qid int64 1 74.7M | question stringlengths 12 33.8k | date stringlengths 10 10 | metadata list | response_j stringlengths 0 115k | response_k stringlengths 2 98.3k |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
170,974 | Why can't they use their holiday to secretly practice the spells they've learned? | 2017/10/03 | [
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/questions/170974",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/users/54606/"
] | Considering how it's enforced, it's likely it's to keep magic secret.
=====================================================================
The rule is (in effect) for Muggle-borns or wizard children who will be around Muggles - it's unenforceable near adult wizards. In this case it makes sense. Their parents would of course have been made aware of the wizarding world, but the Ministry wouldn't want some Muggle-born kid deciding to do magic to impress the Muggles, or thinking it's okay to do magic near them. Children are terrible at keeping secrets, so it's probably easier to ban them from doing magic and monitor them so they could handle any breaches of the Statute of Secrecy that wizard children around Muggles could cause.
**The rule against underage magic is only really enforced when no adult wizards are around.**
It's *technically* still against the rules for an underage wizard from a wizarding family to do magic outside of Hogwarts, but anywhere there are adult wizards around, it becomes unenforceable since there's no way of knowing who did the magic, and if it was the child or a qualified wizard.
>
> “He was under age at the time, wasn’t he? I thought they could detect under-age magic!’
>
>
> ‘You are quite right – they can detect magic, but not the perpetrator: you will remember that you were blamed by the Ministry for the Hover Charm that was, in fact, cast by –’
>
>
> ‘Dobby,’ growled Harry; this injustice still rankled. ‘So if you’re under age and you do magic inside an adult witch or wizard’s house, the Ministry won’t know?’
>
>
> ‘They will certainly be unable to tell who performed the magic,’ said Dumbledore, smiling slightly at the look of great indignation on Harry’s face. ‘They rely on witch and wizard parents to enforce their offspring’s obedience while within their walls.” - Harry Potter and the Half-Blood Prince, Chapter 17 (A Sluggish Memory)
>
>
>
This means that in wizarding households, as well as wizarding locations like Diagon Alley or Hogsmeade, the ban on underage magic would be impossible for the Ministry to enforce, so they trust the parents to control their children. If the parents let their children do magic, however, the Ministry won't know and has no way to punish them. | Because they are not fully qualified, so it's seen as the best solution to prevent them from doing things wrong. Think of it a bit like a drivers license education: you're not allowed to practice on the streets on your own, because you're not yet qualified to drive a car in public. Doing it under the watchfull eyes of an instructor is another thing ... |
170,974 | Why can't they use their holiday to secretly practice the spells they've learned? | 2017/10/03 | [
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/questions/170974",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/users/54606/"
] | Considering how it's enforced, it's likely it's to keep magic secret.
=====================================================================
The rule is (in effect) for Muggle-borns or wizard children who will be around Muggles - it's unenforceable near adult wizards. In this case it makes sense. Their parents would of course have been made aware of the wizarding world, but the Ministry wouldn't want some Muggle-born kid deciding to do magic to impress the Muggles, or thinking it's okay to do magic near them. Children are terrible at keeping secrets, so it's probably easier to ban them from doing magic and monitor them so they could handle any breaches of the Statute of Secrecy that wizard children around Muggles could cause.
**The rule against underage magic is only really enforced when no adult wizards are around.**
It's *technically* still against the rules for an underage wizard from a wizarding family to do magic outside of Hogwarts, but anywhere there are adult wizards around, it becomes unenforceable since there's no way of knowing who did the magic, and if it was the child or a qualified wizard.
>
> “He was under age at the time, wasn’t he? I thought they could detect under-age magic!’
>
>
> ‘You are quite right – they can detect magic, but not the perpetrator: you will remember that you were blamed by the Ministry for the Hover Charm that was, in fact, cast by –’
>
>
> ‘Dobby,’ growled Harry; this injustice still rankled. ‘So if you’re under age and you do magic inside an adult witch or wizard’s house, the Ministry won’t know?’
>
>
> ‘They will certainly be unable to tell who performed the magic,’ said Dumbledore, smiling slightly at the look of great indignation on Harry’s face. ‘They rely on witch and wizard parents to enforce their offspring’s obedience while within their walls.” - Harry Potter and the Half-Blood Prince, Chapter 17 (A Sluggish Memory)
>
>
>
This means that in wizarding households, as well as wizarding locations like Diagon Alley or Hogsmeade, the ban on underage magic would be impossible for the Ministry to enforce, so they trust the parents to control their children. If the parents let their children do magic, however, the Ministry won't know and has no way to punish them. | Because of the Decree for the Reasonable Restriction of Underage Sorcery
------------------------------------------------------------------------
Paragraph C of the Decree for the Reasonable Restriction of Underage Sorcery prohibits underage wizards from doing magic outside of school.
>
> We have received intelligence that a Hover Charm was
> used at your place of residence this evening at twelve minutes
> past nine.
>
>
> As you know, underage wizards are not permitted to perform spells outside school, and further spellwork on your part may lead to expulsion from said school (**Decree for the Reasonable Restriction of Underage Sorcery**, 1875, Paragraph C).
>
>
> (*Harry Potter and the Chamber of Secrets* - Chapter 2)
>
>
> |
12,058 | I've discovered spots on the image sensor of my DSLR camera that cannot be cleaned using a blower bulb, so I would like to know the risk of problems, such as further image deterioration or damage to the sensor or low-pass filter, associated with wet cleaning the image sensor. Just how high (or low) is the risk? Is this a difficult task to perform?
The products I expect to use are as follows:
* [Visible Dust Swabs for 1.5-1.6x Sensor - Green Series (12-Pack)](http://www.bhphotovideo.com/c/product/435203-REG/Visible_Dust_2863171_Swabs_for_1_5_1_6x_Sensor.html)
* [Visible Dust VDust Plus Formula Solution](http://www.bhphotovideo.com/c/product/435207-REG/Visible_Dust_2902544_VDust_Plus_Formula_Solution.html)
In my research, I have also found the following products, for which there is a greater degree of trust because the manufacturer [guarantees against sensor damage](http://www.photosol.com/store/pc/viewContent.asp?idpage=12) when used properly:
* [Photographic Solutions Sensor Swab Type 2 (12-Pack)](http://www.bhphotovideo.com/c/product/242758-REG/Photographic_Solutions_SS2BOX_Sensor_Swab_Type_2.html)
* [Photographic Solutions Eclipse Optic Lens Cleaning Solution](http://www.bhphotovideo.com/c/product/127525-REG/Photographic_Solutions_EC_Eclipse_Optic_Lens_Cleaning.html)
Additionally, the reviews are generally positive, so is it worth it?
My biggest concern at this point is further staining or residue from the cleaning process. How likely is this going to affect image quality, and would it be worse compared to the dust or other contaminants? | 2011/05/15 | [
"https://photo.stackexchange.com/questions/12058",
"https://photo.stackexchange.com",
"https://photo.stackexchange.com/users/4506/"
] | I do it regularly, I don't regard it as difficult. It's not that risky in the grand scheme of things but it's riskier than it used to be, especially with larger full frame sensors. Before the useless "self cleaning" function was implemented, the low pass filter assembly sat right on the sensor. Now there is an air gap to facilitate vibrating the LPF in order to dislodge dust. This airgap removes support for the glass LPF in the middle allowing it to bend and potentially break under pressure. See this photographers's cautionary tale:
<http://forums.dpreview.com/forums/read.asp?forum=1032&message=30812646>
So if you have a new camera with "self cleaning sensor" be **very** careful, esp. if it's full frame. | It's both risky and difficult.
Sensor cleaning has come a long way from the DIY solutions used many years ago, but it's still not fool proof. Most the sites that sell such products have ample enough warnings which should be a clear indication of the risks involved.
A licensed camera repair facility can easily clean the sensor for you.
Or you could consider waiting till the problem becomes much more noticeable, and use image processing (clone/healing brushes) to mask out the problem until then. |
12,058 | I've discovered spots on the image sensor of my DSLR camera that cannot be cleaned using a blower bulb, so I would like to know the risk of problems, such as further image deterioration or damage to the sensor or low-pass filter, associated with wet cleaning the image sensor. Just how high (or low) is the risk? Is this a difficult task to perform?
The products I expect to use are as follows:
* [Visible Dust Swabs for 1.5-1.6x Sensor - Green Series (12-Pack)](http://www.bhphotovideo.com/c/product/435203-REG/Visible_Dust_2863171_Swabs_for_1_5_1_6x_Sensor.html)
* [Visible Dust VDust Plus Formula Solution](http://www.bhphotovideo.com/c/product/435207-REG/Visible_Dust_2902544_VDust_Plus_Formula_Solution.html)
In my research, I have also found the following products, for which there is a greater degree of trust because the manufacturer [guarantees against sensor damage](http://www.photosol.com/store/pc/viewContent.asp?idpage=12) when used properly:
* [Photographic Solutions Sensor Swab Type 2 (12-Pack)](http://www.bhphotovideo.com/c/product/242758-REG/Photographic_Solutions_SS2BOX_Sensor_Swab_Type_2.html)
* [Photographic Solutions Eclipse Optic Lens Cleaning Solution](http://www.bhphotovideo.com/c/product/127525-REG/Photographic_Solutions_EC_Eclipse_Optic_Lens_Cleaning.html)
Additionally, the reviews are generally positive, so is it worth it?
My biggest concern at this point is further staining or residue from the cleaning process. How likely is this going to affect image quality, and would it be worse compared to the dust or other contaminants? | 2011/05/15 | [
"https://photo.stackexchange.com/questions/12058",
"https://photo.stackexchange.com",
"https://photo.stackexchange.com/users/4506/"
] | It's both risky and difficult.
Sensor cleaning has come a long way from the DIY solutions used many years ago, but it's still not fool proof. Most the sites that sell such products have ample enough warnings which should be a clear indication of the risks involved.
A licensed camera repair facility can easily clean the sensor for you.
Or you could consider waiting till the problem becomes much more noticeable, and use image processing (clone/healing brushes) to mask out the problem until then. | It's not that risky (apart from as previously mentioned the self cleaning sensors).
However I find it difficult, because it's hard to remove all of the residue from even dedicated cleaners. If you need to do this (and some things like pollen even the best sensor brush will not remove) then just be careful and apply a VERY tiny amount of fluid to clean with (a drop or two). Look when you are done if there is any kind of sheen across the sensor, you can try sample shots of something very flat in color across the whole frame (out of focus white paper with flat lighting) to make sure any residue left is not affecting the image.
I also like the Visible Dust sensor cleaning pads, they are very wide and let you do a wet clean with just a pass or two. They have a sensor cleaning solution that seems to work just fine but you may be able to find cheaper cleaning solutions. |
12,058 | I've discovered spots on the image sensor of my DSLR camera that cannot be cleaned using a blower bulb, so I would like to know the risk of problems, such as further image deterioration or damage to the sensor or low-pass filter, associated with wet cleaning the image sensor. Just how high (or low) is the risk? Is this a difficult task to perform?
The products I expect to use are as follows:
* [Visible Dust Swabs for 1.5-1.6x Sensor - Green Series (12-Pack)](http://www.bhphotovideo.com/c/product/435203-REG/Visible_Dust_2863171_Swabs_for_1_5_1_6x_Sensor.html)
* [Visible Dust VDust Plus Formula Solution](http://www.bhphotovideo.com/c/product/435207-REG/Visible_Dust_2902544_VDust_Plus_Formula_Solution.html)
In my research, I have also found the following products, for which there is a greater degree of trust because the manufacturer [guarantees against sensor damage](http://www.photosol.com/store/pc/viewContent.asp?idpage=12) when used properly:
* [Photographic Solutions Sensor Swab Type 2 (12-Pack)](http://www.bhphotovideo.com/c/product/242758-REG/Photographic_Solutions_SS2BOX_Sensor_Swab_Type_2.html)
* [Photographic Solutions Eclipse Optic Lens Cleaning Solution](http://www.bhphotovideo.com/c/product/127525-REG/Photographic_Solutions_EC_Eclipse_Optic_Lens_Cleaning.html)
Additionally, the reviews are generally positive, so is it worth it?
My biggest concern at this point is further staining or residue from the cleaning process. How likely is this going to affect image quality, and would it be worse compared to the dust or other contaminants? | 2011/05/15 | [
"https://photo.stackexchange.com/questions/12058",
"https://photo.stackexchange.com",
"https://photo.stackexchange.com/users/4506/"
] | It's both risky and difficult.
Sensor cleaning has come a long way from the DIY solutions used many years ago, but it's still not fool proof. Most the sites that sell such products have ample enough warnings which should be a clear indication of the risks involved.
A licensed camera repair facility can easily clean the sensor for you.
Or you could consider waiting till the problem becomes much more noticeable, and use image processing (clone/healing brushes) to mask out the problem until then. | I say: DON'T TOUCH THAT OLP filter! You can clean it a hundred times and don't have any worries, and the 101th time you accidently pick up a piece of grid, and you scratch your filter! That is what happened to me! A 1000€ camera, and a 500€ to fix it! Send it back to the manufacturer! Dust? Blow it off, but leave those swabs and Eclipse alone! (I had oil spots on the sensor, coming from the mirror mechanism.) |
12,058 | I've discovered spots on the image sensor of my DSLR camera that cannot be cleaned using a blower bulb, so I would like to know the risk of problems, such as further image deterioration or damage to the sensor or low-pass filter, associated with wet cleaning the image sensor. Just how high (or low) is the risk? Is this a difficult task to perform?
The products I expect to use are as follows:
* [Visible Dust Swabs for 1.5-1.6x Sensor - Green Series (12-Pack)](http://www.bhphotovideo.com/c/product/435203-REG/Visible_Dust_2863171_Swabs_for_1_5_1_6x_Sensor.html)
* [Visible Dust VDust Plus Formula Solution](http://www.bhphotovideo.com/c/product/435207-REG/Visible_Dust_2902544_VDust_Plus_Formula_Solution.html)
In my research, I have also found the following products, for which there is a greater degree of trust because the manufacturer [guarantees against sensor damage](http://www.photosol.com/store/pc/viewContent.asp?idpage=12) when used properly:
* [Photographic Solutions Sensor Swab Type 2 (12-Pack)](http://www.bhphotovideo.com/c/product/242758-REG/Photographic_Solutions_SS2BOX_Sensor_Swab_Type_2.html)
* [Photographic Solutions Eclipse Optic Lens Cleaning Solution](http://www.bhphotovideo.com/c/product/127525-REG/Photographic_Solutions_EC_Eclipse_Optic_Lens_Cleaning.html)
Additionally, the reviews are generally positive, so is it worth it?
My biggest concern at this point is further staining or residue from the cleaning process. How likely is this going to affect image quality, and would it be worse compared to the dust or other contaminants? | 2011/05/15 | [
"https://photo.stackexchange.com/questions/12058",
"https://photo.stackexchange.com",
"https://photo.stackexchange.com/users/4506/"
] | I do it regularly, I don't regard it as difficult. It's not that risky in the grand scheme of things but it's riskier than it used to be, especially with larger full frame sensors. Before the useless "self cleaning" function was implemented, the low pass filter assembly sat right on the sensor. Now there is an air gap to facilitate vibrating the LPF in order to dislodge dust. This airgap removes support for the glass LPF in the middle allowing it to bend and potentially break under pressure. See this photographers's cautionary tale:
<http://forums.dpreview.com/forums/read.asp?forum=1032&message=30812646>
So if you have a new camera with "self cleaning sensor" be **very** careful, esp. if it's full frame. | It's not that risky (apart from as previously mentioned the self cleaning sensors).
However I find it difficult, because it's hard to remove all of the residue from even dedicated cleaners. If you need to do this (and some things like pollen even the best sensor brush will not remove) then just be careful and apply a VERY tiny amount of fluid to clean with (a drop or two). Look when you are done if there is any kind of sheen across the sensor, you can try sample shots of something very flat in color across the whole frame (out of focus white paper with flat lighting) to make sure any residue left is not affecting the image.
I also like the Visible Dust sensor cleaning pads, they are very wide and let you do a wet clean with just a pass or two. They have a sensor cleaning solution that seems to work just fine but you may be able to find cheaper cleaning solutions. |
12,058 | I've discovered spots on the image sensor of my DSLR camera that cannot be cleaned using a blower bulb, so I would like to know the risk of problems, such as further image deterioration or damage to the sensor or low-pass filter, associated with wet cleaning the image sensor. Just how high (or low) is the risk? Is this a difficult task to perform?
The products I expect to use are as follows:
* [Visible Dust Swabs for 1.5-1.6x Sensor - Green Series (12-Pack)](http://www.bhphotovideo.com/c/product/435203-REG/Visible_Dust_2863171_Swabs_for_1_5_1_6x_Sensor.html)
* [Visible Dust VDust Plus Formula Solution](http://www.bhphotovideo.com/c/product/435207-REG/Visible_Dust_2902544_VDust_Plus_Formula_Solution.html)
In my research, I have also found the following products, for which there is a greater degree of trust because the manufacturer [guarantees against sensor damage](http://www.photosol.com/store/pc/viewContent.asp?idpage=12) when used properly:
* [Photographic Solutions Sensor Swab Type 2 (12-Pack)](http://www.bhphotovideo.com/c/product/242758-REG/Photographic_Solutions_SS2BOX_Sensor_Swab_Type_2.html)
* [Photographic Solutions Eclipse Optic Lens Cleaning Solution](http://www.bhphotovideo.com/c/product/127525-REG/Photographic_Solutions_EC_Eclipse_Optic_Lens_Cleaning.html)
Additionally, the reviews are generally positive, so is it worth it?
My biggest concern at this point is further staining or residue from the cleaning process. How likely is this going to affect image quality, and would it be worse compared to the dust or other contaminants? | 2011/05/15 | [
"https://photo.stackexchange.com/questions/12058",
"https://photo.stackexchange.com",
"https://photo.stackexchange.com/users/4506/"
] | I do it regularly, I don't regard it as difficult. It's not that risky in the grand scheme of things but it's riskier than it used to be, especially with larger full frame sensors. Before the useless "self cleaning" function was implemented, the low pass filter assembly sat right on the sensor. Now there is an air gap to facilitate vibrating the LPF in order to dislodge dust. This airgap removes support for the glass LPF in the middle allowing it to bend and potentially break under pressure. See this photographers's cautionary tale:
<http://forums.dpreview.com/forums/read.asp?forum=1032&message=30812646>
So if you have a new camera with "self cleaning sensor" be **very** careful, esp. if it's full frame. | I say: DON'T TOUCH THAT OLP filter! You can clean it a hundred times and don't have any worries, and the 101th time you accidently pick up a piece of grid, and you scratch your filter! That is what happened to me! A 1000€ camera, and a 500€ to fix it! Send it back to the manufacturer! Dust? Blow it off, but leave those swabs and Eclipse alone! (I had oil spots on the sensor, coming from the mirror mechanism.) |
54,997 | I have a history of ocd and a little depression when I was younger . Up until now I’ve taken a number of SSRIs and finally recently risperidone which I’m almost tapered off of for ocd.I have been symptom free for a while and believe I can be a pilot. I have a number of hours of flying time from over the years. The issue is I have a history of taking abilify and an SSRI and risperidone which is also an anti psychotic and cymbalta. I’ve never been diagnosed with psychosis but the risperidone (antipsychotic) can help with ocd. If I’ve been off of all of medicine and am stable is a first class medical eventually possible? They say it’s unacceptable to have a history of multi drug agent psychiatric drug used in conjunction with an SSRI. Is my airline pilot career not possible and has this ever been done. Thanks | 2018/09/11 | [
"https://aviation.stackexchange.com/questions/54997",
"https://aviation.stackexchange.com",
"https://aviation.stackexchange.com/users/34227/"
] | The section
[Decision Considerations - Aerospace Medical Dispositions
Item 47. Psychiatric Conditions](https://www.faa.gov/about/office_org/headquarters_offices/avs/offices/aam/ame/guide/app_process/exam_tech/item47/amd/)
From the FAA's website has a lot of the information for you. This page on [SSRI's specifically](https://www.faa.gov/about/office_org/headquarters_offices/avs/offices/aam/ame/guide/app_process/exam_tech/item47/amd/antidepressants/) has even more info to read up on. If you burrow down you will find a lot of worksheets and AME advisory papers most of which ultimately state
>
> Requires FAA Decision/Submit to FAA for approval
>
>
>
This basically means that the AME can not make the decision and its up to the FAA directly. That being said there is hope and they do make a path pretty clear for you to take.
In any case if you are tapering off a drug it may be best to wait until you are off it completely to go see an AME. The FAA seems to be much more cut and dry on current usage and far more "case by case" on historical usage based on the way the regs are written.
You may also want to take a look at the [regulations here](https://aviation.stackexchange.com/questions/27345/will-having-a-history-of-depression-prevent-me-from-flying) | AOPA has been working with the FAA on these kinds of questions. You can see a "MEDICAL CERTIFICATION, FAA ACCEPTED MEDICATIONS DATABASE" by joining AOPA.org and then selecting Pilot Resourses/Medical Resources, and Medications Database.
That list shows:
Cymbalta / duloxetine
NOT ALLOWED, antidepressant, depression, diabetic neuropathy
So you might want to work an AOPA medical certification specialists and your doctor to see if you can get off that. |
176,387 | [](https://i.stack.imgur.com/SsEzO.jpg)
i know smeagol and gollum are basically the same person, but what does it mean in this meme? | 2018/08/15 | [
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/questions/176387",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/users/80637/"
] | When somebody is standing in front of a crowd and they say *left* or *right*, it's almost always in reference to the perspective of the crowd that is being addressed.
A teacher may turn and point to the blackboard, indicated something to the left or right as they are *now* facing.
In theatre, if an actor or director wants to talk about things from the perspective of people *on the stage facing the audience*, they use the phrases [**stage left**](https://www.merriam-webster.com/dictionary/stage%20left) and [**stage right**](https://www.merriam-webster.com/dictionary/stage%20right) (from Merriam-Webster). Note that that is not spoken to the audience; it's for stage direction behind the scenes and during rehearsals. The audience uses the normal words.
So, the assumption is normally the perspective of the audience.
But if it's unclear, clarifying language can be used. | I think the students will look at it form **their** perspective. Unless something warns them, the audience will likely look at it from their perspective. An experienced orator would be aware of this and pick their words carefully.
To clarify, the teacher (as he stands in the picture, facing the class) might say ***my*** left-hand side (yellow), or ***your*** left-hand side (red).
---
As I suspected, there is a distinction. I don't know anything about hearts and muscles, but that doesn't matter. The speaker is using the **middle** of the image to distinguish the left and right sides. As a casual observer, I understand his words to mean that he is talking about the purple and yellow figure. Whether or not it is accurate is not a matter of English usage.
There is also the possibility that he is referring to the entire image. Before the video cut to this image, he was standing to the right of the image, facing the viewer. If in his mind he does not know that the video will cut to this image, and he has a live audience in mind, then referring to *the left-hand side* would be with respect to the audience's perspective and it would include the entire image. |
176,387 | [](https://i.stack.imgur.com/SsEzO.jpg)
i know smeagol and gollum are basically the same person, but what does it mean in this meme? | 2018/08/15 | [
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/questions/176387",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/users/80637/"
] | I think the students will look at it form **their** perspective. Unless something warns them, the audience will likely look at it from their perspective. An experienced orator would be aware of this and pick their words carefully.
To clarify, the teacher (as he stands in the picture, facing the class) might say ***my*** left-hand side (yellow), or ***your*** left-hand side (red).
---
As I suspected, there is a distinction. I don't know anything about hearts and muscles, but that doesn't matter. The speaker is using the **middle** of the image to distinguish the left and right sides. As a casual observer, I understand his words to mean that he is talking about the purple and yellow figure. Whether or not it is accurate is not a matter of English usage.
There is also the possibility that he is referring to the entire image. Before the video cut to this image, he was standing to the right of the image, facing the viewer. If in his mind he does not know that the video will cut to this image, and he has a live audience in mind, then referring to *the left-hand side* would be with respect to the audience's perspective and it would include the entire image. | >
> *If you look at the diagram on the left-hand side...*
>
>
>
If there is only **one** diagram, this phrase refers to **the left-hand side of the diagram**:
However, if there are **two** diagrams, the phrase refers to **the diagram on the left**:
So, **if you look at the *first* illustration on the left-hand side**, you can see the carbon ring in the molecule. **If you look at the *second* illustration on the left-hand side**, you can see the normal foot and arch.
As other answers have pointed out, most often, this is from the perspective of the **viewer**.
---
Therefore, in your example,
>
> ...if you look at the diagram on the left-hand side, it explains what these intercalacted disks are.
>
>
>
That is referring to the diagram with the purple and yellow columns:
 |
176,387 | [](https://i.stack.imgur.com/SsEzO.jpg)
i know smeagol and gollum are basically the same person, but what does it mean in this meme? | 2018/08/15 | [
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/questions/176387",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/users/80637/"
] | I think the students will look at it form **their** perspective. Unless something warns them, the audience will likely look at it from their perspective. An experienced orator would be aware of this and pick their words carefully.
To clarify, the teacher (as he stands in the picture, facing the class) might say ***my*** left-hand side (yellow), or ***your*** left-hand side (red).
---
As I suspected, there is a distinction. I don't know anything about hearts and muscles, but that doesn't matter. The speaker is using the **middle** of the image to distinguish the left and right sides. As a casual observer, I understand his words to mean that he is talking about the purple and yellow figure. Whether or not it is accurate is not a matter of English usage.
There is also the possibility that he is referring to the entire image. Before the video cut to this image, he was standing to the right of the image, facing the viewer. If in his mind he does not know that the video will cut to this image, and he has a live audience in mind, then referring to *the left-hand side* would be with respect to the audience's perspective and it would include the entire image. | In that case it should be clear it is the left as seen by the audience.
Why?
Because when having a look at the diagrams, which are on a 2D surface, there is no difference between the speaker perspective and the audience perspective.
This is clearly an other matter when designing elements which are in the 3D world, as the perspective might be different. But the speaker should instinctively refer to the same side, because of this. |
176,387 | [](https://i.stack.imgur.com/SsEzO.jpg)
i know smeagol and gollum are basically the same person, but what does it mean in this meme? | 2018/08/15 | [
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/questions/176387",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/users/80637/"
] | When somebody is standing in front of a crowd and they say *left* or *right*, it's almost always in reference to the perspective of the crowd that is being addressed.
