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11e4ddc1-0a65-5c77-a058-9f3d75cd10ce
What is the CORRECT order of structures (from cephalad to caudad) in the intercostal space?
Nerve, artery, vein
Vein, nerve, artery
Vein, artery, nerve
Artery, nerve, vein
4
C
1
null
null
null
null
null
07dff91f-68fe-5dc1-9fb8-21a2d01c79d1
Which of the following types of regional anesthesia is associated with the GREATEST serum concentration of lidocaine?
Intercostal
Epidural
Brachial plexus
Femoral nerve block
4
A
1
null
null
null
null
null
58b8dc3a-83ea-5c3d-848b-6331385419dd
Differences in which of the following local anesthetic properties account for the fact that the onset of an epidural block with 3% 2-chloroprocaine is more rapid than 2% lidocaine?
Protein binding
pKa
Lipid solubility
Concentration
4
D
1
null
null
null
null
null
ed27c84f-51c9-5fbe-bf50-62e53084579e
A 69-year-old man with a history of diabetes mellitus and chronic renal failure is to undergo placement of a dialysis fistula under regional anesthesia. During needle manipulation for a supraclavicular brachial plexus block, the patient begins to cough and complain of chest pain and shortness of breath. The MOST likely...
Angina
Pneumothorax
Phrenic nerve irritation
Intravascular injection of local anesthetic
4
B
2
null
null
null
null
null
91cdfa22-3e6e-5339-a5e7-c6b3e1861b2d
Each of the following statements is true concerning a femoral nerve block EXCEPT
The femoral nerve primarily arises from the second to the fourth lumbar nerve roots
The femoral nerve provides sensation to the anterior and medial aspect of the thigh
The femoral nerve lies lateral to the femoral artery and femoral vein
Proper needle placement produces sartorius musclecontraction without patellar movement when electrically stimulated
4
D
1
null
null
null
null
null
ff8b7284-bb33-5287-928f-1e3ebea144f8
If a needle is introduced 1.5 cm inferior and 1.5 cm lateral to the pubic tubercle, to which nerve will it lie in close proximity?
Obturator nerve
Femoral nerve
Lateral femoral cutaneous nerve
Ilioinguinal nerve
4
A
1
null
null
null
null
null
9fa172f1-278f-5136-9022-6bd25659e784
The MOST common complication associated with a supraclavicular brachial plexus block is
Blockade of the phrenic nerve
Intravascular injection into the vertebral artery
Blockade of the recurrent laryngeal nerve
Pneumothorax
4
A
1
null
null
null
null
null
0093335f-1d6b-5ba6-81e1-68cc2b63fcac
Which portion of the upper extremity is NOT innervated by the brachial plexus?
Posterior medial portion of the arm
Elbow
Lateral portion of the forearm
Medial portion of the forearm
4
A
1
null
null
null
null
null
b8e49093-72fa-5f92-b6f5-cbb02e47ffdb
Which section of the brachial plexus is blocked with a supraclavicular block?
Roots/trunks
Trunks/divisions
Cords
Branches
4
B
1
null
null
null
null
null
9ab34869-997b-5804-8435-217abc31d79e
A celiac plexus block would NOT effectively treat pain resulting from a malignancy involving which of the following organs?
Uterus
Stomach
Pancreas
Gallbladder
4
A
1
null
null
null
null
null
b82286e1-7146-51ea-ad63-65927013b19c
A healthy 27-year-old woman stepped on a nail and is to undergo débridement of a wound on her right great toe. She is anxious about general anesthesia but agrees to an ankle block with mild sedation. Which nerves must be adequately blocked in order to perform the surgery?
Deep peroneal, posterior tibial, saphenous, sural
Deep peroneal, saphenous, superficial peroneal, sural
Deep peroneal, posterior tibial, superficial peroneal, sural
Deep peroneal, superficial peroneal, posterior tibial, saphenous
4
D
2
null
null
null
null
null
cebf278b-9146-5136-8475-766f5f88860d
A 54-year-old man is administered morphine via patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump after a left total hip arthroplasty. The pump is programmed to deliver a maximum dose of 2 mg every 15 minutes (lockout time) as needed for patient comfort. The total maximum dose that can be delivered in 4 hours is 30 mg. On the fir...
