qid int64 1 74.7M | question stringlengths 12 33.8k | date stringlengths 10 10 | metadata list | response_j stringlengths 0 115k | response_k stringlengths 2 98.3k |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
29,513 | I have an image taken of a room directly at a sunny window. When I adjust the image brightness and contrast the window turns white.
Is it possible use the wand to select the the portion of the image I *don't* want to be affected by the brightness/contrast treatment?
I am I approaching this wrong way altogether?
Thanks | 2014/04/12 | [
"https://graphicdesign.stackexchange.com/questions/29513",
"https://graphicdesign.stackexchange.com",
"https://graphicdesign.stackexchange.com/users/21956/"
] | I suggest using the adjustment layers, found at the lowest portion of your layers panel. It's the black and white circular icon. When you click this icon, you will find all the standard adjustment options: curves, hue/saturation, and levels. Create this layer above your image and make adjustments until the areas you want adjusted are satisfactory. Then edit the masking portion of this layer to mask out areas that you want to remain as original. You can continue this process with as many masked adjustment layers as you like.
This may not be the ideal example image, but you can see the steps to follow here:
The orginal is on top, adjustment applied below, and mask enabled last.
I didn't spend too much time trying to refine this, but I hope it helps! | Use the wand how you see fit to select the area you *don't* want to adjust contrast to; then duplicate the selection to a new layer in the same position.
Then adjust the contrast on the original layer how you want, thus leaving the top layer unaffected.
The problem you may get though is that the adjusted layer may look too different to the original and it will look like it's sitting on top of the image. |
11,955,646 | I have a script that generates a few large files (Product Feeds) and uploads them to different FTP locations.
This script needs to run daily.
whats the preferred route? its currently an aspx page but it doesn't need a user interface and doesn't need to run in the browser.
what are the best practices?
Is there a way to run a formless script in asp.net? I'd hate to install anything on the server even if it's my own console app.
The script also uses a dll (BVSoftware.BVC5) which might only work in a web application.
Currently its a scheduled task that opens IE on the server and loads the page and "Stop task if it runs longer than 1 hour" closes IE after an hour. | 2012/08/14 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/11955646",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1283691/"
] | I would simply create a console app that does the job and use the Windows Scheduler to schedule the nightly job. | You could use a [Scheduled Task](http://support.microsoft.com/kb/308569), a Service, or, if you are going to be using a SQL script, a SQL Agent job.
See here: [Writing a Scheduled Windows Service in .NET](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/164286/writing-a-scheduled-windows-service-in-net) |
11,955,646 | I have a script that generates a few large files (Product Feeds) and uploads them to different FTP locations.
This script needs to run daily.
whats the preferred route? its currently an aspx page but it doesn't need a user interface and doesn't need to run in the browser.
what are the best practices?
Is there a way to run a formless script in asp.net? I'd hate to install anything on the server even if it's my own console app.
The script also uses a dll (BVSoftware.BVC5) which might only work in a web application.
Currently its a scheduled task that opens IE on the server and loads the page and "Stop task if it runs longer than 1 hour" closes IE after an hour. | 2012/08/14 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/11955646",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1283691/"
] | I would simply create a console app that does the job and use the Windows Scheduler to schedule the nightly job. | Since it is already working as an ASPX page, the least work is to simply use the Cache expiration to schedule a call to run it. However take care not to rely on it, because it may stop if the website is rarely used.
See it here :
[How to schedule a C# code execution](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/10794534/how-to-schedule-a-c-sharp-code-execution) |
11,955,646 | I have a script that generates a few large files (Product Feeds) and uploads them to different FTP locations.
This script needs to run daily.
whats the preferred route? its currently an aspx page but it doesn't need a user interface and doesn't need to run in the browser.
what are the best practices?
Is there a way to run a formless script in asp.net? I'd hate to install anything on the server even if it's my own console app.
The script also uses a dll (BVSoftware.BVC5) which might only work in a web application.
Currently its a scheduled task that opens IE on the server and loads the page and "Stop task if it runs longer than 1 hour" closes IE after an hour. | 2012/08/14 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/11955646",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1283691/"
] | I would simply create a console app that does the job and use the Windows Scheduler to schedule the nightly job. | If you are trying to perform background tasks on a webserver, you could try using [Worker Roles](https://www.google.co.uk/#q=worker+roles+in+asp.net).
Or also BackgroundWorker thread: <http://code.msdn.microsoft.com/CSASPNETBackgroundWorker-dda8d7b6> |
11,955,646 | I have a script that generates a few large files (Product Feeds) and uploads them to different FTP locations.
This script needs to run daily.
whats the preferred route? its currently an aspx page but it doesn't need a user interface and doesn't need to run in the browser.
what are the best practices?
Is there a way to run a formless script in asp.net? I'd hate to install anything on the server even if it's my own console app.
The script also uses a dll (BVSoftware.BVC5) which might only work in a web application.
Currently its a scheduled task that opens IE on the server and loads the page and "Stop task if it runs longer than 1 hour" closes IE after an hour. | 2012/08/14 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/11955646",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1283691/"
] | You could use a [Scheduled Task](http://support.microsoft.com/kb/308569), a Service, or, if you are going to be using a SQL script, a SQL Agent job.
See here: [Writing a Scheduled Windows Service in .NET](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/164286/writing-a-scheduled-windows-service-in-net) | Since it is already working as an ASPX page, the least work is to simply use the Cache expiration to schedule a call to run it. However take care not to rely on it, because it may stop if the website is rarely used.
See it here :
[How to schedule a C# code execution](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/10794534/how-to-schedule-a-c-sharp-code-execution) |
11,955,646 | I have a script that generates a few large files (Product Feeds) and uploads them to different FTP locations.
This script needs to run daily.
whats the preferred route? its currently an aspx page but it doesn't need a user interface and doesn't need to run in the browser.
what are the best practices?
Is there a way to run a formless script in asp.net? I'd hate to install anything on the server even if it's my own console app.
The script also uses a dll (BVSoftware.BVC5) which might only work in a web application.
Currently its a scheduled task that opens IE on the server and loads the page and "Stop task if it runs longer than 1 hour" closes IE after an hour. | 2012/08/14 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/11955646",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1283691/"
] | You could use a [Scheduled Task](http://support.microsoft.com/kb/308569), a Service, or, if you are going to be using a SQL script, a SQL Agent job.
See here: [Writing a Scheduled Windows Service in .NET](https://stackoverflow.com/questions/164286/writing-a-scheduled-windows-service-in-net) | If you are trying to perform background tasks on a webserver, you could try using [Worker Roles](https://www.google.co.uk/#q=worker+roles+in+asp.net).
Or also BackgroundWorker thread: <http://code.msdn.microsoft.com/CSASPNETBackgroundWorker-dda8d7b6> |
41,064,556 | I've been searching everywhere for an answer to this but to no avail. I want to be able to run my code and have the variables stored in memory so that I can perhaps set a "checkpoint" which I can run from in the future. The reason is that I have a fairly expensive function that takes some time to compute (as well as user input) and it would be nice if I didn't have to wait for it to finish every time I run after I change something downstream.
I'm sure a feature like this exists in PyCharm but I have no idea what it's called and the documentation isn't very clear to me at my level of experience. It would save me a lot of time if someone could point me in the right direction. | 2016/12/09 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/41064556",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/6046281/"
] | Turns out this is (more or less) possible by using the PyCharm console. I guess I should have realized this earlier because it seems so simple now (though I've never used a console in my life so I guess I should learn).
Anyway, the console lets you run blocks of your code presuming the required variables, functions, libraries, etc... have been specified beforehand. You can actually highlight a block of your code in the PyCharm editor, right click and select "Run in console" to execute it. | This feature is not implement in Pycharm ([see pycharm forum](https://intellij-support.jetbrains.com/hc/en-us/community/posts/205816639-Access-python-console-and-program-variables-after-program-finished-running-?sort_by=votes)) but seems implemented in Spyder. |
1,962 | Reference: [this answer](https://salesforce.stackexchange.com/a/72685/149). Specifically, it ends with:
>
> Please upvote , if it is making sense to your requirement. else elaborate more so i can make the answer to your question. :)
>
>
>
Firstly, the question was not clear, and I did post a comment asking for clarification and voted to close as unclear. The linked answer above was an attempt to answer (which is fine, if you think you have a handle on the question), but I have a couple of problems with the final sentence:
* "Please Upvote" is unnecessary in an answer. I'm fine with nudging someone who forgets to accept an answer, but asking in the answer is effectively noise
* By asking for clarification so the answering user can try again, the user has basically admitted they don't know if they've understood the question.
Should we discourage "Please upvote" and similar? If so, how? I considered editing the answer, but I generally only edit another's work to fix formatting or correct spelling/grammatical errors that make it hard to understand a post. | 2015/04/19 | [
"https://salesforce.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/1962",
"https://salesforce.meta.stackexchange.com",
"https://salesforce.meta.stackexchange.com/users/149/"
] | In [this thread](https://meta.stackexchange.com/questions/194061/is-it-acceptable-to-ask-for-upvote-accept-in-an-answer-when-submitting-it) a couple years ago on meta.stackexchange, the accepted answer stated:
>
> Not in the answer. The answer is reserved for... answering the
> question. Any other content in an answer is just noise, and is subject
> to removal.
>
>
> If you must, put your humorous request for unicorn dollars in a
> comment below the answer. I suspect, however, that such requests may
> actually have the opposite effect of that intended.
>
>
>
I agree with that approach and would encourage the removal of "please upvote" as a totally acceptable edit here. I would endorse that approach for other types of "noise" such as "Hi blah...", signatures, jokes, etc. | If you see it in an answer, edit it out. I suppose it's less distasteful in the comments and probably doesn't deserve a flag. |
1,962 | Reference: [this answer](https://salesforce.stackexchange.com/a/72685/149). Specifically, it ends with:
>
> Please upvote , if it is making sense to your requirement. else elaborate more so i can make the answer to your question. :)
>
>
>
Firstly, the question was not clear, and I did post a comment asking for clarification and voted to close as unclear. The linked answer above was an attempt to answer (which is fine, if you think you have a handle on the question), but I have a couple of problems with the final sentence:
* "Please Upvote" is unnecessary in an answer. I'm fine with nudging someone who forgets to accept an answer, but asking in the answer is effectively noise
* By asking for clarification so the answering user can try again, the user has basically admitted they don't know if they've understood the question.
Should we discourage "Please upvote" and similar? If so, how? I considered editing the answer, but I generally only edit another's work to fix formatting or correct spelling/grammatical errors that make it hard to understand a post. | 2015/04/19 | [
"https://salesforce.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/1962",
"https://salesforce.meta.stackexchange.com",
"https://salesforce.meta.stackexchange.com/users/149/"
] | In [this thread](https://meta.stackexchange.com/questions/194061/is-it-acceptable-to-ask-for-upvote-accept-in-an-answer-when-submitting-it) a couple years ago on meta.stackexchange, the accepted answer stated:
>
> Not in the answer. The answer is reserved for... answering the
> question. Any other content in an answer is just noise, and is subject
> to removal.
>
>
> If you must, put your humorous request for unicorn dollars in a
> comment below the answer. I suspect, however, that such requests may
> actually have the opposite effect of that intended.
>
>
>
I agree with that approach and would encourage the removal of "please upvote" as a totally acceptable edit here. I would endorse that approach for other types of "noise" such as "Hi blah...", signatures, jokes, etc. | Back in the day of vBulletin forum software, *before the rep points system was introduced*, users often answered posts with "Please mark as Resolved".
Perhaps the user intended to say "Please acccept my answer, if this resolves the issue". |
77,112 | Is there any way to coax Gmail into pushing new-mail notifications into my Linux machine, without using a full-on graphical mail client like Thunderbird?
**edit**: Thanks for all the responses, but (unless I'm mistaken) these applications all *poll*, none of them receive notifications *pushed* from GMail.
Also, I'd prefer a console-based program, as this will be running on a headless server. | 2009/11/30 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/77112",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/13142/"
] | [Mail Notification](http://www.nongnu.org/mailnotify/) supports Gmail. It can check multiple accounts simultaneously so you can also use it to notify you of new mail in Evolution, Thunderbird or IMAP and POP accounts. | I know this question is quite old but it came up in my search and I thought I'd update. Evolution now supports IMAP+ or IMAPx which enables IMAP IDLE, and so gmail can push mail to it.
<http://chenthill.wordpress.com/2010/01/11/evolution-with-improved-imap-support-imapx/> |
77,112 | Is there any way to coax Gmail into pushing new-mail notifications into my Linux machine, without using a full-on graphical mail client like Thunderbird?
**edit**: Thanks for all the responses, but (unless I'm mistaken) these applications all *poll*, none of them receive notifications *pushed* from GMail.
Also, I'd prefer a console-based program, as this will be running on a headless server. | 2009/11/30 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/77112",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/13142/"
] | Is this any good?
<http://gmail-notify.sourceforge.net/> | Gmail doesn't push. You can receive an atom feed:
<http://code.google.com/apis/gdata/faq.html#GmailAtomFeed> |
77,112 | Is there any way to coax Gmail into pushing new-mail notifications into my Linux machine, without using a full-on graphical mail client like Thunderbird?
**edit**: Thanks for all the responses, but (unless I'm mistaken) these applications all *poll*, none of them receive notifications *pushed* from GMail.
Also, I'd prefer a console-based program, as this will be running on a headless server. | 2009/11/30 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/77112",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/13142/"
] | Is this any good?
<http://gmail-notify.sourceforge.net/> | If you are on Ubuntu, try GmailWatcher;
ppa:loneowais/ppa |
77,112 | Is there any way to coax Gmail into pushing new-mail notifications into my Linux machine, without using a full-on graphical mail client like Thunderbird?
**edit**: Thanks for all the responses, but (unless I'm mistaken) these applications all *poll*, none of them receive notifications *pushed* from GMail.
Also, I'd prefer a console-based program, as this will be running on a headless server. | 2009/11/30 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/77112",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/13142/"
] | I know this question is quite old but it came up in my search and I thought I'd update. Evolution now supports IMAP+ or IMAPx which enables IMAP IDLE, and so gmail can push mail to it.
<http://chenthill.wordpress.com/2010/01/11/evolution-with-improved-imap-support-imapx/> | If you are on Ubuntu, try GmailWatcher;
ppa:loneowais/ppa |
77,112 | Is there any way to coax Gmail into pushing new-mail notifications into my Linux machine, without using a full-on graphical mail client like Thunderbird?
**edit**: Thanks for all the responses, but (unless I'm mistaken) these applications all *poll*, none of them receive notifications *pushed* from GMail.
Also, I'd prefer a console-based program, as this will be running on a headless server. | 2009/11/30 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/77112",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/13142/"
] | There is a program called checkgmail
(<http://checkgmail.sourceforge.net/>)
that will sit in your gnome taskbar. I know there is a plasma widget for KDE
(<http://www.kde-look.org/content/show.php/gmail-plasmoid?content=101229>)
that does something similar, although from what I've read, it might be a little broken.
The program Docky2 has a pretty good gmail notifier built in if you use a compositing window manager like compiz or metacity.
(<https://launchpad.net/docky>)
I don't know of any terminal based checkers if you don't have an X11 at all. | If you are on Ubuntu, try GmailWatcher;
ppa:loneowais/ppa |
77,112 | Is there any way to coax Gmail into pushing new-mail notifications into my Linux machine, without using a full-on graphical mail client like Thunderbird?
**edit**: Thanks for all the responses, but (unless I'm mistaken) these applications all *poll*, none of them receive notifications *pushed* from GMail.
Also, I'd prefer a console-based program, as this will be running on a headless server. | 2009/11/30 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/77112",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/13142/"
] | There is a program called checkgmail
(<http://checkgmail.sourceforge.net/>)
that will sit in your gnome taskbar. I know there is a plasma widget for KDE
(<http://www.kde-look.org/content/show.php/gmail-plasmoid?content=101229>)
that does something similar, although from what I've read, it might be a little broken.
The program Docky2 has a pretty good gmail notifier built in if you use a compositing window manager like compiz or metacity.
(<https://launchpad.net/docky>)
I don't know of any terminal based checkers if you don't have an X11 at all. | Gmail doesn't push. You can receive an atom feed:
<http://code.google.com/apis/gdata/faq.html#GmailAtomFeed> |
77,112 | Is there any way to coax Gmail into pushing new-mail notifications into my Linux machine, without using a full-on graphical mail client like Thunderbird?
**edit**: Thanks for all the responses, but (unless I'm mistaken) these applications all *poll*, none of them receive notifications *pushed* from GMail.
Also, I'd prefer a console-based program, as this will be running on a headless server. | 2009/11/30 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/77112",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/13142/"
] | [Mail Notification](http://www.nongnu.org/mailnotify/) supports Gmail. It can check multiple accounts simultaneously so you can also use it to notify you of new mail in Evolution, Thunderbird or IMAP and POP accounts. | Is this any good?
<http://gmail-notify.sourceforge.net/> |
77,112 | Is there any way to coax Gmail into pushing new-mail notifications into my Linux machine, without using a full-on graphical mail client like Thunderbird?
**edit**: Thanks for all the responses, but (unless I'm mistaken) these applications all *poll*, none of them receive notifications *pushed* from GMail.
Also, I'd prefer a console-based program, as this will be running on a headless server. | 2009/11/30 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/77112",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/13142/"
] | [Mail Notification](http://www.nongnu.org/mailnotify/) supports Gmail. It can check multiple accounts simultaneously so you can also use it to notify you of new mail in Evolution, Thunderbird or IMAP and POP accounts. | Gmail doesn't push. You can receive an atom feed:
<http://code.google.com/apis/gdata/faq.html#GmailAtomFeed> |
77,112 | Is there any way to coax Gmail into pushing new-mail notifications into my Linux machine, without using a full-on graphical mail client like Thunderbird?
**edit**: Thanks for all the responses, but (unless I'm mistaken) these applications all *poll*, none of them receive notifications *pushed* from GMail.
Also, I'd prefer a console-based program, as this will be running on a headless server. | 2009/11/30 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/77112",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/13142/"
] | I know this question is quite old but it came up in my search and I thought I'd update. Evolution now supports IMAP+ or IMAPx which enables IMAP IDLE, and so gmail can push mail to it.
<http://chenthill.wordpress.com/2010/01/11/evolution-with-improved-imap-support-imapx/> | Gmail doesn't push. You can receive an atom feed:
<http://code.google.com/apis/gdata/faq.html#GmailAtomFeed> |
77,112 | Is there any way to coax Gmail into pushing new-mail notifications into my Linux machine, without using a full-on graphical mail client like Thunderbird?
**edit**: Thanks for all the responses, but (unless I'm mistaken) these applications all *poll*, none of them receive notifications *pushed* from GMail.
Also, I'd prefer a console-based program, as this will be running on a headless server. | 2009/11/30 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/77112",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/13142/"
] | [Mail Notification](http://www.nongnu.org/mailnotify/) supports Gmail. It can check multiple accounts simultaneously so you can also use it to notify you of new mail in Evolution, Thunderbird or IMAP and POP accounts. | If you are on Ubuntu, try GmailWatcher;
ppa:loneowais/ppa |
829,381 | I have a situation where I'm refactoring old code, taking apart an old monster project and splitting it (for various reasons) into smaller sub projects. One project is going to end up containing mostly interfaces while their associated implementations are in another project, and I'm not sure about the best way of setting up the package structure.
Should I go for
>
> *org.company.interfaceproject.util.InterfaceClass* and
>
> *org.company.implementationproject.util.ImplementationClass*
>
>
>
or
>
> *org.company.project.util.InterfaceClass* and
>
> *org.company.project.util.ImplementationClass*
>
>
>
where the first implementation has the advantage of pointing out to which project the files belong, while the second on doesn't mix in the fact that the files are in different projects at all.
I guess there is no right and wrong here, but I'm curious if anybody has any opinions on the matter. | 2009/05/06 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/829381",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/100939/"
] | Both have merits. It ultimately depends on you intentions for the project. If your intent is to eventually create alternate implementations of the interfaces it may make more sense to go with option 1. If this will be the only implementation of the interfaces option 2 would be more reasonable. | If you can you should put the interface clases into a seperate plugin/package.
When you use interfaces you most of the time will have more than one implementation of this interface.
I would prefer option 1 |
12,641 | Most audio signal are described by a curve having two parameters: The amplitude and the frequency (amount of time from positive to negative amplitude value).
What I want to understand is how the sound level and absolute pitch are encoded to these two values. How would amplitude and frequency change if I'd change volume or pitch?
Thank you in advance! | 2011/07/23 | [
"https://physics.stackexchange.com/questions/12641",
"https://physics.stackexchange.com",
"https://physics.stackexchange.com/users/4643/"
] | By definition an orbit occurs when gravity balances with the "centrifugal" force. It is essentially a **free fall** situation.
So the answer is the same reason why you don't get stuck to the ceiling of a free falling elevator. Both the spacecraft and the occupants are moving **in-sync**. | The Shuttle (or the ISS for a better example since the Shuttle isn't flying any more) **isn't** rotating at a great speed...it's rotating about once every 90 minutes, once every orbit. This does have an effect, but a very small one.
Its motion around the Earth doesn't produce any such effect because, as you guessed, it and everything in it are in free fall around Earth and are affected nearly equally by Earth's gravity (the very small differences due to different distances from Earth do produce tidal forces). |
37,601,942 | I was testing my login/sign up feature and for some reason I can't understand Firebase now is blocking all requests from my device.
I've waited one day to try again, but I still have the same problem.
>
> ERROR:
> "We have blocked all requests from this device due to unusual activity. Try again later."
>
>
>
What should I do to have access to my database again? | 2016/06/02 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/37601942",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1097284/"
] | One of the possible solutions:
1. Go to your Firebase console -> Auth -> Users table
2. Locate the user you are testing.
3. Delete this user.
4. Retest. | I have added my phone as a test number in the Sign-in method tab.
Actually this error occurs when your quota limit is exceeded.
Just add your number and testing OTP to get it worked.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/Oa9dt.jpg)
>
> Note: The testing number will not get any message of OTP as we already
> defined static OTP code.
>
>
> |
37,601,942 | I was testing my login/sign up feature and for some reason I can't understand Firebase now is blocking all requests from my device.
I've waited one day to try again, but I still have the same problem.
>
> ERROR:
> "We have blocked all requests from this device due to unusual activity. Try again later."
>
>
>
What should I do to have access to my database again? | 2016/06/02 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/37601942",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1097284/"
] | I contacted firebase support and received this message:
>
> The error "We have blocked all requests from this device due to
> unusual activity. Try again later." is usually thrown when a user is
> making SMS authentication requests to a certain number of times using
> the same phone number or IP address. These repeated requests are
> considered as a suspicious behavior which temporarily blocks the
> device or IP address.
>
>
> Additionally, **there's a limit of 5 SMS per phone number per 4 hours.**
> With this, you may try doing the following to resolve the issue:
>
>
> Reduce the frequency of attempts to avoid triggering the anti-abuse
> system Try using [whitelisted phone numbers for testing your app](https://firebase.google.com/docs/auth/android/phone-auth#test-with-whitelisted-phone-numbers)
> Use multiple testing devices (as the limits are applied per IP or
> device) Wait for an hour for the quota to lift
>
>
>
I tried to increase the quota as per [@lhk answer](https://stackoverflow.com/a/47651582/3998402) but there answer is the
following:
>
> You also mentioned that you have increased the quota to
> 1000 but it didn't work. Do note that this "Manage to sign up quota"
> field is intended for Email/Password and Anonymous sign-ups.
>
>
> | I have added my phone as a test number in the Sign-in method tab.
Actually this error occurs when your quota limit is exceeded.
Just add your number and testing OTP to get it worked.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/Oa9dt.jpg)
>
> Note: The testing number will not get any message of OTP as we already
> defined static OTP code.
>
>
> |
37,601,942 | I was testing my login/sign up feature and for some reason I can't understand Firebase now is blocking all requests from my device.
I've waited one day to try again, but I still have the same problem.
>
> ERROR:
> "We have blocked all requests from this device due to unusual activity. Try again later."
>
>
>
What should I do to have access to my database again? | 2016/06/02 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/37601942",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1097284/"
] | If you are doing tests a better way to go about it is to add the phone number as a test number Authentication > Sign in method > Phone. Then add the test number + the verification code you'll use | Also, setting up Firebase Auth test phone numbers should help.
Per <https://firebase.google.com/docs/auth/ios/phone-auth#test-with-fictional-phone-numbers>:
**Test with fictional phone numbers**
You can set up fictional phone numbers for development via the Firebase console. Testing with fictional phone numbers provides these benefits:
* Test phone number authentication without consuming your usage quota.
* Test phone number authentication without sending an actual SMS message.
Run consecutive tests with the same phone number without getting throttled. This minimizes the risk of rejection during App store review process if the reviewer happens to use the same phone number for testing.
* Test readily in development environments without any additional effort, such as the ability to develop in an iOS simulator or an Android emulator without Google Play Services.
* Write integration tests without being blocked by security checks normally applied on real phone numbers in a production environment.
**Fictional phone numbers must meet these requirements:**
* Make sure you use phone numbers that are indeed fictional, and do not already exist. Firebase Authentication does not allow you to set existing phone numbers used by real users as test numbers.
One option is to use 555 prefixed numbers as US test phone numbers, for example: +1 650-555-3434
* Phone numbers have to be correctly formatted for length and other constraints. They will still go through the same validation as a real user's phone number.
* You can add up to 10 phone numbers for development.
* Use test phone numbers/codes that are hard to guess and change those frequently.