A teacher may turn and point to the blackboard, indicated something to the left or right as they are *now* facing.
In theatre, if an actor or director wants to talk about things from the perspective of people *on the stage facing the audience*, they use the phrases [**stage left**](https://www.merriam-webster.com/dictionary/stage%20left) and [**stage right**](https://www.merriam-webster.com/dictionary/stage%20right) (from Merriam-Webster). Note that that is not spoken to the audience; it's for stage direction behind the scenes and during rehearsals. The audience uses the normal words.
So, the assumption is normally the perspective of the audience.
But if it's unclear, clarifying language can be used. | In real life, it would be strange for an instructor to say something like this. Most people would keep the difference in perspective in mind and specify whose perspective they are speaking from.
>
> Take a look at the diagram on **your** left.
>
>
>
It does happen that instructors sometimes forget about the perspective difference and say something as in your example. But it is normally an oversight and its ambiguity can sometimes be clarified through context or simply asking. |
176,387 | [](https://i.stack.imgur.com/SsEzO.jpg)
i know smeagol and gollum are basically the same person, but what does it mean in this meme? | 2018/08/15 | [
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/questions/176387",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/users/80637/"
] | In real life, it would be strange for an instructor to say something like this. Most people would keep the difference in perspective in mind and specify whose perspective they are speaking from.
>
> Take a look at the diagram on **your** left.
>
>
>
It does happen that instructors sometimes forget about the perspective difference and say something as in your example. But it is normally an oversight and its ambiguity can sometimes be clarified through context or simply asking. | >
> *If you look at the diagram on the left-hand side...*
>
>
>
If there is only **one** diagram, this phrase refers to **the left-hand side of the diagram**:
However, if there are **two** diagrams, the phrase refers to **the diagram on the left**:
So, **if you look at the *first* illustration on the left-hand side**, you can see the carbon ring in the molecule. **If you look at the *second* illustration on the left-hand side**, you can see the normal foot and arch.
As other answers have pointed out, most often, this is from the perspective of the **viewer**.
---
Therefore, in your example,
>
> ...if you look at the diagram on the left-hand side, it explains what these intercalacted disks are.
>
>
>
That is referring to the diagram with the purple and yellow columns:
 |
176,387 | [](https://i.stack.imgur.com/SsEzO.jpg)
i know smeagol and gollum are basically the same person, but what does it mean in this meme? | 2018/08/15 | [
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/questions/176387",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/users/80637/"
] | In real life, it would be strange for an instructor to say something like this. Most people would keep the difference in perspective in mind and specify whose perspective they are speaking from.
>
> Take a look at the diagram on **your** left.
>
>
>
It does happen that instructors sometimes forget about the perspective difference and say something as in your example. But it is normally an oversight and its ambiguity can sometimes be clarified through context or simply asking. | In that case it should be clear it is the left as seen by the audience.
Why?
Because when having a look at the diagrams, which are on a 2D surface, there is no difference between the speaker perspective and the audience perspective.
This is clearly an other matter when designing elements which are in the 3D world, as the perspective might be different. But the speaker should instinctively refer to the same side, because of this. |
176,387 | [](https://i.stack.imgur.com/SsEzO.jpg)
i know smeagol and gollum are basically the same person, but what does it mean in this meme? | 2018/08/15 | [
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/questions/176387",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/users/80637/"
] | When somebody is standing in front of a crowd and they say *left* or *right*, it's almost always in reference to the perspective of the crowd that is being addressed.
A teacher may turn and point to the blackboard, indicated something to the left or right as they are *now* facing.
In theatre, if an actor or director wants to talk about things from the perspective of people *on the stage facing the audience*, they use the phrases [**stage left**](https://www.merriam-webster.com/dictionary/stage%20left) and [**stage right**](https://www.merriam-webster.com/dictionary/stage%20right) (from Merriam-Webster). Note that that is not spoken to the audience; it's for stage direction behind the scenes and during rehearsals. The audience uses the normal words.
So, the assumption is normally the perspective of the audience.
But if it's unclear, clarifying language can be used. | >
> *If you look at the diagram on the left-hand side...*
>
>
>
If there is only **one** diagram, this phrase refers to **the left-hand side of the diagram**:
However, if there are **two** diagrams, the phrase refers to **the diagram on the left**:
So, **if you look at the *first* illustration on the left-hand side**, you can see the carbon ring in the molecule. **If you look at the *second* illustration on the left-hand side**, you can see the normal foot and arch.
As other answers have pointed out, most often, this is from the perspective of the **viewer**.
---
Therefore, in your example,
>
> ...if you look at the diagram on the left-hand side, it explains what these intercalacted disks are.
>
>
>
That is referring to the diagram with the purple and yellow columns:
 |
176,387 | [](https://i.stack.imgur.com/SsEzO.jpg)
i know smeagol and gollum are basically the same person, but what does it mean in this meme? | 2018/08/15 | [
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/questions/176387",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/users/80637/"
] | When somebody is standing in front of a crowd and they say *left* or *right*, it's almost always in reference to the perspective of the crowd that is being addressed.
A teacher may turn and point to the blackboard, indicated something to the left or right as they are *now* facing.
In theatre, if an actor or director wants to talk about things from the perspective of people *on the stage facing the audience*, they use the phrases [**stage left**](https://www.merriam-webster.com/dictionary/stage%20left) and [**stage right**](https://www.merriam-webster.com/dictionary/stage%20right) (from Merriam-Webster). Note that that is not spoken to the audience; it's for stage direction behind the scenes and during rehearsals. The audience uses the normal words.
So, the assumption is normally the perspective of the audience.
But if it's unclear, clarifying language can be used. | In that case it should be clear it is the left as seen by the audience.
Why?
Because when having a look at the diagrams, which are on a 2D surface, there is no difference between the speaker perspective and the audience perspective.
This is clearly an other matter when designing elements which are in the 3D world, as the perspective might be different. But the speaker should instinctively refer to the same side, because of this. |
39,131 | My 3 years old kid plays games and visits YouTube for kids app on the mobile phone frequently. After some time some effort must be made to remove it from her. It seems like she is addicted to the phone.
Apart from the personal experience, people around me also complain that using phone to play games and watch videos affects kids' mental health.
What are the mental consequences using a mobile phone or tab to teach kids using video games or YouTube videos? | 2019/11/16 | [
"https://parenting.stackexchange.com/questions/39131",
"https://parenting.stackexchange.com",
"https://parenting.stackexchange.com/users/37793/"
] | Although it is always wise to be cautious about the safety of your young child, in general it is developmentally normal and natural (and not at all sexual in the adult sense) for a three year old to touch or play with his private parts. It's generally a matter of curiosity, and perhaps increased access if he is recently out of diapers. Adult strong reactions to the behavior can reinforce it, as the child thinks, "There is something about doing this that attracts concern/interest from mom and dad!", which may make it extra interesting to do and watch how you respond.
A common way to deal with this behavior in a healthy way is to frame it as a matter of privacy, "It's okay to touch your private parts in private places, like in the bath; We don't touch our private parts in places like the dinner table or while visiting with relatives." You don't want to introduce a sense of shame; there is nothing wrong with a child engaging in this totally normal age-related behavior, but at 3 a child can begin to learn about boundaries and the appropriate time and place for doing things.
If, on the other hand, your child is showing other [troubling signs](https://rainn.org/articles/warning-signs-young-children), like overly sexual play with other children, sudden behavior regressions (like a loss of potty training), sudden excessive fearfulness or separation anxiety, or excessive knowledge of sexual topics, or tells you that they have been harmed by another person, then you should pursue the matter with professionals immediately. | **A young child touching their privates is normal behavior.**
[This paper from the American Academy of Pediatrics shows that children become increasingly sexual up to age 5](https://pediatrics.aappublications.org/content/101/4/e9#sec-6)
It goes on to state that self stimulating behavior such as touching privates while at home is observed in 60.2% of 2-5 year olds.
Below are some of the most common signs of sexual abuse:
* Sexual behavior that is inappropriate for the child’s age.
* Not wanting to be left alone with certain people.
* Tries to avoid removing clothing to change or bathe.
* Excessive talk about or knowledge of sexual topics.
* Resuming behaviors that they had grown out of, such as thumb-sucking.
It goes without saying that this list is far from comprehensive. If you have been given no reason to believe that your child has been abused such as those listed above then you should treat this as normal behavior that he will grow out of as he comes to understand his body. You can be supportive by teaching him the *right time right place* for this kind of touching.
With my own children, I want them to understand the importance of bodily autonomy. For instance, when I bathe them, I ask them if they are okay for me to wash their privates. I explain to them that only they are allowed to touch their private area anyone else must first have their permission. I explain the kinds of situations that are appropriate as well and frame the question like this: "Who else is allowed to touch your privates?"
* Mommy and Daddy when they are giving me a bath.
* At the doctors when getting a check up.
I have also told them to come to me immediately if somebody else is trying to make them do something that they don't like. I remind them: "Mommy and Daddy will never be mad at you for telling us. We love you and want to take care of you." I feel like this is important because I have heard stories of abusers manipulating children by saying something like: "If you tell your parents, they will be so mad, or they won't love you anymore, or they will leave you." Its your job as a parent to show your children how to set healthy boundaries and its very important to create that safe space that's built on trust and understanding so that they feel comfortable coming to you to share their problems and concerns.
By your post it seems like you really want what is best for your child. I wish you the best of luck! |
39,131 | My 3 years old kid plays games and visits YouTube for kids app on the mobile phone frequently. After some time some effort must be made to remove it from her. It seems like she is addicted to the phone.
Apart from the personal experience, people around me also complain that using phone to play games and watch videos affects kids' mental health.
What are the mental consequences using a mobile phone or tab to teach kids using video games or YouTube videos? | 2019/11/16 | [
"https://parenting.stackexchange.com/questions/39131",
"https://parenting.stackexchange.com",
"https://parenting.stackexchange.com/users/37793/"
] | Although it is always wise to be cautious about the safety of your young child, in general it is developmentally normal and natural (and not at all sexual in the adult sense) for a three year old to touch or play with his private parts. It's generally a matter of curiosity, and perhaps increased access if he is recently out of diapers. Adult strong reactions to the behavior can reinforce it, as the child thinks, "There is something about doing this that attracts concern/interest from mom and dad!", which may make it extra interesting to do and watch how you respond.
A common way to deal with this behavior in a healthy way is to frame it as a matter of privacy, "It's okay to touch your private parts in private places, like in the bath; We don't touch our private parts in places like the dinner table or while visiting with relatives." You don't want to introduce a sense of shame; there is nothing wrong with a child engaging in this totally normal age-related behavior, but at 3 a child can begin to learn about boundaries and the appropriate time and place for doing things.
If, on the other hand, your child is showing other [troubling signs](https://rainn.org/articles/warning-signs-young-children), like overly sexual play with other children, sudden behavior regressions (like a loss of potty training), sudden excessive fearfulness or separation anxiety, or excessive knowledge of sexual topics, or tells you that they have been harmed by another person, then you should pursue the matter with professionals immediately. | I am the oldest of 5 children. My brother, the youngest, is 12 years younger than me, and uncircumcised.
Children learn the rules of hygiene from their parents and then tend to pass them obsessively to their younger siblings. My brother was constantly told not to play with his private parts by his four older siblings.
Possibly as a result of this, when my brother was about 9, the doctor told my mother his foreskin was too tight! The doctor actually suggested that my mother manipulate his foreskin! She was uncomfortable with this, and it was agreed that my brother would manipulate his own private parts to loosen his foreskin.
In conclusion, children playing with their private parts is not only normal but may in fact be necessary for normal physical development. |
39,131 | My 3 years old kid plays games and visits YouTube for kids app on the mobile phone frequently. After some time some effort must be made to remove it from her. It seems like she is addicted to the phone.
Apart from the personal experience, people around me also complain that using phone to play games and watch videos affects kids' mental health.
What are the mental consequences using a mobile phone or tab to teach kids using video games or YouTube videos? | 2019/11/16 | [
"https://parenting.stackexchange.com/questions/39131",
"https://parenting.stackexchange.com",
"https://parenting.stackexchange.com/users/37793/"
] | **A young child touching their privates is normal behavior.**
[This paper from the American Academy of Pediatrics shows that children become increasingly sexual up to age 5](https://pediatrics.aappublications.org/content/101/4/e9#sec-6)
It goes on to state that self stimulating behavior such as touching privates while at home is observed in 60.2% of 2-5 year olds.
Below are some of the most common signs of sexual abuse:
* Sexual behavior that is inappropriate for the child’s age.
* Not wanting to be left alone with certain people.
* Tries to avoid removing clothing to change or bathe.
* Excessive talk about or knowledge of sexual topics.
* Resuming behaviors that they had grown out of, such as thumb-sucking.
It goes without saying that this list is far from comprehensive. If you have been given no reason to believe that your child has been abused such as those listed above then you should treat this as normal behavior that he will grow out of as he comes to understand his body. You can be supportive by teaching him the *right time right place* for this kind of touching.
With my own children, I want them to understand the importance of bodily autonomy. For instance, when I bathe them, I ask them if they are okay for me to wash their privates. I explain to them that only they are allowed to touch their private area anyone else must first have their permission. I explain the kinds of situations that are appropriate as well and frame the question like this: "Who else is allowed to touch your privates?"
* Mommy and Daddy when they are giving me a bath.
* At the doctors when getting a check up.
I have also told them to come to me immediately if somebody else is trying to make them do something that they don't like. I remind them: "Mommy and Daddy will never be mad at you for telling us. We love you and want to take care of you." I feel like this is important because I have heard stories of abusers manipulating children by saying something like: "If you tell your parents, they will be so mad, or they won't love you anymore, or they will leave you." Its your job as a parent to show your children how to set healthy boundaries and its very important to create that safe space that's built on trust and understanding so that they feel comfortable coming to you to share their problems and concerns.
By your post it seems like you really want what is best for your child. I wish you the best of luck! | I am the oldest of 5 children. My brother, the youngest, is 12 years younger than me, and uncircumcised.
Children learn the rules of hygiene from their parents and then tend to pass them obsessively to their younger siblings. My brother was constantly told not to play with his private parts by his four older siblings.
Possibly as a result of this, when my brother was about 9, the doctor told my mother his foreskin was too tight! The doctor actually suggested that my mother manipulate his foreskin! She was uncomfortable with this, and it was agreed that my brother would manipulate his own private parts to loosen his foreskin.
In conclusion, children playing with their private parts is not only normal but may in fact be necessary for normal physical development. |
10,550 | I'm working on 3 separate projects in pt9, not identical but similar in content. 2 of them work fine but 1 of them crashes after a second of playing back. This seems to happen anywhere in the edit (if I click on playback elsewhere for example).
Anyone encountered this? quite hard to find the fault through google.
Thanks
Oh forgot to add that I open up an autosave backup and it works... until I save the project again and it fails. :( | 2011/09/27 | [
"https://sound.stackexchange.com/questions/10550",
"https://sound.stackexchange.com",
"https://sound.stackexchange.com/users/863/"
] | Aside from Shaun's good advice, you may also have a corrupted fade or file (I've seen all sorts). If clearing Prefs etc. doesn't work try these:
First, try deleting the Fade Files for the session... PT will rebuild them. Corrupted Fade Files can cause all sorts of weirdness.
Second, try a "Save Session Copy In" with all audio files. If there's a weird filename (which can happen and wreak all sorts of havoc) it will tell you and rename the file properly.
Lastly, create a new session. Import tracks from the old session one at a time. Play your timeline. If it crashes right after importing a specific track, then something in that track is off, and it will be easier to find -either media or a specific plug-in could be the issue. | when in doubt: trash all preferences, repair disk permissions and restart.
another trick you can try is to make all tracks "inactive" (note that this is not a "voice" selection idea, you do this by right-clicking a track or through the track menu), play back for 10-15 seconds, then reactivate the tracks. 9 can encounter a memory caching problem, and this will sometimes clear it up. |
10,550 | I'm working on 3 separate projects in pt9, not identical but similar in content. 2 of them work fine but 1 of them crashes after a second of playing back. This seems to happen anywhere in the edit (if I click on playback elsewhere for example).
Anyone encountered this? quite hard to find the fault through google.
Thanks
Oh forgot to add that I open up an autosave backup and it works... until I save the project again and it fails. :( | 2011/09/27 | [
"https://sound.stackexchange.com/questions/10550",
"https://sound.stackexchange.com",
"https://sound.stackexchange.com/users/863/"
] | Aside from Shaun's good advice, you may also have a corrupted fade or file (I've seen all sorts). If clearing Prefs etc. doesn't work try these:
First, try deleting the Fade Files for the session... PT will rebuild them. Corrupted Fade Files can cause all sorts of weirdness.
Second, try a "Save Session Copy In" with all audio files. If there's a weird filename (which can happen and wreak all sorts of havoc) it will tell you and rename the file properly.
Lastly, create a new session. Import tracks from the old session one at a time. Play your timeline. If it crashes right after importing a specific track, then something in that track is off, and it will be easier to find -either media or a specific plug-in could be the issue. | What version are you on? I started to have a lot of crashes too when i updated to 9.05
Previous versions worked much better. |
10,550 | I'm working on 3 separate projects in pt9, not identical but similar in content. 2 of them work fine but 1 of them crashes after a second of playing back. This seems to happen anywhere in the edit (if I click on playback elsewhere for example).
Anyone encountered this? quite hard to find the fault through google.
Thanks
Oh forgot to add that I open up an autosave backup and it works... until I save the project again and it fails. :( | 2011/09/27 | [
"https://sound.stackexchange.com/questions/10550",
"https://sound.stackexchange.com",
"https://sound.stackexchange.com/users/863/"
] | Aside from Shaun's good advice, you may also have a corrupted fade or file (I've seen all sorts). If clearing Prefs etc. doesn't work try these:
First, try deleting the Fade Files for the session... PT will rebuild them. Corrupted Fade Files can cause all sorts of weirdness.
Second, try a "Save Session Copy In" with all audio files. If there's a weird filename (which can happen and wreak all sorts of havoc) it will tell you and rename the file properly.
Lastly, create a new session. Import tracks from the old session one at a time. Play your timeline. If it crashes right after importing a specific track, then something in that track is off, and it will be easier to find -either media or a specific plug-in could be the issue. | also tries to delete the folders "digidesign database" |
10,550 | I'm working on 3 separate projects in pt9, not identical but similar in content. 2 of them work fine but 1 of them crashes after a second of playing back. This seems to happen anywhere in the edit (if I click on playback elsewhere for example).
Anyone encountered this? quite hard to find the fault through google.
Thanks
Oh forgot to add that I open up an autosave backup and it works... until I save the project again and it fails. :( | 2011/09/27 | [
"https://sound.stackexchange.com/questions/10550",
"https://sound.stackexchange.com",
"https://sound.stackexchange.com/users/863/"
] | Aside from Shaun's good advice, you may also have a corrupted fade or file (I've seen all sorts). If clearing Prefs etc. doesn't work try these:
First, try deleting the Fade Files for the session... PT will rebuild them. Corrupted Fade Files can cause all sorts of weirdness.
Second, try a "Save Session Copy In" with all audio files. If there's a weird filename (which can happen and wreak all sorts of havoc) it will tell you and rename the file properly.
Lastly, create a new session. Import tracks from the old session one at a time. Play your timeline. If it crashes right after importing a specific track, then something in that track is off, and it will be easier to find -either media or a specific plug-in could be the issue. | Thanks for feedback, no luck with databse deleting sadly, I'm on an early version of PT9.
I get a DAE ERROR too... I suspect it could be fades and will try that, at present I'm just working of the most previous back up.
Thanks again |
54,573,332 | I am creating a Wordpress theme. I have index.php in my theme's root folder. I have my style.css in a separate folder /css. I've got the beginnings of the design done and everything is working fine.
I now want to add some options with Customizer. I've begun to add some in customizer.php. I then go to check what they look like in wp-admin, click "customize" on my theme and get...
"The active theme is broken. Reverting to the default theme."
The theme was working fine up until that point. I've deleted and re-installed it a couple of times now. All is well until I click "customize".
The error message instructs me to check index.php and style.css, both of which are present. Could it be because style.css is not in the root but in /css? If so, how do I get Customizer to recognise this? My stylesheet has been enqueued correctly in functions.php. As I say above, the theme works fine until I get involved with Customizer.
When I click theme details, wp seems to think the theme is a child of itself too. It isn't a child of anything. I am using underscores starter theme and adapting.
What is going on with Customizer and how do I fix it? | 2019/02/07 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/54573332",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/9438366/"
] | The style.css is a stylesheet (CSS) file required for every WordPress theme. It controls the presentation (visual design and layout) of the website pages. In order for WordPress to recognize the set of theme template files as a valid theme, the style.css file needs to be located in the root directory of your theme, not a sub-directory. | There must be connection lost when you update resulting to broken themes or missing files.
You need to reinstall a theme :
There are two ways to install WordPress themes.
Method 1.) Direct Upload inside WP Admin Console
Method 2.) Using an FTP Client
**Method 1 is just a matter of uploading the theme from your WordPress admin console.**
Once logged in, navigate to Appearance → Themes and click the "Install Themes" tab. Click the "Upload" link and browse to the location where you extracted the package and upload *themename*.zip.
**Method 2 is pretty straightforward.**
Using an FTP client is recommended. If the term FTP scares you, don't worry. It's no different than moving files and folders. Filezilla is a free and trusted FTP client.
Extract *themename*.zip to your local machine
Login via FTP to your web server and navigate to the /wp-content/themes/ folder
Upload the entire *themename* folder and its contents. Example: /wp-content/themes/yourtheme/
Open your browser, log in to your WP admin section and (in the left column under Appearance) click the Themes link .Click Activate under the theme you just uploaded. |
81,358 | To best of my knowledge, God has no definite gender, i.e., he's neither male nor female. Still, Jesus, God the Son, assumed a male form during his ministry. Why is that? Clearly, God the Son could have also assumed a female form, or even a genderless form. Given that, why God the Son choose to represent him as a male? | 2021/03/17 | [
"https://christianity.stackexchange.com/questions/81358",
"https://christianity.stackexchange.com",
"https://christianity.stackexchange.com/users/26639/"
] | Humanity was, originally, made in the image of God. Thus was man made, in the beginning, Genesis 2:7.
Having done so, and man having been created, woman was made to be 'an help' for the man, Genesis 2:18.
This further, creative, step expresses something more of God's ultimate intention in creation.
For, ultimately, as all scripture in its progressive unfolding reveals, God's purpose is a body of persons, which, in the future, shall 'neither marry nor be given in marriage', Matthew 22:30, and shall be 'all one, in Christ Jesus', Galatians 3:28.
Thus man and woman both show forth different aspects of Deity and the ultimate purposes of Deity, in humanity. That is to say, during time, within the present creation, before that which is to come in the future, beyond time, God's purpose is expressed in the things which, presently, he made.
But he who made them is above that which he made. He who made all things is not bounded by, or constricted by, the order that he created in expression of himself. That order *demonstrates things about him*. It does not *encapsulate* he, himself.
As Jesus said, John 4:24, *Pneuma ho Theos*; 'Spirit, the Deity' (expressing an equivalence) or (in idiomatic English) 'God is a Spirit'.
'Gender' relates to human manifestation. It does not relate to Divine Spirit.
But God, and God's purposes, may be perceived and understood in the things which he has made, humanity - both male and female - being one very important aspect of what He made.
Jesus Christ, come in the flesh, 1 John 4:2, is a manifestation of Deity in humanity ; 'God was manifest in the flesh', 1 Timothy 3:16 [TR/KJV].
His coming *does not represent the Body* which was yet to be revealed ; The Church.
The Body, the Church, the Bride, is the complement of all who repent and believe the gospel and follow Jesus Christ. That whole complement of persons is seen set forth, in concept, in the creation. And, throughout scripture, femininity and womanhood demonstrate what all of God's people (as one body) shall be for Christ, the Head over all, 1 Corinthians 11:3, Ephesians 1:23, Revelation 21:9, Ephesians 5:22-32.
They - all of them, who believe - are the reality of *that which is represented* by created femininity.
---
(All references are to the TR Greek Text and to the KJV.) | Everything that God created exhibits His character and attributes as a concrete analogy. This includes that relationships within the trinity and relationship between God and His creation. An analogy is not the same as the thing to which it refers. Only certain features of that analog or the context in which it operates are salient. The rest are incidental. When studying the parables of Jesus, for example, early Christians found fanciful connections between the minutest details of the stories and doctrine.
Thus we have the idea of a father, the defining actions of a father, the relationship of a father to a son and son to a father, and our creation by God as an analog to His existence. Not everything about us (such as the mechanics of sexuality) is a representation of God - but some of it is. There is something fatherlike about God and the Bible reinforces that relentlessly. There is something sonlike about Jesus, and in his case even moreso since he took on flesh.
Our society is massively confused about what Gender is. Given that situation, since we cannot properly define gender for ourselves as creatures, how can we say that God either has or does not have a gender? |
81,358 | To best of my knowledge, God has no definite gender, i.e., he's neither male nor female. Still, Jesus, God the Son, assumed a male form during his ministry. Why is that? Clearly, God the Son could have also assumed a female form, or even a genderless form. Given that, why God the Son choose to represent him as a male? | 2021/03/17 | [
"https://christianity.stackexchange.com/questions/81358",
"https://christianity.stackexchange.com",
"https://christianity.stackexchange.com/users/26639/"
] | Humanity was, originally, made in the image of God. Thus was man made, in the beginning, Genesis 2:7.
Having done so, and man having been created, woman was made to be 'an help' for the man, Genesis 2:18.
This further, creative, step expresses something more of God's ultimate intention in creation.
For, ultimately, as all scripture in its progressive unfolding reveals, God's purpose is a body of persons, which, in the future, shall 'neither marry nor be given in marriage', Matthew 22:30, and shall be 'all one, in Christ Jesus', Galatians 3:28.
Thus man and woman both show forth different aspects of Deity and the ultimate purposes of Deity, in humanity. That is to say, during time, within the present creation, before that which is to come in the future, beyond time, God's purpose is expressed in the things which, presently, he made.
But he who made them is above that which he made. He who made all things is not bounded by, or constricted by, the order that he created in expression of himself. That order *demonstrates things about him*. It does not *encapsulate* he, himself.
