qid int64 1 74.7M | question stringlengths 12 33.8k | date stringlengths 10 10 | metadata list | response_j stringlengths 0 115k | response_k stringlengths 2 98.3k |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
197 | Microsoft's [application](http://appft1.uspto.gov/netacgi/nph-Parser?Sect1=PTO1&Sect2=HITOFF&d=PG01&p=1&u=/netahtml/PTO/srchnum.html&r=1&f=G&l=50&s1=20120110437.PGNR.) aims to patent:
>
> Methods and systems for style and/or layout caching of Web content are
> usable to build reusable style caching trees and cacheable layout
> calculations. Such style caching trees may be used to avoid
> recalculating style content of Web pages for document object model
> (DOM) elements that have not changed. Additionally, the cacheable
> layout calculations may be used to avoid recalculating the layout
> content of Web pages that are subsequently accessed.
>
>
>
Claim 1 is:
>
> A computer-implemented method comprising: performed by one or more processors executing computer-readable instructions:
>
>
> * receiving a Web page file;
> * parsing the Web page file to create a document object model (DOM) tree comprising DOM tree nodes;
> * constructing a style caching tree comprising structure information of the DOM tree;
> * storing the style caching tree in a memory;
> * constructing a render tree comprising render objects based at least in part on the structure information of the DOM tree;
> * performing a layout calculation for render objects;
> * and storing the layout calculation results in the memory.
>
>
>
Can prior art be demonstrated from the WebKit and Gecko source trees from several years ago? | 2012/09/20 | [
"https://patents.stackexchange.com/questions/197",
"https://patents.stackexchange.com",
"https://patents.stackexchange.com/users/385/"
] | Claim 1 doesn't seem novel, everything seems to be described in an article from October 2009 (before the October 2010 filing date of this patent):
* "parsing the Web page file to create a document object model (DOM) tree comprising DOM tree nodes;" <http://taligarsiel.com/Projects/howbrowserswork1.htm#DOM>
* "constructing a style caching tree comprising structure information of the DOM tree;" <http://taligarsiel.com/Projects/howbrowserswork1.htm#Firefox_rule_tree>
* "storing the style caching tree in a memory;" *Where else you gonna put it?!?*
* "constructing a render tree comprising render objects based at least in part on the structure information of the DOM tree;" <http://taligarsiel.com/Projects/howbrowserswork1.htm#Render_tree_construction>
* "performing a layout calculation for render objects;" <http://taligarsiel.com/Projects/howbrowserswork1.htm#Layout>
* "and storing the layout calculation results in the memory." *Where else you gonna put it?!?* | One could argue there is prior art from the server-side "widget" cache of phpNuke
The term cache can be ambigous. The browser stores the page in memory (since Netscape 1.0 or earlier ), which is a form of cache.
Additionally, modifying DOM nodes without re-rendering the whole page has been done for a long time. Certainly before 2010 that Microsoft are suggesting in the patent. |
197 | Microsoft's [application](http://appft1.uspto.gov/netacgi/nph-Parser?Sect1=PTO1&Sect2=HITOFF&d=PG01&p=1&u=/netahtml/PTO/srchnum.html&r=1&f=G&l=50&s1=20120110437.PGNR.) aims to patent:
>
> Methods and systems for style and/or layout caching of Web content are
> usable to build reusable style caching trees and cacheable layout
> calculations. Such style caching trees may be used to avoid
> recalculating style content of Web pages for document object model
> (DOM) elements that have not changed. Additionally, the cacheable
> layout calculations may be used to avoid recalculating the layout
> content of Web pages that are subsequently accessed.
>
>
>
Claim 1 is:
>
> A computer-implemented method comprising: performed by one or more processors executing computer-readable instructions:
>
>
> * receiving a Web page file;
> * parsing the Web page file to create a document object model (DOM) tree comprising DOM tree nodes;
> * constructing a style caching tree comprising structure information of the DOM tree;
> * storing the style caching tree in a memory;
> * constructing a render tree comprising render objects based at least in part on the structure information of the DOM tree;
> * performing a layout calculation for render objects;
> * and storing the layout calculation results in the memory.
>
>
>
Can prior art be demonstrated from the WebKit and Gecko source trees from several years ago? | 2012/09/20 | [
"https://patents.stackexchange.com/questions/197",
"https://patents.stackexchange.com",
"https://patents.stackexchange.com/users/385/"
] | One could argue there is prior art from the server-side "widget" cache of phpNuke
The term cache can be ambigous. The browser stores the page in memory (since Netscape 1.0 or earlier ), which is a form of cache.
Additionally, modifying DOM nodes without re-rendering the whole page has been done for a long time. Certainly before 2010 that Microsoft are suggesting in the patent. | There may be prior art inherent in the product of the late, lamented [FineGround](http://www.networkworld.com/reviews/2001/0611revside.html).
The product was a reverse proxy you could put in front of your web site to improve performance for end users. In addition to stuff like caching gzipped copies of images, it could analyze HTML pages, determine which parts changed on subsequent loads and which didn't, and inject JavaScript into the page so that end browsers would cache most of the page and only reload the changes from the server. |
197 | Microsoft's [application](http://appft1.uspto.gov/netacgi/nph-Parser?Sect1=PTO1&Sect2=HITOFF&d=PG01&p=1&u=/netahtml/PTO/srchnum.html&r=1&f=G&l=50&s1=20120110437.PGNR.) aims to patent:
>
> Methods and systems for style and/or layout caching of Web content are
> usable to build reusable style caching trees and cacheable layout
> calculations. Such style caching trees may be used to avoid
> recalculating style content of Web pages for document object model
> (DOM) elements that have not changed. Additionally, the cacheable
> layout calculations may be used to avoid recalculating the layout
> content of Web pages that are subsequently accessed.
>
>
>
Claim 1 is:
>
> A computer-implemented method comprising: performed by one or more processors executing computer-readable instructions:
>
>
> * receiving a Web page file;
> * parsing the Web page file to create a document object model (DOM) tree comprising DOM tree nodes;
> * constructing a style caching tree comprising structure information of the DOM tree;
> * storing the style caching tree in a memory;
> * constructing a render tree comprising render objects based at least in part on the structure information of the DOM tree;
> * performing a layout calculation for render objects;
> * and storing the layout calculation results in the memory.
>
>
>
Can prior art be demonstrated from the WebKit and Gecko source trees from several years ago? | 2012/09/20 | [
"https://patents.stackexchange.com/questions/197",
"https://patents.stackexchange.com",
"https://patents.stackexchange.com/users/385/"
] | Claim 1 doesn't seem novel, everything seems to be described in an article from October 2009 (before the October 2010 filing date of this patent):
* "parsing the Web page file to create a document object model (DOM) tree comprising DOM tree nodes;" <http://taligarsiel.com/Projects/howbrowserswork1.htm#DOM>
* "constructing a style caching tree comprising structure information of the DOM tree;" <http://taligarsiel.com/Projects/howbrowserswork1.htm#Firefox_rule_tree>
* "storing the style caching tree in a memory;" *Where else you gonna put it?!?*
* "constructing a render tree comprising render objects based at least in part on the structure information of the DOM tree;" <http://taligarsiel.com/Projects/howbrowserswork1.htm#Render_tree_construction>
* "performing a layout calculation for render objects;" <http://taligarsiel.com/Projects/howbrowserswork1.htm#Layout>
* "and storing the layout calculation results in the memory." *Where else you gonna put it?!?* | There may be prior art inherent in the product of the late, lamented [FineGround](http://www.networkworld.com/reviews/2001/0611revside.html).
The product was a reverse proxy you could put in front of your web site to improve performance for end users. In addition to stuff like caching gzipped copies of images, it could analyze HTML pages, determine which parts changed on subsequent loads and which didn't, and inject JavaScript into the page so that end browsers would cache most of the page and only reload the changes from the server. |
72,749 | I am building a game in LibGDX and the game screen orientation is in landscape. I want it to stay in landscape but I still want the user to be able to flip the device onto the other side and the screen will rotate with it. My application refuses to do that and I don't know what to do to fix that. I tried turning on my accelerometer and compass (wasn't expecting anything from compass) but nothing changed. Any ideas? | 2014/03/31 | [
"https://gamedev.stackexchange.com/questions/72749",
"https://gamedev.stackexchange.com",
"https://gamedev.stackexchange.com/users/36586/"
] | It defaults to locked on "landscape" mode in a libGDX project. You need to go into your "**AndroidManifest.xml**" and change **android:screenOrientation="landscape"** too **android:screenOrientation="sensorLandscape"**
There are more options - <http://developer.android.com/guide/topics/manifest/activity-element.html#screen>
Just replace "sensorLandScape" with the one you want. | I know this old, but for the users who come here for an answer, all you need to do is in the "AndroidManifest.xml" file. Where it has a tag you will need to place a android:screenOrientation="sensor" to track its orientation from landscape to portrait and vice versa |
42,648 | I’ve been following [a semi-elaborate routine](https://www.muscleandstrength.com/workouts/6-day-powerbuilding-split-meal-plan) which adds intensity by using rest-pause training. Most of it is going well, except for the lunges in *Legs B*, with a goal of 50 reps over 5 sets. (My understanding is I’m to do “however many good-enough reps” on set 1, 30s rest, repeat for 5 sets.)
At a guess, that’s because having mostly done Starting-Strength-like workouts before, whichever small muscles keep you balanced side-to-side don’t really get a lot of work compared to the big muscles meant to move load upwards.
The lunges end up being strenuous beyond what seems like challenging-yet-sane exertion: I get very winded, sometimes even dizzy; occasionally to the point where I have to lie down on a bench or mat until it subsides. (I take medication daily which has nausea and heart pounding as possible side effects, which might be contributing to this.) Probably can’t maintain good form either, or develop it in the first place.
The overall effect is this ends up being a huge drag on what’d already be a lengthy workout. Since the rep goal is for each leg, they end up being this time consuming block of obnoxious suffering that makes me want to skip them or call it a day thinking “meh it’s just accessories.”
What I’m looking for is actionable suggestions on what I could change up to bridge this deficiency and motivation issue. My rough idea is:
1. Lower the rep goal to say 30 or even 20.
2. Do a full rest between sets. (I use a heart rate measuring app for this to wait until I drop below 70% max for my age.)
3. Keep the load to a minimum. (A pair of 4kg/10lb dumbbells.)
progressing by removing the above limits in that order. (Increase reps, then reduce resting time, then begin adding weight.) All this while trying to focus on form and proper muscle recruitment. (Not sure what exactly helps here beyond gut feeling… Using a mirror, or slow and careful negative reps?)
Now, this is mostly me wildly guessing as an amateur, so I’m not sure if this makes sense in the context of the whole routine, or if I’m missing something, so it’d help me if somebody more experienced could look this over.
Other options that come to mind are: substituting split squats instead. (Since one leg is supported, there’s less to juggle mechanically - I’m not sure how important what the rear leg does is with lunges.) Or maybe there’s a difference between regular and reverse lunges - I’m doing reverse, and maybe I’m unnecessarily doing the fiddlier variant? | 2020/08/06 | [
"https://fitness.stackexchange.com/questions/42648",
"https://fitness.stackexchange.com",
"https://fitness.stackexchange.com/users/32186/"
] | I’m not a big lunge fan myself, but they are certainly a useful exercise. While they aren’t an exercise that can be appropriately performed within lower rep ranges (say 10 or less), you certainly don’t need to do 50 reps to have an effective set. Anything between 15 and 30 should be fine, just work to (or close to) failure with reps done in good form. There’s no sense in torturing yourself with an exercise that is more mentally taxing than it is physically taxing. | you can reduce repetition goal to 1 rep maxes and go with heavy weight.... obviously by ramping up the weight slowly first starting with warm up sets.
or by doing 5 x 5 with heavy weight. Any exercise can be loaded heavily if you dislike high rep work.
another option is to substitute Lunges with Shrimp squats, they are better at building glutes... as a matter of fact many people who can squat twice their weight can't do one shrimp squat because its more a glute exercise than a leg one.
if you struggle doing high repetitions on lunges, split squats will be worse. |
42,648 | I’ve been following [a semi-elaborate routine](https://www.muscleandstrength.com/workouts/6-day-powerbuilding-split-meal-plan) which adds intensity by using rest-pause training. Most of it is going well, except for the lunges in *Legs B*, with a goal of 50 reps over 5 sets. (My understanding is I’m to do “however many good-enough reps” on set 1, 30s rest, repeat for 5 sets.)
At a guess, that’s because having mostly done Starting-Strength-like workouts before, whichever small muscles keep you balanced side-to-side don’t really get a lot of work compared to the big muscles meant to move load upwards.
The lunges end up being strenuous beyond what seems like challenging-yet-sane exertion: I get very winded, sometimes even dizzy; occasionally to the point where I have to lie down on a bench or mat until it subsides. (I take medication daily which has nausea and heart pounding as possible side effects, which might be contributing to this.) Probably can’t maintain good form either, or develop it in the first place.
The overall effect is this ends up being a huge drag on what’d already be a lengthy workout. Since the rep goal is for each leg, they end up being this time consuming block of obnoxious suffering that makes me want to skip them or call it a day thinking “meh it’s just accessories.”
What I’m looking for is actionable suggestions on what I could change up to bridge this deficiency and motivation issue. My rough idea is:
1. Lower the rep goal to say 30 or even 20.
2. Do a full rest between sets. (I use a heart rate measuring app for this to wait until I drop below 70% max for my age.)
3. Keep the load to a minimum. (A pair of 4kg/10lb dumbbells.)
progressing by removing the above limits in that order. (Increase reps, then reduce resting time, then begin adding weight.) All this while trying to focus on form and proper muscle recruitment. (Not sure what exactly helps here beyond gut feeling… Using a mirror, or slow and careful negative reps?)
Now, this is mostly me wildly guessing as an amateur, so I’m not sure if this makes sense in the context of the whole routine, or if I’m missing something, so it’d help me if somebody more experienced could look this over.
Other options that come to mind are: substituting split squats instead. (Since one leg is supported, there’s less to juggle mechanically - I’m not sure how important what the rear leg does is with lunges.) Or maybe there’s a difference between regular and reverse lunges - I’m doing reverse, and maybe I’m unnecessarily doing the fiddlier variant? | 2020/08/06 | [
"https://fitness.stackexchange.com/questions/42648",
"https://fitness.stackexchange.com",
"https://fitness.stackexchange.com/users/32186/"
] | I’m not a big lunge fan myself, but they are certainly a useful exercise. While they aren’t an exercise that can be appropriately performed within lower rep ranges (say 10 or less), you certainly don’t need to do 50 reps to have an effective set. Anything between 15 and 30 should be fine, just work to (or close to) failure with reps done in good form. There’s no sense in torturing yourself with an exercise that is more mentally taxing than it is physically taxing. | If an exercise seems challenging to you, that's usually a bodybuilder/athlete's way of knowing that they are weak in that area and need to do it more often... although 50 reps is not very common at all for many people, especially lunges. Lunges burn a lot of calories which make an exercise seem "winded". 50 reps or "half-century" set can sometimes be more grueling than a simple 3 set of 10 with 4 times the weight. Lactic acid accumulates and your muscles get a lot of endurance. You could try variations of lunges, such as walking, static, dynamic, or other lunges. reverse lunges are different as they tend to target hamstrings and glutes a bit more, and quads a bit less, than regular lunges. It might be easier to do regular lunges. To be honest, I've done century sets, and its usually with exercises that are deemed "easy" such as cable machine exercises or isolation exercises like dumbbell curls. You could do leg extensions or something else that isn't so tough, but I'd say stick with it and just perform the regular lunges rather than reverse lunges. Overtime, the workout will get easier as your body adapts and doesn't release as much lactic acid and your muscles get stronger |
4,303,463 | I have a gridview that I wish to display gridlines only on certain rows.
I want them to be on each column, but only after every 4 rows. Is this possible?
Thanks. | 2010/11/29 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/4303463",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/482138/"
] | You can use the DataGridView.CellPainting event. | You can always user javascript (JQuery) to select wanted columns on table generated by gridview asp.net. After selecting this columns, set their right-border to wanted value or color.
If you don't want to use javascript, you can use RowDataBound eventHandler. If your columns are template fields, you can find wanted control ( e.Row.FindControl("ControlName")) and it's parent ( e.Row.FindControl("ControlName").Parent ). I am not sure, but I think that parent should be wanted cell and then you can set borders. You can try something like this, I haven't tried this. |
1,271,344 | I want to use my old laptop remotely (teamviewer) with closed lid. The problem is that the laptop will stop rendering windowcontent when the lid is closed. I found this answer: <https://superuser.com/a/988097/825553> where it was suggested to conntect a 102 ohm resitor on the vga-pin 2 & 6.
My question: can I use a 100 ohm instead of a 102 ohm to fake a connected monitor? | 2017/11/24 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/1271344",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/825553/"
] | Given that you use TeamViewer, you may want to try installing teamviewer's monitor driver. This should mean that teamviewer will use a virtual driver that works in any circumstances where a monitor is required. This should also allow you to use any resolution you need that is normally not supported by your monitor.
A restart may be required after you enable the monitor driver. | The following worked for me. I am running Windows 10 v1909....
With the lid closed, do the following (even though you don't see anything - Windows is still running, but it is not sending anything to a closed display):
1. **Windows Key** + letter '**P**' (will open the setting for multiple displays \*)
2. Press Enter
If the above doesn't work, press **Windows key** + '**P**' more than once to toggle between different options:
**PC screen only / Duplicate / Extend / Second screen only**
**\*IMPORTANT** Make sure you have enabled the TeamViewer option **Send key combinations** for the remote computer |
2,009,194 | I was reading about Go, and I can see that it's very good and can be a language used by many developers in some months, but I want to decide a simple thing: **Learn Go or improve my Python or Ruby knowledge?**
Years developing with Python: 1
Years developing with Ruby: 0.3 | 2010/01/05 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/2009194",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/126353/"
] | In reality, you should do both; if it's what you want. For me though, out of the two, I'd only look at Python. I have no real interest in languages that are so new. | First of all, it's a very very personal question, and my first recommendation will be , if you think so, try Go for one month or so, learning the basics, and then deciding... Each one has the mind fitted more to some particular languages than another...
I also would recommend keep using both Python and Ruby, if you're interested, you have enough experience to use them comfortably (I think), so the next months you could experience a great boost in your experience using them...
For an strict utilitarian point of view, learning Go extensively could be a risk move, but worthy if begins to being using and you're one of the very few people with some experience when everyone are just beginning to learn the syntax... |
2,009,194 | I was reading about Go, and I can see that it's very good and can be a language used by many developers in some months, but I want to decide a simple thing: **Learn Go or improve my Python or Ruby knowledge?**
Years developing with Python: 1
Years developing with Ruby: 0.3 | 2010/01/05 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/2009194",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/126353/"
] | It's up to you. You should probably do both if you can, because that way you will have more tools on your metaphorical programmer's belt.
There are a number of things that I think are worth considering whenever I'm in a similar dilemma.
Is a new language (not just unfamiliar, but actually new, like Go) likely to catch on? (If so, it will become practically NECESSARY to learn it, rather than just a good idea.)
You will need to spend some time to learn the unfamiliar language. Will this time investment result in some sort of positive return? The obvious one here is development time (i.e., can you eventually get more done and get back the time you spent to learn it), but if the language is superior in other ways (runs faster or with less memory, is best for your particular problem domain) those might factor in too.
Will learning the unfamiliar language allow you to solve a relevant/important/urgent problem that cannot be solved with what you already know?
Unfortunately, none of us can tell you how to weigh each of these concerns. You'll need to think about it really carefully and come to the answer on your own. | IMO you should improve your Python knowledge. Python is a widely adopted language, whereas
Go is still at a very, very early stage and there's no reason to believe that it will become successful.
From a purely utilitarian perspective, you will get a lot more value from learning Python. |
2,009,194 | I was reading about Go, and I can see that it's very good and can be a language used by many developers in some months, but I want to decide a simple thing: **Learn Go or improve my Python or Ruby knowledge?**
Years developing with Python: 1
Years developing with Ruby: 0.3 | 2010/01/05 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/2009194",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/126353/"
] | It depends on what your goals and your needs are.
If you're looking to develop your skills for a job, then go with Python or Ruby. You're unlikely to see Go show up in the workplace for quite some time (if ever) unless you're working at Google. (Even then it's questionable.)
If you want to have fun, do what you want. I think the best decider is, **pick a project you want to work on and then choose the language that is best suited for that project**.
Other things to consider:
* Each language is suited to certain tasks. Go is compiled into machine code, whereas Python and Ruby run in interpreters. Go lends itself to somewhat lower level work. It's also good for concurrent tasks. Higher level tasks might be more suited for Python or Ruby.
* Go is an experimental language that's likely to experience changes. These changes may be backward incompatible. If you learn it now, in 6 months or a year you may have to re-learn some of it because it's changed. That said, it can be fun to be a part of something that's on the bleeding edge. And if it does happen to become "the next big thing," you're in on the ground level. | These two languages accomplish different goals. Go is only 20% slower than C. If you want crazy speed and easy parallelism, then learn Go. However, readability was not a design goal. Also, it has no exceptions. It can be used for real-time products though ... |
2,009,194 | I was reading about Go, and I can see that it's very good and can be a language used by many developers in some months, but I want to decide a simple thing: **Learn Go or improve my Python or Ruby knowledge?**
Years developing with Python: 1
Years developing with Ruby: 0.3 | 2010/01/05 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/2009194",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/126353/"
] | How long have you been working with Python?
If it were me, I'd do my best to maybe get a working knowledge of Go (basic syntax, some familiarity with unique language features), and continue with Python as I normally would.
Eventually you might come up with a small project that Go seems suited for (or you can come up with one now!) and really dive into the language that way.
There's no reason to limit yourself to just one. :) | It's not easy to answer this without knowing how good your Python is, or what you do, or where you'd use Go. If you're looking for employment, I suspect Python is the way to go. I'd be surprised to find anyone is using Go for major projects at the moment (outside Google).