**Create fictional phone numbers and verification codes**
* In the Firebase console, open the Authentication section.
* In the Sign in method tab, enable the Phone provider if you haven't already.
* Open the Phone numbers for testing accordion menu.
* Provide the phone number you want to test, for example: +1 650-555-3434.
* Provide the 6-digit verification code for that specific number, for example: 654321.
* Add the number. If there's a need, you can delete the phone number and its code by hovering over the corresponding row and clicking the trash icon. |
37,601,942 | I was testing my login/sign up feature and for some reason I can't understand Firebase now is blocking all requests from my device.
I've waited one day to try again, but I still have the same problem.
>
> ERROR:
> "We have blocked all requests from this device due to unusual activity. Try again later."
>
>
>
What should I do to have access to my database again? | 2016/06/02 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/37601942",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1097284/"
] | One of the possible solutions:
1. Go to your Firebase console -> Auth -> Users table
2. Locate the user you are testing.
3. Delete this user.
4. Retest. | This is one of many quirks that I am running into. While Firebase seems to be a nice framework/product/service, at the moment it doesn't seem to be totally ready for broad production deployment yet. In this case I only used one particular (fake) user for testing/debugging and only after just a few attempts (probably no more than 10 sign-ins), I ran into this issue. The funny thing is that my tests delete the fake test-user after each run so I couldn't see any user in my auth user table afterwards. The solution for me was to manually add that user via the "ADD USER" button and then delete it. I think they should have (at least as a workaround) a definable user that is for testing/debugging, who is not subject to this restriction, if they really feel they have to have such a (low) limit. |
37,601,942 | I was testing my login/sign up feature and for some reason I can't understand Firebase now is blocking all requests from my device.
I've waited one day to try again, but I still have the same problem.
>
> ERROR:
> "We have blocked all requests from this device due to unusual activity. Try again later."
>
>
>
What should I do to have access to my database again? | 2016/06/02 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/37601942",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1097284/"
] | I contacted firebase support and received this message:
>
> The error "We have blocked all requests from this device due to
> unusual activity. Try again later." is usually thrown when a user is
> making SMS authentication requests to a certain number of times using
> the same phone number or IP address. These repeated requests are
> considered as a suspicious behavior which temporarily blocks the
> device or IP address.
>
>
> Additionally, **there's a limit of 5 SMS per phone number per 4 hours.**
> With this, you may try doing the following to resolve the issue:
>
>
> Reduce the frequency of attempts to avoid triggering the anti-abuse
> system Try using [whitelisted phone numbers for testing your app](https://firebase.google.com/docs/auth/android/phone-auth#test-with-whitelisted-phone-numbers)
> Use multiple testing devices (as the limits are applied per IP or
> device) Wait for an hour for the quota to lift
>
>
>
I tried to increase the quota as per [@lhk answer](https://stackoverflow.com/a/47651582/3998402) but there answer is the
following:
>
> You also mentioned that you have increased the quota to
> 1000 but it didn't work. Do note that this "Manage to sign up quota"
> field is intended for Email/Password and Anonymous sign-ups.
>
>
> | The error "We have blocked all requests from this device due to unusual activity. Try again later." is usually thrown when a user is making SMS authentication requests to a certain number of times using the same phone number or IP address. These repeated requests are considered as a suspicious behavior which temporarily blocks the device or IP address.
Additionally, there's a limit of 5 SMS per phone number per 4 hours. With this, you may try doing the following to resolve the issue:
Reduce the frequency of attempts to avoid triggering the anti-abuse system Try using whitelisted phone numbers for testing your app Use multiple testing devices (as the limits are applied per IP or device) Wait for an hour for the quota to lift |
37,601,942 | I was testing my login/sign up feature and for some reason I can't understand Firebase now is blocking all requests from my device.
I've waited one day to try again, but I still have the same problem.
>
> ERROR:
> "We have blocked all requests from this device due to unusual activity. Try again later."
>
>
>
What should I do to have access to my database again? | 2016/06/02 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/37601942",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1097284/"
] | If you use **Phone Authentication**, Here is what to do:
1. Go to **Firebase Console**
2. **Authentication** ==> Sign-in-method
3. Go to **"Phone"** and pop-up will show
4. Add your phone number at "**Phone Numbers for testing**" along with a *verification code* from your choice.
And it works now :) | If you are doing tests a better way to go about it is to add the phone number as a test number Authentication > Sign in method > Phone. Then add the test number + the verification code you'll use |
37,601,942 | I was testing my login/sign up feature and for some reason I can't understand Firebase now is blocking all requests from my device.
I've waited one day to try again, but I still have the same problem.
>
> ERROR:
> "We have blocked all requests from this device due to unusual activity. Try again later."
>
>
>
What should I do to have access to my database again? | 2016/06/02 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/37601942",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1097284/"
] | This is one of many quirks that I am running into. While Firebase seems to be a nice framework/product/service, at the moment it doesn't seem to be totally ready for broad production deployment yet. In this case I only used one particular (fake) user for testing/debugging and only after just a few attempts (probably no more than 10 sign-ins), I ran into this issue. The funny thing is that my tests delete the fake test-user after each run so I couldn't see any user in my auth user table afterwards. The solution for me was to manually add that user via the "ADD USER" button and then delete it. I think they should have (at least as a workaround) a definable user that is for testing/debugging, who is not subject to this restriction, if they really feel they have to have such a (low) limit. | See my answer at <https://stackoverflow.com/a/39291794/18132>
>
> I went into firebase > Authentication > sign-in method > google and added my client id to the whitelist.
>
>
> |
37,601,942 | I was testing my login/sign up feature and for some reason I can't understand Firebase now is blocking all requests from my device.
I've waited one day to try again, but I still have the same problem.
>
> ERROR:
> "We have blocked all requests from this device due to unusual activity. Try again later."
>
>
>
What should I do to have access to my database again? | 2016/06/02 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/37601942",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1097284/"
] | I've run into the same problem.
By default (for the free plan), firebase caps sign-ins to 100 per hour, per IP-address.
This broke our automated testing. You can change the setting like this:
* open console
* open your project
* go to "authentication"
* go to "sign-in method"
* scroll down to "manage sign-in quota"
That's it. Currently the maximum setting for this quota is 1000 per hour
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/yRnRh.png). | One of the causes can be sending too may verification email to a user's email within a short duration of time. Try adding a duration timer and check if the verification message has been sent within the time duration. |
37,601,942 | I was testing my login/sign up feature and for some reason I can't understand Firebase now is blocking all requests from my device.
I've waited one day to try again, but I still have the same problem.
>
> ERROR:
> "We have blocked all requests from this device due to unusual activity. Try again later."
>
>
>
What should I do to have access to my database again? | 2016/06/02 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/37601942",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1097284/"
] | I managed to get this working straight away by resetting the users password.
Steps are as follows:
1. Go into your admin console, Authentication, Users
2. Locate the user
3. Click on the menu dots in the far right hand column
4. Choose reset password, then click ok
5. Follow the steps in the email when it comes through | If you are doing tests a better way to go about it is to add the phone number as a test number Authentication > Sign in method > Phone. Then add the test number + the verification code you'll use |
37,601,942 | I was testing my login/sign up feature and for some reason I can't understand Firebase now is blocking all requests from my device.
I've waited one day to try again, but I still have the same problem.
>
> ERROR:
> "We have blocked all requests from this device due to unusual activity. Try again later."
>
>
>
What should I do to have access to my database again? | 2016/06/02 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/37601942",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1097284/"
] | One of the possible solutions:
1. Go to your Firebase console -> Auth -> Users table
2. Locate the user you are testing.
3. Delete this user.
4. Retest. | See my answer at <https://stackoverflow.com/a/39291794/18132>
>
> I went into firebase > Authentication > sign-in method > google and added my client id to the whitelist.
>
>
> |
190,031 | I was puzzled to find out the definition of “discursus” incidentally in Readers Plus English Japanese Dictionary, one of the best-selling English Japanese dictionaries, which is published by Kenkyusha, a well-reputed foreign language dictionary publisher in Japan.
It defines ‘discursus’ as;
n. 理路整然たる討議、説明 (logically consistent and well-organized discussion or explanation), while it defines ‘discursive’ as;
a. digressive. One’s sentences and stories passing from one thing to another; ranging over a wide field.
To me, it’s strange that ‘discursus’ and ‘discursive” both of which are considered to be cognates derived from Latin `discurro’ meaning ‘running about’ come up in the reverse meaning: ‘discursus= logically consistent and well-organized” and ‘discursive =digressive, loose thinking.’
So I consulted with other English Dictionaries.
All CED, OED, Merriam-Webster define “discursive’ in the same way as “digressive; Passing from one thing to another; ranging over a wide field," but none of them provides definition of ‘discursus.’
Spellchecker keeps trying to correct “discursus” into “discourse” while I’m typing this question.
However, Wikitionary and Dictionary.com. carry the heading of ‘discursus’ with the same definition as an uncountable noun; (Logic) Argumentation; ratiocination; discursive reasoning.
Google NGram shows that compared with a notable rise of the currency of ‘discursive’ (0.000669585% in 2007), the incidence of ‘discursus’ is negligibly low (0.0000009975%).
Do you think the definition of Readers Plus English Japanese Dictionary of “discursus” is appropriate? Depending on your input, I’d like to request the editor of the dictionary to re-edit the definition of the word. | 2014/08/13 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/190031",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/3119/"
] | [Discursus](http://dictionary.reference.com/browse/discursus), ([Ngram](https://books.google.com/ngrams/graph?content=discursus%2C&year_start=1800&year_end=2000&corpus=15&smoothing=3&share=&direct_url=t1%3B%2Cdiscursus%3B%2Cc0)) is a formal, uncommon term used with the below definitions (actually a Latin term). I think that your Reader Plus Japanese Dictionary gives an appropriate definition of it:
>
> * n. (Logic) Argumentation; ratiocination; discursive reasoning.
> * n. argument.
>
>
>
Discursus:
>
> * In his five-volume **[Discursus](http://encyclopedia.thefreedictionary.com/Discursus+academici+de+iure+publico) academici de iure publico** (1615–1623), Arumaeus pioneered public law as a distinct field of study. Influenced by Dutch humanism, his methodical analysis of the constitutional law of the Holy Roman Empire focused no longer on Roman law but on Imperial sources of public law, such as Imperial basic laws and electoral capitulations.
>
>
>
[Discourse:](http://www.thefreedictionary.com/Discourse) as you note is the more commonly used term which derives form 'discursus':
>
> * n.
> 1. A formal, lengthy discussion of a subject, either written or spoken.
> 2. Archaic The process or power of reasoning.
>
>
>
[Discursive](http://www.thefreedictionary.com/Discursive) (adj.) [Medieval Latin **discursvus**, from Latin discursus], means also 'disgressive' and , I think, it is clearly related to its Latin origin.
>
> * 1. Covering a wide field of subjects; rambling.
> 2. Proceeding to a conclusion through reason rather than intuition.
>
>
>
Source:<http://dictionary.reference.com/browse/discursus>
Source:<http://www.finedictionary.com/Discursus.html> | It's mean Argumentation; ratiocination; discursive reasoning.
[Discursus Wordigg definition](https://wordigg.com/Discursus-definition) |
190,031 | I was puzzled to find out the definition of “discursus” incidentally in Readers Plus English Japanese Dictionary, one of the best-selling English Japanese dictionaries, which is published by Kenkyusha, a well-reputed foreign language dictionary publisher in Japan.
It defines ‘discursus’ as;
n. 理路整然たる討議、説明 (logically consistent and well-organized discussion or explanation), while it defines ‘discursive’ as;
a. digressive. One’s sentences and stories passing from one thing to another; ranging over a wide field.
To me, it’s strange that ‘discursus’ and ‘discursive” both of which are considered to be cognates derived from Latin `discurro’ meaning ‘running about’ come up in the reverse meaning: ‘discursus= logically consistent and well-organized” and ‘discursive =digressive, loose thinking.’
So I consulted with other English Dictionaries.
All CED, OED, Merriam-Webster define “discursive’ in the same way as “digressive; Passing from one thing to another; ranging over a wide field," but none of them provides definition of ‘discursus.’
Spellchecker keeps trying to correct “discursus” into “discourse” while I’m typing this question.
However, Wikitionary and Dictionary.com. carry the heading of ‘discursus’ with the same definition as an uncountable noun; (Logic) Argumentation; ratiocination; discursive reasoning.
Google NGram shows that compared with a notable rise of the currency of ‘discursive’ (0.000669585% in 2007), the incidence of ‘discursus’ is negligibly low (0.0000009975%).
Do you think the definition of Readers Plus English Japanese Dictionary of “discursus” is appropriate? Depending on your input, I’d like to request the editor of the dictionary to re-edit the definition of the word. | 2014/08/13 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/190031",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/3119/"
] | [Discursus](http://dictionary.reference.com/browse/discursus), ([Ngram](https://books.google.com/ngrams/graph?content=discursus%2C&year_start=1800&year_end=2000&corpus=15&smoothing=3&share=&direct_url=t1%3B%2Cdiscursus%3B%2Cc0)) is a formal, uncommon term used with the below definitions (actually a Latin term). I think that your Reader Plus Japanese Dictionary gives an appropriate definition of it:
>
> * n. (Logic) Argumentation; ratiocination; discursive reasoning.
> * n. argument.
>
>
>
Discursus:
>
> * In his five-volume **[Discursus](http://encyclopedia.thefreedictionary.com/Discursus+academici+de+iure+publico) academici de iure publico** (1615–1623), Arumaeus pioneered public law as a distinct field of study. Influenced by Dutch humanism, his methodical analysis of the constitutional law of the Holy Roman Empire focused no longer on Roman law but on Imperial sources of public law, such as Imperial basic laws and electoral capitulations.
>
>
>
[Discourse:](http://www.thefreedictionary.com/Discourse) as you note is the more commonly used term which derives form 'discursus':
>
> * n.
> 1. A formal, lengthy discussion of a subject, either written or spoken.
> 2. Archaic The process or power of reasoning.
>
>
>
[Discursive](http://www.thefreedictionary.com/Discursive) (adj.) [Medieval Latin **discursvus**, from Latin discursus], means also 'disgressive' and , I think, it is clearly related to its Latin origin.
>
> * 1. Covering a wide field of subjects; rambling.
> 2. Proceeding to a conclusion through reason rather than intuition.
>
>
>
Source:<http://dictionary.reference.com/browse/discursus>
Source:<http://www.finedictionary.com/Discursus.html> | Dis-CURS-us. Cursion as in Recursion, or of a course. Of course is a countable, as in a iteration of a process. Off course in the course would qualify as discourse, which indicates paradox. Unsurprisingly, we then find discursus defined as a paradoxiformation. In course merely indicates a passage, or process, from which any prefix or suffix can be added according to speakers preference. Did we play all 18 holes straight through, or did we skip abou; No-one says you absolutely have to start at hole one. Valid reasoning can still take place in a discursus. Amble whichever way you choose.
The question is, why would you ever use discursus instead of discourse. Say, Paul gave a good discourse. Vs Paul gave a good discursus. I think it's a matter of agreement. I'd use discursus as an open form of process, as one would in a conversational manner. In other words, use it at the coffee shop, not at the podium. In reference to Paul's discursus on orange juice...etc.
Also we have cursory, meaning at a glance. Thus, if I'm not careful, my answer will become discursory of discursus. |
13,076,711 | I have a single background for my site fixed to the top center. I have some blank s that, on mouseover, should toggle the display of an absolutely positioned with a different background that should line up against the original background.
The functionality all works fine; however, the with the background doesn't always line up. It varies depending on the size of the screen by 1px.
This is happening in Chrome, but not Dreamweaver. I haven't tested other browsers.
Any ideas? | 2012/10/25 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/13076711",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1470887/"
] | The problem was in fact a subpixel rendering issue. I just changed the element's css from "left: 0px;" to "left: -0.5px;" and everything works fine.
Thanks to Mike Robinson for his comment and link: <http://css3wizardry.com/2010/10/05/subpixel-rendering-2/> | Dreamweaver's Live view is a joke, don't trust it for anything other than a rough preview, particularly single pixel differences. Test in the major browsers and use a CSS reset or normalize.css before applying your own styling if things like single pixel differences are an issue for you.
CSS Reset - Resets all styling to 0 so all browsers will start with the same baseline styles. The downside is you have to style every element you intend to use, things like lists will no longer have default styling and appear as plain text. <http://meyerweb.com/eric/tools/css/reset/>
Normalize.css - This is a little more user friendly than a reset, it gives all the base elements the same styling so that all the major browser defaults are covered and rendered the same. <http://necolas.github.com/normalize.css/> |
337,873 | This notification keeps appearing on my Mac running Mac OS X 10.13.6 (17G65):
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/G5uYI.png)
>
> **Wi-Fi Calling**
>
> You can use your phone number to make and receive calls directly on this Mac using Wi-Fi.
>
>
>
I have:
1. Clicked "Not Now"
2. Clicked "Turn On"
3. On my Mac: Turned off *all* notifications for FaceTime
4. On my Mac: Logged out of FaceTime
5. On my iPhone: Went to "Settings" » "Phone" » "Wi-Fi Calling" and turned ***off*** "Add Wi-Fi Calling for Other Devices"
6. On my iPhone: Went to "Settings" » "Phone" » "Wi-Fi Calling" and turned ***off*** "Calls on Other Devices"
Still, after all of that, **the notification keeps coming back every few minutes**.
Any ideas how to kill this thing?
I tried Google but all of the results were about turning this feature *on*, not *off*. | 2018/09/28 | [
"https://apple.stackexchange.com/questions/337873",
"https://apple.stackexchange.com",
"https://apple.stackexchange.com/users/9226/"
] | The answer appears to have been this:
Turn *on* the feature on my iPhone.
Wait awhile.
Turn *off* the feature on my iPhone.
Reboot the Macs that were showing the notifications.
One of those things made it go away. | I recently upgraded to the iPhone 12mini (from iPhone 6s) and was receiving this issue. After some poking around, here's how I was able to solve it:
* Sign out of iMessage / FaceTime on your old iPhone.
+ *Or more drastic, erase all content and settings from your old iPhone.*
* Sign out then sign back in to iMessage and FaceTime on your new iPhone.
* Authenticate / allow wifi calling from new iPhone. |
337,873 | This notification keeps appearing on my Mac running Mac OS X 10.13.6 (17G65):
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/G5uYI.png)
>
> **Wi-Fi Calling**
>
> You can use your phone number to make and receive calls directly on this Mac using Wi-Fi.
>
>
>
I have:
1. Clicked "Not Now"
2. Clicked "Turn On"
3. On my Mac: Turned off *all* notifications for FaceTime
4. On my Mac: Logged out of FaceTime
5. On my iPhone: Went to "Settings" » "Phone" » "Wi-Fi Calling" and turned ***off*** "Add Wi-Fi Calling for Other Devices"
6. On my iPhone: Went to "Settings" » "Phone" » "Wi-Fi Calling" and turned ***off*** "Calls on Other Devices"
Still, after all of that, **the notification keeps coming back every few minutes**.
Any ideas how to kill this thing?
I tried Google but all of the results were about turning this feature *on*, not *off*. | 2018/09/28 | [
"https://apple.stackexchange.com/questions/337873",
"https://apple.stackexchange.com",
"https://apple.stackexchange.com/users/9226/"
] | My Mac kept nagging after configuring a new iPhone. Despite turning WiFi calling on on the Mac, and rebooting, the nags kept re-appearing.
What finally caused a stop was updating my E911 emergency contact on the phone. No more Mac nags! | I recently upgraded to the iPhone 12mini (from iPhone 6s) and was receiving this issue. After some poking around, here's how I was able to solve it:
* Sign out of iMessage / FaceTime on your old iPhone.
+ *Or more drastic, erase all content and settings from your old iPhone.*
* Sign out then sign back in to iMessage and FaceTime on your new iPhone.
* Authenticate / allow wifi calling from new iPhone. |
156,932 | Is there a word that expresses the idea that someone has been convicted before trial, either in the media or by public opinion? | 2014/03/12 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/156932",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/15413/"
] | I feel like there is no word for this, because it doesn't really exist.
You might have heard the colloquial phrase "tried in the court of public opinion" or "convicted by the court of public opinion" but that does not literally occur. When people say that, it is merely a colourful way of saying "everyone thinks he's guilty and isn't afraid to say so".
The only time people are literally convicted (punished) like this is called "mob justice" or vigilantism. | The first thing that came to my mind is, that person has been [prejudiced against](http://idioms.thefreedictionary.com/prejudice+against).
Although the word [prejudice](http://www.etymonline.com/index.php?term=prejudice) is nowadays used in other contexts, not together with awaiting trial, it clearly stems from the situation you are asking about. |
156,932 | Is there a word that expresses the idea that someone has been convicted before trial, either in the media or by public opinion? | 2014/03/12 | [
"https://english.stackexchange.com/questions/156932",
"https://english.stackexchange.com",
"https://english.stackexchange.com/users/15413/"
] | I feel like there is no word for this, because it doesn't really exist.
You might have heard the colloquial phrase "tried in the court of public opinion" or "convicted by the court of public opinion" but that does not literally occur. When people say that, it is merely a colourful way of saying "everyone thinks he's guilty and isn't afraid to say so".
The only time people are literally convicted (punished) like this is called "mob justice" or vigilantism. | *Prejudge*, perhaps.
It doesn't necessarily imply guilt, though it might in the right context. |
740,654 | Torsion is usually described as a rotation of the tangent vector along the geodesic, like the image below from Wikipedia:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/xiHhk.png)
Does this mean that if you add torsion, and you have an elevator falling through that geodesic, then the elevator will rotate together with the system of coordinates? That is, that the observer's rods and clocks are all rotating together along the geodesic? (if this is not the case, then what would be an accurate description of what the above figure means?)
If this were true, would not that object's motion look different in the case in which I experience torsion versus in a case in which I don't? If I am rotating, wouldn't I see an object moving on a straight geodesic far from me as revolving around me (specially the anything on the cosmic horizon)? So, wouldn't torsion affect the motion of non-local objects? | 2022/12/11 | [
"https://physics.stackexchange.com/questions/740654",
"https://physics.stackexchange.com",
"https://physics.stackexchange.com/users/319355/"
] | The answer to your first question is yes. The math for the special case of non-zero torsion on a manifold with a flat Cartesian metric causing rotation in a left-handed manner can be found at the bottom of p5 of the 18p paper by Steuard Jensen, titled General Relativity with Torsion: Extending Wald's Chapter on Curvature. The paper also references "Einstein-Cartan theory" a 1922 extension to GR showing that differential geometry is equally well-defined with torsion as without. Jensen's paper is a terrific go-to for all things torsion. Your other questions are tougher since the geodesic with torsion has dependency on the character of the metric tensor as well as the torsion tensor. | Your first statement is true in special cases but not in the general case (for example, a non-symmetric metric). Your second statement about basis vectors being independent of a connection is dubious since the metric is, by definition, the pair-wise dot products of the basis vectors. Remember that in order to even have a geodesic, we need a manifold with structure such as topology, charts, atlas and importantly, a connection (a way to take a covariant derivative). You cannot say the geodesics are different you can only say the geodesics are what they are. Think of torsion as rotating the entire tangent space. Full disclosure - I am very new at this subject which seems bottomless. Something else that might help you would be to look into the Lie algebra pertaining to torsion. |
34,029,751 | I am new to mvc5,
i want to use the value of text box from login view in different action in the same controller,
all the example i seen take the value to one action using BeginForm()
is there is any way to do that?
the login view:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/aIbGe.png)
and i want to perform this action:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/ZBQeY.png)
I am try to use TempData but it return empty page
[1](https://i.stack.imgur.com/aIbGe.png): | 2015/12/01 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/34029751",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/5627459/"
] | The page you link to is only about having a specific page for the auto upload settings within an app. It doesn't do the automatic uploading for you.
That list was only in WP8 and is not in Windows10 so you can't be added to a list that doesn't exist.
To do the uploading you should look at the Background Transfer API. Specifically the [BackgroundUploader class](https://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/windows/apps/windows.networking.backgroundtransfer.backgrounduploader.aspx).
There's even a [sample](https://code.msdn.microsoft.com/windowsapps/Background-Transfer-Sample-d7833f61). (sample is for Win8.1 but should work with minimal modification.)
**update - based on coments**
I don't know how Dropbox do it (they may have special privileges not available to every developer) but you could create the functionality to upload newly taken photos by having a background task based on a timed event that checks for new files in the [camera roll](https://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/windows/apps/windows.storage.knownfolders.cameraroll.aspx) and uploads any it finds. | this feature is only supported by Silverlight app model, not Universal Windows Platform model.
You might want to use the OneDrive SDK to upload your photo/video to the Cloud <https://github.com/onedrive/onedrive-sdk-csharp> |
40,756 | Dumbledore, over and over, is demonstrated to be a man who can see through people with all the power of an x-ray machine. Nothing escapes him, there is no fooling him. He *knows*.
So how the heck did Lockhart get in?? | 2013/09/18 | [
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/questions/40756",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/users/5339/"
] | Dumbledore is not absolutely competent.
---------------------------------------
Although he's definitely a man with wisdom and experience, it's easy to get an impression of Dumbledore far beyond his actual abilities. This is partly because we spend the majority of the novels hearing about him from a child who hero-worships him, supported by the likes of Hagrid and McGonagall (the former another hero-worshipper, the latter a loyal member of his power base who speaks to reassure a child). We also get the impression that the wider wizarding world reveres him or fears him or both.
