question stringlengths 1 6.54k | choices listlengths 4 4 | answer stringclasses 4
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|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
Staging of ca cervix with endometrial involvement- | [
"Stage 1",
"Stage 2",
"Stage 3",
"Stage 4"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e.. Stage 2 TNM and F1GO Classifications for Cervical CancerPrimary tumor (T)TNMF1GOSurgical-Pathologic FindingsCategoriesStages TX Primary' tumor cannot be assessedT0 No evidence of primary tumorTis Carcinoma in situ (preinvasive carcinoma)T1ICervical carcinoma confined to the cervix (disregard extension to the corpus)TlaLAInvasive carcinoma diagnosed only by microscopy; stromal invasion with a maximum depth of 5.0 mm measured from the base of the epithelium and a horizontal spread of 7.0 mm or less; vascular space involvement, venous or lymphatic, does not affect classification.T1a1IA1Measured stromal invasion <3.0 mm in depth and <7.0 mm in horizontal spreadT1a2IA2Measured stromal invasion >3.0 mm and <5.0 mm with a horizontal spread < 7.0 mmTlbIBClinically visible lesion confined to the cervix or microscopic lesion greater than TlaTA2TlblIBlClinically visible lesion < 4.0 cm in greatest dimensionTlb2IB2Clinically visible lesion > 4.0 cm in greatest dimensionT2IICervical carcinoma invades beyond uterus but not to pelvic wall or to lower third of vaginaT2aIIATumor without parametrial invasionT2alDAIClinically visible lesion < 4.0 cm in greatest dimensionT2a2IIA2Clinically visible lesion > 4.0 cm in greatest dimensionT2bIIBTumor with parametrial invasionT3IIITumor extends to pelvic wall and'or involves lower third of vagina and/or causes hydronephrosis or nonfunctional kidneyT3aIIIATumor involves lower third of vagina, no extension to pelvic wallT3bII1BTumor extends to pelvic wall and/or causes hydronephrosis or nonfunctional kidneyT4IVTTumor invades mucosa of bladder or rectum and/or extends beyond true pelvis (bullous edema is not sufficient to classify a tumor as T4)T4afvaTumor invades mucosa of bladder or rectum (bullous edema is not sufficient to classify' a tumor as T4)T4bIVBTumor extends beyond true pelvisRegional lymph nodes (N)NXRegional lymph nodes cannot be assessedN0No regional lymph node metastasisN1Regional lymph node metastasisDistant metastasis (M)M0No distant metastasisMlDistant metastasis (including peritoneal spread; involvement of supraclavicular, mediastinal, or para-aortic lymph nodes; and lung, liver, or | train | med_mcqa | null |
Brodie's abscess is ? | [
"Acute osteomyelitis",
"Subacute osteomyelitis",
"Chronic osteomyelitis",
"Septic ahritis"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Chronic osteomyelitis Brodie's abscess Chronic osteomyelitis Garre's sclerosing osteomyelitis Chronic osteomyelitis or subacute form of chronic osteomyelitis Brodie's abscess is a chronic localized bone abscess" Postgraduate ohopaedics "Brodie's disease is a localized form of chronic osteomyelitis" Ebnezar Brodie's abscess Brodie's abscess is a special form of chronic osteomyelitis which arises insidously, without a preceding acute attack. There is localized abscess within the bone, often near the site of the metaphysis of long bones. Common sites are upper end of the tibia and lower end of the femur. A deep 'boring' pain is the predominant symptom. Pain may become worse at night. Radiographically, the lesion is seen as a circular or oval cavity surrounded by a zone of sclerosis. Treatment is by operation. Surgical evacuation and curretage is performed with or without bone grafting. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All are true regarding vitamin D, except ? | [
"Sunlight is impoant",
"1-hydroxylation in liver",
"Active form is calcitriol",
"RDA is for children is 400 IU"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., 1-hydroxylation in liver | train | med_mcqa | null |
Multinucleated gient cell on Tzanck smear is not seen in? | [
"Herpes simplex",
"Varicella",
"Herpes zoster",
"Molluscum contagiosum"
] | D | Ans. is'd'i.e., Molluscum contagiosum Ref: ADVL 3'd/e p' 342 | train | med_mcqa | null |
During the active phase of labour, the minimum effective dilatation of the cervix in primigravida should be at the rate of: | [
"0.5 cm/hour",
"1 cm/hour",
"1.5 cm/hour",
"2 cm/hour"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
True about Glutathione - | [
"Tripeptide",
"Formed from glutamic acid, glycine, cysteine",
"Act as an antioxidant in the reduced state",
"All of the above"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e., All of the above Glutathioneo Glutathione is a tripeptide of glutamic acid, cysteine, and glycine. The molecule has a sulfhydryl f-SH) or thiol group on the cysteine, which accounts for its strong electron-donating character,o It exists in two forms : reduced glutathione or GSH. In the reduced state, the thiol group of cysteine is able to donate a reducing equivalent (H+ e-) to other unstable molecules, such as reactive oxygen species. In donating an electron, glutathione itself becomes reactive, but readily reacts with another reactive glutathione to form glutathione disulfide (GSSG) or oxidized glutathione. GSH can be regenerated from GSSG by the enzyme glutathione reductase.o While all cells in the human body are capable of synthesizing glutathione, liver glutathione synthesis has been shown to be essential. The liver is the largest GSH reservoir.o Because of its reducing property, reduced glutathione has potent antioxidant action,o Functions:a) GSH is an extremely important cell protectant. It directly reduces reactive hydroxyl free radicals, other oxygen centered free radicals, and radical centers on DNA and other biomolecules.b) GSH is the essential cofactor for many enzymes which require thiol-reducing equivalents, and helps keep redox-sensitive active sites on enzymes in the necessary reduced state. GSH is used as a cofactor by -Multiple peroxidase enzymes, to detoxify peroxides generated from oxygen radical attack on biological molecules;Transhydrogenases, to reduce oxidized centers on DNA, proteins, and other biomolecules; andGlutathione S-transferases (GST) to conjugate GSH with endogenous substances (e.g., estrogens) and to exogenous electrophiles (e.g., arene oxides, unsaturated carbonyls, organic halides), and diverse xenobiotics.GSH is a primary'' protectant of skin, lens, cornea, and retina against radiation damage, and the biochemical foundation of P450 detoxication in the liver, kidneys, lungs, intestinal epithelia, and other organs.GSH acts as a carrier in transport of certain amino acids across membranes in the kidney.Glutathione (GSH) participates in leukotriene synthesis. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Hypersensitivity pneumonitis is classically described as a | [
"Type I hypersensitivity reaction",
"Type II Hypersensitivity reaction",
"Type III(immune complexe) hypersensitivity",
"Type IV ( cell mediated) hypersensitivity"
] | C | The pathophysiology of HP has not been characterized in depth on an immunologic level, although it has been established that HP is an immune-mediated condition that occurs in response to inhaled antigens that are small enough to deposit in distal airways and alveoli. Ref Harrison 19th edition pg 1681-82 | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 50 years old hypertensive male cardiac patient, who is on anticonvulsant treatment, developed following rash on right hand. Most probable drug responsible for it is- | [
"Propanolol",
"Atrovastatin",
"Warfarin",
"Phenytoin"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Phenytoin* Given image is showing distal limb edema, purple discoloration and blisters on affected hand. It is a characteristic presentation of "purple glove syndrome", a classical adverse effect of intravenous phenytoin. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Treatment of rheumatoid arthritis include: | [
"Gold",
"Corticosteroids",
"Aspirin",
"All"