Note also that Go is by no means finalised. See [here](http://go.googlecode.com/hg/doc/devel/roadmap.html) for the Go roadmap, and note the potential changes in the future. So you may be trying to hit a moving target currently. |
2,009,194 | I was reading about Go, and I can see that it's very good and can be a language used by many developers in some months, but I want to decide a simple thing: **Learn Go or improve my Python or Ruby knowledge?**
Years developing with Python: 1
Years developing with Ruby: 0.3 | 2010/01/05 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/2009194",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/126353/"
] | It's up to you. You should probably do both if you can, because that way you will have more tools on your metaphorical programmer's belt.
There are a number of things that I think are worth considering whenever I'm in a similar dilemma.
Is a new language (not just unfamiliar, but actually new, like Go) likely to catch on? (If so, it will become practically NECESSARY to learn it, rather than just a good idea.)
You will need to spend some time to learn the unfamiliar language. Will this time investment result in some sort of positive return? The obvious one here is development time (i.e., can you eventually get more done and get back the time you spent to learn it), but if the language is superior in other ways (runs faster or with less memory, is best for your particular problem domain) those might factor in too.
Will learning the unfamiliar language allow you to solve a relevant/important/urgent problem that cannot be solved with what you already know?
Unfortunately, none of us can tell you how to weigh each of these concerns. You'll need to think about it really carefully and come to the answer on your own. | It's not easy to answer this without knowing how good your Python is, or what you do, or where you'd use Go. If you're looking for employment, I suspect Python is the way to go. I'd be surprised to find anyone is using Go for major projects at the moment (outside Google).
Note also that Go is by no means finalised. See [here](http://go.googlecode.com/hg/doc/devel/roadmap.html) for the Go roadmap, and note the potential changes in the future. So you may be trying to hit a moving target currently. |
2,009,194 | I was reading about Go, and I can see that it's very good and can be a language used by many developers in some months, but I want to decide a simple thing: **Learn Go or improve my Python or Ruby knowledge?**
Years developing with Python: 1
Years developing with Ruby: 0.3 | 2010/01/05 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/2009194",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/126353/"
] | It depends on what your goals and your needs are.
If you're looking to develop your skills for a job, then go with Python or Ruby. You're unlikely to see Go show up in the workplace for quite some time (if ever) unless you're working at Google. (Even then it's questionable.)
If you want to have fun, do what you want. I think the best decider is, **pick a project you want to work on and then choose the language that is best suited for that project**.
Other things to consider:
* Each language is suited to certain tasks. Go is compiled into machine code, whereas Python and Ruby run in interpreters. Go lends itself to somewhat lower level work. It's also good for concurrent tasks. Higher level tasks might be more suited for Python or Ruby.
* Go is an experimental language that's likely to experience changes. These changes may be backward incompatible. If you learn it now, in 6 months or a year you may have to re-learn some of it because it's changed. That said, it can be fun to be a part of something that's on the bleeding edge. And if it does happen to become "the next big thing," you're in on the ground level. | It's not easy to answer this without knowing how good your Python is, or what you do, or where you'd use Go. If you're looking for employment, I suspect Python is the way to go. I'd be surprised to find anyone is using Go for major projects at the moment (outside Google).
Note also that Go is by no means finalised. See [here](http://go.googlecode.com/hg/doc/devel/roadmap.html) for the Go roadmap, and note the potential changes in the future. So you may be trying to hit a moving target currently. |
2,009,194 | I was reading about Go, and I can see that it's very good and can be a language used by many developers in some months, but I want to decide a simple thing: **Learn Go or improve my Python or Ruby knowledge?**
Years developing with Python: 1
Years developing with Ruby: 0.3 | 2010/01/05 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/2009194",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/126353/"
] | First of all, it's a very very personal question, and my first recommendation will be , if you think so, try Go for one month or so, learning the basics, and then deciding... Each one has the mind fitted more to some particular languages than another...
I also would recommend keep using both Python and Ruby, if you're interested, you have enough experience to use them comfortably (I think), so the next months you could experience a great boost in your experience using them...
For an strict utilitarian point of view, learning Go extensively could be a risk move, but worthy if begins to being using and you're one of the very few people with some experience when everyone are just beginning to learn the syntax... | Python is a available for most operating systems, it's generally accepted as a scriptin language, and it has matured to production quality.
Go is a research language that's only available in beta quality on Linux and OS X. Nowhere else. It's interesting from an intellectual point of view in that you can learn and apply a few concepts (typed channels combined with easy multitasking) that are otherwise difficult to use.
As for Go, you might perhaps take a look at AT&T's "Plan 9" operating system first. It comes with a programming language called "Aleph" with also is C-based, has channels and multitasking. Looks to me like Go is a reimplementation of Aleph on more main-stream operating systems. |
2,009,194 | I was reading about Go, and I can see that it's very good and can be a language used by many developers in some months, but I want to decide a simple thing: **Learn Go or improve my Python or Ruby knowledge?**
Years developing with Python: 1
Years developing with Ruby: 0.3 | 2010/01/05 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/2009194",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/126353/"
] | In reality, you should do both; if it's what you want. For me though, out of the two, I'd only look at Python. I have no real interest in languages that are so new. | It's not easy to answer this without knowing how good your Python is, or what you do, or where you'd use Go. If you're looking for employment, I suspect Python is the way to go. I'd be surprised to find anyone is using Go for major projects at the moment (outside Google).
Note also that Go is by no means finalised. See [here](http://go.googlecode.com/hg/doc/devel/roadmap.html) for the Go roadmap, and note the potential changes in the future. So you may be trying to hit a moving target currently. |
2,009,194 | I was reading about Go, and I can see that it's very good and can be a language used by many developers in some months, but I want to decide a simple thing: **Learn Go or improve my Python or Ruby knowledge?**
Years developing with Python: 1
Years developing with Ruby: 0.3 | 2010/01/05 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/2009194",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/126353/"
] | How long have you been working with Python?
If it were me, I'd do my best to maybe get a working knowledge of Go (basic syntax, some familiarity with unique language features), and continue with Python as I normally would.
Eventually you might come up with a small project that Go seems suited for (or you can come up with one now!) and really dive into the language that way.
There's no reason to limit yourself to just one. :) | These two languages accomplish different goals. Go is only 20% slower than C. If you want crazy speed and easy parallelism, then learn Go. However, readability was not a design goal. Also, it has no exceptions. It can be used for real-time products though ... |
2,009,194 | I was reading about Go, and I can see that it's very good and can be a language used by many developers in some months, but I want to decide a simple thing: **Learn Go or improve my Python or Ruby knowledge?**
Years developing with Python: 1
Years developing with Ruby: 0.3 | 2010/01/05 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/2009194",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/126353/"
] | How long have you been working with Python?
If it were me, I'd do my best to maybe get a working knowledge of Go (basic syntax, some familiarity with unique language features), and continue with Python as I normally would.
Eventually you might come up with a small project that Go seems suited for (or you can come up with one now!) and really dive into the language that way.
There's no reason to limit yourself to just one. :) | Python is a available for most operating systems, it's generally accepted as a scriptin language, and it has matured to production quality.
Go is a research language that's only available in beta quality on Linux and OS X. Nowhere else. It's interesting from an intellectual point of view in that you can learn and apply a few concepts (typed channels combined with easy multitasking) that are otherwise difficult to use.
As for Go, you might perhaps take a look at AT&T's "Plan 9" operating system first. It comes with a programming language called "Aleph" with also is C-based, has channels and multitasking. Looks to me like Go is a reimplementation of Aleph on more main-stream operating systems. |
88,502 | I need to extract the document location of a published web service. Is there any way this can be accomplished in python?
I know where the maps are sitting on the server, and i know the name of the service and what mxd file they're based on, but i need to accomplish this programatically. | 2014/03/04 | [
"https://gis.stackexchange.com/questions/88502",
"https://gis.stackexchange.com",
"https://gis.stackexchange.com/users/26178/"
] | Unfortunately no. As Alex said, there is no real link between the original published mxd and the service (although there was in previous versions). You can however find a copy of the published mxd on your server in your ArcGIS Server directory at %arcgisserver root%\directories\arcgissystem\arcgisinput\%service folder name%\%service name%.MapServer\extracted\v101 | <https://developers.arcgis.com/rest/enterprise-administration/server/servicemanifest.htm>
You're looking for "resources" --> "onPremisePath" which should give you a record of the original MXD file path. |
152,896 | I've installed Drupal Commerce module, I got show cart block in header. If I click on it takes to cart page. I need a pop up of cart page on clicking show cart. | 2015/03/26 | [
"https://drupal.stackexchange.com/questions/152896",
"https://drupal.stackexchange.com",
"https://drupal.stackexchange.com/users/45541/"
] | Try the [Commerce Ajax Add to Cart](https://www.drupal.org/project/dc_ajax_add_cart) module.
>
> Using this module you can ajaxify the add to cart operation. The updated cart
> will be displayed without page refresh and a popup message will be shown after you add an item to cart. You can customize the look of the blocks using its template files.
>
>
> | Along with Krishna Mohan suggestion you can try [Commerce Ajax Cart](https://www.drupal.org/project/commerce_ajax_cart).
This module adds a pop up cart that is AJAX handled. |
107,407 | Microsoft sells "full" (non-Arcade) games on its Xbox Live Marketplace as digital downloads ("Games on Demand"). On average, are GoD loading times significantly faster than that of the disc version "installed" to the hard drive? Or are the access times identical because the data and retrieval techniques are identical? | 2013/03/04 | [
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com/questions/107407",
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com",
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com/users/21177/"
] | Depends on the game.
If the game has an installer (ala Halo Reach), it will load significantly faster via disc than via the GoD version.
But for the most part, the Games on Demand version will run a lot faster during loads (but some of the loads are specifically hard coded times, such as Mass Effect elevators, so that won't ever get faster).
If you're trying to decide between as disc and GoD, you'll get a better price on a disc, but GoD will probably load faster due to the constant read speeds off a single drive instead of transferring data to RAM, reading from the disc and the HD. | I know someone who has an Xbox 360 Slim and using a lot GoD. I personally use more HDD and DVDs on a fat Xbox 360 and I can assess that the difference between him launching GoD and me launching from HDD is not significantly faster. We are in a university residence and the internet connection is somewhat playing yo-yo, sometimes I can be faster than him, sometimes not.
And I'm using an old version of the Xbox.
To answer directly the question, the answer should be **no**, it's not loading times faster. But it might be a little faster .
I think the two main criterion are:
* Version of the Xbox
* Speed of internet connection |
107,407 | Microsoft sells "full" (non-Arcade) games on its Xbox Live Marketplace as digital downloads ("Games on Demand"). On average, are GoD loading times significantly faster than that of the disc version "installed" to the hard drive? Or are the access times identical because the data and retrieval techniques are identical? | 2013/03/04 | [
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com/questions/107407",
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com",
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com/users/21177/"
] | Depends on the game.
If the game has an installer (ala Halo Reach), it will load significantly faster via disc than via the GoD version.
But for the most part, the Games on Demand version will run a lot faster during loads (but some of the loads are specifically hard coded times, such as Mass Effect elevators, so that won't ever get faster).
If you're trying to decide between as disc and GoD, you'll get a better price on a disc, but GoD will probably load faster due to the constant read speeds off a single drive instead of transferring data to RAM, reading from the disc and the HD. | Short answer is yes.
At a maximum 24x drive speed, you can read 265.92Mbits/s off of a DVD. This assumes that the Xbox has a 24x drive, which I have not been able to validate. On the other hand, Xbox hard drives are SATA drives, which, at their slowest, have a data rate of 1.5Gbits/s
This means that, worst case, the Xbox can read from HD minimum 5.64 times faster than it can from the DVD drive.
While you may be able to get to the data 5 times faster, that doesn't mean it can't be processed faster. Math aside, I have noticed much quicker load times when playing GoD or games which I have installed. |
107,407 | Microsoft sells "full" (non-Arcade) games on its Xbox Live Marketplace as digital downloads ("Games on Demand"). On average, are GoD loading times significantly faster than that of the disc version "installed" to the hard drive? Or are the access times identical because the data and retrieval techniques are identical? | 2013/03/04 | [
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com/questions/107407",
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com",
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com/users/21177/"
] | Depends on the game.
If the game has an installer (ala Halo Reach), it will load significantly faster via disc than via the GoD version.
But for the most part, the Games on Demand version will run a lot faster during loads (but some of the loads are specifically hard coded times, such as Mass Effect elevators, so that won't ever get faster).
If you're trying to decide between as disc and GoD, you'll get a better price on a disc, but GoD will probably load faster due to the constant read speeds off a single drive instead of transferring data to RAM, reading from the disc and the HD. | (based on what I have read before and my own experience)
The load time are pretty much the same, as the content of the games including updates are taking up equal space, having the HDD loading the same files. I am not sure how the loading time from a none updated game loads when comparing disc installation and GoD installation. But I doubt there will be any difference at all.
If you look at various fora, you will see that its an issue discussed numerous times.
All with the same conclusions, that the difference isnt noticable.
Bonus info:
A comparison between loading from a disc and loading from the HDD, shows an improvement on about 15% faster load time from the HDD.
*
* <http://support.xbox.com/da-DK/games/manage-game-library>
(the last link is in Danish, but change the languege to your prefered)
\*\*NOTE I have not bought the same game twice to do the experiment myself.\* |
107,407 | Microsoft sells "full" (non-Arcade) games on its Xbox Live Marketplace as digital downloads ("Games on Demand"). On average, are GoD loading times significantly faster than that of the disc version "installed" to the hard drive? Or are the access times identical because the data and retrieval techniques are identical? | 2013/03/04 | [
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com/questions/107407",
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com",
"https://gaming.stackexchange.com/users/21177/"
] | Depends on the game.
If the game has an installer (ala Halo Reach), it will load significantly faster via disc than via the GoD version.
But for the most part, the Games on Demand version will run a lot faster during loads (but some of the loads are specifically hard coded times, such as Mass Effect elevators, so that won't ever get faster).
If you're trying to decide between as disc and GoD, you'll get a better price on a disc, but GoD will probably load faster due to the constant read speeds off a single drive instead of transferring data to RAM, reading from the disc and the HD. | I really can't tell if on average GoD downloads load faster as it seems to vary in a case by case basis. Take Halo 3 for example: back in 2010 it was [acknowledged by Bungie](http://www.1up.com/news/microsoft-acknowledges-longer-load-times) that the GoD version of the game would have longer load times. |
97,116 | Would a Dwarf's +2 to constitution be added to their ability stat, or just their modifier when making a roll? | 2017/03/27 | [
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/97116",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/users/34907/"
] | **It's added to the ability stat.**
If you are using point buy then any racial bonuses are added at the end. If you are rolling then you add the bonus after assigning each roll to a particular ability.
This would typically provide a +1 bonus to CON based rolls. | Ability modifiers in general, and racial ones in particular, affect your ability score, not just rolls that depend on it. So for stats like Con and Str, where individual ranks matter for derived stats, you would benefit from an increase to those derived stats in addition to the bonus on rolls. |
97,116 | Would a Dwarf's +2 to constitution be added to their ability stat, or just their modifier when making a roll? | 2017/03/27 | [
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/97116",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/users/34907/"
] | **It's added to the ability stat.**
If you are using point buy then any racial bonuses are added at the end. If you are rolling then you add the bonus after assigning each roll to a particular ability.
This would typically provide a +1 bonus to CON based rolls. | It is added to the base score during character creation, after initial ability scores are decided (Or race change with Reincarnation or something). It is an untyped, inherent increase, not a bonus. It is treated as if the ability score started that high during ability score determination and it should not be written on the character sheet as a bonus.
If you have 14 CON and choose to be Dwarf, your CON is now naturally 16, not 14+2 bonus. |
97,116 | Would a Dwarf's +2 to constitution be added to their ability stat, or just their modifier when making a roll? | 2017/03/27 | [
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/97116",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/users/34907/"
] | It is added to the base score during character creation, after initial ability scores are decided (Or race change with Reincarnation or something). It is an untyped, inherent increase, not a bonus. It is treated as if the ability score started that high during ability score determination and it should not be written on the character sheet as a bonus.
If you have 14 CON and choose to be Dwarf, your CON is now naturally 16, not 14+2 bonus. | Ability modifiers in general, and racial ones in particular, affect your ability score, not just rolls that depend on it. So for stats like Con and Str, where individual ranks matter for derived stats, you would benefit from an increase to those derived stats in addition to the bonus on rolls. |
15,895,384 | I have runnning e-commerce based ruby on rails application on AWS stack. I am running ubuntu 10.04 ec2 instances with Elastic load balancer and I have maintained equal number of instance in the both the availability zone, 1a and 1b. But according to my observation, ELB seeming to be pushing more traffic to 1a rather then dividing it equally. Though the health of the instances running in 1b is good and also I have disabled the sticky session on the ELB. I have 2 large and 1 medium instances running on both the availability zones.
What the cause of in equal distribution of the load. | 2013/04/09 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/15895384",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/449344/"
] | In my experience, this can happen if a disproportionate amount of traffic is coming from a single network or ip address.
ELB uses different layers of balancing. DNS load balancing will send it to a set of IP addresses in one of the two zones, and the software load balancer will distribute traffic between instances in the zone.
If you have a lot of traffic coming from the same network, its likely that a lot of users are getting the same DNS resolution on your load balancer and ending up in the same zone. | If the source traffic is coming from a single Network/IP range or IP address, ELB might load balance the traffic disproportionately to the backend. I have discussed this point as well as couple of other details to note on ELB in my blog "Dissecting ELB". I have also noticed this behavior in some popular OSS LB implementations as well, You can have balance algorithm as "source" and as well as session sticky combined . If session ID is not sent on the HTTP, then it will load balance based "source". |
18,863,330 | Just wondering if anyone came across to an issue, that jQuery mobile doesn't have a flash error / infor / warning messages.
Is there any 3d party libraries that deal with that messages?
PS. Don't need a popup. | 2013/09/18 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/18863330",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/692020/"
] | I found ***jquery-message*** project:
>
> <http://code.google.com/p/jquery-message/>
>
>
>
But haven't tested yet.
The [mobile demo page](http://jquery-message.googlecode.com/hg/demo/mobile.html) seems like what you are looking for | I'm years late to this thread, but the reason is because jQuery is submitting the form (likely you're submitting a form and want a response) via AJAX, which is async, so the response comes back before the server sets the flash message, and the flash isn't being rendered in the ajax callback.
Long story short, if you set data-ajax="false" on your form, you'll get the flash error / success whatever. But this kinda defeats the purpose of the "mobile-native" feel of jQuery Mobile. I'm facing the same problem with my app... |
20,102,055 | I need to create a REST based web service where the request will be handled asynchronously.
By asynchronous, I mean that the client will make the request and continue with its execution with out waiting for the response from the service.Is it possible to achieve this?
I need to deploy the service in WebSphere Application Server. | 2013/11/20 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/20102055",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1511294/"
] | So I am not sure if your question is about how to do asynchronous processing on the server, or how to handle asynchronous operations in a RESTful manner. If it is the latter, then here is a summary of the approach suggested at: <http://restcookbook.com/Resources/asynchroneous-operations/>
Code your service method to
* (a) handle the requested operation asynchronously (using a separate
thread most likely).
* (b) Immediately return a response code of 202-Accepted
* (c) In the response body, return a URI that represents the status of the requested operation.
Then code your client to:
* (a) Call the main service method. When the response is completed, if the response code is 202, note the URI returned in the body.
* (b) In a background thread, periodically poll that URI, until it returns an indication that the operation is complete. | Yes, you could create a Thread which calls your REST service. Maybe you could see how to achieve this here:
<http://docs.oracle.com/javase/tutorial/essential/concurrency/runthread.html> |
2,977 | Lately I've noticed several older questions (some as many as two years old) that are being flagged as off topic and are in the queue to be closed.
I don't understand this? Why would we waste our time on questions that are so far off of the front page that we wouldn't even have to see them if they weren't being flagged?
Further, perhaps more personally, it bugs me because these questions were easily considered on topic at the time (way back when we were still trying to define ourselves.) Many of them have a dozen upvotes or so and many have a few really good and useful answers on them. It would be questionable to close them today since they seem to be useful to someone (and, in a general sense, are about aviation an airline operations).
So can someone please explain to me who is trying to get all of these questions closed down two years after the fact? I think there are better uses for the review queue than this... Not sayin', just saying. | 2016/05/05 | [
"https://aviation.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/2977",
"https://aviation.meta.stackexchange.com",
"https://aviation.meta.stackexchange.com/users/511/"
] | While I don't entirely disagree that all questions should be evaluated based on current standards, I've found that the people who vote to close old questions tend to be people who want to be rule enforcers.
There are a lot of mentalities which emanate from Stack Overflow out into our smaller communities, and chief among them is the notion that you need to close everything which is in a grey area for on-topic because, if you don't, those sorts of questions are going to keep getting asked and turn into a cancer that destroys the site.
That highly protective stance developed out of *necessity*, because problems can get out of control quickly on a site which gets thousands of questions per day. But Aviation.SE is SOOOOOOO MUCH SMALLER than Stack Overflow. To illustrate, 10165 questions were asked on Stack Overflow yesterday... on Aviation, we got 6.
Before voting to close *any* question, but especially one that is years old, you should ask:
* Did the question get a good answer? If it did, it's likely indicative that people in our community are capable and interested in answering those sorts of questions, and until proven otherwise, just let it be.
* Is the question such a bad fit that it's actually harmful? Is it actively encouraging new questions which are bad quality or that our community doesn't want to answer? If the answer is no, then you might be doing more harm than good to the community by voting to close. It makes people feel that the community is petty and mean-spirited.
