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Nocardia can be differentiated from other Actinomyces by ?a) ZN stainingb) Fontana stainc) Gram stainingd) Oxygen requirement
[ "b", "c", "ad", "ab" ]
C
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Sebborhoic Dermatitis is produced by deficiency of:
[ "Vitamin C", "Vitamin B1", "Vitamin B2", "Vitamin A" ]
C
Vitamin B2 deficiency: Riboflavinosis is characterized by following clinical manifestations: Corneal vascularization - earliest sign of deficiency. Glossitis - inflammation of tongue (magenta tongue- characteristic), Cheilosis - redness and shiny appearance of lips. Angular stomatitis- lesions at mucocutaneous junction...
train
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True about anaphylactoid reaction caused by NSAIDs-
[ "Caused by all NSAIDs", "COX-2 inhibitors are safe", "Related to hypersensitivity reaction", "Not related to inhibition of COX" ]
B
Ans. is 'b' i.e., COX-2 inhibitors are safe
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Which one of the following statements about influence of smoking on risk of Coronary hea disease is not true?
[ "Influence of smoking is independent of other risk factors for CHD", "Influence of smoking is only additive to other risk factors for CHD", "Influence of smoking is synergistic to other risk factors for CHD", "Influence of smoking is directly related to number of cigarettes smoked per day" ]
B
Relationship between smoking and coronary hea disease:- Influence of smoking in independent of other risk factors for CHD Influence of smoking is synergistic to other risk factors for CHD Influence of smoking is directly related to number of cigarettes smoked per day Influence of smoking is more than additive to other ...
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First symptom of digoxin overdose is-
[ "GIT disturbance", "U-vave on ECG", "Ectopic on ECG", "Fainting spells" ]
A
the first symptom of digoxin overdose is GI disturbance ie nausea and anorexia Ref Davidson 23rd edition pg 460
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All of the following are branches of splenic Aery, Except.
[ "Sho Gastric Aery", "Hilar branches", "Right Gastroepiploic Aery", "Aeria Pancreatica Magna" ]
C
C i.e. Right Gastroepiploic Aery
train
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Quantiles divide a set of variables in how many divisions:
[ "3", "5", "10", "15" ]
B
Quantiles are the values of the variable that divide the total number of subjects into ordered groups of equal size. Names such as percentiles, deciles, quintiles, quailes and teiles are used when number of divisions is 100, 10, 5, 4, 3 respectively. Ref: Medical biostatistics, 1st edition pg: 119
train
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Maxillary 1st molar has MB2 in:
[ "41% of cases", "84% of cases", "60% of cases", "30% of cases" ]
B
null
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In congenital dystrophic variety of epidermolysis bullosa, mutation is seen in the gene conding for
[ "Laminin 4", "Co11agen type 7", "Alpha 6 integerin", "Keratin 14" ]
B
Dystrophic epidermolysis bullosa - collagen type VII Epidermolysis bullosa simplex -keratin 14 Junctional epidermolysis bullosa is an inherited disease affecting laminin and collagen . page no. 287. Reference IADVL's concise textbook of dermatology
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Which one of the following is NOT a transpoer or binding protein: March 2013
[ "Erythropoietin", "Ceruloplasmin", "Lactoferrin", "Transferrin" ]
A
Ans. A i.e. ErythropoietinErythropoietin causes formation and release of new RBCs into circulation
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A girl aged 20 yrs complains of headache while studying. Her vision is found to be normal. All of the following should be further evaluated except
[ "Self worth", "Family history of headache", "Menstrual history", "Her interest in studies" ]
A
Family h/o headache is important in any headache to rule out organic cause of headache. Menstrual history Menstrual history is important in any female presenting with headache to rule to premenstrual syndrome. Detailed menstrual history should be taken to find out headache is due to hormonal imbalance. Interest in stud...
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All the following are used in scabies except
[ "BHC", "Permethrin", "Crotamiton", "Ciclopirox olamine" ]
D
Cyclopirox oleamine is an topical antifungal. Some topical antifungals include: a. Ciclopirox olamine, b. Haloprogin, have same spectrum among cutaneous mycoses as imidazoles. c. Terbinafine, and d. Naftifine e. Tolnaftate effective against ringworm but not candidiasis. f. Undecylenic acid g. Keratolytic agents, such a...
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A common feature of all serine proteases is
[ "Autocatalytic activation of zymogen precursor", "Tight binding of pancreatic trypsin inhibitor", "Cleavage of protein on the carboxyl site of serine residues", "Presence of Ser-His-Asp catalytic triad at the active site" ]
D
The main player in the catalytic mechanism in the serine proteases is the catalytic triad. The triad is located in the active site of the enzyme, where catalysis occurs, and is preserved in all superfamilies of serine protease enzymes. These three key amino acids each play an essential role in the cleaving ability of t...
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Hypoxia is the common cause of cell injury and all of the mentioned are causes of hypoxia, except:
[ "Ischemia", "Respiratory failure", "Carbon monoxide poisoning", "All of the above" ]
D
Hypoxia is an extremely impoant and common cause of cell injury and cell death. Causes of hypoxia include:- Reduced blood flow (ischemia) Inadequate oxygenation of the blood due to cardiorespiratory failure Decreased oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood, as in anemia or carbon monoxide poisoning (producing a stable ca...