Discontinue the PCA pump and administer intramuscular morphine
Increase the lockout time from 15 to 25 minutes
Change the analgesic from morphine to meperidine
Increase the dose to 3 mg every 15 minutes as needed up to a total maximum dose of 40 mg every 4 hours
4
D
2
null
null
null
null
null
a0d93a6a-4d69-51b5-af6a-ff32eedcccb6
The mechanism of low-frequency transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation (TENS) units in relieving pain is
Direct electrical inhibition of type A-δ and C fibers
Depletion of neurotransmitter in nociceptors
Hyperpolarization of spinothalamic tract neurons
Activation of inhibitory neurons
4
D
1
null
null
null
null
null
ac7c59b3-02cb-5cba-b70b-17cc768ab419
Epidural use of which of the following opioids would result in the GREATEST incidence of delayed respiratory depression?
Sufentanil
Fentanyl
Morphine sulfate
Hydromorphone
4
C
1
null
null
null
null
null
d1e22ead-c03e-53b4-813b-6eb0509e7bff
A 21-year-old patient reports tingling in her thumb during her cesarean section under epidural anesthesia. To which dermatomal level would this correspond?
C5
C6
C7
C8
4
B
1
null
null
null
null
null
79b7d5cd-da8d-5711-85a1-b0e93c03c99c
Which of the following would hasten the onset and increase the clinical duration of action of a local anesthetic, and provide the GREATEST depth of motor and sensory blockade when used for epidural anesthesia?
Increasing the volume of local anesthetic
Increasing the concentration of local anesthetic
Increasing the dose
Placing the patient in the head-down position
4
C
3
null
null
null
null
null
54b9cb73-c5fd-5022-8b47-0ca69f4a406c
Select the FALSE statement concerning neurolytic nerve blocks.
Destruction of peripheral nerves can be followed by a denervation hypersensitivity that is worse than the original pain
Neurolytic blocks should be reserved for patients with short life expectancies
Neurolytic blockade with phenol is permanent
Intrathecal neurolysis may be an effective management for certain pain conditions
4
C
1
null
null
null
null
null
e64d5879-46c0-5f0d-a011-c28a5158661f
Transient neurologic symptoms (TNS) after spinal anesthesia are associated with each of the following EXCEPT
Lidocaine
Lithotomy position
Ambulatory anesthesia
Concentration of local anesthetic injected
4
D
1
null
null
null
null
null
83735247-6432-598a-a324-7abbc562e420
After you select the appropriate ultrasound transducer, you can adjust several factors to optimize the image for regional anesthesia. Which of the following descriptions is FALSE?
Frequency—higher-frequency ultrasound use is better for viewing deep structures
Depth—adjusted to limit the centimeters of viewing area on the monitor
Gain—increased gain produces increased brightness
Frequency—higher-frequency ultrasound use produces better image resolution
4
A
1
null
null
null
null
null
2cdd217b-d692-5327-ad8b-4bf733eb365a
Each of the following is associated with an increased incidence of PDPHs EXCEPT
Younger adults
Early ambulation
Pregnancy
Large needle size
4
B
1
null
null
null
null
null
cca9e816-74b4-590f-8e67-f76bf311c053
Each of the following items describes pain in the abdominal viscera EXCEPT
Pain is transmitted via the vagus nerve
The nerve fibers are type C
Pain is characterized by a dull aching or burning sensation
Distention of the transverse colon causes more pain than surgical transection
4
A
1
null
null
null
null
null
b3cb1e5e-b9c4-5089-89d2-9e9ae09875bb
Which of the following blocks has the LONGEST duration of action when bupivacaine with epinephrine is administered?
Axillary
Epidural
Infiltration
Spinal
4
A
1
null
null
null
null
null
1ebc8389-aa7c-54cf-a79e-502131771b37
All of the following statements concerning a psoas compartment block are true EXCEPT
Compartment block is used to provide unilateral anesthesia to the proximal aspect of the thigh and hip
Stimulation of the quadriceps muscle demonstrates good needle placement
Complete leg anesthesia can be obtained when combined with a sciatic nerve block
Continuous catheters are not used because the amount of drug infused would lead to toxicity
4
D
1
null
null
null
null
null
3da23039-ea9f-5ed3-9ba9-65e9fd6b638b
A 35-year-old woman receives a popliteal block for ankle and foot surgery. Which other nerve must be blocked in order to have complete anesthesia of the foot?