In summary, YOU ARE NOT A ROBOT. Act like a human. Don't close a question because "those are the rules". Vote to close when doing so will actually have a positive effect. | Per [Meta](https://meta.stackexchange.com/q/194116/257476), all questions should be evaluated based on our current standards. This ensures consistency across the site, and prevents people from getting the wrong idea of what is considered a good question based on older posts. If users feel that a question should be closed/reopened, they should post about it here on meta as usual.
I would argue that being a small site makes this even more important, not less. It's much easier to look through all of our old questions to find similar questions, and we've had new users lately confused about why old questions were not closed but their new question is. Although letting old questions stay open may prevent people from seeing us as petty or mean-spirited, they instead see us as showing favoritism, particularly of old users over new ones. For example, we seem to be saying that [how airlines choose food](https://aviation.stackexchange.com/q/2353/1696) is on topic, but [the codes they use for the food](https://aviation.stackexchange.com/q/27513/1696) or [what they do with it after a flight](https://aviation.stackexchange.com/q/24139/1696) isn't? I'm not saying it's related, but it has been pointed out that there has been a [decrease in new questions](https://aviation.meta.stackexchange.com/q/2984/1696) recently.
If the question is blatantly off-topic or unlikely to get enough votes, [it may be flagged for moderator attention](https://meta.stackexchange.com/q/123455/257476). The conversation on these meta posts is focused on "how best to handle these questions" and not "just leave them alone."
I understand how it can seem wrong to be closing questions that were left open before. But there is no statute of limitation here, and our idea of what is on-topic may change over time. For extraordinary cases of old questions that are not considered a good fit, but still have some value, moderators can apply the ["historically significant"](https://meta.stackexchange.com/q/126587/257476) lock to also prevent edits. |
3,051 | I am building a social media platform. I am considering implementing a function to let users view recent visitors to their profile page.
Is it a good idea to let a user view who's visited or viewed their profile? Why or why not? | 2019/04/06 | [
"https://moderators.stackexchange.com/questions/3051",
"https://moderators.stackexchange.com",
"https://moderators.stackexchange.com/users/3880/"
] | I think that a good way to handle this would be to let them see *how many* people visited their profile, but then have a setting where people can choose if they want their profile to appear on a list of people who visited somebody's profile, that way people can have a say on who sees their username, while still allowing users to collect information from people willing to have that setting active. Heres an example:
User 1 visits User 2's profile, and has the list setting on.
User 2 at some point receives or looks at a list of people who visited their profile, and sees User 1 on it.
Or
User 1 visits User 2's profile, but has the list setting off.
User 2 receives or looks at a list of people who visited their profile, and does not see User 1 on it, but sees people who had the setting on. However User 1 still counts towards the number of people who visited their account. | Letting users know how many views, in total, their profile has gotten could be beneficial. Stack Exchange used to have this feature prior to some profile redesigns, even though it is not a social media site. It let others, and the user themselves, know how "popular" their profile page is. Or, perhaps more accurately, how often users are interested enough in their contributions that they want to see more.
Here's a screenshot of how it looked:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/XEaCp.png)
It was a very simple counter that gives you, at a quick glance, a number of views your profile has gotten.
Letting users know who, specifically, viewed their profile would raise more questions than it answers, in my opinion. "Why did (x) view my profile?" would be a constant question being asked in this situation.
If you have an existing community you can poll for such a change, you should do so. Perhaps the people who actually use your social media platform could weigh in on whether they would like such a feature or not, and you can consider their feedback when developing further. |
6,326,954 | I currently have an entity Exercise with attributes name, picture , muscle, etc.
When an exercise object is created and saved in my app (using core data), all these attributes are set from a dictionary in a .plist. I now want to add descriptions (paragraph of text) but it doesn't make sense to add a description attribute to Exercise because there will be several of the same exercises and this may just waste space.
Is there a way I can create a new class, maybe exerciseDescription, that pulls the exercise name attribute from the selected exercise, and pull the corresponding description from a .plist?
I have almost 300 exercises and the plist I am currently pulling info from is an array of dictionarys for each muscle group which have an array of exercises in each. | 2011/06/13 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/6326954",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/-1/"
] | You should use the CodePlex [Contact Us](https://www.codeplex.com/site/contact) form and say what error you're getting and we'll run "hg recover" on your project for you. | OK, the issue was on the remote repository hosted on codeplex. The codeplex folks were so kind as to fix the issue :) |
6,326,954 | I currently have an entity Exercise with attributes name, picture , muscle, etc.
When an exercise object is created and saved in my app (using core data), all these attributes are set from a dictionary in a .plist. I now want to add descriptions (paragraph of text) but it doesn't make sense to add a description attribute to Exercise because there will be several of the same exercises and this may just waste space.
Is there a way I can create a new class, maybe exerciseDescription, that pulls the exercise name attribute from the selected exercise, and pull the corresponding description from a .plist?
I have almost 300 exercises and the plist I am currently pulling info from is an array of dictionarys for each muscle group which have an array of exercises in each. | 2011/06/13 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/6326954",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/-1/"
] | For anyone having this problem on their own hg repo you need to run **hg recover *on the remote repo***. It's a very simple fix but the error messages doesn't make this obvious.
(This is mentioned above, I just want to make it very clear). | You should use the CodePlex [Contact Us](https://www.codeplex.com/site/contact) form and say what error you're getting and we'll run "hg recover" on your project for you. |
6,326,954 | I currently have an entity Exercise with attributes name, picture , muscle, etc.
When an exercise object is created and saved in my app (using core data), all these attributes are set from a dictionary in a .plist. I now want to add descriptions (paragraph of text) but it doesn't make sense to add a description attribute to Exercise because there will be several of the same exercises and this may just waste space.
Is there a way I can create a new class, maybe exerciseDescription, that pulls the exercise name attribute from the selected exercise, and pull the corresponding description from a .plist?
I have almost 300 exercises and the plist I am currently pulling info from is an array of dictionarys for each muscle group which have an array of exercises in each. | 2011/06/13 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/6326954",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/-1/"
] | For anyone having this problem on their own hg repo you need to run **hg recover *on the remote repo***. It's a very simple fix but the error messages doesn't make this obvious.
(This is mentioned above, I just want to make it very clear). | OK, the issue was on the remote repository hosted on codeplex. The codeplex folks were so kind as to fix the issue :) |
9,208 | I've found a good-condition earphones in an old bag, and I've managed to clean the earphone cords with a rag and alcohol, I've also found **[this video](https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=tVeH2rhocSY)** which suggests to clean them with **Window Cleaner Liquid** which also helped me remove the last dirty of the places that alcohol couldn't remove it.
But on the plugin area, I can't seem to remove the "yellow" color. How can I clean this yellow area?
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/GAEti.png) | 2015/09/06 | [
"https://lifehacks.stackexchange.com/questions/9208",
"https://lifehacks.stackexchange.com",
"https://lifehacks.stackexchange.com/users/5274/"
] | Well, in my case, I just used wet wipes and rubbed it around the cord of my earphones.
And I tell you, it works just like magic! Although, it hadn't turned my earphones back into its original white color but still, the dirt clinging around the cord had definitely been removed. | use white toothpaste :) it works on my white earphone turned yellowish |
9,208 | I've found a good-condition earphones in an old bag, and I've managed to clean the earphone cords with a rag and alcohol, I've also found **[this video](https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=tVeH2rhocSY)** which suggests to clean them with **Window Cleaner Liquid** which also helped me remove the last dirty of the places that alcohol couldn't remove it.
But on the plugin area, I can't seem to remove the "yellow" color. How can I clean this yellow area?
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/GAEti.png) | 2015/09/06 | [
"https://lifehacks.stackexchange.com/questions/9208",
"https://lifehacks.stackexchange.com",
"https://lifehacks.stackexchange.com/users/5274/"
] | I hate to break it to you, but short of shaving or chemically melting off the outer layer of discolored plastic, you can't really remove that kind of discoloration. And that is if it only penetrated shallowly. If it was due to some kind of volatiles that were able to work themselves deeply into the polymer structures, then it is a total wash. But as mentioned at first, you could always try shaving off the outer layers carefully of course. I wouldn't try chemical means though as you stand a pretty good chance of actually driving the discoloration deeper. | Nail paint remover is quite effective. Take a few drops on cotton ball, you can remove any color from headphones/charger- volatile or non volatile. Rub the cotton ball on cable with soft hands. Results are too good. |
9,208 | I've found a good-condition earphones in an old bag, and I've managed to clean the earphone cords with a rag and alcohol, I've also found **[this video](https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=tVeH2rhocSY)** which suggests to clean them with **Window Cleaner Liquid** which also helped me remove the last dirty of the places that alcohol couldn't remove it.
But on the plugin area, I can't seem to remove the "yellow" color. How can I clean this yellow area?
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/GAEti.png) | 2015/09/06 | [
"https://lifehacks.stackexchange.com/questions/9208",
"https://lifehacks.stackexchange.com",
"https://lifehacks.stackexchange.com/users/5274/"
] | Nail paint remover is quite effective. Take a few drops on cotton ball, you can remove any color from headphones/charger- volatile or non volatile. Rub the cotton ball on cable with soft hands. Results are too good. | Dampen a wet wipe or cloth with hand sanitizer and wipe your headphones..it works without making your headphones sticky |
9,208 | I've found a good-condition earphones in an old bag, and I've managed to clean the earphone cords with a rag and alcohol, I've also found **[this video](https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=tVeH2rhocSY)** which suggests to clean them with **Window Cleaner Liquid** which also helped me remove the last dirty of the places that alcohol couldn't remove it.
But on the plugin area, I can't seem to remove the "yellow" color. How can I clean this yellow area?
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/GAEti.png) | 2015/09/06 | [
"https://lifehacks.stackexchange.com/questions/9208",
"https://lifehacks.stackexchange.com",
"https://lifehacks.stackexchange.com/users/5274/"
] | Just use a little bit of hand sanitizer and keep applying it over the length of the cable over and over again. It has left my earphone cables looking almost new. | use white toothpaste :) it works on my white earphone turned yellowish |
9,208 | I've found a good-condition earphones in an old bag, and I've managed to clean the earphone cords with a rag and alcohol, I've also found **[this video](https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=tVeH2rhocSY)** which suggests to clean them with **Window Cleaner Liquid** which also helped me remove the last dirty of the places that alcohol couldn't remove it.
But on the plugin area, I can't seem to remove the "yellow" color. How can I clean this yellow area?
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/GAEti.png) | 2015/09/06 | [
"https://lifehacks.stackexchange.com/questions/9208",
"https://lifehacks.stackexchange.com",
"https://lifehacks.stackexchange.com/users/5274/"
] | In case anyone is wondering if I did cleaned my white earphones, here's how I did it.
They are not 100% white, but definitely a lot whiter.
First I tried to brush them with toothpaste as suggested by @zzzzz , but I didn't quite see any plausible results, then when I was tired of brushing them and as a last resort, I sprayed them with bleach (that liquid that makes your clothes whiter) and brushed them again for another 2/3 minutes.
I wasn't seeing any results, but then I sprayed them again with bleach and left them outside in a sunny day so they could dry and you know... I just sprayed them with bleach, they are all soaked, so I want them clearly to dry :) . After a few hours being exposed to the sun, they started becoming whiter. At the end of the day, the results were pretty good.
Now I don't know if it was soaking them with bleach and its interaction with the sun, or the combination of the toothpaste then the bleach plus the sun, but they definitely became whiter. | use white toothpaste :) it works on my white earphone turned yellowish |
9,208 | I've found a good-condition earphones in an old bag, and I've managed to clean the earphone cords with a rag and alcohol, I've also found **[this video](https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=tVeH2rhocSY)** which suggests to clean them with **Window Cleaner Liquid** which also helped me remove the last dirty of the places that alcohol couldn't remove it.
But on the plugin area, I can't seem to remove the "yellow" color. How can I clean this yellow area?
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/GAEti.png) | 2015/09/06 | [
"https://lifehacks.stackexchange.com/questions/9208",
"https://lifehacks.stackexchange.com",
"https://lifehacks.stackexchange.com/users/5274/"
] | Squeeze out a lemon get some baking soda and some toothpaste mix it together and apply to the cord and take a wet paper towel not too wet and remove the mixture and there you have it good as new. | Just use a little bit of hand sanitizer and keep applying it over the length of the cable over and over again. It has left my earphone cables looking almost new. |
9,208 | I've found a good-condition earphones in an old bag, and I've managed to clean the earphone cords with a rag and alcohol, I've also found **[this video](https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=tVeH2rhocSY)** which suggests to clean them with **Window Cleaner Liquid** which also helped me remove the last dirty of the places that alcohol couldn't remove it.
But on the plugin area, I can't seem to remove the "yellow" color. How can I clean this yellow area?
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/GAEti.png) | 2015/09/06 | [
"https://lifehacks.stackexchange.com/questions/9208",
"https://lifehacks.stackexchange.com",
"https://lifehacks.stackexchange.com/users/5274/"
] | Nail paint remover is quite effective. Take a few drops on cotton ball, you can remove any color from headphones/charger- volatile or non volatile. Rub the cotton ball on cable with soft hands. Results are too good. | use white toothpaste :) it works on my white earphone turned yellowish |
9,208 | I've found a good-condition earphones in an old bag, and I've managed to clean the earphone cords with a rag and alcohol, I've also found **[this video](https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=tVeH2rhocSY)** which suggests to clean them with **Window Cleaner Liquid** which also helped me remove the last dirty of the places that alcohol couldn't remove it.
But on the plugin area, I can't seem to remove the "yellow" color. How can I clean this yellow area?
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/GAEti.png) | 2015/09/06 | [
"https://lifehacks.stackexchange.com/questions/9208",
"https://lifehacks.stackexchange.com",
"https://lifehacks.stackexchange.com/users/5274/"
] | Squeeze out a lemon get some baking soda and some toothpaste mix it together and apply to the cord and take a wet paper towel not too wet and remove the mixture and there you have it good as new. | Nail paint remover is quite effective. Take a few drops on cotton ball, you can remove any color from headphones/charger- volatile or non volatile. Rub the cotton ball on cable with soft hands. Results are too good. |
9,208 | I've found a good-condition earphones in an old bag, and I've managed to clean the earphone cords with a rag and alcohol, I've also found **[this video](https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=tVeH2rhocSY)** which suggests to clean them with **Window Cleaner Liquid** which also helped me remove the last dirty of the places that alcohol couldn't remove it.
But on the plugin area, I can't seem to remove the "yellow" color. How can I clean this yellow area?
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/GAEti.png) | 2015/09/06 | [
"https://lifehacks.stackexchange.com/questions/9208",
"https://lifehacks.stackexchange.com",
"https://lifehacks.stackexchange.com/users/5274/"
] | I hate to break it to you, but short of shaving or chemically melting off the outer layer of discolored plastic, you can't really remove that kind of discoloration. And that is if it only penetrated shallowly. If it was due to some kind of volatiles that were able to work themselves deeply into the polymer structures, then it is a total wash. But as mentioned at first, you could always try shaving off the outer layers carefully of course. I wouldn't try chemical means though as you stand a pretty good chance of actually driving the discoloration deeper. | use white toothpaste :) it works on my white earphone turned yellowish |
9,208 | I've found a good-condition earphones in an old bag, and I've managed to clean the earphone cords with a rag and alcohol, I've also found **[this video](https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=tVeH2rhocSY)** which suggests to clean them with **Window Cleaner Liquid** which also helped me remove the last dirty of the places that alcohol couldn't remove it.
But on the plugin area, I can't seem to remove the "yellow" color. How can I clean this yellow area?
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/GAEti.png) | 2015/09/06 | [
"https://lifehacks.stackexchange.com/questions/9208",
"https://lifehacks.stackexchange.com",
"https://lifehacks.stackexchange.com/users/5274/"
] | I hate to break it to you, but short of shaving or chemically melting off the outer layer of discolored plastic, you can't really remove that kind of discoloration. And that is if it only penetrated shallowly. If it was due to some kind of volatiles that were able to work themselves deeply into the polymer structures, then it is a total wash. But as mentioned at first, you could always try shaving off the outer layers carefully of course. I wouldn't try chemical means though as you stand a pretty good chance of actually driving the discoloration deeper. | The easiest way is use eraser. And rub it over the length. this is quick and easy way when cable is not too much dirty. |
616,834 | It is very common to have uncorrelated velocities in chaotic dynamical systems. Yet, we should be wary in equating the two quite different meanings of chaos.
Instead of matching dynamical chaos to molecular chaos, it seems much easier to work the other way as the former case does not have a universal definition. Hence, if within some chaotic Hamiltonian system the velocities are uncorrelated, can we say this is molecular chaos? In other words, does molecular chaos exist when particles shrink to an infinitesimal point?
edit: The final question is obviously absurd since molecular chaos concerns uncorrelated velocities occurring as the result of *collisions* of particles. The point is that particles of finite size are not necessary to define a velocity, so does that mean the molecular chaos 'definition' can be refined further. | 2021/02/24 | [
"https://physics.stackexchange.com/questions/616834",
"https://physics.stackexchange.com",
"https://physics.stackexchange.com/users/223390/"
] | Photons (obviously) travel at the speed of light in vacuum. Any other particle with zero rest mass (such as the hypothetical [graviton](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Graviton), if it exists) would also travel at the speed of light. Nothing with non-zero rest mass can travel at the speed of light in vacuum. However, particles can travel at or faster than the *local* speed of light in media such as water - see [this Wikipedia article](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Cherenkov_radiation). | Nothing with rest mass can attain the speed that light travels at in vacuum. |
10,486 | Estimates have been thrown around a lot recently as to the year in which the last Bitcoin will be mined- where are these estimates coming from? Could someone send me to the relevant code? | 2013/05/02 | [
"https://bitcoin.stackexchange.com/questions/10486",
"https://bitcoin.stackexchange.com",
"https://bitcoin.stackexchange.com/users/5841/"
] | The estimate is **2140** based on the block reward halving frequency of four years. [According to math and knowledge that there are 32 halving events](https://bitcoin.stackexchange.com/questions/8823/how-many-bitcoin-are-mined-per-day), in 2136, the block reward will yield 0.00000168 BTC per day, which is 0.00000042 BTC per block. That's 42 [satoshis](https://bitcoin.stackexchange.com/questions/114/what-is-a-satoshi).
It's arguable that there could be one additional halving, to a block reward of 0.00000021 BTC, but that would require a major protocol modification since the number of Bitcoin would then exceed 21 million. Additionally, to go past that, there'd have to be a protocol modification to extend divisibility past eight decimal places. It is far, far to early to worry about either of these, because we're more than a century away from this problem. | As per considering mining of any cryptocurrency is calculated by increasing hash rate and difficulty and decreasing block rewards. So time prediction of final block mining is 2145. |
10,486 | Estimates have been thrown around a lot recently as to the year in which the last Bitcoin will be mined- where are these estimates coming from? Could someone send me to the relevant code? | 2013/05/02 | [
"https://bitcoin.stackexchange.com/questions/10486",
"https://bitcoin.stackexchange.com",
"https://bitcoin.stackexchange.com/users/5841/"
] | The estimate is **2140** based on the block reward halving frequency of four years. [According to math and knowledge that there are 32 halving events](https://bitcoin.stackexchange.com/questions/8823/how-many-bitcoin-are-mined-per-day), in 2136, the block reward will yield 0.00000168 BTC per day, which is 0.00000042 BTC per block. That's 42 [satoshis](https://bitcoin.stackexchange.com/questions/114/what-is-a-satoshi).
It's arguable that there could be one additional halving, to a block reward of 0.00000021 BTC, but that would require a major protocol modification since the number of Bitcoin would then exceed 21 million. Additionally, to go past that, there'd have to be a protocol modification to extend divisibility past eight decimal places. It is far, far to early to worry about either of these, because we're more than a century away from this problem. | Bitcoin's reward schedule is implemented in eras of 210,000 blocks. The block subsidy gets halved with the first block of each new era. The 33rd "halving" at block 6,930,000 will reduce the block subsidy limit from 1 satoshi per block to 0 satoshi per block¹ and therefore the last block creating new bitcoins will be block 6,929,999.
At block intervals of 10 minutes, 210,000 blocks translate to about 3.99 years, although blocks have been found faster in average in the past. Under the simplifying assumption that the halvings will occur about every four years, the final block that creates new bitcoins would occur approximately in **2140**.
You can find a table with the respective calculations here: [Bitcoin Reward Schedule](https://docs.google.com/spreadsheets/d/12tR_9WrY0Hj4AQLoJYj9EDBzfA38XIVLQSOOOVePNm0/pubhtml?gid=0&single=true)
Really, the mining reward will get minuscule much earlier already. In 2036 99% of the bitcoins will be in circulation, in 2048 it will be 99.9%.
---
¹Actually, the limit is 0.58207661 satoshi per block at that point, but since only whole satoshis can be paid out, none may be collected by miners. |
10,486 | Estimates have been thrown around a lot recently as to the year in which the last Bitcoin will be mined- where are these estimates coming from? Could someone send me to the relevant code? | 2013/05/02 | [
"https://bitcoin.stackexchange.com/questions/10486",
"https://bitcoin.stackexchange.com",
"https://bitcoin.stackexchange.com/users/5841/"
] | Bitcoin's reward schedule is implemented in eras of 210,000 blocks. The block subsidy gets halved with the first block of each new era. The 33rd "halving" at block 6,930,000 will reduce the block subsidy limit from 1 satoshi per block to 0 satoshi per block¹ and therefore the last block creating new bitcoins will be block 6,929,999.
At block intervals of 10 minutes, 210,000 blocks translate to about 3.99 years, although blocks have been found faster in average in the past. Under the simplifying assumption that the halvings will occur about every four years, the final block that creates new bitcoins would occur approximately in **2140**.
You can find a table with the respective calculations here: [Bitcoin Reward Schedule](https://docs.google.com/spreadsheets/d/12tR_9WrY0Hj4AQLoJYj9EDBzfA38XIVLQSOOOVePNm0/pubhtml?gid=0&single=true)
Really, the mining reward will get minuscule much earlier already. In 2036 99% of the bitcoins will be in circulation, in 2048 it will be 99.9%.
