contracts reverse engineering services to reconstruct/recover the source code.
9. Analysing foreign governments hardware and software. You get the idea.
10. Binary patches development. Some products still evolve but the providing companies are very slow fixing bugs (Oracle comes to mind...) or simply don't care. In this case, reverse engineering services can be contracted to develop binary patches to be applied to the product in order to fix bugs or vulnerabilities (patches to be made again on each release).
I could continue writing down more professional task that reverse engineers often do, but I think this list gives you a general idea. | 10. Honing your skills and keeping up-to-date with them (as well as with using the tools).
11. Curiosity. Yep, doesn't have to be purely goal-driven like 4. and 5. in Willem's answer.
12. Establishing compatibility with a legacy product, file format or architecture. Motivation can be 11 in that case or 4 or 5 or possibly something completely different. |
6,455 | At the professional level, for what purpose is reverse software engineering used? What software is targeted and why?
For reasonably complex compiled code that's doing something novel, making meaningful insights into how that code operates via reverse engineering seems like it would be enormously intensive of expertise, labor, and time. In particular, I imagine that hiring competent assembly programmers is extremely difficult and possibly expensive. And yet, I haven't the foggiest idea where entities with the resources to do so would want to spend those resources.
This is my list of possibilities...
1. Writing malware
2. Writing counter-malware
3. Maybe analyzing competitors products?
It's not a great list. What is the reality here? What sort of software justifies the expense to be reverse engineered?
*See the comments on 0xC0000022L's answer for some refinement of the question.* | 2014/10/15 | [
"https://reverseengineering.stackexchange.com/questions/6455",
"https://reverseengineering.stackexchange.com",
"https://reverseengineering.stackexchange.com/users/9772/"
] | 4. Finding undocumented features of a product.
* for instance for locating a registry key or setting to turn on a debug mode.
5. Finding how exactly a poorly documented feature works.
6. Debugging
* sometimes i find myself loading my own software in IDA to find what code the compiler produced, either to find bugs, or to see how an optimization worked out.
7. Cracking copy protection
* keygens are usually created by reverse engineering an application's licensekey validation algorithm.
* sometimes a company may have lost licene codes to some ancient piece of software.
8. Evaluating the security of a closed source product.
9. Modify an existing product
* like flashing your own custom rom to a phone.
10. Interface current products with ancient software. | 13. Writing cheats for games.
14. Writing an anti-cheat for games.
15. Looking for badly written code to exploit or to fix and patch it. |
6,455 | At the professional level, for what purpose is reverse software engineering used? What software is targeted and why?
For reasonably complex compiled code that's doing something novel, making meaningful insights into how that code operates via reverse engineering seems like it would be enormously intensive of expertise, labor, and time. In particular, I imagine that hiring competent assembly programmers is extremely difficult and possibly expensive. And yet, I haven't the foggiest idea where entities with the resources to do so would want to spend those resources.
This is my list of possibilities...
1. Writing malware
2. Writing counter-malware
3. Maybe analyzing competitors products?
It's not a great list. What is the reality here? What sort of software justifies the expense to be reverse engineered?
*See the comments on 0xC0000022L's answer for some refinement of the question.* | 2014/10/15 | [
"https://reverseengineering.stackexchange.com/questions/6455",
"https://reverseengineering.stackexchange.com",
"https://reverseengineering.stackexchange.com/users/9772/"
] | 13. Writing cheats for games.
14. Writing an anti-cheat for games.
15. Looking for badly written code to exploit or to fix and patch it. | I have carried out reverse engineering projects professionally a fair bit. Generally we are commissioned to:
1) Determine how hard it would be to create a crack for some piece of software (by the developers of that software).
2) Understand a specific exploit (in the security sense, e.g. a buffer overflow). In other words, "here's the email we got; tell us what happened", or "here's the exploit. How, *exactly*, does it work and how can we defend against this kind of exploit in future?"