Superficial peroneal nerve
Sural nerve
Saphenous nerve
Posterior tibial nerve
4
C
2
null
null
null
null
null
11787521-a3cb-5720-8c69-b90f17195eeb
The most common complication of a celiac plexus block is
Hypotension
Seizure
Retroperitoneal hematoma
Constipation
4
A
1
null
null
null
null
null
9ee2e1e9-ba28-51f8-a675-4af849bcd65b
The occipital portion of the skull receives sensory innervation from
Spinal accessory nerve (nerve XI)
Facial nerve (nerve VII)
Ophthalmic branch of trigeminal nerve (nerve V)
Cervical plexus
4
D
1
null
null
null
null
null
f4cdb28a-c288-5c0b-bb13-a792a3cc5cd4
Each of the following is a potential complication of thoracic paravertebral blocks EXCEPT
Pneumothorax
Epidural spread of local anesthetic
Hypertension
Total spinal
4
C
1
null
null
null
null
null
7ee1b9a2-a6b2-5618-853b-b1cc8a2d60ed
After placement of an epidural catheter in a 55-year-old patient for total hip arthroplasty, an entire epidural dose is administered into the subarachnoid space. Physiologic effects consistent with subarachnoid injection of large volumes of local anesthetic include all of the following EXCEPT
Hypotension and bradycardia
Respiratory depression
Constricted pupils
Possible cauda equina syndrome
4
C
1
null
null
null
null
null
ca300b9f-c9f6-560c-badd-bedc9f7f72bd
A 49-year-old type 1 diabetic patient with a long history of burning pain in the right lower extremity receives a spinal anesthetic with 100 mg of procaine with 5% dextrose. The patient reports no relief in symptoms but has complete bilateral motor blockade. What diagnosis is consistent with this differential blockade ...
Diabetic neuropathy
Central pain
Myofascial pain
Complex regional pain syndrome (CRPS) I (RSD)
4
B
3
null
null
null
null
null
5d8cc638-1cb2-512d-8c61-65b7f00e3a87
An 18-year-old man has a seizure during placement of an interscalene brachial plexus block with 0.5% bupivacaine. The anesthesiologist begins to hyperventilate the patient's lungs with 100% O2 using an anesthesia bag and mask. The rationale for this therapy includes all of the following EXCEPT
The therapy helps to prevent and treat hypoxia
Hyperventilation decreases blood flow and delivery of local anesthetic to the brain
Hyperventilation elevates the seizure threshold
Hyperventilation induces alkalosis and converts local anesthetics to the protonated (ionized) form, which is less likely to cross the cell membranes
4
D
3
null
null
null
null
null
18cde671-87f5-5c02-951e-a5dc689dc2c0
Para-aminobenzoic acid is a metabolite of
Mepivacaine
Ropivacaine
Bupivacaine
Procaine
4
D
1
null
null
null
null
null
7d8444f6-5b88-5201-8c86-f531b2a89230
Which statement concerning peripheral nerve structure and function is FALSE?
Both nonmyelinated and myelinated nerves are surrounded by Schwann cells
The speed of propagation of an action potential along a nerve axon is greatly enhanced by myelin
Generation of an action potential is an "all-or-nothing" phenomenon
Myelination renders nerves less sensitive to local anesthetic blockade
4
D
1
null
null
null
null
null
ba9d60fb-0551-5050-88d9-e52bb27f826c
A 42-year-old woman with a morbid fear of general anesthesia receives an interscalene block for shoulder arthroscopy consisting of 20 mL 0.5% ropivacaine. Much of her arm, shoulder, and hand are numb, but the patient complains of pain as the incision is made at the upper portion of the shoulder. The most appropriate ne...
Repeat block
Perform intercostobrachial block
Perform superficial cervical plexus block
Perform a deep cervical plexus block
4
C
2
null
null
null
null
null
ea33e006-9658-52d6-bcb4-d1a3f7147ac9
According to the 2016 American Society of Regional Anesthesia and Pain Medicine (ASRA) practice advisory on infectious complications of regional anesthesia and pain medicine, the MOST important action to maintain aseptic technique and prevent cross-contamination during regional anesthesia techniques is
Wearing a surgical gown
Hand washing
Using soap and water instead of alcohol-based antiseptics
Using povidone-iodine (e.g., Betadine) instead of alcoholbased chlorhexidine to scrub
4
B
1
null
null
null
null
null
f76625c2-918d-588c-bec2-826dcc4c1ffa
A 75-year-old woman with a history of pulmonary embolism is scheduled for a right lower lobectomy for lung cancer. She is receiving dalteparin (Fragmin) for deep vein thrombosis (DVT) prophylaxis. How long after her last dose should one wait before placement of a thoracic epidural?
12 hours
24 hours
72 hours
No waiting is necessary since the dose for prophylaxis is low
4
A
1
null
null
null
null
null
6e852d7c-3502-50d8-82d9-f01433be1a5c
How long should a patient be off clopidogrel (Plavix) before a central neuraxial block is performed?
