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Medical etiquette is best defined as:
[ "Conventional way of couesy with professional members", "Couesy with other individuals of society", "Couesy towards client/patient", "Couesy towards female patient" ]
A
Medical etiquette is the subject concerned with the conventional laws and customs of couesy which are generally followed between members of the same profession. Accordingly, a doctor should behave with his colleagues as he would like to have them behave with him. He should treat the colleague as he would like to have t...
train
med_mcqa
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DIC is seen in -
[ "Acute promyelocytic leukemia", "Acute myelomonocytic leukemia", "CML", "Autoimmune hemolytic anemia" ]
A
null
train
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Most common shoulder dislocation is -
[ "Luxatio erecta", "Posterior", "Superior", "Anterior" ]
D
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Anterior o Shoulder joint is the commonest joint in human body to dislocate.o This is because shoulder joint is vulnerable for dislocation more often than any other joint in the bodyo The extreme mobility it enjoys jeopardizes its stability.o The shoulder joint has an ''Achilles point" at inferior par...
train
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Medial rectus is inserted on the medial aspect of sclera at what distance from sclerocorneal junction?
[ "5.5 mm", "6 mm", "6.5 mm", "7mm" ]
A
Ans. A. 5.5 mmMedial Rectus:The medial rectus is the largest of the ocular muscles and stronger than the lateral.# Origin- The medial rectus muscle arises from the annulus of Zinn. It has a wide origin to the medial side of and below the optic foramen from both parts of the common tendon, and from the sheath of the opt...
train
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Which of the following traditional medicines is effective in the treatment of hea failure
[ "Terminalia Arjuna", "Neem bark extract", "St. John's wo", "Gingkoba biloba" ]
A
Ans. a. Terminalia Arjuna Terminalia Arjuna (An ayurvedic cardioprotective botanical) Although many Ayurvedic plants have shown to help coronary aery disease, Arjuna (Terminalia Arjuna) by far seems to be the best plant for hea health. Terminalia arjuna is a traditional ayurvedic plant containing tannins, triterpenoid ...
train
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Treatment for common bile duct stone is by ?
[ "ESWL", "Exploration of bile duct and recovery of stones", "Bile duct stenting", "All" ]
D
Answer (a) ESWL, (b) Exploration of bile duct and recovery of stones, (c) Bile duct stenting
train
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Datura seeds resemble -
[ "Ricinus communis", "Capsicum", "Opium", "None" ]
B
↵The seeds of datura closely resemble those of the capsicum universally used over India as a condiment, and the difficulty of their detection is enhanced by the fact that, apart from the bitterness, the poison-seeds have little taste and as impure salt is generally used in India.
train
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What is true about sentinel surveillance ?
[ "It monitors health situation in border districts", "It is an improved method of malaria surveillance", "It method of supplementing routine surveillance system", "It is an effective method of surveillance of sanitary condition" ]
C
Ans. is 'c' i.e., It method of supplementing routine surveillance system Surveillance Surveillance is defined as "the continous scrutiny of the factors that determine the occurrence and distribution of disease and other conditions of ill health". Surveillance may be of following types :? 1. Passive surveillance Data is...
train
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Side-effect (s) of inhalational steroid is/are all except:
[ "Adrenal suppression", "Cataract", "Osteoporosis", "Hypoglycemia" ]
D
Answer- D. HypoglycemiaLocal side effects include hoarseness (dysphonia) and oral candidiasisgrowth retardation in children or to osteoporosis in adults.bruising, petechiaeHyperglycemia & pituitary- adrenal suppression
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Insulin resistance state causing hyperglycemia is present in -
[ "Acromegaly", "Osteomalacia", "Liver cellcarcinoma", "Somatostatinoma" ]
A
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Acromegaly o Endocrinopathies associated with hvperglvcia and insulin resistance state are:# Acromegaly# Cushing syndrome# Hyperthyroidism# Pheochromocytoma# Glucagonoma
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3 months old infant, no chest indrawing with respiratory rate 52/minute. Diagnosis is -
[ "No pneumonia", "Pneumonia", "Severe pneumonia", "Very severe disease" ]
B
<p> As per the history, the child has fast breathing but no chest indrawing. The features points to pneumonia. classification of pneumonia. Fast breathing is present when the respiratory rate is : 1. 60 breaths/min or more in child < 2 months of age. 2. 50 breaths/min or more in child aged 2-12 months. 3. 40 breaths/mi...
train
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Most common mechanism for transfer of resistance in staphylococcus aureus
[ "Conjugation", "Transduction", "Transformation", "Mutation" ]
B
Refer Goodman Gilman 11/e p 1098 Transduction is paicularly impoant in transfer of resistance among staphylococci Multidrug resistant is transferred by conjugation
train
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Nucleus of basal ganglia is?
[ "Dentate", "Caudate", "Thalamus", "Red nucleus" ]
B
Ans. B. CaudateThe basal ganglia are a group of structures found deep within the cerebral hemispheres (a group of subcortical nuclei). The structures generally included in the basal ganglia are the caudate, putamen, and globus pallidus in the cerebrum, the substantia nigra in the midbrain, and the subthalamic nucleus i...
train
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Metformin is NOT effective in lowering of blood sugar level in which of the following patients?