3) Find bugs in a piece of software by examining the binary without reference to the source code, as part of a larger security audit of the code. This is surprisingly useful because some kinds of dangerous behaviour that aren't obvious in code can "leap out" at you in the binary, e.g. complex preprocessor macros causing dangerous behaviour in C/C++. So, counterintuitively, we sometimes use reversing because it's faster. Check out IDA pro and Hopper for the sorts of "quick reversing" features that help in this area - decompiling to pseudocode, finding all calls to X or just searching the string table then finding all references to a dangerous/suspect looking string, and so on. Sometimes just running 'strings' on a binary can give you ideas as to where the bugs might be; following that up with a real, pro reversing tool can help. This isn't restricted to C/C++/Objective C - if we're working in .Net or Java, we'd use .Net Reflector or the Java Decompiler and other environments have their equivalents.
Sometimes we use reverse engineering to help us in a larger project. For instance, we might want to test a component in isolation; to do this without the source code we might want to edit the binary to introduce logging calls or shortcut some behaviour.
Then there's fuzzing, of course, but that's probably not really reversing in the true sense, although it can involve examining code at the assembly level, to understand why the code crashed / where the bug is / whether it's a security problem.
There are many, many reasons why reverse engineering is helpful even in a general development context. In the security field, it's pretty much essential.
In terms of professional development, if you're in the security field and you have good reversing skills, you will probably be at the upper end of the pay scale. You need to be able to do the other stuff, but if you have reversing on your CV - and you can back it up - then getting hired shouldn't be a problem (in the security field at least). |
6,455 | At the professional level, for what purpose is reverse software engineering used? What software is targeted and why?
For reasonably complex compiled code that's doing something novel, making meaningful insights into how that code operates via reverse engineering seems like it would be enormously intensive of expertise, labor, and time. In particular, I imagine that hiring competent assembly programmers is extremely difficult and possibly expensive. And yet, I haven't the foggiest idea where entities with the resources to do so would want to spend those resources.
This is my list of possibilities...
1. Writing malware
2. Writing counter-malware
3. Maybe analyzing competitors products?
It's not a great list. What is the reality here? What sort of software justifies the expense to be reverse engineered?
*See the comments on 0xC0000022L's answer for some refinement of the question.* | 2014/10/15 | [
"https://reverseengineering.stackexchange.com/questions/6455",
"https://reverseengineering.stackexchange.com",
"https://reverseengineering.stackexchange.com/users/9772/"
] | Reverse engineering is commonly used in many ways. Here is a list of just some of the most common professional activities where reverse engineering is involved.
1. Malware research. Withouth doing reverse engineering, it's hard to determine what an actual piece of malware does, how and, more important, how to clean it or prevent infections.
2. Plagiarism detection: Reverse engineering is often legally used to determine if company or particular X plagiarized code from company or particular Y.
3. Forensics.
4. Compatibility. Reverse engineering supported, and still does, many open source projects like Samba or Star/Libre/OpenOffice. Without professional (and hobbistic) reverse engineers, nobody would have been able to write a software like the previous ones as there was no specification available at all for the protocols or file formats involved. If you're using Libre/OpenOffice or MacOSX or Linux, you're actually using the result of the work of many reverse engineers during many years.
5. Vulnerability research/development. In order to discover undocumented features, vulnerabilities or backdoors left by the company, programmers or a 3rd party, reverse engineering is naturally required.
6. Modification of legacy programs. This is one of the most other common tasks I have seen in this field: company X bought program Y but the company producing it, Z, disappeared and they have no source code at all. That company X contracts reverse engineering services to fix bugs and/or adapt the old (dead) application for their own purposes. If the program was also protected, the reverse engineers would also need to first break the the copy protection.
7. Analysing competitors products. Naturally, this is a very common thing. Specially when talking about hardware products. And it, by the way, happens in all fields. Do you think that Porsche doesn't reverse engineer Ferrari cars and the other way around?
8. Source code recovery. Company X lost the source code of one of their programs/products for whatever reason and they only have the binaries. That company contracts reverse engineering services to reconstruct/recover the source code.
9. Analysing foreign governments hardware and software. You get the idea.
10. Binary patches development. Some products still evolve but the providing companies are very slow fixing bugs (Oracle comes to mind...) or simply don't care. In this case, reverse engineering services can be contracted to develop binary patches to be applied to the product in order to fix bugs or vulnerabilities (patches to be made again on each release).
I could continue writing down more professional task that reverse engineers often do, but I think this list gives you a general idea. | I have carried out reverse engineering projects professionally a fair bit. Generally we are commissioned to:
1) Determine how hard it would be to create a crack for some piece of software (by the developers of that software).