24 hours
7 days
14 days
No waiting necessary
4
B
1
null
null
null
null
null
262cce88-50e0-542b-ac0e-fa14bfbcf0ed
Addition of bicarbonate to local anesthetics results in
Delayed onset of action
Reduced toxicity
Increased duration of action
Reduced pain with skin infiltration
4
D
1
null
null
null
null
null
34f41584-c7ec-532c-af7f-da6976f8ded5
Through which of the following would a spinal needle NOT pass during a midline placement of a subarachnoid block in the L3-L4 lumbar space?
Supraspinous ligament
Interspinous ligament
Posterior longitudinal ligament
Dura mater
4
C
1
null
null
null
null
null
b7041366-e924-5e8d-8e3c-00507c876eea
What epidural dose of bupivacaine will give sensory analgesia similar to 10 mL of 2% lidocaine?
5 mL of 0.25%
10 mL of 0.25%
5 mL of 0.5%
10 mL of 0.5%
4
D
2
null
null
null
null
null
297aace8-fa27-5d6a-a3ec-f4ba84d72886
Each of the following additives to a spinal anesthetic possesses
Clonidine
Hydromorphone
Epinephrine
All of the above have analgesic properties
4
D
1
null
null
null
null
null
80b3b6a0-1eea-5663-9699-3b2cbacbe300
Which of the following local anesthetics is inappropriately paired with a clinical application because of its properties or toxicity?
Tetracaine, topical anesthesia
Bupivacaine, IV anesthesia
Prilocaine, infiltrative anesthesia
Chloroprocaine, epidural anesthesia
4
B
2
null
null
null
null
null
a332c376-74b8-5b69-b86f-bc9962569258
Discharge criteria from the PACU would be reached FASTEST after a 20- to 30-mL volume of which of the following epidurally administered local anesthetics?
3% 2-Chloroprocaine
2% Lidocaine
0.75% Ropivacaine
0.5% Levobupivacaine
4
A
1
null
null
null
null
null
7ce6f370-b201-599c-92b7-5970d5e3ee33
A caudal block (performed under sevoflurane general anesthesia) with 0.25% bupivacaine and 1:200,000 epinephrine is planned for postoperative analgesia after bilateral inguinal hernia repair in a 5 month-old patient. Each of the following would be consistent with an intravascular injection EXCEPT
Systolic blood pressure increase by greater than 15 mm Hg
Heart rate decrease by greater than 10 beats/min
Ventricular extrasystoles
Increase in T-wave amplitude > 25% over baseline
4
B
2
null
null
null
null
null
fae67c31-9027-52c5-a4b8-15b30c353867
Which is NOT a potential complication of a stellate ganglion block?
Recurrent laryngeal nerve paralysis
Subarachnoid block
Brachial plexus block
Increased heart rate
4
D
1
null
null
null
null
null
16d2cf77-986b-5759-8603-96fa5aede5e9
Discontinuation of which of the following antiplatelet medications, for 14 days, would be necessary before a spinal could be safely administered?
Aspirin
Clopidogrel
Ticlopidine
Abciximab (GPIIb/IIIa)
4
C
1
null
null
null
null
null
3ad2f94d-f230-5ae9-8733-0ea6563317dc
Three days after knee arthroscopy under spinal anesthesia, a 55-year-old patient complains of double vision and difficulty hearing. The other likely finding would be
Headache
Fever
Weakness in legs
Mental status changes
4
A
1
null
null
null
null
null
20027f43-4b3d-586f-942f-cde048395e9e
Which of the following statements is TRUE concerning transversus abdominis plane (TAP) block?
Ultrasound is useful in finding the intercostal nerves
The local anesthetic is injected directly into the transversus abdominis muscle
The subcostal, ilioinguinal, and iliohypogastric nerves are blocked
10 mL of local anesthetic is all that is needed for good spread
4
C
1
null
null
null
null
null
0565684c-40df-5f41-a151-81e3741f6dcd
Which of the following nerves can be electrically stimulated at the ankle to produce flexion of the toes?