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Hypomagnesemia is associated with which of the following-
[ "Alcoholism", "Hypothyroidism", "Both", "None" ]
A
A rising blood concentration of ethanol directly impairs tubular magnesium reabsorption, thus leading to hypomagnesemia. Hypehyroidism is a cause for hypomagnesemia and hypothyroidism causes hypermagnesemia. Reference : page 2462-63 Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine 19th edition
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Most common cause for subdural hematoma
[ "Injury to middle meningeal artery", "Injury to middle meningeal vein", "Tearing of cortical bridging veins", "Rupture of berry aneurysm" ]
C
Injury to MMA or MMV - Epidural. Rupture of berry aneurysm - SAH.
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Which is non-sense codon?
[ "UGG", "AUG", "UGA", "CCA" ]
C
Non sense codons are UAA , UAG and UGA Ref-Harpers illustrated biochemistry 30/e p478
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A young boy had a flea bite while working in a wheat grain godown. After 5 days he developed fever and had axillary lymphadenopathy. A smear was sent to the laboratory to perform a specific staining. Which one of the following staining method would help in the identification of the suspected pathogen:
[ "Albe staining", "Zeihl Neelson staining", "Mc Fadyean staining", "Wayson staining" ]
D
The most likely disease to be caused by the flea bite in a young boy is PLAGUE caused by YERSINIA PESTIS and smear is stained with WAYSON stain. Albe staining:- staining the volutin granules found in Corynebacterium diphtheriae Zeihl Neelson staining:-for Mycobacterium Mc Fadyean staining:-M'Fadyean Stain(Polychrome Me...
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Which of the following is not a type of trait of the permanent maxillary second premolar?
[ "Buccal view: narrow shoulders (margins of crown; mesio- and disto-occlusal angles).", "Occlusal table outline: ovoid.", "Mesiomarginal groove interrupts mesial marginal ridge.", "Lingual view: buccal profile is not visible." ]
C
No, or almost never does the mesial marginal developmental groove cross the mesial marginal ridge.
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A 3 year old female child presented with skinpapules. Which of the following is a marker of Langerhan's cell histiocytosis?
[ "CD la", "CD 3", "CD 68", "CD 57" ]
A
CD la Histiocytosis is a disorder of the mononuclear phagocytic system. Mononuclear phagocytic system consists of monoblasts, promonocytes, monocytes and tissue macrophages, Macrophages are transformed monocytes i.e. monocytes present in the tissues. Moncytes emigrate continuously from peripheral blood into the tissues...
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Which of the following drugs can cause Disulfiram like reaction
[ "Griseofulvin", "Procarbazine", "Chlorpropamide", "All of the above" ]
D
Drugs causing "Disulfiram like reaction" Griseofulvin Tinidazole chlorpropamide Metronidazole Procarbazine Nitrofurantoin Cefoperazone.
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Ritter&;s disease is caused by
[ "Bacillus anthracis", "Streptococcus pneumoniae", "Staphylococcus aureus", "Pseudomonas auriginosa" ]
C
Exfoliative (Epidermolytic) toxin is responsible for the staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome. It is an exfoliative skin disease in which the outer layer of the epidermis gets separated from the underlying tissues. The severe form of SSSS syndrome is known as Ritter's disease in the newborn and toxic epidermal necrolys...
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Molar concentration of oral rehydration fluid is -
[ "Sodium 30 meq", "Potassium 20 meq", "Bicarbonate 30 meq", "Chloride 20 meq" ]
B
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Potassium 20 meq
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Interpret the developmental anomaly shown in the following radiograph:
[ "Dens invaginatus", "Regional odontodysplasia", "Dentinal dysplasia", "Dentinogenesis imperfecta" ]
A
Dens invaginatus This anomaly is the result of an infolding of the enamel organ prior to calcification and represents, in its coronal form, an accentuation of the cingulum pit. The anomaly is believed to be genetically determined and has a prevalence of 5%. The maxillary lateral incisors are commonly affected. The cond...
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Site for injection of cell culture rabies vaccine -
[ "Gluteus", "Subcutaneous", "Deltoid", "Anterior abdominal wall" ]
C
-intra muscular administration of rabies human diploid cell vaccine is done for post exposure prophylaxis of rabies . - Essen regimen : 5 dose regimen and prescribes 1 dose on each of days 0,3,7,14 and 28. - dose is 1/ 0.5ml and site of administration is deltoid. Reference : Park's textbook of preventive and social med...