2) Understand a specific exploit (in the security sense, e.g. a buffer overflow). In other words, "here's the email we got; tell us what happened", or "here's the exploit. How, *exactly*, does it work and how can we defend against this kind of exploit in future?"
3) Find bugs in a piece of software by examining the binary without reference to the source code, as part of a larger security audit of the code. This is surprisingly useful because some kinds of dangerous behaviour that aren't obvious in code can "leap out" at you in the binary, e.g. complex preprocessor macros causing dangerous behaviour in C/C++. So, counterintuitively, we sometimes use reversing because it's faster. Check out IDA pro and Hopper for the sorts of "quick reversing" features that help in this area - decompiling to pseudocode, finding all calls to X or just searching the string table then finding all references to a dangerous/suspect looking string, and so on. Sometimes just running 'strings' on a binary can give you ideas as to where the bugs might be; following that up with a real, pro reversing tool can help. This isn't restricted to C/C++/Objective C - if we're working in .Net or Java, we'd use .Net Reflector or the Java Decompiler and other environments have their equivalents.
Sometimes we use reverse engineering to help us in a larger project. For instance, we might want to test a component in isolation; to do this without the source code we might want to edit the binary to introduce logging calls or shortcut some behaviour.
Then there's fuzzing, of course, but that's probably not really reversing in the true sense, although it can involve examining code at the assembly level, to understand why the code crashed / where the bug is / whether it's a security problem.
There are many, many reasons why reverse engineering is helpful even in a general development context. In the security field, it's pretty much essential.
In terms of professional development, if you're in the security field and you have good reversing skills, you will probably be at the upper end of the pay scale. You need to be able to do the other stuff, but if you have reversing on your CV - and you can back it up - then getting hired shouldn't be a problem (in the security field at least). |
6,455 | At the professional level, for what purpose is reverse software engineering used? What software is targeted and why?
For reasonably complex compiled code that's doing something novel, making meaningful insights into how that code operates via reverse engineering seems like it would be enormously intensive of expertise, labor, and time. In particular, I imagine that hiring competent assembly programmers is extremely difficult and possibly expensive. And yet, I haven't the foggiest idea where entities with the resources to do so would want to spend those resources.
This is my list of possibilities...
1. Writing malware
2. Writing counter-malware
3. Maybe analyzing competitors products?
It's not a great list. What is the reality here? What sort of software justifies the expense to be reverse engineered?
*See the comments on 0xC0000022L's answer for some refinement of the question.* | 2014/10/15 | [
"https://reverseengineering.stackexchange.com/questions/6455",
"https://reverseengineering.stackexchange.com",
"https://reverseengineering.stackexchange.com/users/9772/"
] | As a professional Reverse Engineer I have reveresed for:
* Troubleshooting
* Exploit Development
* Malware Analysis
* Implementing badly documented API calls.
* Plagiarism , they knew of an undocumented Kernel call within the Nokia phonebase. Thus we reverse engineerd this and created a program that used this call as well.
Overall reversing increases your knowledge in programming. | I have carried out reverse engineering projects professionally a fair bit. Generally we are commissioned to:
1) Determine how hard it would be to create a crack for some piece of software (by the developers of that software).
2) Understand a specific exploit (in the security sense, e.g. a buffer overflow). In other words, "here's the email we got; tell us what happened", or "here's the exploit. How, *exactly*, does it work and how can we defend against this kind of exploit in future?"
3) Find bugs in a piece of software by examining the binary without reference to the source code, as part of a larger security audit of the code. This is surprisingly useful because some kinds of dangerous behaviour that aren't obvious in code can "leap out" at you in the binary, e.g. complex preprocessor macros causing dangerous behaviour in C/C++. So, counterintuitively, we sometimes use reversing because it's faster. Check out IDA pro and Hopper for the sorts of "quick reversing" features that help in this area - decompiling to pseudocode, finding all calls to X or just searching the string table then finding all references to a dangerous/suspect looking string, and so on. Sometimes just running 'strings' on a binary can give you ideas as to where the bugs might be; following that up with a real, pro reversing tool can help. This isn't restricted to C/C++/Objective C - if we're working in .Net or Java, we'd use .Net Reflector or the Java Decompiler and other environments have their equivalents.