] | D | Ans. d (All). (Ref. Harrison, Internal Medicine, 16th ed., 1974)DRUG TREATMENT OF RHEUMATOID ARTHRITIS#NSAIDS: - Aspirin - Coxibs #DMARD - Methotrexate (Best DMARD)- Gold - D- Penicillamine- Antimalarials - Sulfasalazine- Leflunamide (Inhibits T cell proliferation) - Glucocorticoid #Anticytokines - Etanercept (TNF Type II receptor blocker)- Infliximab (Monoclonal ab to TNF) - Adalimumab (Fully human abs to TNF)- Anakinra (IL - 1 receptor antagonist)#Immunosuppressive drugs - Azathioprine- Cyclosporine- CyclophosphamideThe 1987 Revised Criteria for the Classification of RA1.Guidelines for classificationa. Four of seven criteria are required to classify a patient as having rheumatoid arthritis (RA).b. Patients with two or more clinical diagnoses are not excluded.2.Criteriaa. Morning stiffness: Stiffness in and around the joints lasting 1 h before maximal improvement.b. Arthritis of three or more joint areas: At least three joint areas, observed by a physician simultaneously, have soft tissue swelling or joint effusions, not just bony overgrowth. The 14 possible joint areas involved are right or left proximal interphalangeal, metacarpophalangeal, wrist, elbow, knee, ankle, and metatar sophalangeal joints. c. Arthritis of hand joints: Arthritis of wrist, metacarpophalangeal joint, or proximal interphalangeal jointd. Symmetric arthritis: Simultaneous involvement of the same joint areas on both sides of the body.e. Rheumatoid nodules: Subcutaneous nodules over bony prominences, extensor surfaces, or juxtaarticular regions observed by a physician.f. Serum rheumatoid factor: Demonstration of abnormal amounts of serum rheumatoid factor by any method for which the result has been positive in less than 5% of normal control subjects.g. Radiographic changes: Typical changes of RA on posteroanterior hand and wrist radiographs that must include erosions or unequivocal bony decalcification localized in or most marked adjacent to the involved joints. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A tumor arising from olfactory nasal mucosa is - | [
"Nasal Glioma",
"Adenoid cystic carcinoma",
"Nasopharyngeal carcinoma",
"Esthesioneuroblastoma"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Genital tuberculosis spreads through: | [
"Hematogenous route",
"Lymphatic route",
"Direct contact",
"Ascending infection"
] | A | ANSWER: (A) Hematogenous routeREF: Shaw's Gynecology 13th ed p. 147"Most common route of spread of genital tuberculosis is through blood stream" | train | med_mcqa | null |
Pathognomic features of acute rheumatic fever is: | [
"Pericarditis",
"Myocarditis",
"Mitral stenosis",
"Aschoffs nodules"
] | D | Ans. (d) Aschoffs nodules(Ref: Robbins 9th/pg 557-559)Aschoff Bodies are characteristic feature. However, if anistshkow cells are given in option, please mark that | train | med_mcqa | null |
True statements about lower one fouh of anterior abdominal wall except | [
"Linea Alba is poorly formed",
"Two layers of rectus sheath present",
"Only anterior layer of rectus sheath present",
"External oblique muscle well formed and strong"
] | B | In lower one fourh , linea alba is not well formed. Both left and recti are close. Only anterior sheath of rectus is present. External oblique is well formed and strong Ref - BDC 6e vol2 pg 196 | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following are risk factors for thoracic aoic aneurysm (TAA) rupture except: | [
"Symptomatic aneurysm",
"Concurrent dissection",
"Increased patient age",
"Anticoagulation use"
] | D | TAAs are those occurring distal to the left subclan vein. The risk for rupture is increased with : Increasing aneurysm size Advanced age History of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) Concurrent dissection. Anticoagulation is not a risk factor for rupture. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Half of the clot retraction is completed by? | [
"24 hrs",
"Within 2 hrs",
"Within 15 minutes",
"Within 1 hour"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
New York agar is used for - | [
"Salmonella",
"Clostridia",
"Neisseria",
"Bacillus Anthracis"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Neisseria New York City (NYC) medium* New York City (NYC) medium is primarily designed for isolation of pathogenic Neisseria.* It also supports the growth of genital mycoplasma (Mycoplasma hominis and Ureoplasma Urealyticum).* It is useful in the diagnosis of gonorrhea and mycoplasma infection.* It consists of primarily a peptone-corn starch agar-base buffered with phosphates and supplemented with horse plasma, horse hemoglobin, dextrose, yeast autolysate and antibiotics. | train | med_mcqa | null |
In clinical trials, the major purpose of randomization is to: | [
"Reduce selection bias in allocation to treatment",
"Facilitate double blinding",
"Ensure groups are comparable on the base line characteristics",
"Help ensure the study subjects are representative of general population"
] | A | Randomization is a statistical procedure by which the selection bias is reduced and thus the paicipants are allocated into study and control groups to proceed with comparability. By randomization, there is equal distribution of factors between the two groups and thus comparison is allowed. Although randomization makes the groups comparable, it does not 'ensure' comparability. Also double blinding is not facilitated by randomization. Ref: Park's Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine, 19th Edition, Pages 77-78 | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 45 year old patient presents with history of fever, night sweats and weight loss. On X-ray, a mass in apical lobe of lung is seen. On histopathology, it was found to have caseous necrosis. What is the likely underlying process involved - | [
"Enzymatic degeneration",
"Hypersensitivity reaction with modified macrophages, lymphocytes and giant cells",
"Acute decrease in blood supply",
"Decreased supply of growth factors"
] | B | . Hypersensitivity reaction with modified macrophages, lymphocytes and giant cells | train | med_mcqa | null |
Incidental finding in CT scan, a 3cm adrenal mass, which of the following is not done - | [
"Adrenalectomy",
"Dexamethasone suppression test",
"Measurement of catecholamines",
"Midnight plasma cortisol"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Abatacept, a new drug inhibiting co-stimulation is used for the treatment of: | [
"Scleroderma",
"Sjogren syndrome",
"Rheumatoid arthritis",
"Systemic lupus erythematosus"
] | C | Ans. c. Rheumatoid arthritis (Ref: Harrison 19/e p2147, 18/e p2748: Katzung 12/e p643, 993)Abatacept, a new drug inhibiting co-stimulation is used for the treatment of Rheumatoid arthritis.'Abatacept is a soluble fusion protein consisting of the extracellular domain of human cytotoxic T lymphocyte- associated antigen 4 (CTLA-4) linked to the modified portion of human IgG. It inhibits the co-stimulation of T cells by blocking CD28-CD80/86 interactions and may also inhibit the function of antigen-presenting cells by reverse signaling through CD80 and CD86. Abatacept has been shown in clinical trials to reduce disease activity, slow radiographic progression of damage, and improve functional disability. Most patients receive abatacept in combination with methotrexate or another DMARD such as leftunomide. Its onset of action is usually slower than that of the anti- TNF agents. Abatacept therapy has been associated with an increased risk of infection but is usually well tolerated otherwise. Harrison 18/e p2748AbataceptAbatacept is a soluble fusion protein consisting of the extracellular domain of human cytotoxic T lymphocyte- associated antigen 4 (CTLA-4) linked to the modified portion of human IgGQ.Mechanism of Action:Inhibits the co-stimulation of T cells by blocking CD28-CD80/86 interactionsQAlso Inhibit the function of antigen-presenting cells by reverse signalingQ through CD80 and CD86.Onset of action is usually slower than that of the anti-TNF agents.Indications:Abatacept has been shown in clinical trials to reduce disease activity, slow radiographic progression of damage, and improve functional disability in rheumatoid arthritisQ.Most patients receive abatacept in combination with methotrexate or another DMARD such as leflunomideAdverse-effects:Associated with an increased risk of infectionQ | train | med_mcqa | null |
Syndrome associated with xerostomia, xerophthalmia and an autoimmune connective tissue disease is: | [
"Mickuliz disease",
"Primary Sjogren syndrome",
"Secondary Sjogren syndrome",
"None"
] | C | Primary Sjogren’s syndrome is associated with dry mouth (xerostomia) and dry eyes (xerophthalmia).