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All of the following features can differentiate between ventricular tachycardia and supraventricular tachycardia EXCEPT
[ "QRs < 0.14 seconds", "Ventricular rate > 160/min", "Variable first heart sound", "Relieved by carotid sinus massage" ]
B
null
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Indoor air pollution does not cause –
[ "Chronic lung disease", "Pregnancy problems", "Childhood pneumonia", "Neuro-developmental problems" ]
D
Effects of indoor air pollution Acute respiratory tract infections (Pneumonia) Chronic lung disease Lung cancers in adults Adverse pregnancy outcomes (Especially stillbirths)
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Primary prevention-
[ "Marriage counseling", "Early diagnosis and treatment", "Pap smear", "Self breast examination" ]
A
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Marriage counseling
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Botulisim causes -
[ "Descending flaccid paralysis", "Descending spastic paralysis", "Ascending paralysis", "Ascending spastic paralysis" ]
A
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Descending flaccid paralysis o Botulism causes acute descending paralysis of flaccid type (Areflexia).o Symptoms begin 18 - 24 hrs after ingestion of toxic food with cranial nerve involvement. These are -DiplopiaDysarthriaDysphagiao Symmetric descending paralysis is characteristic and can lead to resp...
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What is the use of murphys eye present on the tip of endotracheal tube
[ "Alternate path for ventilation if the proximal po gets blocked", "Opening for suctioning", "Continuous suctioning po", "To make the tube light" ]
A
Murphys eye is provided to serve as alternate pathway for ventilation. Murphy Endotracheal Tube. The "Murphy eye" is the eponymous name for a hole on the side of mostendotracheal tubes (ETTs) that functions as a vent, and prevents the complete obstruction of the patient's airway, should the primary distal opening of an...
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Antinuclear antibody specific for SLE is
[ "Anti ds DNA", "Anti nuclear antibodies", "Anti centromere antibody", "Anti histone Ab" ]
A
Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is a multisystem autoimmunedisease of protean manifestations and variableclinical behavior. Clinically, it is an unpredictable, remittingand relapsing disease of acute or insidious onset thatmay involve viually any organ in the body; however, itaffects principally the skin, kidneys, s...
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Kidney size increases in pregnancy by
[ "0.5cm", "1.5cm", "2cm", "2.5cm" ]
B
Kidney size increases approximately 1.5 cm, returns to normal size in postpaum.(Ref: William's Obstetrics; 25th edition)
train
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Kidney biopsy from a child with hemolytic uremic syndrome characteristically most likely presents features of:
[ "Thrombotic microangiopathy", "Proliferative glomerulonephritis", "Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis", "Minimal change disease" ]
A
Thrombotic microangiopathy encompasses a spectrum of clinical syndromes that includes TTP and HUS. Insults that lead to excessive activation of platelets, which deposit as thrombi in small blood vessels.
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Cause of Tuberculosis of fallopian tube is due to NOT RELATED-GYN
[ "Hematogenous spread", "Lymphatic spread", "Ascending infection", "Primary infection" ]
A
Hematogenous from other primary sources
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Serological testing of patient shows HBsAg, IgM Anti-HBc and HBeAg positive . The patient has-
[ "Chronic hepatitis B with low infectivity", "Acute hepatitis B with high infectivity", "Chronic hepatitis with high in fectivity", "Acute on chronic hepatitis" ]
B
HBs Ag is the first marker appear in the blood after infection. Anti HBc is the earliest antibody seen in blood. HBeAg indicates infectivity REF:MICROBIOLOGY ANANTHA NARAYANAN NINTH EDITION PAGE.546&547
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Tubal ligation is repoed to have DECREASED the risk of?
[ "Functional ovarian cysts", "Ovarian cancer", "Breast cancer", "Salpingitis" ]
B
Studies have concluded that tubal sterilization protects against ovarian cancer. There is no change in the incidence of breast cancer. The incidence of functional ovarian cysts is increased almost two fold following tubal sterilization. No repos of decrease in salpingitis after tubal ligation.
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Diagnosis criteria of Acute severe malnutrition does not include
[ "Visible severe wasting", "Bipedal Edema", "Weight for height <25D", "Mid arm circumference < 115mm" ]
C
WHO Acute malnutrition criteria Visible severe wasting Bipedal Edema Weight for height < 35D Mid arm circumference < 115mm
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Risk factors of tuberculosis includes
[ "HIV", "Type I diabetes mellitus", "Chronic renal failure", "All of the above" ]
D
null
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Post splenectomy sepsis is common in
[ "ITP", "Thalassemia", "Hereditary spherocytosis", "All" ]
D
Ans. is 'a' i.e. ITP; 'b' i.e. Thalassemia & 'c' i.e. Hereditary spherocytosis Schwaz writes about Postsplenectomy infections " Reason for splenectomy is the single most influential determinant of OPSI risk. Case series demonstrate that those who undergo splenectomy for hematologic disease (malignancy, myelodysplasia, ...