Sometimes we use reverse engineering to help us in a larger project. For instance, we might want to test a component in isolation; to do this without the source code we might want to edit the binary to introduce logging calls or shortcut some behaviour.
Then there's fuzzing, of course, but that's probably not really reversing in the true sense, although it can involve examining code at the assembly level, to understand why the code crashed / where the bug is / whether it's a security problem.
There are many, many reasons why reverse engineering is helpful even in a general development context. In the security field, it's pretty much essential.
In terms of professional development, if you're in the security field and you have good reversing skills, you will probably be at the upper end of the pay scale. You need to be able to do the other stuff, but if you have reversing on your CV - and you can back it up - then getting hired shouldn't be a problem (in the security field at least). |
6,455 | At the professional level, for what purpose is reverse software engineering used? What software is targeted and why?
For reasonably complex compiled code that's doing something novel, making meaningful insights into how that code operates via reverse engineering seems like it would be enormously intensive of expertise, labor, and time. In particular, I imagine that hiring competent assembly programmers is extremely difficult and possibly expensive. And yet, I haven't the foggiest idea where entities with the resources to do so would want to spend those resources.
This is my list of possibilities...
1. Writing malware
2. Writing counter-malware
3. Maybe analyzing competitors products?
It's not a great list. What is the reality here? What sort of software justifies the expense to be reverse engineered?
*See the comments on 0xC0000022L's answer for some refinement of the question.* | 2014/10/15 | [
"https://reverseengineering.stackexchange.com/questions/6455",
"https://reverseengineering.stackexchange.com",
"https://reverseengineering.stackexchange.com/users/9772/"
] | As a professional Reverse Engineer I have reveresed for:
* Troubleshooting
* Exploit Development
* Malware Analysis
* Implementing badly documented API calls.
* Plagiarism , they knew of an undocumented Kernel call within the Nokia phonebase. Thus we reverse engineerd this and created a program that used this call as well.
Overall reversing increases your knowledge in programming. | There are already a lot of great answers. If I may add my two cents. Reverse engineering software is akin to the mechanic or tinkerer whom just enjoys taking things apart, understanding how they work, putting them back together, and possibly modifying their subject to adapt its behavior so it is more to their liking. There is no shortage of examples in the physical realm.
Any Electrical Engineer, hardware designer, and the most eliete QA engineers are talented reverse engineers; which is to say, they have an expertise in debugging/analyzing software/hardware implementations. I interned at AMD as I worked my way through school and my debugging skills not only helped me advance to more serious roles within the company, but it is also *really* fun! Like a game or puzzle that you can play for as long as you want. The challenges will never stop coming.
My favorite example of a legitimate need for reverse engineers is NASA. They are not the only outfit where the phrase "mission critical" applies, where people's lives depend on the quality of their work, but it is the only one that has to fix problems even if their product is hurtling through space. They have to set and freeze product versions *years* before that software / hardware ever goes to the launch pad. That may seem silly, because the phones in our pocket have more computing power than the entire shuttle, but they can't use modern technology. It's too risky. They have to accept what is available at the time that the specs are frozen and that's it - lest they incur the scheduling and workload that upgrading, testing, fixing, re-testing, verifying again, simulating realistic conditions to determine failure points, fixing it, and starting over.... it is serious business and those engineers do not take their responsibility lightly.
Would you be surprised to learn that NASA projects have used Microsoft OSes on hardware went into shuttle components? It is not much different than using a M$ OS as the foundation for, say for instance, a point-of-sale terminal or for the control system at a power plant. Now consider a scenario where the OS, the hardware, or some portion of third-party software is found to have a flaw in it. Moreover, imagine that the vendor does not care about the flaw to the degree that NASA does and decides that there is no fiscal motivation for them to fix the issue - even if lives depend upon that component not failing. NASA is stuck.
At this point their options are to either replace the component and start their processes all over - a huge cost in time, man-hours, and no guarentee that they won't discover another critical flaw after upgrading; or, instead of upgrading, they can reverse engineer the hardware/software failure and determine if they could fix the problem themselves - maybe it would take some curcuit re-design, changing the values of a few resistors so that voltage levels on the memory bus stayed within required limits under the extreme conditions that were making them fail or maybe there is a binary patch that they can apply that to mitigate the error state they discovered where life-support systems began failing or a probe's batteries drained and left it unable to re-charge itself.