In the politically loaded circles he moves in, Dumbledore's reputation is one of his greatest assets and we see him working hard to maintain an enigmatic aloofness that encourages such readings; even his first words ("Nitwit! Blubber! Oddment! Tweak!") are calculated to make his students unsure exactly how competent he might be. A man who is comfortable seeming so foolish while holding so much power must be even more powerful than we know--right?
Regardless of how much the rest of the Wizarding World believes these things about Dumbledore, Harry believes that his surrogate father figure is absolutely competent. His companions --schoolchildren and patronizing teachers-- enforce this belief. Because Harry's narrative is our primary window into the Wizarding World, it is easy to trust Harry's word on these things.
The events of the novels, however, repeatedly show that this belief is woefully inaccurate. Dumbledore's mis-handling of Harry in the later novels, the Mad-Eye Barty Fiasco, *Quirrell*... however experienced, powerful, and wise, the Headmaster's got a record of dropping the ball. This extends far into the past, from not understanding the ambitions of his own boyhood companion, and later the young Riddle, and it continues right up to the disappointment of the locket he sacrificed so much to obtain.
A dearth of applicants
----------------------
Voldemort jinxed the DADA position in the 1950s. Since then no one has been able to hold the position for more than a year. By the early '90s Dumbledore must have had slim pickings to choose from --just look at who he would choose in later years!
Given that many of the DADA professors probably met unpleasant or gruesome ends, the Headmaster may have also been trying not to eradicate the best and brightest of the Wizarding World's hopes to stand up against the Dark Lord when he returned. I can't really see Lockhart as Auror or Order material, can you? Maybe Dumbledore couldn't either.
And Lockhart is harmless.
-------------------------
Building on the previous two points: Of all Dumbledore's goofs, Lockhart is probably the least dangerous. Lockhart knew enough about Defense Against the Dark Arts to at least **fool** people into thinking he was good at it: since he actually interviewed and appropriate the stories of *real* DADA experts, he was at least passingly familiar with the concepts involved.
After the Pixie Incident, Lockhart demonstrated self-awareness and the ability to learn by only having the students study his own books for the rest of the term. Although egotistical and deathly boring, it did expose them to the (admittedly adulterated) stories of genuine DADA exploits. And Lockhart didn't endanger the students half so regularly as Hagrid's classes, or Quidditch.
Plans within Plans
------------------
I also suspect pressure from the regents and/or the Ministry, although this is purely speculative. Given the power struggle between Fudge and Dumbledore which comes to a head with the execution-by-Dementor at the end of Book Four, and the connections between the Ministry and the Regents (visible via Lucius Malfoy), I think Fudge and Malfoy conspired to saddle Dumbledore with an incompetent. It was easily enough disguised as a publicity stunt to boost the school's reputation following the previous years' troubles (a rampaging troll alone would probably make many parents re-consider their children's educational opportunities).
So if you prefer to think of Dumbledore as supremely competent, then --considering Lockhart's apparently harmless nature-- Dumbledore might have considered his employment a reasonable sacrifice to avoid prematurely butting heads with the other power players in Wizarding politics. | From the books, I recall that people were starting to think that the DADA job was cursed and Dumbledore seemed to be having trouble filling the position.
He even went as far as hiring Prof. Lupin which was a somewhat dangerous and controversial choice.
In my opinion, Lupin was a more desperate choice than a charlatan like Lockhart.
I'm speculating but again, I think this means that the position was hard to fill. Such as, nobody wanted it so he gave it to Lockhart and Lupin.
Dumbledore was also very perceptive, he must have known something was amiss with Lockhart, but Dumbledore believes in people and decided to give him a chance (as he gave Lupin a chance despite the danger)
And perhaps Dumbledore figured that over time Lockhart would grow into the job (on the job learning.) |
40,756 | Dumbledore, over and over, is demonstrated to be a man who can see through people with all the power of an x-ray machine. Nothing escapes him, there is no fooling him. He *knows*.
So how the heck did Lockhart get in?? | 2013/09/18 | [
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/questions/40756",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/users/5339/"
] | Dumbledore is not absolutely competent.
---------------------------------------
Although he's definitely a man with wisdom and experience, it's easy to get an impression of Dumbledore far beyond his actual abilities. This is partly because we spend the majority of the novels hearing about him from a child who hero-worships him, supported by the likes of Hagrid and McGonagall (the former another hero-worshipper, the latter a loyal member of his power base who speaks to reassure a child). We also get the impression that the wider wizarding world reveres him or fears him or both.
In the politically loaded circles he moves in, Dumbledore's reputation is one of his greatest assets and we see him working hard to maintain an enigmatic aloofness that encourages such readings; even his first words ("Nitwit! Blubber! Oddment! Tweak!") are calculated to make his students unsure exactly how competent he might be. A man who is comfortable seeming so foolish while holding so much power must be even more powerful than we know--right?
Regardless of how much the rest of the Wizarding World believes these things about Dumbledore, Harry believes that his surrogate father figure is absolutely competent. His companions --schoolchildren and patronizing teachers-- enforce this belief. Because Harry's narrative is our primary window into the Wizarding World, it is easy to trust Harry's word on these things.
The events of the novels, however, repeatedly show that this belief is woefully inaccurate. Dumbledore's mis-handling of Harry in the later novels, the Mad-Eye Barty Fiasco, *Quirrell*... however experienced, powerful, and wise, the Headmaster's got a record of dropping the ball. This extends far into the past, from not understanding the ambitions of his own boyhood companion, and later the young Riddle, and it continues right up to the disappointment of the locket he sacrificed so much to obtain.
A dearth of applicants
----------------------
Voldemort jinxed the DADA position in the 1950s. Since then no one has been able to hold the position for more than a year. By the early '90s Dumbledore must have had slim pickings to choose from --just look at who he would choose in later years!
Given that many of the DADA professors probably met unpleasant or gruesome ends, the Headmaster may have also been trying not to eradicate the best and brightest of the Wizarding World's hopes to stand up against the Dark Lord when he returned. I can't really see Lockhart as Auror or Order material, can you? Maybe Dumbledore couldn't either.
And Lockhart is harmless.
-------------------------
Building on the previous two points: Of all Dumbledore's goofs, Lockhart is probably the least dangerous. Lockhart knew enough about Defense Against the Dark Arts to at least **fool** people into thinking he was good at it: since he actually interviewed and appropriate the stories of *real* DADA experts, he was at least passingly familiar with the concepts involved.
After the Pixie Incident, Lockhart demonstrated self-awareness and the ability to learn by only having the students study his own books for the rest of the term. Although egotistical and deathly boring, it did expose them to the (admittedly adulterated) stories of genuine DADA exploits. And Lockhart didn't endanger the students half so regularly as Hagrid's classes, or Quidditch.
Plans within Plans
------------------
I also suspect pressure from the regents and/or the Ministry, although this is purely speculative. Given the power struggle between Fudge and Dumbledore which comes to a head with the execution-by-Dementor at the end of Book Four, and the connections between the Ministry and the Regents (visible via Lucius Malfoy), I think Fudge and Malfoy conspired to saddle Dumbledore with an incompetent. It was easily enough disguised as a publicity stunt to boost the school's reputation following the previous years' troubles (a rampaging troll alone would probably make many parents re-consider their children's educational opportunities).
So if you prefer to think of Dumbledore as supremely competent, then --considering Lockhart's apparently harmless nature-- Dumbledore might have considered his employment a reasonable sacrifice to avoid prematurely butting heads with the other power players in Wizarding politics. | [Pottermore](https://www.pottermore.com/writing-by-jk-rowling/gilderoy-lockhart) has the following to say about Lockhart's appointment:
>
> Albus Dumbledore, the Headmaster during Lockhart's time, happened to have known two of the wizards whose memories Lockhart erased, and had a shrewd and accurate idea what was happening. He correctly believed that dragging Lockhart into a normal, school atmosphere would reveal his fradulence and, a vacancy in Defence Against the Dark Arts having opened up in June 1992, tracked down the author and, .... convinced Lockhart to return to Hogwarts (something Lockhart had not been too keen to do, as many of his teachers were still there and might have remembered his foolishness and ineptitude).
>
>
>
Even the book canon, namely the *Chamber of Secrets* implicitly supports the view that Dumbledore always had known or guessed the full truth about Lockhart. After Harry's explanation of the ordeal in the *Chamber*, he asks:
>
> “But one of us seems to be keeping mightily quiet about his part in this dangerous adventure,” Dumbledore added. “Why so modest, Gilderoy?”
>
>
>
And on hearing Ron's answer that
>
> “He tried to do a Memory Charm and the wand backfired,”
>
>
>
he does the following:
>
> “Dear me,” said Dumbledore, shaking his head, his long silver
> mustache quivering. “Impaled upon your own sword, Gilderoy!”
>
>
>
It cannot be more clear that Dumbledore really intended the pun on the last words, referring to Lockhart's masterpiece Memory Charms on others, and that he took the predicament as fitting enough.
I suppose it can be reasonably assumed that Harry recognised this full knowledge of Dumbledore as well, for he never explains a word to him. He may have thought to spare Lockhart's image from the public, but Dumbledore is not a man he would have done that with, given Harry's unusual grasp of strategic issues in every situation. In *Order of the Phoenix*, he lets Dumbledore know that "he *was* the snake", for example, something he found hard to contemplate himself, even in front of Sirius. There is nothing *here* that would have prevented him from that. Ron's wand "being in a condition to backfire" is not something which Ron can be implicated for, any more, and even much less, than the opening of the Chamber is for Ginny. |
40,756 | Dumbledore, over and over, is demonstrated to be a man who can see through people with all the power of an x-ray machine. Nothing escapes him, there is no fooling him. He *knows*.
So how the heck did Lockhart get in?? | 2013/09/18 | [
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/questions/40756",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/users/5339/"
] | Dumbledore is not absolutely competent.
---------------------------------------
Although he's definitely a man with wisdom and experience, it's easy to get an impression of Dumbledore far beyond his actual abilities. This is partly because we spend the majority of the novels hearing about him from a child who hero-worships him, supported by the likes of Hagrid and McGonagall (the former another hero-worshipper, the latter a loyal member of his power base who speaks to reassure a child). We also get the impression that the wider wizarding world reveres him or fears him or both.
In the politically loaded circles he moves in, Dumbledore's reputation is one of his greatest assets and we see him working hard to maintain an enigmatic aloofness that encourages such readings; even his first words ("Nitwit! Blubber! Oddment! Tweak!") are calculated to make his students unsure exactly how competent he might be. A man who is comfortable seeming so foolish while holding so much power must be even more powerful than we know--right?
Regardless of how much the rest of the Wizarding World believes these things about Dumbledore, Harry believes that his surrogate father figure is absolutely competent. His companions --schoolchildren and patronizing teachers-- enforce this belief. Because Harry's narrative is our primary window into the Wizarding World, it is easy to trust Harry's word on these things.
The events of the novels, however, repeatedly show that this belief is woefully inaccurate. Dumbledore's mis-handling of Harry in the later novels, the Mad-Eye Barty Fiasco, *Quirrell*... however experienced, powerful, and wise, the Headmaster's got a record of dropping the ball. This extends far into the past, from not understanding the ambitions of his own boyhood companion, and later the young Riddle, and it continues right up to the disappointment of the locket he sacrificed so much to obtain.
A dearth of applicants
----------------------
Voldemort jinxed the DADA position in the 1950s. Since then no one has been able to hold the position for more than a year. By the early '90s Dumbledore must have had slim pickings to choose from --just look at who he would choose in later years!
Given that many of the DADA professors probably met unpleasant or gruesome ends, the Headmaster may have also been trying not to eradicate the best and brightest of the Wizarding World's hopes to stand up against the Dark Lord when he returned. I can't really see Lockhart as Auror or Order material, can you? Maybe Dumbledore couldn't either.
And Lockhart is harmless.
-------------------------
Building on the previous two points: Of all Dumbledore's goofs, Lockhart is probably the least dangerous. Lockhart knew enough about Defense Against the Dark Arts to at least **fool** people into thinking he was good at it: since he actually interviewed and appropriate the stories of *real* DADA experts, he was at least passingly familiar with the concepts involved.
After the Pixie Incident, Lockhart demonstrated self-awareness and the ability to learn by only having the students study his own books for the rest of the term. Although egotistical and deathly boring, it did expose them to the (admittedly adulterated) stories of genuine DADA exploits. And Lockhart didn't endanger the students half so regularly as Hagrid's classes, or Quidditch.
Plans within Plans
------------------
I also suspect pressure from the regents and/or the Ministry, although this is purely speculative. Given the power struggle between Fudge and Dumbledore which comes to a head with the execution-by-Dementor at the end of Book Four, and the connections between the Ministry and the Regents (visible via Lucius Malfoy), I think Fudge and Malfoy conspired to saddle Dumbledore with an incompetent. It was easily enough disguised as a publicity stunt to boost the school's reputation following the previous years' troubles (a rampaging troll alone would probably make many parents re-consider their children's educational opportunities).
So if you prefer to think of Dumbledore as supremely competent, then --considering Lockhart's apparently harmless nature-- Dumbledore might have considered his employment a reasonable sacrifice to avoid prematurely butting heads with the other power players in Wizarding politics. | So I personally think that every defence against the dark arts teacher Dumbledore hires serves as a lesson in why you shouldn’t think people are exactly what they appear to be or some similar lesson in why you shouldn’t always trust and obey figures of authority/ why you should despite your misgivings toward them.
Quirrel literally hid his connection to Voldemort in plain sight, posing as a nervous and harmless individual with literal evil being covered up at all times. He serves as a really on the nose symbol of why you should not underestimate someone who appears overtly fearful and benign, for it could easily be a trick, which in this case it is.
Lockhart is something of a polar opposite to Quirrel, an over confident man posing as a great hero who secretly is a deceitful coward. Between Quirrel and Lockhart Dumbledore has demonstrated very well why you should never take a persons overt persona for granted, that there can always be something very untrustworthy about someone who appears to go out of their way to be trusted, whether it is posing as a hero or pretending to be a coward.
Lupin then represents the polar opposite lesson: don’t write someone off as incapable of being a great role model or not having undergone great suffering in their lives which you could learn from. Lupin of course is also hiding the fact that he is a werewolf, though in this case it is not because he has malign intentions, but rather the opposite. In many ways Lupin’s big reveal is sort of a trick played on the reader as we’d all expected him to have some dark secret the same way the previous two had. Of course at first we believe this to be true when it turns out that Sirius Black is his best friend, but of course that turns out to be a false flag as well. Lupin serves as a lesson to not jump to conclusions based on someone’s odd and sometimes elusive behaviour, a lot of the time they’re not hiding anything that is malicious and they truly mean the best.
I think the most complex lesson is Mad Eye Moody. I think he is the most obvious ‘don’t judge a book by its cover’ lesson of all. But it’s also much more complicated than that. Mad eye represents a kind of irreverent will to lead impressionable people to be irresponsible in my opinion, Barty Crouch pretends to be the well known auror Moody who’s a veteran of fighting dark forces for the greater good. He uses this guise to influence the young and easily influenced students to take the line that divides the dark and the light less seriously with lessons that teach forbidden curses and appearing to mentor Harry so as to lead him astray and eventually allow Harry to be used in order to bring back Voldemort fully. In many ways Moody/Crouch serves as a lesson to not be so easily led astray by someone who would influence you to break rules that are there for your own good. Which before now in the Harry Potter books was certainly not in keeping with the theme of ‘break the rules and save the day!’ Which was the running theme in the first three books and essentially the entire series.
Umbridge then serves as an example quite as to why there are rules we should break. Whereas before the rules were broken by Harry Ron and Hermione because they had found out about conspiracies to threaten their lives and their school, Umbridge serves as a blatant example of how and why rules that need to be broken are made, and just how much rules can be made without the interest of the greater good, but rather the interest of total control. Whereas before now the DADA teachers had been lessons in what kind of person you shouldn’t judge by the cover or immediately accept at face value, Umbridge serves as a lesson in why authority altogether isn’t always intent on the greater good. In many ways every book’s lesson is on how and why you should always think for yourself to some extent, but the order of the Phoenix really drives this lesson home with Umbridge, because in theory she is meant to represent a benevolent authority where she actually isn’t even evil because she serves a dark lord in secret, she actually just serves her own twisted sense of self righteousness. Her ethos is even more self centred and petty than Voldemort’s in many ways, and even Rowling herself said that she reckons Umbridge is more evil than Voldemort.
Snape: do I even need to explain? The ultimate example of why you really cannot judge a book by its cover, the lesson which he serves to demonstrate is covered in depth in the books and I shall not bother to give my take on it when enough material already exists for everyone to make an informed interpretation on him themselves.
Going back to the subject of Gilderoy Lockhart, he is but one part of a series of examples which I believe Dumbledore chooses both as somewhat adequate DADA teachers, but also lessons in themselves and Lockhart more specifically serves as a strong example of what not to be, obsessed with fame and fortune instead of valuing the very thing he pretends to represent, Lockhart is a lesson to not be vain and deceitful. |
40,756 | Dumbledore, over and over, is demonstrated to be a man who can see through people with all the power of an x-ray machine. Nothing escapes him, there is no fooling him. He *knows*.
So how the heck did Lockhart get in?? | 2013/09/18 | [
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/questions/40756",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/users/5339/"
] | [Pottermore](https://www.pottermore.com/writing-by-jk-rowling/gilderoy-lockhart) has the following to say about Lockhart's appointment:
>
> Albus Dumbledore, the Headmaster during Lockhart's time, happened to have known two of the wizards whose memories Lockhart erased, and had a shrewd and accurate idea what was happening. He correctly believed that dragging Lockhart into a normal, school atmosphere would reveal his fradulence and, a vacancy in Defence Against the Dark Arts having opened up in June 1992, tracked down the author and, .... convinced Lockhart to return to Hogwarts (something Lockhart had not been too keen to do, as many of his teachers were still there and might have remembered his foolishness and ineptitude).
>
>
>
Even the book canon, namely the *Chamber of Secrets* implicitly supports the view that Dumbledore always had known or guessed the full truth about Lockhart. After Harry's explanation of the ordeal in the *Chamber*, he asks:
>
> “But one of us seems to be keeping mightily quiet about his part in this dangerous adventure,” Dumbledore added. “Why so modest, Gilderoy?”
>
>
>
And on hearing Ron's answer that
>
> “He tried to do a Memory Charm and the wand backfired,”
>
>
>
he does the following:
>
> “Dear me,” said Dumbledore, shaking his head, his long silver
> mustache quivering. “Impaled upon your own sword, Gilderoy!”
>
>
>
It cannot be more clear that Dumbledore really intended the pun on the last words, referring to Lockhart's masterpiece Memory Charms on others, and that he took the predicament as fitting enough.
I suppose it can be reasonably assumed that Harry recognised this full knowledge of Dumbledore as well, for he never explains a word to him. He may have thought to spare Lockhart's image from the public, but Dumbledore is not a man he would have done that with, given Harry's unusual grasp of strategic issues in every situation. In *Order of the Phoenix*, he lets Dumbledore know that "he *was* the snake", for example, something he found hard to contemplate himself, even in front of Sirius. There is nothing *here* that would have prevented him from that. Ron's wand "being in a condition to backfire" is not something which Ron can be implicated for, any more, and even much less, than the opening of the Chamber is for Ginny. | From the books, I recall that people were starting to think that the DADA job was cursed and Dumbledore seemed to be having trouble filling the position.
He even went as far as hiring Prof. Lupin which was a somewhat dangerous and controversial choice.
In my opinion, Lupin was a more desperate choice than a charlatan like Lockhart.
I'm speculating but again, I think this means that the position was hard to fill. Such as, nobody wanted it so he gave it to Lockhart and Lupin.
Dumbledore was also very perceptive, he must have known something was amiss with Lockhart, but Dumbledore believes in people and decided to give him a chance (as he gave Lupin a chance despite the danger)
And perhaps Dumbledore figured that over time Lockhart would grow into the job (on the job learning.) |
40,756 | Dumbledore, over and over, is demonstrated to be a man who can see through people with all the power of an x-ray machine. Nothing escapes him, there is no fooling him. He *knows*.
So how the heck did Lockhart get in?? | 2013/09/18 | [
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/questions/40756",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/users/5339/"
] | From the books, I recall that people were starting to think that the DADA job was cursed and Dumbledore seemed to be having trouble filling the position.
He even went as far as hiring Prof. Lupin which was a somewhat dangerous and controversial choice.
In my opinion, Lupin was a more desperate choice than a charlatan like Lockhart.
I'm speculating but again, I think this means that the position was hard to fill. Such as, nobody wanted it so he gave it to Lockhart and Lupin.
Dumbledore was also very perceptive, he must have known something was amiss with Lockhart, but Dumbledore believes in people and decided to give him a chance (as he gave Lupin a chance despite the danger)
And perhaps Dumbledore figured that over time Lockhart would grow into the job (on the job learning.) | So I personally think that every defence against the dark arts teacher Dumbledore hires serves as a lesson in why you shouldn’t think people are exactly what they appear to be or some similar lesson in why you shouldn’t always trust and obey figures of authority/ why you should despite your misgivings toward them.
Quirrel literally hid his connection to Voldemort in plain sight, posing as a nervous and harmless individual with literal evil being covered up at all times. He serves as a really on the nose symbol of why you should not underestimate someone who appears overtly fearful and benign, for it could easily be a trick, which in this case it is.
Lockhart is something of a polar opposite to Quirrel, an over confident man posing as a great hero who secretly is a deceitful coward. Between Quirrel and Lockhart Dumbledore has demonstrated very well why you should never take a persons overt persona for granted, that there can always be something very untrustworthy about someone who appears to go out of their way to be trusted, whether it is posing as a hero or pretending to be a coward.
Lupin then represents the polar opposite lesson: don’t write someone off as incapable of being a great role model or not having undergone great suffering in their lives which you could learn from. Lupin of course is also hiding the fact that he is a werewolf, though in this case it is not because he has malign intentions, but rather the opposite. In many ways Lupin’s big reveal is sort of a trick played on the reader as we’d all expected him to have some dark secret the same way the previous two had. Of course at first we believe this to be true when it turns out that Sirius Black is his best friend, but of course that turns out to be a false flag as well. Lupin serves as a lesson to not jump to conclusions based on someone’s odd and sometimes elusive behaviour, a lot of the time they’re not hiding anything that is malicious and they truly mean the best.
I think the most complex lesson is Mad Eye Moody. I think he is the most obvious ‘don’t judge a book by its cover’ lesson of all. But it’s also much more complicated than that. Mad eye represents a kind of irreverent will to lead impressionable people to be irresponsible in my opinion, Barty Crouch pretends to be the well known auror Moody who’s a veteran of fighting dark forces for the greater good. He uses this guise to influence the young and easily influenced students to take the line that divides the dark and the light less seriously with lessons that teach forbidden curses and appearing to mentor Harry so as to lead him astray and eventually allow Harry to be used in order to bring back Voldemort fully. In many ways Moody/Crouch serves as a lesson to not be so easily led astray by someone who would influence you to break rules that are there for your own good. Which before now in the Harry Potter books was certainly not in keeping with the theme of ‘break the rules and save the day!’ Which was the running theme in the first three books and essentially the entire series.
Umbridge then serves as an example quite as to why there are rules we should break. Whereas before the rules were broken by Harry Ron and Hermione because they had found out about conspiracies to threaten their lives and their school, Umbridge serves as a blatant example of how and why rules that need to be broken are made, and just how much rules can be made without the interest of the greater good, but rather the interest of total control. Whereas before now the DADA teachers had been lessons in what kind of person you shouldn’t judge by the cover or immediately accept at face value, Umbridge serves as a lesson in why authority altogether isn’t always intent on the greater good. In many ways every book’s lesson is on how and why you should always think for yourself to some extent, but the order of the Phoenix really drives this lesson home with Umbridge, because in theory she is meant to represent a benevolent authority where she actually isn’t even evil because she serves a dark lord in secret, she actually just serves her own twisted sense of self righteousness. Her ethos is even more self centred and petty than Voldemort’s in many ways, and even Rowling herself said that she reckons Umbridge is more evil than Voldemort.
Snape: do I even need to explain? The ultimate example of why you really cannot judge a book by its cover, the lesson which he serves to demonstrate is covered in depth in the books and I shall not bother to give my take on it when enough material already exists for everyone to make an informed interpretation on him themselves.
Going back to the subject of Gilderoy Lockhart, he is but one part of a series of examples which I believe Dumbledore chooses both as somewhat adequate DADA teachers, but also lessons in themselves and Lockhart more specifically serves as a strong example of what not to be, obsessed with fame and fortune instead of valuing the very thing he pretends to represent, Lockhart is a lesson to not be vain and deceitful. |
40,756 | Dumbledore, over and over, is demonstrated to be a man who can see through people with all the power of an x-ray machine. Nothing escapes him, there is no fooling him. He *knows*.
So how the heck did Lockhart get in?? | 2013/09/18 | [
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/questions/40756",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com",
"https://scifi.stackexchange.com/users/5339/"
] | [Pottermore](https://www.pottermore.com/writing-by-jk-rowling/gilderoy-lockhart) has the following to say about Lockhart's appointment:
>
> Albus Dumbledore, the Headmaster during Lockhart's time, happened to have known two of the wizards whose memories Lockhart erased, and had a shrewd and accurate idea what was happening. He correctly believed that dragging Lockhart into a normal, school atmosphere would reveal his fradulence and, a vacancy in Defence Against the Dark Arts having opened up in June 1992, tracked down the author and, .... convinced Lockhart to return to Hogwarts (something Lockhart had not been too keen to do, as many of his teachers were still there and might have remembered his foolishness and ineptitude).