Secondary Sjogren’s syndrome is associated with xerostomia, xerophthalmia, and an autoimmune connective tissue disease. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Suxamethonium causes - | [
"Jaundice",
"Splenomegaly",
"Atrial fibrillation",
"Muscle fasciculation"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Muscle fasciculation SCh is a depolarising skeletal muscle relaxant. It causes sustained paial depolarization of muscle end plate --> intially produce twitching and fasciculation followed by flaccid paralysis. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Sodium fluoride inhibits glycolysis by inhibiting the enzyme | [
"Enolase",
"Aldolase",
"Catalase",
"Dehydrogenase"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following statements about Myasthenia Gravis are true, except: | [
"Anti-AChR antibodies are the most common antibodies in generalized myasthenia gravis",
"The pathogenic Anti-AChR antibodies are IgG antibodies",
"Anti-MuSK antibodies are directed against muscarinic ACh receptors",
"The major defect is a decrease in the number of available ACh receptors"
] | C | Anti-MuSK antibodies are autoantibodies directed against muscle-specific tyrosine kinase (MuSK) Anti-ChR antibodies and Anti-MuSK Antibodies directed against muscle-specific tyrosine kinase (MuSK) Anti-AChR antibodies are the most common antibodies in generalized myasthenia gravis. The pathogenic antibodies aee IgG and are T cell dependent The chief target of the autoimmune attack (Anti-AChR antibodies) in most cases of myasthenia gravis is the skeletal muscle nicotinic acetylcholine receptor (nAChR) The underlying defect is a decrease in the number of available Nicotinic ACh Receptors (nAChR) on the motor end plate at the "Neuromuscular junction" due to an antibody mediated autoimmune attack. Anti-MuSK antibody occurs in about 40% of patients without AChR antibody. Muscle -specific kinase (MuSK) is a protein involved in AChR clustering at neuromuscular junctions. An immune response to muscle-specific kinase (MuSK), can also result in MG, with reduction of AChR demonstrated experimentally. Anti-MuSK antibody occurs in about 40% of patients without AChR antibody. Ref: Harrison&;s 19th edition Pgno: 2701 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Causes of polyhydraminos include:a) Diabetes mellitusb) Preeclampsiac) Esophageal atresiad) Renal agenesise) Anencephaly | [
"acd",
"bde",
"cde",
"ace"
] | D | Friends, for a second - let’s forget the lists of conditions leading to Oligohydramnios/Polyhydramnios (This happens quite often in exams).
Let’s reason out each option one by one.
Option “a” Diabetes mellitus
We all know polyhydramnios is a complication of maternal diabetes.
Pathophysiology:
Maternal hyperglycemia
↓
Fetal hyperglycemia
↓
Polyuria (of fetus) and osmotic diuresis
↓
Polyhydramnios (Option “a” is correct)
Option “b” Preeclampsia
Preeclampsia
↓
Decreased uteroplacental circulation
↓
Decreased fetal renal blood flow
↓
Decrease urine production by fetus
↓
Oligohydramnios
Option “c” Esophageal atresia
We all know - Amniotic fluid is kept in balance with the rate of production, by fetal swallowing of amniotic fluid.
In case of oesophageal atresia
↓
Decrease fetal swallowing
↓
i.e., Decrease absorption
↓
Polyhydramnios (option “c” is correct)
Same is the case with congenital diaphragmatic hernia/Facial clefts/Neck masses.
Option “d” Renal agenesis
Renal agenesis
↓
Decrease urine production
↓
Oligohydramnios (Option “d” is incorrect)
Same holds good for posterior urethral value in males.
Option “e” Anencephaly
In anencephaly (or meningomyelocele or spina bifida)
↓
Meninges are exposed
↓
Increase transudation of fluid from exposed meninges
↓
Polyhydramnios (Option “e” is correct)
So friends, it is not essential to mug up most of the causes of oligo/polyhydramnios.
Some causes which need to mugged up are: | train | med_mcqa | null |
On mammogram all of the following are the features of a malignant tumor except - | [
"Spiculation",
"Microcalcification",
"Macrocalcification",
"Irregular mass"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following statements about Churg Strauss Syndrome are true, except: | [
"Marked Eosinophilia",
"Mononeuritis multiplex is common",
"Renal failure is common",
"Often associated with Allergic Rhinitis"
] | C | Answer is C (Renal failure is common): Churg Strauss Syndrome is not prominent and renal failure is rare. The Renal disease in Churg Strauss Syndrome is less common and generally less severe than with granulomatosis with polyangitis (Wegener's) and microscopic polyangitis '- Harrison's 18th/2793 'Renal failure is rare in Churg Strauss syndrome - Pulmonary Involvement in Systemic Autoimmune Disease | train | med_mcqa | null |
A marker of Golgi apparatus is- | [
"Galactosyl transferase",
"Acetyl CoA synthetase",
"Pyruvate kinase",
"Malonyl CoA"
] | A | Ans. A. Galactosyl transferaseEnzymatic Markers of Different Membranes-MembraneEnzymePlasma5'-NucleotidaseAdenylyl cyclase NA+-K+-ATPaseEndoplasmic reticulumGlucose-6-phosphataseGolgi apparatus CisGIcNAc transferase IMedialGolgi mannosidase IITransGalactosyl transferaseTrans Golgi NetworkSialyl transferaseInner mitochondrial membraneATP synthase | train | med_mcqa | null |
True about subendocardial hemorrhage is all except | [
"May be seen after head injury",
"Involves RV wall",
"Continous pattern of sheet like",
"Flame shaped hemorrhages"
] | B | Subendocardial hemorrhages (SEH) occur after cardiac injuries and resuscitation as well as secondary to noncardiac injuries comprising head injuries, infectious diseases, intoxications, hemorrhagic diathesis, abdominal trauma, asthma, and hypovolemic shock. In paicular, the common incidence of SEH in intracranial lesions led to the suggestion that the phenomenon is mediated by the autonomic nervous system hypersecretion of catecholamines Ramdas Nayak page no. 303 | train | med_mcqa | null |
A child presents with fever and maculo popular rash to OPD. Doctor diagnose it to be measles, which of the following is not be seen during clinical examination of this child? | [
"Pneumonia",
"Koplik spots",
"Otitis media",
"Encephalitis"
] | B | Koplik spots occurs in Prodromal phase, 1 - 4 days prior to onset of rash. | train | med_mcqa | null |
What is the main constituent of pneumococcal capsule | [
"Polypeptide",
"Lipid",
"Polysaccharide",
"lipoarabinomannan"
] | C | The main constituent of the pneumococcal capsule is a polysaccharide. because of its acidic and hydrophilic propeies, protects the cocci from phagocytosis. capsulated S.pneumoniae are not phagocytosed effectively in fluid media or exudates. However, they are susceptible to 'surface phagocytosis', being engulfed against a firm surface, such as fibrin clot or epithelium. The enhanced virulence of Type 3 streptococci is due to the presence of capsular material. Ref: Textbook of microbiology; Ananthanarayan and paniker's; Pg:226 | train | med_mcqa | null |
The co-factor for glycogen phosphorylase in glycogenolysis is: | [
"Thiamine pyrophosphate",
"Pyridoxal phosphate",
"Citrate",
"FAD"
] | B | Glycogen phosphorylase catalyses the rate limiting step in glycogenolysis by catalyzing the phosphorolytic cleavage of glycogen to yield glucose 1-phosphate. Glycogen phosphorylase requires pyridoxal phosphate as its coenzyme. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Consider the following | [
"Cholesterosis",
"Adenomyomatosis",
"Polyposis",
"Cholelithiasis"
] | A | . | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most common heavy metal poisoning in the world | [
"Lead",
"Arsenic",
"Mercury",
"Cadmium"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Shortest acting muscle relaxant - | [
"Pancuronium",
"Atracurium",
"Mivacurium",
"Vecuronium"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Mivacurium Mivacuriumo Mivacurium is the shortest acting competitive blockers.o It does not need reversal - can be used as an alternative to SCh for endotracheal intubation.o It is metabolized rapidly by plasma cholinesterases - prolonged paralysis can occur in pseudocholinesterase deficiency.o Mivacurium is the only nondepolarising (competitive) blocker that is metabolized by plasma cholinesterase (pseudocholinesteres). | train | med_mcqa | null |