I'm not totally making these scenarios up. They come from stories I have been told, by friends who worked at JPL, my engineering professors when I was in the University, or colleagues that have worked with in the tech industry. All this, and more, has been surmounted by NASA's engineers. It did cost quite a bit more than India paid (tip of the hat to them too), to do what they have done, but the first time through is always more costly.
Technically, NASA engineers would be violating one or more of the intellectual property laws that vendors claim they have (they may or may not actually have those rights; I"m not trying to debate that here). If you bought a corvette, you would be completely within your rights to bore out the cylinders to change your car's performance profile. Different tires. Modified suspension. Tweaked timing and mixture ratios in the fuel injection system. The famous Shelby Cobra is not only modified, but also remarketed with its aftermarket modifications- all entirely legal.
If you bought a radio and wanted to make some modifications, so that it was water proof and you could take it on the lake with you. Amplify it's output so that it would still be audible over the boat engine, or anything of that sort... legal.
Now, jailbreak your iPhone, modify your xBox or the Kinect system that came with it, or, in NASA's case, modify the OS and/or re-engineer the memory bus on a motherboard, to ensure the safety of a human mind you. All of these activities have evoked fierce reactions from the vendors that, for whatever their reasoning, do not want those activities to be continue nor become more widespread. Ultimately, this led to the DMCA laws that we have today being passed. Before that, even if you were clicking "I agree" to the rediculus terms and services that were put before you there was still the question if that contract was legal enforceable.
The DMCA, which does nothing to disuade the massive blackmarkets in China or South America, carries harsh penalties and has been treated as a kind of "hunting license" for those that wish to go after consumers can and have. Should it be illegal to make unlicensed copies of someone elses music; to sell, trade, or even give it away?
Clearly, that should be illegal. Artwork, books, patented processes, protected trademarks; yes, those should be protected too. Software and hardware; again, yes the the author of software should be able to enforce resonalbe aspects of their licensing that protect the the investment that have made to create said software or hardware. Explicitly, it is, and should remain, illegal to puchase one copy legitimately, turn around and make copies, and then sell/trade/or give the unlicensed copies. Microsoft, VMWare, Adobe, and similar big companies should retain that right.
Now, once I have licensed the software or hardware can I make modifications and then sell/trade/or give away the software/hardware that featured *my* modifications. That depends. It i, and should be illegal, to profit from derivatives works beyond the limit to which you originally licended the art (i.e. software). For example, you could not draw the likeness of a Disney character, change the name, and then claim it as your own and profit from it's use. I believe that Mikey no longer protected, but when he was that was and should be illegal.
Should a computer hobbyist, like the ones that we credit for founding the industry today, be allowed to to explore, tinker, change, discuss, show, or teach any manner of activity that they desire on their legally licensed software and hardware? I won't answer that, but I will say that the DMCA says "no". In fact, the same tools that a reverse engineer would use for debugging the operating system are the very same tools that the prosecution will cite as evidence of illegal activity.
Let's be a little more giving for someone prosecuting a DMCA case where the accused was know to have accessed the cryptographic keys that, among other things, would allow the defendant to make copies of protected art (e.g. music and movies). There are some legitimate reasons that could explain the defendants actions, but not many and the illegal activities that could be pursued are costly to those that are trying to protect themselves. At the end of the day, even though they tried their best, there is no way to actually prevent anyone from accessing those cryptographic keys.
It reminds me of the tag on a mattress waring of insanely harsh penalties for removing said tag, but there is no protection for the tag. Just threats and overreaching penalties that are used to make examples out of as they stoke the fire and declare a witch hunt.
Should Apple be able to prosicute a security research whom respectfully, and sincerely trying to help and support Apple make better products, be prosicuted by the technology giant? Hell no, but you better believe that they tried - that happened. The employees of Target or Home Depot that warned of potential dangers; where are they now? They were fired, run-off, considered a nuisance to the company, shunned, and labeled as "not a team player". In the wake of the data breaches that Target, Home Depot, and countless others (certainly at least one of these events has impacted your life) it is more apparent now than ever that reverse engineering is not only a right, but an aspect of our emerging social structure that is going to be needed more than ever to 1) protect the innocent consumers and digital citizens of the world like yourself and 2) hold accountable those whom are responsible to take reasonable measure to protect the community that entrusted them with their well being (granted in exchange for a service).