As Jesus said, John 4:24, *Pneuma ho Theos*; 'Spirit, the Deity' (expressing an equivalence) or (in idiomatic English) 'God is a Spirit'.
'Gender' relates to human manifestation. It does not relate to Divine Spirit.
But God, and God's purposes, may be perceived and understood in the things which he has made, humanity - both male and female - being one very important aspect of what He made.
Jesus Christ, come in the flesh, 1 John 4:2, is a manifestation of Deity in humanity ; 'God was manifest in the flesh', 1 Timothy 3:16 [TR/KJV].
His coming *does not represent the Body* which was yet to be revealed ; The Church.
The Body, the Church, the Bride, is the complement of all who repent and believe the gospel and follow Jesus Christ. That whole complement of persons is seen set forth, in concept, in the creation. And, throughout scripture, femininity and womanhood demonstrate what all of God's people (as one body) shall be for Christ, the Head over all, 1 Corinthians 11:3, Ephesians 1:23, Revelation 21:9, Ephesians 5:22-32.
They - all of them, who believe - are the reality of *that which is represented* by created femininity.
---
(All references are to the TR Greek Text and to the KJV.) | *Given God is genderless, why Jesus (God the Son) assumed a male form?*
The answer to this question can be found in the proto-evangelium which is a Holy Decree coming from the Almighty and Omnipotent God. The Logos the Second Person of the Holy Trinity will come as a child, the first offspring of a chosen Woman.
>
> Genesis 3:15
> Douay-Rheims 1899 American Edition
> **15 I will put enmities between thee and the woman, and thy seed and her seed: she shall crush thy head, and thou shalt lie in wait for her heel.**
>
>
>
But, this understanding is After the Fall of Man. We need to see the origin why God chooses to personified as a Man, and had chosen only a reflection of His image on a Woman. God created mankind in His own image both male & female. It's like the Sun and Moon analogy coming from the Church Father's teachings. Jesus symbolizes the sun while Mary is the moon reflecting the light coming from the sun.
>
> Genesis 1:27: “So God created man in his own image, in the image of God he created him; male and female he created them.”
>
>
>
So, the answer to your question, why God assumed a male form, is because after the Fall of Man, the Holy Decree of God the Father is that the Logos must be incarnated in the chosen Woman as written in Genesis3:15
To extend it further in eternity, before Adam & Eve fall, and even before the Heavenly Host was created, and even before the creation time begun. The reason why God chooses to become a child can be found in the Greatest Commandment of God both in the Old and New Testament.
>
> The Greatest Commandment
> …36“Teacher, which commandment is the greatest in the Law?” 37 Jesus declared, “‘Love the Lord your God with all your heart and with all your soul and with all your mind.’ 38This is the first and greatest commandment."(Matthew22:37)
>
>
>
>
> The Greatest Commandment
> …4Hear, O Israel: The LORD our God, the LORD is One. 5And you shall love the LORD your God with all your heart and with all your soul and with all your strength.
>
>
>
As, Ven, Ab. Fulton Sheen said, ***"Love begins with a dream".*** God in eternity had a dream, God desires to be love, and he desired to be loved by a chosen Woman. God wishes to experience the love of a chosen creature, a Woman. God dream in eternity was to be love by a chosen Woman. That's why the icon of the Madonna, is God vision of love in eternity, God sees Himself in the arms of a loving Mother, that is God's dream in eternity. But the God exist in the Holy Trinity, and so the chosen creature must love God the Father, God the Son and God the Holy Spirit.
Mary the chosen Woman in eternity is the only creature that had fulfilled the Greatest Commandment of God of loving Him with all Her heart, with all Her soul and with all Her strength by Her Fiat from "womb to tomb".
Mary became the "beloved" daughter of God the Father in the Temple of God for ten years.
Mary became the "beloved" Mother of God the Son for 33 years in Christ redeeming mission.
And Mary, became the "beloved" Spouse of the Holy Spirit from 33AD starting in Upper Room up to Her death and Assumption into Heaven and continuous today in the mission of the Holy Spirit in the salvation of mankind.
Mary had fulfill the Greatest Commandment of God in the Most Holy Trinity. And this is the desire of the Almighty God in eternity before the creation time begin. The icon of the Madonna is the vision of God in eternity. Jesus the God-Man, existed in the bosom of the Father, while Mary the chosen Woman existed in the heart of God in eternity, because Mary is God's dream in eternity. God had created the Heavens and the Earth because He wanted to fulfill His dream, but a dream involves a sacrifice, and so, in eternity God saw that in order to realize His dream, the Fall of the Angels will happen, and a fallen mankind needs to be redeem. And so, to realize God's dream, one need to offer a sacrifice. And, God the Father heard a voice, as St.Alphonsus described in his book, the Son of God existing in His bosom said, ***"Lo, here I am send me".***
In closing, when one look at the image of the Madonna, we need to ponder it with joy, because God in eternity was moved to create the Heavens and the Earth, all because of the joy God felt in making himself a little child carried in the arms of a ***"loving and merciful Mother". Mary is God's dream in eternity***.[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/z3gfb.jpg) |
81,358 | To best of my knowledge, God has no definite gender, i.e., he's neither male nor female. Still, Jesus, God the Son, assumed a male form during his ministry. Why is that? Clearly, God the Son could have also assumed a female form, or even a genderless form. Given that, why God the Son choose to represent him as a male? | 2021/03/17 | [
"https://christianity.stackexchange.com/questions/81358",
"https://christianity.stackexchange.com",
"https://christianity.stackexchange.com/users/26639/"
] | So St. Thomas Aquinas approached this question in the summa asking if Christ is two persons or one:
>
> Now some placed two supposita in Christ, and one Person, which, in their opinion, would seem to be the suppositum completed with its final completion. Hence, since they placed two supposita in Christ, they said that God is two, in the neuter. But because they asserted one Person, they said that Christ is one, in the masculine, for the neuter gender signifies something unformed and imperfect, whereas the masculine signifies something formed and perfect. on the other hand, the Nestorians, who asserted two Persons in Christ, said that Christ is two not only in the neuter, but also in the masculine. But since we maintain one person and one suppositum in Christ, as is clear from [III:2:3](https://www.newadvent.org/summa/4002.htm#article2), it follows that we say that Christ is one not merely in the masculine, but also in the neuter.
>
>
>
>
> <https://www.newadvent.org/summa/4017.htm>
>
>
>
He says that the genderless is something unformed and therefore imperfect, but the masculine represented something "formed and perfect". This is in reference to a man with a physical body, not beings without bodies. If you've ever seen Kevin Smith's Dogma (which I don't recommend in the least), you'll know that a genderless physical conception of an angel in the form of a man is pretty odd looking and God wouldn't come to earth to be odd looking. | Everything that God created exhibits His character and attributes as a concrete analogy. This includes that relationships within the trinity and relationship between God and His creation. An analogy is not the same as the thing to which it refers. Only certain features of that analog or the context in which it operates are salient. The rest are incidental. When studying the parables of Jesus, for example, early Christians found fanciful connections between the minutest details of the stories and doctrine.
Thus we have the idea of a father, the defining actions of a father, the relationship of a father to a son and son to a father, and our creation by God as an analog to His existence. Not everything about us (such as the mechanics of sexuality) is a representation of God - but some of it is. There is something fatherlike about God and the Bible reinforces that relentlessly. There is something sonlike about Jesus, and in his case even moreso since he took on flesh.
Our society is massively confused about what Gender is. Given that situation, since we cannot properly define gender for ourselves as creatures, how can we say that God either has or does not have a gender? |
81,358 | To best of my knowledge, God has no definite gender, i.e., he's neither male nor female. Still, Jesus, God the Son, assumed a male form during his ministry. Why is that? Clearly, God the Son could have also assumed a female form, or even a genderless form. Given that, why God the Son choose to represent him as a male? | 2021/03/17 | [
"https://christianity.stackexchange.com/questions/81358",
"https://christianity.stackexchange.com",
"https://christianity.stackexchange.com/users/26639/"
] | Everything that God created exhibits His character and attributes as a concrete analogy. This includes that relationships within the trinity and relationship between God and His creation. An analogy is not the same as the thing to which it refers. Only certain features of that analog or the context in which it operates are salient. The rest are incidental. When studying the parables of Jesus, for example, early Christians found fanciful connections between the minutest details of the stories and doctrine.
Thus we have the idea of a father, the defining actions of a father, the relationship of a father to a son and son to a father, and our creation by God as an analog to His existence. Not everything about us (such as the mechanics of sexuality) is a representation of God - but some of it is. There is something fatherlike about God and the Bible reinforces that relentlessly. There is something sonlike about Jesus, and in his case even moreso since he took on flesh.
Our society is massively confused about what Gender is. Given that situation, since we cannot properly define gender for ourselves as creatures, how can we say that God either has or does not have a gender? | *Given God is genderless, why Jesus (God the Son) assumed a male form?*
The answer to this question can be found in the proto-evangelium which is a Holy Decree coming from the Almighty and Omnipotent God. The Logos the Second Person of the Holy Trinity will come as a child, the first offspring of a chosen Woman.
>
> Genesis 3:15
> Douay-Rheims 1899 American Edition
> **15 I will put enmities between thee and the woman, and thy seed and her seed: she shall crush thy head, and thou shalt lie in wait for her heel.**
>
>
>
But, this understanding is After the Fall of Man. We need to see the origin why God chooses to personified as a Man, and had chosen only a reflection of His image on a Woman. God created mankind in His own image both male & female. It's like the Sun and Moon analogy coming from the Church Father's teachings. Jesus symbolizes the sun while Mary is the moon reflecting the light coming from the sun.
>
> Genesis 1:27: “So God created man in his own image, in the image of God he created him; male and female he created them.”
>
>
>
So, the answer to your question, why God assumed a male form, is because after the Fall of Man, the Holy Decree of God the Father is that the Logos must be incarnated in the chosen Woman as written in Genesis3:15
To extend it further in eternity, before Adam & Eve fall, and even before the Heavenly Host was created, and even before the creation time begun. The reason why God chooses to become a child can be found in the Greatest Commandment of God both in the Old and New Testament.
>
> The Greatest Commandment
> …36“Teacher, which commandment is the greatest in the Law?” 37 Jesus declared, “‘Love the Lord your God with all your heart and with all your soul and with all your mind.’ 38This is the first and greatest commandment."(Matthew22:37)
>
>
>
>
> The Greatest Commandment
> …4Hear, O Israel: The LORD our God, the LORD is One. 5And you shall love the LORD your God with all your heart and with all your soul and with all your strength.
>
>
>
As, Ven, Ab. Fulton Sheen said, ***"Love begins with a dream".*** God in eternity had a dream, God desires to be love, and he desired to be loved by a chosen Woman. God wishes to experience the love of a chosen creature, a Woman. God dream in eternity was to be love by a chosen Woman. That's why the icon of the Madonna, is God vision of love in eternity, God sees Himself in the arms of a loving Mother, that is God's dream in eternity. But the God exist in the Holy Trinity, and so the chosen creature must love God the Father, God the Son and God the Holy Spirit.
Mary the chosen Woman in eternity is the only creature that had fulfilled the Greatest Commandment of God of loving Him with all Her heart, with all Her soul and with all Her strength by Her Fiat from "womb to tomb".
Mary became the "beloved" daughter of God the Father in the Temple of God for ten years.
Mary became the "beloved" Mother of God the Son for 33 years in Christ redeeming mission.
And Mary, became the "beloved" Spouse of the Holy Spirit from 33AD starting in Upper Room up to Her death and Assumption into Heaven and continuous today in the mission of the Holy Spirit in the salvation of mankind.
Mary had fulfill the Greatest Commandment of God in the Most Holy Trinity. And this is the desire of the Almighty God in eternity before the creation time begin. The icon of the Madonna is the vision of God in eternity. Jesus the God-Man, existed in the bosom of the Father, while Mary the chosen Woman existed in the heart of God in eternity, because Mary is God's dream in eternity. God had created the Heavens and the Earth because He wanted to fulfill His dream, but a dream involves a sacrifice, and so, in eternity God saw that in order to realize His dream, the Fall of the Angels will happen, and a fallen mankind needs to be redeem. And so, to realize God's dream, one need to offer a sacrifice. And, God the Father heard a voice, as St.Alphonsus described in his book, the Son of God existing in His bosom said, ***"Lo, here I am send me".***
In closing, when one look at the image of the Madonna, we need to ponder it with joy, because God in eternity was moved to create the Heavens and the Earth, all because of the joy God felt in making himself a little child carried in the arms of a ***"loving and merciful Mother". Mary is God's dream in eternity***.[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/z3gfb.jpg) |
81,358 | To best of my knowledge, God has no definite gender, i.e., he's neither male nor female. Still, Jesus, God the Son, assumed a male form during his ministry. Why is that? Clearly, God the Son could have also assumed a female form, or even a genderless form. Given that, why God the Son choose to represent him as a male? | 2021/03/17 | [
"https://christianity.stackexchange.com/questions/81358",
"https://christianity.stackexchange.com",
"https://christianity.stackexchange.com/users/26639/"
] | So St. Thomas Aquinas approached this question in the summa asking if Christ is two persons or one:
>
> Now some placed two supposita in Christ, and one Person, which, in their opinion, would seem to be the suppositum completed with its final completion. Hence, since they placed two supposita in Christ, they said that God is two, in the neuter. But because they asserted one Person, they said that Christ is one, in the masculine, for the neuter gender signifies something unformed and imperfect, whereas the masculine signifies something formed and perfect. on the other hand, the Nestorians, who asserted two Persons in Christ, said that Christ is two not only in the neuter, but also in the masculine. But since we maintain one person and one suppositum in Christ, as is clear from [III:2:3](https://www.newadvent.org/summa/4002.htm#article2), it follows that we say that Christ is one not merely in the masculine, but also in the neuter.
>
>
>
>
> <https://www.newadvent.org/summa/4017.htm>
>
>
>
He says that the genderless is something unformed and therefore imperfect, but the masculine represented something "formed and perfect". This is in reference to a man with a physical body, not beings without bodies. If you've ever seen Kevin Smith's Dogma (which I don't recommend in the least), you'll know that a genderless physical conception of an angel in the form of a man is pretty odd looking and God wouldn't come to earth to be odd looking. | *Given God is genderless, why Jesus (God the Son) assumed a male form?*
The answer to this question can be found in the proto-evangelium which is a Holy Decree coming from the Almighty and Omnipotent God. The Logos the Second Person of the Holy Trinity will come as a child, the first offspring of a chosen Woman.
>
> Genesis 3:15
> Douay-Rheims 1899 American Edition
> **15 I will put enmities between thee and the woman, and thy seed and her seed: she shall crush thy head, and thou shalt lie in wait for her heel.**
>
>
>
But, this understanding is After the Fall of Man. We need to see the origin why God chooses to personified as a Man, and had chosen only a reflection of His image on a Woman. God created mankind in His own image both male & female. It's like the Sun and Moon analogy coming from the Church Father's teachings. Jesus symbolizes the sun while Mary is the moon reflecting the light coming from the sun.
>
> Genesis 1:27: “So God created man in his own image, in the image of God he created him; male and female he created them.”
>
>
>
So, the answer to your question, why God assumed a male form, is because after the Fall of Man, the Holy Decree of God the Father is that the Logos must be incarnated in the chosen Woman as written in Genesis3:15
To extend it further in eternity, before Adam & Eve fall, and even before the Heavenly Host was created, and even before the creation time begun. The reason why God chooses to become a child can be found in the Greatest Commandment of God both in the Old and New Testament.
>
> The Greatest Commandment
> …36“Teacher, which commandment is the greatest in the Law?” 37 Jesus declared, “‘Love the Lord your God with all your heart and with all your soul and with all your mind.’ 38This is the first and greatest commandment."(Matthew22:37)
>
>
>
>
> The Greatest Commandment
> …4Hear, O Israel: The LORD our God, the LORD is One. 5And you shall love the LORD your God with all your heart and with all your soul and with all your strength.
>
>
>
As, Ven, Ab. Fulton Sheen said, ***"Love begins with a dream".*** God in eternity had a dream, God desires to be love, and he desired to be loved by a chosen Woman. God wishes to experience the love of a chosen creature, a Woman. God dream in eternity was to be love by a chosen Woman. That's why the icon of the Madonna, is God vision of love in eternity, God sees Himself in the arms of a loving Mother, that is God's dream in eternity. But the God exist in the Holy Trinity, and so the chosen creature must love God the Father, God the Son and God the Holy Spirit.
Mary the chosen Woman in eternity is the only creature that had fulfilled the Greatest Commandment of God of loving Him with all Her heart, with all Her soul and with all Her strength by Her Fiat from "womb to tomb".
Mary became the "beloved" daughter of God the Father in the Temple of God for ten years.
Mary became the "beloved" Mother of God the Son for 33 years in Christ redeeming mission.
And Mary, became the "beloved" Spouse of the Holy Spirit from 33AD starting in Upper Room up to Her death and Assumption into Heaven and continuous today in the mission of the Holy Spirit in the salvation of mankind.
Mary had fulfill the Greatest Commandment of God in the Most Holy Trinity. And this is the desire of the Almighty God in eternity before the creation time begin. The icon of the Madonna is the vision of God in eternity. Jesus the God-Man, existed in the bosom of the Father, while Mary the chosen Woman existed in the heart of God in eternity, because Mary is God's dream in eternity. God had created the Heavens and the Earth because He wanted to fulfill His dream, but a dream involves a sacrifice, and so, in eternity God saw that in order to realize His dream, the Fall of the Angels will happen, and a fallen mankind needs to be redeem. And so, to realize God's dream, one need to offer a sacrifice. And, God the Father heard a voice, as St.Alphonsus described in his book, the Son of God existing in His bosom said, ***"Lo, here I am send me".***
In closing, when one look at the image of the Madonna, we need to ponder it with joy, because God in eternity was moved to create the Heavens and the Earth, all because of the joy God felt in making himself a little child carried in the arms of a ***"loving and merciful Mother". Mary is God's dream in eternity***.[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/z3gfb.jpg) |
52,446 | Originally asked as a follow up question, and lost in the controversy of [Why would it matter whether a front-loading washer is upstairs?](https://diy.stackexchange.com/questions/52415/why-would-it-matter-whether-a-front-loading-washer-is-upstairs/52416#52416) (*They will only give me a free FRONT-loader if it's on the first or basement floors*...)
*Why* they would only offer it in this way has been speculated about; *how* it is economically viable for the power company to do this at all, isn't.
The power and gas companies in my area have offered similar rebates and incentives that I would think to be counter-intuitive to their business. **Why would the power company offer an incentive for having equipment that would use less power?**
My less than educated guess is that it's a 'government thing' or they're somehow trying to deal with demand spikes. But the latter wouldn't explain why the gas company would give you a rebate for upgrading to a HE furnace or a programmable thermostat. | 2014/11/07 | [
"https://diy.stackexchange.com/questions/52446",
"https://diy.stackexchange.com",
"https://diy.stackexchange.com/users/23295/"
] | The utility company wants to reduce **PEAK** demand -- it is much cheaper to ensure that power demand never goes above X than to build a new power plant. Furthermore, balancing the peaks and valleys of demand means that they can generally use cheaper power sources (nuclear/hydro) and avoid the expensive gas/oil fired plants.
A washing machine has a giant heater in it, and a front-loader uses less water and thus less heat to heat it up. Hence the utility no longer has to plan for so much more peak demand... | Very simply, because otherwise they may be forced to do things they like even less -- make a huge investment in infrastructure, for example, to provide enough power to serve all the customers.
There are also government incentives (carbon credits and so on) and PR benefits.
Put those together, and it's worth the relatively small amount of money they're investing. Especially when they're in competition with the other energy sources (gas vs. oil vs. electric) and want to encourage you to continue, for example, heating with gas rather than switching to oil. |
52,446 | Originally asked as a follow up question, and lost in the controversy of [Why would it matter whether a front-loading washer is upstairs?](https://diy.stackexchange.com/questions/52415/why-would-it-matter-whether-a-front-loading-washer-is-upstairs/52416#52416) (*They will only give me a free FRONT-loader if it's on the first or basement floors*...)
*Why* they would only offer it in this way has been speculated about; *how* it is economically viable for the power company to do this at all, isn't.
The power and gas companies in my area have offered similar rebates and incentives that I would think to be counter-intuitive to their business. **Why would the power company offer an incentive for having equipment that would use less power?**
My less than educated guess is that it's a 'government thing' or they're somehow trying to deal with demand spikes. But the latter wouldn't explain why the gas company would give you a rebate for upgrading to a HE furnace or a programmable thermostat. | 2014/11/07 | [
"https://diy.stackexchange.com/questions/52446",
"https://diy.stackexchange.com",
"https://diy.stackexchange.com/users/23295/"
] | The utility company wants to reduce **PEAK** demand -- it is much cheaper to ensure that power demand never goes above X than to build a new power plant. Furthermore, balancing the peaks and valleys of demand means that they can generally use cheaper power sources (nuclear/hydro) and avoid the expensive gas/oil fired plants.
A washing machine has a giant heater in it, and a front-loader uses less water and thus less heat to heat it up. Hence the utility no longer has to plan for so much more peak demand... | In many areas, electric utilities are strictly regulated, and may be subject to political forces as much as they are to market forces. Subsidies to customers to promote the purchase of energy-efficient equipment might win the favor of politicians responsible for setting tax policies, environmental regulations, electric rates, etc., and the value of such favor to shareholders may in some cases exceed the money spent.
Although efficiency improvements with things like air conditioners may help a company to reduce its peak power demands, some subsidized appliances would be used largely during off-peak hours. On the other hand, if an electric company wants to build a new plant, apparent efforts to reduce demand and improve the environment may help it clear the regulatory hurdles necessary to do so. |
375,556 | Does anyone have any advice on how one might georeference/orthorectify oblique imagery taken over the open ocean from a manned aircraft? The aircraft will have an RTK-enabled GNSS/INS onboard. I was thinking we could use the timestamps to link the position of the aircraft with the imagery. However, this is only one piece of the puzzle, as we would need to stretch the image to fit it into its position on the ground.
Since we will know the position, heading and height of the aircraft and the angle at which the images are being taken, surely we have all the information we need, but how would it work in practice? | 2020/10/01 | [
"https://gis.stackexchange.com/questions/375556",
"https://gis.stackexchange.com",
"https://gis.stackexchange.com/users/18974/"
] | Orthorectification consists of two image adjustments corresponding to the sensor model and the terrain relief. Over the ocean you should be able to ignore the latter because the ocean is defined as 'sea level' so ellipsoidal height is sufficient.
[OSSIM has a utility](https://trac.osgeo.org/ossim/wiki/orthorectification) to produce orthos which allows for ignoring DTM elevation relief, so with the right inputs this should be able to create orthos over the ocean.
Two issues will be:
* creating a sensor model to supply the correct inputs, and
* validating the orthophoto mosaic results | First you will have to calculate external orientations for the images using the GNSS/INS. Normally you would do aerial triangulation to further improve the EO so that your ortho rectified images would fit together even better and also include ground control points to assess accuracy.
Since you have mainly open water. You can forget about doing an AT with automatic tie point collection. It will find false tie points that will mess up the AT result. So you can only rely on the GNSS/INS. |
16,710,303 | Which **Python WEB frameworks** are based on the [Werkzeug](http://werkzeug.pocoo.org/) library?
I'm implementing adapters for a package to be used with various WEB frameworks. Currently I 'm working on a Flask adapter to inherit from a Werkzeug base adapter. This would make implementation of adapters for other Werkzeug based frameworks very easy. I created a Webapp2 adapter based on WebObBaseAdapter this way.
I just would like to have a list of all the frameworks that use or are built around Werkzeug. I wonder whether there are any except Flask. | 2013/05/23 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/16710303",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1493220/"
] | Flask
<http://flask.pocoo.org/docs/>
Flask depends on two external libraries: the Jinja2 template engine and the Werkzeug WSGI toolkit. | >
> Flask is a microframework for Python based on Werkzeug, Jinja 2 and good intentions.
>
>
>
The documentation is easy to understand. You can start here [Flask Homepage](http://flask.pocoo.org/) |
377,971 | I am running a Ubuntu Linux image in VMWare Player on my laptop. The host is Windows XP.
There are two network adapters configured in VMWare Player - one is host-only and the other is bridged. Everything works fine as long as the host does not lose network connectivity.
If the host loses connectivity (even briefly) and then re-acquires it, my bridged adapter in VMWare Player is still unable to get an IP address. The host-only adapter remains unaffected. Disconnecting/Reconnecting the bridged adapter does not help. Simply restarting the guest OS does not help. Restarting VMWare Player does not help. The only remedy is to reboot the host and then bring up VMWare Player all over again.
Is there something I can try to avoid this reboot? I searched the existing questions but they seemed to talk about adapters in NAT mode, whereas I am interested in retaining Bridged mode. | 2012/04/10 | [
"https://serverfault.com/questions/377971",
"https://serverfault.com",
"https://serverfault.com/users/116960/"
] | There should be an option there to communicate the host computer's network connectivity state to the guest that you can uncheck. Is VMware tools installed on the guest?
 | I have spend some lot time on the same problem i have find the solution without need to rebooting or installing vmware tools !
In fact the problem is very vicious because :
* It's appear only with linux guest, never on windows guest.
* you can accumulate it with an other well know problem who appear after copying your VM guest and know as udev / netrules problem / bab mac address in net rules )but there is any relation between this 2 facts.
This is logical to think that the problem came from your guest VM but **in fact the problem came only from your host.**
On your host you certainly have installed some other nics as “virtualbox host only”, “loopback microsoft” “physical NICS bind to an other network ”, “bleutooth dongle” ...
When you bridge a vm guest directly to the physical network vmware in fact your are connected to the vmnet0 -> workstation assign / fix automatically the NIC to use without as you something and sometime it do not choose the good one ...
VMWARE Workstation never ask you to choose the NIC physical link in order to be connected to the physical network where you got your DHCP (in my case a monowall) and sometime he decided to bind your guest to a logical NIC … without DHCP server, finaly you never get your DHCP lease.
How to solve the problem :
It’s easy you only need to choose and apply the good NIC in \*\*the virtual network editor \*\* in workstation in order to fix this problem.
Have a nice day !