Headlight in fog appearance is seen in which retinal choroiditis | [
"Toxoplasma",
"CMV retinitis",
"Candida retinitis",
"Toxocara"
] | A | Toxoplasma retinochoroidal lesions appear as a headlight in fog appearance due to active retinitis Presence of active retinal lesions with severe vitreous inflammatory reaction can cause the classic 'headlight in the fog' appearance. In these cases the hallmarks of retinal disease include bilateral disease, old retinal scars, and involvement of the macula. Reference: Aravind FAQS in Ophthalmology; First Edition; Page no: 148 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following reaction is not catalyzed by microsomal enzyme? | [
"Glucuronidation",
"Acetylation",
"Oxidation",
"Reduction"
] | B | Ans. B. AcetylationMicrosomal enzyme induction via phase 1-oxidation reduction hydrolysis and phase 2 reaction involve glucuronide conjugation. Acetylation is non-microsomal enzyme process. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All are true about Central hypothyroidism except? | [
"Craniopharyngioma",
"Treatment is done according to TSH level in plasma",
"TSH level is not a good marker for diagnosis",
"Before staing treatment check for adrenal insufficiency"
] | B | The value of TSH may never normalize in central hypothyroidism since the gland is already damaged. Hence, dose adjustment is based on thyroid hormone levels and clinical parameters rather than the TSH level. Craniopharyngioma is a common para-sellar tumor that can frequently infiltrate surrounding brain structures and lead development of Central hypothyroidism. The Thyroid gland in Central hypothyroidism can produce biologically inactive TSH . Hence the values of TSH can be normal amount wise but fails to produce any effects. Hence TSH is not a good marker for diagnosis. The Patient is under endocrine stress and coisol is the stress hormone that is going to help tide over the stress. The entire stockpile of coisol is exhausted in trying to cope with endocrine trauma of absent thyroid hormones . | train | med_mcqa | null |
The maxillary air sinus opens into middle meatus at: | [
"Infundibulum",
"Summit of infundibulum",
"Bulla ethmoidalis",
"Hiatus semilunaris"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Process of deflouridation of water is | [
"Nalgonda technique",
"Soaking",
"Sand filter",
"Parboiling"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
The mother of a one and a half year old child gives history of a white reflex from one eye for the past 1 month. On computed tomography scan of the orbit, there is calcification seen within the globe. The most likely diagnosis is – | [
"Congenital cataract",
"Retinoblastoma",
"Endophthalmitis",
"Coats disease"
] | B | While pupillary reflex (leukocoria) with calcification in tumor mass is characteristic of retinoblastoma. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is a beta blocker with beta 2 receptor agonist action? | [
"Labetalol",
"Carvedilol",
"Celiprolol",
"Tilisolol"
] | C | Celiprolol is a selective beta1 blocker having additional weak beta 2 agonistic activity which reduces vascular resistance and is safe in asthmatics. Labetolol is an alpha and beta blocker. Carvedilol is a beta 1, beta 2 and alpha 1 adrenoreceptor blocker. Ref: Essentials of Medical Pharmacology By K D Tripathi, 5th edn, Page 131 | train | med_mcqa | null |
One of the following is characterised by RIM sign: | [
"Hydronephrosis (Gross)",
"Hypernephroma",
"Chronic pyelonephritis",
"Polycystic kidney"
] | A | Ans is 'a' ie Hydronephrosis (Gross) We will write down, what we have got so far about the 'rim sign'.The rim sign is seen in cases of ureteral calculi.[The"rim sign," originally reported by Smith in 1995, is described as a rim, ring, or halo of soft tissue visible on CT scans that completely surrounds ureteral stones. The effect is enhanced by the local inflammation a stone produces in the ureteral wall, with subsequent edema at the site of the calculus. The rim sign is generally missing or incomplete with phleboliths. While not absolutely definitive, the rim sign is strong evidence that the calcific density it surrounds is a stone and not a phlebolith. In several studies, more than 75% of all ureteral stones demonstrated a rim sign, while only 2-8% of phleboliths demonstrated it. The rim sign is more likely to be present in small or medium stones up to 5 mm in diameter. Larger stones, bigger 6 mm, tend to lose the rim sign, presumably from stretching and thinning of the ureteral wall around a relatively large calculus. (Ref: http://radioloev.rsna.ors/content/202/3/709.abstract: httv://emedicine.medscave.com/article/456872-overview) 1 Rim sign has also been mentioned in cases of renal infarction, but here its k/a cortical rim sign.[Cortical rim sign: Entire kidney is nonenhancing except for the outer 2 to 4 mm of cortex, which are perfused by capsular branches (Ref: http://www. learningradiologv.com/notes/gunotes/renalinfarctpage.htm) 7Spider leg appearance - Polycystic kidney*Cobra head appearance - Ureterocele*Flower vase appearance of ureters - Horse shoe kidney*Sandy patches - Schistosomiasis of bladder*Soap bubble appearance - Hydronephrosis*Apple core lesion on barium enema - Ca colon*Claw appearance on barium enema - Intussusception*Saw tooth appearance - Diverticula of colon*Birds beak appearance of esophagus on barium meal - Achalasia*Cork screw appearance of esophagus on barium meal - Diffuse esophageal spasm*String sign of Kantor - Crohn's ds*Thumb printing sign - Ischemic colitis* Now as far as the answer is concerned, among the given options "hydronephrosis" appears to be the best choice, as ureteric calculi would lead to hydronephrosis. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following medications essential for ameliorating the toxicity of pemetrexed: | [
"Folinic acid and vitamin B6",
"Folic acid and vitamin B12",
"Vitamin 136 and Vitamin B1,",
"Folic acid and dexamethasone"
] | A | Ans. b. Folic acid and vitamin B12 Pemetrexed Toxicity Pemetrexed toxicity mirrors that of methotrexate, with the additional feature of a prominent erythematous and pruritic rash in 40% of patientsQ. Dexamethasone, 4 mg twice daily on days -1, 0 and +1, markedly diminishes this toxicity. Unpredictably, severe myelosuppression with pemetrexed, seen especially in patients with pre-existing homocysteinemia and possibly reflecting folate deficiency, is largely eliminated by concurrent administration of low dosages of folic acid, 350-1000 mg/day, beginning 1-2 weeks prior to pemetrexed and continuing while the drug is administered. Patients should receive intramuscular vitamin B12 (1 mg) with the first dose of pemetrexed to correct possible B12 deficiency. These small doses of folate and B12 do not compromise the therapeutic effects. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 5 year lod child is assessed to have developmental age of one year. His developmental patient would be | [
"100",
"80",
"20",
"60"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Libman Sach's endocarditis is associated with? | [
"Rheumatic heart disease",
"SLE",
"Carcinoma",
"None"
] | B | Libman-Sacks endocarditis refers to sterile vegetations that can develop on the valves of patients with systemic lupus erythematosus. Libman-Sacks Endocarditis
These lesions presumably occur because of immune complex deposition and thus have also inflammation. With increasing use of steroids for Rx of lupus, Libman-Sacks endocarditis has become uncommon.
Morphology-Histology:
- Small (1-4 mm in diameter) sterile, granular pink vegetations;
- No special predilection for the lines of valve closure.
- Can be located on the undersurfaces of the atrioventricular valves, on the cords, or even on the atrial or ventricular endocardium.