Posterior tibial nerve
Saphenous nerve
Deep peroneal nerve
Superficial peroneal nerve
4
A
1
null
null
null
null
null
9a98d381-84fb-5b8e-be46-a0fd8847585b
Which motor response from peripheral nerve stimulation is
Musculocutaneous nerve—flexion of the forearm at the elbow
Radial nerve—extension of all digits as well as the wrist and forearm
Ulnar nerve—abduction of the thumb
Median nerve—flexion of the wrist, pronation of the forearm
4
C
1
null
null
null
null
null
b6d114ae-5480-5151-9083-a1e1d908dd6f
During an airway examination, a 53-year-old patient mentions that his right thumb tingles and then becomes numb if he extends his head for more than a few seconds. This symptom MOST likely represents a(n)
Unstable C-spine
Lhermitte's phenomenon
C6 nerve root irritation
C8 radiculopathy
4
C
1
null
null
null
null
null
782b5422-a832-58dd-b443-4b346b40670c
When performing an interscalene block with a peripheral nerve stimulator, you note diaphragmatic movement. You should now
Inject the local anesthetic, as the needle is in an appropriate location
Redirect the needle in an anterior direction
Redirect the needle in a posterior direction
Advance the needle about 0.5 cm more and inject
4
C
2
null
null
null
null
null
9672624b-f8c4-5cde-8421-d3e11d1062fa
During placement of an interscalene block, the patient becomes hypotensive, bradycardic, apneic, and cyanotic. The MOST likely cause is
Vertebral artery injection
Phrenic nerve blockade
Total spinal
Stellate ganglion block
4
C
2
null
null
null
null
null
6ac14128-d988-5a03-a590-6f744c0bd41f
The reason that ropivacaine is marketed as pure S enantiomers is because the S form is associated with
Increased potency
Longer duration
Reduced cardiac toxicity
Reduced incidence of anaphylaxis
4
C
1
null
null
null
null
null
f3fe3219-8873-5ea9-a65f-906bd5c12373
Nerves that originate from the sacral plexus include each of the following EXCEPT
Femoral nerve
Tibial nerve
Sciatic nerve
Common peroneal nerve
4
A
1
null
null
null
null
null
bdcbd666-0cf9-5a3e-a103-d57e204874f6
The only technique shown to prevent anesthetic-related nerve injury during placement of peripheral nerve blocks is
Ultrasound-guided regional technique
Transarterial technique
Nerve stimulator
None of the above
4
D
1
null
null
null
null
null
4d55519c-50e2-5672-83ad-eaf6a66a12aa
An axillary block is performed on a healthy 19-year-old athlete. A 30 mL quantity of 0.75% bupivacaine is injected incrementally. Five minutes after the bupivacaine injection, the patient has a seizure and experiences CV collapse. Which of the measures below is NOT
Begin chest compressions at 100 per minute
Ventilate with 100% oxygen
Bolus propofol to bind local anesthetic
Infuse 20% lipid emulsion
4
C
2
null
null
null
null
null
5c50641d-900e-5f8f-b514-1c181694031e
The structure MOST likely to be blocked during placement of an interscalene block in addition to the brachial plexus is the
Phrenic nerve
Vertebral artery
Recurrent laryngeal nerve
Vagus nerve
4
A
1
null
null
null
null
null
806b3086-0666-5bc6-a11c-e468d762058e
All of the following are symptoms of a developing epidural hematoma EXCEPT
Radicular back pain
Bowel and bladder dysfunction
Motor deficits
Fever
4
D
1
null
null
null
null
null
b8be242c-6807-5962-82d3-9156c07f419e
In addition to C nerve fibers, which nerve fibers carry pain impulses?
A-alpha (Aα)
A-beta (Aβ)
A-delta (Aδ)
B
4
C
1
null
null
null
null
null
39200c0a-e743-5601-97c3-7c27c7e97b08
An intradural mass lesion at the tip of a drug infusion catheter is LEAST likely to present as
Increasing pain
Development of numbness in T8 dermatomal pattern
Hypopnea
Perianal numbness
4
C
3
null
null
null
null
null
02276081-79ed-5dc0-be1a-61fcd840cc97
Which statement concerning local anesthetics is CORRECT?
The un-ionized form of a local anesthetic binds to the nerve membrane to actually block conduction
If one node of Ranvier is blocked, conduction will be reliably interrupted
The presence of myelin enhances the ability of a local anesthetic to block nerve conduction
Local anesthetics block transmission by inhibiting the voltage-gated potassium ion channels
4
C
1
null
null
null
null
null
2646a111-995f-5250-8ebe-c67b3920e743
Postdural puncture headaches (PDPHs)
Usually occur immediately following dural puncture
Are relieved 8 to 12 hours after an epidural blood patch is performed
Occur more frequently in nonpregnant patients compared with pregnant patients
Can be associated with neurologic deficits
4
D
1
null
null
null
null
null
5864dc25-a579-509e-acc4-c171dfde8f1c
Which of the following procedures for treatment of chronic pain requires localization of the epidural space with an epidural needle as part of technique?
Radio-frequency ablation of a lumbar facet joint
Spinal cord stimulation
Percutaneous disk decompression
Vertebroplasty
4
B
1
null
null
null
null
null
1154f109-f750-564a-bbff-ff68c9d85834
Each of the following drugs has been used to treat neuropathic pain. Selective inhibition of serotonin and norepinephrine reuptake is the mechanism of which drug?