[ "Non diabetics", "Obese diabetics", "Type 2 diabetics", "Diabetics not responding to sulfonylureas" ]
A
(Ref:KDT 6/e p269) Metformin is the drug of choice for the treatment of obese diabetic patients, as it causes weight loss. It does not cause release of insulin, therefore less chances of hypoglycemia.
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A child presents with complaints of oliguria, abdominal distension and diarrhoea. On examination there is deep jaundice. Hepatomegaly was present measuring 4 era below the costal margin. Conjugated bilirubin in blood was 38 mg/dL, and there was urine urobilinogen and bile pigments. Hemoglobin was 4 mg/dL and serum crea...
[ "G6PD level in blood", "Serum ceruloplasmin", "Reticulocyte count", "Leptospiral antibody level" ]
B
Severe anemia, jaundice, hepatomegaly are strongly suggestive of this child is suffering with severe hemolysis. Oliguria and elevated creatinine levels are pointing out to acute renal failure due to hemolysis. Hence the investigations should be towards the etiology of hemolysis. Serum ceruloplasmin determination is for...
train
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Blood group antigens chemically are
[ "Carbohydrate", "Glycoprotein", "Phospholipids", "Polysaccharide" ]
B
Ans is 'b' i.e.,Glycoprotein The ABO antigens are determined to be glycoproteins and glycolipids.
train
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Best suture for common bile duct is -
[ "Synthetic absorbable synthetic", "Synthetic non-absorbable", "Non-synthetic absorbable", "Non-synthetic non-absorbable" ]
C
Ans. is 'c' i.e. Non-synthetic absorbable
train
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Paradoxical carrier is
[ "who sheds organism even during Recovery", "who sheds organism even during Incubation period", "who gets infected from a case", "who gets infected from another carrier" ]
D
Types of Carriers Paradoxical carrier- Carrier who gets infected from another carrier Contact carrier- Carrier who gets infected from case Chronic carrier- Carrier for >6 months Incubatory carrier- Carrier who sheds organism even during the Incubation phase Convalescent carrier- Carrier who sheds organism even during R...
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Methotrexate resistance is due to :
[ "Depletion of folate", "Overproduction of DHFRase", "Overproduction of thymidylate kinase", "Decreased DHFRase" ]
A
Mechanisms of pharmacokinetic and cellular resistance to methotrexate. Metabolism of methotrexate in the liver to paly inactive 7-hydroxymethotrexate reduces plasma concentrations of methotrexate and creates competition for cellular uptake RFC, which also internalizes reduced folates and folic acid, although with low a...
train
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Speech problem after adenoidectomy is due to-
[ "Trauma to larynx", "Velopharyngeal insufficiency", "Trauma to vocal cord", "Trauma to superior constrictor" ]
B
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Velopharyngeal insufficiency o Velopharyngeal insufficiency may occur after adenoidectomyo This causes hypernasality of voice.o It is due to incomplete closure of nasopharynx - abnormal physiological separation of oropharynx from nasopharynx
train
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Chicken pox is a common disease of childhood. It is caused by which of the following viruses?
[ "Cytomegalovirus", "Rotavirus", "Varicella-zoster virus", "Adenovirus" ]
C
Varicella-zoster virus is a herpesvirus. Chickenpox is a highly contagious disease of childhood that occurs in the late winter and early spring. It is characterized by a generalized vesicular eruption with relatively insignificant systemic manifestations.
train
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Cherry red spot is seen in all of the following conditions, except:
[ "GMl gangliosidosis", "Niemann pick disease", "Krabbe's disease", "Multiple sulfatase deficiency" ]
C
Krabbe's disease is a rare autosomal recessive neuro degenerative disorder. It is not associated with a cherry red spot. Ref: Pediatric Retina: Medical and Surgical Approaches By Mary Elizabeth Hanett, 2005, Page 84; Pediatric Pathology, Volume 2 By J. Thomas Stocker, Louis P. Dehner, 2001, Page 427.
train
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The inheritance pattern of familial retinoblastoma is
[ "Autosomal recessive", "Autosomal dominant", "X linked dominant", "X linked recessive" ]
B
Ref Robbins 7/e p1442,299- 300,9/e p292-293 In hereditary retinoblastoma, mutations in the RB1gene appear to be inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern. Autosomal dominant inheritance means that one copy of the altered gene in each cell is sufficient to increase the risk of cancer. A person with hereditary retinobla...