***Nota: Sorry but i can't post any image I am new on this forum → my reputation is to low …*** |
43,677 | **Definition of Convergent evolution** - from [Wikipedia > Convergent Evolution](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Convergent_evolution)
>
> Convergent evolution is the independent evolution of similar features in species of different lineages. Convergent evolution creates analogous structures that have similar form or function, but that were not present in the last common ancestor of those groups.
>
>
>
**Examples**
-- *Lactase* --
Humans have evolved the ability to digest lactose at adult age twice; once in Europe and once in Africa. **Different mutations** are involved in European lineage and in African lineages.
Source: [Tishkoff et al. (2007)](http://www.nature.com/ng/journal/v39/n1/abs/ng1946.html)
-- *White fur* --
Beach mice and mammoths have both evolved white fur independently. **The same mutation** is involved in both lineages.
Source: [Römpler (2006)](http://science.sciencemag.org/content/313/5783/62.short)
**Question**
Is there a term to differentiate convergent evolution that involves the same mutation in different lineages from convergent evolution that involves different mutations in different lineages? | 2016/02/25 | [
"https://biology.stackexchange.com/questions/43677",
"https://biology.stackexchange.com",
"https://biology.stackexchange.com/users/4108/"
] | As you already know [convergent evolution](https://www.sciencedaily.com/terms/convergent_evolution.htm) is when two separate lineages evolve the same (or similar) trait, and this is generally assumed to be a result of similar selection. [For example](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_examples_of_convergent_evolution), if flying helps both birds and bats catch insects to eat, then convergent evolution of flight is somewhat unsurprising. Other examples include [those of mimicry](http://www.zo.utexas.edu/courses/THOC/Convergence.html) where the convergence on a common colour patterning reduces predation rates.
The wikipedia page on convergent evolution does a pretty good job of explaining the subtle [difference between parallel and convergent](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Convergent_evolution#Parallel_vs._convergent_evolution) with its illustration. In convergent evolution, two lineages have dissimilar starting points and arrive independently at similar end points. In parallel evolution, two lineages have similar start points and arrive independently at similar end points.
>
> ["...a *convergent change* at an amino acid site refers to changes from different ancestral amino acids to the same descendant amino acid along independent evolutionary lineages ... It is distinguished from a *parallel change*, in which amino acid changes along independent lineages have occurred from the same ancestral amino acid (see fig. 1A for examples). Both convergent and parallel evolution, if verified, suggest adaptive evolution."](http://www.kumarlab.net/pdf_new/ZhangKumar97.pdf)
>
>
>
This, and [other sources (page 113)](https://books.google.se/books/about/Elements_of_Evolutionary_Genetics.html?id=dgNFAQAAIAAJ&redir_esc=y), suggests that convergent and parallel evolution/change/mutation are relevant terms. In your context you are looking for a term to differentiate two cases.
* Case 1: convergent evolution of a trait, by *different* mutations; either different nucleotides at the same site, or mutations at different sites. This is seen in your lactase example.
* Case 2: convergent evolution of a trait, by *the same* mutations; the same nucleotide changes at the same site(s). This is seen in your white fur example.
**A key point is that your are looking at convergence at two different levels, phenotypic and molecular.** In both cases you have convergent evolution at the phenotypic trait level. The cases differ at the molecular level where you have convergent and non-convergent mutation respectively. I have found one term being used in [this paper](https://www.researchgate.net/profile/Guillaume_Besnard/publication/45504413_Causes_and_evolutionary_significance_of_genetic_convergence/links/0deec51a46d3536bb5000000.pdf).
>
> ["In some cases it has been shown that different loci are involved in phenotypic convergence (e.g. Refs [8,25,26]), demonstrating that similar phenotypes can be reached through alterations of distinct enzymes. However, other studies have traced phenotypic convergence to modifications of homologous genes (e.g. Refs [3,5,6,26,27]); in this paper such phenomena will be further referred to as convergent recruitment (Glossary)."](https://www.researchgate.net/profile/Guillaume_Besnard/publication/45504413_Causes_and_evolutionary_significance_of_genetic_convergence/links/0deec51a46d3536bb5000000.pdf)
>
>
>
I think the term you are looking you are looking for would be **convergent recruitment** to describe case 2, and some form of antonym\* for case 1, perhaps you could say **non-convergent recruitment**. However, *non-convergent* could make it sound like no convergence is occurring so I'm not a fan and you should be careful in any papers to clarify. I'd say something like:
>
> "Phenotypic convergence by the recruitment of different genes and/or mutations is herein referred to as non-convergent recruitment, in this case convergent evolution is occurring but through non-homologous changes at the molecular level."
>
>
>
You would then have to be consistent in your writing, talking about the phenotypic level as *(non-)convergent evolution* and molecular level as *(non-)convergent recruitment*. E.g.
>
> "The convergent evolution of flight occurred as a result of non-convergent recruitment."
>
>
>
---
\* *I couldn't find an established antonym term, and as I suggest in the post, I don't think non-convergent recruitment is a perfect antonym, we could discuss it in chat or the comments to try to come up with some new terminology. Perhaps "**non-homologous convergent evolution**" or "**non-genetic convergence**" would work? In [this paper](http://www.pnas.org/content/107/5/2113.full) they simply refer to it as "convergence through different mutations".* | I'm not aware of a specific term for this. In the places I can find the concept discussed in the literature ([here](http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC525686/) and [here](http://biorxiv.org/content/biorxiv/early/2014/06/27/006684.full.pdf)), the authors simply describe the pattern as "the same [...] mutation in two lineages" and "parallel mutation in two lineages". |
66,104 | I've been running Tomcat 5.5 with Java 1.4 for a while now with a huge webapp. Most of the time it runs fine, but sometimes it will just hang, with no exception generated, and no apparant way of getting it to run again other than re-starting Tomcat. The tomcat instance is allowed a gigabyte of memory on the heap, but rarely exceeds 300 MB. Has anyone else run into this issue, and is there a solution for it?
For clarification: I determined how much memory it is using via Task Manager and via Eclipse (I've also tried running it outside of Eclipse, but get the same problem eventually, though it takes a little longer). With Eclipse, I look at the memory allocated via its little (optional) memory pane and the amount allocated to javaw.exe via the task manager. I use the sysdeo? tomcat plugin for Eclipse. | 2008/09/15 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/66104",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/8026/"
] | For any jvm process, force a thread dump. In windows, this can be done with CTRL-BREAK, I believe, in the console window.
In \*nix, it is almost always "kill -3 jvm-pid".
This may show if you have threads waiting on db connection pool/thread pool, etc.
Another thing to check out is how many connections you have currently to the JVM -- either use NETSTAT or SysInternals utility such as tcpconn/tcpview (google it).
Also, try to run with the verbose:gc JVM flag. For Sun's JVM, run like "java -verbose:gc". This will show your garbage collections. If it is collecting a lot (FULL COLLECTIONS, expecially) then you probably have a memory leak. The full collections are costly, especially on large heaps like that.
How are you determining that only 300mb are being used? | It sounds like you're hitting a deadlock.
If you can reproduce it in a dev environment then try attaching a debugger once it's happened. Take a look at your threads and see if you have any deadlocks.
If you can't get a debugger to attach you should be able to generate a thread dump, as Dustin pointed out. |
66,104 | I've been running Tomcat 5.5 with Java 1.4 for a while now with a huge webapp. Most of the time it runs fine, but sometimes it will just hang, with no exception generated, and no apparant way of getting it to run again other than re-starting Tomcat. The tomcat instance is allowed a gigabyte of memory on the heap, but rarely exceeds 300 MB. Has anyone else run into this issue, and is there a solution for it?
For clarification: I determined how much memory it is using via Task Manager and via Eclipse (I've also tried running it outside of Eclipse, but get the same problem eventually, though it takes a little longer). With Eclipse, I look at the memory allocated via its little (optional) memory pane and the amount allocated to javaw.exe via the task manager. I use the sysdeo? tomcat plugin for Eclipse. | 2008/09/15 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/66104",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/8026/"
] | For any jvm process, force a thread dump. In windows, this can be done with CTRL-BREAK, I believe, in the console window.
In \*nix, it is almost always "kill -3 jvm-pid".
This may show if you have threads waiting on db connection pool/thread pool, etc.
Another thing to check out is how many connections you have currently to the JVM -- either use NETSTAT or SysInternals utility such as tcpconn/tcpview (google it).
Also, try to run with the verbose:gc JVM flag. For Sun's JVM, run like "java -verbose:gc". This will show your garbage collections. If it is collecting a lot (FULL COLLECTIONS, expecially) then you probably have a memory leak. The full collections are costly, especially on large heaps like that.
How are you determining that only 300mb are being used? | Try increasing the logging sensitivity for the Tomcat application server.
<http://tomcat.apache.org/tomcat-5.5-doc/logging.html>
You can increase the sensitivity to FINEST or ALL for most of them for a few days and see if that helps you catch anything. |
66,104 | I've been running Tomcat 5.5 with Java 1.4 for a while now with a huge webapp. Most of the time it runs fine, but sometimes it will just hang, with no exception generated, and no apparant way of getting it to run again other than re-starting Tomcat. The tomcat instance is allowed a gigabyte of memory on the heap, but rarely exceeds 300 MB. Has anyone else run into this issue, and is there a solution for it?
For clarification: I determined how much memory it is using via Task Manager and via Eclipse (I've also tried running it outside of Eclipse, but get the same problem eventually, though it takes a little longer). With Eclipse, I look at the memory allocated via its little (optional) memory pane and the amount allocated to javaw.exe via the task manager. I use the sysdeo? tomcat plugin for Eclipse. | 2008/09/15 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/66104",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/8026/"
] | For any jvm process, force a thread dump. In windows, this can be done with CTRL-BREAK, I believe, in the console window.
In \*nix, it is almost always "kill -3 jvm-pid".
This may show if you have threads waiting on db connection pool/thread pool, etc.
Another thing to check out is how many connections you have currently to the JVM -- either use NETSTAT or SysInternals utility such as tcpconn/tcpview (google it).
Also, try to run with the verbose:gc JVM flag. For Sun's JVM, run like "java -verbose:gc". This will show your garbage collections. If it is collecting a lot (FULL COLLECTIONS, expecially) then you probably have a memory leak. The full collections are costly, especially on large heaps like that.
How are you determining that only 300mb are being used? | I agree with creating multiple thread dumps and viewing them though this: [Thread Dump Analyzer](http://today.java.net/pub/n/TDA1.1) |
75,232 | I have the following problem:
* too many machines.
* some groups of machines share the same cron configuration, some not.
* sometimes, I need to add a crontab entry manually in hundreds of machines.
* I'm always making mistakes, which my B.O.S.S doesn't seem to like...
Is there some tool hopefully (with a web interface, and gnu) to manage this sort of thing?
Thanks wise people !!
CM | 2009/10/16 | [
"https://serverfault.com/questions/75232",
"https://serverfault.com",
"https://serverfault.com/users/9895/"
] | *Configuration management systems* such as [Puppet](http://reductivelabs.com/trac/puppet), [Capistrano](http://www.capify.org/index.php/Capistrano) and [CFEngine](http://www.cfengine.org) are tools which will do this and a whole lot more.
If you're having to manage many machines for cron, you'll probably have a bunch of other things you have to configure on those machines too, so sooner or later you'll need to investigate more than just managing the cronjobs...
They have very good tutorials and documentation on the Puppet site ([see here](http://reductivelabs.com/trac/puppet/wiki/GettingStarted)), and they're not too painful to get set up.
If it's hundreds of machines, get up and running with them as soon as you can and you'll wonder how you managed to cope without them (even for something simple like just pushing the cronjobs to lots of machines)! | With a configuration management tool like puppet (or cfengine, bcfg2, etc.), you can manage a lot more than crontabs from a centralized location. |
75,232 | I have the following problem:
* too many machines.
* some groups of machines share the same cron configuration, some not.
* sometimes, I need to add a crontab entry manually in hundreds of machines.
* I'm always making mistakes, which my B.O.S.S doesn't seem to like...
Is there some tool hopefully (with a web interface, and gnu) to manage this sort of thing?
Thanks wise people !!
CM | 2009/10/16 | [
"https://serverfault.com/questions/75232",
"https://serverfault.com",
"https://serverfault.com/users/9895/"
] | The answer is automation (cfengine/puppet/bcfg2/chef/others). But those won't really help you unless you can keep them under strict control. You can easily obtain that in two steps:
* get a source code management repository running - i recommend subversion to start with
* integrate the scm with an automation tool of your choice
So move all your crons in /etc/cron.d/ and use a naming scheme that accomodates your systems. Second , put all /etc/cron.d/ directories in subversion and have local checkouts on each machine. You will be able to manage everything manually and have a history of your changes, be able to track any machines that do not have the latest crontabs and so forth. Then you can get an automation software to do all this for you.
If you really need something quick and dirty you should have a *single* file , let's say /etc/cron.d/all-jobs , deployed on on all machines and decide in that file if a cron is supposed to run or not based on the hostname.
Something like:
\*/5 \* \* \* \* root [[ $HOSTNAME == 'myhostname' ]] && /usr/bin/job.sh
This is not very efficient but it should make your life easier until you get some automation going on. | With a configuration management tool like puppet (or cfengine, bcfg2, etc.), you can manage a lot more than crontabs from a centralized location. |
75,232 | I have the following problem:
* too many machines.
* some groups of machines share the same cron configuration, some not.
* sometimes, I need to add a crontab entry manually in hundreds of machines.
* I'm always making mistakes, which my B.O.S.S doesn't seem to like...
Is there some tool hopefully (with a web interface, and gnu) to manage this sort of thing?
Thanks wise people !!
CM | 2009/10/16 | [
"https://serverfault.com/questions/75232",
"https://serverfault.com",
"https://serverfault.com/users/9895/"
] | *Configuration management systems* such as [Puppet](http://reductivelabs.com/trac/puppet), [Capistrano](http://www.capify.org/index.php/Capistrano) and [CFEngine](http://www.cfengine.org) are tools which will do this and a whole lot more.
If you're having to manage many machines for cron, you'll probably have a bunch of other things you have to configure on those machines too, so sooner or later you'll need to investigate more than just managing the cronjobs...
They have very good tutorials and documentation on the Puppet site ([see here](http://reductivelabs.com/trac/puppet/wiki/GettingStarted)), and they're not too painful to get set up.
If it's hundreds of machines, get up and running with them as soon as you can and you'll wonder how you managed to cope without them (even for something simple like just pushing the cronjobs to lots of machines)! | The answer is automation (cfengine/puppet/bcfg2/chef/others). But those won't really help you unless you can keep them under strict control. You can easily obtain that in two steps:
* get a source code management repository running - i recommend subversion to start with
* integrate the scm with an automation tool of your choice
So move all your crons in /etc/cron.d/ and use a naming scheme that accomodates your systems. Second , put all /etc/cron.d/ directories in subversion and have local checkouts on each machine. You will be able to manage everything manually and have a history of your changes, be able to track any machines that do not have the latest crontabs and so forth. Then you can get an automation software to do all this for you.
If you really need something quick and dirty you should have a *single* file , let's say /etc/cron.d/all-jobs , deployed on on all machines and decide in that file if a cron is supposed to run or not based on the hostname.
Something like:
\*/5 \* \* \* \* root [[ $HOSTNAME == 'myhostname' ]] && /usr/bin/job.sh
This is not very efficient but it should make your life easier until you get some automation going on. |
115,376 | 
I’m trying to make a couple edited photos and found this font that I would really wanna use. Please help me out, thanks! | 2018/09/27 | [
"https://graphicdesign.stackexchange.com/questions/115376",
"https://graphicdesign.stackexchange.com",
"https://graphicdesign.stackexchange.com/users/127544/"
] | It is **Nimbus Sans Round Bold**
* [MyFonts](https://www.myfonts.com/fonts/urw/nimbus-sans-round/bold/)
* [Typekit](https://typekit.com/fonts/nimbus-sans/details/nimbus-sans-round-bold)
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/zycHC.jpg) | here's what i found, hope it can help
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/RvqbQ.png) |
185,575 | [](https://i.stack.imgur.com/9NJct.png)
How can I add a total (sum) at the bottom of this table? I would like to sum the vines and Acerage columns. Using Arcmap. | 2016/03/18 | [
"https://gis.stackexchange.com/questions/185575",
"https://gis.stackexchange.com",
"https://gis.stackexchange.com/users/63423/"
] | I'm assuming that you're using ArcMap. The attribute table is not Excel. It doesn't have the ability to summarise data. You could do one of the following:
1. Manually create another row or text element and populate the data.
2. Export the data to Excel and run the sums there. Then copy and paste the table back into ArcMap. | You could also export the attribute table to a .dbase file and **then click** **and drag** that file into Excel. If you try to use open sometimes it doesn't work. |
14,247 | In the book [*The Lawful and the Prohibited in Islam*](http://it.scribd.com/doc/20569051/The-Lawful-and-the-Prohibited-in-Islam) Shaykh Yusuf al-Qaradawi made a claim:
>
> Researchers have proven that chess did not appear until after the
> death of the Prophet
>
>
>
Did chess not appear until after the death of the Prophet? | 2012/12/26 | [
"https://skeptics.stackexchange.com/questions/14247",
"https://skeptics.stackexchange.com",
"https://skeptics.stackexchange.com/users/8702/"
] | Well, I guess it would depend a lot on what you consider the first chess game, really. If we're talking about the modern chess game, then yes, chess didn't appear until after the death of the Prophet. In [The Oxford Companion to Chess](https://rads.stackoverflow.com/amzn/click/0198661649), Hooper and Whyld explain that the modern chess rules evolved from the game of shatranj (or chatrang) between 1200 and 1500, way after the coming of the Prophet.
However, if we are talking about the *concept* of chess and accept chess-like games as evidence for the development of the modern chess game, then it is safe to assume that chess-like games existed way before the coming of the Prophet. According to chess historian [Gerhard Josten](http://www.gerhard-josten.de/app/download/17252333/CHESS%2B-%2BA%2BLIVING%2BFOSSIL.pdf), the three core types of pieces found in chess can be traced to games played in different regions of the world way before the rise of the Muslims.
>
> Type 1: A relatively immobile central piece, the goal of the game being to paralyse this
> piece. The way in which it can be paralysed varies.
>
>
>
In the modern game of chess, the King is the only type 1 piece. Its role is crucial, as it provides the means to victory. Such pieces were found in [Liubo](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Liubo), a game that was very popular in the Han dynasty (206 BC – 220 AD) in China, even though it was probably invented a few centuries before that time. As such, the core concept of chess, the key to victory, is borrowed from games that existed in China between 2000 and 3000 years ago, definitely before the Prophet's time.
>
> Type 2: A number of pieces which can make various longer moves and – with some exceptions
> – can move in all directions without restriction.
>
>
>
In modern chess, these pieces would include the bishop, the rook, the queen and, if stretched a bit, knights. Josten believes that these pieces are inspired by tools used to divine the future in ancient Mesopotamia. The pieces were used in conjunction with an astrolabe, and probably greatly influenced the development of the byzantine chess game that played on a circular board, a game that also appeared before the coming of the Prophet.
>
> Type 3: A number of pieces which can only move forwards, and if needs be sideways too.
>
>
>
The pawn would be the best example of this type of pieces. Josten believes that these simpler pieces come from the old race-type games that were very popular throughout the ages in India. In pachisi, the Indian national game, the pieces advance on a fixed track to reach the end goal, capturing the adersaries' pieces along the way. In such games, the pieces usually can't diverge from their original course and it is impossible for them to move backwards, much like the chess' pawns.
Josten concludes that a tri-parallel development must have been possible.
>
> The Near Eastern astrolabe with its differentiated pieces assimilated
> the Chinese central piece and the Indian race pieces. The result in
> the Near East would have been a game of chess played on a circular
> board: a game like Byzantine chess. The game did not survive in this
> form. Whether and how its circular board was replaced by a square grid
> in a further phase and became the predecessor of the Western game of
> chess will have to be clarified at a later date.
>
>
> The Near Eastern differentiated pieces and the Chinese central piece
> were added to the Indian 8x8 board for Asthapada with race pieces and
> the use of dice. The result in India would thus have been four-handed
> chess, the first Indian type of chess at all, a game that practically
> no longer exists today. The dice and the game for four was retained
> whilst the Chinese central piece lost its function.
>
>
> The Near Eastern differentiated pieces and the Indian race pieces were
> adopted in the as yet unknown, early form of the Chinese chess game
> Xiangqi. This led to a game in China which, under the influence of
> Liubo and Weiqi, experienced its own separate development, the
> individual phases of which we still know little about. The river on
> the Xiangqi board, unknown in all other chess games, almost certainly
> came from Liubo, the central field of which according to Röllicke
> was called "Water". I regard this a further, very important indication
> of the kinship of old games.
>
>
>
These games evolved in parallel and influenced each other. Chess historian [Isaac Linder](http://ukbookworld.com/book-for-sale/tonypeterson/1510/linder-chess-old-russia-translated-rice) suggests that the Kushan Empire, a region located at the crossroads of the places that gave birth to the games Josten suggests as being the core influences on chess' development, might be the birthplace of the chess game. Linder has presented pieces of a game that clearly resembles chess but predate shatranj. It is not impossible that the game of shatranj itself was influenced by this game, as elephant-like pieces were among those uncovered.
By combining those two sources, it is possible to conclude that the game of shatranj evolved from an earlier game that appeared in the Kushan Empire between 50 BC and 200 AD as a result of the combination of concepts borrowed from sophisticated games found in nearby regions.
Chris' answer relates very well how the Muslim world came upon the game of chess/shatranj, and also hints at the fact that the muslims probably did not invent it, but rather propagated it. I hope this answer helped you understand the birth of this wonderful game. I highly suggest reading the [Josten article](http://www.gerhard-josten.de/app/download/17252333/CHESS%2B-%2BA%2BLIVING%2BFOSSIL.pdf), as it is well documented and referenced, as well as being a fascinating read. | According to the [origin of chess](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/History_of_chess#Origin) on Wikipedia,
>
> The earliest precursor of modern chess is a game called chaturanga,
> which flourished in India by the 6th century, and is the earliest
> known game to have two essential features found in all later chess
> variations — different pieces having different powers (which was not
> the case with checkers and go), and victory depending on the fate of
> one piece, the king of modern chess.
>
>
>
The article then goes on the explain the transition of chess to Persia and then the transition to the Muslim world.
>
> Chess was introduced to Persia from India and became a part of the
> princely or courtly education of Persian nobility. In Sassanid
> Persia around 600 the name became chatrang, which subsequently evolved
> to shatranj, due to Arab Muslim’s lack of ch and ng native sounds,
> and the rules were developed further. Players started calling "Shāh!"
> (Persian for "King!") when attacking the opponent's king, and "Shāh
> Māt!" (Persian for "the king is helpless" – see checkmate) when the
> king was attacked and could not escape from attack. These exclamations
> persisted in chess as it traveled to other lands.
>
>
> The game was taken up by the Muslim world after the Islamic conquest
> of Persia, with the pieces largely keeping their Persian names.
>
>
>
As [this page on the origin of chess](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/History_of_chess#Origin) says, the game was taken up by the Muslim world after the [Islamic conquest of Persia](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Islamic_conquest_of_Persia).
>
> The Arab conquest of Persia (Persian: تجاوز اعراب Tajāvoz-e Arāb "the
> attack of the Arabs" or ظهور اسلام zohur-e eslâm "the dawn of Islam"),
> led to the end of the Sassanid Empire in 644, the fall of Sassanid
> dynasty in 651.
>
>
>
Since this conquest did not completely end until 651 and Muhammad died [June 8, 632 AD](https://www.google.com/search?q=when%20did%20muhammad%20die&ie=utf-8&oe=utf-8&aq=t&rls=org.mozilla%3aen-US%3aofficial&client=firefox-beta), one could argue that chess was not brought to the Muslim world until 651, which is well after the death of Muhammad.
However chess continued to develop until the 19th century when the bishop and queen were changed so they could move how they do now and several other rules of the game were changed.
>
> The queen and bishop remained relatively weak until between 1475
> AD and 1500 AD, in either Spain, Portugal, France or Italy, the
> queen's and bishop's modern moves started and spread, making chess
> close to its modern form. This form of chess got such names as
> "Queen's Chess" or "Mad Queen Chess" (Italian alla rabiosa = "with the
> madwoman"). This led to much more value being attached to the
> previously minor tactic of pawn promotion. Checkmate became easier
> and games could now be won in fewer moves. These new rules
> quickly spread throughout Western Europe and in Spain, with
> the exception of the rules about stalemate, which were finalized in
> the early 19th century. The modern move of the Queen may have
> started as an extension of its older ability to once move two squares
> with jump, diagonally or straight.
>
>
>
Following this evidence the Muslims had chess by at least 651, which is after Muhammad had died. There is considerable evidence that they did not invent the game, [but mainly helped pass the game from Persia to Europe](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/History_of_chess#Arab_world). As far as the game and its rules are concerned, most of it appears to have been developed in India and Persia (pre-Islamic conquering) and then later modified to its modern form largely due to [Western Europe and Spain](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/History_of_chess#Origins_of_the_modern_game).
I know a lot of these sources are from Wikipedia, but they were the only ones that I could find with citations in them. There are [other](http://www.chessncrafts.com/chess-history.html) [articles](http://library.thinkquest.org/26408/feature/chess_history.shtml) about [this](http://www.chessdryad.com/articles/wcc/transcribed/origin.htm) with [similar](http://www.mark-weeks.com/aboutcom/aa06a14.htm) information, but have no citations. |
325,287 | There exists this qeustion about MOSFET advantages over BJT's [Linear Regulator: MOSFET vs BJT](https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/124510)
So my question is: What advantages do BJT's have over MOSFETS ?
So far I have these advantages:
* They operate better under high load than MOSFETS
* They operate better with higher frequencies than MOSFETS
What else did I miss ? | 2017/08/22 | [
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/325287",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/133470/"
] | BJT generally offers more gain and higher fidelity in the linear region than FET | They can be considerably less expensive for equivalent functionality.
For higher voltages, BJTs can be a better choice, for example the MPSA42/MMBTA42 for switching 100s of volts at low current. Many CCFL lamps use BJTs (eg. MJE13003) for that reason. |
10,521 | Does anyone know of a webpage (or webpages) of current delistings for NASDAQ & NYSE? | 2014/03/10 | [
"https://quant.stackexchange.com/questions/10521",
"https://quant.stackexchange.com",
"https://quant.stackexchange.com/users/2952/"
] | Each listing exchange maintains lists of **exchange-initiated** and **issuer-initiated** delistings. Per the exchanges, an issue will appear on this list the first trading day after the issuer provides the venue with notification of its intent to voluntarily delist. An issue will also appear on this list if it has been suspended for failure to meet continued listing requirements or due to other events, such as expiration, redemption or acquisition.