- The lesions are finely granular, fibrinous eosinophilic vegetations containing nuclear debris. An intense valvulitis is often present, with fibrinoid necrosis of the valve substance adjacent to the vegetation. Subsequent fibrosis and serious deformity can result in that resemble chronic RHD. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Hawkin's classification is used for | [
"Neck of Talus fracture",
"Distal Tibia fracture",
"Open fracture",
"Colle's fracture"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
The substance that accumulates in cardiac myxoma is | [
"Mucopolysaccharides",
"Sialo mucin",
"Gelatin",
"Glycoprotein"
] | A | Myxomas are composed of stellate or globular myxoma (lepidic cell, endothelial cells, smooth muscle cells and undifferentiated cells) embedded within abundant acid mucopolysaccharide substance. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most common intracranial malignancy is | [
"Glioblastoma multiforme",
"Ependymoma",
"Choroid angioma",
"Pinealoma"
] | A | Glioblastoma multiforme (GBM) is the most common and deadliest of malignant primary brain tumors in adults and is one of a group of tumors referred to as gliomas. Classified as a Grade IV (most serious) astrocytoma, GBM develops from the lineage of star-shaped glial cells, called astrocytes, that suppo nerve cells. GBM develops primarily in the cerebral hemispheres but can develop in other pas of the brain, brainstem, or spinal cord. Refer Robbins page no 1308 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Oedipus complex has been described by - | [
"Plato",
"Socartes",
"Freud",
"Huxley"
] | C | Oedipus complex is described by Freud in psychosexual stages of development. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Von- rosen splint are applicable in | [
"Developmental dysplasia of hip joint",
"Congenital talipes equinovarus",
"Congenital vertical talus",
"Tibia mileruae"
] | A | (Developmental dysplasia of hip joint) (202- M)VON- ROSEN'S SPLINT - is an H-shaped melleable splint* Object of splintage is to hold the hips some what flexed and abducted* Used in congenital dislocation / dysplasia of hip jointAlso - Remember* Frog leg or Lorenz cast or Batchelor cast used in CDH* Broomstick plaster used in perthe's disease* Patella Tendon Bearing (PTB) cast used in- Both bones leg fracture* Gutter splint- phalyngeal and metaphalyngeal fractures* Denis Browne splint used in CTEV, Stirrup splint Ankle fractures* Knuckle-bender splint- ulner nerve palsy, Cock up splint - Radial nerve palsy* Milwaukee brace (Cervical thoracolombosacral orthosis) used in Scoliosis* Risser's localizer cast, Turn buckle cast - Scoliosis*** Minerva cast - cerical spine disease* U slab or Hanging cast - fracture of humerus* Tube cast (Cylindrical cast) - used for fracture around knee ( patella)* Halo cast (vest) - for spinal injury* Velpeau bandage and sling and Swathe splint are used in - Shoulder dislocation*** Thromboembolic disease (Pulmonary embolism) is the most common cause of death after Total hip replacement*** (Watson jones operation)* Pectoralis major and minor muscles are the most common congenitically absent muscles in humans*** Pollicization refer to reconstruction of the thumb with a substitute finger (i.e. index finger)* Bohler's Tuber Joint angle and crucial angle of Gissane are measured for intraarticular of calcaniumDevelopment Dvsplasia of the hep (DDH)* More common in female, short stature *** Oligohydramnios is associated with a higher risk of DDH* The hourglass appearance of the capsule may prevent a successful closed reduction* In a child with bilateral dislocation - Waddling gait- unilateral dislocation Trendelenburg's gait** X-ray shows break in shenton's line** Striking feature is widening of perineum & marked lumber lorodosis** Wandering acetabulum is sen in T.B of hip jointsAngles of Importance(i) Cobb's angle - Scoliosis(ii) Kite's angle - CTEV(iii) Meary's angle - Pes cavus(iv) Hilagenreiner's epiphyseal angle - congenital coxa-vera(v) Baumann's angle - Supracondylar Rocker bottom foot or vertical talus is associated with Arthrogrypasis multiplex congenital spina bifida & trisomy 13-18 - (Danhert Radiology Review manual 5th/25) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is true about the novel antiviral drug Remdesivir? | [
"Was developed during the MERS outbreak in 2012",
"An adenosine analog, interferes with the action of viral RNA-dependent RNA polymerase and causes decrease in viral RNA production",
"Drug of choice for the treatment of pneumonia caused by SARS-CoV-2",
"It is an FDA approved drug for COVID-19"
] | B | Remdesivir Novel antiviral agent developed by Gilead Sciences First developed as an antiviral against Ebola virus during the 2014 outbreak in west Africa. Adenosine analog Interferes with the action of the viral RNA dependent RNA polymerase Evades proof reading by the viral exoribonuclease causing decrease in viral RNA production. Promising results in animal studies for MERS-CoV and SARS, suggesting it may have some effects in patients with COVID-19. Dose being studied is 200mg iv on day one followed by 100mg iv once daily for 4 to 9 days. Currently Remdesivir has received investigational new drug (IND) status and several clinical trials are ongoing on patients with SARS-CoV-2 infection. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following conditions can produce hemathorax? | [
"Myxoma",
"Congestive heart failure",
"Rheumatoid arthritis",
"Uremia"
] | D | Uraemia is a dangerous condition that occurs when the kidneys no longer filter properly. It's likely to occur when a person is in the final stage of chronic kidney disease.
Symptoms include fatigue, nausea, loss of appetite, a metallic taste in the mouth and mental confusion.
Treatment includes dialysis or a kidney transplant. | train | med_mcqa | null |
In a patient with chronic atrial fibrillation with a regular beat of 60/min, the most probable cause is- | [
"Sleep",
"Digitalis toxicity",
"Sino nodal block",
"Hypothyroidism"
] | B | The health care provider may hear a fast heabeat while listening to your hea with a stethoscope. Your pulse may feel fast, uneven, or both. The normal hea rate is 60 to 100 beats per minute. In atrial fibrillation or flutter, the hea rate may be 100 to 175 beats per minute Digoxin toxicity is a life-threatening condition. ... The classic arrhythmias seen during digoxin toxicity include atrial tachycardia with a 2:1 conduction, bidirectional ventricular tachycardia and atrial fibrillation with a slow ventricular response Ref Harrison 20th edition pg 1436 | train | med_mcqa | null |
The layer of the cornea once destroyed does not regenerate is: | [
"Epithelium",
"Bowman's membrane",
"Descemet's membrane",
"All of the above"
] | B | Ans. Bowman's membrane | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 64-year-old woman complains of gait imbalance, headache and deterioration of mental status over the past several months. Her vision is normal. A CT scan reveals hydrocephalus, but the lumbar puncture pressure is unexpectedly low. What does she have? | [
"Meningitis",
"Normal-pressure hydrocephalus",
"Sigmoid sinus thrombosis",
"Echinococcus"
] | B | Normal-pressure hydrocephalus is a condition seen in the elderly in which there is symmetrical enlargement of the entire ventricular system. When patients with this condition are studied by lumbar puncture, it is found that despite ventriculomegaly, the ICP is abnormally low. This syndrome presents with a characteristic triad of symptoms - dementia, ataxia, and urinary incontinence. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Bifurcation of trachea is at | [
"Upper border of T5",
"Lower border of T4",
"Upper border of T4",
"Lower border of T5"
] | B | Trachea bifurcates at the lower border of fouh thoracic veebrae. <img src=" /> BA CHAURASIA'S HUMAN ANATOMY VOLUME 1. 6TH EDITION.page no-280 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which one of the following laboratory tests differentiates leukemoid reaction from chronic myeloid leukemia ? | [
"LAP (leukocyte alkaline phosphatase)",
"LCA (leukocyte common antigen)",
"MPO (myelo-peroxidase)",
"TRAP (tartrate resistant alkaline phosphatase)"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
The most common cause of acute cor-pulmonale is | [
"Pneumonia",
"Pulmonary thromboembolism",
"Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease",
"Primary spontaneous pneumothorax"