The NSAs, the CIAs, the DeutcheBanks, the HealthCare.govs, and the hospitals that we all wanted and empowered to do what they have done. It is the reverse engineer who will become the modern freedom fighter, tomorrows activist, that is going to be on your side, the little guy, when power corrupts and greed lets way to disregard for the responsibilities that were implicit in the power granted to those organizations. To be just a bit more dramatic about it; reverse engineers are the priests of a new religion. We should honor them, applaud their bravery standing up to those drunk on power, and protect them when they risk the privacy of their family to step into the line of fire, on our behalf, because it is "the right thing to do".
If you know one of these individuals- buy them a beer tonight and say thank you. As much as any soldier, they are going to be the ones that protect us when the next digital tragedy is impending. |
59,067 | I'm running a 64 bit Windows 7 / Windows 2008 R2 workstation that I just installed. I need to add a printer that is shared on the network from a 32bit Windows 2000 print server.
This is an HP LaserJet 5Si printer, the drivers for which HP tells me are automatically built into Windows 7/R2. However, whenever I connect to the printer or try to add it, I get the following screen:
Upon clicking OK, I get this screen asking me to locate the driver:
How can I possibly locate a driver that is SUPPOSED TO BE NATIVELY SUPPORTED on Windows 7/R2? The tough part is that this printer is one of many shared on a server and does not have a direct IP address. Even worse: I have no access to the print server so I cannot put the 64 bit drivers on there.
Any ideas?
**UPDATE**:
HP doesn't make a Vista driver either. It claims it is natively supported by Vista and 7, which is true because I am able to create a local printer on a fake tcp/ip port and Windows lets me pick the proper driver. However, when adding from the network, Windows does not let me select a driver and demands an INF.
I tried searching the entire sub-structure of the C:\Windows directory and could not find any INF files that contain HP information. The INF might be located somewhere in the Windows installation DVD, but all the files on the DVD are compressed and unrecognizable.
**UPDATE #2**
I installed the proper printer driver as a local printer (with no printer attached) and it installed. However, this did not change the fact that it STILL asks me to provide drivers when connecting to the networked printer. | 2009/10/22 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/59067",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/3651/"
] | Yeah, HP is pretty clueless when it comes to Windows 7 and Server 2008 R2.
For the HP printer I had to add to my Windows 7 machine, I just used the Vista driver, and it works just fine.
**EDIT**
I didn't notice before, but it looks like the printer is using a PCL driver. I found this page on HP's website advising that you use the XP driver. Ugh.
[HP LaserJet Support Doc](http://h20000.www2.hp.com/bizsupport/TechSupport/Document.jsp?lang=en&cc=us&objectID=c00811676&prodTypeId=15351&prodSeriesId=1844075) | Download the Windows 7 64 bit driver package.
Begin the install and it will stall at "Connect via USB"... AFTER it pre-loads the drivers.
Cancel the loader.
Go to Add Printer and add a local printer.
When you get to the drivers, the 2600n will be listed in the HP drivers available. |
59,067 | I'm running a 64 bit Windows 7 / Windows 2008 R2 workstation that I just installed. I need to add a printer that is shared on the network from a 32bit Windows 2000 print server.
This is an HP LaserJet 5Si printer, the drivers for which HP tells me are automatically built into Windows 7/R2. However, whenever I connect to the printer or try to add it, I get the following screen:
Upon clicking OK, I get this screen asking me to locate the driver:
How can I possibly locate a driver that is SUPPOSED TO BE NATIVELY SUPPORTED on Windows 7/R2? The tough part is that this printer is one of many shared on a server and does not have a direct IP address. Even worse: I have no access to the print server so I cannot put the 64 bit drivers on there.
Any ideas?
**UPDATE**:
HP doesn't make a Vista driver either. It claims it is natively supported by Vista and 7, which is true because I am able to create a local printer on a fake tcp/ip port and Windows lets me pick the proper driver. However, when adding from the network, Windows does not let me select a driver and demands an INF.