>
>
>
Even the book canon, namely the *Chamber of Secrets* implicitly supports the view that Dumbledore always had known or guessed the full truth about Lockhart. After Harry's explanation of the ordeal in the *Chamber*, he asks:
>
> “But one of us seems to be keeping mightily quiet about his part in this dangerous adventure,” Dumbledore added. “Why so modest, Gilderoy?”
>
>
>
And on hearing Ron's answer that
>
> “He tried to do a Memory Charm and the wand backfired,”
>
>
>
he does the following:
>
> “Dear me,” said Dumbledore, shaking his head, his long silver
> mustache quivering. “Impaled upon your own sword, Gilderoy!”
>
>
>
It cannot be more clear that Dumbledore really intended the pun on the last words, referring to Lockhart's masterpiece Memory Charms on others, and that he took the predicament as fitting enough.
I suppose it can be reasonably assumed that Harry recognised this full knowledge of Dumbledore as well, for he never explains a word to him. He may have thought to spare Lockhart's image from the public, but Dumbledore is not a man he would have done that with, given Harry's unusual grasp of strategic issues in every situation. In *Order of the Phoenix*, he lets Dumbledore know that "he *was* the snake", for example, something he found hard to contemplate himself, even in front of Sirius. There is nothing *here* that would have prevented him from that. Ron's wand "being in a condition to backfire" is not something which Ron can be implicated for, any more, and even much less, than the opening of the Chamber is for Ginny. | So I personally think that every defence against the dark arts teacher Dumbledore hires serves as a lesson in why you shouldn’t think people are exactly what they appear to be or some similar lesson in why you shouldn’t always trust and obey figures of authority/ why you should despite your misgivings toward them.
Quirrel literally hid his connection to Voldemort in plain sight, posing as a nervous and harmless individual with literal evil being covered up at all times. He serves as a really on the nose symbol of why you should not underestimate someone who appears overtly fearful and benign, for it could easily be a trick, which in this case it is.
Lockhart is something of a polar opposite to Quirrel, an over confident man posing as a great hero who secretly is a deceitful coward. Between Quirrel and Lockhart Dumbledore has demonstrated very well why you should never take a persons overt persona for granted, that there can always be something very untrustworthy about someone who appears to go out of their way to be trusted, whether it is posing as a hero or pretending to be a coward.
Lupin then represents the polar opposite lesson: don’t write someone off as incapable of being a great role model or not having undergone great suffering in their lives which you could learn from. Lupin of course is also hiding the fact that he is a werewolf, though in this case it is not because he has malign intentions, but rather the opposite. In many ways Lupin’s big reveal is sort of a trick played on the reader as we’d all expected him to have some dark secret the same way the previous two had. Of course at first we believe this to be true when it turns out that Sirius Black is his best friend, but of course that turns out to be a false flag as well. Lupin serves as a lesson to not jump to conclusions based on someone’s odd and sometimes elusive behaviour, a lot of the time they’re not hiding anything that is malicious and they truly mean the best.
I think the most complex lesson is Mad Eye Moody. I think he is the most obvious ‘don’t judge a book by its cover’ lesson of all. But it’s also much more complicated than that. Mad eye represents a kind of irreverent will to lead impressionable people to be irresponsible in my opinion, Barty Crouch pretends to be the well known auror Moody who’s a veteran of fighting dark forces for the greater good. He uses this guise to influence the young and easily influenced students to take the line that divides the dark and the light less seriously with lessons that teach forbidden curses and appearing to mentor Harry so as to lead him astray and eventually allow Harry to be used in order to bring back Voldemort fully. In many ways Moody/Crouch serves as a lesson to not be so easily led astray by someone who would influence you to break rules that are there for your own good. Which before now in the Harry Potter books was certainly not in keeping with the theme of ‘break the rules and save the day!’ Which was the running theme in the first three books and essentially the entire series.
Umbridge then serves as an example quite as to why there are rules we should break. Whereas before the rules were broken by Harry Ron and Hermione because they had found out about conspiracies to threaten their lives and their school, Umbridge serves as a blatant example of how and why rules that need to be broken are made, and just how much rules can be made without the interest of the greater good, but rather the interest of total control. Whereas before now the DADA teachers had been lessons in what kind of person you shouldn’t judge by the cover or immediately accept at face value, Umbridge serves as a lesson in why authority altogether isn’t always intent on the greater good. In many ways every book’s lesson is on how and why you should always think for yourself to some extent, but the order of the Phoenix really drives this lesson home with Umbridge, because in theory she is meant to represent a benevolent authority where she actually isn’t even evil because she serves a dark lord in secret, she actually just serves her own twisted sense of self righteousness. Her ethos is even more self centred and petty than Voldemort’s in many ways, and even Rowling herself said that she reckons Umbridge is more evil than Voldemort.
Snape: do I even need to explain? The ultimate example of why you really cannot judge a book by its cover, the lesson which he serves to demonstrate is covered in depth in the books and I shall not bother to give my take on it when enough material already exists for everyone to make an informed interpretation on him themselves.
Going back to the subject of Gilderoy Lockhart, he is but one part of a series of examples which I believe Dumbledore chooses both as somewhat adequate DADA teachers, but also lessons in themselves and Lockhart more specifically serves as a strong example of what not to be, obsessed with fame and fortune instead of valuing the very thing he pretends to represent, Lockhart is a lesson to not be vain and deceitful. |
381,707 | Given a simple circuit of a draw around 28mA (when supplied 3.3v). I'm trying to maximize run time on a battery, but working with what I've got on hand... I have the following batteries:
* 5000mAh 3S LiPO (12.6V fully charged)
* 1700mAh 2S LiFE (7.2V)
* 600mAh 1S LiPO (4.2V)
I have the following regulators:
* MCP1700 3.3V LDO
* LM2931 5.0V LDO
The MCP1700 Can't handle the larger batteries. So I see my options are:
* Use the tiny 1S and the MCP1700
* Use the 3S and the LM2931 output into the MCP1700
* As above but with the 2S
Which should last longer?
Obviously the 5000mAh battery is by far the largest, but that's a pretty inefficient setup. The 2S is somewhat more efficient and still about 3x the size of the 1S. The 1S should be by far the most efficient, but the battery is tiny.
I can, of course, just try each and measure. Thought I'd ask here for insights. | 2018/06/26 | [
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/381707",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/76296/"
] | LDO regulators don't "transform" energy, they are "linear" regulators. Whichever goes into the load, nearly the same current will be drawn from the battery.
So, within conditions of your task, the largest battery has 5 A-h capacity, the medium one has 1.7 A-h, and the smallest one has 0.6 A-h.
Since the same current (0.028 A) will be consumed from a battery in all cases, the run time will be 178 hours (5/0.028), 60.7 hours, and 21.4 hours correspondingly. I assume that regulators have negligible control losses (quiescent current) in their feedback/control circuitry. If not, this "control current" needs to be added to the 0.028 A load.
ADDITION: MCP1700 uses MOSFET as regulating element, with control circuitry consuming a negligible 1.6 uA (max 4 uA) additional current from input. For LM2931 the "ON" current is 2.5 mA typical, up to 30 mA, so LM2931 might last half of MCP1700 time. True, the MCP1700 can't handle input voltages above 6V, but there must be other low-quiescent-current regulators. And, as Tony Stewart hints, DC-DC switching converters would do a much better job. | The rather quick estimation is this: the power output needed for your intended purpose is 92.4 mW.
Let's then assume that each LDO is 70% efficient. That means that for one LDO the input power drained from the battery is 132 mW. For two, the overall efficiency is 50% and will drain 188.57 mW.
Your three batteries can respectively output 63 000 mW, 12 240 mW and 2 520 mW for one hour.
Autonomy for each battery is therefore 334h, 65h and 19h.
I'm not familiar enough with the inner workings of LDO, but I know that standard linear regulator are more wasteful when the output and input voltage are far appart (I.E that 7 in 5 out is more efficient than 15 in 5 out). Therefore, the two daisy chained losses of the bigger batteries are probably underestimated.
In the end, I would either take the largest battery for longevity or the smallest battery for efficiency. Why ignore the 2s? You get roughly the lack of efficiency of the 3s combined with almost 6 times less autonomy. |
486,637 | I'm designing a solid state battery disconnect switch and I want to improve the mosfets' turn-on immunity (high dV/dt on Vds) without impacting the turn-off time. I don't really care about the turn-on time, it can be 100x slower than turn-off time, no problem.
I came up with this solution:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/pCPJI.png)
C1 obviously improves the immunity and D1 should leave the turn-off time the same. Did I miss something? is there a better way to do this?
NB: mosfet's datasheet is available [here](https://www.onsemi.com/pub/Collateral/FDBL86361_F085-D.PDF) and the driver's datasheet is [here](https://www.mouser.fr/datasheet/2/196/Infineon-1EDI60N12AF-DS-v02_00-EN-1226228.pdf). I'll use a +/- 12 V symmetric supply and the driver will drive 10 mosfets in parallel. | 2020/03/17 | [
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/486637",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/54498/"
] | I simulated your circuit using a similar FET with a transient suppressor added, switching a 'short circuit' drawing 1000 amps from a 50 V battery with 10 nH of wiring inductance. It 'worked' in that it had no effect on the switch-off time or power dissipated during the transition. However in this scenario the transition is slowed down by Miller effect, so (assuming adequate transient suppression) you should not have to worry about Dv/Dt causing the MOSFET to turn on again.
So when might Dv/Dt be a problem? One possibility could be if the battery is plugged in while the FET driver is not powered. In this case there could be a fast rising Drain voltage with only weak resistance pulling the Gate down. But would this cause the FET to turn on? Looking at the MOSFET's capacitance graph we see that Gate-Drain capacitance is ~800 pF at 50 V, while Gate-Source capacitance is ~12 nF. That corresponds to a division ratio of 16:1, so 50 V on the Drain could produce ~3.1V on the Gate. As the threshold voltage is between 2 and 4 V the FET might partially turn on for a few microseconds.
By adding extra capacitance to the Gate your circuit increases the capacitive division ratio which makes the power-on transient Gate voltage lower, (hopefully) ensuring that the FET stays turned off when an external voltage is applied. | Besides your suggestion, there is something else you can do in order to reduce the unwanted gate voltage rise due to the parasitic leakage current.
Consider the following circuit:
The mosfet is permanently grounded through the resistor R1 and a square wave with a slew rate of 100n is applied to its drain.
How it works: the leakage current is mostly a function of the parasitic capacitance and the slew rate dV/dt of the drain voltage. Thus, once the drain voltage starts to increase, part of it is coupled through the capacitor C2 and used to turn on the BJts. Due to their high speed, a few bipolars are connected in a cascade fashion in order to increase even more their gain. For a short moment, the gate of the mosfet is shorted and the parasitic capacitance is discharged.
In the waveform you see the effect of not using the circuit (C2 ~ 1p) and with a coupling capacitor (10n). Using this approach the gate voltage dropped by half. I must say that I never saw something like that in any application. The slew rate used in the simulation is extremely high (fast), and probably does not represent a real load.
P.S.: I did not consider any side effect of this proposal.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/wYiJe.png)
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/HTEcg.png) |
486,637 | I'm designing a solid state battery disconnect switch and I want to improve the mosfets' turn-on immunity (high dV/dt on Vds) without impacting the turn-off time. I don't really care about the turn-on time, it can be 100x slower than turn-off time, no problem.
I came up with this solution:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/pCPJI.png)
C1 obviously improves the immunity and D1 should leave the turn-off time the same. Did I miss something? is there a better way to do this?
NB: mosfet's datasheet is available [here](https://www.onsemi.com/pub/Collateral/FDBL86361_F085-D.PDF) and the driver's datasheet is [here](https://www.mouser.fr/datasheet/2/196/Infineon-1EDI60N12AF-DS-v02_00-EN-1226228.pdf). I'll use a +/- 12 V symmetric supply and the driver will drive 10 mosfets in parallel. | 2020/03/17 | [
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/486637",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/54498/"
] | Besides your suggestion, there is something else you can do in order to reduce the unwanted gate voltage rise due to the parasitic leakage current.
Consider the following circuit:
The mosfet is permanently grounded through the resistor R1 and a square wave with a slew rate of 100n is applied to its drain.
How it works: the leakage current is mostly a function of the parasitic capacitance and the slew rate dV/dt of the drain voltage. Thus, once the drain voltage starts to increase, part of it is coupled through the capacitor C2 and used to turn on the BJts. Due to their high speed, a few bipolars are connected in a cascade fashion in order to increase even more their gain. For a short moment, the gate of the mosfet is shorted and the parasitic capacitance is discharged.
In the waveform you see the effect of not using the circuit (C2 ~ 1p) and with a coupling capacitor (10n). Using this approach the gate voltage dropped by half. I must say that I never saw something like that in any application. The slew rate used in the simulation is extremely high (fast), and probably does not represent a real load.
P.S.: I did not consider any side effect of this proposal.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/wYiJe.png)
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/HTEcg.png) | Why not simply increase the switch-on resistance by adding R3?
[simulate this circuit](/plugins/schematics?image=http%3a%2f%2fi.stack.imgur.com%2f5jJel.png) – Schematic created using [CircuitLab](https://www.circuitlab.com/) |
486,637 | I'm designing a solid state battery disconnect switch and I want to improve the mosfets' turn-on immunity (high dV/dt on Vds) without impacting the turn-off time. I don't really care about the turn-on time, it can be 100x slower than turn-off time, no problem.
I came up with this solution:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/pCPJI.png)
C1 obviously improves the immunity and D1 should leave the turn-off time the same. Did I miss something? is there a better way to do this?
NB: mosfet's datasheet is available [here](https://www.onsemi.com/pub/Collateral/FDBL86361_F085-D.PDF) and the driver's datasheet is [here](https://www.mouser.fr/datasheet/2/196/Infineon-1EDI60N12AF-DS-v02_00-EN-1226228.pdf). I'll use a +/- 12 V symmetric supply and the driver will drive 10 mosfets in parallel. | 2020/03/17 | [
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/486637",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/54498/"
] | Your MOSFET driver 1EDI has excellent description !
"The 1EDI EiceDRIVER™ Compact is a general purpose MOSFET gate driver.
....
The separated rail-to-rail driver outputs simplify gate resistor selection, save an external high current bypass diode and enhance dV/dt control."
So You can control On and Off time simply by selecting two resistors:
Ron from Out+(ON) to Q1gate and[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/e6Twn.png)
Roff from Out-(OFF) to Q1gate;
There is no need of any other components!
time on = Ron.Ciss;
time of = Roff\*Ciss;
{FDBL86361-F085 Ciss Input Capacitance VDS = 40 V, VGS = 0 V, f = 1 MHz − 12800 − pF}
Aprox. calculations for single MOSFET:
Ron=100R; Ciss=13nF=12e-9F; Ton=1.3e-6s = 1.3uS
Roff=10R; Ciss=13nF=12e-9F; Toff=1.3e-7s = 130ns
If you will drive 10 mosfets in parallel then Ciss will increase 10 times.
About driver supply: It is better to use bipolar to "prevent a dynamic turn on of the MOSFET".
P.S. If you want to decrease dV/dt simply add an inductance to the load in series. (with all the consequences) | Besides your suggestion, there is something else you can do in order to reduce the unwanted gate voltage rise due to the parasitic leakage current.
Consider the following circuit:
The mosfet is permanently grounded through the resistor R1 and a square wave with a slew rate of 100n is applied to its drain.
How it works: the leakage current is mostly a function of the parasitic capacitance and the slew rate dV/dt of the drain voltage. Thus, once the drain voltage starts to increase, part of it is coupled through the capacitor C2 and used to turn on the BJts. Due to their high speed, a few bipolars are connected in a cascade fashion in order to increase even more their gain. For a short moment, the gate of the mosfet is shorted and the parasitic capacitance is discharged.
In the waveform you see the effect of not using the circuit (C2 ~ 1p) and with a coupling capacitor (10n). Using this approach the gate voltage dropped by half. I must say that I never saw something like that in any application. The slew rate used in the simulation is extremely high (fast), and probably does not represent a real load.
P.S.: I did not consider any side effect of this proposal.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/wYiJe.png)
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/HTEcg.png) |
486,637 | I'm designing a solid state battery disconnect switch and I want to improve the mosfets' turn-on immunity (high dV/dt on Vds) without impacting the turn-off time. I don't really care about the turn-on time, it can be 100x slower than turn-off time, no problem.
I came up with this solution:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/pCPJI.png)
C1 obviously improves the immunity and D1 should leave the turn-off time the same. Did I miss something? is there a better way to do this?
NB: mosfet's datasheet is available [here](https://www.onsemi.com/pub/Collateral/FDBL86361_F085-D.PDF) and the driver's datasheet is [here](https://www.mouser.fr/datasheet/2/196/Infineon-1EDI60N12AF-DS-v02_00-EN-1226228.pdf). I'll use a +/- 12 V symmetric supply and the driver will drive 10 mosfets in parallel. | 2020/03/17 | [
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/486637",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/54498/"
] | I used the solution I gave in the question with:
C1 = 100 nF (min 90.7 nF calculated with Crss = 1.7 nF, Vds = 64 V and Vgsth = 1.2 V)
R1 = 47 k (value not critical, BoM reuse)
D1 = STPS1L30
Also be warned the inductive voltage spike at turn-off is actually a significant problem contrary to what I thought, you must do something about it if your application is similar to mine. NB: TVS/zener diodes aren't good enough if your working voltage is 64 V and the mosfets have a Vdss of only 80 V. | Besides your suggestion, there is something else you can do in order to reduce the unwanted gate voltage rise due to the parasitic leakage current.
Consider the following circuit:
The mosfet is permanently grounded through the resistor R1 and a square wave with a slew rate of 100n is applied to its drain.
How it works: the leakage current is mostly a function of the parasitic capacitance and the slew rate dV/dt of the drain voltage. Thus, once the drain voltage starts to increase, part of it is coupled through the capacitor C2 and used to turn on the BJts. Due to their high speed, a few bipolars are connected in a cascade fashion in order to increase even more their gain. For a short moment, the gate of the mosfet is shorted and the parasitic capacitance is discharged.
In the waveform you see the effect of not using the circuit (C2 ~ 1p) and with a coupling capacitor (10n). Using this approach the gate voltage dropped by half. I must say that I never saw something like that in any application. The slew rate used in the simulation is extremely high (fast), and probably does not represent a real load.
P.S.: I did not consider any side effect of this proposal.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/wYiJe.png)
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/HTEcg.png) |
486,637 | I'm designing a solid state battery disconnect switch and I want to improve the mosfets' turn-on immunity (high dV/dt on Vds) without impacting the turn-off time. I don't really care about the turn-on time, it can be 100x slower than turn-off time, no problem.
I came up with this solution:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/pCPJI.png)
C1 obviously improves the immunity and D1 should leave the turn-off time the same. Did I miss something? is there a better way to do this?
NB: mosfet's datasheet is available [here](https://www.onsemi.com/pub/Collateral/FDBL86361_F085-D.PDF) and the driver's datasheet is [here](https://www.mouser.fr/datasheet/2/196/Infineon-1EDI60N12AF-DS-v02_00-EN-1226228.pdf). I'll use a +/- 12 V symmetric supply and the driver will drive 10 mosfets in parallel. | 2020/03/17 | [
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/486637",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/54498/"
] | I simulated your circuit using a similar FET with a transient suppressor added, switching a 'short circuit' drawing 1000 amps from a 50 V battery with 10 nH of wiring inductance. It 'worked' in that it had no effect on the switch-off time or power dissipated during the transition. However in this scenario the transition is slowed down by Miller effect, so (assuming adequate transient suppression) you should not have to worry about Dv/Dt causing the MOSFET to turn on again.
So when might Dv/Dt be a problem? One possibility could be if the battery is plugged in while the FET driver is not powered. In this case there could be a fast rising Drain voltage with only weak resistance pulling the Gate down. But would this cause the FET to turn on? Looking at the MOSFET's capacitance graph we see that Gate-Drain capacitance is ~800 pF at 50 V, while Gate-Source capacitance is ~12 nF. That corresponds to a division ratio of 16:1, so 50 V on the Drain could produce ~3.1V on the Gate. As the threshold voltage is between 2 and 4 V the FET might partially turn on for a few microseconds.
By adding extra capacitance to the Gate your circuit increases the capacitive division ratio which makes the power-on transient Gate voltage lower, (hopefully) ensuring that the FET stays turned off when an external voltage is applied. | Why not simply increase the switch-on resistance by adding R3?
[simulate this circuit](/plugins/schematics?image=http%3a%2f%2fi.stack.imgur.com%2f5jJel.png) – Schematic created using [CircuitLab](https://www.circuitlab.com/) |
486,637 | I'm designing a solid state battery disconnect switch and I want to improve the mosfets' turn-on immunity (high dV/dt on Vds) without impacting the turn-off time. I don't really care about the turn-on time, it can be 100x slower than turn-off time, no problem.
I came up with this solution:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/pCPJI.png)
C1 obviously improves the immunity and D1 should leave the turn-off time the same. Did I miss something? is there a better way to do this?
NB: mosfet's datasheet is available [here](https://www.onsemi.com/pub/Collateral/FDBL86361_F085-D.PDF) and the driver's datasheet is [here](https://www.mouser.fr/datasheet/2/196/Infineon-1EDI60N12AF-DS-v02_00-EN-1226228.pdf). I'll use a +/- 12 V symmetric supply and the driver will drive 10 mosfets in parallel. | 2020/03/17 | [
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/486637",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/54498/"
] | Your MOSFET driver 1EDI has excellent description !
"The 1EDI EiceDRIVER™ Compact is a general purpose MOSFET gate driver.
....
The separated rail-to-rail driver outputs simplify gate resistor selection, save an external high current bypass diode and enhance dV/dt control."
So You can control On and Off time simply by selecting two resistors:
Ron from Out+(ON) to Q1gate and[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/e6Twn.png)
Roff from Out-(OFF) to Q1gate;
There is no need of any other components!
time on = Ron.Ciss;
time of = Roff\*Ciss;
{FDBL86361-F085 Ciss Input Capacitance VDS = 40 V, VGS = 0 V, f = 1 MHz − 12800 − pF}
Aprox. calculations for single MOSFET:
Ron=100R; Ciss=13nF=12e-9F; Ton=1.3e-6s = 1.3uS
Roff=10R; Ciss=13nF=12e-9F; Toff=1.3e-7s = 130ns
If you will drive 10 mosfets in parallel then Ciss will increase 10 times.
About driver supply: It is better to use bipolar to "prevent a dynamic turn on of the MOSFET".
P.S. If you want to decrease dV/dt simply add an inductance to the load in series. (with all the consequences) | Why not simply increase the switch-on resistance by adding R3?
[simulate this circuit](/plugins/schematics?image=http%3a%2f%2fi.stack.imgur.com%2f5jJel.png) – Schematic created using [CircuitLab](https://www.circuitlab.com/) |
486,637 | I'm designing a solid state battery disconnect switch and I want to improve the mosfets' turn-on immunity (high dV/dt on Vds) without impacting the turn-off time. I don't really care about the turn-on time, it can be 100x slower than turn-off time, no problem.
I came up with this solution:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/pCPJI.png)
C1 obviously improves the immunity and D1 should leave the turn-off time the same. Did I miss something? is there a better way to do this?
NB: mosfet's datasheet is available [here](https://www.onsemi.com/pub/Collateral/FDBL86361_F085-D.PDF) and the driver's datasheet is [here](https://www.mouser.fr/datasheet/2/196/Infineon-1EDI60N12AF-DS-v02_00-EN-1226228.pdf). I'll use a +/- 12 V symmetric supply and the driver will drive 10 mosfets in parallel. | 2020/03/17 | [
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/486637",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/54498/"
] | I used the solution I gave in the question with:
C1 = 100 nF (min 90.7 nF calculated with Crss = 1.7 nF, Vds = 64 V and Vgsth = 1.2 V)
R1 = 47 k (value not critical, BoM reuse)
D1 = STPS1L30
Also be warned the inductive voltage spike at turn-off is actually a significant problem contrary to what I thought, you must do something about it if your application is similar to mine. NB: TVS/zener diodes aren't good enough if your working voltage is 64 V and the mosfets have a Vdss of only 80 V. | Why not simply increase the switch-on resistance by adding R3?
[simulate this circuit](/plugins/schematics?image=http%3a%2f%2fi.stack.imgur.com%2f5jJel.png) – Schematic created using [CircuitLab](https://www.circuitlab.com/) |
202,505 | [Spectral Hand](https://2e.aonprd.com/Spells.aspx?ID=295):
>
> You create a *semicorporeal* hand out of your essence that delivers touch spells for you. Whenever you Cast a Spell with a range of touch, you can have the hand crawl to a target within range along the ground, touch it, and then *crawl back to you*. [...] The hand has your AC and saves, but any damage to the hand destroys it and causes you to take 1d6 damage.
>
>
>
The hand is only semicorporeal, but can be damaged. Its movement pattern would provoke.
Is it *creature enough*? | 2022/11/02 | [
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/questions/202505",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com",
"https://rpg.stackexchange.com/users/9552/"
] | It doesn't provoke Attack of Opportunity
========================================
[Attack of opportunity](https://2e.aonprd.com/Feats.aspx?ID=145) has very clear guidelines for when it triggers:
>
> **Trigger**: A creature within your reach uses a manipulate action or a move action, makes a ranged attack, or leaves a square during a move action it’s using.