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Mala-N oral contraceptive pill differs from Mala-D, in terms of:-
[ "Norgestrol dosage", "Oestradiol dosage", "Sold under social marketing scheme", "Supplied free of cost" ]
D
Mala-N Mala-D Type of contraceptive Combined OCP Combined OCP Estrogen Ethinyl estradiol Ethinyl estradiol Progesterone Norgestrel Desogestrel Status in RCH Provide free of cost Provided at a subsidized cost (Rs. 3/ per packet)
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Liver biopsy is indicated in patients with hemochromatosis only if:
[ "Elevation of transaminase present", "Serum ferritin > 1000 g/L", "Evidence of cirrhosis", "If percentage saturation of iron is high" ]
B
Screening tests for hemochromatosis are: transferrin saturation or ferritin level (Both will be high) Confirmatory test for hemochromatosis: Genetic testing (C282Y homozygote or a compound heterozygote (C282Y/H63D). If the ferritin is >1000 g/L, the patient should be considered for liver biopsy. Ref: Harrison, E-18, P-...
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In a pregnant female, there is decreased requirement of the spinal anaesthetic agent because of all of the following except:
[ "Exaggerated lumbar lordosis", "Decreased volume of sub arachnoid space", "Engorgement of epidural veins", "Increased sensitivity of the nerves to anaesthetic agent" ]
A
Ans. a. Exaggerated lumbar lordosis In a pregnant female, there is decreased requirement of the spinal anaesthetic agent because of decreased volume of sub arachnoid space, engorgement of epidural veins and increased sensitivity of the nerves to anaesthetic agent (but not due to exaggerated lumbar lordosis). Spinal Ane...
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At autopsy, the cyanide poisoning case will show the following features, except - -
[ "Characteristic bitter lemon smell", "Congested organs", "The skin may be bright red or cherry red", "Erosion and hemorrhages in oesophagus and stomach" ]
A
Cyanide poisoning is associated with a characteristic smell of biter almonds and not of bitter lemon. Other three options are correct.
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The CSF findings in tubercular meningitis include:
[ "High sugar + low protein", "Low sugar + high protein and lymphocytosis", "High sugar + high chloride", "Low sugar + high protein and lymphopenia" ]
B
Ans. B. Low sugar + high protein and lymphocytosisMeningitis is a serious manifestation of childhood tuberculosis. It may occur at any age but is most common between 6 months-24 months. There is usually a focus of primary infection or military tuberculosis. The onset is usually insidious and clinical features are divid...
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True about genetics of cancer -
[ "Topoisomerase II is useful for breaking double stranded DNA", "Increased telomerase activity enhances anti tumour effect", "Maximum synthesis of DNA occurs during G2 phase", "Transition from G2 to M phase is important in blockage of cancer spread" ]
A
Ans-A
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A patient has prottitetic valve replacement and he develops endocarditis 8 months later. Organism responsible Is
[ "Stahylococcus aureus", "Streptococcus viridans", "Staphylococcus epidermidis", "HACEK" ]
C
Ref: R Alagappan - Manual of Practical Medicine 4th Edition.pg no:161 Infective Endocarditis (IE) It is the colonisation of the hea valves with microbiologic organisms, leading to the formation of friable, infected vegetations and frequently valve injury. Types 1. Acute infective endocarditis: Caused by highly virulent...
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Which of the following is an activator of LCAT
[ "Apo B 100", "Apo B 48", "Apo E", "Apo AI" ]
D
Apo-Al  Apo A-I is an activator for lecithin : cholesterol acyl transferase (LCAT).
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Following anterior dislocation of the shoul-der, a pt develops weakness of flexion at elbow and lack of sensation over the lateral aspect forearm; nerve injured is:
[ "Radial nerve", "Musculocutaneous nerve", "Axillary nerve", "Ulnar nerve" ]
B
B i.e. Musculocutaneous nerve Flexion of the elbow is caused by biceps brachii (musculo cutaneous nerve), brachialis ( muscolo cutaneous nerve) and branchioradialis (radial nerve)Q. So the nerve injured may be either musculocutaneus or radial. So lets see the cutaneous nerve supply of these nerves.
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Antagonist of benzodiazepine is?
[ "Naltrexone", "Flumazenil", "Naloxone", "N-Acetyl cysteine" ]
B
ANSWER: (B) FlumazenilREF: Harrisons 17th edTable 35-4, Goodman and Gillman's 11th edition page 270 Repeat Pharmacology 2013 Session 2, December 2009Indirect Repeat December 2009, December 2010, Forensic Medicine PD June 2012 See APPENDIX-42 below "ANTIDOTES & TOXICOLOGY" APPENDIX - 42AntidotesAntidotePoison/drug/toxin...
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Which nerve mostly damaged in post dislocation of hip ?
[ "Sciatic nerve", "Femoral nerve", "Obturator nerve", "Superior gluteal nerve" ]
A
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Sciatic nerve
train
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A 41 year old male presents with a weak flexor pollicis longus and flexor digitorum profundus of the index finger. The nerve inxolved could be -
[ "Ulnar nerve", "Median nerve", "Posterior interosseus nerve", "Radial nerve" ]
B
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Median nerve * The various muscles supplied by median nerve are : -1) In the forearm# All the flexor muscles of the forearm, except the flexor carpi ulnaris and the medial half of flexor digitorum profundus to the ulnar two fingers.These muscles are: -i) Pronater teresiv) Flexor digitorum superficialv...
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Which of the following represents the embryological origin of Meckel's diveiculum?