] | B | Anticoagulation The main principle of treatment for PE is anticoagulation Thrombolytic and surgical therapy Thrombolysis is indicated in any patient presenting with acute massive PE accompanied by cardiogenic shock. In the absence of shock, the benefits are less clear but thrombolysis may be considered in those presenting with right ventricular dilatation and hypokinesis or severe hypoxaemia. Patients must be screened carefully for haemorrhagic risk, as there is a high risk of intracranial haemorrhage. Surgical pulmonary embolectomy may be considered in selected patients but carries a high moality. Caval filters A patient in whom anticoagulation is contraindicated, who has suffered massive haemorrhage on anticoagulation, or recurrent VTE despite anticoagulation, should be considered for an inferior vena caval filter. Retrievable caval filters are paicularly useful in individuals with temporary risk factors. The caval filter should be used only until anticoagulation can be safely initiated, at which time the filter should be removed if possible. General measures Prompt recognition and treatment are potentially life-saving. Sufficient oxygen should be given to hypoxaemic patients to maintain aerial oxygen saturation above 90%. Circulatory shock should be treated with intravenous fluids or plasma expander, but inotropic agents are of limited value as the hypoxic dilated right ventricle is already close to maximally stimulated by endogenous catecholamines. Diuretics and vasodilators should also be avoided, as they will reduce cardiac output. Opiates may be necessary to relieve pain and distress but should be used with caution in the hypotensive patient. External cardiac massage may be successful in the moribund patient by dislodging and breaking up a large central embolus. Ref Davidson edition23rd pg 642 | train | med_mcqa | null |
What is deposited in Kayser-Fleischer ring - | [
"Copper",
"Lead",
"Mercury",
"Iron"
] | A | It is a golden brown ring which occurs due to deposition of copper under peripheral pas of the Descemet's membrane of the cornea. Sunflower cataract-Deposition of copper under the posterior capsule of the lens. It is brilliant golden green in colour and arranged like the petals of a sunflower. Ref: Parsons' 22nd edition , page no.396 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Type II paralysis in organophosphorous poisoning treatment is ? | [
"Atropine",
"Oximes",
"Symptomatic treatment",
"No treatment"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Symptomatic treatment Paralysis due to organophosphate (OP) poisoning can be three types ? 1. Type I (cholinergic phase) Treatment of choice is atropine with or without oximes. 2. Type II It is also called as intermediate syndrome. It develops 1-4 days after resolution of acute cholinergic symptoms. It is manifested as paralysis and respiratory distress. It involves proximal muscles with relative sparing of distal muscle groups. The pathogenesis presumed to be dysfunction of neuromuscular junction caused by downregulation of presynaptic and postsynaptic nicotinic receptors due to release of excessive Ach and Ca' respectively. Atropine is ineffective, symptomatic treatment is given. 3. Type III | train | med_mcqa | null |
Laboratory evaluation for the differential diagnosis of chronic myeloproliferative disorders includes at thefollowingexcept. | [
"Chromosomal evaluation",
"Bone marrow aspiration",
"Flow-cytometric analysis",
"Determination of red blood cell mass"
] | C | <p>In chronic myeloproliferative disorder, chromosomal evaluation is needed to identify Philadelphia chromosome(CML) & trisomy 20(polycythemia vera). Bone marrow examination reveals hypercellularity with myeloid predominance in CML & erythroid hyperplasia in PV & hyperdiploid megakaryocytes in essential thrombocytopenia. Red cell mass will be increased in PV.</p><p>Reference :Harsh mohan textbook of pathology sixth edition pg no 358.</p> | train | med_mcqa | null |
The most-commen form of DNA variation is? | [
"Single nucleotide polymorphism",
"Copy Number Variations (CNVs)",
"Transposons",
"Mutations"
] | A | Ans. (a) Single nucleotide polymorphism(Ref: R 9th/pg 3)Single-Nucleotide Polymorphisms (SNPs)*Variations at single nucleotide positions Q*Most prevalent Q and important form of genetic variation.*Always bi-allelic Q*Can occur in exons, introns, intergenic regions and coding regions*1 % of SNPs occur in coding regions | train | med_mcqa | null |
In a binangle hatchet push excavator, hatchet denotes the: | [
"Class",
"Subclass",
"Order",
"Suborder"
] | A | G.V. Black described a way to name dental instruments which is similar to zoological classification:
The order denotes the purpose of the instrument, e.g., excavator, scaler.
The suborder denotes the position or manner of use of the instrument, e.g., push, pull.
The class describes the form of the blade, e.g., hatchet, chisel.
The angle denotes the number of angles in the shank. If the instrument contains one angle in its shank, it is called monangle. If it contains two angles, it is called binangle. If it contains three angles, it is called triple-angle. Four angles are called quaternary-angle.
Naming of the instruments usually moves from 4 to 1.
For example, a binangle hatchet push excavator. In most cases, the suborder describing the position or manner of use is variable and non-specific, and for practical purposes, it is usually omitted. Identifying the working end and the purpose of the instrument is sufficient, e.g., binangle hatchet excavator.
Ref: Sturdevant's art and science of operative dentistry. 4th edition page 309
Operative dentistry modern theory and practice Marzouk page 59 | train | med_mcqa | null |
The tooth most commonly involved in chronic focal sclerosing osteomyelitis is | [
"Maxillary second molar",
"Maxillary third molar",
"Maxillary first molar",
"Mandibular first molar"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 4-year-old boy has appeared listless during the past week. He exhibits irritability when his arms or legs are touched. In the past 2 days, large ecchymoses have appeared on the right thigh and left shoulder. CBC shows hemoglobin, 9.3 g/dL; hematocrit, 28.7%; MCV, 96 mm3; platelet count, 45,000/mm3; and WBC count, 13,990/mm3. Examination of the peripheral blood smear shows blasts that lack peroxidase positive granules, but contain PAS-positive aggregates and stain positively for deoxynucleotidyl transferase negative (TdT-). Flow cytometry shows the phenotype of blasts to be CD19+, CD3-, and sIg-. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? | [
"Acute lymphoblastic leukemia",
"Acute myelogenous leukemia",
"Chronic lymphocytic leukemia",
"Chronic myelogenous leukemia"
] | A | These findings are characteristic of a childhood acute lymphoblastic leukemia of the precursor-B-cell type. The rapid expansion of the marrow caused by proliferation of blasts can lead to bone pain and tenderness. Features supporting an acute leukemia are anemia, thrombocytopenia, and the presence of blasts in the peripheral blood and bone marrow. Anemia and thrombocytopenia result from suppression of normal hematopoiesis by the leukemic clone in the marrow. The phenotype of CD19+, CD3-, and sIg- is typical of pre-B cells. TdT is a marker of early T-cell-type and B-cell-type lymphoid cells. An acute myelogenous leukemia is a disease of young to middle-aged adults, and there would be peroxidase positive myeloblasts and phenotypic features of myeloid cells. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia is a disease of older adults; patients have many small circulating mature B lymphocytes. Chronic myelogenous leukemia is a disease of adults, and the WBC count is quite high; the peripheral blood contains some myeloblasts, but other stages of myeloid differentiation also are detected. In idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura, only the platelet count is reduced because of antibody-mediated destruction of platelets. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is/ are the side effect/ s of using argon laser- | [
"Hypopigmentation",
"Crusting",
"Keloid formation",
"All the above"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e., AH the above Argon Lasero Wavelength 488 - 514 nmo Penetration depth of 1 mm, which can be increased by coolingo Side effects: crusting and possible blistering of skin, irreversible hypopigmentation, transient hyperpigmentation, punctate atrophic or hypertrophic scats, keloid formation. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Regarding Lichen planus all are true except – | [
"Hypopigmentation in residual disease",
"Lymphatic infiltration in supradermal layer",
"Itchy, polygonal, purple, papule",
"Skin, Hair & oral mucosa commonly involved"
] | A | Lesions of Lichen planus heal by leaving behind hyperpigmentation (not hypopigmentation). | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following conditions does not cause secretory diarrhea? | [