---
¹Actually, the limit is 0.58207661 satoshi per block at that point, but since only whole satoshis can be paid out, none may be collected by miners. | As per considering mining of any cryptocurrency is calculated by increasing hash rate and difficulty and decreasing block rewards. So time prediction of final block mining is 2145. |
15,704 | Does the Greek text of 2 Tim. 1:16-18 imply that Onesiphorus had already been dead by the time of writing these words?:
>
> The Lord give mercy unto the house of Onesiphorus; for he oft
> refreshed me, and was not ashamed of my chain: But, when he was in
> Rome, he sought me out very diligently, and found me. The Lord grant
> unto him that he may find mercy of the Lord in that day: and in how
> many things he ministered unto me at Ephesus, thou knowest very well.
>
>
> | 2015/02/13 | [
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/15704",
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com",
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/users/331/"
] | The key of this text is the phrase **that day**, which occurs in the following three verses:
>
> [**2 Tim 1:16-18**](https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=2%20Timothy%201%3A12&version=NASB;SBLGNT) (NASB)
>
> 16 The Lord grant mercy to the house of Onesiphorus, for he often refreshed me and was not ashamed of my chains; 17 but when he was in Rome, he eagerly searched for me and found me— 18the Lord grant to him to find mercy from the Lord on **that day**—and you know very well what services he rendered at Ephesus.
>
>
> [**2 Tim 4:8**](https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=2%20Timothy%204%3A8&version=NASB;SBLGNT) (NASB)
>
> 8 in the future there is laid up for me the crown of righteousness, which the Lord, the righteous Judge, will award to me on **that day**; and not only to me, but also to all who have loved His appearing.
>
>
> [**2 Tim 1:12**](https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=2%20Timothy%201%3A12&version=NASB;SBLGNT) (NASB)
>
> 12 For this reason I also suffer these things, but I am not ashamed; for I know whom I have believed and I am convinced that He is able to guard what I have entrusted to Him until **that day**.
>
>
>
If the author of the epistle refers to himself as receiving his reward of due compensation on **that day**, and the author was alive when he wrote these words, then why should we assume that Onesiphorus was necessarily already dead just because he too was supposed to receive his reward of due compensation on **that day**? | Onesiphorus, I believe, was not dead because Paul would not have prayed for him. Besides those who die in Christ need no one to pray for them, as they are "in Christ". That's a guarantee.
>
> And the LORD, he *it is* that doth go before thee; he will be with thee, he will not fail thee, neither forsake thee: fear not, neither be dismayed.
>
> -- Deuteronomy 31:8 (KJV)
>
>
>
I believe wholeheartedly that those who pray for the dead are wasting their time and know not the Lord in truth. Let's use our time praying for the living and not the dead. Much more profitable! |
15,704 | Does the Greek text of 2 Tim. 1:16-18 imply that Onesiphorus had already been dead by the time of writing these words?:
>
> The Lord give mercy unto the house of Onesiphorus; for he oft
> refreshed me, and was not ashamed of my chain: But, when he was in
> Rome, he sought me out very diligently, and found me. The Lord grant
> unto him that he may find mercy of the Lord in that day: and in how
> many things he ministered unto me at Ephesus, thou knowest very well.
>
>
> | 2015/02/13 | [
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/15704",
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com",
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/users/331/"
] | The text provided in the question is an accurate translation of the [Greek text seen here](http://www.scripture4all.org/OnlineInterlinear/NTpdf/2ti1.pdf). This does not state that Onesiphorus is already dead, but gives us clues that lead to that conclusion. First, the mention of Onesiphorus' grieving family ("The Lord give mercy unto the house of Onesiphorus"), then the hope that the Lord will grant mercy in that (Judgement) day. [2 Timothy 4:19](http://www.vatican.va/archive/ENG0839/__P119.HTM) says: "Greet Prisca and Aquila 9 and the family of Onesiphorus," once again implying that Onesiphorus is dead, or at least absent.
We can pause from looking at the actual words of the passage, to look at the context in which Second Timothy was written. Although traditionally attributed to Saint Paul, [most modern critical scholars argue that 2 Timothy was written after Paul's death](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Second_Epistle_to_Timothy#Authorship). Paul never mentioned Onesiphorus in his undisputed epistles, so it is likely that Onesiphorus was a literary construct invented by the actual author of *2 Timothy*.
Returning to the meaning of Greek words in this passage, the name Onesiphorus means ‘bringing advantage’. When we consider that Onesiphorus is singled out as someone not ashamed of Paul’s imprisonment and was the one person who sought out Paul in Rome, when others had abandoned him, then he truly did bring advantage. Although Greeks were sometimes given aspirational names, the appropriateness of Onesiphorus in this case is further evidence that he was a literary construct and existed only within Second Timothy. Onesiphorus was not dead if he never lived. | According to the current official teaching of the RCC, purgatory is not a place to PAY for one's venial sins, but a place of purification to prepare the deceased 'Christian' to live in heaven. Thus, purgatory implies that the person enduring it already has full pardon or mercy in Jesus. The person's sins are redeemed by Jesus' death on the cross. The person in purgatory is said to already be forgiven. The person is assured heaven in the official view and so we cannot conclude that 2 Timothy 1:16-18 is proof of purgatory. So is it then proof of hell then? We cannot conclude that either for the fact that mercy is assured to the one who has met the conditions of divine pardon in this life. If Onesimus was dead and Paul was praying for mercy, then it would imply Paul was praying that Onesimus would be able to avoid hell. And such an interpretation would also be speculation. |
15,704 | Does the Greek text of 2 Tim. 1:16-18 imply that Onesiphorus had already been dead by the time of writing these words?:
>
> The Lord give mercy unto the house of Onesiphorus; for he oft
> refreshed me, and was not ashamed of my chain: But, when he was in
> Rome, he sought me out very diligently, and found me. The Lord grant
> unto him that he may find mercy of the Lord in that day: and in how
> many things he ministered unto me at Ephesus, thou knowest very well.
>
>
> | 2015/02/13 | [
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/15704",
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com",
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/users/331/"
] | The key of this text is the phrase **that day**, which occurs in the following three verses:
>
> [**2 Tim 1:16-18**](https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=2%20Timothy%201%3A12&version=NASB;SBLGNT) (NASB)
>
> 16 The Lord grant mercy to the house of Onesiphorus, for he often refreshed me and was not ashamed of my chains; 17 but when he was in Rome, he eagerly searched for me and found me— 18the Lord grant to him to find mercy from the Lord on **that day**—and you know very well what services he rendered at Ephesus.
>
>
> [**2 Tim 4:8**](https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=2%20Timothy%204%3A8&version=NASB;SBLGNT) (NASB)
>
> 8 in the future there is laid up for me the crown of righteousness, which the Lord, the righteous Judge, will award to me on **that day**; and not only to me, but also to all who have loved His appearing.
>
>
> [**2 Tim 1:12**](https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=2%20Timothy%201%3A12&version=NASB;SBLGNT) (NASB)
>
> 12 For this reason I also suffer these things, but I am not ashamed; for I know whom I have believed and I am convinced that He is able to guard what I have entrusted to Him until **that day**.
>
>
>
If the author of the epistle refers to himself as receiving his reward of due compensation on **that day**, and the author was alive when he wrote these words, then why should we assume that Onesiphorus was necessarily already dead just because he too was supposed to receive his reward of due compensation on **that day**? | According to the current official teaching of the RCC, purgatory is not a place to PAY for one's venial sins, but a place of purification to prepare the deceased 'Christian' to live in heaven. Thus, purgatory implies that the person enduring it already has full pardon or mercy in Jesus. The person's sins are redeemed by Jesus' death on the cross. The person in purgatory is said to already be forgiven. The person is assured heaven in the official view and so we cannot conclude that 2 Timothy 1:16-18 is proof of purgatory. So is it then proof of hell then? We cannot conclude that either for the fact that mercy is assured to the one who has met the conditions of divine pardon in this life. If Onesimus was dead and Paul was praying for mercy, then it would imply Paul was praying that Onesimus would be able to avoid hell. And such an interpretation would also be speculation. |
15,704 | Does the Greek text of 2 Tim. 1:16-18 imply that Onesiphorus had already been dead by the time of writing these words?:
>
> The Lord give mercy unto the house of Onesiphorus; for he oft
> refreshed me, and was not ashamed of my chain: But, when he was in
> Rome, he sought me out very diligently, and found me. The Lord grant
> unto him that he may find mercy of the Lord in that day: and in how
> many things he ministered unto me at Ephesus, thou knowest very well.
>
>
> | 2015/02/13 | [
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/15704",
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com",
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/users/331/"
] | The key of this text is the phrase **that day**, which occurs in the following three verses:
>
> [**2 Tim 1:16-18**](https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=2%20Timothy%201%3A12&version=NASB;SBLGNT) (NASB)
>
> 16 The Lord grant mercy to the house of Onesiphorus, for he often refreshed me and was not ashamed of my chains; 17 but when he was in Rome, he eagerly searched for me and found me— 18the Lord grant to him to find mercy from the Lord on **that day**—and you know very well what services he rendered at Ephesus.
>
>
> [**2 Tim 4:8**](https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=2%20Timothy%204%3A8&version=NASB;SBLGNT) (NASB)
>
> 8 in the future there is laid up for me the crown of righteousness, which the Lord, the righteous Judge, will award to me on **that day**; and not only to me, but also to all who have loved His appearing.
>
>
> [**2 Tim 1:12**](https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=2%20Timothy%201%3A12&version=NASB;SBLGNT) (NASB)
>
> 12 For this reason I also suffer these things, but I am not ashamed; for I know whom I have believed and I am convinced that He is able to guard what I have entrusted to Him until **that day**.
>
>
>
If the author of the epistle refers to himself as receiving his reward of due compensation on **that day**, and the author was alive when he wrote these words, then why should we assume that Onesiphorus was necessarily already dead just because he too was supposed to receive his reward of due compensation on **that day**? | I think the question misses the point. It seems logical that Paul prays for mercy for Onesiphorus not because he was already dead, but because he too had turned away and abandoned Paul like the others. Rather Paul, not wanting O. to fall under God's judgment for this act, prays that God will have mercy on him and remember his many kindnesses on Paul's behalf. |
15,704 | Does the Greek text of 2 Tim. 1:16-18 imply that Onesiphorus had already been dead by the time of writing these words?:
>
> The Lord give mercy unto the house of Onesiphorus; for he oft
> refreshed me, and was not ashamed of my chain: But, when he was in
> Rome, he sought me out very diligently, and found me. The Lord grant
> unto him that he may find mercy of the Lord in that day: and in how
> many things he ministered unto me at Ephesus, thou knowest very well.
>
>
> | 2015/02/13 | [
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/15704",
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com",
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/users/331/"
] | I think that we need to understand firstly that Paul is contrasting Onesiphorus and his household with those people he mentions in v14. He is commending them for their care of him.
The fact that it is just Onesiphorus' household that Paul speaks of in v15 and not Onesiphorus himself suggests that he wasn't there at the time. That might mean that he was dead, or it could simply mean he was elsewhere, after all Paul refers to the household of Stephanas in 1 Cor 16:15 when he is very much alive (just not at home 1 Cor 16:17)
It is easy to read a lot into the term "The Lord grant mercy to" in v15 and conclude that Paul was praying for comfort for the household. But that is not what he says. Notice in v18 he also prays for mercy for Onesiphorus as well and it doesn't seem to me that praying for mercy for one already dead would fit with Paul's theology. Paul is always praying/ asking for mercy or grace for people. Many of his letters open with such a prayer: Rom 1:7, 1 Cor 1:3, 2 Cor 1:2, Gal 1:3, Eph 1:2, Phil 1:2, Col 1:2, 1 Thess 1:1, 2 Thess 1:2, 1 Tim 1:2, 2 Tim 1:2, Tit 1:4, Phm 1:3
In the end the evidence is not conclusive either way, so it seems clear that Paul presumed Timothy would know the situation, and that beyond our own curiosity the question does not have a great significance. By that I mean that we should not build a doctrine upon this as a key text, or even use it as a proof text for 'prayer for the dead' etc. The ambiguity precludes it's worth to that end. | I think the question misses the point. It seems logical that Paul prays for mercy for Onesiphorus not because he was already dead, but because he too had turned away and abandoned Paul like the others. Rather Paul, not wanting O. to fall under God's judgment for this act, prays that God will have mercy on him and remember his many kindnesses on Paul's behalf. |
15,704 | Does the Greek text of 2 Tim. 1:16-18 imply that Onesiphorus had already been dead by the time of writing these words?:
>
> The Lord give mercy unto the house of Onesiphorus; for he oft
> refreshed me, and was not ashamed of my chain: But, when he was in
> Rome, he sought me out very diligently, and found me. The Lord grant
> unto him that he may find mercy of the Lord in that day: and in how
> many things he ministered unto me at Ephesus, thou knowest very well.
>
>
> | 2015/02/13 | [
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/15704",
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com",
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/users/331/"
] | I think that we need to understand firstly that Paul is contrasting Onesiphorus and his household with those people he mentions in v14. He is commending them for their care of him.
The fact that it is just Onesiphorus' household that Paul speaks of in v15 and not Onesiphorus himself suggests that he wasn't there at the time. That might mean that he was dead, or it could simply mean he was elsewhere, after all Paul refers to the household of Stephanas in 1 Cor 16:15 when he is very much alive (just not at home 1 Cor 16:17)
It is easy to read a lot into the term "The Lord grant mercy to" in v15 and conclude that Paul was praying for comfort for the household. But that is not what he says. Notice in v18 he also prays for mercy for Onesiphorus as well and it doesn't seem to me that praying for mercy for one already dead would fit with Paul's theology. Paul is always praying/ asking for mercy or grace for people. Many of his letters open with such a prayer: Rom 1:7, 1 Cor 1:3, 2 Cor 1:2, Gal 1:3, Eph 1:2, Phil 1:2, Col 1:2, 1 Thess 1:1, 2 Thess 1:2, 1 Tim 1:2, 2 Tim 1:2, Tit 1:4, Phm 1:3
In the end the evidence is not conclusive either way, so it seems clear that Paul presumed Timothy would know the situation, and that beyond our own curiosity the question does not have a great significance. By that I mean that we should not build a doctrine upon this as a key text, or even use it as a proof text for 'prayer for the dead' etc. The ambiguity precludes it's worth to that end. | According to the current official teaching of the RCC, purgatory is not a place to PAY for one's venial sins, but a place of purification to prepare the deceased 'Christian' to live in heaven. Thus, purgatory implies that the person enduring it already has full pardon or mercy in Jesus. The person's sins are redeemed by Jesus' death on the cross. The person in purgatory is said to already be forgiven. The person is assured heaven in the official view and so we cannot conclude that 2 Timothy 1:16-18 is proof of purgatory. So is it then proof of hell then? We cannot conclude that either for the fact that mercy is assured to the one who has met the conditions of divine pardon in this life. If Onesimus was dead and Paul was praying for mercy, then it would imply Paul was praying that Onesimus would be able to avoid hell. And such an interpretation would also be speculation. |
15,704 | Does the Greek text of 2 Tim. 1:16-18 imply that Onesiphorus had already been dead by the time of writing these words?:
>
> The Lord give mercy unto the house of Onesiphorus; for he oft
> refreshed me, and was not ashamed of my chain: But, when he was in
> Rome, he sought me out very diligently, and found me. The Lord grant
> unto him that he may find mercy of the Lord in that day: and in how
> many things he ministered unto me at Ephesus, thou knowest very well.
>
>
> | 2015/02/13 | [
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/15704",
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com",
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/users/331/"
] | The key of this text is the phrase **that day**, which occurs in the following three verses:
>
> [**2 Tim 1:16-18**](https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=2%20Timothy%201%3A12&version=NASB;SBLGNT) (NASB)
>
> 16 The Lord grant mercy to the house of Onesiphorus, for he often refreshed me and was not ashamed of my chains; 17 but when he was in Rome, he eagerly searched for me and found me— 18the Lord grant to him to find mercy from the Lord on **that day**—and you know very well what services he rendered at Ephesus.
>
>
> [**2 Tim 4:8**](https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=2%20Timothy%204%3A8&version=NASB;SBLGNT) (NASB)
>
> 8 in the future there is laid up for me the crown of righteousness, which the Lord, the righteous Judge, will award to me on **that day**; and not only to me, but also to all who have loved His appearing.
>
>
> [**2 Tim 1:12**](https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=2%20Timothy%201%3A12&version=NASB;SBLGNT) (NASB)
>
> 12 For this reason I also suffer these things, but I am not ashamed; for I know whom I have believed and I am convinced that He is able to guard what I have entrusted to Him until **that day**.
>
>
>
If the author of the epistle refers to himself as receiving his reward of due compensation on **that day**, and the author was alive when he wrote these words, then why should we assume that Onesiphorus was necessarily already dead just because he too was supposed to receive his reward of due compensation on **that day**? | The text provided in the question is an accurate translation of the [Greek text seen here](http://www.scripture4all.org/OnlineInterlinear/NTpdf/2ti1.pdf). This does not state that Onesiphorus is already dead, but gives us clues that lead to that conclusion. First, the mention of Onesiphorus' grieving family ("The Lord give mercy unto the house of Onesiphorus"), then the hope that the Lord will grant mercy in that (Judgement) day. [2 Timothy 4:19](http://www.vatican.va/archive/ENG0839/__P119.HTM) says: "Greet Prisca and Aquila 9 and the family of Onesiphorus," once again implying that Onesiphorus is dead, or at least absent.
We can pause from looking at the actual words of the passage, to look at the context in which Second Timothy was written. Although traditionally attributed to Saint Paul, [most modern critical scholars argue that 2 Timothy was written after Paul's death](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Second_Epistle_to_Timothy#Authorship). Paul never mentioned Onesiphorus in his undisputed epistles, so it is likely that Onesiphorus was a literary construct invented by the actual author of *2 Timothy*.
Returning to the meaning of Greek words in this passage, the name Onesiphorus means ‘bringing advantage’. When we consider that Onesiphorus is singled out as someone not ashamed of Paul’s imprisonment and was the one person who sought out Paul in Rome, when others had abandoned him, then he truly did bring advantage. Although Greeks were sometimes given aspirational names, the appropriateness of Onesiphorus in this case is further evidence that he was a literary construct and existed only within Second Timothy. Onesiphorus was not dead if he never lived. |
15,704 | Does the Greek text of 2 Tim. 1:16-18 imply that Onesiphorus had already been dead by the time of writing these words?:
>
> The Lord give mercy unto the house of Onesiphorus; for he oft
> refreshed me, and was not ashamed of my chain: But, when he was in
> Rome, he sought me out very diligently, and found me. The Lord grant
> unto him that he may find mercy of the Lord in that day: and in how
> many things he ministered unto me at Ephesus, thou knowest very well.
>
>
> | 2015/02/13 | [
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/15704",
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com",
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/users/331/"
] | The key of this text is the phrase **that day**, which occurs in the following three verses:
>
> [**2 Tim 1:16-18**](https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=2%20Timothy%201%3A12&version=NASB;SBLGNT) (NASB)
>
> 16 The Lord grant mercy to the house of Onesiphorus, for he often refreshed me and was not ashamed of my chains; 17 but when he was in Rome, he eagerly searched for me and found me— 18the Lord grant to him to find mercy from the Lord on **that day**—and you know very well what services he rendered at Ephesus.
>
>
> [**2 Tim 4:8**](https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=2%20Timothy%204%3A8&version=NASB;SBLGNT) (NASB)
>
> 8 in the future there is laid up for me the crown of righteousness, which the Lord, the righteous Judge, will award to me on **that day**; and not only to me, but also to all who have loved His appearing.
>
>
> [**2 Tim 1:12**](https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=2%20Timothy%201%3A12&version=NASB;SBLGNT) (NASB)
>
> 12 For this reason I also suffer these things, but I am not ashamed; for I know whom I have believed and I am convinced that He is able to guard what I have entrusted to Him until **that day**.
>
>
>
If the author of the epistle refers to himself as receiving his reward of due compensation on **that day**, and the author was alive when he wrote these words, then why should we assume that Onesiphorus was necessarily already dead just because he too was supposed to receive his reward of due compensation on **that day**? | I think that we need to understand firstly that Paul is contrasting Onesiphorus and his household with those people he mentions in v14. He is commending them for their care of him.
The fact that it is just Onesiphorus' household that Paul speaks of in v15 and not Onesiphorus himself suggests that he wasn't there at the time. That might mean that he was dead, or it could simply mean he was elsewhere, after all Paul refers to the household of Stephanas in 1 Cor 16:15 when he is very much alive (just not at home 1 Cor 16:17)
It is easy to read a lot into the term "The Lord grant mercy to" in v15 and conclude that Paul was praying for comfort for the household. But that is not what he says. Notice in v18 he also prays for mercy for Onesiphorus as well and it doesn't seem to me that praying for mercy for one already dead would fit with Paul's theology. Paul is always praying/ asking for mercy or grace for people. Many of his letters open with such a prayer: Rom 1:7, 1 Cor 1:3, 2 Cor 1:2, Gal 1:3, Eph 1:2, Phil 1:2, Col 1:2, 1 Thess 1:1, 2 Thess 1:2, 1 Tim 1:2, 2 Tim 1:2, Tit 1:4, Phm 1:3
In the end the evidence is not conclusive either way, so it seems clear that Paul presumed Timothy would know the situation, and that beyond our own curiosity the question does not have a great significance. By that I mean that we should not build a doctrine upon this as a key text, or even use it as a proof text for 'prayer for the dead' etc. The ambiguity precludes it's worth to that end. |
15,704 | Does the Greek text of 2 Tim. 1:16-18 imply that Onesiphorus had already been dead by the time of writing these words?:
>
> The Lord give mercy unto the house of Onesiphorus; for he oft
> refreshed me, and was not ashamed of my chain: But, when he was in
> Rome, he sought me out very diligently, and found me. The Lord grant
> unto him that he may find mercy of the Lord in that day: and in how
> many things he ministered unto me at Ephesus, thou knowest very well.