[ "Urogenital sinus", "Allatoic diveiculum", "Vitello intestinal duct", "None of the above" ]
C
Meckel's diveiculum results from failure or incomplete obliteration of Vitello intestinal duct( omphalomesentric duct). It follows the rule of '2' : 2% prevalence, 2:1 female predominance, located 2 feet proximal to the ileocecal valve in adults, 50% of symptomatic individuals are less than 2 years. Reference: Schwatz'...
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TB research centre located at
[ "Chennai", "Bangalore", "Kolkatta", "Delhi" ]
A
null
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A 'saphenous vein cutdown' is a procedure used to locate the great saphenous vein at the ankle. To find this vein, the skin would be incised ?
[ "Anterior to the lateral epicondyle", "Posterior to the medial epicondyle", "Anterior to the medial malleolus", "Posterior to the lateral malleolus" ]
C
At the ankle, the great saphenous vein travels anterior to the medial malleolus. At the knee, it travels posterior to the medial condyle of the femur. However, saphenous cut-downs are done at the ankle, not the knee, so anterior to the medial malleolus is the correct answer. The other impoant relationship to remember i...
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Exsanguination is one of the first steps before application of a tourniquet preoperatively. All the following are contra indications for exsanguination except
[ "Deep vein thrombosis", "Underlying fracture", "Presence of infection", "Tumour" ]
B
Presence of underlying infection or tumor is an absolute contra indication for exsanguination since that can cause dissemination. Fatal pulmonary embolism may result if exsanguination is done over underlying deep vein thrombosis
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Amyotrophic Lateral sclerosis is characterized by
[ "Spasticity early sing", "Sensory loss", "Anterior and Lateral columns affected", "Incontinence" ]
C
Harrison's principles of internal medicine 17th edition. *Pathologic hallmark is death of lower motor neurons (consisting of anterior horn cells in the spinal cord and their brainstem homologues innervating bulbar muscles) and upper, or coicospinal, motor neurons (originating in layer five of the motor coex and descend...
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DM+HTN+Obesity-Drug Of Choice
[ "Glibenclamide", "Metformin", "Vildagliptin", "Empagliflozin" ]
D
Gliflozins are SGLT2 inhibitors which cause loss of glucose,sodium and water from the body leading to reduction in BP,Glucose and weight.But they increase the risk of UTI. Ref; Katzung 12th ed.
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Chemotherapy can be successful during treatment of:
[ "Anneloblastoma", "Leukemia", "Fibrosarcoma", "Basal cell carcinoma" ]
B
null
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Sexual perversion in which one has the desire to see other person/wife having sex with others is?
[ "Sadism", "Exhibitionism", "Voyeurism", "Fetishism" ]
C
Ans is 'c' i.e. Voyeurism * Watching sexual activity of other people or the body parts of members of opposite sex is k/a Voyeurism.
train
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Major constituent of surfactant is -
[ "Dipalmitoyl lecithine", "Dipalmitoyl cephaline", "Dipalmitoyl serine", "Dipalmitoyl inositol" ]
A
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Dipalmitoyl lecithin o The major (65%) constituent of surfactant is dipalmitoylphosphatidylcholine (dipalmitoyl-lecithin); which is a phospholipid.
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A total number of .......tablets of iron with folic acid is given to a pregnant women by the Health worker-
[ "70", "90", "100", "150" ]
C
<p> 100 mg of elemental iron and 500 micrograms of folic acid are being distributed daily for 100 days to a pregnant woman through ASHA or antinatal clinic. Reference:Park&;s textbook of preventive and social medicine,K.Park,23rd edition,page no:527. <\p>
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Which of the following is MOST commonly affected in U.C.-
[ "Cecum", "Rectum", "Sigmoid colon", "Terminal leum" ]
B
Ans. is 'b' i.e., RectumThe most common site of involvement in Ulcerative colitis is the rectum.Ulcerative colitis (involvement is limited to the colon)o Ulcerative colitis typically starts in the rectum and may progress with continuous lesions (no skip lesions) in a retrograde manner to involve the entire colon (Panco...
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Which of the following reduces the efficacy of oral contraceptives ?
[ "Erythromycin", "Griseofulvin", "Cimetidine", "Disulfiram" ]
B
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Griseofulvin Contraceptive failure may occur if the following drugs are given concurrently : (a) Enzyme inducer Enhances the metabolism of estrogen & progesterone. Phenytoin 3. Carbamazepine 5. Primidone 2. Phenobarbitone 4. Rifampicin 6. Griseofulvin (b) Suppression of intestinal microflora enterohep...
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Which of the following local anesthetic is metabolized by liver
[ "Procaine", "Cocaine", "Benzocaine", "Chlorprocaine" ]
B
All of the above drugs belong to ester group of local anesthetics. All ester are metabolized in plasma except cocaine which is metabolized in liver.
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A 60-year-old woman has been hospitalized for three weeks with widely metastatic ovarian adenocarcinoma, and she becomes septic with vancomycin-resistant enterococcus. What is the mechanism of vancomycin resistance in this organism?