>
>
>
Whilst the hand *is* moving, it is not using a "Move action". Ergo, it does not trigger it. | Tentatively... no?
------------------
I don't have strong grounds for this, but here's my reasoning. *Spectral hand* is a Necromancy spell. Nowhere in it's text does it refer to the hand as a creature, or even being creature-like (as opposed to Illusions like *illusory creature*, which are presumed to be mistaken for a Creature until disbelieved and follow similar-ish rules, or actual Creatures like Crawling Hands). Even the text about it's movement, crawling, doesn't follow standard [Crawl](https://2e.aonprd.com/Actions.aspx?ID=76) rules nor does it use the capitalized Move like the trait.
Furthermore, this is not a very good 2nd level spell if that's true. Granted, far fewer creatures have Reactions to Movement now, but even with that holding true, those times (very likely) shortening the duration from *at most* one combat (one minute) to one or two rounds is a pretty significant flaw.
Ultimately, I don't think it's clear to say definitively. But because of my first points, and supported by the following ones, I would personally rule that it's not "creature enough" to React to its movement\*.
\*I would still consider it the source of damage for Champion Reactions, but that's partially because it's more likely the party is using that than NPC's and I don't want to take shine away from them. |
81,785 | ἀποκαλυφθῆναι Is the aorist and would be translated as “was revealed”
Does μέλλουσαν (present tense) “is about to be” somehow change the aorist ἀποκαλυφθῆναι to the future tense?
Can someone explain how this aorist is translated as a future tense based on the rules of Greek grammar? | 2023/02/26 | [
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/81785",
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com",
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/users/54351/"
] | The operative verb in Rom 8:18 is ἀποκαλυφθῆναι (= "to be revealed") which is Aorist Infinitive Passive. Thus, it has no tense at all. Such verbs are always accompanied by another verb somewhere close by to give the tense. Thus we might have:
* was to be revealed = past
* was to have been revealed = past perfect
* is to be revealed = present
* yet to be revealed = future
* etc.
[Note that English does not have an aorist infinitive and so it cannot be accurately translated except by the phrase (in this case) "to be revealed".]
In the case of Rom 8:18, we have the near-by "coming glory" which shows that Paul intends the aorist infinitive is to be understood as a future tense. Thus, it is correctly translated by modern versions. | The words πρὸς τὴν μέλλουσαν in front of δόξαν ἀποκαλυφθῆναι gives the sense of immediate future, *about to be; going to be.* Paul expressed the impending nature of μέλλουσαν as a present participle, and the not yet nature of ἀποκαλυφθῆναι as the aorist passive participle. Note how much the future active indicative ἀποκαλύψω looks like the aorist active indicative ἀπεκάλυψα. Also note that for many verbs the future indicative and aorist subjunctive forms are identical.
>
> μέλλω ... ① to take place at a future point of time and so to be subsequent to another event, *be about to*, ... ② to be inevitable, be destined, inevitable ... ③ The ptc. is used abs. in the mng. (in the) future, *to come* ... ④ delay
> --
> Arndt, W., Danker, F. W., Bauer, W., & Gingrich, F. W. (2000). In *A Greek-English lexicon of the New Testament and other early Christian literature* (3rd ed., p. 627-628). University of Chicago Press.
>
>
>
>
> πρός prep. ... ③ w. acc. ... ⓔ to indicate a connection by marking a point of reference, with reference/regard to
> ... δ. in accordance with ... **In comparison with, to be compared to** ... **Ro 8:18**
> --
> Arndt, W., Danker, F. W., Bauer, W., & Gingrich, F. W. (2000). In *A Greek-English lexicon of the New Testament and other early Christian literature* (3rd ed., p. 875). University of Chicago Press.
>
>
>
>
> The key to this [Complementary (Supplementary)] infinitive use is the helper verb. The most common verbs that take a complementary infinitive are ἄρχομαι, βούλομαι, δύναμαι (the most commonly used helper verb), ἐπιτρέπω, ζητέω, θέλω, μέλλω, and ὀφείλω. The infinitive itself is the simple infinitive.
> --
> Wallace, D. B. (1996). *Greek Grammar beyond the Basics: An Exegetical Syntax of the New Testament* (p. 598). Zondervan.
>
>
> |
81,785 | ἀποκαλυφθῆναι Is the aorist and would be translated as “was revealed”
Does μέλλουσαν (present tense) “is about to be” somehow change the aorist ἀποκαλυφθῆναι to the future tense?
Can someone explain how this aorist is translated as a future tense based on the rules of Greek grammar? | 2023/02/26 | [
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/questions/81785",
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com",
"https://hermeneutics.stackexchange.com/users/54351/"
] | The operative verb in Rom 8:18 is ἀποκαλυφθῆναι (= "to be revealed") which is Aorist Infinitive Passive. Thus, it has no tense at all. Such verbs are always accompanied by another verb somewhere close by to give the tense. Thus we might have:
* was to be revealed = past
* was to have been revealed = past perfect
* is to be revealed = present
* yet to be revealed = future
* etc.
[Note that English does not have an aorist infinitive and so it cannot be accurately translated except by the phrase (in this case) "to be revealed".]
In the case of Rom 8:18, we have the near-by "coming glory" which shows that Paul intends the aorist infinitive is to be understood as a future tense. Thus, it is correctly translated by modern versions. | In Greek, the future tense can be formed in several ways, one of which is by using the auxiliary verb μέλλω (mello) followed by the infinitive of the main verb.
So, when μέλλουσαν (mellousan) "is about to" is combined with the aorist infinitive ἀποκαλυφθῆναι (apokalyphthenai) "to be revealed," it creates a periphrastic construction that expresses the future tense: μέλλουσαν ἀποκαλυφθῆναι (mellousan apokalyphthenai) can be translated as "is about to be revealed."
This type of periphrastic construction is common in Greek and is used to express future actions or events. It is important to note that this periphrastic construction does not change the tense of the aorist infinitive itself, but rather creates a future tense meaning through the use of an auxiliary verb. |
434,460 | I am in a place where electricity is not ideal (old house, no ground), sometimes it occasionally shuts down and supposedly there are some spikes.
I consider using UPS with the goal to increase safety of my personal data. My first priority is the health of my internal and external USB hard drives which can be damaged due to possible power instability. I do not care that much about possible losses of not-saved work, instead I just want to let my system have a minimum time to turn off without any risk of physical damaging my hard drives.
Would a cheap offline UPS suit my neads? Or do i need a better one with automatic voltage regulator (AVR)? How critical is AVR for the hard drives? The external ones require their own power supplies and will be plugged directly into UPS. | 2012/06/08 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/434460",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/138997/"
] | UPSes are roughly divided into *stand-by* and *in-line* classes. No matter what UPS you buy, it will have a surge suppressor and some basic filters.
Stand-by UPS only kicks in when the mains power becomes "bad" (too low, too high, etc.) There is a several milliseconds delay, but basic PC power supply can survive that switching delay without any problem.
In-line UPS always converts AC power to DC, and then back to AC to be fed into your equipment. So, naturally it provides better clean noise-free power, but the down side is that it is much more expensive, the double-conversion is lossy (UPS usually has a large and noisy fan to cool it down, etc.)
I've never seen in-line UPSes used outside of the realm of enterprise telecommunication equipment, where clean power is a must. I would say that a decent home UPS (they are all stand-by type) will be sufficient for your needs.
For an extra peace of mind, you can add a surge suppressor *before* the UPS, e.g. connect UPS to the surge suppressor, and then to the mains. However, I'd really try to obtain a decent ground, you can have lots of weird problems with your networking if your ground is bad or non-existent. | If you don't care about loosing unsaved work, then you don't need a UPS. The computer power supply makes sure the power to the drive is properly regulated. Either the power it delivers is correct for operation, or it shuts down; it won't let damage happen. If you are worried about surges, you can get a cheap surge suppressor for some extra protection, but the computer power supply already takes care of that.
As for your lack of ground, I assume you mean the outlets in the house are missing the third pin, so you have to use a ground adapter block. This means your house is about 40 years out of compliance with electric code and probably also is still using cloth insulated wires, which have a tendency to catch fire, so you should have an electrician rewire the house properly. Additionally, not having a true earth ground presents an electrocution hazard. |
81,100 | It sounds silly, but I've always been quick to tears. I underwent therapy to try to fix it, but really I never saw any improvement.
Recently, I was speaking with my HR manager about some personal issues I had in the office, and to my surprise I began tearing up and being unable to speak right in front of her. I was incredibly embarrassed, but she seemed at least understanding because of the subject matter.
Today I made a blunder. I tripped an alarm in the early morning and almost had police dispatched, which required me calling the same manager, waking her up, to fix it, and was chastised for it (over the phone). Immediately, I began to cry. Luckily, no one was there, but I can't help but feel like my tendency to cry is going to end up negatively impacting me in the future.
**My question: How badly will being an easy crier, especially when being chastised, hurt me in the future, and is there any way to help either prepare employers for this issue or deal with it on my own?**
Edit: In response to the people suggesting I try therapy again, I am certainly open to the idea, but I will give a bit more detail: I went once a week for a few years for various issues, one of which were these emotional outbursts, which I spent much time on. I have seen three different therapists, and still continue to have this issue. While I'm sure it's possible, it is not an especially attractive suggestion, and at this point a logistically straining one. I don't expect psychological help on a place meant to deal with workplace questions, but I'd ask for the sake of myself (and, in the future, any other viewers who may not be able to seek therapy for one reason or another) that this be considered.
Edit 2: In case this is relevant, I don't seem to have any issues with expressing myself, as in I don't start speaking emotionally (using inappropriate choices of words, attacking, etc), though might have issues that come with crying, such as tightening of throat or sniffles/stutters. Basically, it's just crying that's an issue, not any other emotional outbursts. | 2016/12/08 | [
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/81100",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/59561/"
] | It depends on how strong the crying is. If you can at least talk a bit or if you do it loudly can make a difference.
I like to see a problem this way; find a quick solution then find a long term solution. A lot of people talk about the long term solution.
It must be embarrassing for you when this happens but try to look at how it feels for the other persons. When it happens, make sure the people that were around get to know your problem. Don't let them in the dark about what just happen (this could be done later 1on1 or email). Take extra steps to display that you actually listen to the criticism "In last meeting, you said x, I did y". This will show others, through actions, that you really do care and that your crying isn't a form of defensive mechanism.
I had a similar problem where I would easily get red and sweaty. I have a lot more control over it now. Problem is, the more I expected it, the more it would happen. It would start with small reaction (I would get hot, throat would tighten up), I thought people would look at me and it got worst. After a lot of work (no therapy), when those small reaction happen, I would be able to ignore them knowing that others actually don't see them or even care. This thinking help remove the strong reactions. | I'm going to take a very different direction, to augment what's already been said.
I suggest you **learn about sadness** (not identical with crying, but clearly related) and shame (a possible trigger for your tears), and dive deeply into them to figure out what your crying is trying to tell you.
My own relationship with sadness changed completely with reading the work of Karla McLaren. She's the only person I've found who can tell you what your emotions are trying to do for you, and why (and HOW) to listen to them.
In brief, tears of sadness can help you release "that which is not working for you." Sadness honored leads frequently to joy. Sadness stifled leads to bad things.
If you're crying a lot more than feels right for the situation, then you may have a lot of dishonored sadness wanting to come through. (Or it might have another cause entirely.)
McLaren's guidance on dealing directly with your emotions includes a lot of excellent practices for becoming grounded and centered. When you can do that reliably, you'll cry less and for the right reasons.
To give you a sense of the depths here, read [Is it a feeling or is it an emotion?](http://karlamclaren.com/is-it-a-feeling-or-is-it-an-emotion/)
Here's Karla's [unusual and empowering take on shame and guilt](http://karlamclaren.com/embracing-guilt-and-shame/).
**Please, honor the source of your tears, whatever that turns out to be. I have a strong sense your tears are trying to tell you something important.** |
81,100 | It sounds silly, but I've always been quick to tears. I underwent therapy to try to fix it, but really I never saw any improvement.
Recently, I was speaking with my HR manager about some personal issues I had in the office, and to my surprise I began tearing up and being unable to speak right in front of her. I was incredibly embarrassed, but she seemed at least understanding because of the subject matter.
Today I made a blunder. I tripped an alarm in the early morning and almost had police dispatched, which required me calling the same manager, waking her up, to fix it, and was chastised for it (over the phone). Immediately, I began to cry. Luckily, no one was there, but I can't help but feel like my tendency to cry is going to end up negatively impacting me in the future.
**My question: How badly will being an easy crier, especially when being chastised, hurt me in the future, and is there any way to help either prepare employers for this issue or deal with it on my own?**
Edit: In response to the people suggesting I try therapy again, I am certainly open to the idea, but I will give a bit more detail: I went once a week for a few years for various issues, one of which were these emotional outbursts, which I spent much time on. I have seen three different therapists, and still continue to have this issue. While I'm sure it's possible, it is not an especially attractive suggestion, and at this point a logistically straining one. I don't expect psychological help on a place meant to deal with workplace questions, but I'd ask for the sake of myself (and, in the future, any other viewers who may not be able to seek therapy for one reason or another) that this be considered.
Edit 2: In case this is relevant, I don't seem to have any issues with expressing myself, as in I don't start speaking emotionally (using inappropriate choices of words, attacking, etc), though might have issues that come with crying, such as tightening of throat or sniffles/stutters. Basically, it's just crying that's an issue, not any other emotional outbursts. | 2016/12/08 | [
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/81100",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/59561/"
] | This is definitely not expected professional behavior, even if people ought to be more understanding. I could see any number of co-workers using it against you as a reason to withhold promotions you would otherwise deserve.
Your situation - being expressive and articulate but sensitive to criticism - sounds an awful lot like [Rejection Sensitive Dysphoria](http://www.additudemag.com/adhd/article/12114.html), common to people with ADHD symptoms.
Even if you don't feel like you have any other ADD / ADHD symptoms, you might benefit from talking to a therpaist who specializes in recognizing and treating them specifically. Lots of people - especially but not exclusively women - deal with ADHD that doesn't express itself in stereotypical ways. This kind of rejection sensitivity is one of them. | So far it seems it didn't occur to anyone that what you have is most likely a genuine **disability**. And people around you should treat it that way. Just as I wouldn't ask a person in a wheelchair to climb on a step ladder and pick up a book from the hightest shelve, I wouldn't start shouting at you if you did something wrong. In both cases, I wouldn't achieve whatever I wanted to achieve.
When you have a disability, in most countries the workplace has to adapt. In your case it's not that difficult. For example, this morning you made a mistake, and the end result was that some manager shouted at you over the phone. There was no need to shout. It didn't help with the mistake one bit. So this manager has to figure out that shouting at you is pointless. |
81,100 | It sounds silly, but I've always been quick to tears. I underwent therapy to try to fix it, but really I never saw any improvement.
Recently, I was speaking with my HR manager about some personal issues I had in the office, and to my surprise I began tearing up and being unable to speak right in front of her. I was incredibly embarrassed, but she seemed at least understanding because of the subject matter.
Today I made a blunder. I tripped an alarm in the early morning and almost had police dispatched, which required me calling the same manager, waking her up, to fix it, and was chastised for it (over the phone). Immediately, I began to cry. Luckily, no one was there, but I can't help but feel like my tendency to cry is going to end up negatively impacting me in the future.
**My question: How badly will being an easy crier, especially when being chastised, hurt me in the future, and is there any way to help either prepare employers for this issue or deal with it on my own?**
Edit: In response to the people suggesting I try therapy again, I am certainly open to the idea, but I will give a bit more detail: I went once a week for a few years for various issues, one of which were these emotional outbursts, which I spent much time on. I have seen three different therapists, and still continue to have this issue. While I'm sure it's possible, it is not an especially attractive suggestion, and at this point a logistically straining one. I don't expect psychological help on a place meant to deal with workplace questions, but I'd ask for the sake of myself (and, in the future, any other viewers who may not be able to seek therapy for one reason or another) that this be considered.
Edit 2: In case this is relevant, I don't seem to have any issues with expressing myself, as in I don't start speaking emotionally (using inappropriate choices of words, attacking, etc), though might have issues that come with crying, such as tightening of throat or sniffles/stutters. Basically, it's just crying that's an issue, not any other emotional outbursts. | 2016/12/08 | [
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/81100",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/59561/"
] | >
> How badly will being an easy crier, especially when being chastised,
> hurt me in the future, and is there any way to help either prepare
> employers for this issue or deal with it on my own?
>
>
>
If you really burst into tears that easily, it will almost certainly hold you back from growing professionally. Coping with situations in the workplace is an important skill for professionals who want to advance.
Like it or not, confrontation happens in the workplace. It happens more in some than others, but it happens. Being able to deal with confrontation and negative feedback effectively, without breaking down, will be important sooner or later.
While you can alert HR and/or your manager about your tendencies, that likely won't help the situation much. They may understand that you tend to cry, but they really can't be expected to protect you from triggering situations.
I'm not a medical professional, but it seems to me that even though you haven't seen therapy help in the past, you may be wise to seek better therapists. If you have an issue that responds to medications, that's one possibility. Otherwise, a good therapist can probably help you find new coping strategies, and help you become desensitized.
I know that if I tended to cry easily, and I worried that it might impact my career, I'd be talking to medical professionals. | This is definitely not expected professional behavior, even if people ought to be more understanding. I could see any number of co-workers using it against you as a reason to withhold promotions you would otherwise deserve.
Your situation - being expressive and articulate but sensitive to criticism - sounds an awful lot like [Rejection Sensitive Dysphoria](http://www.additudemag.com/adhd/article/12114.html), common to people with ADHD symptoms.
Even if you don't feel like you have any other ADD / ADHD symptoms, you might benefit from talking to a therpaist who specializes in recognizing and treating them specifically. Lots of people - especially but not exclusively women - deal with ADHD that doesn't express itself in stereotypical ways. This kind of rejection sensitivity is one of them. |
81,100 | It sounds silly, but I've always been quick to tears. I underwent therapy to try to fix it, but really I never saw any improvement.
Recently, I was speaking with my HR manager about some personal issues I had in the office, and to my surprise I began tearing up and being unable to speak right in front of her. I was incredibly embarrassed, but she seemed at least understanding because of the subject matter.
Today I made a blunder. I tripped an alarm in the early morning and almost had police dispatched, which required me calling the same manager, waking her up, to fix it, and was chastised for it (over the phone). Immediately, I began to cry. Luckily, no one was there, but I can't help but feel like my tendency to cry is going to end up negatively impacting me in the future.
**My question: How badly will being an easy crier, especially when being chastised, hurt me in the future, and is there any way to help either prepare employers for this issue or deal with it on my own?**
Edit: In response to the people suggesting I try therapy again, I am certainly open to the idea, but I will give a bit more detail: I went once a week for a few years for various issues, one of which were these emotional outbursts, which I spent much time on. I have seen three different therapists, and still continue to have this issue. While I'm sure it's possible, it is not an especially attractive suggestion, and at this point a logistically straining one. I don't expect psychological help on a place meant to deal with workplace questions, but I'd ask for the sake of myself (and, in the future, any other viewers who may not be able to seek therapy for one reason or another) that this be considered.
Edit 2: In case this is relevant, I don't seem to have any issues with expressing myself, as in I don't start speaking emotionally (using inappropriate choices of words, attacking, etc), though might have issues that come with crying, such as tightening of throat or sniffles/stutters. Basically, it's just crying that's an issue, not any other emotional outbursts. | 2016/12/08 | [
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/81100",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/59561/"
] | >
> How badly will being an easy crier, especially when being chastised,
> hurt me in the future, and is there any way to help either prepare
> employers for this issue or deal with it on my own?
>
>
>
If you really burst into tears that easily, it will almost certainly hold you back from growing professionally. Coping with situations in the workplace is an important skill for professionals who want to advance.
Like it or not, confrontation happens in the workplace. It happens more in some than others, but it happens. Being able to deal with confrontation and negative feedback effectively, without breaking down, will be important sooner or later.
While you can alert HR and/or your manager about your tendencies, that likely won't help the situation much. They may understand that you tend to cry, but they really can't be expected to protect you from triggering situations.
I'm not a medical professional, but it seems to me that even though you haven't seen therapy help in the past, you may be wise to seek better therapists. If you have an issue that responds to medications, that's one possibility. Otherwise, a good therapist can probably help you find new coping strategies, and help you become desensitized.
I know that if I tended to cry easily, and I worried that it might impact my career, I'd be talking to medical professionals. | I'm going to take a very different direction, to augment what's already been said.
I suggest you **learn about sadness** (not identical with crying, but clearly related) and shame (a possible trigger for your tears), and dive deeply into them to figure out what your crying is trying to tell you.
My own relationship with sadness changed completely with reading the work of Karla McLaren. She's the only person I've found who can tell you what your emotions are trying to do for you, and why (and HOW) to listen to them.
In brief, tears of sadness can help you release "that which is not working for you." Sadness honored leads frequently to joy. Sadness stifled leads to bad things.
If you're crying a lot more than feels right for the situation, then you may have a lot of dishonored sadness wanting to come through. (Or it might have another cause entirely.)
McLaren's guidance on dealing directly with your emotions includes a lot of excellent practices for becoming grounded and centered. When you can do that reliably, you'll cry less and for the right reasons.
To give you a sense of the depths here, read [Is it a feeling or is it an emotion?](http://karlamclaren.com/is-it-a-feeling-or-is-it-an-emotion/)
Here's Karla's [unusual and empowering take on shame and guilt](http://karlamclaren.com/embracing-guilt-and-shame/).
**Please, honor the source of your tears, whatever that turns out to be. I have a strong sense your tears are trying to tell you something important.** |
81,100 | It sounds silly, but I've always been quick to tears. I underwent therapy to try to fix it, but really I never saw any improvement.
Recently, I was speaking with my HR manager about some personal issues I had in the office, and to my surprise I began tearing up and being unable to speak right in front of her. I was incredibly embarrassed, but she seemed at least understanding because of the subject matter.
Today I made a blunder. I tripped an alarm in the early morning and almost had police dispatched, which required me calling the same manager, waking her up, to fix it, and was chastised for it (over the phone). Immediately, I began to cry. Luckily, no one was there, but I can't help but feel like my tendency to cry is going to end up negatively impacting me in the future.
**My question: How badly will being an easy crier, especially when being chastised, hurt me in the future, and is there any way to help either prepare employers for this issue or deal with it on my own?**
Edit: In response to the people suggesting I try therapy again, I am certainly open to the idea, but I will give a bit more detail: I went once a week for a few years for various issues, one of which were these emotional outbursts, which I spent much time on. I have seen three different therapists, and still continue to have this issue. While I'm sure it's possible, it is not an especially attractive suggestion, and at this point a logistically straining one. I don't expect psychological help on a place meant to deal with workplace questions, but I'd ask for the sake of myself (and, in the future, any other viewers who may not be able to seek therapy for one reason or another) that this be considered.
Edit 2: In case this is relevant, I don't seem to have any issues with expressing myself, as in I don't start speaking emotionally (using inappropriate choices of words, attacking, etc), though might have issues that come with crying, such as tightening of throat or sniffles/stutters. Basically, it's just crying that's an issue, not any other emotional outbursts. | 2016/12/08 | [
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/81100",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/59561/"
] | >
> How badly will being an easy crier, especially when being chastised, hurt me in the future?
>
>
>
It's impossible to tell how this will impact your specific career path but generally speaking, while this *will* reflect on you in some way, as long as you manage this well you shouldn't suffer over it professionally.1
So how do you manage it? Ultimately I'll always suggest getting professional help for a problem like this. Perhaps you are simply on the extreme end of the emotional curve, but in most cases where people have trouble dealing appropriately with constructive feedback or criticism there are ways to improve your reaction. Professional help or therapy should be considered, but anything beyond that is outside the scope of this site.
Now, even if you manage to get this under control over time, you still need to handle this when it happens at work. What it comes down to is this: **receiving and processing feedback,** even when it's highly critical of your performance, **is an essential skill in the workplace.** The problem with reaction overly emotionally to such feedback is twofold:
* it may cause your manager to think that you won't be able to process the feedback because you're distracted by your emotions or because you're not recognising feedback for what it is: suggestions on how to improve your peformance
* it may lead to your manager being hesitant to give you feedback
Both are problematic for a career so you need to handle both, to do so you need to:
### Take the feedback to heart
Whether your reaction is simply a physical or whether there's also a surge of emotions that makes it harder for you to process what your manager is actually saying, you need to evaluate what was said when you've calmed down. Handling and responding to feedback is an entire subject of its own but in short:
* note the issues your manager identified
* critically reflect on how correct the feedback was or if you have concerns or explanations: it can be difficult to explain that your manager actually told you to drop Project X when you're stuck in a storm of emotions
* review what your manager suggested you do to improve
* reflect on what other things you can do to improve or prevent the problem from happening again
After that, you need to work on improving your performance and avoiding the problems that made it necessary for your manager to give you feedback. This is the single most important thing to do: your manager may think it strange that a stellar employee reacts so strongly to feedback but as long as you take that feedback to heart and use it to improve he'll love you as an employee.
### Explain
There's no easy way to do this but it has to be done. You have non-standard behaviour that could reflect poorly on you and that means it's on you to explain and manage people's reactions. The key is to be matter-of-fact about it and don't make a big deal out of it. Your explanation should hit on the following: you reacted emotionally, it may happen again in the future, but you heard what your manager said and you'll do X, Y and Z to improve or to avoid the problem from happening again.
Either do this in person after you've gotten the feedback or over mail. Only do this in person if you know you can do so without misting up again as it may be counter-productive.