Duloxetine
Mexiletine
Gabapentin
Carbamazepine# Anatomy, Regional Anesthesia, and Pain Management#
4
A
1
null
null
null
null
null
014573aa-00c5-5303-9843-e25417e6a7b4
An oximetric pulmonary artery (PA) catheter is placed in a 69-year-old man who is undergoing surgical repair of an abdominal aortic aneurysm under general anesthesia. Before the aortic cross-clamp is placed, the mixed venous O2 saturation decreases from 75% to 60%. Each of the following could account for the decrease i...
Hypovolemia
Bleeding
Congestive heart failure (CHF)
Sepsis
4
D
3
null
null
null
null
null
b4dc711b-eab4-57b0-af28-641340f6a4c7
Postoperatively a 64-year-old man develops heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT), type II (antibody proven), after anticoagulation for aortic valve replacement with 25,000 units of heparin. The same patient requires an elective tricuspid valve replacement soon thereafter because of trauma from a transvenous pacemaker....
Defer until disappearance of antibodies; use heparin
Cardiopulmonary bypass with lepirudin in place of heparin
Cardiopulmonary bypass with tirofiban in place of heparin
Anticoagulation with fondaparinux
4
A
2
null
null
null
null
null
8c33b732-514b-5fb4-8e00-7167707cadc4
Oxygen consumption (Vo2 ) is measured in a 70-kg subject on a
1 metabolic equivalent (MET)
5 METs
10 METs
15 METs
4
C
2
null
null
null
null
null
82bcbca5-b628-5cb0-9022-38a242b15d4e
Accidental injection of air into a peripheral vein would be LEAST likely to result in arterial air embolism in a patient with which of the following anatomic cardiac defects?
Patent ductus arteriosus
Eisenmenger syndrome
Tetralogy of Fallot
Tricuspid atresia
4
A
2
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null
null
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null
0c863a33-6719-5413-921c-d950b9a44e9b
A 71-year-old man is undergoing revascularization of three coronary vessels on cardiopulmonary bypass at 28° C. After the last graft is sewn into the aorta, the arterial pressure measured from a left radial artery is 47 mm Hg and the PA pressure is 6 mm Hg. Thirty minutes later, the arterial pressure is 52 mm Hg and PA...
Malposition of the aortic cannula
Malposition of the venous cannula
Faulty ventricular venting
PA catheter migration
4
D
3
null
null
null
null
null
71e358ac-66da-56ce-80cc-dc5a32d20d6c
While on cardiopulmonary bypass during elective coronary artery revascularization, the patient is noted to have bulging sclerae. Mean arterial pressure (MAP) is 50 mm Hg, temperature is 28° C, and there is no ECG activity. The MOST appropriate action to take at this time is to
Administer mannitol, 50 g IV
Decrease the cardiac index
Check the position of the aortic cannula
Check the position of the venous return cannula
4
D
3
null
null
null
null
null
2283e4d1-c169-58da-a872-b9450690f1f0
Anastomosis of the right atrium to the PA (Fontan procedure) is a useful surgical treatment for each of the following congenital cardiac defects EXCEPT
Tricuspid atresia
Hypoplastic left heart syndrome
Pulmonary valve stenosis
Truncus arteriosus
4
D
1
null
null
null
null
null
473f09f8-aed1-52d5-81b0-c05f72be97de
By what percentage is tissue metabolic rate reduced during cardiopulmonary bypass at 30° C?
10%
25%
50%
75%
4
C
1
null
null
null
null
null
e4424267-31d2-5b45-8f66-5a64423b477c
Effective inflation of an intra-aortic balloon catheter should occur at which of the following times?
Immediately after P wave on ECG
Immediately after closure of aortic valve
During opening of the aortic valve
During systolic upstroke on arterial tracing
4
B
1
null
null
null
null
null
b812b8df-6ef8-5f6f-bf16-169b399184eb
Afterload reduction is beneficial during anesthesia for noncardiac surgery in patients with each of the following conditions EXCEPT
Aortic insufficiency
Patent ductus arteriosus
Tetralogy of Fallot
CHF
4
C
3
null
null
null
null
null
c56d4a29-9e38-5302-860d-15a0135f9f00
Administration of protamine to a patient who has not received heparin can result in
Anticoagulation
Hypercoagulation
Profound bradycardia
Hypertension
4
A
1
null
null
null
null
null
08fdcdfb-212e-5b5f-ae2a-0efd3c5af379
The primary determinants of myocardial O2 consumption, from most to
Preload > afterload > heart rate
Heart rate > preload > afterload
Afterload > preload > heart rate
Heart rate > afterload > preload
4
D
1
null
null
null
null
null
66cfe50a-da68-5b78-aa68-5fe5a53481e0
Cardiac tamponade is associated with
Pulsus alternans
Pulsus tardus
Pulsus parvus
Pulsus paradoxus
4
D
1
null
null
null
null
null
5552d041-85d5-5c13-a4a4-fd99a00b153e
Which of the following drugs should NOT be administered via an endotracheal tube?