[ "Acetylation of antibiotic", "Altered drug-binding protein", "Beta-lactamase production", "Formation of novel cell wall peptide bridges" ]
D
The antibiotic propey of vancomycin depends upon its ability to bind D-ala-D-ala, which is vital in the synthesis of peptidoglycan peptide bridges. Vancomycin-resistant enterococci instead utilize D-lactic acid in their peptide bonds, and thus are resistant to the action of vancomycin. Enzymatic deactivation of antibio...
train
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Clara cells are seen in
[ "Alveoli", "Bronchus", "Trachea", "Bronchiole" ]
D
null
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Course of the great saphenous vein lies in what relation to the malleoli
[ "Anterior to the medial malleolus", "Posterior to the medial malleolus", "Anterior to the lateral malleolus", "Posterior to the lateral malleolus" ]
A
GREAT SAPHENOUS VEIN:- Lie on the dorsum of the foot.Recieves 4 dorsal metatarsal veins.Formed by union of medial end of dorsal venous arch with the medial marginal vein and drains the medial side of great toe.Passes upwards of medial malleolus (2.5cm in front) ,crosses the lower one-third of the medial surface of the ...
train
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Which of these following is not an effect of insulin?
[ "Decreased gluconeogenesis", "Increased glycogenolysis", "Increased transport of glucose into cells", "Induction of lipoprotein lipase" ]
B
null
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Conj ugated hyperbilirubinemia -
[ "Dubin Johnson syndrome", "Criggler najjar syndrome", "Breast mi lk jandice", "Gilbert syndrome" ]
A
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Dubin johnson syndrome o Breast milk jaundice-Decrease bilirubin uptake across hepathocyte membrane.Entero-hepatic recirculation.Leads to indirect hyperbilirubinemia.o Crigler najjar & Gilbert syndrome (deficiency of glucuronyl transferase) <Type I - Complete deficiency Type II - Partial deficiencyy D...
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A 58-year-old woman with colon cancer presents with 3 months of increasing shoness of breath. A chest X-ray reveals numerous, bilateral, round masses in both lungs. Histologic examination of an open-lung biopsy discloses malignant gland-like structures, which are nearly identical to the colon primary. Which of the foll...
[ "Arrest within the circulating blood or lymph", "Exit from the circulation into a new tissue", "Invasion of the underlying basement membrane", "Penetration of vascular or lymphatic channels" ]
C
The first event in tumor cell invasion is a breach of the basement membrane that separates an epithelium from the underlying mesenchyme. After invading the interstitial tissue, malignant cells penetrate lymphatic or vascular channels (choice D). In the lymph nodes, communications between the lymphatics and venous tribu...
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When can a severely malnourished child be safely discharged from the hospital ?
[ "The child attains his height for age", "The child reaches his ideal weight for height", "The child loses edema and starts gaining weight", "The child attains weight for his age" ]
C
Criteria for discharge in PEM The appetite should have retured and oral intake is adequate. Gain in body weight with loss edema. All infections, mineral and vitamin deficiencies should have been treated. Mother should have been educated regarding domiciliary care.
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Which scientific principle is the basis for thermodilution method used in measurement of cardiac output by pulmonary catheter?
[ "Hagen-Poisseuile principle", "Stewart-Hamilton equation", "Bemouli's principle", "Universal Gas Equation" ]
B
Ans. b. Stewart-Hamilton equation (Ref: Ganong 23/e p513; Guyton 11/e p244)Stewrt-Hamilton equation is the basis for thermodilution method used in measurement of cardiac output by pulmonary catheter.Stewart Hamilton equationThe thermodilution technique has become the de-facto clinical standard for measuring cardiac out...
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Which of the following statements about cutaneous shunt vessels is true:
[ "Perform nutritive function", "Have role in thermoregulation", "Not under the control of autonomic nervous system", "These vessels are evenly distributed throughout the skin" ]
B
Ans. B. Have role in thermoregulationARTERIOVENOUS ANASTOMOSESa. In the fingers, palms, and ear lobes, short channels connect arterioles to venules, bypassing the capillaries. These arteriovenous (A-V) anastomoses, or shunts, have thick, muscular walls and are abundantly innervated, presumably by vasoconstrictor nerve ...
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What is the golden period for treatment of open wounds is _____ hours
[ "4", "6", "12", "24" ]
A
the 4 hour period from the time of wound is the golden period for treatment of open wounds REF ; bailey & love 24/e p120
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Which of the following lead to an outbreak of Influenza in China in 2013?
[ "H7N9", "H3N2", "H1N1", "H2N2" ]
A
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Major source of Acetyl CoA:
[ "Triglycerides", "Fatty acids", "Pyruvate", "Alanine" ]
C
As nothing is mentioned we have to assume question is asking about fed-state. In fed-state, major source of fuel is carbohydrates followed by fats and proteins. Acetyl CoA is derived from Carbohydrates, Fats & Proteins also. So in fed state major source will be Carbohydrates. Glucose forms pyruvate & then it forms Acet...
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A 28-year-old man presents to the clinic for evaluation of painful urination and cloudy-color penile discharge. The symptoms started 2 days ago and are not associated with any other symptoms. His past medical history is not significant and he is not on any medications.His physical examination is completely normal excep...