>
>
> | 2015/02/13 | [
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/15704",
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com",
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/users/331/"
] | The text provided in the question is an accurate translation of the [Greek text seen here](http://www.scripture4all.org/OnlineInterlinear/NTpdf/2ti1.pdf). This does not state that Onesiphorus is already dead, but gives us clues that lead to that conclusion. First, the mention of Onesiphorus' grieving family ("The Lord give mercy unto the house of Onesiphorus"), then the hope that the Lord will grant mercy in that (Judgement) day. [2 Timothy 4:19](http://www.vatican.va/archive/ENG0839/__P119.HTM) says: "Greet Prisca and Aquila 9 and the family of Onesiphorus," once again implying that Onesiphorus is dead, or at least absent.
We can pause from looking at the actual words of the passage, to look at the context in which Second Timothy was written. Although traditionally attributed to Saint Paul, [most modern critical scholars argue that 2 Timothy was written after Paul's death](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Second_Epistle_to_Timothy#Authorship). Paul never mentioned Onesiphorus in his undisputed epistles, so it is likely that Onesiphorus was a literary construct invented by the actual author of *2 Timothy*.
Returning to the meaning of Greek words in this passage, the name Onesiphorus means ‘bringing advantage’. When we consider that Onesiphorus is singled out as someone not ashamed of Paul’s imprisonment and was the one person who sought out Paul in Rome, when others had abandoned him, then he truly did bring advantage. Although Greeks were sometimes given aspirational names, the appropriateness of Onesiphorus in this case is further evidence that he was a literary construct and existed only within Second Timothy. Onesiphorus was not dead if he never lived. | I think the question misses the point. It seems logical that Paul prays for mercy for Onesiphorus not because he was already dead, but because he too had turned away and abandoned Paul like the others. Rather Paul, not wanting O. to fall under God's judgment for this act, prays that God will have mercy on him and remember his many kindnesses on Paul's behalf. |
15,704 | Does the Greek text of 2 Tim. 1:16-18 imply that Onesiphorus had already been dead by the time of writing these words?:
>
> The Lord give mercy unto the house of Onesiphorus; for he oft
> refreshed me, and was not ashamed of my chain: But, when he was in
> Rome, he sought me out very diligently, and found me. The Lord grant
> unto him that he may find mercy of the Lord in that day: and in how
> many things he ministered unto me at Ephesus, thou knowest very well.
>
>
> | 2015/02/13 | [
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/15704",
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com",
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/users/331/"
] | I think that we need to understand firstly that Paul is contrasting Onesiphorus and his household with those people he mentions in v14. He is commending them for their care of him.
The fact that it is just Onesiphorus' household that Paul speaks of in v15 and not Onesiphorus himself suggests that he wasn't there at the time. That might mean that he was dead, or it could simply mean he was elsewhere, after all Paul refers to the household of Stephanas in 1 Cor 16:15 when he is very much alive (just not at home 1 Cor 16:17)
It is easy to read a lot into the term "The Lord grant mercy to" in v15 and conclude that Paul was praying for comfort for the household. But that is not what he says. Notice in v18 he also prays for mercy for Onesiphorus as well and it doesn't seem to me that praying for mercy for one already dead would fit with Paul's theology. Paul is always praying/ asking for mercy or grace for people. Many of his letters open with such a prayer: Rom 1:7, 1 Cor 1:3, 2 Cor 1:2, Gal 1:3, Eph 1:2, Phil 1:2, Col 1:2, 1 Thess 1:1, 2 Thess 1:2, 1 Tim 1:2, 2 Tim 1:2, Tit 1:4, Phm 1:3
In the end the evidence is not conclusive either way, so it seems clear that Paul presumed Timothy would know the situation, and that beyond our own curiosity the question does not have a great significance. By that I mean that we should not build a doctrine upon this as a key text, or even use it as a proof text for 'prayer for the dead' etc. The ambiguity precludes it's worth to that end. | The text provided in the question is an accurate translation of the [Greek text seen here](http://www.scripture4all.org/OnlineInterlinear/NTpdf/2ti1.pdf). This does not state that Onesiphorus is already dead, but gives us clues that lead to that conclusion. First, the mention of Onesiphorus' grieving family ("The Lord give mercy unto the house of Onesiphorus"), then the hope that the Lord will grant mercy in that (Judgement) day. [2 Timothy 4:19](http://www.vatican.va/archive/ENG0839/__P119.HTM) says: "Greet Prisca and Aquila 9 and the family of Onesiphorus," once again implying that Onesiphorus is dead, or at least absent.
We can pause from looking at the actual words of the passage, to look at the context in which Second Timothy was written. Although traditionally attributed to Saint Paul, [most modern critical scholars argue that 2 Timothy was written after Paul's death](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Second_Epistle_to_Timothy#Authorship). Paul never mentioned Onesiphorus in his undisputed epistles, so it is likely that Onesiphorus was a literary construct invented by the actual author of *2 Timothy*.
Returning to the meaning of Greek words in this passage, the name Onesiphorus means ‘bringing advantage’. When we consider that Onesiphorus is singled out as someone not ashamed of Paul’s imprisonment and was the one person who sought out Paul in Rome, when others had abandoned him, then he truly did bring advantage. Although Greeks were sometimes given aspirational names, the appropriateness of Onesiphorus in this case is further evidence that he was a literary construct and existed only within Second Timothy. Onesiphorus was not dead if he never lived. |
79,282 | Does anyone know groups which admit presentations with two more generators than relators and are not residually finite? If so, do we know anything about the finite residual of such groups?
Any examples of finitely presented or finitely generated groups which are not residually finite but whose inner automorphism group is residually finite?
Thanks! | 2011/10/27 | [
"https://mathoverflow.net/questions/79282",
"https://mathoverflow.net",
"https://mathoverflow.net/users/18834/"
] | P. Deligne has constructed non-residually finite central extensions of some arithmetic groups, so for these the inner automorphism group is residually finite, see: P. Deligne. Extensions centrales non r ́esiduellement finies de groupes arithm ́etiques. CR Acad. Sci. Paris, s ́erie A-B, 287, 203–208, 1978.
See also the central extensions constructed by D. Toledo in "Projective varieties with non-residually finite fundamental group", PUBLICATIONS MATHÉMATIQUES DE L'IHÉS, Volume 77, Number 1, 103-119: these are fundamental groups of compact manifolds, hence clearly finitely presented. | In [this](http://www.ams.org/mathscinet/search/publdoc.html?arg3=&co4=AND&co5=AND&co6=AND&co7=AND&dr=all&pg4=AUCN&pg5=TI&pg6=PC&pg7=MR&pg8=ET&r=1&review_format=html&s4=erschler&s5=residually&s6=&s7=&s8=All&vfpref=html&yearRangeFirst=&yearRangeSecond=&yrop=eq) paper, Anna Erschler constructs uncountably many non residually finite central extensions of the first Grigorchuk Group. |
1,588,738 | I have a simple question regarding the Minimax algorithm: for example for the tic-tac-toe game, how do I determine the utility function's for each player plays? It doesn't do that automatically, does it? I must hard-code the values in the game, it can't learn them by itself, does it? | 2009/10/19 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/1588738",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/130758/"
] | No, a MiniMax does not learn. It is a smarter version of a brute-force tree search. | Tic-Tac-Toe is small enough to run the game to the end and assign 1 for win, 0 for draw and -1 for lose.
Otherwise you have to provide a function which determines the value of a position heuristically. In chess for example a big factor is the value of the material, but also who controls the center or how easily the pieces can move.
As for learning, you can add weight factors to different aspects of the position and try to optimize those by repeatedly playing games. |
1,588,738 | I have a simple question regarding the Minimax algorithm: for example for the tic-tac-toe game, how do I determine the utility function's for each player plays? It doesn't do that automatically, does it? I must hard-code the values in the game, it can't learn them by itself, does it? | 2009/10/19 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/1588738",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/130758/"
] | No, a MiniMax does not learn. It is a smarter version of a brute-force tree search. | *How do determine the utility function for each play?*
Carefully ;-) This [article](http://aristotlethegeek.wordpress.com/2008/01/24/minimax-negamax-and-tic-tac-toe/) shows how a slightly flawed evaluation function (one for ex. which either doesn't go "deep" enough in looking ahead in the tree of possible plys, or one which fails to capture the relative strengh of some board positions) results in an overall weak algorithm (one that looses more often).
*it can't learn them by itself, does it?*
No, it doesn't. There are ways, however, to make the computer learn the relative strength of board positions. For example by looking into [**Donald Mitchie and his MENACE program**](http://www.delphiforfun.org/Programs/tic_tac_toc_machine.htm) you'll see how a stochastic process can be used to learn the board without any *a priori* knowledge but the rules of the game. The funny part is that while this can be implemented in computers, a few hundred colored beads and match boxes are all that is required, thanks to the relatively small size of the game space, and also thanks to various symmetries.
After learning such a cool way of teaching the computer how to play, we may not be so interested in going back to MinMax as applied to Tic-Tac-Toe. After all **MinMax is a relatively simple way of pruning a decision tree**, which is hardly needed with tic-tac-toe's small game space. But, if we must ;-) [go back to MinMax]...
We can look into the "matchbox" associated with the next play (i.e. not going deep at all), and use the percentage of beads associated with each square, as an additional factor. We can then evaluate a traditional tree, but only going, say 2 or 3 moves deep (a shallow look-ahead depth which would typically end in usually in losses or draws) and rate each next move on the basis of the simple -1 (loss), 0 (draw/unknown), +1 (win) rating. By then combining the beads percentage and the simple rating (by say addition, certainly not by multiplication), we are able to effectively use MinMax in a fashion that is more akin to the way it is used in cases when it is not possible to evaluate the game tree to its end.
Bottom line: In the case of Tic-Tac-Toe, MinMax only becomes more interesting (for example in helping us explore the effectiveness of a particular utility function) when we remove the deterministic nature of the game, associated with the easy evaluation the full tree. Another way of making the game [mathematically] interesting is to play with a opponent which makes mistakes... |
1,588,738 | I have a simple question regarding the Minimax algorithm: for example for the tic-tac-toe game, how do I determine the utility function's for each player plays? It doesn't do that automatically, does it? I must hard-code the values in the game, it can't learn them by itself, does it? | 2009/10/19 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/1588738",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/130758/"
] | No, a MiniMax does not learn. It is a smarter version of a brute-force tree search. | Typically you would implement the utility function directly. In this case the algorithm would not learn how to play the game, it would use the information that you had explicitly hard-coded in the implementation.
However, it would be possible to use [genetic programming](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Genetic_programming) (GP) or some equivalent technique to automatically derive a utility function. In this case you would not have to encode any explicit strategy. Instead the evolution would discover its own way of playing the game well.
You could either combine your minimax code and the GP code into a single (probably very slow) adaptive program, or you could run the GP first, find a good utility function and then add this function to your minimax code just as you would any hand-coded function. |
5,613,824 | I'm looking to solve a problem regarding the optimal sorting of variable sized boxes into the confined space of a 4x4 sized rack. The algorithm should sort those boxes so that there is as little wasted rackspace as possible.
The rack I'm talking about looks like the typical IKEA rack "[Expedit](http://www.ikea.com/de/de/catalog/products/80071357)".
Perhaps somebody can point me to documentation on algorithms that could solve such a problem or to some implementation.
Every programming language is welcome.
Thanks for your time,
Frank | 2011/04/10 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/5613824",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/171364/"
] | You should read the [Facebook Factsheet](https://www.facebook.com/press/info.php?factsheet).
Site was originally built on [PHP](http://php.net/) and MySQL (and still uses a combination thereof to this day; albeit, much more complex combinations of architecturally). To build your own Facebook though, you don't necessarily need to use PHP. There are lots of great web frameworks you could try like [Rails](http://rubyonrails.org/), [Django](http://www.djangoproject.com/), et al. | Facebook I believe is based on PHP, mySQL and Apache. Here you can see some of the open technologies and tools they use.
<http://developers.facebook.com/opensource/>
And if you are planning on making your own facebook, or something similar, you might want to give a brief look to diaspora. It is an open source social network build with Ruby on Rails.
<https://joindiaspora.com/>
<https://github.com/diaspora/diaspora/wiki>
Good luck
Kevin. |
59,670 | I just witnessed an incident at my company where one of my colleagues accused another colleague and his arguments were based on the University he graduated from.
Is it correct to engage in such desperate arguments based on studies? The colleague who was judged is smart and even if he didn’t graduate from a computer science department he has a lot of knowledge in programming and 5+ years of experience in this field.
I’m asking because I also didn’t graduate a computer science university and I would like to know how to correctly react when someone brings such arguments. | 2015/12/20 | [
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/59670",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/45038/"
] | First it's utterly inappropriate for that to be said. It is prejudicial, confrontational, insults their bosses decision making process and just avoids the specifics of whatever task they were working on. Remember, work is a job. And a job encompasses tasks. And most of the time if you are upset at a colleague you might just be upset at the task.
That said, about 25 years ago if you did not have a computer science, general science or math degree and attempted to work in the computer field, you might get a basic I.T. job but that was it. Without a real computer science degree your career was limited in many countries and might not even be an optional requirement in others.
Nowadays—in most countries—computer science degrees matter but experience and proven skills level the playing field. For example 25 years ago you would have never seen computer science job listings that say a degree or equivalent work experience is required. Nowadays, work hard enough, learn on your own and prove your skills and you will be considered to be on par with those who have deeper formal training.
This is mainly due to home computers being more commonplace, the rise of the Internet and shared knowledge as well as technology being so widespread in the non-tech world there are tons more opportunities.
So if a colleague is ripping someone apart over a task and they attack based on their educational background, that is just violent, abusive, petty nonsense. How to handle depends on many factors but if this mentality is casually accepted in the office culture, it might be worth rethinking what kind of future one might have in such a non-cooperative environment. | When assessing colleagues, there are limited measures of capabilities that are as easy to measure as university education. Even so, usually it's inappropriate to mention one's university education as a point in a debate or argument while it's advisable to be respectful of someone that has earned respect (either by formal education or job experience).
Some people need to fall back on past accomplishments to feel better in the moment. When an argument is based on this, it's painful to witness because you should expect more from someone that attended a well respected university.
On the other side of this, it's difficult to have a productive debate with someone that *thinks* they are informed based on self-assessment or inadequate life experience. It can be frustrating when they actually know far less than they realize. This type of ignorance can lead to a better educated, more experienced person making an inappropriate personal comment about education/training either out of frustration or as an attempt to draw attention to the depth of the problem and/or garner respect from someone incapable of recognizing when to be respectful.
To explain the comparison between a top university and a "regular" one, I will use two students I knew as an example. Both students had the same class and textbook. After a year, the top school student was tested on all content in the book. The other student was tested on only the first 30% of the book. So unlike 5 years of job experience, university experience can be rated more consistently with top schools generally demanding more of their students, usually resulting in appropriate higher expectations from those students.
>
> Should work colleagues be judged depending on the attended University?
>
>
>
In general, it is a good indicator of what someone is capable of doing or what should be expected of them. But the role it plays in a particular discussion between two people is usually pretty thin; rarely is one's university education relevant to a particular conversation. Comments like what you witnessed should be avoided. |
59,670 | I just witnessed an incident at my company where one of my colleagues accused another colleague and his arguments were based on the University he graduated from.
Is it correct to engage in such desperate arguments based on studies? The colleague who was judged is smart and even if he didn’t graduate from a computer science department he has a lot of knowledge in programming and 5+ years of experience in this field.
I’m asking because I also didn’t graduate a computer science university and I would like to know how to correctly react when someone brings such arguments. | 2015/12/20 | [
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/59670",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/45038/"
] | When assessing colleagues, there are limited measures of capabilities that are as easy to measure as university education. Even so, usually it's inappropriate to mention one's university education as a point in a debate or argument while it's advisable to be respectful of someone that has earned respect (either by formal education or job experience).
Some people need to fall back on past accomplishments to feel better in the moment. When an argument is based on this, it's painful to witness because you should expect more from someone that attended a well respected university.
On the other side of this, it's difficult to have a productive debate with someone that *thinks* they are informed based on self-assessment or inadequate life experience. It can be frustrating when they actually know far less than they realize. This type of ignorance can lead to a better educated, more experienced person making an inappropriate personal comment about education/training either out of frustration or as an attempt to draw attention to the depth of the problem and/or garner respect from someone incapable of recognizing when to be respectful.
To explain the comparison between a top university and a "regular" one, I will use two students I knew as an example. Both students had the same class and textbook. After a year, the top school student was tested on all content in the book. The other student was tested on only the first 30% of the book. So unlike 5 years of job experience, university experience can be rated more consistently with top schools generally demanding more of their students, usually resulting in appropriate higher expectations from those students.
>
> Should work colleagues be judged depending on the attended University?
>
>
>
In general, it is a good indicator of what someone is capable of doing or what should be expected of them. But the role it plays in a particular discussion between two people is usually pretty thin; rarely is one's university education relevant to a particular conversation. Comments like what you witnessed should be avoided. | When faced with a foolish statement, I often prefer quips and sound bites to well reasoned arguments as most people are neither prepared nor interested in a well reasoned argument when they make a foolish statement. Here are a few to try.
"Those who can do. Those who can't teach. Those who can do neither study."
"So basically you're out of ideas and pounding the table?"
"Well, if that's what they do at then perhaps you should return to ."
Throw out a fictional institute of higher learning. Google for names. "You would never have made it at Faber College." Faber College was in "Animal House".
If you want a quip that is rooted in a well reasoned argument try, "Argumentum ad verecundiam". It means "Argument from authority", and it is one of many logical fallacies.
<https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_fallacies> |
59,670 | I just witnessed an incident at my company where one of my colleagues accused another colleague and his arguments were based on the University he graduated from.
Is it correct to engage in such desperate arguments based on studies? The colleague who was judged is smart and even if he didn’t graduate from a computer science department he has a lot of knowledge in programming and 5+ years of experience in this field.
I’m asking because I also didn’t graduate a computer science university and I would like to know how to correctly react when someone brings such arguments. | 2015/12/20 | [
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/59670",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/45038/"
] | First it's utterly inappropriate for that to be said. It is prejudicial, confrontational, insults their bosses decision making process and just avoids the specifics of whatever task they were working on. Remember, work is a job. And a job encompasses tasks. And most of the time if you are upset at a colleague you might just be upset at the task.
That said, about 25 years ago if you did not have a computer science, general science or math degree and attempted to work in the computer field, you might get a basic I.T. job but that was it. Without a real computer science degree your career was limited in many countries and might not even be an optional requirement in others.
Nowadays—in most countries—computer science degrees matter but experience and proven skills level the playing field. For example 25 years ago you would have never seen computer science job listings that say a degree or equivalent work experience is required. Nowadays, work hard enough, learn on your own and prove your skills and you will be considered to be on par with those who have deeper formal training.
This is mainly due to home computers being more commonplace, the rise of the Internet and shared knowledge as well as technology being so widespread in the non-tech world there are tons more opportunities.
So if a colleague is ripping someone apart over a task and they attack based on their educational background, that is just violent, abusive, petty nonsense. How to handle depends on many factors but if this mentality is casually accepted in the office culture, it might be worth rethinking what kind of future one might have in such a non-cooperative environment. | Definitely not an appropriate argument. It's like saying "I'm right because I'm older." If you are at the receiving end of this, keep asking "why." If someone wants to claim superior knowledge based on whatever, he/she has the privilege of explaining the reasoning. Which brings the discussion back to facts. Something that is appropriate to argue based on. |
59,670 | I just witnessed an incident at my company where one of my colleagues accused another colleague and his arguments were based on the University he graduated from.
Is it correct to engage in such desperate arguments based on studies? The colleague who was judged is smart and even if he didn’t graduate from a computer science department he has a lot of knowledge in programming and 5+ years of experience in this field.
I’m asking because I also didn’t graduate a computer science university and I would like to know how to correctly react when someone brings such arguments. | 2015/12/20 | [
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/59670",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/45038/"
] | It is not something that is typically appropriate but it kind of depends on the context.
If it is was about syntax or stuff you can learn with practice then no.
Let's say is was about a compiler design where if you have not been through the formal theory is not something you would readily pick up then maybe. But need to deliver with tact.
Let's say you were at an accident scene and practicing bad (harmful) first aid and I was a Dr. To shut you down and get on with business I would say "Where did you go to med school?" | When faced with a foolish statement, I often prefer quips and sound bites to well reasoned arguments as most people are neither prepared nor interested in a well reasoned argument when they make a foolish statement. Here are a few to try.
"Those who can do. Those who can't teach. Those who can do neither study."
"So basically you're out of ideas and pounding the table?"
"Well, if that's what they do at then perhaps you should return to ."
Throw out a fictional institute of higher learning. Google for names. "You would never have made it at Faber College." Faber College was in "Animal House".
If you want a quip that is rooted in a well reasoned argument try, "Argumentum ad verecundiam". It means "Argument from authority", and it is one of many logical fallacies.
<https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_fallacies> |
59,670 | I just witnessed an incident at my company where one of my colleagues accused another colleague and his arguments were based on the University he graduated from.
Is it correct to engage in such desperate arguments based on studies? The colleague who was judged is smart and even if he didn’t graduate from a computer science department he has a lot of knowledge in programming and 5+ years of experience in this field.
I’m asking because I also didn’t graduate a computer science university and I would like to know how to correctly react when someone brings such arguments. | 2015/12/20 | [
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/59670",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/45038/"
] | First it's utterly inappropriate for that to be said. It is prejudicial, confrontational, insults their bosses decision making process and just avoids the specifics of whatever task they were working on. Remember, work is a job. And a job encompasses tasks. And most of the time if you are upset at a colleague you might just be upset at the task.