At this point I'm copying some suggested scripts that Alison Green over on Ask A Manager created. The articles where they come from are suggested reading as well. If this was a rare occurrence you could say:
>
> Despite my reaction yesterday, I want you to know that I really appreciate your giving me that feedback, and it’s incredibly helpful to me to know where I should be focusing on improving. I’m a bit mortified that I got emotional about it, and hope that you’ll excuse it (and ideally wipe it from your mind forever!).
>
>
> Source: [should I apologize to my boss for crying in front of her?](http://www.askamanager.org/2013/02/should-i-apologize-to-my-boss-for-crying-in-front-of-her.html)
>
>
>
Or, specifically if you know that this is a recurring issue for you:
>
> Ugh, I have a weird reaction sometimes with criticism, but please know that it doesn’t indicate I don’t want to hear it — I actually love feedback and really value getting it. I’m working on getting the embarrassing visible reaction under control, but meanwhile I don’t want it to deter you from telling me where you think I could be doing better. I know how important that kind of feedback is to hear.
>
>
> Source: [I get embarrassingly emotional when criticized](http://www.askamanager.org/2015/07/i-get-embarrassingly-emotional-when-criticized-boss-is-yelling-at-me-for-using-my-phone-and-more.html)
>
>
>
---
1 - This applies to most, but not all, careers. If your job explicitly deals with handling or passing on feedback, such as PR or project management consulting, then you've got a much bigger problem. | I propose that you try to increase your immunity to crying triggers (crying trigger = whatever it is that makes you cry).
From what you wrote I have the impression that you don't cry always. Sometimes you do, sometimes not. If you could expand the periods without crying the problem would be solved.
The first step would be to empirically find out, what it is that makes you cry.
Second step is to train your "no-cry" muscles. Let's say that you cry, when you see symptoms of a conflict. There are many shades of conflict.
For example:
1. Right now, someone somewhere is dying from old age (conflict with an uncontrollable external force; you aren't involved).
2. Right now, someone somewhere is being killed (conflict with another person; you aren't involved).
3. Someone saying to you "Dear r19996, you could improve your skill X by doing more of Y and less of Z" (constructive criticism, you are involved).
4. Your boss saying to you "r19996, your performance on project X was below my expectations. You either improve by Y percent, or we'll fire you in Z months" (criticism with clear information about your options).
5. Same as before, but now the boss yells at you.
6. Someone telling you that you are a worthless piece of ... (purely emotional, irrational aggression).
7. Same as before, but now with yelling.
You start with the first item and try not to cry. Once you have learned to live with that kind of level (i. e. when you are exposed to it, you don't cry), you get to the next stress level. Again, you take your time and do as many attempts as possible.
That way you'll be able to understand and therefore to control your crying impulses (and if you can't, it's a medical condition like disability).
If you live in a big city, you could hire a theatre actor or student (the other person would act as your boss or whoever it is that makes you cry) so that you can train in a safe environment.
Variation of the same: Using the same approach you can develop a feeling, when you are about to cry. Let's say that a minute before crying you get an intuitive signal. In this case you can tell the other person that you have to go to the bathroom. There, you can cry, get calm, and return to the "battle scene". In all organizations I'm aware of, nobody would prevent a person from going to the toilet (even during conflicts), which allows you to take your crying to a place, where nobody sees it. |
81,100 | It sounds silly, but I've always been quick to tears. I underwent therapy to try to fix it, but really I never saw any improvement.
Recently, I was speaking with my HR manager about some personal issues I had in the office, and to my surprise I began tearing up and being unable to speak right in front of her. I was incredibly embarrassed, but she seemed at least understanding because of the subject matter.
Today I made a blunder. I tripped an alarm in the early morning and almost had police dispatched, which required me calling the same manager, waking her up, to fix it, and was chastised for it (over the phone). Immediately, I began to cry. Luckily, no one was there, but I can't help but feel like my tendency to cry is going to end up negatively impacting me in the future.
**My question: How badly will being an easy crier, especially when being chastised, hurt me in the future, and is there any way to help either prepare employers for this issue or deal with it on my own?**
Edit: In response to the people suggesting I try therapy again, I am certainly open to the idea, but I will give a bit more detail: I went once a week for a few years for various issues, one of which were these emotional outbursts, which I spent much time on. I have seen three different therapists, and still continue to have this issue. While I'm sure it's possible, it is not an especially attractive suggestion, and at this point a logistically straining one. I don't expect psychological help on a place meant to deal with workplace questions, but I'd ask for the sake of myself (and, in the future, any other viewers who may not be able to seek therapy for one reason or another) that this be considered.
Edit 2: In case this is relevant, I don't seem to have any issues with expressing myself, as in I don't start speaking emotionally (using inappropriate choices of words, attacking, etc), though might have issues that come with crying, such as tightening of throat or sniffles/stutters. Basically, it's just crying that's an issue, not any other emotional outbursts. | 2016/12/08 | [
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/81100",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/59561/"
] | I'm going to take a very different direction, to augment what's already been said.
I suggest you **learn about sadness** (not identical with crying, but clearly related) and shame (a possible trigger for your tears), and dive deeply into them to figure out what your crying is trying to tell you.
My own relationship with sadness changed completely with reading the work of Karla McLaren. She's the only person I've found who can tell you what your emotions are trying to do for you, and why (and HOW) to listen to them.
In brief, tears of sadness can help you release "that which is not working for you." Sadness honored leads frequently to joy. Sadness stifled leads to bad things.
If you're crying a lot more than feels right for the situation, then you may have a lot of dishonored sadness wanting to come through. (Or it might have another cause entirely.)
McLaren's guidance on dealing directly with your emotions includes a lot of excellent practices for becoming grounded and centered. When you can do that reliably, you'll cry less and for the right reasons.
To give you a sense of the depths here, read [Is it a feeling or is it an emotion?](http://karlamclaren.com/is-it-a-feeling-or-is-it-an-emotion/)
Here's Karla's [unusual and empowering take on shame and guilt](http://karlamclaren.com/embracing-guilt-and-shame/).
**Please, honor the source of your tears, whatever that turns out to be. I have a strong sense your tears are trying to tell you something important.** | So far it seems it didn't occur to anyone that what you have is most likely a genuine **disability**. And people around you should treat it that way. Just as I wouldn't ask a person in a wheelchair to climb on a step ladder and pick up a book from the hightest shelve, I wouldn't start shouting at you if you did something wrong. In both cases, I wouldn't achieve whatever I wanted to achieve.
When you have a disability, in most countries the workplace has to adapt. In your case it's not that difficult. For example, this morning you made a mistake, and the end result was that some manager shouted at you over the phone. There was no need to shout. It didn't help with the mistake one bit. So this manager has to figure out that shouting at you is pointless. |
81,100 | It sounds silly, but I've always been quick to tears. I underwent therapy to try to fix it, but really I never saw any improvement.
Recently, I was speaking with my HR manager about some personal issues I had in the office, and to my surprise I began tearing up and being unable to speak right in front of her. I was incredibly embarrassed, but she seemed at least understanding because of the subject matter.
Today I made a blunder. I tripped an alarm in the early morning and almost had police dispatched, which required me calling the same manager, waking her up, to fix it, and was chastised for it (over the phone). Immediately, I began to cry. Luckily, no one was there, but I can't help but feel like my tendency to cry is going to end up negatively impacting me in the future.
**My question: How badly will being an easy crier, especially when being chastised, hurt me in the future, and is there any way to help either prepare employers for this issue or deal with it on my own?**
Edit: In response to the people suggesting I try therapy again, I am certainly open to the idea, but I will give a bit more detail: I went once a week for a few years for various issues, one of which were these emotional outbursts, which I spent much time on. I have seen three different therapists, and still continue to have this issue. While I'm sure it's possible, it is not an especially attractive suggestion, and at this point a logistically straining one. I don't expect psychological help on a place meant to deal with workplace questions, but I'd ask for the sake of myself (and, in the future, any other viewers who may not be able to seek therapy for one reason or another) that this be considered.
Edit 2: In case this is relevant, I don't seem to have any issues with expressing myself, as in I don't start speaking emotionally (using inappropriate choices of words, attacking, etc), though might have issues that come with crying, such as tightening of throat or sniffles/stutters. Basically, it's just crying that's an issue, not any other emotional outbursts. | 2016/12/08 | [
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/81100",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/59561/"
] | >
> How badly will being an easy crier, especially when being chastised, hurt me in the future?
>
>
>
It's impossible to tell how this will impact your specific career path but generally speaking, while this *will* reflect on you in some way, as long as you manage this well you shouldn't suffer over it professionally.1
So how do you manage it? Ultimately I'll always suggest getting professional help for a problem like this. Perhaps you are simply on the extreme end of the emotional curve, but in most cases where people have trouble dealing appropriately with constructive feedback or criticism there are ways to improve your reaction. Professional help or therapy should be considered, but anything beyond that is outside the scope of this site.
Now, even if you manage to get this under control over time, you still need to handle this when it happens at work. What it comes down to is this: **receiving and processing feedback,** even when it's highly critical of your performance, **is an essential skill in the workplace.** The problem with reaction overly emotionally to such feedback is twofold:
* it may cause your manager to think that you won't be able to process the feedback because you're distracted by your emotions or because you're not recognising feedback for what it is: suggestions on how to improve your peformance
* it may lead to your manager being hesitant to give you feedback
Both are problematic for a career so you need to handle both, to do so you need to:
### Take the feedback to heart
Whether your reaction is simply a physical or whether there's also a surge of emotions that makes it harder for you to process what your manager is actually saying, you need to evaluate what was said when you've calmed down. Handling and responding to feedback is an entire subject of its own but in short:
* note the issues your manager identified
* critically reflect on how correct the feedback was or if you have concerns or explanations: it can be difficult to explain that your manager actually told you to drop Project X when you're stuck in a storm of emotions
* review what your manager suggested you do to improve
* reflect on what other things you can do to improve or prevent the problem from happening again
After that, you need to work on improving your performance and avoiding the problems that made it necessary for your manager to give you feedback. This is the single most important thing to do: your manager may think it strange that a stellar employee reacts so strongly to feedback but as long as you take that feedback to heart and use it to improve he'll love you as an employee.
### Explain
There's no easy way to do this but it has to be done. You have non-standard behaviour that could reflect poorly on you and that means it's on you to explain and manage people's reactions. The key is to be matter-of-fact about it and don't make a big deal out of it. Your explanation should hit on the following: you reacted emotionally, it may happen again in the future, but you heard what your manager said and you'll do X, Y and Z to improve or to avoid the problem from happening again.
Either do this in person after you've gotten the feedback or over mail. Only do this in person if you know you can do so without misting up again as it may be counter-productive.
At this point I'm copying some suggested scripts that Alison Green over on Ask A Manager created. The articles where they come from are suggested reading as well. If this was a rare occurrence you could say:
>
> Despite my reaction yesterday, I want you to know that I really appreciate your giving me that feedback, and it’s incredibly helpful to me to know where I should be focusing on improving. I’m a bit mortified that I got emotional about it, and hope that you’ll excuse it (and ideally wipe it from your mind forever!).
>
>
> Source: [should I apologize to my boss for crying in front of her?](http://www.askamanager.org/2013/02/should-i-apologize-to-my-boss-for-crying-in-front-of-her.html)
>
>
>
Or, specifically if you know that this is a recurring issue for you:
>
> Ugh, I have a weird reaction sometimes with criticism, but please know that it doesn’t indicate I don’t want to hear it — I actually love feedback and really value getting it. I’m working on getting the embarrassing visible reaction under control, but meanwhile I don’t want it to deter you from telling me where you think I could be doing better. I know how important that kind of feedback is to hear.
>
>
> Source: [I get embarrassingly emotional when criticized](http://www.askamanager.org/2015/07/i-get-embarrassingly-emotional-when-criticized-boss-is-yelling-at-me-for-using-my-phone-and-more.html)
>
>
>
---
1 - This applies to most, but not all, careers. If your job explicitly deals with handling or passing on feedback, such as PR or project management consulting, then you've got a much bigger problem. | So far it seems it didn't occur to anyone that what you have is most likely a genuine **disability**. And people around you should treat it that way. Just as I wouldn't ask a person in a wheelchair to climb on a step ladder and pick up a book from the hightest shelve, I wouldn't start shouting at you if you did something wrong. In both cases, I wouldn't achieve whatever I wanted to achieve.
When you have a disability, in most countries the workplace has to adapt. In your case it's not that difficult. For example, this morning you made a mistake, and the end result was that some manager shouted at you over the phone. There was no need to shout. It didn't help with the mistake one bit. So this manager has to figure out that shouting at you is pointless. |
81,100 | It sounds silly, but I've always been quick to tears. I underwent therapy to try to fix it, but really I never saw any improvement.
Recently, I was speaking with my HR manager about some personal issues I had in the office, and to my surprise I began tearing up and being unable to speak right in front of her. I was incredibly embarrassed, but she seemed at least understanding because of the subject matter.
Today I made a blunder. I tripped an alarm in the early morning and almost had police dispatched, which required me calling the same manager, waking her up, to fix it, and was chastised for it (over the phone). Immediately, I began to cry. Luckily, no one was there, but I can't help but feel like my tendency to cry is going to end up negatively impacting me in the future.
**My question: How badly will being an easy crier, especially when being chastised, hurt me in the future, and is there any way to help either prepare employers for this issue or deal with it on my own?**
Edit: In response to the people suggesting I try therapy again, I am certainly open to the idea, but I will give a bit more detail: I went once a week for a few years for various issues, one of which were these emotional outbursts, which I spent much time on. I have seen three different therapists, and still continue to have this issue. While I'm sure it's possible, it is not an especially attractive suggestion, and at this point a logistically straining one. I don't expect psychological help on a place meant to deal with workplace questions, but I'd ask for the sake of myself (and, in the future, any other viewers who may not be able to seek therapy for one reason or another) that this be considered.
Edit 2: In case this is relevant, I don't seem to have any issues with expressing myself, as in I don't start speaking emotionally (using inappropriate choices of words, attacking, etc), though might have issues that come with crying, such as tightening of throat or sniffles/stutters. Basically, it's just crying that's an issue, not any other emotional outbursts. | 2016/12/08 | [
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/81100",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/59561/"
] | I propose that you try to increase your immunity to crying triggers (crying trigger = whatever it is that makes you cry).
From what you wrote I have the impression that you don't cry always. Sometimes you do, sometimes not. If you could expand the periods without crying the problem would be solved.
The first step would be to empirically find out, what it is that makes you cry.
Second step is to train your "no-cry" muscles. Let's say that you cry, when you see symptoms of a conflict. There are many shades of conflict.
For example:
1. Right now, someone somewhere is dying from old age (conflict with an uncontrollable external force; you aren't involved).
2. Right now, someone somewhere is being killed (conflict with another person; you aren't involved).
3. Someone saying to you "Dear r19996, you could improve your skill X by doing more of Y and less of Z" (constructive criticism, you are involved).
4. Your boss saying to you "r19996, your performance on project X was below my expectations. You either improve by Y percent, or we'll fire you in Z months" (criticism with clear information about your options).
5. Same as before, but now the boss yells at you.
6. Someone telling you that you are a worthless piece of ... (purely emotional, irrational aggression).
7. Same as before, but now with yelling.
You start with the first item and try not to cry. Once you have learned to live with that kind of level (i. e. when you are exposed to it, you don't cry), you get to the next stress level. Again, you take your time and do as many attempts as possible.
That way you'll be able to understand and therefore to control your crying impulses (and if you can't, it's a medical condition like disability).
If you live in a big city, you could hire a theatre actor or student (the other person would act as your boss or whoever it is that makes you cry) so that you can train in a safe environment.
Variation of the same: Using the same approach you can develop a feeling, when you are about to cry. Let's say that a minute before crying you get an intuitive signal. In this case you can tell the other person that you have to go to the bathroom. There, you can cry, get calm, and return to the "battle scene". In all organizations I'm aware of, nobody would prevent a person from going to the toilet (even during conflicts), which allows you to take your crying to a place, where nobody sees it. | This depends on exactly why you are crying. If for example, relatively minor stimuli cause you to be disproportionately upset, then you have a very big problem that will affect your personal life as well as professional.
However, I want to address an issue I didnt see brought up in other answers. If you are not easily upset by minor problems, but rather cry even when you are not very upset, this is a very different issue. I would argue that therapy is unlikely to help in the latter case, and probably not necessary. Instead you should focus on explaining to people that you are not overly sensitive, but simply prone to crying. Of course if you are overly sensitive, then therapy is probably something you should try to get back to. |
81,100 | It sounds silly, but I've always been quick to tears. I underwent therapy to try to fix it, but really I never saw any improvement.
Recently, I was speaking with my HR manager about some personal issues I had in the office, and to my surprise I began tearing up and being unable to speak right in front of her. I was incredibly embarrassed, but she seemed at least understanding because of the subject matter.
Today I made a blunder. I tripped an alarm in the early morning and almost had police dispatched, which required me calling the same manager, waking her up, to fix it, and was chastised for it (over the phone). Immediately, I began to cry. Luckily, no one was there, but I can't help but feel like my tendency to cry is going to end up negatively impacting me in the future.
**My question: How badly will being an easy crier, especially when being chastised, hurt me in the future, and is there any way to help either prepare employers for this issue or deal with it on my own?**
Edit: In response to the people suggesting I try therapy again, I am certainly open to the idea, but I will give a bit more detail: I went once a week for a few years for various issues, one of which were these emotional outbursts, which I spent much time on. I have seen three different therapists, and still continue to have this issue. While I'm sure it's possible, it is not an especially attractive suggestion, and at this point a logistically straining one. I don't expect psychological help on a place meant to deal with workplace questions, but I'd ask for the sake of myself (and, in the future, any other viewers who may not be able to seek therapy for one reason or another) that this be considered.
Edit 2: In case this is relevant, I don't seem to have any issues with expressing myself, as in I don't start speaking emotionally (using inappropriate choices of words, attacking, etc), though might have issues that come with crying, such as tightening of throat or sniffles/stutters. Basically, it's just crying that's an issue, not any other emotional outbursts. | 2016/12/08 | [
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/81100",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/59561/"
] | It depends on how strong the crying is. If you can at least talk a bit or if you do it loudly can make a difference.
I like to see a problem this way; find a quick solution then find a long term solution. A lot of people talk about the long term solution.
It must be embarrassing for you when this happens but try to look at how it feels for the other persons. When it happens, make sure the people that were around get to know your problem. Don't let them in the dark about what just happen (this could be done later 1on1 or email). Take extra steps to display that you actually listen to the criticism "In last meeting, you said x, I did y". This will show others, through actions, that you really do care and that your crying isn't a form of defensive mechanism.
I had a similar problem where I would easily get red and sweaty. I have a lot more control over it now. Problem is, the more I expected it, the more it would happen. It would start with small reaction (I would get hot, throat would tighten up), I thought people would look at me and it got worst. After a lot of work (no therapy), when those small reaction happen, I would be able to ignore them knowing that others actually don't see them or even care. This thinking help remove the strong reactions. | So far it seems it didn't occur to anyone that what you have is most likely a genuine **disability**. And people around you should treat it that way. Just as I wouldn't ask a person in a wheelchair to climb on a step ladder and pick up a book from the hightest shelve, I wouldn't start shouting at you if you did something wrong. In both cases, I wouldn't achieve whatever I wanted to achieve.
When you have a disability, in most countries the workplace has to adapt. In your case it's not that difficult. For example, this morning you made a mistake, and the end result was that some manager shouted at you over the phone. There was no need to shout. It didn't help with the mistake one bit. So this manager has to figure out that shouting at you is pointless. |
81,100 | It sounds silly, but I've always been quick to tears. I underwent therapy to try to fix it, but really I never saw any improvement.
Recently, I was speaking with my HR manager about some personal issues I had in the office, and to my surprise I began tearing up and being unable to speak right in front of her. I was incredibly embarrassed, but she seemed at least understanding because of the subject matter.
Today I made a blunder. I tripped an alarm in the early morning and almost had police dispatched, which required me calling the same manager, waking her up, to fix it, and was chastised for it (over the phone). Immediately, I began to cry. Luckily, no one was there, but I can't help but feel like my tendency to cry is going to end up negatively impacting me in the future.
**My question: How badly will being an easy crier, especially when being chastised, hurt me in the future, and is there any way to help either prepare employers for this issue or deal with it on my own?**
Edit: In response to the people suggesting I try therapy again, I am certainly open to the idea, but I will give a bit more detail: I went once a week for a few years for various issues, one of which were these emotional outbursts, which I spent much time on. I have seen three different therapists, and still continue to have this issue. While I'm sure it's possible, it is not an especially attractive suggestion, and at this point a logistically straining one. I don't expect psychological help on a place meant to deal with workplace questions, but I'd ask for the sake of myself (and, in the future, any other viewers who may not be able to seek therapy for one reason or another) that this be considered.
Edit 2: In case this is relevant, I don't seem to have any issues with expressing myself, as in I don't start speaking emotionally (using inappropriate choices of words, attacking, etc), though might have issues that come with crying, such as tightening of throat or sniffles/stutters. Basically, it's just crying that's an issue, not any other emotional outbursts. | 2016/12/08 | [
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/questions/81100",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com",
"https://workplace.stackexchange.com/users/59561/"
] | This is definitely not expected professional behavior, even if people ought to be more understanding. I could see any number of co-workers using it against you as a reason to withhold promotions you would otherwise deserve.
Your situation - being expressive and articulate but sensitive to criticism - sounds an awful lot like [Rejection Sensitive Dysphoria](http://www.additudemag.com/adhd/article/12114.html), common to people with ADHD symptoms.
Even if you don't feel like you have any other ADD / ADHD symptoms, you might benefit from talking to a therpaist who specializes in recognizing and treating them specifically. Lots of people - especially but not exclusively women - deal with ADHD that doesn't express itself in stereotypical ways. This kind of rejection sensitivity is one of them. | I'm going to take a very different direction, to augment what's already been said.
I suggest you **learn about sadness** (not identical with crying, but clearly related) and shame (a possible trigger for your tears), and dive deeply into them to figure out what your crying is trying to tell you.
My own relationship with sadness changed completely with reading the work of Karla McLaren. She's the only person I've found who can tell you what your emotions are trying to do for you, and why (and HOW) to listen to them.
In brief, tears of sadness can help you release "that which is not working for you." Sadness honored leads frequently to joy. Sadness stifled leads to bad things.
If you're crying a lot more than feels right for the situation, then you may have a lot of dishonored sadness wanting to come through. (Or it might have another cause entirely.)
McLaren's guidance on dealing directly with your emotions includes a lot of excellent practices for becoming grounded and centered. When you can do that reliably, you'll cry less and for the right reasons.
To give you a sense of the depths here, read [Is it a feeling or is it an emotion?](http://karlamclaren.com/is-it-a-feeling-or-is-it-an-emotion/)
Here's Karla's [unusual and empowering take on shame and guilt](http://karlamclaren.com/embracing-guilt-and-shame/).
**Please, honor the source of your tears, whatever that turns out to be. I have a strong sense your tears are trying to tell you something important.** |
131,204 | How can we think about entropy in these situations? To my knowledge all of these structures are born out of gravitational interaction. However, it would seem that the formation of these more organized structures conceptually violates the second law of thermodynamics. Is this dilemma arisen from my flawed understanding of thermodynamics or are these structures actually in a way defying an increase in entropy? | 2014/08/15 | [
"https://physics.stackexchange.com/questions/131204",
"https://physics.stackexchange.com",
"https://physics.stackexchange.com/users/55310/"
] | John Baez has a nice [article on his website](http://math.ucr.edu/home/baez/entropy.html) that goes into some detail on this question.
Broadly, your intuition is right that at face value, it looks like structured systems are born out of nearly featureless initial conditions. However, as (for instance) a gas cloud collapses into a galaxy, it heats up (see [the virial theorem](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Virial_theorem), a theorem any self-respecting physicist should derive at least once). As it heats up, it radiates, and comparing the entropy of the initial cloud and that of the collapsed cloud and the emitted radiation, you'll find that entropy has *increased* overall, and the second law is safe. | The second law of thermodynamics is simply the definition of temperature. How does life, in your opinion, negate the existence of a thermodynamic temperature scale? |
131,204 | How can we think about entropy in these situations? To my knowledge all of these structures are born out of gravitational interaction. However, it would seem that the formation of these more organized structures conceptually violates the second law of thermodynamics. Is this dilemma arisen from my flawed understanding of thermodynamics or are these structures actually in a way defying an increase in entropy? | 2014/08/15 | [
"https://physics.stackexchange.com/questions/131204",
"https://physics.stackexchange.com",
"https://physics.stackexchange.com/users/55310/"
] | John Baez has a nice [article on his website](http://math.ucr.edu/home/baez/entropy.html) that goes into some detail on this question.
Broadly, your intuition is right that at face value, it looks like structured systems are born out of nearly featureless initial conditions. However, as (for instance) a gas cloud collapses into a galaxy, it heats up (see [the virial theorem](http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Virial_theorem), a theorem any self-respecting physicist should derive at least once). As it heats up, it radiates, and comparing the entropy of the initial cloud and that of the collapsed cloud and the emitted radiation, you'll find that entropy has *increased* overall, and the second law is safe. | A living organism is a very complex biological machine that seems to defy the laws of thermodynamics. The number of states a piece of matter forming a machine can be in in vastly less than if that piece of matter were in thermal and chemical equilibrium at ambient conditions. This means that machines cannot function for long if they can only interact with an environment that is at thermal equilibrium. Random perturbations caused by the environment will on the long run compromise the machine and will need to be reversed by the machine. However, the laws of physics do not allow the machine to implement an algorithm that can erase random information from the environment.