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A patient requiring total parental nutrition for more than a month via central venous catheter. All are done except
[ "Change central venous catheter tube every two weeks routinely", "LFT, BUN must be done weekly once", "Electrolytes must be checked every 2-3 days once", "Sudden glucose intolerance is an early sign of sepsis" ]
A
Central venous catheter is changed only if infected is suspected or catheter is blocked.
train
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Investigation of choice for locating Parathyroid gland:
[ "Tc Thallium substraction scan", "CAT Scan", "USG", "Angiography" ]
A
A i.e. Tc-Thallium Substraction Scan
train
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IPC which deals w ith dowry death is -
[ "304A", "304B", "303", "302" ]
B
Ans. is 'b' i.e., 304Bo 304-B IRC: Dowry death: 10 years of imprisonment which can extend to life,o 498-A I PC : Punishment for cruelty by husband or his relatives.Dowry deatho In some cases newly married girls are abused, harassed, cruelly treated and tortured by the husband, in-laws and their relatives for or in conn...
train
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In heart disease, prophylactic forceps is applied at head station of:
[ "-1", "1", "0", "2" ]
D
In heart disease forceps are applied prophylactically to cut down the second stage of labour and usually low or outlet forceps applied. Low forceps: Applied when leading point of fetal scalp is at station + 2 and not on pelvic floor. Outlet forceps: Applied when fetal skull has reached pelvic floor and scalp is visibl...
train
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In morbus caeruleus foramen ovale closes after -
[ "6 months", "2 years", "1 year", "Never" ]
D
Ans. is 'd' i.e., NeverIn few cases foramen ovale remains patent throughout life give rise to cyanosis, a condition called morbus caeruleus.
train
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A person has fever & pain in thyroid gland. True statement is/are
[ "T & t level normal", "ESR increased", "TSH increased", "It is due to T.B" ]
B
Acute (Suppurative) Thyroiditis Acute thyroiditis is rare and due to Suppurative infection of the thyroid More common in children and often preceeded by an upper respiratory tract infection or otitis media Etiology Thyroid gland is inherently resistant to infection due to its extensive blood & lymphatic supply, high io...
train
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Basic defect in HbS is -
[ "Altered function", "Altered solubility", "Altered stability", "Altered O2 binding capacity" ]
B
null
train
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In which case pneumococcal vaccine is most effective
[ "When given preoperatively", "When given post operatively", "Against all strains of bacteria", "Against gram negative bacteria" ]
A
• When elective splenectomy is planned, vaccination against encapsulated bacteria should be given at least 2 weeks before surgery. • If spleen is removed in emergency, vaccination should be given as soon as possible following surgery.
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TRUE about Gestational Trophoblastic Disease is?
[ "Most common site of metastasis is vagina", "Presence of Lung metastasis classifies as stage 4 GTN", "Liver metastasis carries a poor prognosis similar to brain metastasis", "GTN following a term pregnancy has a better prognosis than that with previous molar pregnancy" ]
C
Most common site of metastasis in choriocarcinoma is lung, which is classified as stage 3. Brain and liver metastasis are stage 4 and carry poor prognosis GTN following term pregnancy carries worse prognosis than that following a molar pregnancy or an aboion
train
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True about montoux is -
[ "False negative in fulminant diseases", "If once done, next time it is always positive", "Results are given in terms of positive & negative", "Indurations given in terms of length & breadth" ]
A
Ans. is 'a' i.e., False negative in fulminant disease . A positive tuberculin test indicates hypersensitivity to tuberculoprotein, it may be due to : - Active infection - Subclinical infection - Past infection - BCG vaccination . In overwhelming tuberculosis (fulminant cases) due to depressed cellular immunity montoux ...
train
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Which is not cysticidal for entamoeba -
[ "Paramomycin", "Chloroquine", "Tetracycline", "Diloxanide" ]
B
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Chloroquine o Chloroquine kills trophozoites of E. histolytica (not cysts). Therefore, it is used in hepatic amoebiasis only. o All other three drugs are luminal amoebicides - Drugs directly kills trophozites responsible for production of cysts (cysticidal effect).
train
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Diffusion hypoxia is seen with which drug:
[ "Nitrous oxide", "Ketamine", "Theophylline", "Halothane" ]
A
Ans. A. Nitrous oxideDiffusion hypoxia is side effect seen with nitrous oxide. It is seen when suddenly N2 O is stopped while recovering from anaesthesia. It can be prevented by supplying 100 percent O2 to the patient.
train
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ECG feature of Hyperkalemia includes
[ "Prolonged PR", "Wide QRS complex", "Prominent U Wave", "Prolonged QT interval" ]
B
(B) Wide QRS complex # ECG is essential and may be instrumental in diagnosing HYPERKALEMIA in the appropriate clinical setting.> ECG changes have a sequential progression of effects, which roughly correlate with the potassium level. ECG findings may be observed as follows:> Early changes of hyperkalemia include peaked ...
train
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Infant body weight is tripled by age of –
[ "5 months", "11 months", "2 years", "18 months" ]
B
The average birth weight of neonates is about 3 Kg. During first few days after birth, the newborn loses extracellular fluid equivalent to about 10% of the body weight. Most full term infants regain their birth weight by the age of 10 days. Subsequently, they gain weight at a rate of approximately 25 to 30 gm per day f...
train
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In metabolism of xenobiotics, all of the following reactions occur in phase one EXCEPT ?