That said, about 25 years ago if you did not have a computer science, general science or math degree and attempted to work in the computer field, you might get a basic I.T. job but that was it. Without a real computer science degree your career was limited in many countries and might not even be an optional requirement in others.
Nowadays—in most countries—computer science degrees matter but experience and proven skills level the playing field. For example 25 years ago you would have never seen computer science job listings that say a degree or equivalent work experience is required. Nowadays, work hard enough, learn on your own and prove your skills and you will be considered to be on par with those who have deeper formal training.
This is mainly due to home computers being more commonplace, the rise of the Internet and shared knowledge as well as technology being so widespread in the non-tech world there are tons more opportunities.
So if a colleague is ripping someone apart over a task and they attack based on their educational background, that is just violent, abusive, petty nonsense. How to handle depends on many factors but if this mentality is casually accepted in the office culture, it might be worth rethinking what kind of future one might have in such a non-cooperative environment. | It's not a nice thing to use in an argument, but all is fair in love and war and arguments. Depends on the actual university in question as well. If someone started citing their masters degree from the National University of Samoa, I'd probably start laughing.
>
> I would like to know how to correctly react when someone brings such arguments.
>
>
>
The best way to react if you want to remain professional is to tell them that university is irrelevant to the issue, and ask them to prove that they are correct. To me a uni degree means very little compared to practical experience. My reaction would be to ask them to cut the crap and show me their solution and then honestly appraise it to see if it's better than mine. |
59,670 | I just witnessed an incident at my company where one of my colleagues accused another colleague and his arguments were based on the University he graduated from.
Is it correct to engage in such desperate arguments based on studies? The colleague who was judged is smart and even if he didn’t graduate from a computer science department he has a lot of knowledge in programming and 5+ years of experience in this field.
I’m asking because I also didn’t graduate a computer science university and I would like to know how to correctly react when someone brings such arguments. | 2015/12/20 | [
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/59670",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/45038/"
] | Definitely not an appropriate argument. It's like saying "I'm right because I'm older." If you are at the receiving end of this, keep asking "why." If someone wants to claim superior knowledge based on whatever, he/she has the privilege of explaining the reasoning. Which brings the discussion back to facts. Something that is appropriate to argue based on. | It is not something that is typically appropriate but it kind of depends on the context.
If it is was about syntax or stuff you can learn with practice then no.
Let's say is was about a compiler design where if you have not been through the formal theory is not something you would readily pick up then maybe. But need to deliver with tact.
Let's say you were at an accident scene and practicing bad (harmful) first aid and I was a Dr. To shut you down and get on with business I would say "Where did you go to med school?" |
59,670 | I just witnessed an incident at my company where one of my colleagues accused another colleague and his arguments were based on the University he graduated from.
Is it correct to engage in such desperate arguments based on studies? The colleague who was judged is smart and even if he didn’t graduate from a computer science department he has a lot of knowledge in programming and 5+ years of experience in this field.
I’m asking because I also didn’t graduate a computer science university and I would like to know how to correctly react when someone brings such arguments. | 2015/12/20 | [
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/59670",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/45038/"
] | When assessing colleagues, there are limited measures of capabilities that are as easy to measure as university education. Even so, usually it's inappropriate to mention one's university education as a point in a debate or argument while it's advisable to be respectful of someone that has earned respect (either by formal education or job experience).
Some people need to fall back on past accomplishments to feel better in the moment. When an argument is based on this, it's painful to witness because you should expect more from someone that attended a well respected university.
On the other side of this, it's difficult to have a productive debate with someone that *thinks* they are informed based on self-assessment or inadequate life experience. It can be frustrating when they actually know far less than they realize. This type of ignorance can lead to a better educated, more experienced person making an inappropriate personal comment about education/training either out of frustration or as an attempt to draw attention to the depth of the problem and/or garner respect from someone incapable of recognizing when to be respectful.
To explain the comparison between a top university and a "regular" one, I will use two students I knew as an example. Both students had the same class and textbook. After a year, the top school student was tested on all content in the book. The other student was tested on only the first 30% of the book. So unlike 5 years of job experience, university experience can be rated more consistently with top schools generally demanding more of their students, usually resulting in appropriate higher expectations from those students.
>
> Should work colleagues be judged depending on the attended University?
>
>
>
In general, it is a good indicator of what someone is capable of doing or what should be expected of them. But the role it plays in a particular discussion between two people is usually pretty thin; rarely is one's university education relevant to a particular conversation. Comments like what you witnessed should be avoided. | It is not something that is typically appropriate but it kind of depends on the context.
If it is was about syntax or stuff you can learn with practice then no.
Let's say is was about a compiler design where if you have not been through the formal theory is not something you would readily pick up then maybe. But need to deliver with tact.
Let's say you were at an accident scene and practicing bad (harmful) first aid and I was a Dr. To shut you down and get on with business I would say "Where did you go to med school?" |
59,670 | I just witnessed an incident at my company where one of my colleagues accused another colleague and his arguments were based on the University he graduated from.
Is it correct to engage in such desperate arguments based on studies? The colleague who was judged is smart and even if he didn’t graduate from a computer science department he has a lot of knowledge in programming and 5+ years of experience in this field.
I’m asking because I also didn’t graduate a computer science university and I would like to know how to correctly react when someone brings such arguments. | 2015/12/20 | [
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/59670",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/45038/"
] | First it's utterly inappropriate for that to be said. It is prejudicial, confrontational, insults their bosses decision making process and just avoids the specifics of whatever task they were working on. Remember, work is a job. And a job encompasses tasks. And most of the time if you are upset at a colleague you might just be upset at the task.
That said, about 25 years ago if you did not have a computer science, general science or math degree and attempted to work in the computer field, you might get a basic I.T. job but that was it. Without a real computer science degree your career was limited in many countries and might not even be an optional requirement in others.
Nowadays—in most countries—computer science degrees matter but experience and proven skills level the playing field. For example 25 years ago you would have never seen computer science job listings that say a degree or equivalent work experience is required. Nowadays, work hard enough, learn on your own and prove your skills and you will be considered to be on par with those who have deeper formal training.
This is mainly due to home computers being more commonplace, the rise of the Internet and shared knowledge as well as technology being so widespread in the non-tech world there are tons more opportunities.
So if a colleague is ripping someone apart over a task and they attack based on their educational background, that is just violent, abusive, petty nonsense. How to handle depends on many factors but if this mentality is casually accepted in the office culture, it might be worth rethinking what kind of future one might have in such a non-cooperative environment. | It is not something that is typically appropriate but it kind of depends on the context.
If it is was about syntax or stuff you can learn with practice then no.
Let's say is was about a compiler design where if you have not been through the formal theory is not something you would readily pick up then maybe. But need to deliver with tact.
Let's say you were at an accident scene and practicing bad (harmful) first aid and I was a Dr. To shut you down and get on with business I would say "Where did you go to med school?" |
59,670 | I just witnessed an incident at my company where one of my colleagues accused another colleague and his arguments were based on the University he graduated from.
Is it correct to engage in such desperate arguments based on studies? The colleague who was judged is smart and even if he didn’t graduate from a computer science department he has a lot of knowledge in programming and 5+ years of experience in this field.
I’m asking because I also didn’t graduate a computer science university and I would like to know how to correctly react when someone brings such arguments. | 2015/12/20 | [
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/59670",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/45038/"
] | It's not a nice thing to use in an argument, but all is fair in love and war and arguments. Depends on the actual university in question as well. If someone started citing their masters degree from the National University of Samoa, I'd probably start laughing.
>
> I would like to know how to correctly react when someone brings such arguments.
>
>
>
The best way to react if you want to remain professional is to tell them that university is irrelevant to the issue, and ask them to prove that they are correct. To me a uni degree means very little compared to practical experience. My reaction would be to ask them to cut the crap and show me their solution and then honestly appraise it to see if it's better than mine. | It is not something that is typically appropriate but it kind of depends on the context.
If it is was about syntax or stuff you can learn with practice then no.
Let's say is was about a compiler design where if you have not been through the formal theory is not something you would readily pick up then maybe. But need to deliver with tact.
Let's say you were at an accident scene and practicing bad (harmful) first aid and I was a Dr. To shut you down and get on with business I would say "Where did you go to med school?" |
59,670 | I just witnessed an incident at my company where one of my colleagues accused another colleague and his arguments were based on the University he graduated from.
Is it correct to engage in such desperate arguments based on studies? The colleague who was judged is smart and even if he didn’t graduate from a computer science department he has a lot of knowledge in programming and 5+ years of experience in this field.
I’m asking because I also didn’t graduate a computer science university and I would like to know how to correctly react when someone brings such arguments. | 2015/12/20 | [
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/59670",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/45038/"
] | First it's utterly inappropriate for that to be said. It is prejudicial, confrontational, insults their bosses decision making process and just avoids the specifics of whatever task they were working on. Remember, work is a job. And a job encompasses tasks. And most of the time if you are upset at a colleague you might just be upset at the task.
That said, about 25 years ago if you did not have a computer science, general science or math degree and attempted to work in the computer field, you might get a basic I.T. job but that was it. Without a real computer science degree your career was limited in many countries and might not even be an optional requirement in others.
Nowadays—in most countries—computer science degrees matter but experience and proven skills level the playing field. For example 25 years ago you would have never seen computer science job listings that say a degree or equivalent work experience is required. Nowadays, work hard enough, learn on your own and prove your skills and you will be considered to be on par with those who have deeper formal training.
This is mainly due to home computers being more commonplace, the rise of the Internet and shared knowledge as well as technology being so widespread in the non-tech world there are tons more opportunities.
So if a colleague is ripping someone apart over a task and they attack based on their educational background, that is just violent, abusive, petty nonsense. How to handle depends on many factors but if this mentality is casually accepted in the office culture, it might be worth rethinking what kind of future one might have in such a non-cooperative environment. | When faced with a foolish statement, I often prefer quips and sound bites to well reasoned arguments as most people are neither prepared nor interested in a well reasoned argument when they make a foolish statement. Here are a few to try.
"Those who can do. Those who can't teach. Those who can do neither study."
"So basically you're out of ideas and pounding the table?"
"Well, if that's what they do at then perhaps you should return to ."
Throw out a fictional institute of higher learning. Google for names. "You would never have made it at Faber College." Faber College was in "Animal House".
If you want a quip that is rooted in a well reasoned argument try, "Argumentum ad verecundiam". It means "Argument from authority", and it is one of many logical fallacies.
<https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_fallacies> |
238,638 | >
> 1. Professor required his students to return their papers typed.
>
>
>
vs
>
> 2. Professor required that his students return their papers typed.
>
>
>
Which of the examples is correct? Do they have the same meaning?
What is the preferred usage?
<http://oxfordlearnersdictionaries.com/us/definition/english/require> and <http://www.thefreedictionary.com/require> do not mention any usage differences | 2015/04/10 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/238638",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/116714/"
] | A. This is using the subjunctive mood and the subject form "they" of the pronoun:
*The economy requires they **return** to work.*
*That economy requires they **should return** to work.* [this is more frequent in BrE]
E.g.
>
> Miss Winthorpe's Elopement - Page 82 Christine Merrill - 2010 -
> Preview - More editions
>
>
> You may go back, if you wish, and explain to them that economy
> **requires they return** to work
>
>
> \_
>
>
>
B. This is using the infinitive and the object form "them" of the pronoun, as per:
>
> re·quire
>
>
> transitive verb
>
>
> 6 : to feel or be under the necessity of (doing or being something
> specified) — used **with a following infinitive**
>
>
> *one does not require to be a specialist — Elizabeth Bowen*
>
>
> *a candidate requires to hold a … certificate — Achievement in the Gold
> Coast*
>
>
> Merriam Webster Unabridged Dictionary
>
>
>
*The law required **them** **to return** to work.*
>
> \*Daily Labor Report - Issues 191-212 - Page 44 1979 -
>
>
> Most of the employees met in the lunchroom to discuss whether the
> collective bargaining agreement negotiated by Lumber Production and
> Industrial Workers Local 2573 **required them to return to work**.\*
>
>
> | Both of these sentences are attempting to get at the same semantic meaning, and in my opinion, both are grammatically incorrect. Both are good examples of English speakers' generally woeful failure to understand the subjunctive and infinitive moods.
The first sentence should be thus:
>
> Professor required his students return their papers typed.
>
>
>
The "to" is totally superfluous. In this sentence, "return" is in the infinitive mood. Verbs are in the infinitive mood if they are being used as part of a noun phrase following the main verb of the sentence, which in this case, is the past-tense "required".
The second sentence should be thus:
>
> Professor required that his students return their papers typed.
>
>
>
OK, you got that right here - the verb "return" is in the subjunctive mood, indicating a hypothetical or possible scenario, but not one that is necessarily true, or happening right now. However, your question title provides an example of where this is missed, where you say:
>
> to require that someone does something
>
>
>
This is grammatically incorrect. You require that someone *do* something, not *does*. *Does* is present tense, intended to indicate that something is a fact. As you are requiring that something be done, it is not (necessarily) yet a fact, and so the subjunctive mood *do* is appropriate:
>
> to require that someone do something
>
>
>
Note that in English, the subjunctive form is *always* identical to the infinitive form of a verb. For that reason, I sometimes call it the "subfinitive" form. |
238,638 | >
> 1. Professor required his students to return their papers typed.
>
>
>
vs
>
> 2. Professor required that his students return their papers typed.
>
>
>
Which of the examples is correct? Do they have the same meaning?
What is the preferred usage?
<http://oxfordlearnersdictionaries.com/us/definition/english/require> and <http://www.thefreedictionary.com/require> do not mention any usage differences | 2015/04/10 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/238638",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/116714/"
] | Or,
possibly, the sentence implies: Professor required his students to return his papers typed. (his in place of their)
second one seems right. | Both of these sentences are attempting to get at the same semantic meaning, and in my opinion, both are grammatically incorrect. Both are good examples of English speakers' generally woeful failure to understand the subjunctive and infinitive moods.
The first sentence should be thus:
>
> Professor required his students return their papers typed.
>
>
>
The "to" is totally superfluous. In this sentence, "return" is in the infinitive mood. Verbs are in the infinitive mood if they are being used as part of a noun phrase following the main verb of the sentence, which in this case, is the past-tense "required".
The second sentence should be thus:
>
> Professor required that his students return their papers typed.
>
>
>
OK, you got that right here - the verb "return" is in the subjunctive mood, indicating a hypothetical or possible scenario, but not one that is necessarily true, or happening right now. However, your question title provides an example of where this is missed, where you say:
>
> to require that someone does something
>
>
>
This is grammatically incorrect. You require that someone *do* something, not *does*. *Does* is present tense, intended to indicate that something is a fact. As you are requiring that something be done, it is not (necessarily) yet a fact, and so the subjunctive mood *do* is appropriate:
>
> to require that someone do something
>
>
>
Note that in English, the subjunctive form is *always* identical to the infinitive form of a verb. For that reason, I sometimes call it the "subfinitive" form. |
238,638 | >
> 1. Professor required his students to return their papers typed.
>
>
>
vs
>
> 2. Professor required that his students return their papers typed.
>
>
>
Which of the examples is correct? Do they have the same meaning?
What is the preferred usage?
<http://oxfordlearnersdictionaries.com/us/definition/english/require> and <http://www.thefreedictionary.com/require> do not mention any usage differences | 2015/04/10 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/238638",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/116714/"
] | Both the sentences are correct; one simple with one finite verb 'required' and the other complex with two finite verbs, 'required' and 'return'where the subordinate noun clause beginning with 'that ...' is the object of the verb, 'required'. In the simple sentence "to return" is made an infinitive with an object which an infinitive by definition can accept. | Both of these sentences are attempting to get at the same semantic meaning, and in my opinion, both are grammatically incorrect. Both are good examples of English speakers' generally woeful failure to understand the subjunctive and infinitive moods.
The first sentence should be thus:
>
> Professor required his students return their papers typed.
>
>
>
The "to" is totally superfluous. In this sentence, "return" is in the infinitive mood. Verbs are in the infinitive mood if they are being used as part of a noun phrase following the main verb of the sentence, which in this case, is the past-tense "required".
The second sentence should be thus:
>
> Professor required that his students return their papers typed.
>
>
>
OK, you got that right here - the verb "return" is in the subjunctive mood, indicating a hypothetical or possible scenario, but not one that is necessarily true, or happening right now. However, your question title provides an example of where this is missed, where you say:
>
> to require that someone does something
>
>
>
This is grammatically incorrect. You require that someone *do* something, not *does*. *Does* is present tense, intended to indicate that something is a fact. As you are requiring that something be done, it is not (necessarily) yet a fact, and so the subjunctive mood *do* is appropriate:
>
> to require that someone do something
>
>
>
Note that in English, the subjunctive form is *always* identical to the infinitive form of a verb. For that reason, I sometimes call it the "subfinitive" form. |
238,638 | >
> 1. Professor required his students to return their papers typed.
>
>
>
vs
>
> 2. Professor required that his students return their papers typed.
>
>
>
Which of the examples is correct? Do they have the same meaning?
What is the preferred usage?
<http://oxfordlearnersdictionaries.com/us/definition/english/require> and <http://www.thefreedictionary.com/require> do not mention any usage differences | 2015/04/10 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/238638",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/116714/"
] | Require is a transitive verb, which means that in either case, we can look for an object later in the sentence. In the first sentence,
>
> Professor required his students to return their papers typed.
>
>
>
We can diagram everything after "required",
>
> his students to return their papers typed
>
>
>
as part of the object phrase, which in this case is an infinitive phrase functioning as a noun. The base infinitive is "to return," and we can add the object to expand the infinitive phrase, "to return their papers," and add an adverb (or postpositional adjective, but dynamically here it's probably just an adverb) to make it "to return their papers typed." But you can still go further. Since this infinitive form doesn't have an explicit subject, you can add the subject, "his students to return their papers typed." In fact, this verb, "require," happens to require infinitive objects to have an explicit subject. This is because in the absence of an explicit subject, the subject is assumed to be the subject of the clause. For example,
>
> Professor wanted to return their papers typed.
>
>
>
In this sentence, since "his students" is not included as the explicit subject, the implicit subject for the infinitive phrase must be "professor."
The object of the sentence can also be a relative clause (signaled by "that") as in
>
> Professor required that his students return their papers typed.
>
>
>
In this case, the object, what the professor required, is in the relative clause. Just about anything is acceptable as long as the phrase signaled by "that" is an independent clause in the subjunctive mood. You could even drop the word "that" and it would still be correct in some contexts.
My conclusion is that both of these sentences are perfectly acceptable in English. Hope that helps. | Both of these sentences are attempting to get at the same semantic meaning, and in my opinion, both are grammatically incorrect. Both are good examples of English speakers' generally woeful failure to understand the subjunctive and infinitive moods.
The first sentence should be thus:
>
> Professor required his students return their papers typed.
>
>
>
The "to" is totally superfluous. In this sentence, "return" is in the infinitive mood. Verbs are in the infinitive mood if they are being used as part of a noun phrase following the main verb of the sentence, which in this case, is the past-tense "required".
The second sentence should be thus:
>
> Professor required that his students return their papers typed.
>
>
>
OK, you got that right here - the verb "return" is in the subjunctive mood, indicating a hypothetical or possible scenario, but not one that is necessarily true, or happening right now. However, your question title provides an example of where this is missed, where you say:
>
> to require that someone does something
>
>
>
This is grammatically incorrect. You require that someone *do* something, not *does*. *Does* is present tense, intended to indicate that something is a fact. As you are requiring that something be done, it is not (necessarily) yet a fact, and so the subjunctive mood *do* is appropriate:
>
> to require that someone do something
>
>
>
Note that in English, the subjunctive form is *always* identical to the infinitive form of a verb. For that reason, I sometimes call it the "subfinitive" form. |
238,638 | >
> 1. Professor required his students to return their papers typed.
>
>
>
vs
>
> 2. Professor required that his students return their papers typed.
>
>
>
Which of the examples is correct? Do they have the same meaning?
What is the preferred usage?
<http://oxfordlearnersdictionaries.com/us/definition/english/require> and <http://www.thefreedictionary.com/require> do not mention any usage differences | 2015/04/10 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/238638",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/116714/"
] | Require is a transitive verb, which means that in either case, we can look for an object later in the sentence. In the first sentence,
>
> Professor required his students to return their papers typed.
>
>
>
We can diagram everything after "required",
>
> his students to return their papers typed
>
>
>
as part of the object phrase, which in this case is an infinitive phrase functioning as a noun. The base infinitive is "to return," and we can add the object to expand the infinitive phrase, "to return their papers," and add an adverb (or postpositional adjective, but dynamically here it's probably just an adverb) to make it "to return their papers typed." But you can still go further. Since this infinitive form doesn't have an explicit subject, you can add the subject, "his students to return their papers typed." In fact, this verb, "require," happens to require infinitive objects to have an explicit subject. This is because in the absence of an explicit subject, the subject is assumed to be the subject of the clause. For example,
>
> Professor wanted to return their papers typed.
>
>
>
In this sentence, since "his students" is not included as the explicit subject, the implicit subject for the infinitive phrase must be "professor."
The object of the sentence can also be a relative clause (signaled by "that") as in
>
> Professor required that his students return their papers typed.
>
>
>
In this case, the object, what the professor required, is in the relative clause. Just about anything is acceptable as long as the phrase signaled by "that" is an independent clause in the subjunctive mood. You could even drop the word "that" and it would still be correct in some contexts.
My conclusion is that both of these sentences are perfectly acceptable in English. Hope that helps. | A. This is using the subjunctive mood and the subject form "they" of the pronoun:
*The economy requires they **return** to work.*
*That economy requires they **should return** to work.* [this is more frequent in BrE]
E.g.