I tried searching the entire sub-structure of the C:\Windows directory and could not find any INF files that contain HP information. The INF might be located somewhere in the Windows installation DVD, but all the files on the DVD are compressed and unrecognizable.
**UPDATE #2**
I installed the proper printer driver as a local printer (with no printer attached) and it installed. However, this did not change the fact that it STILL asks me to provide drivers when connecting to the networked printer. | 2009/10/22 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/59067",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/3651/"
] | I also used the Vista driver for my printer. In windows 7, if you add the printer as a shared printer on a remote machine, does it not allow you to cherry pick your own driver/inf? | Download the Windows 7 64 bit driver package.
Begin the install and it will stall at "Connect via USB"... AFTER it pre-loads the drivers.
Cancel the loader.
Go to Add Printer and add a local printer.
When you get to the drivers, the 2600n will be listed in the HP drivers available. |
33,072,577 | Is there any simple way to define critical section?
when a user during the updating some database table, I'd force to make the other user cannot update on the same tables. | 2015/10/12 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/33072577",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1320315/"
] | >
> django-concurrency is an optimistic lock [1](https://github.com/saxix/django-concurrency) implementation for
> Django.
>
>
> Tested with: 1.4.x, 1.5.x, 1.6.x, 1.7.x 1.8.x.
>
>
> It prevents users from doing concurrent editing in Django both from UI
> and from a django command.
>
>
>
I never used, but i think this can solve your problem.
[django-concurrency](https://github.com/saxix/django-concurrency) | It depends what are your queries, Your single query to the database will never face any race condition due to **ACID principle** impose by the database. But if there is any condition like first you are reading the data from database and after some operation on application level you are writing the updated data back to the database, then race condition may occur for that you have to implement the **locks or the mutex** in python. |
24,376,461 | Is there a way to see all @RequestMapping annotations as map of all requests/URLs, ideally with quick links to whichever Controller/method handles the URL?
In Spring 2 (before annotations) XML config (SimpleUrlHandlerMapping) could be used as such reference, now with annotated controllers is there any other way besides searching the codebase? | 2014/06/24 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/24376461",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/3662882/"
] | yes we can do the same as we can see that in STS spring explore , coming to intellij
Go to Project Structure >> Modules >> select your project and add Spring to your project .
This will give you a spring tab at the bottom to see all the controllers. | 2021 update: you can download a popular plugin in Intelij called Request mapper.
Currently it supports both Spring and JAX-RS path mappings.
[request mapper plugin](https://plugins.jetbrains.com/plugin/9567-request-mapper) |
3,457,604 | I am using iText library for writing a PDF file.
I want to give page numbers and page header on every page of file
How can I do that? | 2010/08/11 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/3457604",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/417116/"
] | If you don't break lines manually then it's really hard almost impossible to precisely get the line count. This number depends on font measurement and the text layout on a page. iText is a great tool for PDF generation not for parsing. | I suggest you buy the iText book "iText in Action" which is very helpful. If you don't generate your page breaks yourself, you could checkout the PdfPageEvent methods such as onStartPage() and the getPageNumber() method. |
590,959 | My active directory account just got locked out. On a whim I unplugged the ethernet cord and turned off the wifi radio switch and I was able to log into my account. I plugged the ethernet back in and then tried to RDP to another computer on the network and got the "your account is locked" message. So I ctrl+alt+del locked my active desktop session again and tried to log in. once again got the "your account is locked" message. Then I unplugged the ethernet cord again and was able to log in to my session.
Is this intended design of active directory? | 2014/04/24 | [
"https://serverfault.com/questions/590959",
"https://serverfault.com",
"https://serverfault.com/users/20063/"
] | Yes. With network connectivity you'll attempt a login to the domain and fail because your account is locked out. Without network connectivity you'll log on to your computer with cached credentials.
This is by design. | To add to joeqwerty's answer, this is by design for people who may travel or be away from the domain without any access, be it through VPN or other method, back to the local domain. It is also by design for several other reasons, but your credentials do get cached and then used in this instance. When you unplug your ethernet cable you probably noticed that it took a lot longer for the login to work because it first tries to go out to hit a DC; three times actually. Once it fails to reach a DC it logs on with cached credentials.
Something else to note that might be of help is that it will cache the last two sets of credentials, meaning you and one other AD account. |
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