"Medullary carcinoma of thyroid",
"Somatostatinoma",
"Carcinoid syndrome",
"Zollinger-Elison syndrome"
] | B | Somatostatinoma causes steatorrhea Chronic Diarrheas - A summary Type Clues Examples Secretory diarrheas || stool volume (> 1L/d); little change with fasting, normal stool osmotic gap. Hormone-producing tumours (Carcinoid syn., Zollinger-Ellison syn., VIPomas, medullary thyroid carcinoma, villous adenoma of the rectum), microscopic colitis, choleric diarrhea (endogenous laxatives, dihydroxy bile acids), Addison's disease, chronic ethanol ingestion, Steatorrhea causes Greasy, foul-smelling, difficult-to-flush diarrhea often a/w weight loss and nutritional deficiencies, | fecal output Malabsorption (Abetalipoproteinemia, bacterial overgrowth, celiac sprue, lactase deficiency), pancreatic insufficiency, sho bowel syn., Whipple's disease, somatostatinoma Osmotic diarrheas Stool volume | with fasting, | stool osmotic gap. Osmotic laxatives (Mg2+, PO4-3, SO4-2) Lactase and other disaccharide deficiencies Nonabsorbable carbohydrates (sorbitol, lactulose, polyethylene glycol) Inflammatory diarrheas Fever, hematochezia, abdominal pain Crohn's disease, ulcerative colitis, radiation enterocolitis, eosinophilic gastroenteritis, infections a/w AIDS, malignancy (lymphoma, adenocarcinoma) Diarrheas due to altered intestinal motility Systemic diseases or prior abdominal surgery Irritable bowel syn., fecal impaction, neurologic diseases, systemic diseases (scleroderma, DM, hypehyroidism) Iatrogenic causes Cholecystectomy, ileal resection, bariatric surgery, vagotomy, fundoplication Ref - Harrison's internal medicine 20e pg 264, 597t, 599, 601, 609 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Vaccine which must be stored in the freezer compartment of a fridge is/are -a) BCGb) OPVc) Measlesd) Smallpoxe) All of the above | [
"ce",
"bc",
"cde",
"eb"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which structure prevents the spread of infection from the middle ear to the brain | [
"Tegmen tympani",
"Cribriform plate",
"Fundus tympani",
"Petrous apex"
] | A | Tegmen tympani forms the roof of the middle ear and it also extends posteriorly to form a roof of aditus and antrum. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The first evidence of cartilage getting converted to bone in craniofacial skeleton occur during | [
"Fourth Postnatal week",
"Eighth Prenatal week",
"Fourth Prenatal week",
"Eighth Postnatal week"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Overdose of vitamin A mainly affects _________ | [
"Cytosol",
"Mitochondria",
"Lysosome",
"Cell membrance"
] | C | Hypervitaminosis A Common in arctic explorers who eat polar bear liver Organelle damaged in hypervitaminosis is Lysosomes Acute toxicity: Pseudotumor cerebri (headache, dizziness, vomiting, stupor, and blurred vision, symptoms that may be confused with a brain tumor) and exfoliative dermatitis. In the liver, hepatomegaly and hyperlipidemia Chronic toxicity: If intake of > 50,000 IU/day for > 3 months Weight loss, anorexia, nausea, vomiting, bony exostosis, bone and joint pain, decreased cognition, hepatomegaly progresses to cirrhosis In pregnancy, retinoids cause teratogenic effects. ref DM Vasudevan 8th ed page 457 | train | med_mcqa | null |
The most common cause of Anovulation is: | [
"Polycystic Ovarian Disease",
"Hyperprolactinemia",
"Premature ovarian failure",
"Low ovarian reserves"
] | A | WHO Classification for Anovulation Hypothalamic pituitary failure: Hypogonadotropic Hypogonadism Hypothalamic pituitary dysfunction/PCOS: Normogonadotropic Hypogonadism Ovarian failure: Hypergonadotropic Hypogonadism Hyperprolactinemia Anovulation and ovulatory dysfunction can be caused by a number of factors. The most common cause of ovulatory dysfunction is PCOS. Other potential causes of irregular or absent ovulation: Obesity Underweight Extreme exercise Hyperprolactinemia Premature ovarian failure Perimenopause, or low ovarian reserves Thyroid dysfunction Extremely high levels of stress | train | med_mcqa | null |
Mucostatic impressions can be obtained by | [
"Plaster",
"Low viscosity alginate",
"Both of the above",
"None of the above"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Cause of central cyanosis include all of the following, Except- | [
"Chronic Asthma",
"Congenital Pulmonary stenosis",
"Congestive heart failure",
"Alveolar hypoventilation"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Congestive heart failure o Congestive Heart Failure is a cause for Peripheral cyanosis and not central cyanosis.o Cyanosis refers to bluish discoloration of skin or mucous membrane.o It is caused by the presence of deoxygenated or an altered hemoglobin in sufficient concentration in the blood,o Presence of at least Sgm % of deoxygenated hemoglobin in the capillary blood is required to produce cyanosis.o This is related to the fact that colour of deoxygenated Hb is bluish or purple.Central cyanosisPeripheral cyanosiso Central cyanosis is caused by in adequate oxygenation of systemic arterial blood due to decreased arterial oxygen saturation or Hemoglobin abnormalitieso Peripheral cyanosis is caused by slowing of blood flow and increased extraction of oxygen from normally saturated bloodo It results from cardiac shunting, pulmonary diseases or hematological disorders (Hb abnormalities)o It results from vasoconstriction or decreased peripheral blood flow, reduced cardiac output or vascular occlusiono Central cyanosis is characterized by cyanosis affecting both mucous membranes and skino Peripheral cyanosis is characterized by cyanosis of skin alone and sparing of mucous membranes Causes of Cyanosis||Central cyanosisDecreased arterial oxvgen saturationPeripheral cvanosiso Vascular occlusiono Decreased atmosphric pressure - high altitudeo Impaired pulmonary function# Arterial obstruction# Venous obstruction# Alveolar hyoventilation# Uneven relationships between pulmonary ventilation and perfusion (perfusion of hypoventilated alveoli)# Impaired oxygen diffusiono Reduced cardiac outputo Cold exposureo Redistribution of blood flow from extremitieso Anatomic shunts# Certain types of congenital hart disease# Pulmonary arteriovenous fistulas# Multiple small intrapulmonary shuntso Hemoglobin with low affinity' for oxygenHemoglobin abnormalitieso Methemoglobinemia - hereditary, acquiredo Sulfhemoglobinema - acquiredo Carboxvhemoglobinemai (not true cyanosis) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Incidental finding in CT scan, a 3cm adrenal mass, which of the following is not done | [
"Adrenalectomy",
"Dexamethasone suppression test",
"Measurement of catecholamines",
"Midnight plasma coisol"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Adrenalectomy | train | med_mcqa | null |
What is another name for buccal coitus - | [
"Buggery",
"Sin of Gomorrah",
"Cunnilingus",
"Fetishism"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Sin of Gomorrah Buccal coitus (coitus per os/sin of gomor rah)o In this, the male organ is introduced into mouth, usually of a young child,o Fellatio is oral stimulation of penis by male or female,o Cunnilingus is oral stimulation of female genitals. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Primary Pneumococcal Peritonitis is associated with _________ in children | [
"Cirrhosis",
"Lymphoma",
"Carcinoids",
"None of the above"
] | A | Primary Pneumococcal Peritonitis is associated with Nephrotic syndrome or Cirrhosis in children. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A child 14 years of age come to emergency depament with a history of blunt trauma abdomen. On examination Ballance's sign is found to be positive, otherwise the child is stable. Which of the following is not true statement? | [
"A palpable tender mass can be felt in the left upper quadrant with persistent dullness",
"It is due to extracapsular or subcapsular hematoma ( of spleen )",
"Managed with Conservative treatment",
"Splenectomy is required"