Time evolution is a unitary mapping which will always map two different initial states to two different final states. The final state then always contains the information about the initial state. To erase information you would need to be able to map two different initial states to the same final state, then the final state would no longer contain the information about which initial state gave rise to it. But this is a forbidden process. So, how can living organisms exist at all?
One can deal with this problem if the machine is able to make contact with another environment from which it can extract energy at a lower entropy than from its local environment that is causing the perturbations that it needs to reverse. In case of life on Earth, that environment is the surface of the Sun, photons from the Sun have a very low entropy per unit energy compared to energy from the local environment here on Earth. These photons (or other energy forms derived from them) can be used to reverse the perturbations by dumping any waste energy from the low entropy source into the local environment.
Even though the number of final machine states is then less than the number of initial perturbed machine states, the total number of states including the states the photons can then increase. A one to one mapping between initial and final states is then no longer incompatible with the machine than can reverse perturbations and return from a larger set of perturbed states to a smaller set of states. |
131,204 | How can we think about entropy in these situations? To my knowledge all of these structures are born out of gravitational interaction. However, it would seem that the formation of these more organized structures conceptually violates the second law of thermodynamics. Is this dilemma arisen from my flawed understanding of thermodynamics or are these structures actually in a way defying an increase in entropy? | 2014/08/15 | [
"https://physics.stackexchange.com/questions/131204",
"https://physics.stackexchange.com",
"https://physics.stackexchange.com/users/55310/"
] | A living organism is a very complex biological machine that seems to defy the laws of thermodynamics. The number of states a piece of matter forming a machine can be in in vastly less than if that piece of matter were in thermal and chemical equilibrium at ambient conditions. This means that machines cannot function for long if they can only interact with an environment that is at thermal equilibrium. Random perturbations caused by the environment will on the long run compromise the machine and will need to be reversed by the machine. However, the laws of physics do not allow the machine to implement an algorithm that can erase random information from the environment.
Time evolution is a unitary mapping which will always map two different initial states to two different final states. The final state then always contains the information about the initial state. To erase information you would need to be able to map two different initial states to the same final state, then the final state would no longer contain the information about which initial state gave rise to it. But this is a forbidden process. So, how can living organisms exist at all?
One can deal with this problem if the machine is able to make contact with another environment from which it can extract energy at a lower entropy than from its local environment that is causing the perturbations that it needs to reverse. In case of life on Earth, that environment is the surface of the Sun, photons from the Sun have a very low entropy per unit energy compared to energy from the local environment here on Earth. These photons (or other energy forms derived from them) can be used to reverse the perturbations by dumping any waste energy from the low entropy source into the local environment.
Even though the number of final machine states is then less than the number of initial perturbed machine states, the total number of states including the states the photons can then increase. A one to one mapping between initial and final states is then no longer incompatible with the machine than can reverse perturbations and return from a larger set of perturbed states to a smaller set of states. | The second law of thermodynamics is simply the definition of temperature. How does life, in your opinion, negate the existence of a thermodynamic temperature scale? |
98,641 | I accidentally saw Nikon 17-35mm f/2.8 lens and noted that it is rather large for its focal length. Here's [the first review of this lens search offered](https://kenrockwell.com/nikon/1735.htm) - looks like it's 107 millimeters long. Given its focal length of up to 35 millimeters I would expect it to be more like a pancake lens but 107 millimeters is very far from pancake lens.
I guess there're some design reasons for that.
Why is this lens so long given it's rather short focal lengths? | 2018/05/11 | [
"https://photo.stackexchange.com/questions/98641",
"https://photo.stackexchange.com",
"https://photo.stackexchange.com/users/14040/"
] | The focal length of the camera lens defines its fundamental property. We are talking about such things as angular field of view, relative aperture, depth of field and depth of focus. It is customary to fit lenses to cameras that have a focal length approximately equal to the diagonal measure of the format. Such a lash-up delivers a “normal” angle of view. If the lens mounted is shorter than the diagonal, the angle of view will be wide-angle.
This Nikon 17-35mm is designed to fit on a compact digital (DX) with a format that measures 16mm height by 24mm length. The corner to corner measure of this rectangle is approximately 30mm. In other words, a 30mm on your camera delivers a “normal” view.
The focal length of a lens is a measurement taken when the lens is focused on a far distant subject. We measure from a point called the rear nodal to the focused image which will be the surface of the image sensor. When a wide-angle lens is mounted such as this this one, set to 17mm, the rear nodal must be positioned 17mm from the imaging chip. This is a super short distance, only about ¾ inch.
Such a close lens positioning is virtually impossible, not enough room for lens barrel, glass, mount, aperture and other stuff. What to do? The optician must shift the rear nodal more to the rear. Normally it would fall somewhere within the lens barrel. This shift can be extreme, it could be made to fall in the air behind the lens. This design elongates the back focus distance; now there is room for everything. This is accomplished by inserting several lens elements, some with positive power and some with negative power. The correct combination resembles an inverted telephoto. This is known as a retro-focus lens. Such a lash-up is how you get a 17-35mm zoom to fit on a DX camera. | There seems to be a fundamental miss understanding that some how the focal length of a lens represents its physical length.
The focal length of a lens refers to the distance it sees or its field of view and is not a reference to its physical size. Although a longer focal length telephoto is physically longer then a shorter focal length lens, the physical length of the lens is not equal to the focal distance number. I.E. a 400 mm lens is not physically 400 mm long. How does one "accidentally" see a lens? |
98,641 | I accidentally saw Nikon 17-35mm f/2.8 lens and noted that it is rather large for its focal length. Here's [the first review of this lens search offered](https://kenrockwell.com/nikon/1735.htm) - looks like it's 107 millimeters long. Given its focal length of up to 35 millimeters I would expect it to be more like a pancake lens but 107 millimeters is very far from pancake lens.
I guess there're some design reasons for that.
Why is this lens so long given it's rather short focal lengths? | 2018/05/11 | [
"https://photo.stackexchange.com/questions/98641",
"https://photo.stackexchange.com",
"https://photo.stackexchange.com/users/14040/"
] | There are different optical designs. From [Wikipedia](http://%20A%20collection%20of%20telephoto%20lenses%20In%20photography%20and%20cinematography,%20a%20telephoto%20lens%20is%20a%20specific%20type%20of%20a%20long-focus%20lens%20in%20which%20the%20physical%20length%20of%20the%20lens%20is%20shorter%20than%20the%20focal%20length.[1]):
>
> a telephoto lens is a specific type of a long-focus lens in which the
> physical length of the lens is shorter than the focal length.
>
>
>
What you are seeing is the reverse though which is a retro-focus design, also from [Wikipedia](http://The%20retrofocus%20lens%20solves%20this%20proximity%20problem%20through%20an%20asymmetrical%20design%20that%20allows%20the%20rear%20element%20to%20be%20farther%20away%20from%20the%20film%20plane%20than%20its%20effective%20focal%20length%20would%20suggest.):
>
> The retrofocus lens solves this proximity problem through an
> asymmetrical design that allows the rear element to be farther away
> from the film plane than its effective focal length would suggest.
>
>
>
This amounts to having a design where a reversed telephoto lens is placed at the back of elements to allow a wide-angle lens to be built for a large sensor. | There seems to be a fundamental miss understanding that some how the focal length of a lens represents its physical length.
The focal length of a lens refers to the distance it sees or its field of view and is not a reference to its physical size. Although a longer focal length telephoto is physically longer then a shorter focal length lens, the physical length of the lens is not equal to the focal distance number. I.E. a 400 mm lens is not physically 400 mm long. How does one "accidentally" see a lens? |
144,116 | What is the term that describes a financial product where an investor makes fixed regular payments during X years, and in return receives a big lump sum at the end of those X years?
* This is opposite to an annuity. In an annuity, the investor puts up a lump sum (or periodic payments during the accumulation phase), and receives small regular payments thereafter.
* This is similar to life insurance, except that the receipt of the lump sum is not tied to death. | 2021/08/07 | [
"https://money.stackexchange.com/questions/144116",
"https://money.stackexchange.com",
"https://money.stackexchange.com/users/20480/"
] | You're describing a [deferred annuity](https://www.thrivent.com/posts/annuities/the-4-types-of-annuities-which-is-right-for-you.html)
>
> Deferred annuities provide guaranteed income in the form of a lump sum
> or monthly income payments on a date in the future. You pay a lump sum
> or monthly premiums to the insurer, who will then invest them into the
> growth type you agreed on – fixed, variable or index
>
>
>
If you pay the insurance company a lump sum and get regular payments in return, as you describe in the question, that's an immediate annuity. If you pay the insurance company a series of monthly payments and get a lump sum at the end, that's a deferred annuity.
Be aware that deferred annuities aren't great investment options for the vast majority of people. If you aren't, for example, maxing out your retirement plan contributions, you would definitely not want to invest in a deferred annuity. The insurance companies are going to layer on a bunch of fees particularly if you want the ability to get some of the market's upside potential while also having a guaranteed minimum accumulation benefit (GMAB) in the event the market goes down. The insurance salesman that will pitch annuities to you will make a pretty fat commission on the deal because the insurance company expects to make a substantial profit on the deal. | Two possibilities:
In small scale personal finance we have a ***Christmas Club***. The participant makes regular payments throughout the year, and gets the accumulated balance in time for shopping. Today, credit cards allow one to reverse the order of spending and saving...
In larger scale business financing, we have the ***sinking fund***. A business realizes that, say, its fleet of delivery vans will need to be replaced in five years. So it starts setting aside funds to invest to accumulate, with interest, the expected cost of the fleet purchase five years hence. |
586,798 | I am designing a PCB layout using the [SIC438AED-T1-GE3 buck converter](https://gr.mouser.com/datasheet/2/427/VISH_S_A0011110825_1-2571940.pdf). I am trying to understand what voltage the 'PHASE' pin will have, as it needs a capacitor like this:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/SY6Bj.png)
I need to know the voltage rating of the capacitor I will use.
Based on the datasheet:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/EOKuw.png)
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/t9CGM.png)
It is a return path, but it can also have a voltage up to 35V -aka my input voltage- (what is this AC labeling here?) What will the BOOT pin's voltage be? According to the datasheet it is up to 6V:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/qIEor.png)
I guess since I will be powering it to 24V, this capacitor should have at least 24V rating. (I will give the IC 24V input (to Vin) and I will need an output of about 12V (I will be driving a halogen lamp at constant current.)
Of course there is a similar question [here](https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/401597/what-should-be-the-voltage-rating-of-bootstrap-capacitor) and it says I should use a capacitor with a rating of my output voltage, not the input, but I wanted to be sure, since the datasheet says up to 35V, and not up to Vin. | 2021/09/15 | [
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/questions/586798",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com",
"https://electronics.stackexchange.com/users/252145/"
] | To answer your question, let's first look at the block diagram:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/hUzHQ.png)
Initially, when the top NMOS is off and the bottom NMOS is on, since the bottom end of the bootstrap capacitor is connected to the SW node (PH and SW node are the same) thus to the GND, CBOOT charges up to VIN. Therefore the voltage at the BOOT node will be VIN w.r.t. GND.
Then, when the NMOS switches reverse their states, the SW node will see VIN (because the top NMOS is on). With the help of the voltage across CBOOT (= VIN, from the previous state), the voltage at the BOOT node will be 2 x VIN.
So, we can say that that the voltage at the BOOT pin switches between VIN and 2 x VIN. Therefore, the maximum voltage across CBOOT will be VIN.
Please note that you should consider the maximum input voltage plus some margin (e.g. 15-25%) when selecting a bootstrap capacitor as the rated voltage may change with the frequency. | Depending on what kind of transient current your circuit needs for that bootstrapping...
* (Under 10mA) A jellybean ceramic capacitor would work fine. The unmarked ones have a 50V rating.
* (100mA +) you could use a 36V electrolytic (a very common value) as long as the negative transient between the two pins isn't going to exceed 5% of the caps rating. Or you could use a 50V electrolytic and call it a day. 50V at 100uF would probably do fine. |
44,668 | Is there a way for me to take my current PC and transfer it to a VM running on the same machine or another machine?
I am currently running Windows XP. | 2009/09/21 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/44668",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/-1/"
] | You are looking for something called P2V (physical to virtual) most VM solutions have it. But you will get better responses on server fault. | You don't mention which VM you're using, but I've had some success using the [VMware P2V Assistant](http://www.vmware.com/download/p2v/). I have had a few HAL issues trying to boot (BSOD) images generated from P2V, but they can usually be resolved by removing most 3rd party drivers and replacing HAL.DLL and NTOSKRNL.DLL |
44,668 | Is there a way for me to take my current PC and transfer it to a VM running on the same machine or another machine?
I am currently running Windows XP. | 2009/09/21 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/44668",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/-1/"
] | When using VMWare, there's a tool called [VMWare Converter](http://www.vmware.com/products/converter/) that can make a VM image out of your machine. | You are looking for something called P2V (physical to virtual) most VM solutions have it. But you will get better responses on server fault. |
44,668 | Is there a way for me to take my current PC and transfer it to a VM running on the same machine or another machine?
I am currently running Windows XP. | 2009/09/21 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/44668",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/-1/"
] | [XenConvert](http://www.citrix.com/contentproblem.asp?url=%2Fenglish%2Fss%2Fdownloads%2Fdetails%2Easp&qs=downloadId%3D1855017%26productId%3D683148) did an amazing job on converting out SVN\Build server to a vhd, and its free! | You don't mention which VM you're using, but I've had some success using the [VMware P2V Assistant](http://www.vmware.com/download/p2v/). I have had a few HAL issues trying to boot (BSOD) images generated from P2V, but they can usually be resolved by removing most 3rd party drivers and replacing HAL.DLL and NTOSKRNL.DLL |
44,668 | Is there a way for me to take my current PC and transfer it to a VM running on the same machine or another machine?
I am currently running Windows XP. | 2009/09/21 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/44668",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/-1/"
] | When using VMWare, there's a tool called [VMWare Converter](http://www.vmware.com/products/converter/) that can make a VM image out of your machine. | You don't mention which VM you're using, but I've had some success using the [VMware P2V Assistant](http://www.vmware.com/download/p2v/). I have had a few HAL issues trying to boot (BSOD) images generated from P2V, but they can usually be resolved by removing most 3rd party drivers and replacing HAL.DLL and NTOSKRNL.DLL |
44,668 | Is there a way for me to take my current PC and transfer it to a VM running on the same machine or another machine?
I am currently running Windows XP. | 2009/09/21 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/44668",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/-1/"
] | <http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/sysinternals/ee656415.aspx> has a tool for converting a physical machine to virtual. Sysinternals has some good tools and you can try it for free, so not much to lose | You don't mention which VM you're using, but I've had some success using the [VMware P2V Assistant](http://www.vmware.com/download/p2v/). I have had a few HAL issues trying to boot (BSOD) images generated from P2V, but they can usually be resolved by removing most 3rd party drivers and replacing HAL.DLL and NTOSKRNL.DLL |
44,668 | Is there a way for me to take my current PC and transfer it to a VM running on the same machine or another machine?
I am currently running Windows XP. | 2009/09/21 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/44668",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/-1/"
] | When using VMWare, there's a tool called [VMWare Converter](http://www.vmware.com/products/converter/) that can make a VM image out of your machine. | [XenConvert](http://www.citrix.com/contentproblem.asp?url=%2Fenglish%2Fss%2Fdownloads%2Fdetails%2Easp&qs=downloadId%3D1855017%26productId%3D683148) did an amazing job on converting out SVN\Build server to a vhd, and its free! |
44,668 | Is there a way for me to take my current PC and transfer it to a VM running on the same machine or another machine?
I am currently running Windows XP. | 2009/09/21 | [
"https://superuser.com/questions/44668",
"https://superuser.com",
"https://superuser.com/users/-1/"
] | When using VMWare, there's a tool called [VMWare Converter](http://www.vmware.com/products/converter/) that can make a VM image out of your machine. | <http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/sysinternals/ee656415.aspx> has a tool for converting a physical machine to virtual. Sysinternals has some good tools and you can try it for free, so not much to lose |
89,996 | The (in)famous Cap d'Agde is probably [the most renowned nudist village](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Cap_d%27Agde) in Europe. There it is not only possible to roast your whole body in the sun, but you can actually go shopping naked, in fact it is allowed to be naked (almost) everywhere inside the resort.
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/vBaWr.jpg)
Fun fact: the place is a swingers magnet. Needless to say, the place is expensive as hell.
Is there any place like that anywhere in the world? To qualify as "like that", I would like to know if another place exists where:
* Nudity is allowed
* Nudity is allowed (almost) anywhere inside the village
* The resort can be seasonal
* The resort is near or at a touristic location (seaside, mountians, city... just not lost in the land)
* The resort should be "village-sized", not just a camping
* BONUS (optional): swingers are allowed | 2017/03/17 | [
"https://travel.stackexchange.com/questions/89996",
"https://travel.stackexchange.com",
"https://travel.stackexchange.com/users/31106/"
] | One venue to consider is [Burning Man](http://www.burningman.org), an annual festival in the Black Rock Desert in Nevada, USA. It is pretty remote, so it might qualify as "lost in the land", but it certainly fulfills most of your criteria.
Nudity is permitted and common at Burning Man (though far from obligatory). Crossdressing is also allowed, as is wearing bizarre costumes. | Depends on what you call an alternative...
There are quite a few naturist camp grounds and resorts with (some) facilities, usually a small grocery store/supermarket, a swimming pool and/or sauna, and a restaurant/snackbar.
But I'm not aware of anything on the same scale.
In the Netherlands there's Flevonatuur near Zeewolde for example that has some bungalows and tents for rent as well as places to put down your own tent.
A specialist naturist tour operator (yes, they do exist) should be able to find something for you, and naturist organisations in general often have lists of facilities in their area of operation available.
But do remember that most naturist places don't want to have the swinger and free sex crowd that cap d'Agde is infamous for. |
206,925 | How can I recreate the look of old topographic maps that used thin lines to show bodies of water? I looked in the fill options and the closest I could find is shape-burst fill, but it uses a color gradient instead of lines.
This image shows the effect I am trying to create:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/4r6ck.jpg)
Image source [Wikipedia Commons](https://commons.wikimedia.org/wiki/File:1908*_Edgartown_Light_area_USGS_Topo_Map.png)
I think the name of this style is called "water-lining", and was used because lithographic plates could not print solid areas of color.
Is there a way to create this style in QGIS? | 2016/08/13 | [
"https://gis.stackexchange.com/questions/206925",
"https://gis.stackexchange.com",
"https://gis.stackexchange.com/users/27911/"
] | I think this tutorial will be helpful:
[Vintage maps with Qgis](http://www.digital-geography.com/more-designing-tips-for-vintage-maps-in-qgis/#.V6-erCh97Dc)
Steps:
1. You have to create multiple buffers from coastline (with value in table corresponding with distance from the coast)
2. Merge all buffers into one shapefile. You'll have many lines with distance from coastline value in one shp.
3. Now You'll be able to manipulate this shapefile in the way You want to. QGIS has many interesting options in STYLE tab | Instead of creating buffers separately you can do this all dynamically with symbols alone.
You just need to add multiple symbol layers for the fill style. Set each to a "simple line" outline style, so that only the polygon border is drawn (ie, no fill). Then, use the "offset" option to progressively offset the outline out from the coast, so one symbol layer will have an offset of say 2mm, the next has an offset of 4mm, etc. It's a nice touch to make the lines either lighter or more transparent the greater this offset is. |
113,646 | I need a mechanism/organism similar to rust and virus, that will both impair the ship's components AND will kill crew, so the only thing left are a few lucky survivors on a crippled ship. Presumably the hull is breached by a tiny comet containing the mechanism.
For the component damage, maybe it just attacks wiring or some electronic components (affect only copper, silicon, semiconductors etc) or certain structural elements (affects only aluminum, carbon-fibre, rubber, etc) | 2018/05/30 | [
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/113646",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/users/32913/"
] | I'll suggest [FOOF](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dioxygen_difluoride) and then back away very quickly. That stuff is so dangerous I don't even like to *read* about it for fear of getting burned, I don't know if it can occur in nature easily enough that a ship could get hit with it but if it did any survivors would be very lucky indeed. That is to say it does occur in nature but not very often to my knowledge. It is pretty indiscriminate though so if you want to realistically cripple non-contiguous systems with it you'd need multiple tiny point sources rather than one big one. | Humans like to live in an oxidizing environment. Oxygen oxidizes a lot of things and released energy when it does. Humans and other aerobic life forms capitalize on this to get energy.
**You want a life form that can oxidize anything oxidizable.**
We have life forms on earth that can oxidize many things, including iron and just about every component of a living organism. Organisms can oxidize petrochemicals. I cannot think of anything that oxidizes metallic aluminum probably because it does not occur naturally but one could imagine a metabolism like that. Oxidation is a good platform for energy metabolism.
Your organisms are alien microbes that oxidize anything not already maximally oxidized: any metal with an oxide, any carbon except CO2. They are biologically unusual enough that they do not provoke a very robust immune response from humans. They are slow but they are tenacious. In an anaerobic environment they go dormant and wait.
For humans, slow oxidation would be a bad way to go. |
113,646 | I need a mechanism/organism similar to rust and virus, that will both impair the ship's components AND will kill crew, so the only thing left are a few lucky survivors on a crippled ship. Presumably the hull is breached by a tiny comet containing the mechanism.
For the component damage, maybe it just attacks wiring or some electronic components (affect only copper, silicon, semiconductors etc) or certain structural elements (affects only aluminum, carbon-fibre, rubber, etc) | 2018/05/30 | [
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/113646",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/users/32913/"
] | I'll suggest [FOOF](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dioxygen_difluoride) and then back away very quickly. That stuff is so dangerous I don't even like to *read* about it for fear of getting burned, I don't know if it can occur in nature easily enough that a ship could get hit with it but if it did any survivors would be very lucky indeed. That is to say it does occur in nature but not very often to my knowledge. It is pretty indiscriminate though so if you want to realistically cripple non-contiguous systems with it you'd need multiple tiny point sources rather than one big one. | [Strangelets](https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/a/52154/21222).
A strangelet is a subatomic particle that converts other subatomic particles into more strangelets. This is theoretical, but the theory has it that such a thing would grow like a katamari.
From [Wikipedia](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Strangelet#Dangers):
>
> If the strange matter hypothesis is incorrect and its surface tension is larger than the aforementioned critical value, then a larger strangelet would be more stable than a smaller one. One speculation that has resulted from the idea is that a strangelet coming into contact with a lump of ordinary matter could convert the ordinary matter to strange matter. This "ice-nine"-like disaster scenario is as follows: one strangelet hits a nucleus, catalyzing its immediate conversion to strange matter. This liberates energy, producing a larger, more stable strangelet, which in turn hits another nucleus, catalyzing its conversion to strange matter. **In the end, all the nuclei of all the atoms of Earth are converted, and Earth is reduced to a hot, large lump of strange matter.**
>
>
>
I could never find online the rate of conversion... But you could tailor it to your worldbuilding needs. Anyway, when a ship gets hit by a strangelet it is only a matter of time until it completely dissolves, and the only way to survive is to get out of the ship while you can. |
113,646 | I need a mechanism/organism similar to rust and virus, that will both impair the ship's components AND will kill crew, so the only thing left are a few lucky survivors on a crippled ship. Presumably the hull is breached by a tiny comet containing the mechanism.
For the component damage, maybe it just attacks wiring or some electronic components (affect only copper, silicon, semiconductors etc) or certain structural elements (affects only aluminum, carbon-fibre, rubber, etc) | 2018/05/30 | [
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/113646",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/users/32913/"
] | [Strangelets](https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/a/52154/21222).
A strangelet is a subatomic particle that converts other subatomic particles into more strangelets. This is theoretical, but the theory has it that such a thing would grow like a katamari.
From [Wikipedia](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Strangelet#Dangers):
>
> If the strange matter hypothesis is incorrect and its surface tension is larger than the aforementioned critical value, then a larger strangelet would be more stable than a smaller one. One speculation that has resulted from the idea is that a strangelet coming into contact with a lump of ordinary matter could convert the ordinary matter to strange matter. This "ice-nine"-like disaster scenario is as follows: one strangelet hits a nucleus, catalyzing its immediate conversion to strange matter. This liberates energy, producing a larger, more stable strangelet, which in turn hits another nucleus, catalyzing its conversion to strange matter. **In the end, all the nuclei of all the atoms of Earth are converted, and Earth is reduced to a hot, large lump of strange matter.**
>
>
>
I could never find online the rate of conversion... But you could tailor it to your worldbuilding needs. Anyway, when a ship gets hit by a strangelet it is only a matter of time until it completely dissolves, and the only way to survive is to get out of the ship while you can. | Humans like to live in an oxidizing environment. Oxygen oxidizes a lot of things and released energy when it does. Humans and other aerobic life forms capitalize on this to get energy.
**You want a life form that can oxidize anything oxidizable.**
We have life forms on earth that can oxidize many things, including iron and just about every component of a living organism. Organisms can oxidize petrochemicals. I cannot think of anything that oxidizes metallic aluminum probably because it does not occur naturally but one could imagine a metabolism like that. Oxidation is a good platform for energy metabolism.
Your organisms are alien microbes that oxidize anything not already maximally oxidized: any metal with an oxide, any carbon except CO2. They are biologically unusual enough that they do not provoke a very robust immune response from humans. They are slow but they are tenacious. In an anaerobic environment they go dormant and wait.