Issues will remain on these lists until the first business day after the issue is delisted. An issue is generally delisted 10 calendar days from the date the Form 25, Notification of Removal from Listing and/or Registration, is filed with the Securities and Exchange Commission. These forms can be viewed on the [SEC site](https://searchwww.sec.gov/EDGARFSClient/jsp/EDGAR_MainAccess.jsp?search_text=*&sort=Date&formType=Form25&isAdv=true&stemming=true&numResults=100&numResults=100). This is an authoritative source for past delistings.
The lists of current delistings can be found on each listing exchanges' websites:
* [Nasdaq](https://listingcenter.nasdaq.com/IssuersPendingSuspensionDelisting.aspx)
* [NYSE (including NYSE American & NYSE ARCA)](http://www.nyse.com/regulation/delistings)
* [Cboe BZX](https://markets.cboe.com/us/equities/etfmarketplace/listed_products/suspensions_delistings/)
It is also worth keeping an eye on the non-compliant company list maintained by listing exchanges as these are likely to become delisted in the future unless they correct the particular deficiencies:
* [Nasdaq](https://listingcenter.nasdaq.com/NonCompliantCompanyList.aspx)
* [NYSE (including NYSE American & NYSE ARCA)](https://www.nyse.com/regulation/noncompliant-issuers)
* [Cboe BZX](https://markets.cboe.com/us/equities/etfmarketplace/listed_products/below_standard/) | See link bellow for delisting:
<https://listingcenter.nasdaq.com/IssuersPendingSuspensionDelisting.aspx> |
121,081 | I'm currently working on my bachelor thesis in the major of Information Systems and I'm coding a small tool, which analyses other programs based on pre-defined conditions.
So now I'm looking for an English noun, which describes **"an object that fulfils a condition"**.
For example a condition could possibly check the type of an object. Like "is object x of type Integer?". I'm looking for a noun describing *x*.
Is it possible to use the word *"trigger"* or something like *"fulfiller"* in this context?
Which word fits best? | 2013/08/01 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/121081",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/48911/"
] | Nouns like *trigger, fulfiller, satisfier* all have problems as words to describe *x* in the question “Is object *x* of type Integer?” or in similar questions. In the question as just shown, *x* is a ***[formal argument](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Function_argument#Parameters_and_arguments)*** or ***formal parameter*** that stands for a name or value to be filled in whenever the question is instanced.
In a specific question instance, where *x* has been replaced with some object or an object identifier, then the candidate object or its identifier might be called a ***solution*** (as previously suggested) if it obviously satisfied the predicate, or might be called a ***candidate*** or a ***putative solution*** or ***proposed solution*** if it's less obvious.
In the somewhat-analogous case of [molecular docking](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Docking_%28molecular%29), the following terminology is used:
>
> *Receptor* or *host* or *lock* – The "receiving" molecule, most commonly a protein or other biopolymer.
>
> *Ligand* or *guest* or *key* – The complementary partner molecule which binds to the receptor.
>
>
>
By analogy, one might refer to predicates as receptors, hosts, or locks, and to corresponding candidates as ligands, guests, or keys. Extending the analogy slightly, a candidate might be referred to as a ***[supplicant](http://en.wiktionary.org/wiki/supplicant#Noun)***. | The common term used in mathematics and other related subjects is "***satisfies***". A condition is satisfied by an object or when an event occurs and produces a certain outcome.
That which satisfies the condition is the solution (or the root of the equation depending on the context). You can also say "best fit".
I can help you better if you can reference a couple of sentences that occur before the sentence in which you want to use the word and a couple of sentences that occur after. |
121,081 | I'm currently working on my bachelor thesis in the major of Information Systems and I'm coding a small tool, which analyses other programs based on pre-defined conditions.
So now I'm looking for an English noun, which describes **"an object that fulfils a condition"**.
For example a condition could possibly check the type of an object. Like "is object x of type Integer?". I'm looking for a noun describing *x*.
Is it possible to use the word *"trigger"* or something like *"fulfiller"* in this context?
Which word fits best? | 2013/08/01 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/121081",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/48911/"
] | Nouns like *trigger, fulfiller, satisfier* all have problems as words to describe *x* in the question “Is object *x* of type Integer?” or in similar questions. In the question as just shown, *x* is a ***[formal argument](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Function_argument#Parameters_and_arguments)*** or ***formal parameter*** that stands for a name or value to be filled in whenever the question is instanced.
In a specific question instance, where *x* has been replaced with some object or an object identifier, then the candidate object or its identifier might be called a ***solution*** (as previously suggested) if it obviously satisfied the predicate, or might be called a ***candidate*** or a ***putative solution*** or ***proposed solution*** if it's less obvious.
In the somewhat-analogous case of [molecular docking](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Docking_%28molecular%29), the following terminology is used:
>
> *Receptor* or *host* or *lock* – The "receiving" molecule, most commonly a protein or other biopolymer.
>
> *Ligand* or *guest* or *key* – The complementary partner molecule which binds to the receptor.
>
>
>
By analogy, one might refer to predicates as receptors, hosts, or locks, and to corresponding candidates as ligands, guests, or keys. Extending the analogy slightly, a candidate might be referred to as a ***[supplicant](http://en.wiktionary.org/wiki/supplicant#Noun)***. | *Qualifier*. Something that qualifies. As in someone who passes a qualifying round of competition.
I am not entirely sure if your are looking for a word that means it does meet the condition or it is under consideration for the condition, but I think qualifier works fine either way. The only annoying thing is that it has the alternate meaning of "modifier".
Other ones I thought of were *match* and *fit*, but those words have many other uses so they might not work for you. |
18,240,751 | One of the requirements of one of my clients is to show a message to a user that's using an older version of Firefox, Chrome, IE or Safari. For the last two it's easy (IE 9+ and Safari 5+). But for Firefox and Chrome, the requirement is that the site supports the current and the previous version of each browser.
To get the clients browser and version is quite simple, but I need to know what is the last version of each browser. Is there any way of doing that? | 2013/08/14 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/18240751",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1221382/"
] | Well, technically, all you need is a place that keeps track of what the latest version of each browser (Ideally with a web service).
A quick Googling I was able to find: <http://www.webdevelopersnotes.com/articles/latest-browser-versions.php>
It's not a web service, but you could simply parse that HTML and get the latest version of each browser. Alternatively, you could keep track yourself and manually update this information in your database. | You should only ever have to worry about IE when it comes to version enforcement. Exception being, of course, if you need a specific API that's just not available in previous versions of Chrome/Firefox, but in that case you'd look and enforce the API, not the browser version. Adding to that, if Chrome/Firefox don't have an API, chances are even the most bleeding edge version of IE won't either, so the point is moot. The fact is Firefox and Chrome, and in part Safari, are far ahead of IE when it comes to browser hosted capabilities that trying to enforce specific versions of the former would likely be a lot of wasted time and effort to yield nothing substantial. |
18,240,751 | One of the requirements of one of my clients is to show a message to a user that's using an older version of Firefox, Chrome, IE or Safari. For the last two it's easy (IE 9+ and Safari 5+). But for Firefox and Chrome, the requirement is that the site supports the current and the previous version of each browser.
To get the clients browser and version is quite simple, but I need to know what is the last version of each browser. Is there any way of doing that? | 2013/08/14 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/18240751",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1221382/"
] | Well, technically, all you need is a place that keeps track of what the latest version of each browser (Ideally with a web service).
A quick Googling I was able to find: <http://www.webdevelopersnotes.com/articles/latest-browser-versions.php>
It's not a web service, but you could simply parse that HTML and get the latest version of each browser. Alternatively, you could keep track yourself and manually update this information in your database. | The best I could find was [this](https://stackoverflow.com/a/9538555/1221382). It has an export option that allows to export in JSON, XML... |
18,240,751 | One of the requirements of one of my clients is to show a message to a user that's using an older version of Firefox, Chrome, IE or Safari. For the last two it's easy (IE 9+ and Safari 5+). But for Firefox and Chrome, the requirement is that the site supports the current and the previous version of each browser.
To get the clients browser and version is quite simple, but I need to know what is the last version of each browser. Is there any way of doing that? | 2013/08/14 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/18240751",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1221382/"
] | Well, technically, all you need is a place that keeps track of what the latest version of each browser (Ideally with a web service).
A quick Googling I was able to find: <http://www.webdevelopersnotes.com/articles/latest-browser-versions.php>
It's not a web service, but you could simply parse that HTML and get the latest version of each browser. Alternatively, you could keep track yourself and manually update this information in your database. | I would strongly suggest that you don't check the browser version, instead try doing feature detection using, say, [Modernizr](http://modernizr.com/).
What features of your client's site depends on specific versions of each browser? If you use Modernizr you could perform a check on a feature, say some video stuff, and if the current browser does not support that feature, then display a message to the user suggesting they upgrade their browser.
Detecting browser versions via Javascript is very flakey at best. |
18,240,751 | One of the requirements of one of my clients is to show a message to a user that's using an older version of Firefox, Chrome, IE or Safari. For the last two it's easy (IE 9+ and Safari 5+). But for Firefox and Chrome, the requirement is that the site supports the current and the previous version of each browser.
To get the clients browser and version is quite simple, but I need to know what is the last version of each browser. Is there any way of doing that? | 2013/08/14 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/18240751",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1221382/"
] | Well, technically, all you need is a place that keeps track of what the latest version of each browser (Ideally with a web service).
A quick Googling I was able to find: <http://www.webdevelopersnotes.com/articles/latest-browser-versions.php>
It's not a web service, but you could simply parse that HTML and get the latest version of each browser. Alternatively, you could keep track yourself and manually update this information in your database. | The only reason I'd say you need this kind of verification is because your webpage has features only available to latest browsers. Instead of relying on version numbers, I suggest learning Modernizr.js for your website.
<http://modernizr.com/>
It can detect particular html5/css3 features individually. |
2,704 | In "X-Men Origins Wolverine", Logan undergoes an operation to have Adamantium bonded to his skeleton.
Why doesn't the Adamantium bond to his teeth? | 2012/06/08 | [
"https://movies.stackexchange.com/questions/2704",
"https://movies.stackexchange.com",
"https://movies.stackexchange.com/users/1449/"
] | Interesting point - since Wolverine is a fictional character, it could simply be because adamantium teeth are not good looking.
However according to [this article](http://sciencenordic.com/why-don%E2%80%99t-teeth-heal-themselves) It seems to be related that teeth do not have any cells to repair themselves, plus they are exposed to what we breath in and eat.
Maybe the bones that where bonded where only the ones that could repair themselves. Wolverine could heal himself quickly if not instantly, so it would stand to reason that the bones inside the body would be able to cope with the transformation, and the teeth couldn't.
Then again, it is only a theoretical answer for a fictional character. | I think the most simpliest answer is that the adamantium was **injected into his body**, where it covered his bones. In order for his teeth to be covered the injected metal would have had to ooze out of his gums into his mouth. |
2,704 | In "X-Men Origins Wolverine", Logan undergoes an operation to have Adamantium bonded to his skeleton.
Why doesn't the Adamantium bond to his teeth? | 2012/06/08 | [
"https://movies.stackexchange.com/questions/2704",
"https://movies.stackexchange.com",
"https://movies.stackexchange.com/users/1449/"
] | Interesting point - since Wolverine is a fictional character, it could simply be because adamantium teeth are not good looking.
However according to [this article](http://sciencenordic.com/why-don%E2%80%99t-teeth-heal-themselves) It seems to be related that teeth do not have any cells to repair themselves, plus they are exposed to what we breath in and eat.
Maybe the bones that where bonded where only the ones that could repair themselves. Wolverine could heal himself quickly if not instantly, so it would stand to reason that the bones inside the body would be able to cope with the transformation, and the teeth couldn't.
Then again, it is only a theoretical answer for a fictional character. | **the goal of the experiment was to bond the admantium to the bones inside the body forming the skeletal framework only**
When wolverine was 'bonded' with admantium, the experiments carried out were to inject and turn the bones into admanitum so that a skeleton of this 'super-metal' will make the body highly resistant to damage. The admantium was only injected into his bodily bones, and not over his teeth and other appendages. It is the same as asking why admantium was not put over his 'nails'. The experiment was limited only to the bones making part of body skeleton. As such, wolverines claws are automatically coated with the super-metal.
Unlike other experiments, where external claws and skin were tried to be bonded with admantium, Logan's experiment was limited to his bones. |
2,704 | In "X-Men Origins Wolverine", Logan undergoes an operation to have Adamantium bonded to his skeleton.
Why doesn't the Adamantium bond to his teeth? | 2012/06/08 | [
"https://movies.stackexchange.com/questions/2704",
"https://movies.stackexchange.com",
"https://movies.stackexchange.com/users/1449/"
] | In humans, teeth make up part of the skeletel system but they are not classified as bones. Teeth are made up of Dentin and Enamel whereas bones are made up of Osseous tissue.
So I imagine the adamantium only bonded to the Osseous and not the Dentin or Enamel which results in adamantium bones and shiny white teeth. | I think the most simpliest answer is that the adamantium was **injected into his body**, where it covered his bones. In order for his teeth to be covered the injected metal would have had to ooze out of his gums into his mouth. |
2,704 | In "X-Men Origins Wolverine", Logan undergoes an operation to have Adamantium bonded to his skeleton.
Why doesn't the Adamantium bond to his teeth? | 2012/06/08 | [
"https://movies.stackexchange.com/questions/2704",
"https://movies.stackexchange.com",
"https://movies.stackexchange.com/users/1449/"
] | In humans, teeth make up part of the skeletel system but they are not classified as bones. Teeth are made up of Dentin and Enamel whereas bones are made up of Osseous tissue.
So I imagine the adamantium only bonded to the Osseous and not the Dentin or Enamel which results in adamantium bones and shiny white teeth. | **the goal of the experiment was to bond the admantium to the bones inside the body forming the skeletal framework only**
When wolverine was 'bonded' with admantium, the experiments carried out were to inject and turn the bones into admanitum so that a skeleton of this 'super-metal' will make the body highly resistant to damage. The admantium was only injected into his bodily bones, and not over his teeth and other appendages. It is the same as asking why admantium was not put over his 'nails'. The experiment was limited only to the bones making part of body skeleton. As such, wolverines claws are automatically coated with the super-metal.
Unlike other experiments, where external claws and skin were tried to be bonded with admantium, Logan's experiment was limited to his bones. |
6,486 | I'm 1/4 through my first novel, with a pretty solid 12 page outline of the whole thing. After years of reading books about story structure, I think I have a good grasp on how to make a plot work.
My characters, however, are turning out to be quite flat, uninteresting and generic. They do have motivations and I'm putting a lot of effort into making sure they act accordingly, in a logical way according to their goals and the story seen from their perspective, etc. But they don't feel "alive".
I've read about the archetypes in The Writer's Journey, but that's about it. How can I make my characters come to life? | 2012/10/15 | [
"https://writers.stackexchange.com/questions/6486",
"https://writers.stackexchange.com",
"https://writers.stackexchange.com/users/21/"
] | Perhaps the problem you are having is you are thinking about it as "character development" not storytelling. Many writers start off working on their work with a formulaic engine of what is going to happen. They know where, when, who and why. They believe this will make their story compelling since they dot every "i" and cross every "t".
* If your characters move through your story as if they already know what is going to happen and are simply reacting to it, this removes the sense of tension you are looking for and thus they cannot "develop" or change.
* Yes, there are characters who are not changed as they move through the story. But in those stories, the environment changes completely around them. This usually means in the end of the story there is no place in the new world order for them. Think Rhett Butler in Gone with the Wind.
* Character development is what happens after something unexpected happens. If your characters are not experiencing the new, the different the unexpected and are not changing because of it, they are not developing and will remain flat as their responses to events is unchanging.
* It isn't enough to differentiate them by style of clothing or behaviors you write in with their descriptions. You have to find a way to make the reader feel them, want to know them, fear them, fear for them.
* This can only happen when you are willing to present them as fully as possible, revealing them the same way you would find if you peeled an onion. Yes, there is more onion beneath the first, but your goal is to describe the deeper layers of your characters. Just like with real people, what's on the surface is only the tiniest bit of their character. Their true desires, fears, ambitions, may stay completely hidden due to forces outside of their control, i.e. their religion, their family expectations, their social obligations, the nature of their desires, which may be considered potentially perverse or taboo in their society but not in others.
This is the tension you seek when you are looking for character development, the push-pull of the character toward his/her goal while dealing with opposing forces, inner motivations and the overall plot of the story which is what moves the character into opposition with his environment in the first place. | I think one of the problems with character development in novels is the author's liberty to spend periods of time explaining a character's motivation to a reader without the character actually having to say or do anything. A chapter that has the ostensible position in time and space of someone sitting in a chair, reflecting on a dramatic problem, is something that crops up from time to time. That reflective period can info dump a whole heap of incidents in summary and leave the character in a position where the next things they say and do are obvious to everyone.
The problem with that is that doing this is dry and it restricts the things that you need to have the character do in order to establish character through action. It also means that you miss opportunities to flesh out character through interaction and action.
There is nothing wrong with having a character make a seemingly bizarre action that they later have to explain, possibly to another character. Also it is possible that characters don't always agree with each other's motivations. These nuances of character are what flesh out the interactions and make each character grow and deepen.
I lucked into character development boot camp, I did a film-making course where I wrote a lot of scripts. They weren't great scripts but they taught me the nuts and bolts of what do when you can't just gear-shift into "exposition mode" and have a slow beat of characters reflecting on their own pasts.
If a story can get by with out that kind of thing it will be richer for it. It is a path that should only be taken when absolutely necessary. Always explain exactly as little to the reader as you need to in the moment to keep them reading the next few paragraphs. Info dumping is the gentle story killer, smothering under the guise of explaining. |
6,486 | I'm 1/4 through my first novel, with a pretty solid 12 page outline of the whole thing. After years of reading books about story structure, I think I have a good grasp on how to make a plot work.
My characters, however, are turning out to be quite flat, uninteresting and generic. They do have motivations and I'm putting a lot of effort into making sure they act accordingly, in a logical way according to their goals and the story seen from their perspective, etc. But they don't feel "alive".
I've read about the archetypes in The Writer's Journey, but that's about it. How can I make my characters come to life? | 2012/10/15 | [
"https://writers.stackexchange.com/questions/6486",
"https://writers.stackexchange.com",
"https://writers.stackexchange.com/users/21/"
] | Finish the book, then go back and look at the characters again.
When I start writing my characters are fairly generic, flat, and frankly cardboard. Character is my weakness, I love plots and ideas.
The crucial thing is that in the second draft, I then go back and add in bits of the colour, life and uniqueness which the characters have only accumulated by the last chapter.
Sometimes this will require changes to the plot (I'll realise that Rachel shouldn't have done that in Chapter 2, it doesn't fit with a part of her character I only realised in Chapter 7), but overall I find this a much more organic and natural process than trying to specify everything about a character before I know them, and as such the results tend to be much more convincing and compelling.
Your mileage may vary, but I think if you're a quarter of the way through without your characters having sparked yet, you're probably more similar to me in this respect than most! | Your problem may stem from the fact that you are writing a book too much "by the book." Characters aren't like bits of code. Unless they walk around in your subconscious, speaking and breathing and acting like real people, they won't seem like real people on the page. If your characters don't surprise you, they won't surprise anyone else. Novels are about people, not structures, and as a novelist your job is to find a structure that fits the people in your story, not the other way around. |
6,486 | I'm 1/4 through my first novel, with a pretty solid 12 page outline of the whole thing. After years of reading books about story structure, I think I have a good grasp on how to make a plot work.
My characters, however, are turning out to be quite flat, uninteresting and generic. They do have motivations and I'm putting a lot of effort into making sure they act accordingly, in a logical way according to their goals and the story seen from their perspective, etc. But they don't feel "alive".
I've read about the archetypes in The Writer's Journey, but that's about it. How can I make my characters come to life? | 2012/10/15 | [
"https://writers.stackexchange.com/questions/6486",
"https://writers.stackexchange.com",
"https://writers.stackexchange.com/users/21/"
] | When I create characters, after creating their appearance and personality, I usually try to think like them. There are almost always some key attributes of a personality, so try being that person for a while. Just thinking like them is enough.
For instance, there was once one truly evil character. For a time I forced evil thoughts to the point when I was becoming evil. I had an evil character, knew how diabolical minds think (to a certain extent) and could appropriately write about him. [: | Making realistic characters starts with knowing them. Pick your top few characters, and write a character bio. To write a bio, you must answer some questions about your characters. Here is a non-exhaustive list of a few questions to answer about your characters:
* Where were they born?
* What kind of family did they grow up in?
* What are their likes and dislikes?
* What do they look like?
* What are their core beliefs? (i.e. moral, religious, etc)
* What do they sound like (voice, dialect, etc)
* How do they interact with others?
* What type of people do they have as friends?
* What type of flaws do they have (everyone has them, and if your characters don't, they won't be believable.)
* What is their back-story?
* What culture did they grow up in?
Each question like this informs your characters, and provides a texture and richness.
Also, your main character should change through the course of the work. The typical method is giving your character a fatal flaw that he or she must overcome to achieve the goal of the story. |
6,486 | I'm 1/4 through my first novel, with a pretty solid 12 page outline of the whole thing. After years of reading books about story structure, I think I have a good grasp on how to make a plot work.
My characters, however, are turning out to be quite flat, uninteresting and generic. They do have motivations and I'm putting a lot of effort into making sure they act accordingly, in a logical way according to their goals and the story seen from their perspective, etc. But they don't feel "alive".
I've read about the archetypes in The Writer's Journey, but that's about it. How can I make my characters come to life? | 2012/10/15 | [
"https://writers.stackexchange.com/questions/6486",
"https://writers.stackexchange.com",
"https://writers.stackexchange.com/users/21/"
] | Finish the book, then go back and look at the characters again.
When I start writing my characters are fairly generic, flat, and frankly cardboard. Character is my weakness, I love plots and ideas.
The crucial thing is that in the second draft, I then go back and add in bits of the colour, life and uniqueness which the characters have only accumulated by the last chapter.
Sometimes this will require changes to the plot (I'll realise that Rachel shouldn't have done that in Chapter 2, it doesn't fit with a part of her character I only realised in Chapter 7), but overall I find this a much more organic and natural process than trying to specify everything about a character before I know them, and as such the results tend to be much more convincing and compelling.
Your mileage may vary, but I think if you're a quarter of the way through without your characters having sparked yet, you're probably more similar to me in this respect than most! | I think one of the problems with character development in novels is the author's liberty to spend periods of time explaining a character's motivation to a reader without the character actually having to say or do anything. A chapter that has the ostensible position in time and space of someone sitting in a chair, reflecting on a dramatic problem, is something that crops up from time to time. That reflective period can info dump a whole heap of incidents in summary and leave the character in a position where the next things they say and do are obvious to everyone.
The problem with that is that doing this is dry and it restricts the things that you need to have the character do in order to establish character through action. It also means that you miss opportunities to flesh out character through interaction and action.
There is nothing wrong with having a character make a seemingly bizarre action that they later have to explain, possibly to another character. Also it is possible that characters don't always agree with each other's motivations. These nuances of character are what flesh out the interactions and make each character grow and deepen.
I lucked into character development boot camp, I did a film-making course where I wrote a lot of scripts. They weren't great scripts but they taught me the nuts and bolts of what do when you can't just gear-shift into "exposition mode" and have a slow beat of characters reflecting on their own pasts.
If a story can get by with out that kind of thing it will be richer for it. It is a path that should only be taken when absolutely necessary. Always explain exactly as little to the reader as you need to in the moment to keep them reading the next few paragraphs. Info dumping is the gentle story killer, smothering under the guise of explaining. |
6,486 | I'm 1/4 through my first novel, with a pretty solid 12 page outline of the whole thing. After years of reading books about story structure, I think I have a good grasp on how to make a plot work.
My characters, however, are turning out to be quite flat, uninteresting and generic. They do have motivations and I'm putting a lot of effort into making sure they act accordingly, in a logical way according to their goals and the story seen from their perspective, etc. But they don't feel "alive".
I've read about the archetypes in The Writer's Journey, but that's about it. How can I make my characters come to life? | 2012/10/15 | [
"https://writers.stackexchange.com/questions/6486",
"https://writers.stackexchange.com",
"https://writers.stackexchange.com/users/21/"
] | Your problem may stem from the fact that you are writing a book too much "by the book." Characters aren't like bits of code. Unless they walk around in your subconscious, speaking and breathing and acting like real people, they won't seem like real people on the page. If your characters don't surprise you, they won't surprise anyone else. Novels are about people, not structures, and as a novelist your job is to find a structure that fits the people in your story, not the other way around. | I think one of the problems with character development in novels is the author's liberty to spend periods of time explaining a character's motivation to a reader without the character actually having to say or do anything. A chapter that has the ostensible position in time and space of someone sitting in a chair, reflecting on a dramatic problem, is something that crops up from time to time. That reflective period can info dump a whole heap of incidents in summary and leave the character in a position where the next things they say and do are obvious to everyone.
The problem with that is that doing this is dry and it restricts the things that you need to have the character do in order to establish character through action. It also means that you miss opportunities to flesh out character through interaction and action.
There is nothing wrong with having a character make a seemingly bizarre action that they later have to explain, possibly to another character. Also it is possible that characters don't always agree with each other's motivations. These nuances of character are what flesh out the interactions and make each character grow and deepen.
I lucked into character development boot camp, I did a film-making course where I wrote a lot of scripts. They weren't great scripts but they taught me the nuts and bolts of what do when you can't just gear-shift into "exposition mode" and have a slow beat of characters reflecting on their own pasts.
If a story can get by with out that kind of thing it will be richer for it. It is a path that should only be taken when absolutely necessary. Always explain exactly as little to the reader as you need to in the moment to keep them reading the next few paragraphs. Info dumping is the gentle story killer, smothering under the guise of explaining. |
6,486 | I'm 1/4 through my first novel, with a pretty solid 12 page outline of the whole thing. After years of reading books about story structure, I think I have a good grasp on how to make a plot work.