>
> Miss Winthorpe's Elopement - Page 82 Christine Merrill - 2010 -
> Preview - More editions
>
>
> You may go back, if you wish, and explain to them that economy
> **requires they return** to work
>
>
> \_
>
>
>
B. This is using the infinitive and the object form "them" of the pronoun, as per:
>
> re·quire
>
>
> transitive verb
>
>
> 6 : to feel or be under the necessity of (doing or being something
> specified) — used **with a following infinitive**
>
>
> *one does not require to be a specialist — Elizabeth Bowen*
>
>
> *a candidate requires to hold a … certificate — Achievement in the Gold
> Coast*
>
>
> Merriam Webster Unabridged Dictionary
>
>
>
*The law required **them** **to return** to work.*
>
> \*Daily Labor Report - Issues 191-212 - Page 44 1979 -
>
>
> Most of the employees met in the lunchroom to discuss whether the
> collective bargaining agreement negotiated by Lumber Production and
> Industrial Workers Local 2573 **required them to return to work**.\*
>
>
> |
238,638 | >
> 1. Professor required his students to return their papers typed.
>
>
>
vs
>
> 2. Professor required that his students return their papers typed.
>
>
>
Which of the examples is correct? Do they have the same meaning?
What is the preferred usage?
<http://oxfordlearnersdictionaries.com/us/definition/english/require> and <http://www.thefreedictionary.com/require> do not mention any usage differences | 2015/04/10 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/238638",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/116714/"
] | Require is a transitive verb, which means that in either case, we can look for an object later in the sentence. In the first sentence,
>
> Professor required his students to return their papers typed.
>
>
>
We can diagram everything after "required",
>
> his students to return their papers typed
>
>
>
as part of the object phrase, which in this case is an infinitive phrase functioning as a noun. The base infinitive is "to return," and we can add the object to expand the infinitive phrase, "to return their papers," and add an adverb (or postpositional adjective, but dynamically here it's probably just an adverb) to make it "to return their papers typed." But you can still go further. Since this infinitive form doesn't have an explicit subject, you can add the subject, "his students to return their papers typed." In fact, this verb, "require," happens to require infinitive objects to have an explicit subject. This is because in the absence of an explicit subject, the subject is assumed to be the subject of the clause. For example,
>
> Professor wanted to return their papers typed.
>
>
>
In this sentence, since "his students" is not included as the explicit subject, the implicit subject for the infinitive phrase must be "professor."
The object of the sentence can also be a relative clause (signaled by "that") as in
>
> Professor required that his students return their papers typed.
>
>
>
In this case, the object, what the professor required, is in the relative clause. Just about anything is acceptable as long as the phrase signaled by "that" is an independent clause in the subjunctive mood. You could even drop the word "that" and it would still be correct in some contexts.
My conclusion is that both of these sentences are perfectly acceptable in English. Hope that helps. | Or,
possibly, the sentence implies: Professor required his students to return his papers typed. (his in place of their)
second one seems right. |
238,638 | >
> 1. Professor required his students to return their papers typed.
>
>
>
vs
>
> 2. Professor required that his students return their papers typed.
>
>
>
Which of the examples is correct? Do they have the same meaning?
What is the preferred usage?
<http://oxfordlearnersdictionaries.com/us/definition/english/require> and <http://www.thefreedictionary.com/require> do not mention any usage differences | 2015/04/10 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/238638",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/116714/"
] | Require is a transitive verb, which means that in either case, we can look for an object later in the sentence. In the first sentence,
>
> Professor required his students to return their papers typed.
>
>
>
We can diagram everything after "required",
>
> his students to return their papers typed
>
>
>
as part of the object phrase, which in this case is an infinitive phrase functioning as a noun. The base infinitive is "to return," and we can add the object to expand the infinitive phrase, "to return their papers," and add an adverb (or postpositional adjective, but dynamically here it's probably just an adverb) to make it "to return their papers typed." But you can still go further. Since this infinitive form doesn't have an explicit subject, you can add the subject, "his students to return their papers typed." In fact, this verb, "require," happens to require infinitive objects to have an explicit subject. This is because in the absence of an explicit subject, the subject is assumed to be the subject of the clause. For example,
>
> Professor wanted to return their papers typed.
>
>
>
In this sentence, since "his students" is not included as the explicit subject, the implicit subject for the infinitive phrase must be "professor."
The object of the sentence can also be a relative clause (signaled by "that") as in
>
> Professor required that his students return their papers typed.
>
>
>
In this case, the object, what the professor required, is in the relative clause. Just about anything is acceptable as long as the phrase signaled by "that" is an independent clause in the subjunctive mood. You could even drop the word "that" and it would still be correct in some contexts.
My conclusion is that both of these sentences are perfectly acceptable in English. Hope that helps. | Both the sentences are correct; one simple with one finite verb 'required' and the other complex with two finite verbs, 'required' and 'return'where the subordinate noun clause beginning with 'that ...' is the object of the verb, 'required'. In the simple sentence "to return" is made an infinitive with an object which an infinitive by definition can accept. |
50,086 | Berean Literal Bible 1 Timothy 2:9
>
> Likewise also women should adorn themselves in respectable apparel, with modesty and self-control, not with braided hair or gold or pearls or costly clothing
>
>
>
Was Paul against braided hair or hair adorned with gold? | 2020/08/20 | [
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/50086",
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com",
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/users/35953/"
] | 1 Tim 2:9 should not be divorced from V10, so let me quote both (BSB):
>
> Likewise, I want the women to adorn themselves with respectable
> apparel, with modesty, and with self-control, not with braided hair or
> gold or pearls or expensive clothes, but with good deeds, as is proper
> for women who profess to worship God.
>
>
>
This text gives me the impression that any woman who could afford it, dressed to impress (much as today!) Paul is simply encouraging women to lift their focus away from the type of apparel that draws attention to oneself and direct it to Christ.
That is, Paul wanted women to be known, not for their exquisite dress sense, but for their good deeds; or more precisely in the words of Matthew 5:16:
>
> In the same way, let your light shine before others, that they may see
> your good deeds and glorify your Father in heaven.
>
>
>
Christians should conduct themselves in such a way that even unbelievers give glory to God. This is not done by wearing clothes that bring glory to the person.
Lastly and specifically about **braided hair**: I do not believe that Paul was specifically opposed to braided hair but the braids containing gold or pearls. Gold threads cannot be placed in the hair without braiding it. Similarly, Pearls in the hair could only be done using braids. For a woman having long hair (as Paul in other places recommended, 1 Cor 11:15), braiding hair is and was a practical way to wear it in public.
Therefore, I suggest that Paul is not against braided as such, but against braiding hair with gold and pearls as an exercise in self glorification. | ### Was Paul against braided hair or hair adorned with gold?
Paul was giving instruction as to how women should present themselves as worshippers of God. This is in line with what Paul talks about in the next verse:
>
> but with good deeds which are fitting for women who profess godliness.–The Lexham English Bible (1 Ti 2:10).
>
>
>
Would a Christian woman dress provocatively, as was the style of the times, and at the same time say she was a follower of God? Under the subject of [Adornment](https://wol.jw.org/en/wol/d/r1/lp-e/1200000117#h=7:0-8:0), *Insight on the Scriptures* says:
>
> During the days of the apostles it was a custom among women in that world of Greek culture to go in for elaborate coiffures and other adornment.
>
>
>
The Wikipedia article on [Clothing in ancient Greece](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Clothing_in_ancient_Greece#Jewellery) brings out that these hairstyles were elaborate.
So, why was Paul worried about these hairstyles? Because they were a status symbol of the times. Note what the website *Hairstory* says under the topic ["Hair Studies: Braids & Dreads"](https://www.hairstory.com/stories/hairstudies-braids-dreads/):
>
> To differentiate themselves from Egyptians, classical Greek women grew hair much longer, and pulled it back into chignons. Many styles involved braids fixed to the head and decorated with flowers, headbands, ribbons and pieces of metal. Braids were a sign of wealth and the leisure it affords; the more elaborate, the better.
>
>
>
The March 8, 1995, Awake! issue has an interesting article on ["Fashion–Ancient Greek"](https://wol.jw.org/en/wol/d/r1/lp-e/101995168#h=20) which brings out the danger of this style for Christians:
>
> The popular hair styles worn by rich ancient Greek women were extremely elaborate and very time-consuming. Such hair styles required many long hours of preparation by a beautician and much expense, and they were very showy, drawing attention to the wearer.
>
>
>
So we can see that Paul was more concerned about where a Christian would put their devotion, on the physical appearance or on their spirituality.
For more information on this topic, see the Watchtower June 1, 1991 ["Questions From Readers: Is it fitting for a Christian woman to use jewelry or makeup, dye her hair, or follow similar practices?"](https://wol.jw.org/en/wol/d/r1/lp-e/1991409) |
50,086 | Berean Literal Bible 1 Timothy 2:9
>
> Likewise also women should adorn themselves in respectable apparel, with modesty and self-control, not with braided hair or gold or pearls or costly clothing
>
>
>
Was Paul against braided hair or hair adorned with gold? | 2020/08/20 | [
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/50086",
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com",
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/users/35953/"
] | >
> *What's wrong with **braided hair** in 1 Timothy 2:9 ?*
>
>
>
> >
> > Likewise also women should **adorn themselves** in respectable apparel, with modesty and self-control, not **with** braided hair or **gold or pearls or costly clothing**
> >
> >
> >
>
>
>
The same as what's wrong with *“adorn[ing] themselves [...] with [...] gold or pearls or costly clothing”* :
* Elaborate hairstyles do not affect that which is within the head, namely the human mind.
* Likewise, fancy dresses do not affect that which is within the body, namely the indwelling human spirit.
* Adorning oneself with gold, silver, pearls, and other precious metals does not infuse one's character with the beauty, splendor, and radiance characteristic of expensive jewelry.
Which is why Paul states:
>
> Likewise also women should adorn themselves in **respect**able apparel, with **modesty** and **self-control** [...] but with what is **becoming** to women, professing the **fear of God** through **good works**.
>
>
>
The Apostle is making here a pun about **“putting on an apparel of respect”**, which has the double meaning of both putting on decent clothes, as well “clothing” oneself with respect, which then serves as trampoline for adding others virtues unto the list; compare this with other similar passages penned by the same Paul:
>
> **Romans 13:12-14**
>
> The night is far spent, the day is at hand: let us therefore cast off the works of darkness, and let us **put on the armour of light.** But **put ye on the Lord Jesus Christ**, and make not provision for the flesh, to fulfil the lusts thereof.
>
>
>
>
> **2 Corinthians 6:7**
>
> By the word of truth, by the power of God, by **the armour of righteousness** on the right hand and on the left.
>
>
>
>
> **Ephesians 6:11-17**
>
> **Put on the whole armour of God**, that ye may be able to stand against the wiles of the devil. Wherefore **take unto you the whole armour of God**, that ye may be able to withstand in the evil day, and having done all, to stand. Stand therefore, having your **loins girt about with truth**, and **having on the breastplate of righteousness**; and your **feet shod with the preparation** of the gospel of peace; above all, **taking the shield of faith**, wherewith ye shall be able to quench all the fiery darts of the wicked. And **take the helmet of salvation**, and the **sword of the Spirit**, which is the word of God.
>
>
>
---
>
> *What's wrong with **braided hair** in 1 Timothy 2:9 ?*
>
>
>
The same as what's wrong with **circumcision**, or keeping the **Sabbath**:
* Adorning one's head with a beautiful hairstyle does not contribute anything to the adorning of one's mind with beautiful thoughts.
* Circumcising oneself does not prevent someone from being overpowered by lust.
* Physically resting on the Sabbath (or any other) day does not grant one spiritual rest, namely the peace of mind brought on by a clean and unencumbered conscience (Psalm 24:3-4), and by its release from the various addictions constantly and restlessly plaguing it. | 1 Tim 2:9 should not be divorced from V10, so let me quote both (BSB):
>
> Likewise, I want the women to adorn themselves with respectable
> apparel, with modesty, and with self-control, not with braided hair or
> gold or pearls or expensive clothes, but with good deeds, as is proper
> for women who profess to worship God.
>
>
>
This text gives me the impression that any woman who could afford it, dressed to impress (much as today!) Paul is simply encouraging women to lift their focus away from the type of apparel that draws attention to oneself and direct it to Christ.
That is, Paul wanted women to be known, not for their exquisite dress sense, but for their good deeds; or more precisely in the words of Matthew 5:16:
>
> In the same way, let your light shine before others, that they may see
> your good deeds and glorify your Father in heaven.
>
>
>
Christians should conduct themselves in such a way that even unbelievers give glory to God. This is not done by wearing clothes that bring glory to the person.
Lastly and specifically about **braided hair**: I do not believe that Paul was specifically opposed to braided hair but the braids containing gold or pearls. Gold threads cannot be placed in the hair without braiding it. Similarly, Pearls in the hair could only be done using braids. For a woman having long hair (as Paul in other places recommended, 1 Cor 11:15), braiding hair is and was a practical way to wear it in public.
Therefore, I suggest that Paul is not against braided as such, but against braiding hair with gold and pearls as an exercise in self glorification. |
50,086 | Berean Literal Bible 1 Timothy 2:9
>
> Likewise also women should adorn themselves in respectable apparel, with modesty and self-control, not with braided hair or gold or pearls or costly clothing
>
>
>
Was Paul against braided hair or hair adorned with gold? | 2020/08/20 | [
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/50086",
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com",
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/users/35953/"
] | 1 Tim 2:9 should not be divorced from V10, so let me quote both (BSB):
>
> Likewise, I want the women to adorn themselves with respectable
> apparel, with modesty, and with self-control, not with braided hair or
> gold or pearls or expensive clothes, but with good deeds, as is proper
> for women who profess to worship God.
>
>
>
This text gives me the impression that any woman who could afford it, dressed to impress (much as today!) Paul is simply encouraging women to lift their focus away from the type of apparel that draws attention to oneself and direct it to Christ.
That is, Paul wanted women to be known, not for their exquisite dress sense, but for their good deeds; or more precisely in the words of Matthew 5:16:
>
> In the same way, let your light shine before others, that they may see
> your good deeds and glorify your Father in heaven.
>
>
>
Christians should conduct themselves in such a way that even unbelievers give glory to God. This is not done by wearing clothes that bring glory to the person.
Lastly and specifically about **braided hair**: I do not believe that Paul was specifically opposed to braided hair but the braids containing gold or pearls. Gold threads cannot be placed in the hair without braiding it. Similarly, Pearls in the hair could only be done using braids. For a woman having long hair (as Paul in other places recommended, 1 Cor 11:15), braiding hair is and was a practical way to wear it in public.
Therefore, I suggest that Paul is not against braided as such, but against braiding hair with gold and pearls as an exercise in self glorification. | \*\*What's wrong with braided hair in 1 Timothy 2:9?
Berean Literal Bible 1 Timothy 2:9\*\*
>
> Likewise also women should adorn themselves in respectable apparel,
> with modesty and self-control, not with braided hair or gold or pearls
> or costly clothing Suppose you are drawn to a certain style of dress
> that could possibly disturb some in the congregation. Yet, you may
> know of no specific Bible law that forbids it. What is God's view the
> matter? The apostle Paul offered this inspired counsel:
>
>
>
1 Timothy 2:9-10 (NASB)
Women Instructed
>
> 9 Likewise, I want women to adorn themselves with proper clothing,
> [a]modestly and discreetly, not with braided hair and gold or pearls
> or costly garments, 10 but rather by means of good works, as is proper
> for women making a claim to godliness.
>
>
>
The counsel applies equally to men. Modesty and love move us to take into account the opinions of fellow believers in order to avoid distracting or even offending them.
1 Corinthians 10:23-24 (NASB)
>
> 23 All things are lawful, but not all things are profitable. All
> things are lawful, but not all things edify. 24 Let no one seek his
> own good, but that of his [a]neighbor.
>
>
>
Philippians 3:17 (NET Bible)
>
> 17 Be imitators of me, brothers and sisters,[b] and watch carefully
> those who are living this way, just as you have us as an example.
>
>
>
Bearing in mind what the Scriptures say can help us perceive God's thinking on this matter and can guide us in making decisions that please him.
Braided Hair Styles. |
50,086 | Berean Literal Bible 1 Timothy 2:9
>
> Likewise also women should adorn themselves in respectable apparel, with modesty and self-control, not with braided hair or gold or pearls or costly clothing
>
>
>
Was Paul against braided hair or hair adorned with gold? | 2020/08/20 | [
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/50086",
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com",
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/users/35953/"
] | >
> *What's wrong with **braided hair** in 1 Timothy 2:9 ?*
>
>
>
> >
> > Likewise also women should **adorn themselves** in respectable apparel, with modesty and self-control, not **with** braided hair or **gold or pearls or costly clothing**
> >
> >
> >
>
>
>
The same as what's wrong with *“adorn[ing] themselves [...] with [...] gold or pearls or costly clothing”* :
* Elaborate hairstyles do not affect that which is within the head, namely the human mind.
* Likewise, fancy dresses do not affect that which is within the body, namely the indwelling human spirit.
* Adorning oneself with gold, silver, pearls, and other precious metals does not infuse one's character with the beauty, splendor, and radiance characteristic of expensive jewelry.
Which is why Paul states:
>
> Likewise also women should adorn themselves in **respect**able apparel, with **modesty** and **self-control** [...] but with what is **becoming** to women, professing the **fear of God** through **good works**.
>
>
>
The Apostle is making here a pun about **“putting on an apparel of respect”**, which has the double meaning of both putting on decent clothes, as well “clothing” oneself with respect, which then serves as trampoline for adding others virtues unto the list; compare this with other similar passages penned by the same Paul:
>
> **Romans 13:12-14**
>
> The night is far spent, the day is at hand: let us therefore cast off the works of darkness, and let us **put on the armour of light.** But **put ye on the Lord Jesus Christ**, and make not provision for the flesh, to fulfil the lusts thereof.
>
>
>
>
> **2 Corinthians 6:7**
>
> By the word of truth, by the power of God, by **the armour of righteousness** on the right hand and on the left.
>
>
>
>
> **Ephesians 6:11-17**
>
> **Put on the whole armour of God**, that ye may be able to stand against the wiles of the devil. Wherefore **take unto you the whole armour of God**, that ye may be able to withstand in the evil day, and having done all, to stand. Stand therefore, having your **loins girt about with truth**, and **having on the breastplate of righteousness**; and your **feet shod with the preparation** of the gospel of peace; above all, **taking the shield of faith**, wherewith ye shall be able to quench all the fiery darts of the wicked. And **take the helmet of salvation**, and the **sword of the Spirit**, which is the word of God.
>
>
>
---
>
> *What's wrong with **braided hair** in 1 Timothy 2:9 ?*
>
>
>
The same as what's wrong with **circumcision**, or keeping the **Sabbath**:
* Adorning one's head with a beautiful hairstyle does not contribute anything to the adorning of one's mind with beautiful thoughts.
* Circumcising oneself does not prevent someone from being overpowered by lust.
* Physically resting on the Sabbath (or any other) day does not grant one spiritual rest, namely the peace of mind brought on by a clean and unencumbered conscience (Psalm 24:3-4), and by its release from the various addictions constantly and restlessly plaguing it. | ### Was Paul against braided hair or hair adorned with gold?
Paul was giving instruction as to how women should present themselves as worshippers of God. This is in line with what Paul talks about in the next verse:
>
> but with good deeds which are fitting for women who profess godliness.–The Lexham English Bible (1 Ti 2:10).
>
>
>
Would a Christian woman dress provocatively, as was the style of the times, and at the same time say she was a follower of God? Under the subject of [Adornment](https://wol.jw.org/en/wol/d/r1/lp-e/1200000117#h=7:0-8:0), *Insight on the Scriptures* says:
>
> During the days of the apostles it was a custom among women in that world of Greek culture to go in for elaborate coiffures and other adornment.
>
>
>
The Wikipedia article on [Clothing in ancient Greece](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Clothing_in_ancient_Greece#Jewellery) brings out that these hairstyles were elaborate.
So, why was Paul worried about these hairstyles? Because they were a status symbol of the times. Note what the website *Hairstory* says under the topic ["Hair Studies: Braids & Dreads"](https://www.hairstory.com/stories/hairstudies-braids-dreads/):
>
> To differentiate themselves from Egyptians, classical Greek women grew hair much longer, and pulled it back into chignons. Many styles involved braids fixed to the head and decorated with flowers, headbands, ribbons and pieces of metal. Braids were a sign of wealth and the leisure it affords; the more elaborate, the better.
>
>
>
The March 8, 1995, Awake! issue has an interesting article on ["Fashion–Ancient Greek"](https://wol.jw.org/en/wol/d/r1/lp-e/101995168#h=20) which brings out the danger of this style for Christians:
>
> The popular hair styles worn by rich ancient Greek women were extremely elaborate and very time-consuming. Such hair styles required many long hours of preparation by a beautician and much expense, and they were very showy, drawing attention to the wearer.
>
>
>
So we can see that Paul was more concerned about where a Christian would put their devotion, on the physical appearance or on their spirituality.
For more information on this topic, see the Watchtower June 1, 1991 ["Questions From Readers: Is it fitting for a Christian woman to use jewelry or makeup, dye her hair, or follow similar practices?"](https://wol.jw.org/en/wol/d/r1/lp-e/1991409) |
50,086 | Berean Literal Bible 1 Timothy 2:9
>
> Likewise also women should adorn themselves in respectable apparel, with modesty and self-control, not with braided hair or gold or pearls or costly clothing
>
>
>
Was Paul against braided hair or hair adorned with gold? | 2020/08/20 | [
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/50086",
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com",
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/users/35953/"
] | >
> *What's wrong with **braided hair** in 1 Timothy 2:9 ?*
>
>
>
> >
> > Likewise also women should **adorn themselves** in respectable apparel, with modesty and self-control, not **with** braided hair or **gold or pearls or costly clothing**
> >
> >
> >
>
>
>
The same as what's wrong with *“adorn[ing] themselves [...] with [...] gold or pearls or costly clothing”* :
* Elaborate hairstyles do not affect that which is within the head, namely the human mind.