Lidocaine
NaHCO3
Atropine
Naloxone
4
B
1
null
null
null
null
null
bec76444-d72c-5214-8c79-9a105a42f709
The MAP in a patient with a blood pressure of 180/60 mm Hg is
90 mm Hg
100 mm Hg
110 mm Hg
120 mm Hg
4
B
2
null
null
null
null
null
f66b8323-3b03-5019-8d20-8523c7b256d5
Hypothyroidism and hyperthyroidism could develop in patients receiving which of the following antidysrhythmic drugs?
Amiodarone
Verapamil
Procainamide
Lidocaine
4
A
1
null
null
null
null
null
9479d7ae-4419-505b-8554-1e14a494b692
Calculate the systemic vascular resistance (SVR; in dyne-sec/cm5 ) from the following data: cardiac output 5.0 L/min, central venous pressure (CVP) 8 mm Hg, mean arterial blood pressure 86 mm Hg, mean pulmonary arterial blood pressure 20 mm Hg, pulmonary capillary wedge pressure 9 mm Hg, heart rate 85 beats/min, patien...
750
1000
1250
1500
4
C
2
null
null
null
null
null
aa5baf8d-d1bb-5944-b611-491c9b5b12d9
A 57-year-old man with a history of Brugada syndrome is scheduled for appendectomy. The greatest anesthetic concern for this patient would be
Airway
Response to nondepolarizing muscle relaxants
Risk of malignant hyperthermia
Dysrhythmias
4
D
1
null
null
null
null
null
7bda800f-22ea-5d02-a902-2f446d0a4ee8
The MOST important pathophysiologic difference between pericardial effusion and cardiac tamponade is
Type of fluid (e.g., transudate, exudate, blood)
Quantity of fluid
Pressure
Inflammation
4
C
1
null
null
null
null
null
ad7b2ccc-5817-5cd3-8538-c89904cd1508
A healthy 59-year-old, 60-kg woman with a normal preoperative ECG develops wide complex tachycardia under general anesthesia for breast biopsy. Blood pressure is 81/47 mm Hg, and heart rate is 220 beats/min and regular. The MOST appropriate therapy would be
Electrical cardioversion
Administration of lidocaine, 60 mg IV
Administration of procainamide, 20 mg/min IV
Administration of amiodarone, 300 mg IV
4
A
2
null
null
null
null
null
4e737ec6-703e-53b5-9188-52293fe74e39
A 64-year-old patient with an axial flow left ventricular assist device (VAD; e.g., HeartWare) is scheduled for laparoscopic cholecystectomy under general anesthesia. Monitoring which of the following parameters is likely to be difficult in this patient?
Blood pressure with blood pressure cuff
Blood pressure with arterial line
PA pressure with PA catheter
Temperature with esophageal temperature probe
4
A
2
null
null
null
null
null
e3de9d51-4267-596c-b7c2-facb5cd09f5e
In a normal person, what percentage of the cardiac output is dependent on the "atrial kick"?
25%
35%
45%
55%
4
A
1
null
null
null
null
null
72cd138a-6db3-59e3-a3c4-1be446162073
Using transesophageal echocardiography (TEE), the midesophageal short axis view at 45 degrees shows a valve shaped like the "Mercedes Benz" sign. Which valve is examined in this view?
Tricuspid valve
Pulmonic valve
Mitral valve
Aortic valve
4
D
1
null
null
null
null
null
3d4e0d28-11b4-56be-8250-a1322ba3feb5
A 62-year-old patient scheduled for elective repair of an abdominal aortic aneurysm develops a wide complex regular tachycardia (heart rate 150 beats/min) during induction of anesthesia. Blood pressure is 110/78 mm Hg. Which of the following drugs would be MOST useful in the management of this dysrhythmia?