My characters, however, are turning out to be quite flat, uninteresting and generic. They do have motivations and I'm putting a lot of effort into making sure they act accordingly, in a logical way according to their goals and the story seen from their perspective, etc. But they don't feel "alive".
I've read about the archetypes in The Writer's Journey, but that's about it. How can I make my characters come to life? | 2012/10/15 | [
"https://writers.stackexchange.com/questions/6486",
"https://writers.stackexchange.com",
"https://writers.stackexchange.com/users/21/"
] | I think one of the problems with character development in novels is the author's liberty to spend periods of time explaining a character's motivation to a reader without the character actually having to say or do anything. A chapter that has the ostensible position in time and space of someone sitting in a chair, reflecting on a dramatic problem, is something that crops up from time to time. That reflective period can info dump a whole heap of incidents in summary and leave the character in a position where the next things they say and do are obvious to everyone.
The problem with that is that doing this is dry and it restricts the things that you need to have the character do in order to establish character through action. It also means that you miss opportunities to flesh out character through interaction and action.
There is nothing wrong with having a character make a seemingly bizarre action that they later have to explain, possibly to another character. Also it is possible that characters don't always agree with each other's motivations. These nuances of character are what flesh out the interactions and make each character grow and deepen.
I lucked into character development boot camp, I did a film-making course where I wrote a lot of scripts. They weren't great scripts but they taught me the nuts and bolts of what do when you can't just gear-shift into "exposition mode" and have a slow beat of characters reflecting on their own pasts.
If a story can get by with out that kind of thing it will be richer for it. It is a path that should only be taken when absolutely necessary. Always explain exactly as little to the reader as you need to in the moment to keep them reading the next few paragraphs. Info dumping is the gentle story killer, smothering under the guise of explaining. | You need to consider your characters outside the plot as well. They'll have likes and dislikes that have nothing to do with the story, funny mannerisms they're unaware of, things that set their teeth on edge, irrational fears. The strangest things will get them into certain moods.
Let's take a real person, Charlie (name changed to protect the not-so-innocent), as an example. Charlie hates M&Ms - they make him sick, after he ate too many before a long car ride and produced a bag full of multicoloured puke. He's terrified of worms because when you chop them in half, they still wriggle about - but spiders, cockroaches, and other bugs don't really bother him. He gets bloated after big meals and can't stop burping. He can't stand it when people sit on his bed with pants they've worn outside of the house. He hates afternoons because they put him in a lethargic, melancholy mood.
Were he in a story, it's likely none of this would be directly related to the main plot or his motivations. But it's the little things that people say or do or feel that bring them to life. And when you get them down, you'll see them appearing in your story quite naturally. For example, Charlie may be having some friends over. He may turn down the M&Ms they've brought, and keep them out of the bedroom so no one sits on his bed.
It may also be useful to do some online personality tests, as they'll get you thinking about how a character would react in various situations, and how they'd respond to some tricky questions. |
6,486 | I'm 1/4 through my first novel, with a pretty solid 12 page outline of the whole thing. After years of reading books about story structure, I think I have a good grasp on how to make a plot work.
My characters, however, are turning out to be quite flat, uninteresting and generic. They do have motivations and I'm putting a lot of effort into making sure they act accordingly, in a logical way according to their goals and the story seen from their perspective, etc. But they don't feel "alive".
I've read about the archetypes in The Writer's Journey, but that's about it. How can I make my characters come to life? | 2012/10/15 | [
"https://writers.stackexchange.com/questions/6486",
"https://writers.stackexchange.com",
"https://writers.stackexchange.com/users/21/"
] | Perhaps the problem you are having is you are thinking about it as "character development" not storytelling. Many writers start off working on their work with a formulaic engine of what is going to happen. They know where, when, who and why. They believe this will make their story compelling since they dot every "i" and cross every "t".
* If your characters move through your story as if they already know what is going to happen and are simply reacting to it, this removes the sense of tension you are looking for and thus they cannot "develop" or change.
* Yes, there are characters who are not changed as they move through the story. But in those stories, the environment changes completely around them. This usually means in the end of the story there is no place in the new world order for them. Think Rhett Butler in Gone with the Wind.
* Character development is what happens after something unexpected happens. If your characters are not experiencing the new, the different the unexpected and are not changing because of it, they are not developing and will remain flat as their responses to events is unchanging.
* It isn't enough to differentiate them by style of clothing or behaviors you write in with their descriptions. You have to find a way to make the reader feel them, want to know them, fear them, fear for them.
* This can only happen when you are willing to present them as fully as possible, revealing them the same way you would find if you peeled an onion. Yes, there is more onion beneath the first, but your goal is to describe the deeper layers of your characters. Just like with real people, what's on the surface is only the tiniest bit of their character. Their true desires, fears, ambitions, may stay completely hidden due to forces outside of their control, i.e. their religion, their family expectations, their social obligations, the nature of their desires, which may be considered potentially perverse or taboo in their society but not in others.
This is the tension you seek when you are looking for character development, the push-pull of the character toward his/her goal while dealing with opposing forces, inner motivations and the overall plot of the story which is what moves the character into opposition with his environment in the first place. | When I create characters, after creating their appearance and personality, I usually try to think like them. There are almost always some key attributes of a personality, so try being that person for a while. Just thinking like them is enough.
For instance, there was once one truly evil character. For a time I forced evil thoughts to the point when I was becoming evil. I had an evil character, knew how diabolical minds think (to a certain extent) and could appropriately write about him. [: |
6,486 | I'm 1/4 through my first novel, with a pretty solid 12 page outline of the whole thing. After years of reading books about story structure, I think I have a good grasp on how to make a plot work.
My characters, however, are turning out to be quite flat, uninteresting and generic. They do have motivations and I'm putting a lot of effort into making sure they act accordingly, in a logical way according to their goals and the story seen from their perspective, etc. But they don't feel "alive".
I've read about the archetypes in The Writer's Journey, but that's about it. How can I make my characters come to life? | 2012/10/15 | [
"https://writers.stackexchange.com/questions/6486",
"https://writers.stackexchange.com",
"https://writers.stackexchange.com/users/21/"
] | Perhaps the problem you are having is you are thinking about it as "character development" not storytelling. Many writers start off working on their work with a formulaic engine of what is going to happen. They know where, when, who and why. They believe this will make their story compelling since they dot every "i" and cross every "t".
* If your characters move through your story as if they already know what is going to happen and are simply reacting to it, this removes the sense of tension you are looking for and thus they cannot "develop" or change.
* Yes, there are characters who are not changed as they move through the story. But in those stories, the environment changes completely around them. This usually means in the end of the story there is no place in the new world order for them. Think Rhett Butler in Gone with the Wind.
* Character development is what happens after something unexpected happens. If your characters are not experiencing the new, the different the unexpected and are not changing because of it, they are not developing and will remain flat as their responses to events is unchanging.
* It isn't enough to differentiate them by style of clothing or behaviors you write in with their descriptions. You have to find a way to make the reader feel them, want to know them, fear them, fear for them.
* This can only happen when you are willing to present them as fully as possible, revealing them the same way you would find if you peeled an onion. Yes, there is more onion beneath the first, but your goal is to describe the deeper layers of your characters. Just like with real people, what's on the surface is only the tiniest bit of their character. Their true desires, fears, ambitions, may stay completely hidden due to forces outside of their control, i.e. their religion, their family expectations, their social obligations, the nature of their desires, which may be considered potentially perverse or taboo in their society but not in others.
This is the tension you seek when you are looking for character development, the push-pull of the character toward his/her goal while dealing with opposing forces, inner motivations and the overall plot of the story which is what moves the character into opposition with his environment in the first place. | You need to consider your characters outside the plot as well. They'll have likes and dislikes that have nothing to do with the story, funny mannerisms they're unaware of, things that set their teeth on edge, irrational fears. The strangest things will get them into certain moods.
Let's take a real person, Charlie (name changed to protect the not-so-innocent), as an example. Charlie hates M&Ms - they make him sick, after he ate too many before a long car ride and produced a bag full of multicoloured puke. He's terrified of worms because when you chop them in half, they still wriggle about - but spiders, cockroaches, and other bugs don't really bother him. He gets bloated after big meals and can't stop burping. He can't stand it when people sit on his bed with pants they've worn outside of the house. He hates afternoons because they put him in a lethargic, melancholy mood.
Were he in a story, it's likely none of this would be directly related to the main plot or his motivations. But it's the little things that people say or do or feel that bring them to life. And when you get them down, you'll see them appearing in your story quite naturally. For example, Charlie may be having some friends over. He may turn down the M&Ms they've brought, and keep them out of the bedroom so no one sits on his bed.
It may also be useful to do some online personality tests, as they'll get you thinking about how a character would react in various situations, and how they'd respond to some tricky questions. |
6,486 | I'm 1/4 through my first novel, with a pretty solid 12 page outline of the whole thing. After years of reading books about story structure, I think I have a good grasp on how to make a plot work.
My characters, however, are turning out to be quite flat, uninteresting and generic. They do have motivations and I'm putting a lot of effort into making sure they act accordingly, in a logical way according to their goals and the story seen from their perspective, etc. But they don't feel "alive".
I've read about the archetypes in The Writer's Journey, but that's about it. How can I make my characters come to life? | 2012/10/15 | [
"https://writers.stackexchange.com/questions/6486",
"https://writers.stackexchange.com",
"https://writers.stackexchange.com/users/21/"
] | Finish the book, then go back and look at the characters again.
When I start writing my characters are fairly generic, flat, and frankly cardboard. Character is my weakness, I love plots and ideas.
The crucial thing is that in the second draft, I then go back and add in bits of the colour, life and uniqueness which the characters have only accumulated by the last chapter.
Sometimes this will require changes to the plot (I'll realise that Rachel shouldn't have done that in Chapter 2, it doesn't fit with a part of her character I only realised in Chapter 7), but overall I find this a much more organic and natural process than trying to specify everything about a character before I know them, and as such the results tend to be much more convincing and compelling.
Your mileage may vary, but I think if you're a quarter of the way through without your characters having sparked yet, you're probably more similar to me in this respect than most! | Making realistic characters starts with knowing them. Pick your top few characters, and write a character bio. To write a bio, you must answer some questions about your characters. Here is a non-exhaustive list of a few questions to answer about your characters:
* Where were they born?
* What kind of family did they grow up in?
* What are their likes and dislikes?
* What do they look like?
* What are their core beliefs? (i.e. moral, religious, etc)
* What do they sound like (voice, dialect, etc)
* How do they interact with others?
* What type of people do they have as friends?
* What type of flaws do they have (everyone has them, and if your characters don't, they won't be believable.)
* What is their back-story?
* What culture did they grow up in?
Each question like this informs your characters, and provides a texture and richness.
Also, your main character should change through the course of the work. The typical method is giving your character a fatal flaw that he or she must overcome to achieve the goal of the story. |
6,486 | I'm 1/4 through my first novel, with a pretty solid 12 page outline of the whole thing. After years of reading books about story structure, I think I have a good grasp on how to make a plot work.
My characters, however, are turning out to be quite flat, uninteresting and generic. They do have motivations and I'm putting a lot of effort into making sure they act accordingly, in a logical way according to their goals and the story seen from their perspective, etc. But they don't feel "alive".
I've read about the archetypes in The Writer's Journey, but that's about it. How can I make my characters come to life? | 2012/10/15 | [
"https://writers.stackexchange.com/questions/6486",
"https://writers.stackexchange.com",
"https://writers.stackexchange.com/users/21/"
] | Your problem may stem from the fact that you are writing a book too much "by the book." Characters aren't like bits of code. Unless they walk around in your subconscious, speaking and breathing and acting like real people, they won't seem like real people on the page. If your characters don't surprise you, they won't surprise anyone else. Novels are about people, not structures, and as a novelist your job is to find a structure that fits the people in your story, not the other way around. | I find a really usful way of getting characters to feel more alive and realistic is to write a character centric synopsis for each significant character.
It's easy to let characters that aren't currently involved in the story you're telling just kind of langish in limbo until the plot requires them again - this can lead to them re-entering the narrative a bit 'out of sorts'
By writing the whole plot from a given character's point of view you get a much better if idea of what they are up to when they are 'off screen' and this helps make them far more interesting when they're 'on-screen'
You don't need to write in nice fancy prose, as that can take too long, but in enough detail to fill in the gaps in thier experience. Often you'll find characters that are absent for large parts of the plot, and so you make up something for them to be doing in the mean time - then when they meet up with the plot later, you know what they've been up to - you know how they're feeling about things and this can colour thier reactions etc.
Also this is usful for ensuring that they know what they need to know - you can have meetings between characters 'off screen' and decide what was said and done - it never makes it into the final novel per se, but working through those interactions in detail really fleshes out the characters and makes them more real when you come to write about them in the actual plot. |
1,175,505 | I have built Boost in Release configuration and have staged it into one folder.
Now when I add Boost libraries into project and try to build it in Debug configuration - linker fails because there are no Debug versions libraries.
Is there a way to make MSVC 9.0 use Release version of libraries when building Debug configuration?
Of course, there is an easy soultion - build Debug version of Boost. But I am just curious. | 2009/07/24 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/1175505",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/81440/"
] | You can do two things:
* Build the debug version for boost (this is the best option).
* Add debugging symbols to your release build.
You can't use the release version of boost with your debug build because boost depends on the CRT, which is different in debug/release builds. | Exclude debug libs boost tries to link in (or disable with a preprocessor define, look into config.hpp) and manually include release versions.
That is, you could try that if not for runtime conflict...
(so that's a no) |
1,175,505 | I have built Boost in Release configuration and have staged it into one folder.
Now when I add Boost libraries into project and try to build it in Debug configuration - linker fails because there are no Debug versions libraries.
Is there a way to make MSVC 9.0 use Release version of libraries when building Debug configuration?
Of course, there is an easy soultion - build Debug version of Boost. But I am just curious. | 2009/07/24 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/1175505",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/81440/"
] | You can do two things:
* Build the debug version for boost (this is the best option).
* Add debugging symbols to your release build.
You can't use the release version of boost with your debug build because boost depends on the CRT, which is different in debug/release builds. | I've just ran into this as well, and I have something to add:
I think the answer lies in boost\config\auto\_link.hpp. It looks like including this file (which probably happens for all .lib / .dll, non-header-only, libraries) makes the generated .obj refer the debug version of the library.
Defining BOOST\_ALL\_NO\_LIB will allow the linking to succeed, having the debug version of the program linked against the release version of the library. However, when actually trying to use Boost serialization linked like this I got an "Access violation reading location 0xabababeb", meaning that some pointer was left uninitialized. Perhaps this can be fixed by compiling something else in release mode, but it's probably better to just use Boost debug. |
1,175,505 | I have built Boost in Release configuration and have staged it into one folder.
Now when I add Boost libraries into project and try to build it in Debug configuration - linker fails because there are no Debug versions libraries.
Is there a way to make MSVC 9.0 use Release version of libraries when building Debug configuration?
Of course, there is an easy soultion - build Debug version of Boost. But I am just curious. | 2009/07/24 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/1175505",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/81440/"
] | You can do two things:
* Build the debug version for boost (this is the best option).
* Add debugging symbols to your release build.
You can't use the release version of boost with your debug build because boost depends on the CRT, which is different in debug/release builds. | 1st... This is probably a bad idea, just build the debug libraries (or you can get them from [my site](http://boost.teeks99.com)).
If you still want to continue, try going in to the project properties -> Configuration Properties -> C\C++ -> Code Generation. Your "Runtime Library" setting will probably be something like "Multi-threaded Debug DLL (/MDd)", try changing this to the comperable option without the "Debug" in it and re-build.
I haven't actually gotten to try this myself, but I think it should work. I'm curious if you're successful :-) |
1,284,718 | Does static methods and class are good for scalability ? I think so static class/method improves scalability of application and instance methods doesn't scales much. So is it good programming practice to write static method where ever it is possible ? | 2009/08/16 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/1284718",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/87582/"
] | It depends on *WHY* the method is static. If it's static because it truly does not need context, then it will probably scale very well compared to something of similar complexity that is not static because it requires context.
However, if it is static merely because you cannot retain the needed context and must still pass it in, or because of some artificial goal of having more static methods, then I would suspect that it will actually scale LESS than the comparable method as non-static.
In fact I think that ASP Classic proved this point. | No static methods don't intrinsically scale better. Infact the programming style (imperative or object oriented) does not really make any difference to scaling whatsoever. There are two major aspects of scaling and what to do to improve scale depends on which we mean:
1 Scaling by number of requests a second handled
This type of scaling is normally about adding more computers to a cluster to improve overall throughput of the system. Increasing scaling is often about initially reducing the amount of shared resources used through the use of caches and then later making the data access split into shards.
2 Data Scaling
This is when the system gets more and more data over time and operations that access the data (search, filtering etc) get slower as the algorithms are more complex than O(1). In this case the normal strategy is to increase the number of read and write points and use parallel algorithms such as Map/Reduce.
But neither of these aspects has anything to do with whether you use static methods or not, just whether multiple requests work on large sets of data or single sources of data. |
1,284,718 | Does static methods and class are good for scalability ? I think so static class/method improves scalability of application and instance methods doesn't scales much. So is it good programming practice to write static method where ever it is possible ? | 2009/08/16 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/1284718",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/87582/"
] | Which form of scalability do you mean? The scalability, that the code is maintainable and extensible in big and small projects? Then using only static-methods hurt. Do you mean performance? If instance-methods are slower (what I don't believe in this generality), then this doesn't mean they don't scale. If they need twice the time as static-methods, they need also twice much time if you call them all 10000 times. Choosing the right algorithms and data-representation decide much more about the scalability of the performance.
At last, if you think static-methods are the way to go, you should not use an object-oriented language like Java. Try C or Pascal or classic Basic-dialects. | Voted down. The OP clearly doesn't quite understand OO. An instance method doesn't take up any extra space when an instance object is created. Static methods aren't going to save you anything unless you're also avoiding creating any instances, in which case you're going so far afield from what an OO language was built for that it's sort of pointless discussion. |
1,284,718 | Does static methods and class are good for scalability ? I think so static class/method improves scalability of application and instance methods doesn't scales much. So is it good programming practice to write static method where ever it is possible ? | 2009/08/16 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/1284718",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/87582/"
] | It depends on *WHY* the method is static. If it's static because it truly does not need context, then it will probably scale very well compared to something of similar complexity that is not static because it requires context.
However, if it is static merely because you cannot retain the needed context and must still pass it in, or because of some artificial goal of having more static methods, then I would suspect that it will actually scale LESS than the comparable method as non-static.
In fact I think that ASP Classic proved this point. | I think you're barking up the wrong tree:
In the real world, scalability (or the lack thereof) typically springs from appropriateness of one's algorithms and the efficiency of the operations made against data stores (think: good SQL queries).
Things like whether a method is static or not (or the % of methods which are static) generally have nothing to do with the scalability of a system. You can certainly have a super scalable system which uses no static methods, or super scalable system which uses them exclusively. |
1,284,718 | Does static methods and class are good for scalability ? I think so static class/method improves scalability of application and instance methods doesn't scales much. So is it good programming practice to write static method where ever it is possible ? | 2009/08/16 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/1284718",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/87582/"
] | >
> Does static methods and class are good
> for scalability?
>
>
>
One has little to do with the other.
>
> I think so static class/method
> improves scalability of application
> and instance methods doesn't scales
> much.
>
>
>
Wrong. Why do you think so?
>
> So is it good programming practice to
> write static method where ever it is
> possible?
>
>
>
No. In fact, it is very bad practice because it abandons the maintainability advantages of object-oriented programming. | No static methods don't intrinsically scale better. Infact the programming style (imperative or object oriented) does not really make any difference to scaling whatsoever. There are two major aspects of scaling and what to do to improve scale depends on which we mean:
1 Scaling by number of requests a second handled
This type of scaling is normally about adding more computers to a cluster to improve overall throughput of the system. Increasing scaling is often about initially reducing the amount of shared resources used through the use of caches and then later making the data access split into shards.
2 Data Scaling
This is when the system gets more and more data over time and operations that access the data (search, filtering etc) get slower as the algorithms are more complex than O(1). In this case the normal strategy is to increase the number of read and write points and use parallel algorithms such as Map/Reduce.
But neither of these aspects has anything to do with whether you use static methods or not, just whether multiple requests work on large sets of data or single sources of data. |
1,284,718 | Does static methods and class are good for scalability ? I think so static class/method improves scalability of application and instance methods doesn't scales much. So is it good programming practice to write static method where ever it is possible ? | 2009/08/16 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/1284718",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/87582/"
] | I think you're barking up the wrong tree:
In the real world, scalability (or the lack thereof) typically springs from appropriateness of one's algorithms and the efficiency of the operations made against data stores (think: good SQL queries).
Things like whether a method is static or not (or the % of methods which are static) generally have nothing to do with the scalability of a system. You can certainly have a super scalable system which uses no static methods, or super scalable system which uses them exclusively. | Voted down. The OP clearly doesn't quite understand OO. An instance method doesn't take up any extra space when an instance object is created. Static methods aren't going to save you anything unless you're also avoiding creating any instances, in which case you're going so far afield from what an OO language was built for that it's sort of pointless discussion. |
1,284,718 | Does static methods and class are good for scalability ? I think so static class/method improves scalability of application and instance methods doesn't scales much. So is it good programming practice to write static method where ever it is possible ? | 2009/08/16 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/1284718",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/87582/"
] | There are three problems to consider with static methods:
1. You may introduce a bottleneck if your static method has a large critical region. The largest of course is to declare the whole method synchronized. If it can only be executing one at a time then it's a potential issue;
2. Is whatever it's doing still consistent if you're running the same method in different VMs and on different machines? and
3. Any method that relies on static methods has problems with unit testing.
It's not generally considered best practice but static helper methods are common. Too complex and another approach should probably be considered. | Which form of scalability do you mean? The scalability, that the code is maintainable and extensible in big and small projects? Then using only static-methods hurt. Do you mean performance? If instance-methods are slower (what I don't believe in this generality), then this doesn't mean they don't scale. If they need twice the time as static-methods, they need also twice much time if you call them all 10000 times. Choosing the right algorithms and data-representation decide much more about the scalability of the performance.
At last, if you think static-methods are the way to go, you should not use an object-oriented language like Java. Try C or Pascal or classic Basic-dialects. |
1,284,718 | Does static methods and class are good for scalability ? I think so static class/method improves scalability of application and instance methods doesn't scales much. So is it good programming practice to write static method where ever it is possible ? | 2009/08/16 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/1284718",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/87582/"
] | No. I think you may be assuming that each instance has its own copy of the method definition, taking up that amount of space for each instance, which is not the case.
Editing to add:
In case you wonder how an instance method can be actually shared between the instances: It is because each call to an instance method implicity passes a reference to the instance object to the method. This is generally referred to as the "implicit this" In other words - when you define or call an instance method with two parameters like myMethod(a, b), you can think of it as actually being myMethod(this, a, b), and Java takes care of the this parameter for you, without your having to explicitly define or pass it.
(This, by the way, is handled differently in Python, where you have to explicitly put the object reference in as the first parameter of an instance method definition, though not in the call.)
For an explanation of what goes on at the Java bytecode level here's a link:
<http://www.artima.com/underthehood/invocationP.html>
(See stuff around: "The objectref is the implicit this pointer that is passed to any instance method.") | Voted down. The OP clearly doesn't quite understand OO. An instance method doesn't take up any extra space when an instance object is created. Static methods aren't going to save you anything unless you're also avoiding creating any instances, in which case you're going so far afield from what an OO language was built for that it's sort of pointless discussion. |
1,284,718 | Does static methods and class are good for scalability ? I think so static class/method improves scalability of application and instance methods doesn't scales much. So is it good programming practice to write static method where ever it is possible ? | 2009/08/16 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/1284718",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/87582/"
] | It depends on *WHY* the method is static. If it's static because it truly does not need context, then it will probably scale very well compared to something of similar complexity that is not static because it requires context.
However, if it is static merely because you cannot retain the needed context and must still pass it in, or because of some artificial goal of having more static methods, then I would suspect that it will actually scale LESS than the comparable method as non-static.
In fact I think that ASP Classic proved this point. | No. I think you may be assuming that each instance has its own copy of the method definition, taking up that amount of space for each instance, which is not the case.
Editing to add:
In case you wonder how an instance method can be actually shared between the instances: It is because each call to an instance method implicity passes a reference to the instance object to the method. This is generally referred to as the "implicit this" In other words - when you define or call an instance method with two parameters like myMethod(a, b), you can think of it as actually being myMethod(this, a, b), and Java takes care of the this parameter for you, without your having to explicitly define or pass it.
(This, by the way, is handled differently in Python, where you have to explicitly put the object reference in as the first parameter of an instance method definition, though not in the call.)
For an explanation of what goes on at the Java bytecode level here's a link:
<http://www.artima.com/underthehood/invocationP.html>
(See stuff around: "The objectref is the implicit this pointer that is passed to any instance method.") |
1,284,718 | Does static methods and class are good for scalability ? I think so static class/method improves scalability of application and instance methods doesn't scales much. So is it good programming practice to write static method where ever it is possible ? | 2009/08/16 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/1284718",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/87582/"
] | No. I think you may be assuming that each instance has its own copy of the method definition, taking up that amount of space for each instance, which is not the case.
Editing to add:
In case you wonder how an instance method can be actually shared between the instances: It is because each call to an instance method implicity passes a reference to the instance object to the method. This is generally referred to as the "implicit this" In other words - when you define or call an instance method with two parameters like myMethod(a, b), you can think of it as actually being myMethod(this, a, b), and Java takes care of the this parameter for you, without your having to explicitly define or pass it.
(This, by the way, is handled differently in Python, where you have to explicitly put the object reference in as the first parameter of an instance method definition, though not in the call.)
For an explanation of what goes on at the Java bytecode level here's a link:
<http://www.artima.com/underthehood/invocationP.html>
(See stuff around: "The objectref is the implicit this pointer that is passed to any instance method.") | Which form of scalability do you mean? The scalability, that the code is maintainable and extensible in big and small projects? Then using only static-methods hurt. Do you mean performance? If instance-methods are slower (what I don't believe in this generality), then this doesn't mean they don't scale. If they need twice the time as static-methods, they need also twice much time if you call them all 10000 times. Choosing the right algorithms and data-representation decide much more about the scalability of the performance.