* Likewise, fancy dresses do not affect that which is within the body, namely the indwelling human spirit.
* Adorning oneself with gold, silver, pearls, and other precious metals does not infuse one's character with the beauty, splendor, and radiance characteristic of expensive jewelry.
Which is why Paul states:
>
> Likewise also women should adorn themselves in **respect**able apparel, with **modesty** and **self-control** [...] but with what is **becoming** to women, professing the **fear of God** through **good works**.
>
>
>
The Apostle is making here a pun about **“putting on an apparel of respect”**, which has the double meaning of both putting on decent clothes, as well “clothing” oneself with respect, which then serves as trampoline for adding others virtues unto the list; compare this with other similar passages penned by the same Paul:
>
> **Romans 13:12-14**
>
> The night is far spent, the day is at hand: let us therefore cast off the works of darkness, and let us **put on the armour of light.** But **put ye on the Lord Jesus Christ**, and make not provision for the flesh, to fulfil the lusts thereof.
>
>
>
>
> **2 Corinthians 6:7**
>
> By the word of truth, by the power of God, by **the armour of righteousness** on the right hand and on the left.
>
>
>
>
> **Ephesians 6:11-17**
>
> **Put on the whole armour of God**, that ye may be able to stand against the wiles of the devil. Wherefore **take unto you the whole armour of God**, that ye may be able to withstand in the evil day, and having done all, to stand. Stand therefore, having your **loins girt about with truth**, and **having on the breastplate of righteousness**; and your **feet shod with the preparation** of the gospel of peace; above all, **taking the shield of faith**, wherewith ye shall be able to quench all the fiery darts of the wicked. And **take the helmet of salvation**, and the **sword of the Spirit**, which is the word of God.
>
>
>
---
>
> *What's wrong with **braided hair** in 1 Timothy 2:9 ?*
>
>
>
The same as what's wrong with **circumcision**, or keeping the **Sabbath**:
* Adorning one's head with a beautiful hairstyle does not contribute anything to the adorning of one's mind with beautiful thoughts.
* Circumcising oneself does not prevent someone from being overpowered by lust.
* Physically resting on the Sabbath (or any other) day does not grant one spiritual rest, namely the peace of mind brought on by a clean and unencumbered conscience (Psalm 24:3-4), and by its release from the various addictions constantly and restlessly plaguing it. | \*\*What's wrong with braided hair in 1 Timothy 2:9?
Berean Literal Bible 1 Timothy 2:9\*\*
>
> Likewise also women should adorn themselves in respectable apparel,
> with modesty and self-control, not with braided hair or gold or pearls
> or costly clothing Suppose you are drawn to a certain style of dress
> that could possibly disturb some in the congregation. Yet, you may
> know of no specific Bible law that forbids it. What is God's view the
> matter? The apostle Paul offered this inspired counsel:
>
>
>
1 Timothy 2:9-10 (NASB)
Women Instructed
>
> 9 Likewise, I want women to adorn themselves with proper clothing,
> [a]modestly and discreetly, not with braided hair and gold or pearls
> or costly garments, 10 but rather by means of good works, as is proper
> for women making a claim to godliness.
>
>
>
The counsel applies equally to men. Modesty and love move us to take into account the opinions of fellow believers in order to avoid distracting or even offending them.
1 Corinthians 10:23-24 (NASB)
>
> 23 All things are lawful, but not all things are profitable. All
> things are lawful, but not all things edify. 24 Let no one seek his
> own good, but that of his [a]neighbor.
>
>
>
Philippians 3:17 (NET Bible)
>
> 17 Be imitators of me, brothers and sisters,[b] and watch carefully
> those who are living this way, just as you have us as an example.
>
>
>
Bearing in mind what the Scriptures say can help us perceive God's thinking on this matter and can guide us in making decisions that please him.
Braided Hair Styles. |
22,462 | Here is the reasoning... If universe is infinite and time is infinite, then there has to be an instance where our life is 100% simulated (in some computer and such). And there has to be an instance of that simulation where simulation will ensure when a person die it will transferred to "after life".
So if universe infinite and time is infinite, then after life does exist. How yo disproof this? Which author did extensive work on this subject?
EDIT: Maybe the question can be put like this: if we live in "simulated" world inside infinite (space and time) universe then after-life must exists. | 2015/03/22 | [
"https://philosophy.stackexchange.com/questions/22462",
"https://philosophy.stackexchange.com",
"https://philosophy.stackexchange.com/users/14022/"
] | I think that doesn't follow. For consider the following.
You can have an infinitely long number sequence, that is constructed like this: 1, 11, 111, 1111, 11111, ...
No '2' ever occurs in this sequence. Likewise, not everything possible must occur if universe and time are both infinite. It might just be that something like an after-life is like the '2' in the sequence form above. | Well here's the thing: You assume "universe" is both the physical universe and a simulation thereof at the same time. You have to pick one. For example, if you are in a simulation you really need to apply computer science, which is all finite with the exception of a Turing Machine. If you are in the "physical" universe, you have to solve the metaphysical question of why physical law is universal, which on it's face appears to imply a finite space. There isn't even the slightest reason to make physical law universal inside an engineered simulation, in fact this is what you imply.
So basically you are discussing "physical law", which (from Contemporary Debates in the Philosophy of Science, 2004, Christopher Hitchcock, editor) section 0.2.3, where "law" implies regularity, which, again, is what you seek to undermine. There is no accepted evidence for non-regularity. |
22,462 | Here is the reasoning... If universe is infinite and time is infinite, then there has to be an instance where our life is 100% simulated (in some computer and such). And there has to be an instance of that simulation where simulation will ensure when a person die it will transferred to "after life".
So if universe infinite and time is infinite, then after life does exist. How yo disproof this? Which author did extensive work on this subject?
EDIT: Maybe the question can be put like this: if we live in "simulated" world inside infinite (space and time) universe then after-life must exists. | 2015/03/22 | [
"https://philosophy.stackexchange.com/questions/22462",
"https://philosophy.stackexchange.com",
"https://philosophy.stackexchange.com/users/14022/"
] | I think that doesn't follow. For consider the following.
You can have an infinitely long number sequence, that is constructed like this: 1, 11, 111, 1111, 11111, ...
No '2' ever occurs in this sequence. Likewise, not everything possible must occur if universe and time are both infinite. It might just be that something like an after-life is like the '2' in the sequence form above. | No matter if the Universe is infinite in time and space, nothing impossible can occur. Last I read, it appeared that it was impossible to create a completely convincing simulation of the Universe.
Just because the Universe is eternal doesn't mean that everything possible will happen. The [Big Rip](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Big_Rip) is considered possible. In the example in the article, in 22 billion years the Universe will be completely torn apart, so that no interaction between particles will be possible ever again. A lesser version might tear galaxies apart, and leave individual universe fragments that are complex enough to experience time. In that case, if a simulation needs the resources of a galaxy to create, and takes long enough to process, it could be impossible, even in an infinitely large Universe.
If the Universe is infinite, that doesn't mean that all examples of an uncountably infinite set will happen. If there's stuff that depends on exact real numbers, and we can divide the Universe into an infinite number of spacetime volumes, not everything possible can occur.
If we live in the real universe, and an exact simulation is impossible, then our experiences are limited by the laws of physics, which don't guarantee the existence of an afterlife.
Now, if we do live in a simulated Universe, and the real Universe is infinite, there's got to be a simulation where the entities like us aren't just deleted when we die, but our data structures are moved to a different environment. Assuming that our simulation wasn't programmed that way, does this count as the existence of an afterlife, when beings like us that we can't perceive have one? |
22,462 | Here is the reasoning... If universe is infinite and time is infinite, then there has to be an instance where our life is 100% simulated (in some computer and such). And there has to be an instance of that simulation where simulation will ensure when a person die it will transferred to "after life".
So if universe infinite and time is infinite, then after life does exist. How yo disproof this? Which author did extensive work on this subject?
EDIT: Maybe the question can be put like this: if we live in "simulated" world inside infinite (space and time) universe then after-life must exists. | 2015/03/22 | [
"https://philosophy.stackexchange.com/questions/22462",
"https://philosophy.stackexchange.com",
"https://philosophy.stackexchange.com/users/14022/"
] | Well here's the thing: You assume "universe" is both the physical universe and a simulation thereof at the same time. You have to pick one. For example, if you are in a simulation you really need to apply computer science, which is all finite with the exception of a Turing Machine. If you are in the "physical" universe, you have to solve the metaphysical question of why physical law is universal, which on it's face appears to imply a finite space. There isn't even the slightest reason to make physical law universal inside an engineered simulation, in fact this is what you imply.
So basically you are discussing "physical law", which (from Contemporary Debates in the Philosophy of Science, 2004, Christopher Hitchcock, editor) section 0.2.3, where "law" implies regularity, which, again, is what you seek to undermine. There is no accepted evidence for non-regularity. | No matter if the Universe is infinite in time and space, nothing impossible can occur. Last I read, it appeared that it was impossible to create a completely convincing simulation of the Universe.
Just because the Universe is eternal doesn't mean that everything possible will happen. The [Big Rip](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Big_Rip) is considered possible. In the example in the article, in 22 billion years the Universe will be completely torn apart, so that no interaction between particles will be possible ever again. A lesser version might tear galaxies apart, and leave individual universe fragments that are complex enough to experience time. In that case, if a simulation needs the resources of a galaxy to create, and takes long enough to process, it could be impossible, even in an infinitely large Universe.
If the Universe is infinite, that doesn't mean that all examples of an uncountably infinite set will happen. If there's stuff that depends on exact real numbers, and we can divide the Universe into an infinite number of spacetime volumes, not everything possible can occur.
If we live in the real universe, and an exact simulation is impossible, then our experiences are limited by the laws of physics, which don't guarantee the existence of an afterlife.
Now, if we do live in a simulated Universe, and the real Universe is infinite, there's got to be a simulation where the entities like us aren't just deleted when we die, but our data structures are moved to a different environment. Assuming that our simulation wasn't programmed that way, does this count as the existence of an afterlife, when beings like us that we can't perceive have one? |
745,675 | I know that the default answer is "it depends", but I want to know the feature list you are working from in developing a good application.
I'm particularly interested in features that need to be cared about at design time because adding them late will cost us a lot.
**Please list one feature per answer so we can vote for the most important features.**
Any extra info, like your own war stories, will be appreciated.
I ask this question to enhance my application from day zero, and I think I'm not the only one with this target, so please write whatever feature YOU think should be exist in a good application. | 2009/04/13 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/745675",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/48865/"
] | **Security**. Pretty amusing, if unsurprising, that this is the fourteenth answer to go up. | **Regression testing:** the ability to easily, routinely verify that key functionality elements continue to perform as expected as the system is modified. (This is an more specific element of 'extensibility'.) |
745,675 | I know that the default answer is "it depends", but I want to know the feature list you are working from in developing a good application.
I'm particularly interested in features that need to be cared about at design time because adding them late will cost us a lot.
**Please list one feature per answer so we can vote for the most important features.**
Any extra info, like your own war stories, will be appreciated.
I ask this question to enhance my application from day zero, and I think I'm not the only one with this target, so please write whatever feature YOU think should be exist in a good application. | 2009/04/13 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/745675",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/48865/"
] | **Logging and error handling** | **Unicode support**, because no good comes of your presentation layer encoding being ISO-8859-1 and your persistence layer encoding being UTF-8. |
745,675 | I know that the default answer is "it depends", but I want to know the feature list you are working from in developing a good application.
I'm particularly interested in features that need to be cared about at design time because adding them late will cost us a lot.
**Please list one feature per answer so we can vote for the most important features.**
Any extra info, like your own war stories, will be appreciated.
I ask this question to enhance my application from day zero, and I think I'm not the only one with this target, so please write whatever feature YOU think should be exist in a good application. | 2009/04/13 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/745675",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/48865/"
] | **User Interface/Experience Design** Many technological innovations rely upon UI design to elevate their technical complexity to a usable product. Technology alone [usually] does not win user acceptance and subsequent marketability.
From [IBM](http://www.ibm.com/developerworks/library/us-myth.html):
>
> In software development, design is
> widely misunderstood and undervalued.
> Often no explicit user interface
> design is done separately from the
> code. Iterative design then becomes
> recoding. This is a short-sighted
> strategy because it results in
> significantly more code being written
> in the long run. Because design is
> unavoidable, the real issue is whether
> it is left implicit in the software
> being developed, or made explicit and
> captured separately. The useful debate
> is about how to do design work well,
> and how to capture it in an optimal
> form for communicating to those who
> implement it.
>
>
> | **Comments.** Implement an internal standard comment system (first, document it!) - an automated comment documentation system may be right, or just a set of standard program header comments and comment conventions. Let programmers know in advance how you expect the code to be commented. Have cross-programmer code reviews, checking readability/understandability with an eye to future modification: if you're the next person to work on this code, will it make sense to you? |
745,675 | I know that the default answer is "it depends", but I want to know the feature list you are working from in developing a good application.
I'm particularly interested in features that need to be cared about at design time because adding them late will cost us a lot.
**Please list one feature per answer so we can vote for the most important features.**
Any extra info, like your own war stories, will be appreciated.
I ask this question to enhance my application from day zero, and I think I'm not the only one with this target, so please write whatever feature YOU think should be exist in a good application. | 2009/04/13 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/745675",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/48865/"
] | **Performance** (read that as latency if you wish).
Despite zillions of people shouting premature optimisation across the board, it is a simple functional requirement. Be different and defy with better quality (or design for performance, not premature-optimisation pickers).
There are no other projects in the world requiring perf-retrofitting more than VM like solution in Java and CLR. It is a glaring artifact of their every product, technology, edition and of course bloat called: .NET 3.5 and say Oracle 200MB client (lol).
VMs just suck in every new feature perf-hit, edition and build apps on that and you honestly need a Cray.
Scalability is totally different story, but man, people just won't use high-latency apps and most CLR ones (apart from web stuff that is just plain simple and unapplicable 60% of the time say, like this site/app ) are just that. Load something serious them up and you'll be running to unmanaged office, unmanaged IDE, unmanaged database, unmanaged game, umanaged browser and so on and on.
Somebody should whack the GC lovers with a bat and tell them to wake up.. | **Comments.** Implement an internal standard comment system (first, document it!) - an automated comment documentation system may be right, or just a set of standard program header comments and comment conventions. Let programmers know in advance how you expect the code to be commented. Have cross-programmer code reviews, checking readability/understandability with an eye to future modification: if you're the next person to work on this code, will it make sense to you? |
745,675 | I know that the default answer is "it depends", but I want to know the feature list you are working from in developing a good application.
I'm particularly interested in features that need to be cared about at design time because adding them late will cost us a lot.
**Please list one feature per answer so we can vote for the most important features.**
Any extra info, like your own war stories, will be appreciated.
I ask this question to enhance my application from day zero, and I think I'm not the only one with this target, so please write whatever feature YOU think should be exist in a good application. | 2009/04/13 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/745675",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/48865/"
] | Personally the good feature that I was not giving it the intention it should take is
**Extensibility**
It helps my application community to grow up - which is good for marketing wise & technical wise
and it helps me focus on my core business and leave the cool features to be built by its users | **Inbox**
although it seems to be a very small to mention, but it really has big effect on the usability of the application and the performance too
Imagine if user can ask a heavy report that may take some minutes to generate,
instead of 'click and wait' he can choose 'send me the latest report when it is ready' |
745,675 | I know that the default answer is "it depends", but I want to know the feature list you are working from in developing a good application.
I'm particularly interested in features that need to be cared about at design time because adding them late will cost us a lot.
**Please list one feature per answer so we can vote for the most important features.**
Any extra info, like your own war stories, will be appreciated.
I ask this question to enhance my application from day zero, and I think I'm not the only one with this target, so please write whatever feature YOU think should be exist in a good application. | 2009/04/13 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/745675",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/48865/"
] | **Automation** - if application does not require UI for operation, then enable ability to execute using command line or script. Found many good FTP tools (archive tools too) that fundamentally do not need a UI to do the intended job, but are not script-able or do not have command line capability. | **Modularity
- Productivity
- Extensibility**
That's are the overall design goals of - let's say - [Smart Client Software Factory](http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc540690.aspx). And it works. |
745,675 | I know that the default answer is "it depends", but I want to know the feature list you are working from in developing a good application.
I'm particularly interested in features that need to be cared about at design time because adding them late will cost us a lot.
**Please list one feature per answer so we can vote for the most important features.**
Any extra info, like your own war stories, will be appreciated.
I ask this question to enhance my application from day zero, and I think I'm not the only one with this target, so please write whatever feature YOU think should be exist in a good application. | 2009/04/13 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/745675",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/48865/"
] | **Shortcut keys** (ctrl-f, etc...) | **Unicode support**, because no good comes of your presentation layer encoding being ISO-8859-1 and your persistence layer encoding being UTF-8. |
745,675 | I know that the default answer is "it depends", but I want to know the feature list you are working from in developing a good application.
I'm particularly interested in features that need to be cared about at design time because adding them late will cost us a lot.
**Please list one feature per answer so we can vote for the most important features.**
Any extra info, like your own war stories, will be appreciated.
I ask this question to enhance my application from day zero, and I think I'm not the only one with this target, so please write whatever feature YOU think should be exist in a good application. | 2009/04/13 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/745675",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/48865/"
] | **Design from User Stories**, intentionally deferring database design decisions until at least the first cut at the top-level stories are created. Far, far too often, the components of various user procedures are distorted by the requirements of relational integrity and table maintenance procedures. How often have we all seen a new sales order being entered, and the user is required to navigate several forms to fill in customer details (sometimes requiring phone calls and/or fake data for unknown), mandatory fields that really aren't, credit information that really comes from another department, cancelled entries due to incomplete information discovered several pages deep, etc.
Too seldom does anyone maintain and review usability metrics like pages navigated, keystrokes entered, interrupted tasks; though the mission of the customer and the productivity of the users should be the primary determinants of software quality. | **Introspection:** the ability for the system to programmatically make predictive determinations about its own structure and behavior. (Analogous to reflection at the language level, and a key element of extensibility.) |
745,675 | I know that the default answer is "it depends", but I want to know the feature list you are working from in developing a good application.
I'm particularly interested in features that need to be cared about at design time because adding them late will cost us a lot.
**Please list one feature per answer so we can vote for the most important features.**
Any extra info, like your own war stories, will be appreciated.
I ask this question to enhance my application from day zero, and I think I'm not the only one with this target, so please write whatever feature YOU think should be exist in a good application. | 2009/04/13 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/745675",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/48865/"
] | **Mouse-free operation**: To whatever extent feasible, the application should facilitate the user interacting with it without the use of the mouse. (File under Usability, Accessibility.)
This doesn't necessarily mean going to great lengths to support mouseless usage; more just refraining from forcing the use of the mouse where it shouldn't be required. For example, don't defeat the default form-submission behavior when pressing enter in a Web form unless you're going to do something more useful with it. | **Regression testing:** the ability to easily, routinely verify that key functionality elements continue to perform as expected as the system is modified. (This is an more specific element of 'extensibility'.) |
745,675 | I know that the default answer is "it depends", but I want to know the feature list you are working from in developing a good application.
I'm particularly interested in features that need to be cared about at design time because adding them late will cost us a lot.
**Please list one feature per answer so we can vote for the most important features.**
Any extra info, like your own war stories, will be appreciated.
I ask this question to enhance my application from day zero, and I think I'm not the only one with this target, so please write whatever feature YOU think should be exist in a good application. | 2009/04/13 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/745675",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/48865/"
] | **Automation** - if application does not require UI for operation, then enable ability to execute using command line or script. Found many good FTP tools (archive tools too) that fundamentally do not need a UI to do the intended job, but are not script-able or do not have command line capability. | **Inbox**
although it seems to be a very small to mention, but it really has big effect on the usability of the application and the performance too
Imagine if user can ask a heavy report that may take some minutes to generate,
instead of 'click and wait' he can choose 'send me the latest report when it is ready' |
3,349 | Anyone know of any good resources for cooking recipes/methods/tools for people with a medical condition that causes chronic fatigue? I'm relying too much on convenience foods and 'tv dinners', because frequently the effort of cooking a decent meal is beyond my energy limits at the end of the day. | 2010/07/26 | [
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com/questions/3349",
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com",
"https://cooking.stackexchange.com/users/1426/"
] | A quick and relatively effort free method of cooking is the electric steamer. It's simplicity itself to cook a salmon fillet, some baby new potatos and a selection of veg (which you could purchase pre-chopped for those days when you're really flagging) and then sit and wait for it to cook.
The other advantage of steaming is that you loose less of the nutrients than through boiling so that should help you a little bit as well =) | Get a good blender. Blending food is a way to make quick drinks and soups. There are tons of quick recipes online. Vegetable drinks require just a quick rinse and minimal chop. Same with fruit smoothies. Yogurt smoothies are easy. A good blender will even heat a soup just from blending it for 5-10 minutes on high. You can even add (cooked) meats, eggs, or other proteins to the mix.
The obvious advantage is no pans, no cooking, minimal prep and cleanup. On the gustatory side, I'm not trying to recommend a bland, geriatric, babyfood diet. Blended foods can be well-seasoned and taste great. Add oil, onions, spices, salt, pepper to savory dishes. Honey, cinnamon, vanilla to smoothies. Lemon juice, lime juice, even condiments can add zip.
A big blended drink or soup with a hunk of toasted whole grain bread and butter is an easy and delicious combo. You could make bulk amounts and easily save leftovers.
Plus, it's fun to experiment, and doesn't require too much hassle or expertise.
It's well outside the scope of this site, but blending foods makes them easier to digest. Complete speculation, but I bet that easier nutrient absorption would be good for CFS.
There are some commercial products: the Vitamix, Montel William's blender, the Juiceman juicer which target some of these goals. I find a regular blender works great, though it obviously doesn't remove fiber (like a juicer, not always a good thing anyway), and you have to cut you food a little smaller if it's a lower powered machine. |
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