[ "Oxidation", "Reduction", "Conjugation", "Hydrolysis" ]
C
null
train
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All of the following enzymes are involved in oxidation reduction, except:
[ "Dehydrogenases", "Hydrolases", "Oxygenases", "Peroxidases" ]
B
Ans. B. HydrolasesOxidoreductasesCan be:DehydrogenaseOxygenaseMonooxygenaseDioxygenaseOxidaseCatalasePeroxidase
train
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ANF is mediated by (ANF: Atrial natriuretic factor):
[ "Inositol phosphate", "DAG", "CyAMP", "CyGMP" ]
D
D i.e. CyGMP
train
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The normal growth of the human eye includes all except
[ "A 4 mm increase in axial length in first 6 months of life", "A corneal diameter of 10.5 mm at bih, 12mm by age 2", "An increase in corneal power in first 6 months", "Dramatic decrease in lens power in first one year" ]
C
The average corneal power at bih is 47.5 D which decreases gradually to adult value of 42.5 D . Thus the corneal power decreases in first 6 months. All other statements are correct.
train
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Drug of choice for chronic myeloid Leukemia (CML) is:
[ "Hydroxyurea", "Imatinib", "Inflliximab", "IFN" ]
B
Imatinib mesylate is the drug of choice for the management of chronic myeloid leukemia. Imatinib mesylate is an inhibitor of tyrosine kinase activity on BCR-ABL proteins and thereby inducing apoptosis. It produces much better haematologic and cytogenetic responses than the previous standard therapy. Though IFN and hydr...
train
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Which of the following is the best treatment for ITP?
[ "Prednisolone", "Azathioprine", "Splenectomy", "Platelet transfusion" ]
C
Acute ITP: I.V Ig Chronic ITP: Elective splenectomy (also, in Spherocytosis) *
train
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Which of the following is not true of Diplococcus pneumoniae -
[ "Bile solubility", "Optochin resistance", "Causes Meningitis", "Possesses capsule" ]
B
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Optochin resistance . Pneumococcus is optochin senstive (not resistant). The senstivity of pneumococci to optochin is useful in differentiating them from streptococci.
train
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Denominator of crude death rate is -
[ "1000 live birth", "Mid year population", "Total number of deaths in a community", "Total number of case population in community" ]
B
Crude death rate It is the simplest measure of mortality. It is defined as "the number of death (from all causes) per 1000 estimated mid-year population in one year, in a given place". Crude death rate = No. of death during the year / Mid-year population x 1000 Specific death rates When analysis is planned to throw...
train
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Labial bar is indicated when ?
[ "There is diastema", "There is labial inclination of teeth", "There is lingual inclination of teeth", "There is periodontally weak teeth" ]
C
Rest all are contraindications for labial bar.
train
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White infarcts are seen in all the following organs except:
[ "Lung", "Heart", "Spleen", "Kidney" ]
A
Ans. (a) Lung(Ref: Robbins 9th/pg 129; 8th/pg 128)A. Red infarct- Lung, Ovary, IntestineB. White infact - kidney, heart, spleen and brainLiver infarctions are rare because of liver's dual blood supply. Its infarction is described as dichotomic, i.e. it can show overlap between red to white infarct.
train
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A 20 yrs adult presents with severe hypoplastic anemia. What is most effective treatment :
[ "a-interferon", "IL-2", "ATG therapy", "Bone marrow transplantation" ]
D
Answer is D (Bone marrow transplantation) `Bone marrow transplantation is the best therapy for the young patient with a fully histocompatible sibling donor.' The curative treatment for young (<20 year-old) patients with severe idiopathic aplastic anemia is allogenic bone marrow transplantation if there is an available ...
train
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The conjugation of bilirubin to glucuronic acid in the liver;
[ "Converts a hydrophilic compound to a hydrophobic one", "Converts a hydrophobic compound to a hydrophilic one", "Enables the bilirubin molecule to cross the cell membrane", "Is increased during neonatal jaundice" ]
B
Ans. is 'b' i.e. converts a hydrophobic compound to a hydrophilic one.Ref: Harrison 16th/e p 239 (15th/e p 255)Bilirubin is produced in the reticuloendothelial cells of spleen and liver. This unconjugated bilirubin is not soluble in water so is bound to albumin for its transfer in plasma.Liver uptakes this unconjugated...
train
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Vaginal wall is derived from
[ "Endoderm", "Mesoderm", "Endoderm and mesoderm", "Ectoderm and mesoderm" ]
C
The whole vagina epithelium is derived from the paramesonephric (Mullerian) duct with bone morphogenic protein 4 reshaping the intermediate mesoderm-derived Mullerian duct into the vaginalprimordium. Vaginal development is also under negative control of androgens. Ref - BDC 6e vol2 pg 395
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The reproductive method by which fungi asexually produce rectangular spores by fragmentation of hyphae is known as-
[ "Chlamydospore", "Blastospore", "Conidiophore", "Ahrospore" ]
D
Ahrospores Fungi asexually produce rectangular spores Produced by fragmentation of hypha. Eg.Coccidioides.
train
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Growth retardation, skeletal deformities and hemosiderosis are characteristic features of which of the following disorders?