At last, if you think static-methods are the way to go, you should not use an object-oriented language like Java. Try C or Pascal or classic Basic-dialects. |
1,284,718 | Does static methods and class are good for scalability ? I think so static class/method improves scalability of application and instance methods doesn't scales much. So is it good programming practice to write static method where ever it is possible ? | 2009/08/16 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/1284718",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/87582/"
] | No static methods don't intrinsically scale better. Infact the programming style (imperative or object oriented) does not really make any difference to scaling whatsoever. There are two major aspects of scaling and what to do to improve scale depends on which we mean:
1 Scaling by number of requests a second handled
This type of scaling is normally about adding more computers to a cluster to improve overall throughput of the system. Increasing scaling is often about initially reducing the amount of shared resources used through the use of caches and then later making the data access split into shards.
2 Data Scaling
This is when the system gets more and more data over time and operations that access the data (search, filtering etc) get slower as the algorithms are more complex than O(1). In this case the normal strategy is to increase the number of read and write points and use parallel algorithms such as Map/Reduce.
But neither of these aspects has anything to do with whether you use static methods or not, just whether multiple requests work on large sets of data or single sources of data. | Voted down. The OP clearly doesn't quite understand OO. An instance method doesn't take up any extra space when an instance object is created. Static methods aren't going to save you anything unless you're also avoiding creating any instances, in which case you're going so far afield from what an OO language was built for that it's sort of pointless discussion. |
1,048 | This cliche is usually *quoted* in the context of "the ends don't justify the means", but in *practice* most folks seem to live as if the ends did justify the means even if the means involved sin. However sometimes people cannot see clearly what is sin and what isn't. An example might be with-holding information from a loved one so as not to upset them.
While on clear situation of sin they might come down one way, given a predicament where the right choice isn't clear to a person, they often turn this cliche the other way around and tell themselves that the ends *do* justify the means.
Is there any Biblical content that speaks to this cliche one way or another. Is there a good "retort cliche" that one could use as a reminder of the proper way to make a moral or ethical decision in light of Christian teachings? | 2011/08/29 | [
"https://christianity.stackexchange.com/questions/1048",
"https://christianity.stackexchange.com",
"https://christianity.stackexchange.com/users/30/"
] | The idea that "the ends justify the means" admits that there is something inherently wrong with "the means". Indeed, it admits that "the means" are actually **unjustified** by themselves. The claim, then, is that although "the means" are unjustifiable in themselves, that a particular outcome that is achieved by them results in the justification of the unjustified.
Christianity certainly **does not** have any basis for this idea, and it doesn't need any. I know of a particular religion that believes it's alright for its followers to lie in a conversation with someone of another religion if lying helps them win the argument. Christianity, however, does not need to do this, because Christianity believes that truth is on its side. That's a key point, because Truth invites questioning, whereas lies and falsehoods do not.
God calls us to do what is righteous and then trust Him for the results. | No, it is not compatible with Christianity. Consider this verse:
>
> Heb 8:5 Who serve unto the example and shadow of heavenly things, as Moses was admonished of God when he was about to make the tabernacle: for, See, saith he, that thou make all things according to the pattern shewed to thee in the mount.
>
>
>
If we do not do things according to the word, it isn't right no matter how much perceived good may come. We must do everything "according to the pattern" God has revealed in His word. Dr. Bob Jones Sr. used to say, "It's never right to do wrong." That's a cliche we as Christian ought to have.
Consider those "Christians" out there who use the "ends justify the means" logic in evangelism. Instead of using the law to show them their need of Christ, they simply ask through the screen door, "Do you want to go to Heaven? Ok, say this prayer... you're in." For many, many folks, a decision can justify any method, no matter how ungodly it might be.
Results should never be a basis for judgement when it comes to our faith. |
1,048 | This cliche is usually *quoted* in the context of "the ends don't justify the means", but in *practice* most folks seem to live as if the ends did justify the means even if the means involved sin. However sometimes people cannot see clearly what is sin and what isn't. An example might be with-holding information from a loved one so as not to upset them.
While on clear situation of sin they might come down one way, given a predicament where the right choice isn't clear to a person, they often turn this cliche the other way around and tell themselves that the ends *do* justify the means.
Is there any Biblical content that speaks to this cliche one way or another. Is there a good "retort cliche" that one could use as a reminder of the proper way to make a moral or ethical decision in light of Christian teachings? | 2011/08/29 | [
"https://christianity.stackexchange.com/questions/1048",
"https://christianity.stackexchange.com",
"https://christianity.stackexchange.com/users/30/"
] | The idea that "the ends justify the means" admits that there is something inherently wrong with "the means". Indeed, it admits that "the means" are actually **unjustified** by themselves. The claim, then, is that although "the means" are unjustifiable in themselves, that a particular outcome that is achieved by them results in the justification of the unjustified.
Christianity certainly **does not** have any basis for this idea, and it doesn't need any. I know of a particular religion that believes it's alright for its followers to lie in a conversation with someone of another religion if lying helps them win the argument. Christianity, however, does not need to do this, because Christianity believes that truth is on its side. That's a key point, because Truth invites questioning, whereas lies and falsehoods do not.
God calls us to do what is righteous and then trust Him for the results. | Let's take the extreme example of Germans hiding Jews in their houses during WW2. (inspired by [this question](https://christianity.stackexchange.com/questions/6055/does-the-bible-condemn-white-lies)) When asked if they are hiding Jews, what do they say? Do they lie to protect them, or do they tell the truth knowing they'll be sent to a concentration camp? I can think of 3 possibilities:
1. **Choose the outcome that is the most loving.** I certainly wouldn't want to be handed over to the Nazi's.
>
> Do to others as you would have them do to you.
>
>
> Matthew 7:12 (NIV)
>
>
>
2. You can justify lying in the same way as you **justify resisting an evil government**. See [this question](https://christianity.stackexchange.com/questions/2259/are-christians-bound-to-the-laws-of-their-country). Lying would be ok in the same way that hiding the Jews in the first place would be ok.
>
> Shadrach, Meshach, and Abednego answered the king, "... be it known to you, O king, that we will not serve your gods and we will not worship the golden statue that you have set up."
>
>
> Daniel 3:16-18 (NRSV)
>
>
>
3. **Faith.** Realize that it is actually not you, but God, who is in control, and he won't punish you for obeying him. Do what he commanded and trust that he will work it out. In our example, you could refuse to answer the Nazi's question even though that causes suspicion.
A controversial Biblical example of this would be Lot refusing to break the hospitality he had offered to two strangers, and instead putting his own daughters at risk. God protects them.
>
> "Look, I have two daughters who have not known a man; let me bring them out to you, and do to them as you please; only do nothing to these men, for they have come under the shelter of my roof."
>
>
> Genesis 19:8 (NRSV)
>
>
>
Which option you choose in the extreme case should also guide your decisions in the everyday moral conundrums. I personally believe that the third option is the highest, but also by far the most difficult in practice, because it requires us to give up control. |
1,048 | This cliche is usually *quoted* in the context of "the ends don't justify the means", but in *practice* most folks seem to live as if the ends did justify the means even if the means involved sin. However sometimes people cannot see clearly what is sin and what isn't. An example might be with-holding information from a loved one so as not to upset them.
While on clear situation of sin they might come down one way, given a predicament where the right choice isn't clear to a person, they often turn this cliche the other way around and tell themselves that the ends *do* justify the means.
Is there any Biblical content that speaks to this cliche one way or another. Is there a good "retort cliche" that one could use as a reminder of the proper way to make a moral or ethical decision in light of Christian teachings? | 2011/08/29 | [
"https://christianity.stackexchange.com/questions/1048",
"https://christianity.stackexchange.com",
"https://christianity.stackexchange.com/users/30/"
] | The idea that "the ends justify the means" admits that there is something inherently wrong with "the means". Indeed, it admits that "the means" are actually **unjustified** by themselves. The claim, then, is that although "the means" are unjustifiable in themselves, that a particular outcome that is achieved by them results in the justification of the unjustified.
Christianity certainly **does not** have any basis for this idea, and it doesn't need any. I know of a particular religion that believes it's alright for its followers to lie in a conversation with someone of another religion if lying helps them win the argument. Christianity, however, does not need to do this, because Christianity believes that truth is on its side. That's a key point, because Truth invites questioning, whereas lies and falsehoods do not.
God calls us to do what is righteous and then trust Him for the results. | The old testament has a story relating to this question. Exodus 1:15-21 ( in [*my* translation, available on Wikisource](http://en.wikisource.org/wiki/Bible_%28Wikisource%29/Exodus),
>
> And the king of Egypt said to the Hebrew midwifes, one of whose names is Shiphrah, and the second Poo'ah. And he said, "When you deliver for the Hebrews, and you saw upon the paired rocks, if it is a son, and you killed him, and if it is a daughter, she lives." And the midwives feared God, and did not do that which the king of Egypt commanded, and they let live the boys born.
>
>
> And the king of Egypt called the midwives, and told them "Why did you do this thing, and let the boys born live?" And the midwives told Pharaoh that the Hebrews are not like the Egyptian women, that they are animals, not even does the midwife arrive, and they have delivered. And God made good for the midwives, and multiplied the nation, and they became very mighty. And it was because the midwives feared God that he made households for them.
>
>
>
Here, the midwives say that the Hebrew women are like animals, not needing a midwife. This is an obvious lie, and it is a useful lie, because it allows the midwives to save the boy babies. God rewards the midwives financially for this.
In traditional translations, the midwives statement is translated to "the Hebrew women are very *lively*, they deliver before the midwife arrives". This mistranslates the word "Chayoth", which means "animal" by substituting a different meaning, which is a feminine adjective meaning lively, which is both a painfully stretched interpretation and completely spoils the beautiful and jarring sentiment. This sentence reveals a lot about Pharaoh's Egyptian supremacy ideas--- he is willing to believe any demeaning fact about the Hebrews. This is a biblical parallel to the Nazi-hiding example used in Matt White's answer.
The midwives lie for the purpose of a greater good. Exodus does not ask people to be stupid, and if they have to lie to the authorities, this can sometimes be a good thing. Established religion is authoritarian, so it is not a good interpreter of the holy texts, which are written by inspired authors. This passage is both mistranslated and ignored by Christians and Jews alike. |
46,106 | Why do most performance cars have a longitudinal-mounted engine?
By performance cars I mean sports cars that typically develop at least 400hp and are usually coupes two seaters. | 2017/07/11 | [
"https://mechanics.stackexchange.com/questions/46106",
"https://mechanics.stackexchange.com",
"https://mechanics.stackexchange.com/users/108/"
] | It's quite simply because a longitudinally mounted engine equates to less of an engineering challenge to achieve "balance". Imagine something like a large V formation engine, two banks of cylinders, two sets of exhaust headers, etc... The simplest way to divide this large heavy lump of metal and gaskets is along the centre-line of the crank. If that is aligned with the centre of the vehicle it is installed in, the vehicles balance left to right is near perfect.
Add a gearbox to the end of a longitudinally mounted engine plus a diff and prop-shafts that are all inline with the centre of the vehicle and you still have not only near perfect symmetry but likely equal length driveshafts. This is important as it avoids torque steer. With a 100bhp engine, torque steer is negligible, quadruple that figure and it becomes a big issue.
In transverse (typically FWD applications) it is usual to offset the bulk of the mass of the engine over to one side of the chassis and place the gearbox on the other side of this. At normal road speeds and relatively low power figures, this is a good compromise as it allows maximum cabin space. At higher speeds however and higher power figures, it significantly compromises the handling and indeed safety of the vehicle. | I believe it's because of the idea that rear-wheel drive cars are more fun to drive, because burnouts and drifting and such.
Also, transverse engines (and typically front wheel drive cars) have traditionally been thought of as slow, economy cars. The original Mini was the first car to mass produce this design and was intended to be an economic small family car. Same with many hatchbacks in the 70s and 80s - it was all about space and weight saving over performance, which formed peoples opinions on the design.
Finally, it can be just hard to fit a large transverse engine. |
46,106 | Why do most performance cars have a longitudinal-mounted engine?
By performance cars I mean sports cars that typically develop at least 400hp and are usually coupes two seaters. | 2017/07/11 | [
"https://mechanics.stackexchange.com/questions/46106",
"https://mechanics.stackexchange.com",
"https://mechanics.stackexchange.com/users/108/"
] | It's quite simply because a longitudinally mounted engine equates to less of an engineering challenge to achieve "balance". Imagine something like a large V formation engine, two banks of cylinders, two sets of exhaust headers, etc... The simplest way to divide this large heavy lump of metal and gaskets is along the centre-line of the crank. If that is aligned with the centre of the vehicle it is installed in, the vehicles balance left to right is near perfect.
Add a gearbox to the end of a longitudinally mounted engine plus a diff and prop-shafts that are all inline with the centre of the vehicle and you still have not only near perfect symmetry but likely equal length driveshafts. This is important as it avoids torque steer. With a 100bhp engine, torque steer is negligible, quadruple that figure and it becomes a big issue.
In transverse (typically FWD applications) it is usual to offset the bulk of the mass of the engine over to one side of the chassis and place the gearbox on the other side of this. At normal road speeds and relatively low power figures, this is a good compromise as it allows maximum cabin space. At higher speeds however and higher power figures, it significantly compromises the handling and indeed safety of the vehicle. | And to add to @MeltingDog, there is also the concept of weight distribution - some cars even have the engine at the front and the gearbox / rear axle at the rear to improve the distribution. |
46,106 | Why do most performance cars have a longitudinal-mounted engine?
By performance cars I mean sports cars that typically develop at least 400hp and are usually coupes two seaters. | 2017/07/11 | [
"https://mechanics.stackexchange.com/questions/46106",
"https://mechanics.stackexchange.com",
"https://mechanics.stackexchange.com/users/108/"
] | It's quite simply because a longitudinally mounted engine equates to less of an engineering challenge to achieve "balance". Imagine something like a large V formation engine, two banks of cylinders, two sets of exhaust headers, etc... The simplest way to divide this large heavy lump of metal and gaskets is along the centre-line of the crank. If that is aligned with the centre of the vehicle it is installed in, the vehicles balance left to right is near perfect.
Add a gearbox to the end of a longitudinally mounted engine plus a diff and prop-shafts that are all inline with the centre of the vehicle and you still have not only near perfect symmetry but likely equal length driveshafts. This is important as it avoids torque steer. With a 100bhp engine, torque steer is negligible, quadruple that figure and it becomes a big issue.
In transverse (typically FWD applications) it is usual to offset the bulk of the mass of the engine over to one side of the chassis and place the gearbox on the other side of this. At normal road speeds and relatively low power figures, this is a good compromise as it allows maximum cabin space. At higher speeds however and higher power figures, it significantly compromises the handling and indeed safety of the vehicle. | Less torque on engine mounts. Transverse having the axle reduction in the engine and transmission structure then places drive axle torque on engine mounts. Subaru is different tho, more like transverse but it would at least have more length between torque couple. |
38,994 | Every `x` blocks the mining reward is halved. Will the reward be halved forever such that we never quite reach 21 million bitcoins, or will we reach 21 million bitcoins at some point and will the reward cease to exist altogether?
Extra points for pointing to the relevant code! | 2015/08/06 | [
"https://bitcoin.stackexchange.com/questions/38994",
"https://bitcoin.stackexchange.com",
"https://bitcoin.stackexchange.com/users/6888/"
] | People say the total will be **21000000** BTC.
... however:
* The 1st 210000 blocks each allow creating 50 BTC.
* The 2nd 210000 blocks each allow creating 25 BTC.
* The 3rd 210000 blocks each allow creating 12.5 BTC.
* ...
* The 10th 210000 blocks each allow creating 0.09765625 BTC.
* The 11th 210000 blocks each allow creating 0.04882812 BTC, and not 0.048828125 BTC, because only 8 decimals of precision are supported.
* ...
* The 33rd 210000 blocks each allow creating 0.00000001 BTC.
After that, the reward is 0.
If you sum all these numbers together, you get **20999999.9769** BTC.
... however, either due to an oversight or intentionally, the coins created in the genesis block cannot be spent.
This leaves us with **20999949.9769** BTC.
... however, due to an early problem in Bitcoin, fixed by BIP30, it was possible to create a coinbase transaction identical to a previous coinbase. This caused the coins created by that older coinbase to be irreversibly "overwritten". This happened in block 91842 (overwriting the coinbase of block 91812) and 91880 (overwriting the coinbase of block 91722). Each time, 50 BTC was lost.
This leaves us with **20999849.9769** BTC.
... however, the protocol rules allow creating *up to* the amounts listed above. Due to various bugs and miners experimenting with code, some blocks claim less than allowed. Those coins can never be recovered.
* Block [124724](https://bitcointalk.org/index.php?topic=7253.msg184414#msg184414) tried to intentionally claim 0.00000001 BTC less than allowed, but accidentally also failed to claim the fees, losing 0.01000001 BTC.
* Between block 162705 and block 169899, 193 blocks claimed less than allowed due to a bug, resulting in a total loss of 9.66184623 BTC.
* Between block 180324 and block 249185, another 836 blocks claimed less than allowed, resulting in a total loss of 0.52584193 BTC.
* Block 501726 had no transaction outputs (except a 0-value commitment), losing the entire 12.5 BTC subsidy.
* Block 526591 didn't claim half of the block reward, losing 6.25 BTC.
This leaves us with **20999821.02921183** BTC.
... however, since recently there is a concept of provably unspendable coins. Coins can be sent to an "address" which provably burns them (using OP\_RETURN). Bitcoin Core tracks these and removes them from its database, so they are easily accounted for. At least 3.71612692 BTC were burned this way.
This leaves us with **20999817.31308491** BTC (taking everything up to block 528333 into account)
... However, various wallets have been lost or stolen, transactions have been sent to the wrong address, people forgot they owned bitcoin. The totals of this may well be millions. People have tried to tally known losses up [here](https://bitcointalk.org/index.php?topic=7253.0).
<https://bitcoin-supply.com/> tracks provably lost bitcoin through publicly available logic.
As of 15 March 2022 they tracked **2,823.43062071** BTC lost
This leaves us with: **???** BTC. | 20997107.88801356 once you remove the 2709.42507135 BTC “burn addresses” i.e. the bitcoin addresses with almost assuredly no earthly known private keys and therefore unspent lost forever. There are ~400 burn addresses with a total balance of 2759.42507135 as of Dec 2017 (2709.42507135 excluding the genesis block). Last year the burn addresses balance grew by [8.97 BTC](https://bitcoinwhoswho.com/blog/2017/12/30/8-97-bitcoins-burned-in-2017/) |
104,247 | I want to change the root password so it is different than the admin password.
I need to change the password so the admin can still be logged on, but the root password to modify the hosts file through terminal with nano at /private/etc/hosts is different.
Even if the admin is logged in, he will need a different set of codes to modify the hosts file.
Is this possible? | 2013/10/04 | [
"https://apple.stackexchange.com/questions/104247",
"https://apple.stackexchange.com",
"https://apple.stackexchange.com/users/58215/"
] | I'm not sure I get what you want, but here's how things work on OS X.
* You can't prevent an admin user from becoming root with their own password.
* Root user isn't enabled, and doesn't even have a password unless you set one.
So, if you want to prevent a user from editing hosts, you need to remove their admin rights. Anything you can lock with special permissions, that admin user can unlock so what I'm guessing you ask is not possible. | You can change the root password by using the Directory Utility. This application is found in /System/Library/Core Services/
If root is not yet enabled:
1. Click the lock and authenticate with your admin account to make changes
2. Click the Edit menu and Select "Enable Root User"
3. Set a unique password for root
If root is enabled:
1. Click the lock and authenticate with your admin account to make changes
2. Click the Edit menu and Select "Change Root Password..."
3. Set a unique password for root
This will not stop an admin from running sudo however. |
72,389 | Suppose, a country 'X''s civil airline wants to fly to another country 'Z'. There are three routes. However, the shortest route is 1000km which is through country 'Y'.
Can the country 'Y' block its airspace for civil airlines of 'X' without giving any reason?
If NO, can 'X' go to an international court for this? If YES, what would the penalty for the country 'Y' be? | 2022/04/06 | [
"https://politics.stackexchange.com/questions/72389",
"https://politics.stackexchange.com",
"https://politics.stackexchange.com/users/32479/"
] | It depends - if country 'Y' is one of the 134 [parties](https://www.icao.int/secretariat/legal/list%20of%20parties/transit_en.pdf) to the [International Air Services Transit Agreement](https://treaties.un.org/doc/Publication/UNTS/Volume%2084/volume-84-II-252-English.pdf), then the first article of that agreement grants scheduled air flights the privilege to fly across its territory without landing, and to land for non-traffic purposes.
Otherwise the answer is a little more complicated - with regard to scheduled international flights for purposes such as commercial transit of passengers, according to article 6 of the [Convention on International Civil Aviation](https://www.icao.int/publications/Documents/7300_cons.pdf), to which the 193 members of the UN are parties:
>
> No scheduled international air service may be operated over or into the territory of a contracting State, except with the special permission or other authorization of that State, and in accordance with the terms of such permission or authorization.
>
>
>
If the flight was not of this type, however, article 5 of the convention grants aircraft the right of overflight and to make non-traffic stops without needing to require prior permission - subject to the terms of the convention:
>
> Each contracting State agrees that all aircraft of the other contracting States, being aircraft not engaged in scheduled international air services shall have the right, subject to the observance of the terms of this Convention, to make flights into or in transit non-stop across its territory and to make stops for non-traffic purposes without the necessity of obtaining prior permission, and subject to the right of the State flown over to require landing. Each contracting State nevertheless reserves the right, for reasons of safety of flight, to require aircraft desiring to proceed over regions which are inaccessible or without adequate air navigation facilities to follow prescribed routes, or to obtain special permission for such flights.
>
>
>
There are a few exemptions - for example Article 7 states that parties have the right to refuse permission to the aircraft of other states to load "passengers, mail and cargo carried for remuneration or hire" if their destination is within the party's territory.
Article 9 of the convention grants contracting states the right to restrict or prohibit flights in the case of emergency so long as the prohibition is applied uniformly "without distinction of nationality". This the provision which was used during, for example, the 9/11 attacks.
So the answer to your question in general terms is yes with regard to scheduled flights, such as commercial airlines, but no in general - if such an infraction took place, the affected state party could bring a dispute to the ICAO Council, which could decide to suspend the infracting state's voting rights in the Council or the ICAO Assembly. | **Yes,** overflight is a privilege, not a right. A denial might cause the victims to retaliate in a similar manner, by restricting overflights *or other things which are not a right.* These are for example no right to immigrate, no right to trade, no right to transfer money through foreign banks.
**But** most sovereign countries are connected by a web of agreements, treaties, and so on. Breaking one *without explanation* would lead to retaliation in other areas. So when the [US closed their airspace](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/September_11_attacks#Immediate_response) after 9/11, there was general understanding. When EU countries [closed their airspace](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Evo_Morales_grounding_incident) to the Bolivian president some years later, there was more irritation because the excuse looked flimsy. |
72,389 | Suppose, a country 'X''s civil airline wants to fly to another country 'Z'. There are three routes. However, the shortest route is 1000km which is through country 'Y'.
Can the country 'Y' block its airspace for civil airlines of 'X' without giving any reason?
If NO, can 'X' go to an international court for this? If YES, what would the penalty for the country 'Y' be? | 2022/04/06 | [
"https://politics.stackexchange.com/questions/72389",
"https://politics.stackexchange.com",
"https://politics.stackexchange.com/users/32479/"
] | **Yes,** overflight is a privilege, not a right. A denial might cause the victims to retaliate in a similar manner, by restricting overflights *or other things which are not a right.* These are for example no right to immigrate, no right to trade, no right to transfer money through foreign banks.
**But** most sovereign countries are connected by a web of agreements, treaties, and so on. Breaking one *without explanation* would lead to retaliation in other areas. So when the [US closed their airspace](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/September_11_attacks#Immediate_response) after 9/11, there was general understanding. When EU countries [closed their airspace](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Evo_Morales_grounding_incident) to the Bolivian president some years later, there was more irritation because the excuse looked flimsy. | It's generally accepted that national sovereignty extends above a nation's land, and entails a right to exclusivity in one's airspace. Thus, overflights require consent from the overflown country, either to the flight in particular or a general consent through a treaty. The main such treaty is IASTA as mentioned by CDJB, but there have been others. For instance, in negotiating the division of Germany after WWII, the Western allies allowed the Soviet Union's sector to surround Berlin on the condition that each of the Western sector be allowed an air corridor to Berlin. It was these corridors that were used in the Berlin airlift. I believe that there are also provisions in international law for aircraft in distress, but I don't know the details.
Of course, ultimately, a country experiencing unauthorized overflights doesn't have much ability to directly prevent them other than shooting the aircraft down. Shooting down civilian aircraft merely because they are violating your airspace falls into the "Things international law technically allows you to do, but is very bad optics" category. As far as I know, there's been only one case of an airliner being shot down while it was violating recognized airspace: Korean Air Lines Flight 007. This incident was strongly condemned in the West, although part of that was that the intrusion was accidental. Shooting down commercial flights intentionally violating airspace would probably still result in serious reprisals. |
72,389 | Suppose, a country 'X''s civil airline wants to fly to another country 'Z'. There are three routes. However, the shortest route is 1000km which is through country 'Y'.
Can the country 'Y' block its airspace for civil airlines of 'X' without giving any reason?
If NO, can 'X' go to an international court for this? If YES, what would the penalty for the country 'Y' be? | 2022/04/06 | [
"https://politics.stackexchange.com/questions/72389",
"https://politics.stackexchange.com",
"https://politics.stackexchange.com/users/32479/"
] | **Yes,** overflight is a privilege, not a right. A denial might cause the victims to retaliate in a similar manner, by restricting overflights *or other things which are not a right.* These are for example no right to immigrate, no right to trade, no right to transfer money through foreign banks.
**But** most sovereign countries are connected by a web of agreements, treaties, and so on. Breaking one *without explanation* would lead to retaliation in other areas. So when the [US closed their airspace](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/September_11_attacks#Immediate_response) after 9/11, there was general understanding. When EU countries [closed their airspace](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Evo_Morales_grounding_incident) to the Bolivian president some years later, there was more irritation because the excuse looked flimsy. | Since this is Politics SE and not Law SE, the answer is a trivial "if they have the means (i.e., guns) yes; otherwise, no".