[ "intramuscular ceftriaxone plus oral doxycycline", "oral penicillin G", "intramuscular penicillin V", "intramuscular ampicillin and oral penicillin V" ]
A
This patient has gonorrhea, and since 1986, increasing penicillin resistance has meant that penicillin/ampicillin are no longer drugs of choice. Alternatives to ceftriaxone include ciprofloxacin, ofloxacin, or cefixime given orally, with 7 days of doxycycline, or a single 1 g dose of azithromycin in case of coinfection...
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Therapeutic uses of Prostaglandin El include all of the following except
[ "Medical termination of pregnancy", "Impotence", "Primary pulmonary hypertension", "Maintenance of patent ductus arteriosus (PDA)" ]
C
Ans. is 'c' primary pulmonary hypertensionRef: K.D.T. 5th/e page 164, 165 (4th/ep 219), Goodman Gilman 10th/ep679, Dutta obstetrics 5th/e, p187)Uses of PGE1 (Misoprost)Gastric ulcer-PGE1 reduces the basal acid secretion by 90% and stimulated acid secretion by 80% so they heal gastric ulcer ulcer healing rates are compa...
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A two-year old boy presented with episodes of becoming dusky. On examination, there was central cyanosis and clubbing. There was no pallor, oedema or respiratory distress. The hea was normal sized with a parasternal heave. A systolic thrill was palpable over the left middle sternal border. First hea sound was normal an...
[ "Congenital methemoglobinemia", "Eisenmenger syndrome", "Aoic stenosis", "Tetralogy of Fallot" ]
D
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Tetralogy of fallot o Features in this child suggestive of TOF : - i) Cyanosis at 2 year (not at bih) ii) No pallor, dysnea or edema No CHF iii) Normal sized hea o These features suggest the diagnosis of TOF. o These have been explained earlier.
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Restrictive and constrictive pericarditis occurs together in
[ "Radiation", "Adriamycin", "Amyloidosis", "Post cardiotomy syndrome" ]
A
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Radiation
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Ureaplasma is naturally resistant to -
[ "Erythromycin", "Tetracycline", "Chloramphenicol", "Cephalosporins" ]
D
As there is lack of peptidoglycan layer, hence Ureoplasma is naturally resistant to all beta lactams
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Which of the following is not a 4 — Aminoquinolone?
[ "Chloroquine", "Amodiaquine", "Primaquine", "Mefloquine" ]
C
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The organism which can invade the intact corneal epithelium and produce purulent corneal ulcer is:
[ "Neisseria meningitidis", "Pseudomonas pyocyanea", "Pneumococcus", "Streptococcus haemolyticus" ]
A
Ans. Neisseria meningitidis
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Features of innate immunity A/E -
[ "Recognizes foreign antigen in blood", "C reactive protein", "Complement protein is a part of innate immune system", "Includes phagocytes and natural killer & cellf" ]
A
Ans-A
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A 40-years-old female patient presented with recurrent headaches. MRI showed an extra-axial, dural based and enhancing lesion. The most likely diagnosis is:
[ "Meningioma", "Glioma", "Schwannoma", "Pituitary' adenoma" ]
A
Meningioma can present with headaches, seizures, or focal neurologic deficits. On imaging studies they have a characteristic appearance usually consisting of a paially calcified, densely enhancing extra axial tumor arising from the dura. Occasionally they may have a dural tail, consisting of thickened, enhanced dura ex...
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Outer membrane action potential is maintained by influx of
[ "Na+", "Mg3+", "K+", "CA2+" ]
C
Outer membrane action potential is maintained by influx of K+ Ref: guyton and hall textbook of medical physiology 12 edition page number:66,67,68
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In Ca cervix lymphatic spread involve which of the following lymph node / nodes :
[ "Obturator LN", "External iliac LN", "Hypogastric LN", "All" ]
D
Ans. is a, b and c i.e. Obturator LN; External iliac LN; and Hypogastric LN Cervix has rich supply of lymphatics which follows the course of the uterine aery. Ca cervix follows orderly progression i.e. involves initially primary nodes in pelvis and then paraaoic nodes. Lymphatic channels of cervix drain principally int...
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A 3year old boy presented with recurrent attacks of pneumonia and otitis media since 1st bihday. Diagnosis is X-linked agammaglobulinemia and most likely offending organism is
[ "CMV", "Mycoplasma", "Pneumocystis jiroveci", "Streptococcus pneumonia" ]
D
X-LINKED AGAMMAGLOBULINEMIAPatients with X-linked agammaglobulinemia (XLA), or Bruton agammaglobulinemia, have a profound defect in B-lymphocyte development resulting in severe hypogammaglobulinemia, an absence of circulating B cells, small to absent tonsils, and no palpable lymph nodes.Clinical ManifestationsMost boys...
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During the evaluation of secondary amenorrhea in a 24-year-old woman, hyperprolactinemia is diagnosed. Which of the following conditions could cause increased circulating prolactin concentration and amenorrhea in this patient?