[ "β-Thalassemia major", "α-Thalassemia trait", "β-Thalassemia minor", "G6PD deficiency" ]
A
β-thalassemia trait and α-thalassemia trait are typically asymptomatic. The anatomic changes in β-thalassemia major are similar in kind to those seen in other hemolytic anemias but are profound in degree. Ineffective erythropoiesis and hemolysis result in a striking hyperplasia of erythroid progenitors, with a shift to...
train
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Urobilinogen is formed in the: September 2006
[ "Liver", "Kidney", "Intestine", "Spleen" ]
C
Ans. C: IntestineUrobilinogen is a colourless product of bilirubin reduction. It is formed in the intestines by bacterial action. Some urobilinogen is reabsorbed, taken up into the circulation and excreted by the kidney. This constitutes the normal "enterohepatic urobilinogen cycle".Urobilinogen content is determined b...
train
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Which of the following brain tumors does not spread CSF?
[ "Germ cell tumors", "Medulloblastoma", "CNS Lymphoma", "Craniopharyngoma" ]
D
Answer is D (Craniopharyngioma): 'Ceain brain tumors such as medulloblastomas, primitive neurectodermal tumors, anaplastic ependymomas, choroid plexus carcinoma, pineoblastomas germ cell tumors and lymphomas may involve the CSF, leptomeningis of the brain or spinal cord'. Thus all tumors except craniophatyngiomas menti...
train
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Unilateral high stepping gait is seen in -
[ "L5 radiculopathy", "Distal radiculopathy", "Cauda Equino syndrome", "None of the above" ]
A
null
train
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To which of the following family of chemical mediators of inflammation, the lipoxins belong -
[ "Kinin system", "Cytokines", "Chemokines", "Arachidonic acid metabolites" ]
D
Lipoxins are a recent addition to the family of bioactive products generated from arachidonic acid. 15 Lox pathway is involved in the generation of lipoxins, i.e., Lipoxin A4 (LXA4) and Lipoxin B4 (LXB4). Lipoxins can also be synthesized via 5-Lox pathway when 12-LOX acts on LTA4; and Via Aspirin-triggered 15- epi-lipo...
train
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Sign of pubey in boys is
[ "Enlargement of penis", "Enlargement of testes", "Appearance of pubic hair", "Appearance of axillary hair" ]
B
In girls, the first visible sign of pubey is the appearance of breast buds (Thelarche), between 8-12 years of ageIn boys the first visible sign of pubey is testicular enlargement, beginning as early as 9 1/2 yr.(Refer: Nelson's Textbook of Pediatrics, SAE, 1st edition, pg no. 926)
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Which of the following strains of wild poliovirus forms the salk type 1 component of inactivated polio vaccine?
[ "MEF - 1", "Mahoney", "Saukett", "Leningrad - 3" ]
B
IPV is usually made from Mahoney (salk type I), MEF - 1 (salk type II) and saukett (salk type III) that are grown in cell culture. The harvested viral components are inactivated with formaldehyde. Leningrad - 3 is a strain of mumps virus used for making mumps vaccine. Ref: Park, Edition 21, Page - 185
train
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The most impoant cells in type I hypersensitivity ?
[ "Macrophages", "Mast cells", "Neutrophils", "Lymphocytes" ]
B
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Mast cells Type I hypersensitivity (Immediate hypersensitivity) . It is a rapidly developing immunological reaction occuring within minutes after the combination of an antigen with antibody bound to mast cells in individuals previously sensitized to the antigen. . Immediate hypersensitivity reactions ...
train
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Which of these is false regarding cytokines ?
[ "Mediators of inflammation", "Produced by macrophages", "Are soluble proteins", "Does not mediate specific reactions" ]
D
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Does not mediate specific reactionsCytokines o Cytokines are soluble proteins (polypeptides)o They are produced by a wide variety of hematopoietic and nonhematopoietic cell types.o They regulate immunological, inflammatory and reparative host responses.o Cytokines mediate their effects by binding to s...
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Which of the following does not occur in Tetralogy of Fallot ?
[ "Congestive cardiac failure", "Polycythemia", "Brain abscess", "Infective Endocarditis" ]
A
NOT seen in Tetralogy of Fallot  Congestive cardiac failure  Cardiomegaly  Neonatal cyanosis  Recurrent Respiratory tract infection
train
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The clinical use of leuprolide include all the following except
[ "Endometriosis", "Osteoporosis", "Prostate cancer", "Precocious pubey" ]
B
Refer KDT 6/e p 239 GnRH agonists as well as antagonists can cause hit flushes, loss of libido and osteoporosis as adverse effects
train
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Concentration of bleaching powder used for disinfection oi urine and faeces is
[ "5%", "10%", "15%", "20%" ]
A
108) Ans: a (5%) Ref: Park 20th ed pi 18Concentration of bleaching powder used for disinfection of faeces anc urine is 5%.Agents suitable for disinfection of faeces and urineDisinfectantAmount per literConcentrationBleaching powder50 g5%Crude phenol100 ml10%Cresol50 ml5%Fonnalin100ml10%
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A 15-year-old male is admitted to the emergency department with severe headache and hydrocephalus. Radiographic examination reveals a craniopharyngioma occupying the sella turcica, primarily involving the suprasellar space. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this tumor?