The court question is best asked over at Law. |
72,389 | Suppose, a country 'X''s civil airline wants to fly to another country 'Z'. There are three routes. However, the shortest route is 1000km which is through country 'Y'.
Can the country 'Y' block its airspace for civil airlines of 'X' without giving any reason?
If NO, can 'X' go to an international court for this? If YES, what would the penalty for the country 'Y' be? | 2022/04/06 | [
"https://politics.stackexchange.com/questions/72389",
"https://politics.stackexchange.com",
"https://politics.stackexchange.com/users/32479/"
] | It depends - if country 'Y' is one of the 134 [parties](https://www.icao.int/secretariat/legal/list%20of%20parties/transit_en.pdf) to the [International Air Services Transit Agreement](https://treaties.un.org/doc/Publication/UNTS/Volume%2084/volume-84-II-252-English.pdf), then the first article of that agreement grants scheduled air flights the privilege to fly across its territory without landing, and to land for non-traffic purposes.
Otherwise the answer is a little more complicated - with regard to scheduled international flights for purposes such as commercial transit of passengers, according to article 6 of the [Convention on International Civil Aviation](https://www.icao.int/publications/Documents/7300_cons.pdf), to which the 193 members of the UN are parties:
>
> No scheduled international air service may be operated over or into the territory of a contracting State, except with the special permission or other authorization of that State, and in accordance with the terms of such permission or authorization.
>
>
>
If the flight was not of this type, however, article 5 of the convention grants aircraft the right of overflight and to make non-traffic stops without needing to require prior permission - subject to the terms of the convention:
>
> Each contracting State agrees that all aircraft of the other contracting States, being aircraft not engaged in scheduled international air services shall have the right, subject to the observance of the terms of this Convention, to make flights into or in transit non-stop across its territory and to make stops for non-traffic purposes without the necessity of obtaining prior permission, and subject to the right of the State flown over to require landing. Each contracting State nevertheless reserves the right, for reasons of safety of flight, to require aircraft desiring to proceed over regions which are inaccessible or without adequate air navigation facilities to follow prescribed routes, or to obtain special permission for such flights.
>
>
>
There are a few exemptions - for example Article 7 states that parties have the right to refuse permission to the aircraft of other states to load "passengers, mail and cargo carried for remuneration or hire" if their destination is within the party's territory.
Article 9 of the convention grants contracting states the right to restrict or prohibit flights in the case of emergency so long as the prohibition is applied uniformly "without distinction of nationality". This the provision which was used during, for example, the 9/11 attacks.
So the answer to your question in general terms is yes with regard to scheduled flights, such as commercial airlines, but no in general - if such an infraction took place, the affected state party could bring a dispute to the ICAO Council, which could decide to suspend the infracting state's voting rights in the Council or the ICAO Assembly. | It's generally accepted that national sovereignty extends above a nation's land, and entails a right to exclusivity in one's airspace. Thus, overflights require consent from the overflown country, either to the flight in particular or a general consent through a treaty. The main such treaty is IASTA as mentioned by CDJB, but there have been others. For instance, in negotiating the division of Germany after WWII, the Western allies allowed the Soviet Union's sector to surround Berlin on the condition that each of the Western sector be allowed an air corridor to Berlin. It was these corridors that were used in the Berlin airlift. I believe that there are also provisions in international law for aircraft in distress, but I don't know the details.
Of course, ultimately, a country experiencing unauthorized overflights doesn't have much ability to directly prevent them other than shooting the aircraft down. Shooting down civilian aircraft merely because they are violating your airspace falls into the "Things international law technically allows you to do, but is very bad optics" category. As far as I know, there's been only one case of an airliner being shot down while it was violating recognized airspace: Korean Air Lines Flight 007. This incident was strongly condemned in the West, although part of that was that the intrusion was accidental. Shooting down commercial flights intentionally violating airspace would probably still result in serious reprisals. |
72,389 | Suppose, a country 'X''s civil airline wants to fly to another country 'Z'. There are three routes. However, the shortest route is 1000km which is through country 'Y'.
Can the country 'Y' block its airspace for civil airlines of 'X' without giving any reason?
If NO, can 'X' go to an international court for this? If YES, what would the penalty for the country 'Y' be? | 2022/04/06 | [
"https://politics.stackexchange.com/questions/72389",
"https://politics.stackexchange.com",
"https://politics.stackexchange.com/users/32479/"
] | It depends - if country 'Y' is one of the 134 [parties](https://www.icao.int/secretariat/legal/list%20of%20parties/transit_en.pdf) to the [International Air Services Transit Agreement](https://treaties.un.org/doc/Publication/UNTS/Volume%2084/volume-84-II-252-English.pdf), then the first article of that agreement grants scheduled air flights the privilege to fly across its territory without landing, and to land for non-traffic purposes.
Otherwise the answer is a little more complicated - with regard to scheduled international flights for purposes such as commercial transit of passengers, according to article 6 of the [Convention on International Civil Aviation](https://www.icao.int/publications/Documents/7300_cons.pdf), to which the 193 members of the UN are parties:
>
> No scheduled international air service may be operated over or into the territory of a contracting State, except with the special permission or other authorization of that State, and in accordance with the terms of such permission or authorization.
>
>
>
If the flight was not of this type, however, article 5 of the convention grants aircraft the right of overflight and to make non-traffic stops without needing to require prior permission - subject to the terms of the convention:
>
> Each contracting State agrees that all aircraft of the other contracting States, being aircraft not engaged in scheduled international air services shall have the right, subject to the observance of the terms of this Convention, to make flights into or in transit non-stop across its territory and to make stops for non-traffic purposes without the necessity of obtaining prior permission, and subject to the right of the State flown over to require landing. Each contracting State nevertheless reserves the right, for reasons of safety of flight, to require aircraft desiring to proceed over regions which are inaccessible or without adequate air navigation facilities to follow prescribed routes, or to obtain special permission for such flights.
>
>
>
There are a few exemptions - for example Article 7 states that parties have the right to refuse permission to the aircraft of other states to load "passengers, mail and cargo carried for remuneration or hire" if their destination is within the party's territory.
Article 9 of the convention grants contracting states the right to restrict or prohibit flights in the case of emergency so long as the prohibition is applied uniformly "without distinction of nationality". This the provision which was used during, for example, the 9/11 attacks.
So the answer to your question in general terms is yes with regard to scheduled flights, such as commercial airlines, but no in general - if such an infraction took place, the affected state party could bring a dispute to the ICAO Council, which could decide to suspend the infracting state's voting rights in the Council or the ICAO Assembly. | Since this is Politics SE and not Law SE, the answer is a trivial "if they have the means (i.e., guns) yes; otherwise, no".
The court question is best asked over at Law. |
72,389 | Suppose, a country 'X''s civil airline wants to fly to another country 'Z'. There are three routes. However, the shortest route is 1000km which is through country 'Y'.
Can the country 'Y' block its airspace for civil airlines of 'X' without giving any reason?
If NO, can 'X' go to an international court for this? If YES, what would the penalty for the country 'Y' be? | 2022/04/06 | [
"https://politics.stackexchange.com/questions/72389",
"https://politics.stackexchange.com",
"https://politics.stackexchange.com/users/32479/"
] | It's generally accepted that national sovereignty extends above a nation's land, and entails a right to exclusivity in one's airspace. Thus, overflights require consent from the overflown country, either to the flight in particular or a general consent through a treaty. The main such treaty is IASTA as mentioned by CDJB, but there have been others. For instance, in negotiating the division of Germany after WWII, the Western allies allowed the Soviet Union's sector to surround Berlin on the condition that each of the Western sector be allowed an air corridor to Berlin. It was these corridors that were used in the Berlin airlift. I believe that there are also provisions in international law for aircraft in distress, but I don't know the details.
Of course, ultimately, a country experiencing unauthorized overflights doesn't have much ability to directly prevent them other than shooting the aircraft down. Shooting down civilian aircraft merely because they are violating your airspace falls into the "Things international law technically allows you to do, but is very bad optics" category. As far as I know, there's been only one case of an airliner being shot down while it was violating recognized airspace: Korean Air Lines Flight 007. This incident was strongly condemned in the West, although part of that was that the intrusion was accidental. Shooting down commercial flights intentionally violating airspace would probably still result in serious reprisals. | Since this is Politics SE and not Law SE, the answer is a trivial "if they have the means (i.e., guns) yes; otherwise, no".
The court question is best asked over at Law. |
52,985 | I am looking for a media player to play videos with two subtitles at the same time (e.g. English and Spanish).
I'm using VLC, but this feature is [not there yet](https://forum.videolan.org/viewtopic.php?t=98324), although there are some workarounds using a [Subtitler extension](https://addons.videolan.org/content/show.php/Subtitler+%28lite%29?content=152364) (as per this [post](https://forum.videolan.org/viewtopic.php?t=98324#p413487)).
However, I'd like to find a player with a native support for dual subtitles or with easy to install plugin.
Ideally free and cross-compatible with versions for Windows and macOS. | 2018/11/02 | [
"https://softwarerecs.stackexchange.com/questions/52985",
"https://softwarerecs.stackexchange.com",
"https://softwarerecs.stackexchange.com/users/3474/"
] | According to this [list](https://www.raymond.cc/blog/playing-two-subtitles-at-the-same-time-in-dvd-player-and-computer/), multiple subtitles are supported by the following players:
* **[Daum PotPlayer](https://potplayer.daum.net/)**
>
> PotPlayer is from the same developer that’s responsible for creating KMPlayer who decided to leave that project and start another. Unsurprisingly PotPlayer also has a range of subtitle options like KMPlayer, including a subtitles browser and plenty of tweaking and display options. PotPlayer can show two subtitles on the video at the same time.
>
>
>
* [KMPlayer](http://www.kmplayer.com/)
>
> KMPlayer has been able to play more than one subtitle at once for quite a few years. Apart from that ability, it also boasts a number of options for displaying, loading and saving the subtitles back out again. Some of the other subtitle features are merging subtitles together, subtitle explorer/editor, syncing, multiple display and effect options, online subtitle finder and the ability to show up to three subtitles on screen at once.
>
>
>
* [Media Player Classic – Home Cinema](http://mpc-hc.org/) with a Directshow filter called [VSFilter](http://nightly.mpc-hc.org/mpc-hc_apps/vsfilter/) or [xy-VSFilter](https://github.com/Cyberbeing/xy-VSFilter)
>
> The disadvantage of MPC playing two subtitles at once is it can’t do it out of the box and requires you to do a few things first. Firstly, you need to install a Directshow filter called *VSFilter* and tick the box to configure it when the install is complete. In the Main tab tick Override placement and enter a vertical (V) number somewhere between 0-25 to put this subtitle at the top. *Click OK*. When you open a video file and want two subtitles, you can access the the bottom subtitle from the right click > Subtitles menu, the second subtitle is accessed via Filters > “VSFilter (auto-loading version)”, a green arrow icon in the system tray is also visible where you can right click and alter the top subtitle.
>
>
>
* [BS.Player](http://www.bsplayer.com/bsplayer-english/download.html)
>
> BS.Player is one of a few media players that offer a paid version for Pro version updates. Thankfully the free version handles playing two subtitles at once with ease. A few options for uploading/downloading subtitles, timings and how they get displayed are available.
>
>
>
macOS
-----
Here is the list specific for macOS:
* [IINA](https://lhc70000.github.io/iina/) ([open-sourced](https://github.com/lhc70000/iina)) | From the links posted by @kenorb I found [submerge](https://submerge.ovh/).
Not a player, but a tool that merge 2 subs into one. Works fine with kodi or vlc. |
52,985 | I am looking for a media player to play videos with two subtitles at the same time (e.g. English and Spanish).
I'm using VLC, but this feature is [not there yet](https://forum.videolan.org/viewtopic.php?t=98324), although there are some workarounds using a [Subtitler extension](https://addons.videolan.org/content/show.php/Subtitler+%28lite%29?content=152364) (as per this [post](https://forum.videolan.org/viewtopic.php?t=98324#p413487)).
However, I'd like to find a player with a native support for dual subtitles or with easy to install plugin.
Ideally free and cross-compatible with versions for Windows and macOS. | 2018/11/02 | [
"https://softwarerecs.stackexchange.com/questions/52985",
"https://softwarerecs.stackexchange.com",
"https://softwarerecs.stackexchange.com/users/3474/"
] | According to this [list](https://www.raymond.cc/blog/playing-two-subtitles-at-the-same-time-in-dvd-player-and-computer/), multiple subtitles are supported by the following players:
* **[Daum PotPlayer](https://potplayer.daum.net/)**
>
> PotPlayer is from the same developer that’s responsible for creating KMPlayer who decided to leave that project and start another. Unsurprisingly PotPlayer also has a range of subtitle options like KMPlayer, including a subtitles browser and plenty of tweaking and display options. PotPlayer can show two subtitles on the video at the same time.
>
>
>
* [KMPlayer](http://www.kmplayer.com/)
>
> KMPlayer has been able to play more than one subtitle at once for quite a few years. Apart from that ability, it also boasts a number of options for displaying, loading and saving the subtitles back out again. Some of the other subtitle features are merging subtitles together, subtitle explorer/editor, syncing, multiple display and effect options, online subtitle finder and the ability to show up to three subtitles on screen at once.
>
>
>
* [Media Player Classic – Home Cinema](http://mpc-hc.org/) with a Directshow filter called [VSFilter](http://nightly.mpc-hc.org/mpc-hc_apps/vsfilter/) or [xy-VSFilter](https://github.com/Cyberbeing/xy-VSFilter)
>
> The disadvantage of MPC playing two subtitles at once is it can’t do it out of the box and requires you to do a few things first. Firstly, you need to install a Directshow filter called *VSFilter* and tick the box to configure it when the install is complete. In the Main tab tick Override placement and enter a vertical (V) number somewhere between 0-25 to put this subtitle at the top. *Click OK*. When you open a video file and want two subtitles, you can access the the bottom subtitle from the right click > Subtitles menu, the second subtitle is accessed via Filters > “VSFilter (auto-loading version)”, a green arrow icon in the system tray is also visible where you can right click and alter the top subtitle.
>
>
>
* [BS.Player](http://www.bsplayer.com/bsplayer-english/download.html)
>
> BS.Player is one of a few media players that offer a paid version for Pro version updates. Thankfully the free version handles playing two subtitles at once with ease. A few options for uploading/downloading subtitles, timings and how they get displayed are available.
>
>
>
macOS
-----
Here is the list specific for macOS:
* [IINA](https://lhc70000.github.io/iina/) ([open-sourced](https://github.com/lhc70000/iina)) | If you want to watch films with two subtitles at the same time in android, use these players:
* MX Player
* Precise Frame mpv Video Player |
52,985 | I am looking for a media player to play videos with two subtitles at the same time (e.g. English and Spanish).
I'm using VLC, but this feature is [not there yet](https://forum.videolan.org/viewtopic.php?t=98324), although there are some workarounds using a [Subtitler extension](https://addons.videolan.org/content/show.php/Subtitler+%28lite%29?content=152364) (as per this [post](https://forum.videolan.org/viewtopic.php?t=98324#p413487)).
However, I'd like to find a player with a native support for dual subtitles or with easy to install plugin.
Ideally free and cross-compatible with versions for Windows and macOS. | 2018/11/02 | [
"https://softwarerecs.stackexchange.com/questions/52985",
"https://softwarerecs.stackexchange.com",
"https://softwarerecs.stackexchange.com/users/3474/"
] | Beside KMP I've also used Media Player Classic with [ffdshow filter](https://sourceforge.net/projects/ffdshow/), which are both included in the K-lite codec pack. No other filters are needed
>
> ffdshow can be configured to display subtitles, to enable or disable various built-in codecs, to grab screenshots, to enable keyboard control, and to enhance movies with increased resolution, sharpness, and many other post-processing video filters. It has the ability to manipulate audio with effects like an equalizer, a Dolby decoder, reverb, Winamp DSP plugins, and more. Some of the postprocessing is borrowed from the MPlayer project and AviSynth filters
>
>
> <https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ffdshow>
>
>
>
One subtitle will be displayed by MPC and the other is embedded in the video stream by ffdshow. In fact you can use any other players as long as ffdshow is used to decode
When ffdshow is decoding a video or audio, its icon will be shown in the notification area. Just right click it and enable *Subtitle*. You may need to open the configuration to select the appropriate subtitle file, or simply set different rules for MPC and ffdshow to load different subtitles
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/uAxja.png)
A downside of this is that the ffdshow-rendered subtitle quality will decrease if you zoom the video out, since it's embedded as images in the video stream. But so is the video's quality, so it's not a big problem
Feature-wise ffdshow is the best decoder I've ever used, with many useful filters like post-processing to increase the output quality significantly. However in the last few years the default filter has been changed to LAV filter. You can still use Codec Tweak Tool to change the default back to ffdshow if you want | From the links posted by @kenorb I found [submerge](https://submerge.ovh/).
Not a player, but a tool that merge 2 subs into one. Works fine with kodi or vlc. |
52,985 | I am looking for a media player to play videos with two subtitles at the same time (e.g. English and Spanish).
I'm using VLC, but this feature is [not there yet](https://forum.videolan.org/viewtopic.php?t=98324), although there are some workarounds using a [Subtitler extension](https://addons.videolan.org/content/show.php/Subtitler+%28lite%29?content=152364) (as per this [post](https://forum.videolan.org/viewtopic.php?t=98324#p413487)).
However, I'd like to find a player with a native support for dual subtitles or with easy to install plugin.
Ideally free and cross-compatible with versions for Windows and macOS. | 2018/11/02 | [
"https://softwarerecs.stackexchange.com/questions/52985",
"https://softwarerecs.stackexchange.com",
"https://softwarerecs.stackexchange.com/users/3474/"
] | Beside KMP I've also used Media Player Classic with [ffdshow filter](https://sourceforge.net/projects/ffdshow/), which are both included in the K-lite codec pack. No other filters are needed
>
> ffdshow can be configured to display subtitles, to enable or disable various built-in codecs, to grab screenshots, to enable keyboard control, and to enhance movies with increased resolution, sharpness, and many other post-processing video filters. It has the ability to manipulate audio with effects like an equalizer, a Dolby decoder, reverb, Winamp DSP plugins, and more. Some of the postprocessing is borrowed from the MPlayer project and AviSynth filters
>
>
> <https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ffdshow>
>
>
>
One subtitle will be displayed by MPC and the other is embedded in the video stream by ffdshow. In fact you can use any other players as long as ffdshow is used to decode
When ffdshow is decoding a video or audio, its icon will be shown in the notification area. Just right click it and enable *Subtitle*. You may need to open the configuration to select the appropriate subtitle file, or simply set different rules for MPC and ffdshow to load different subtitles
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/uAxja.png)
A downside of this is that the ffdshow-rendered subtitle quality will decrease if you zoom the video out, since it's embedded as images in the video stream. But so is the video's quality, so it's not a big problem
Feature-wise ffdshow is the best decoder I've ever used, with many useful filters like post-processing to increase the output quality significantly. However in the last few years the default filter has been changed to LAV filter. You can still use Codec Tweak Tool to change the default back to ffdshow if you want | If you want to watch films with two subtitles at the same time in android, use these players:
* MX Player
* Precise Frame mpv Video Player |
477 | A typical modern scenario of the medieval siege was the throwing of oil on the attackers from ramparts. Oil was really expensive so why waste it on attackers? Most commonly the items thrown were boiled sewage, rocks, and arrows. Does anyone know of any primal source of evidence of boiling oil being used as a weapon in sieges? | 2011/10/22 | [
"https://history.stackexchange.com/questions/477",
"https://history.stackexchange.com",
"https://history.stackexchange.com/users/103/"
] | Like this thread on [catapulting diseased dead bodies](https://history.stackexchange.com/questions/360/how-did-a-besieged-city-castle-defend-itself-vs-catapulting-diseased-dead-bodie/368#368), the pouring of boiling oil and tar did happen, though not so commonly. Remember that many castles never saw action. Many more castles were built decoratively as a fashion rather than because defence was needed. However, when you look to city walls and city gates, you see more use. A city will have the resources to summon up even expensive weapons if really needed.
One clear example I can find is in the crusaders attack on Jerusalem in July 1099, oil and Greek fire (thought to be oil based) was employed by the defenders. Mangonels, rams and siege towers had been moved into position beneath the gate of the city. These were set alight by the defenders using oil and burning arrows. Several books mention that the wall climbers were scalded by oil.
Basically, when you are under attack for your life, you will throw everything you have down the murder holes or over the wall. Stones, arrows, burning wood, and if you have to, the oil. Even though it might be expensive - it's cheaper than losing your life should the city fall. | Boiling oil is a good weapon, because its boiling point (400 degrees Fahrenheit) is much higher than that of water (212 degrees).
It was a moderately effective weapon against men. But by its boiling and burning properties, it was a very effective weapon against ladders, rams, catapults, and other war instruments made of wood. Also, if successfully used, it would cause a horrible death by burning. As such, killing ten enemy soldiers with oil had more of a "deterrent" effect than killing the same number by sword.
Because it was expensive, a garrison would not base its plans on using oil. But they used oil for other things like cooking, which is to say, that it could also be used to "cook" their enemies. When one is under attack, one uses what weapons one has at hand and worries about the consequences later.
An attack on the citadel was basically the last day of the battle. Either the defenders would win, in which case they could exit the place and replenish their supplies of oil, or they would lose, in which case they'd be slaughtered. Either way, saving oil for "after the battle" didn't make sense. |
477 | A typical modern scenario of the medieval siege was the throwing of oil on the attackers from ramparts. Oil was really expensive so why waste it on attackers? Most commonly the items thrown were boiled sewage, rocks, and arrows. Does anyone know of any primal source of evidence of boiling oil being used as a weapon in sieges? | 2011/10/22 | [
"https://history.stackexchange.com/questions/477",
"https://history.stackexchange.com",
"https://history.stackexchange.com/users/103/"
] | Like this thread on [catapulting diseased dead bodies](https://history.stackexchange.com/questions/360/how-did-a-besieged-city-castle-defend-itself-vs-catapulting-diseased-dead-bodie/368#368), the pouring of boiling oil and tar did happen, though not so commonly. Remember that many castles never saw action. Many more castles were built decoratively as a fashion rather than because defence was needed. However, when you look to city walls and city gates, you see more use. A city will have the resources to summon up even expensive weapons if really needed.
One clear example I can find is in the crusaders attack on Jerusalem in July 1099, oil and Greek fire (thought to be oil based) was employed by the defenders. Mangonels, rams and siege towers had been moved into position beneath the gate of the city. These were set alight by the defenders using oil and burning arrows. Several books mention that the wall climbers were scalded by oil.
Basically, when you are under attack for your life, you will throw everything you have down the murder holes or over the wall. Stones, arrows, burning wood, and if you have to, the oil. Even though it might be expensive - it's cheaper than losing your life should the city fall. | Incendiary devices were frequently used as projectiles during warfare, particularly during sieges and naval battles; substances were boiled or heated to inflict damage by scalding or burning. Other substances relied on their chemical properties to inflict burns or damage. These weapons or devices could be used by individuals, manipulated by war machines, or utilized as army strategy.
The simplest and most common thermal projectiles were boiling water and hot sand, which could be poured over attacking personnel. Other anti-personnel weapons included hot pitch, oil, resin, animal fat and other similar compounds.
* Smoke was used to confuse or drive off attackers.
* Substances such as quicklime and sulfur could be toxic and blinding. Sulfur- and oil-soaked materials were sometimes ignited and thrown at the enemy, or attached to spears, arrows and bolts and fired by hand or machine.
* Fire and incendiary weapons were used against enemy structures and territory, as well as personnel, sometimes on a massive scale.
* Large tracts of land, towns and villages were frequently destroyed as part of a scorched earth strategy.
* Incendiary mixtures, such as the oil-based Greek fire, could be launched by throwing machines or administered through a siphon.
Some siege techniques—such as mining and boring—relied on combustibles and fire to complete the collapse of walls and structures.. |
477 | A typical modern scenario of the medieval siege was the throwing of oil on the attackers from ramparts. Oil was really expensive so why waste it on attackers? Most commonly the items thrown were boiled sewage, rocks, and arrows. Does anyone know of any primal source of evidence of boiling oil being used as a weapon in sieges? | 2011/10/22 | [
"https://history.stackexchange.com/questions/477",
"https://history.stackexchange.com",
"https://history.stackexchange.com/users/103/"
] | Boiling oil is a good weapon, because its boiling point (400 degrees Fahrenheit) is much higher than that of water (212 degrees).
It was a moderately effective weapon against men. But by its boiling and burning properties, it was a very effective weapon against ladders, rams, catapults, and other war instruments made of wood. Also, if successfully used, it would cause a horrible death by burning. As such, killing ten enemy soldiers with oil had more of a "deterrent" effect than killing the same number by sword.
Because it was expensive, a garrison would not base its plans on using oil. But they used oil for other things like cooking, which is to say, that it could also be used to "cook" their enemies. When one is under attack, one uses what weapons one has at hand and worries about the consequences later.
An attack on the citadel was basically the last day of the battle. Either the defenders would win, in which case they could exit the place and replenish their supplies of oil, or they would lose, in which case they'd be slaughtered. Either way, saving oil for "after the battle" didn't make sense. | Incendiary devices were frequently used as projectiles during warfare, particularly during sieges and naval battles; substances were boiled or heated to inflict damage by scalding or burning. Other substances relied on their chemical properties to inflict burns or damage. These weapons or devices could be used by individuals, manipulated by war machines, or utilized as army strategy.
The simplest and most common thermal projectiles were boiling water and hot sand, which could be poured over attacking personnel. Other anti-personnel weapons included hot pitch, oil, resin, animal fat and other similar compounds.
* Smoke was used to confuse or drive off attackers.
* Substances such as quicklime and sulfur could be toxic and blinding. Sulfur- and oil-soaked materials were sometimes ignited and thrown at the enemy, or attached to spears, arrows and bolts and fired by hand or machine.
* Fire and incendiary weapons were used against enemy structures and territory, as well as personnel, sometimes on a massive scale.
* Large tracts of land, towns and villages were frequently destroyed as part of a scorched earth strategy.
* Incendiary mixtures, such as the oil-based Greek fire, could be launched by throwing machines or administered through a siphon.
Some siege techniques—such as mining and boring—relied on combustibles and fire to complete the collapse of walls and structures.. |
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