Esmolol, 35 mg IV
Amiodarone, 150 mg IV over 10 minutes
Adenosine, 6 mg rapidly over 3 seconds
Verapamil, 5 to 10 mg IV
4
B
3
null
null
null
null
null
293083cf-28c1-552d-9ed1-46a853f3b4d7
A 47-year-old patient with known hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy (HOCM) is anesthetized with propofol and nasally intubated. After induction, his blood pressure rises to 180/120 mm Hg and heart rate rises to 110. One millimeter ST depression is noted on leads I, II, and AVF. Which of the following interventions...
Esmolol 30 mg IV
Start sodium nitroprusside infusion
Start nitroglycerin infusion
Deepen the volatile anesthetic with desflurane
4
A
3
null
null
null
null
null
a9844ec7-08cb-5ed8-a068-d5abe12476d8
With pacemakers, the concept of upper tracking rate (UTR) is relevant with which type(s) of device?
VDD
DDI
AAI
All of the above
4
A
1
null
null
null
null
null
79812b0b-cddc-560e-9534-655352a162c3
Calculate the cardiac output from the following data: patient weight 70 kg, hemoglobin concentration 10 mg/dL, arterial blood gases on 100% O2 : Pao2 450 mm Hg, Paco2 32 mm Hg, pH 7.46, Sao2 99%. Mixed venous blood gases are: Pvo2 30 mm Hg, Paco2 45 mm Hg, pH 7.32, Svo2 60%.
1.5 L/min
2.5 L/min
3.5 L/min
4.5 L/min
4
D
2
null
null
null
null
null
352e00f0-58fb-5bea-bce1-2e2d804c06d9
Normal resting myocardial O2 consumption is
2.0 mL/100 g/min
3.5 mL/100 g/min
8 mL/100 g/min
15 mL/100 g/min
4
C
1
null
null
null
null
null
3dc8aa0b-80e9-544a-8c33-4d904fb86ec2
A 65-year-old patient with moderate aortic stenosis develops a sudden increase in heart rate during an appendectomy under general anesthesia. The ventricular rate is 190 beats/min and is irregularly irregular, arterial blood pressure is 70/45 mm Hg, and there is 2-mm ST segment depression in lead V5 of the ECG. Which o...
Electrical cardioversion
Esmolol
Phenylephrine
Verapamil
4
A
3
null
null
null
null
null
d4e734d9-7b5b-5064-9357-0e5df17c21a7
All of the following are TRUE concerning purely vasospastic angina EXCEPT
Chest discomfort occurs most often at rest
Pain may awaken the patient in the morning
β-blockers suppress episodes
Transient ST segment elevation occurs with the discomfort
4
C
1
null
null
null
null
null
d086452b-8b25-532c-814f-a5510a33b853
Normal resting coronary artery blood flow is
10 mL/100 g/min
40 mL/100 g/min
75 mL/100 g/min
120 mL/100 g/min
4
C
1
null
null
null
null
null
f4dcf969-daac-5bf9-b002-792fe28060fa
Each of the following is associated with an increased incidence of PA rupture in patients with PA catheters EXCEPT
Pulmonary hypertension
Presence of PA atheromas
Old age
Anticoagulation
4
B
1
null
null
null
null
null
c97c43b4-3451-5a0f-9577-995fd4ee60c9
Allergic reactions to protamine can occur with each of the following EXCEPT
Diabetes treated with NPH insulin
Diabetes treated with regular insulin
Diabetes treated with PZI insulin
Previous vasectomy
4
B
1
null
null
null
null
null
e93c35c6-bb50-50c2-a14f-8d0d28531ef3
A 66-year-old patient is undergoing a three-vessel coronary artery bypass operation. Anticoagulation is achieved with 20,000 units of heparin. How much protamine should be administered to this patient to completely reverse the heparin after cardiopulmonary bypass?
100 mg
200 mg
300 mg
400 mg
4
B
2
null
null
null
null
null
358a528d-920e-5baa-a34c-898ac4e494eb
A 69-year-old man with an axial flow left VAD is anesthetized for kidney stone removal from the left ureter. The patient is "dry," and blood pressure falls precipitously to a mean pressure of 51 mm Hg with no pulsatility on the arterial tracing. In addition to a fluid bolus, each of the other interventions would be use...
Increase pump speed from 7800 to 8500 rpm
Ephedrine
Phenylephrine
Trendelenburg position
4
A
3
null
null
null
null
null
69976497-cfd3-5dfc-99e1-911527c2dc83
The dose of adenosine necessary to convert paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia (PSVT) to normal sinus rhythm should be initially reduced
In patients receiving theophylline for chronic asthma
In patients with a history of arterial thrombotic disease taking dipyridamole
In patients with a history of chronic renal failure
In chronic alcoholics
4
B
1
null
null
null
null
null