For humans, slow oxidation would be a bad way to go. |
8,684,541 | Is there a convenient way to generate code from any new view controllers I've created on the storyboard? For example when you create a new iOS application, XCode will set up a skeleton class for your view controller.
Thanks! | 2011/12/30 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/8684541",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/380414/"
] | I don't think so. You need to create a new ViewController subclass in XCode but uncheck the "Create Xib for this class" box (not sure if that is exactly what it says). Then select your newly made view controller in storyboard and change it to the class you just created. | Ok the skeleton you are talking about is just a template for your application. You are asking for a dynamic template generator from your storyboard and maybe Apple can figure out how to do this in a non distant future but in this moment I think you can't do that. After you created the storyboard file with your complex scheme you need to manually create all your viewController subclass you used in the storyboard. It's not a big deal ... I suppose your application doesn't have thousand ViewController so you can do it manually.
Apple are working hard to simplify developers job but Xcode can't do everything for you.
You can try to post this answer directly to Apple throughout the bugreport Apple website and post it as improvement to implement in future Xcode release.
Lets try it :) |
182,270 | I have found it in this [video](https://youtu.be/MZkFDnDoIf4). It is at 4 minute and 51 second. Here is the context:
>
> The brain doesn't atrophy because the brain is the most important organ **as far as we are concerned with** survival.
>
>
>
I am aware that the phrase *as far as someone is concerned* means to in someone's opinion. But the preposition *with*. It seems to me it has a diffetent meaning I cannot find in dictionaries. | 2018/10/11 | [
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/questions/182270",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com",
"https://ell.stackexchange.com/users/60696/"
] | It's an odd, overly wordy, and possibly redundant phrase that makes more sense when you recognize it's a narrator speaking off the top of his head, not from a prepared script. It's a compound of two ideas:
>
> The brain is the most important organ
>
>
> The brain is required for survival (in terms of hunting ability, etc.)
>
>
>
The speaker awkwardly combined these with the phrase "as far as we are concerned with" when he could have just used "for".
>
> The brain is the most important organ **for** survival [because of ...]
>
>
>
Or simply:
>
> The brain is the most important organ [because of ...]
>
>
> | Consider the statement "The brain is the most important organ" and the phrase "as far as we are concerned". Combine the two and you get the sentence "The brain is the most important organ as far as we are concerned." This sentence is correct, but it is also very general.
The word "with" is used to connect the word "survival" to this sentence. Doing so adds a detail that makes the sentence more specific: it is not just that the brain is the most important, but that the brain is specifically the most important with survival.
Other words such as "for", "to", "regarding", or even phrases like "in regards to" can be used to do the same thing as "with". |
992,675 | I've been scratching my head for the past few days, trying to come up with a solution for the following problem:
In our data center we have a F5 running on BigIP hardware that acts as a single ingress point for HTTPS requests from client machines in various office locations across the country. F5 terminates TLS and then forwards all requests to two Traefik load balancers, which route distribute the requests to the various service instances (Traefik nodes are running in Docker on Red Hat Enterprise but I believe that is irrelevant for my problem). From a throughput, CPU and memory point of view, those three network components are more than capable to handle the amount of requests and traffic with plenty of capacity to spare.
However, we noticed frequent 1000ms delays in HTTP(S) requests that clients make, particularly during high-load times. We tracked the problem to the following root cause:
* During high-load times, the F5 "client" initiates new TCP connections to the Traefik "server" nodes at a high frequency (possibly 100+ per second).
* Those connections are terminated on the Traefik "server" side when the HTTP responses have been returned.
* Each closed connection remains in a TIME\_WAIT state for 60 seconds on the Traefik host.
* When the F5 initiates a new connection, it randomly chooses an available port from its ephemeral port range.
* Sometimes (often during high load), there is a already a connection in Traefik in TIME\_WAIT state with the same source IP + port, destination IP + port combination. When this happens, the TCP stack (?) on the Traefik host ignores the first SYN packet. Note: [RFC 6056](https://www.rfc-editor.org/rfc/rfc6056#page-6) calls this *collision of instance-ids*.
* After 1000ms the retransmission timeout (RTO) mechanism kicks in on the F5 and resends the SYN packet. This time the Traefik host accepts the connection and completes the request correctly.
Obviously, those 1000ms delays are absolutely unacceptable. So we have considered the following solutions so far:
1. Reduce the RTO in F5 to retransmit faster, e.g. to 200ms.
2. Reduce net.ipv4.tcp\_fin\_timeout to close **abandoned** ~~TIME\_WAIT~~ connections faster.
***Update:** This only applies to connections abandoned by the other side, when no FIN is returned. It does not have any effect on connections in TIME\_WAIT state.*
3. Enable net.ipv4.tcp\_tw\_reuse: Useless for incoming connections.
4. Enable net.ipv4.tcp\_tw\_recycle: AFAIK contra-indicated if client sends randomized TCP timestamps. Contradicting information (incl. empirical evidence) whether this feature was removed from Linux or not. Also, generally recommended NOT to mess with.
5. Add more source IPs and/or make Traefik listen on multiple ports to increase # of permutations in IP/port tuples.
I'll discard #1 because that's just a band-aid. Delays still occur, just a little less noticable. #3 wouldn't have any effect anyway, #4 would most likely render the system non-functional. That leaves ~~#2~~ and #5.
But based on what I learned after reading through dozens of posts and technical articles, both of them will ultimately only **reduce** the chance of those "collisions". Because, what ultimately prevents the sending side, F5, to (pseudo)randomly choose a combination of ephemeral port, source IP and target port that still exists in TIME\_WAIT state on the targeted Traefik host, regardless of how short the fin\_timeout setting is (which should stay in the many sec range anyway)? We would only reduce the possibility of collisions, not eliminate it.
After all my research and in times of gigantic web applications, it really surprises me that this problem is not more discussed on the web (and solutions available). I'd really appreciate your thoughts and ideas on whether there is a better, more systematic solution in TCP land that will drive the occurrence of collisions near zero. I'm thinking along the lines of a TCP configuration that will allow the Traefik host to immediately accept a new connection despite an old connection being in TIME\_WAIT state. But as of now, no luck in finding that.
Random thoughts and points:
* At this point it is not feasible to change our various in-house applications to use longer-running HTTP(S) connections to reduce the number of requests/connections per second.
* The network architecture of F5 and Traefik is not up for discussion, cannot be changed.
* I recently investigated the ephemeral port selection on Windows clients. That algorithm seems to be sequential, not random. Maximizes time until port is reused, reduces security.
* During load tests on an otherwise idle system, we generated ~100 HTTP requests/connections per second. The first collisions occurred already after a few seconds (say before 2000 requests total), even though the F5 is configured to use more than 60k ephemeral ports. I assume this is due to the pseudo-random nature of the port selection algorithm, which seems to do a fairly poor job of avoiding instance-id collisions.
* The fact that the Traefik host accepts the TCP connection on SYN packet retransmission is probably a **feature** of the TCP implementation. RFC6056 speaks of *TIME\_WAIT assassination*, which might be related to this.
***Update**: Per [The Star Experiment](https://drupal.star.bnl.gov/STAR/blog-entry/jeromel/2009/feb/18/tcp-parameters-linux-kernel), the net.ipv4.tcp\_fin\_timeout setting does NOT affect the TIME\_WAIT state, only the FIN\_WAIT\_2 state. And per [Samir Jafferali](https://www.samir.ca/2010/12/01/tcp_fin_timeout-doesnt-control-time_wait.html), on Linux systems (incl. our Red Hat Linux) the TIME\_WAIT period is hardcoded in the source code and cannot be configured. On BSD according to the source it is configurable but I haven't verified this.* | 2019/11/21 | [
"https://serverfault.com/questions/992675",
"https://serverfault.com",
"https://serverfault.com/users/497197/"
] | >
> In our data center we have an F5 running on BigIP hardware that acts *as **single** ingress point* for HTTPS requests *from client machines in our various office locations across the country*.
>
>
>
If this single point (front-end) remains single when it passes connections down to back-end why are you wondering about the hiccups? Specially if intensity of connections is "possibly 100+ per second".
Your setup is basically squeezing one set with higher cardinality into another one with cardinality significantly lower.
>
> ultimately only reduce the chance of those "collisions"
>
>
>
This is put into basis of how packet switched networks work. Say, on Ethernet level there're collisions too. Randomness is inevitable and TCP/IP is dealing with it. The IP protocol itself was built not with LANs in mind, actually (but still works great there too).
So yes "Add more source IPs and/or make Traefik listen on multiple ports" is pretty reasonable way to follow. | Although I also think adding more IP addresses is the simplest way forward, have you considered exploring reusing TCP connections between the F5 and the Traefik nodes instead of creating a new one per external request?
I'm not sure how F5 supports that, but maybe it's as simple as switching to http2 between the F5 and the Traefik nodes. See <https://developers.google.com/web/fundamentals/performance/http2#one_connection_per_origin> |
197,843 | This questions has some similarities with [How to display list of nodes that share the same Parent taxonomy term as current node](https://drupal.stackexchange.com/questions/63169/how-to-display-list-of-nodes-that-share-the-same-parent-taxonomy-term-as-current), but I've not managed to figure out how I can get to what I need to do given the answers there.
A have a set of nodes that are associated via term reference with a taxonomy, that is two levels deep. I'll call the parent level area and the child level task.
This is a migration from another website that has pages for publications associated with each area but in my current data structure I only associate the publication nodes with the tasks (children of the areas). The areas each have a legacy\_area\_id field populated with the area id that was used in the url on the old site.
What I want to do now is create a view that will listen on pub/by/area/% and take a legacy area id as a contextual filter, and show a list of all nodes associated with a child of the taxonomy term that has that value in its legacy id field.
An example:[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/RvEQr.png)
With a data setup like this, a request to /pub/by/area/1
Should return a listing containing Nodes 1, 3, and 4
---
One option would be to go back and change my migration to associate the publications with areas too, but that seems likely to make the task of moving tasks between areas later quite a bit more complicated.
Another option would be to add the legacy area id to the tasks as well, but that provides similar challenges.
In reality, my end goal is to redirect these pub/by/area/# requests to a different view with the area name in the url similarly to what I've done for other old addresses in [How to redirect based on matching a node field?](https://drupal.stackexchange.com/questions/196264/how-to-redirect-based-on-matching-a-node-field). So really I suppose all the view really needs to give me is the data required to redirect to another view. I'll keep working on this, but help would be appreciated. | 2016/04/13 | [
"https://drupal.stackexchange.com/questions/197843",
"https://drupal.stackexchange.com",
"https://drupal.stackexchange.com/users/52651/"
] | [visabhishek answer](https://drupal.stackexchange.com/questions/197843/how-to-load-nodes-that-are-associated-with-the-child-of-a-taxonomy-term#197847) gave me an idea.
Create a tax term page view:
[](https://i.stack.imgur.com/ady2Y.jpg)
* Add Legacy ID as your contextual filter
* In FIELDS add term ID (so you will get the term ID of Area 1. You can hide it using exclude from display.)
Then using the [Views Field View](https://www.drupal.org/project/views_field_view) module
>
> This module allows you to embed a view as a field in a view.
>
>
>
* Add the view from [visabhishek answer](https://drupal.stackexchange.com/questions/197843/how-to-load-nodes-that-are-associated-with-the-child-of-a-taxonomy-term#197847) as a field. For Contextual filter you can pass the term ID as a token (using replacement patterns)
Problem solved :) | Just try once following points
* Go to admin/structure/views, find the view named Taxonomy term, and
enable it
* Go to admin/structure/views/view/taxonomy\_term/edit or Clone this view and create new view with different path
* Click Advanced (on the right)
* Click Content: Has taxonomy term ID (with depth)
* Select a Depth of 1 or more (how much depth term nodes you want)
* Save all your changes
Hope it will help you...
:) |
17,005,454 | First, I am new to GitHub.
I know how to create branches in GitHub, but the problem is that when I try to make a new branch, it duplicates the master branch. What happened?
You should look at this: In the master branch I have a main.cpp and a readme.md. Now in the 'libraries' branch I mentioned is when I that I just created has the same contents. As I said it contains .h files part of the repo. | 2013/06/09 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/17005454",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1928927/"
] | Branching uses the current master branch as a basis for a new branch. If you want a blank slate, the best practice is to create a new project. | That's how branches are meant to be used. They are supposed to duplicate and then extend the master. |
17,005,454 | First, I am new to GitHub.
I know how to create branches in GitHub, but the problem is that when I try to make a new branch, it duplicates the master branch. What happened?
You should look at this: In the master branch I have a main.cpp and a readme.md. Now in the 'libraries' branch I mentioned is when I that I just created has the same contents. As I said it contains .h files part of the repo. | 2013/06/09 | [
"https://Stackoverflow.com/questions/17005454",
"https://Stackoverflow.com",
"https://Stackoverflow.com/users/1928927/"
] | Branching uses the current master branch as a basis for a new branch. If you want a blank slate, the best practice is to create a new project. | Do you really know branch in git? Just have a look at [Git Branching - Basic Branching and Merging](http://git-scm.com/book/en/Git-Branching-Basic-Branching-and-Merging) |
24,037 | I like a warm, dry sound like Roland Juno 60 but the vintage Juno are not multitimbral. Is there a modern synthesizer, perhaps digital but preferably analogue, that has the warm sound of Roland Juno 60 and also is multitimbral? I used to own a Roland Juno 60 and play it with the DCB converter but I gave it away to a friend and now I want another synthesizer.
Update
------
I've gotten a Roland Juno 106 for SEK 5500 (abt 820 USD) and I'm happy with it even though it's not multitimbral. | 2013/07/13 | [
"https://sound.stackexchange.com/questions/24037",
"https://sound.stackexchange.com",
"https://sound.stackexchange.com/users/7206/"
] | Who knows if it's still available, but there's a cartridge that allows MIDI control of an NES…that should certainly allow you only what the developers had: <http://www.wayfar.net/0xf00000_overview.php> | Hey! I don't know much about how the early consoles worked. But if you're interested, here's a VST plugin you could have a look at. It's called the Magical 8-Bit plugin. It might give you an idea or two somewhere. You could also hook this up to a midi controller, I'm sure?
I downloaded this a while ago, but since then the site has changed to japanese. Here is the link -> <http://www.ymck.net/magical8bitplug/index.html>. If you use Google Chrome, it will translate the page for you. |
24,037 | I like a warm, dry sound like Roland Juno 60 but the vintage Juno are not multitimbral. Is there a modern synthesizer, perhaps digital but preferably analogue, that has the warm sound of Roland Juno 60 and also is multitimbral? I used to own a Roland Juno 60 and play it with the DCB converter but I gave it away to a friend and now I want another synthesizer.
Update
------
I've gotten a Roland Juno 106 for SEK 5500 (abt 820 USD) and I'm happy with it even though it's not multitimbral. | 2013/07/13 | [
"https://sound.stackexchange.com/questions/24037",
"https://sound.stackexchange.com",
"https://sound.stackexchange.com/users/7206/"
] | I recommend checking out [FamiTracker](http://famitracker.shoodot.net), for a much more raw, and direct method of programming the NES. Using that for a bit will give you a better idea.
It is my understanding that each game production company made their own tools and assemblers so they weren't bashing out raw bytes in memory to achieve what they wanted. I'd imagine this is why certain companies (Konami comes to mind) had really similar patterns in their music. (Of course it is also possible that the same folks did game after game.) | Hey! I don't know much about how the early consoles worked. But if you're interested, here's a VST plugin you could have a look at. It's called the Magical 8-Bit plugin. It might give you an idea or two somewhere. You could also hook this up to a midi controller, I'm sure?
I downloaded this a while ago, but since then the site has changed to japanese. Here is the link -> <http://www.ymck.net/magical8bitplug/index.html>. If you use Google Chrome, it will translate the page for you. |
24,037 | I like a warm, dry sound like Roland Juno 60 but the vintage Juno are not multitimbral. Is there a modern synthesizer, perhaps digital but preferably analogue, that has the warm sound of Roland Juno 60 and also is multitimbral? I used to own a Roland Juno 60 and play it with the DCB converter but I gave it away to a friend and now I want another synthesizer.
Update
------
I've gotten a Roland Juno 106 for SEK 5500 (abt 820 USD) and I'm happy with it even though it's not multitimbral. | 2013/07/13 | [
"https://sound.stackexchange.com/questions/24037",
"https://sound.stackexchange.com",
"https://sound.stackexchange.com/users/7206/"
] | Check out programs like Nanoloop or LSDJ on a Gameboy or emulator to get a feel for how the limits of the chip shape the way people write for it. You have amplitude and filter envelopes ranging from instant to a few seconds. I believe the hardware enables pitch bending as well if the software supports it.
For me personally the biggest feature of the "NES sound" -- other than the filtered square wave -- is the use of rapid arpeggiators to get around the limited polyphony. On the Gameboy, the noise channel is monophonic, one synth channel can do chords (of up to 4 notes) and the remaining two channels are monophonic but arpeggiated.
If, for example, you replace a quarter-note chord with sixteen 64th notes arpeggiated over the same 3 or 4 notes, I bet that will already start to sound "videogamey" to your ears. | Hey! I don't know much about how the early consoles worked. But if you're interested, here's a VST plugin you could have a look at. It's called the Magical 8-Bit plugin. It might give you an idea or two somewhere. You could also hook this up to a midi controller, I'm sure?
I downloaded this a while ago, but since then the site has changed to japanese. Here is the link -> <http://www.ymck.net/magical8bitplug/index.html>. If you use Google Chrome, it will translate the page for you. |
24,037 | I like a warm, dry sound like Roland Juno 60 but the vintage Juno are not multitimbral. Is there a modern synthesizer, perhaps digital but preferably analogue, that has the warm sound of Roland Juno 60 and also is multitimbral? I used to own a Roland Juno 60 and play it with the DCB converter but I gave it away to a friend and now I want another synthesizer.
Update
------
I've gotten a Roland Juno 106 for SEK 5500 (abt 820 USD) and I'm happy with it even though it's not multitimbral. | 2013/07/13 | [
"https://sound.stackexchange.com/questions/24037",
"https://sound.stackexchange.com",
"https://sound.stackexchange.com/users/7206/"
] | "faux delay" is pretty simple, you can just repeat the notes at whatever delay interval you want with descending velocity.
Pulse waves and a noise source are really where it's at if you're looking for "video gamey" sounds in my opinion. Playing around with the pulse width will give you many timbres.
It's very fun and inspirational to limit yourself like this! Especially these days where we have way too many possibilities. | Hey! I don't know much about how the early consoles worked. But if you're interested, here's a VST plugin you could have a look at. It's called the Magical 8-Bit plugin. It might give you an idea or two somewhere. You could also hook this up to a midi controller, I'm sure?
I downloaded this a while ago, but since then the site has changed to japanese. Here is the link -> <http://www.ymck.net/magical8bitplug/index.html>. If you use Google Chrome, it will translate the page for you. |
51,966 | Unlike reptiles or some solid fish we as human race are very sensitive to temperature. A small difference in our body temperature, of only 1 single Celsius degrees causes fever, 4 degrees and we start to lose our mental abilities, more and we are dead.
While on the other hand, cold blooded animals can't produce their own heat and are too dependent on their environment, plus both parasitic and beneficial bacteria have a harder time surviving inside cold blooded organisms.
So, what changes does human biology need to allow a person's survival and intelligence with cold blood?
What could force humanity to evolve into cold blood animals? | 2016/08/17 | [
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/51966",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/users/24960/"
] | Cold blooded animals have several sets of enzymes that maintain bodily functions at different temperatures, while warm-blooded only need and have one set. This would be the first big barrier to evolving (back) to being cold blooded. Not having a high enough metabolism to sustain the brain at our intelligence levels would be the second barrier.
I don't think there are any circumstances that could force modern humans to evolve to being cold blooded. We're simply too good at changing our environment to suit our needs. With stone age or earlier humans, you might still have strong enough environmental pressure to direct evolution.
Some mammals hibernate during winter, greatly lowering their metabolism and conserving energy in times of food shortages. That is probably the best route towards evolving cold-bloodedness. Humans might still have some of those genes and they could lead to a lethargic state of semi-hibernation, which over a million years or so could be refined into a mostly functional state regardless of body temperature. The catch is that energy efficiency implies lower brain functions, making these humans dumber again.
Btw, cold-blooded animals also die at 40 C or higher (vital proteins start breaking down at 42-44 C for everyone) and freeze at 0 C (or a little below for marine animals with anti-freeze, as commented), so they have a narrower temperature range than warm blooded animals. | To achieve cold bloodedness in the first place, I would suggest the removal of the hypothalamus, though this comes with its own problems.
<https://www.quora.com/What-does-the-hypothalamus-do-What-happens-if-it-is-removed>
It may be necessary to do this to babies before they are born, as this artical suggests the pancreas develops with the hypothalamus in the womb, which means it may be too late by the time the child is born.
<http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmed/7019801>
It may be possible to eliminate the symptoms of missing a hypothalamus with a specific form of HRT (hormone replacement therapy) to replace the missing hormones at set intervals or as and when required. You would also require insulin injections in order to properly process sugars.
Now that you have no way to regulate your own body temperature I would suggest moving somewhere warm and keeping wrapped up. Also live near water in case you find you are too hot and need to cool yourself. Also a change in diet would probably be beneficial to aid your self inflicted diabetes.
To make the changes more permanent, a selective breeding program between survivors of your barbaric experiments members of your new community to see if you can naturally reduce the effects of the hypothalamus on bodyheat over the generations. |
51,966 | Unlike reptiles or some solid fish we as human race are very sensitive to temperature. A small difference in our body temperature, of only 1 single Celsius degrees causes fever, 4 degrees and we start to lose our mental abilities, more and we are dead.
While on the other hand, cold blooded animals can't produce their own heat and are too dependent on their environment, plus both parasitic and beneficial bacteria have a harder time surviving inside cold blooded organisms.
So, what changes does human biology need to allow a person's survival and intelligence with cold blood?
What could force humanity to evolve into cold blood animals? | 2016/08/17 | [
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/questions/51966",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com",
"https://worldbuilding.stackexchange.com/users/24960/"
] | There is only one **mammal** that can [function reasonably within a very wide temperature range](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Poikilotherm), the naked mole-rat.
...which means that "cold-bloodedness" stopped being a thing with our part of the family tree about 200 million years ago, when [the mammalian branch was formed](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Evolution_of_mammals).
...which means that **you need to unwind and redo 200 millions years of evolution**.
...which means that the answer to your question "What needs to change?" is: "pretty much everything that concerns our metabolism". Whatever the result is, do not expect them to be humans, in the sense Homo Sapiens, but an entirely new species. | To achieve cold bloodedness in the first place, I would suggest the removal of the hypothalamus, though this comes with its own problems.
<https://www.quora.com/What-does-the-hypothalamus-do-What-happens-if-it-is-removed>
It may be necessary to do this to babies before they are born, as this artical suggests the pancreas develops with the hypothalamus in the womb, which means it may be too late by the time the child is born.
<http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmed/7019801>
It may be possible to eliminate the symptoms of missing a hypothalamus with a specific form of HRT (hormone replacement therapy) to replace the missing hormones at set intervals or as and when required. You would also require insulin injections in order to properly process sugars.
Now that you have no way to regulate your own body temperature I would suggest moving somewhere warm and keeping wrapped up. Also live near water in case you find you are too hot and need to cool yourself. Also a change in diet would probably be beneficial to aid your self inflicted diabetes.
To make the changes more permanent, a selective breeding program between survivors of your barbaric experiments members of your new community to see if you can naturally reduce the effects of the hypothalamus on bodyheat over the generations. |
99,059 | What's the right format for in-prep publication on CV? I saw on another post that the format should be something like
[My name], & Author, ([year]). [Title of article].
But the problem is that the paper has a few dozen co-authors and my name will come somewhere closer to the end of the list. Also, there are two incredibly well-known scholars that are co-authors of the paper, so I prefer to somehow include their names! :-D But is there any way I can turn the format below into something acceptable?
[first author], ..., [my name], ..., [Prof. 1], ..., [Prof. 2] ..., ([year]). [Title of article].
* The paper is in a sense "sequel" to a highly-cited previous paper published in Nature, so there is a chance this will be accepted by Nature too. Is there any way I could mention that? (It's not technically exactly "sequel" to that work, so using that word would be somewhat misleading and wrong.) | 2017/11/16 | [
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/questions/99059",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com",
"https://academia.stackexchange.com/users/83029/"
] | **On formatting**.
You should list publications/drafts as they would appear in a bibliography. The reader will assume that you (co-)authored every document listed. (Personally, I would assume your honesty and I would never think to check that you truly are the author.) The reader is interested in the titles of your publications/drafts and the venues at which you published. I'd suggest using italics for titles, so that they stand out, and for published works, I'd suggest that the venue follows immediately after the title, since it can then be found easily, e.g., Cynthia S. Cooper, Willie E. Wright & Sun He (2017) *Mathematics: Criticizing Nervous Essentialism and Xenon*. In ALB'17: 17th ALpha Bravo conference, pp317-495, publisher.
**On name-dropping**. You can name-drop in the body of your CV. But, I'm unsure whether name-dropping should be encouraged. I think it would be better to say what you've done. You could perhaps achieve both, e.g., in collaboration with [name-drop], I extended their earlier results (Nature'XX) to A, B, and C. | There's not really an elegant way to include some names that are scattered throughout.
If you cite it as Bigdeal, J. *et al.* then it's implied that your in that list somewhere, but you can't really pick and choose just to highlight the fancy people scattered through the authorship list. |
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