[ "Persistence of a small portion of the Rathke pouch", "Abnormal development of pars tuberalis", "Abnormal development of foramina of Monro", "Abnormal development of the alar plates that form the lateral wall of diencephalon" ]
A
During embryologic development of the pituitary gland, an outgrowth from the roof of the pharynx (Rathke's pouch) grows cephalad and comprises the anterior lobe (pars distalis) of the pituitary gland. Since this gland normally occupies the sella turcica, it is most likely a tumor derived from the Rathke's pouch that is...
train
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Where does spermatozoa attain maturity during its passage?
[ "Seminal vesicles", "Epididymis", "Testes", "Prostate" ]
B
While passing through epididymis, sperm become motile and their surfaces and acrosomes undergo final maturation steps. Fluid within the epididymis contains glycolipid decapacitation factors that bind sperm cell membranes and block acrosomal reactions and feilizing ability until the factors are removed as pa of the capa...
train
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"Henderson Patterson" bodies are seen in:
[ "Small pox", "Fowl pox", "Molluscum", "Rabies" ]
C
Molluscum
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A 'Case' in T is defined as -
[ "X-ray positive", "Culture positive", "Sputum AFB positive", "Tuberculosis positive" ]
C
null
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Incidence of cord prolapse is least in:
[ "Frank breech", "Footling presentation", "Transverse lie", "Brow presentation" ]
A
The incidence of cord prolapse in in flexed breech is 6% and in footling is 12%.In extended breech it is only 0.5% which is not much higher than in veex.(0.4%). Ref.pg.375 Sheila Textbook of Obstetrics 2nd edition.
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Ascending paralysis is seen in:-
[ "Botulism", "Hemlock poisoning", "Zigadenus poisoning", "Cobra bite" ]
B
Conium Maculatum (Hemlock) * This plant is also known as spotted hemlock, because of the purple spots on its stem. * All pas of the plant are poisonous. * The whole plant has a mousy odor which is intensified by crushing the leaves or stems * Active principles: Coniine, methyl coniine and six other alkaloids. * Action:...
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Growth rate is calculated by ?
[ "Crude bih rate\\/Crude death rate", "Net reproduction - Crude death rate", "Total feility rate - Crude death rate", "Crude bih rate - Crude death rate" ]
D
park's textbook of preventive and social medicine 23rd edition. *when crude death rate is subtracted from crude bih rate the net residual is the current annual growth rate.
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Cherry red colour postmortem appearance is seen in-
[ "Cyanide poisoning", "Phosphorus", "Arsenic", "Mercury" ]
A
(Cyanide poisoning) (8.40-P)Hydrocyanic acid (Cyanogen or prussic acid)*Externally - is the smell of bitter almonds from the body*Postmortem staining is pink often incorrectly referred to as cherry red***Rigor mortis sets in early if there have been convulsive seizures*Internally -*The smell of bitter almonds ***The mu...
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Radiological factors indicating an unstable pelvis are all except ?
[ "Posterior sacroiliac complex displacement by > 1 cm", "Avulsion fracture of sacral or ischial end of the sacrospinous ligament", "Avulsion fractures of the L5 transverse process", "Isolated disruption of pubic symphysis with pubic diastasis of 2 cm." ]
D
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Isolated disruption of pubic symphysis with pubic diastasis of 2 cm Radiographic factors indicating unstable pelvis are :- Posterior sacroiliac complex displacement by > lcm Avulsion fracture of sacral or ischial end of the sacrospinous ligament Avulsion fractures of the L5 transverse process Disrupti...
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Which of the following is anabolic hormone:
[ "Corticosteroids", "Glucagon", "Insulin", "Somatostatin" ]
C
[Cl (Insulin): Ref 545-RS 7thINSULIN is a protein hormone. It plays an important role in metabolism causing increased carbohydrate metabolism, glycogenesis/glycogen storage; FA synthesis/TG storage and amino acid uptake/protein synthesis. Thus insulin is an important anabolic hormone which act on variety of tissues. Ma...
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Most common cause of ohostatic hypotension -
[ "Peripheral neuropathy", "Carcinoid Syndrome", "Pheochromocytoma", "Hypothyroidism" ]
A
Ohostatic hypotension: defined as a reduction in systolic blood pressure of at least 20 mmHg or diastolic blood pressure of at least 10 mmHg within 3 minutes of standing or head-up tilt on a tilt table, is a manifestation of sympathetic vasoconstrictor (autonomic) failure. Causes of neurogenic ohostatic hypotension inc...
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All of the following murmurs may be heard in patients with aoic regurgitation EXCEPT: March 2013
[ "High pitched decrescendo diastolic murmur", "Soft, low pitched mid-diastolic rumbling murmur", "Mid-systolic ejection flow murmur", "Pansystolic murmur" ]
D
Ans. D i.e. Pansystolic murmur Aoic regurgitation/AR Murmur heard: Mid diastolic Austin Flint murmur (severe AR) Wide pulse pressure AR may be seen in: -- Rheumatic fever, -- Aoic dissection etc.