[ "Stress", "Primary hyperthyroidism", "Anorexia nervosa", "Congenital adrenal hyperplasia" ]
A
In anorexia nervosa, prolactin, thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH), and thyroxine levels are normal, FSH and LH levels are low, and cortisol levels are elevated. Prolactin is under the control of prolactin-inhibiting factor (PIF), which is produced in the hypothalamus. Many drugs (e.g., the phenothiazines), stress, hypo...
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A pt. operated for direct inguinal hernia developed anaesthesia at the root of the penis and adjacent part of the scrotum the nerve likely to be injured is -
[ "Genital br. of genitofemoral nerve (supply dartos muscle)", "Femoral br. of genitofemoral nerve", "Iliohypogastric nerve", "Ilioinguinal nerve" ]
D
All the three nerves ie genifotemoral, ilioinguinal & iliohypogastric are branches of the lumbar plexus and all may be injured in op. for hernia. llioinguinal-Nerve enters the inguinal canal by piercing the internal oblique muscle (not through the deep ring)* it then emerges from the superficial inguinal ring to sup...
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Cherry red spot in retina is a feature of:
[ "Infantile Gaucher's disease", "Niemann Pick disease", "Fabry's disease", "CRVO" ]
B
Ans: B (Niemann Pick disease) Ref: Kanski 7th edition Clinical ophthalmology,, pg no 683-684Explanation:Causes of cherry red spot:Central retinal artery occlusionBlunt injury - Berlin's edeme or commotion retinaeQuinine toxicityMacular holeGangliosidosisMucolipidosisTay Sachs diseaseSandhoff diseaseNiemann Pick disease...
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Most common cause of upper GI bleed is
[ "Duodenal ulcer", "CA stomach", "Oesophageal varices", "Erosive gastritis" ]
A
Most common cause of upper GI bleed is duodenal ulcer-33%. Other causes are gastric ulcer-21%, erosions-26%, mallery weis tears-4%, oesophageal varices-4%, tumours-0.5%, vascular lesions eg. Dieulafoy's disease-0.5% and others-5%. Reference : page 1063 Bailey and Love's sho practice of surgery 25th edition
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The drug used for d-Tc reversal is
[ "Atropine", "Atracurium", "Diazepalm", "Neostigmine" ]
D
D i.e. Neostigmine
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Which is the drug of choice for severe preeclampsia?
[ "Labetalol", "Metoprolol", "A-methyldopa", "Nifidipine" ]
A
Labetalol is the drug of first choice in severe preeclampsia. The main objective is to reduce the risk of severe hypeension and cerebral haemorrhage. Labetalol is given as 200-400 mg/day in 2 doses
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Dohlman's operation done for:
[ "Achalasia", "Rectal prolapse", "Ca esophagus", "Zenker's diverticulum" ]
D
Ans. (d) Zenker's diverticulumRef Shackelford 7th Edition, Page 345* Surgical Management of Choice is - Cricopharyngeal Myotomy with Diverticulectomy (If given in choices is the best option)* Dohlman's operation - Endoscopic stapling technique preferred for Diverticulum more than 3cm Size.
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Bronchiectasis is most common in which lobe?
[ "Right upper lobe", "Right middle lobe", "Left upper lobe", "Left lower lobe" ]
D
Bronchiectatic lesions are most commonly found in the lower lobes, probably because mucociliary clearance is facilitated by gravity in the upper lobes. The bronchiectatic lesions were identified most commonly in the left lower lobe, followed by the right lower lobe and left upper lobe. The most common organisms :- Haem...
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An ideal result of endodontic treatment is
[ "Epithelial migration from PL", "Cementum", "Dentin", "PDL fibres" ]
B
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Who among the following has contributed to the development of neuro-otology and is considered as the father of 'nen ro-otology'?
[ "Julius Lampa", "John J. Shea Jr", "William F. House", "Hales Main" ]
C
Ans. c. William F. House (Ref www.audiology.org For the pioneering work in the field of neuro-otology, William F. House considered as 'Father of Neuro-otology'. William F. House considered as 'Father of Neuro-otology' because of his pioneering development approaches for the removal of acoustic tumors and the management...
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Chronic adrenal insufficiency is characterized by all of the following:
[ "Excess pigmentation", "Asthenia", "Weight gain", "Hypoglycemic episodes" ]
C
Answer is C (Weight gain): Adrenal insufficiency is- associated with weight loss and not weight gain, Weight gain is a feature of Cushing'S syndrome or Adrenal hyperfUnction and not of Adrenal insufficiency.
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Defect in Gluteus Maximus lead to all of the following, EXCEPT:
[ "Positive Trendelenburg's sign", "Extension defect", "Difficulty in straightening from the bending position", "Difficulty rising from the sitting position" ]
A
Positive trendelenburg's sign is seen in superior gluteal nerve (Gluteus mediusminimus) injury and not in Inferior gluteal nerve injury (Gluteus maximus). The gluteus maximus is the most powerful hip extensor and is crucial for movements requiring large forces. It functions primarily between the flexed and the standing...
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