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Limbic system is concerned with
[ "Control of emotions, food habits", "Sexual behavior", "Autonomic function", "All of the above" ]
D
Ans. (d) All of the above(Ref: Guyton, 13th ed/p.760)Functions of limbic system#Concerned with sexual behavior, the emotions of rage and fear, motivation, autonomic responses, learning and memory
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2 zeta and 2 gamma chains are present in which hemoglobin
[ "Hb Portland", "Hb gower I", "Hb gower II", "HbA2" ]
A
Hb portland - 2 zeta & 2 gamma. Hb Gower I - 2 zeta & 2 epsilon. Hb gower II - 2 alpha & 2 epsilon.
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Requirement of Iodine during Breast feeding
[ "50mcg/day", "100mcg/day", "200mcg/day", "250mcg/day" ]
D
RDA of Iodine in Adults - 150mcg/day RDA of Iodine during pregnancy and breast feeding is - 250mcg/day
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A 10-year-old boy developed hoarseness of voice following an attack of diphtheria. On examination, his Rt vocal cord was paralyzed. The treatment of choice for paralyzed vocal cord will be-
[ "Gel foam injection of right vocal cord", "Fat injection of right vocal cord", "Thyroplasty-type-I", "Wait for spontaneous recovery of vocal cord" ]
D
Unilateral paralysis of cord due to neuritis (as in diphtheria) does not require any treatment as it recovers spontaneously. The characteristic features of diphtherial neuropathy are that it recovers completely. Anyways, in unilateral vocal cord paralysis generally, no treatment is required (Dhingra 5th/ep. 318).
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Phenol red thread test dry eye, true is
[ "Colour change on contact with tears to assess the volume of tears", "Uses a pH meter for measurement and interpretation", "Measures ocular surface mucin deficiency if thread colour changes to blue", "Requires instillation of topical anesthesia before the procedure" ]
A
Ans. (a) Colour change on contact with tears to assess the volume of tearsRef: Yanoff 4/e, p. 277Phenol red thread test was developed by Hamano et al to obviate the disadvantages of Schirmer's test by eliminating the need for anesthesia.3 mm. of fine dye-impregnated 75mm cotton thread is placed in the lateral one-fifth...
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Hypoparathyroidism following thyroid surgery occurs within-
[ "24 hours", "2 - 5 days", "7-14 days", "2 - 3 weeks" ]
B
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All are true about PEEP except:
[ "Useful in situations where P02 is low", "|CO", "Impaired renal function", "|CT" ]
D
D i.e. |CT
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Duration of action of Lidocaine with adrenaline
[ "15-30 minutes", "30-60 minutes", "2-3 hours", "3-6 hours" ]
C
Duration of action of lidocaine with adrenaline is 2-3 hours. Adrenaline enhances both speed and quality of block, It also prolong effect of lignocaine and reduce the peak blood level and toxicity by reducing the local blood supply duration of action of lidocaine whithout adrenaline is 30-90min
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Abbe- Estlander Flap is used for:
[ "Lip", "Tongue", "Eyelid", "Ears" ]
A
Ans. is 'a' i.e. Lip A flap is a skin graft which has its own blood supply. (Normally a skin graft to survive is revascularized by the recipient bed. A flap has its own blood supply.) Abbey flap is used for Lip reconstruction. It is based on main aery of the orbicularis oris, the labial aery.
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Specific marker for intestinal inflammation
[ "C-reactive protein", "Fecal lactoferrin", "Erythrocyte sedimentation rate", "Leukocytosis" ]
B
Fecal lactoferrin is a highly sensitive and specific marker for detecting intestinal inflammation. Fecal calprotectin levels correlate well with histologic inflammation, predict relapses, and detect pouchitis. Both fecal lactoferrin and calprotectin are becoming an integral pa of IBD management and are used frequently ...
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Which of the following is a characteristic feature of Henoch-Schonlein Purpura?
[ "Blood in stool", "Thrombocytopenia", "Intracranial hemorrhage", "Susceptibility to infection" ]
A
Henoch-schonlein purpura is a small vessel vasculitis characterized by palpable purpura ahralgias, gastrointestinal signs and symptoms, glomerulonephritis. Gastrointestinal involvement is characterized by colicky abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, or constipation and frequently associated with passage of blood...
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Which of the following pathogenic mechanism is involved in the generation of sarcoidosis:
[ "Intra-alveolar and interstitial accumulation of CD4+ T cells", "Increased levels of T cell-derived TH1 cytokines such as IL-2 and IFN-g", "Increased levels of cytokines in the local environment IL-8, TNF", "All of the above" ]
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Pathogenesis of sarcoidosis: Unidentified antigen - CD4+ helper T cells - Non-necrotizing epithelioid granuloma Intra-alveolar and interstitial accumulation of CD4+ helper T-cells. Increase in Th1 cytokines such as IL-2 and IFN-g, resulting in T cell proliferation and macrophage activation, respectively Increase in sev...
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Which of the following enzymes is used in the treatment of Acute Lymphocytic Leukemia
[ "Asparginase", "Amylase", "Lipase", "Transaminase" ]
A
Answer is A (Asparginase): L-Asparginase is one of the most impoant drugs in the treatment of both childhood and adult ALL L-asparagine is an amino acid that plays an essential role in protein. DNA and RNA synthesis and the survival of leukemic cells. L-Asparginase exes its anti- leukemic activity by generating a state...
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All are true about "lead time" except
[ "Lead time is the period between early detection by Screening and diagnosis by other means later in life", "Lead time is the advantage gained by screening", "Detection programs should be restricted to those condition in which there is considerable time lag", "None of above" ]
D
Concept of Lead Time Lead time - Lead time is the period between early detection by Screening and diagnosis by other means later in life Lead time is the "Advantage gained by screening" Detection programs should be restricted to those conditions in which there is considerable time lag The benefits of the programme must...
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Deterministic effects of radiation are those effects in which the severity of response
[ "Is proportional to the dose", "Is determined by the operator", "Depends on composition of tissue", "Depends on volume of exposed tissue" ]
A
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In proximal tubule, HCO3 is absorbed with the step of
[ "Na+ Cl cotranspoer", "Na+ - K+2Cl contraspoer", "Na+ - H+ exchanger", "Na+ -K+ exchanger" ]
C
HCO3 is absorbed with the step of Na+ - H+ exchanger Ref: Ganong's review of medical physiology; 24th edition; page no; 680 Ref of imag :
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Schwaz operation is done in
[ "CSOM", "Serous otitis media", "Otosclerosis", "Acute mastoiditis" ]
D
Coical mastoidectomy, known as simple or complete mastoidectomy or Schwaz operation It is complete exenteration of all accessible mastoid air cells and conveing them into a single cavity. The posterior meatal wall is left intact and Middle ear structures are not disturbed. INDICATIONS 1. Acute coalescent mastoiditis. 2...
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Virulence of mycorbacteria is due to:
[ "Mycotoxin production", "Cell envelope", "Resistance to inactivation by heat", "Proteolytic bacteria" ]
B
Friends there are multiple factors are listed as virulence factors of the MTC, few of them are: Lipids and Fatty Acid Metabolism and Synthesis of complex lipids, lipoproteins Mycolic acid synthesis Cell envelope and cell wall proteins Some secretion system Proteins Inhibiting Antimicrobial Effectors of the Macrophage ...
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The final sugars in intestinal chyme are
[ "Glucose and fructose", "Ribose and mannose", "Ribose and xylulose", "Xylulose and fructose" ]
A
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A 40 year old lady presents to OPD with weight loss and palpitations is having hea rate of 110/min, BP=130/70mmHg, bilateral proptosis and warm moist skin. Investigations show undetectable TSH and normal free T4. What is the next best step in diagnosis?
[ "RAIU scan", "TPO antibody screen", "Thyroid stimulating antibody screen", "Free T3 levels" ]
D
The clinical diagnosis is Grave's disease. Since TSH is undetectable it fuher highlights this diagnosis. Since the question says next best step, we first have to demonstrate diagnosis of thyrotoxicosis with values of Free T3. The algorithm shown below highlights the impoance of measurement of free T3 levels. Measuremen...
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'Hair on end' appearance is characteristically seen in
[ "Thalasemia major", "Sickle cell anaemia", "G 6PD deficiency", "Hereditary spherocytosis" ]
A
Ans. a (Thalassemia major) (Ref. Radiology Review Manual, 5th/pg.174)Causes of "hair on end" or "crew hair cut" skull are# Thalassemia (Characteristic)# Hereditary spherocytosis# Sickle cell disease# G-6-PD deficiency# Iron deficiency anaemia# Neuroblastoma
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Schizophrenia is more common in which socioeconomic strata
[ "Middle", "Upper", "Low", "Upper middle" ]
C
Sociocultural Theories Although the prevalence of schizophrenia is quite uniform across cultures, it was found to be more common in lower socioeconomic status in some studies. This has now been explained due to a 'downward social drift', which is a result of having developed schizophrenia rather than causing it. Ref: A...
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Renovascular hypeension is aggreted by:
[ "ACE inhibitors", "Beta blockers", "Calcium channel blockers", "Thiazide diuretics" ]
A
ACE inhibitors
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Premature baby at 34wk was delivered & had bullous lesion on body. X ray shows periostitis next investigation is
[ "ELISA for HIV", "PCR for TB", "VDRL for mother & baby", "HbsAg for mother" ]
C
The above mentioned history is suggestive of Congenital Syphilis.So we will do VDRL of both mother and baby to confirm. Early Congenital syphilis Late Congenital syphilis appearing 2-6 weeks after bih untreated after 2 years of age Rhinitis, or "snuffles" Mucocutaneous lesions Bone changes :Osteochondritis, osteitis, a...
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Which of the following will be useful control strategies to check outdoor pollution with the "fine" paiculate matter?
[ "Restriction on the use of two engines", "Restriction on burning of biomass", "Restriction of use of coal as fuel at homes", "Active measures to control forest fires" ]
A
Prevention and control of air pollution The control of air pollution is ultimately an engineering problem. The WHO has recommended the following procedures for the prevention and control of air pollution : (a) Containment : That is, prevention of escape of toxic substances into the ambient air. Containment can be achie...
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