] | D | As the child is stable, conservative management should be done. " 70% to 90% of children with splenic injury are successfully treated without operation, and 40% to 50% of adult patients with splenic injury nonoperatively in large volume trauma centres". "Splenectomy may be safer option, especially in the unstable patients with multiple potential sites of bleeding. In ceain situations, selective angio embolism of the spleen can play a role''. Splenic injuries are treated nonoperatively, by splenic repair (splenorrhaphy), paial splenectomy, or resection, depending on the extent of the injury and the condition of the patient. Enthusiasm for splenic salvage has been driven by the evolving trend toward nonoperative management of solid organ injury and the rare but often fatal complication of overwhelming postsplenectomy infection (OPSI ). It is uncommon in otherwise healthy adults. For this reason attempts to salvage the spleen are more vigorous. Splenectomy is also indicated for lesser splenic injuries in patients who have developed a coagulopathy and have multiple abdominal injuries, and it is usually necessary in patients with failed splenic salvage attempts. Paial splenectomy can be used in patients in whom only a poion of the spleen has been destroyed, usually the superior or inferior half. Splenic trauma: The spleen is the most commonly injured organ in cases of blunt abdominal trauma. Nonoperative management is the treatment of choice Splenic injuries in children have been managed traditionally without surgery. Until recently, most splenic injuries in the adults were managed with splenorrhaphy or splenectomy. Currently., 50-80% of adults with blunt splenic injuries are managed non operatively. Stable patients who have high-grade splenic injuries on CT or have evidence of ongoing bleeding on CT may be candidate for angiographic embolisation. Unstable patients with splenic injuries should undergo splenectomy or attempts at splenic repair if appropriate. "Ballance's sign: A palpable tender mass can be felt in the left upper quardant with persistent dullness. It is due to extracapsular or subcapsular hematoma (of spleen ) " Splenectomy is usually indicated under the following circumstances: Patient is unstable Other injuries require prompt attention Spleen is extensively injured with continuous bleeding Bleeding is associated with hilar injuries Ref: L & B 25/e, page 348 ; CSDT 11/e, page 253 | train | med_mcqa | null |
In staphylococci, plasmid encoding beta lactamase production is transmitted by - | [
"Conjugation",
"Transduction",
"Transposan",
"Transformation"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Transduction o Beta lactamases are encoded by plasmids that can be transferred with the help of bacteriophage, a process called transduction. Also know o Most common mechanism of acquisition of antibiotic resistance in staphylococcus --* Transduction o Most common mechanism of acquistion of antibiotic resistance in pneumococci and Neisseria -3 Transformation o Vancomycin resistance in enterococci and staphylococcus is mediated by conjugation. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All are complications of hydatid cyst in the liver except- | [
"Jaundice",
"Suppuration",
"Cirrhosis",
"Rupture"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
A patient presented to you with fever, headache, rash and eschar. You suspect rickettsial disease. Which of the following is the LEAST likely disease in this case? | [
"Indian tick typhus",
"Rickettsial pox",
"Scrub typhus",
"Endemic typhus"
] | D | Rash is seen in 1) Epidemic typhus 2) Endemic typhus 3) Scrub typhus 4) Rocky Mountain spotted fever 5) Indian tick typhus Lymphadenopathy is seen in 1) Scrub typhus 2) Rickettsial pox Eschar is seen in 1) Scrub typhus 2) Rickettsialpox 3) Indian tick typhus Ref: Park, Edition 21, Page 274-276 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Scrotal calcifications in fetal sonography may be seen in: | [
"Testicular torsion",
"Hydrocele",
"Meconium ileus",
"All of the above"
] | C | Meconium ileus can be either uncomplicated, in which there is no intestinal perforation, or complicated, in which prenatal perforation of the intestine has occurred or vascular compromise of the distended ileum develops. Antenatal ultrasonography may reveal the presence of intra-abdominal or scrotal calcifications, or distended bowel loops. Ref: Schwaz's principle of surgery 9th edition, chapter 39. | train | med_mcqa | null |
In burns heat loss is by/ due to - | [
"Dilatation of veins",
"Shock",
"Exposed area by evaporation",
"None of the above"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most common tumour of pituitary' is - | [
"Prolactinoma",
"GH secreting adenoma",
"ACTH secreting adenoma",
"TSH secreting adenoma"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Prolactinoma Types of adenomasSecretionStainingPathology% of hormone production casesLacto trophicadenomas(prolactinomas)Secrete prolactinAcidophilicGalactorrhea, hypogonadism, amenorrhea, infertility, and impotence30%SomatotrophicadenomasSecrete growth hormone (GH)AcidophilicAcromegaly in adults; gigantism in children15%CorticotrophicadenomasSecrete adenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)BasophilicCushing's disease10%GonadotrophicadenomasSecrete luteinizing hormone (LH), follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) and their subunitsBasophilicUsually doesn't cause symptoms10%Thyrotrophic adenomas (rare)Secrete thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)Basophilic to chromophobicOccasionally hyperthyroidism, usually doesn't cause symptomsLess than 1%Null cell adenomasDo not secrete hormonesMay stain positive for synaptophvsin 25% of pituitary' adenomas are nonsecretive | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most effective way to prevent HIV veical transmission is | [
"HAA",
"Nevirapine",
"Zidovudine",
"Elective cesarean"
] | A | Women enrolled on HAA (Triple ARV prophylaxis) had a much lower (1%) rate of HIV veical transmission as compared to Zidovudine lone HAA showed similar rates of Transmission when Zidovudine monotherapy was combined with single dose of Maternal or neonatal Nevirapine Ref: Perinatal and pediatric HIV/AIDS by Mamatha 1st edition Pgno : 344 | train | med_mcqa | null |
"Schiller Dual" bodies are seen in | [
"Endodermal sinus tumor",
"Granulosa cell tumor",
"Dysgerminoma",
"Dermoid"
] | A | Ans. a (Endodermal sinus tumor) (Ref. Dutta Gynecology 4th/pg. 354)SCHILLER-DUVAL BODIES are characteristic structures resembling fetal glomeruli composed of a central blood vessel surrounded by embryonal cells lying within a space also lined by embryonal cells. They are seen in endodermal sinus tumors (yolk sac tumors). AFP is its tumor marker. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Manifestation of uretero vaginal fistula is : | [
"Overflow incontinence",
"Hydronephrosis",
"Continuous incontinence",
"Stress incontinence"
] | C | Continuous incontinence | train | med_mcqa | null |
A pt comes with stage III non seminomatous testicular tumor t/t of choice is - | [
"Radiotherapy",
"Chemotherapy",
"Hormonal therapy",
"Surgery"
] | B | Stage III is tumor spread beyond the retroperitoneal lymph node
Treatment is primarily chemotherapy | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is not true about mycophenalate mofetil - | [
"Prodrug of mycophenolic acid",
"Can be used with calcineurin inhibitor and glucocoicoid",
"Cannot be used with Azathioprine",
"Is nephrotoxic"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Is nephrotoxic o Nephrotoxicity is not an adverse effect of mycophenolate mofetil. o It is a prodrug of mycophenolic acid. o It is used as an 'add on' therapy to cyclosporine (calcineurin inhibitor) + glucocoicoids in renal transplantation. o It should not be used with azathioprine as both the drugs act by inhibiting purine synthesis. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following nerves are commonly used for grafting except - | [
"Medial antebrachial Cutaneous nerve",
"Dorsal sensory branch of vagal nerve",
"Musculocutaneous nerve",
"Sural nerve"
] | C | Answer- C. Musculocutaneous nerveMost common nerves used for grafting:Medial antebrachial Cutaneous nerveDorsal sensory branch of vagal nerveGreater AuricularSural nerve | train | med_mcqa | null |
Gunshot residue on hands can he detected by which test- | [
"Benzidine test",
"Phenolphthalein test",
"Dermal nitrate test",
"Hydrogen activation analysis"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Dermal nitrate test o Dermal nitrate/ paraffin/diphenylamine test:It is used to detect firearm residues on the hands of the suspectIn this, the hands are coated with a layer of liquid paraffin. After cooling, the casts are removed & treated with an acid solution of diphenvlamine, a reagent used to detect nitrates & nitrites that originate from gunpowder & is deposited on the skin of the person who has fired the shot.A positive test is indicated by the presence of blue flakes in the paraffin.o Benzidine test- most sensitive test for detection of blood,o Phenolphthalein / Kastle Mayer test-screening test for blood stainso Harrison & Gilroy test hydrogen activation analysis- is used to detect heavy metal. These heavy metals are detected from entrance wound where they are components of the residue discharged from the cartridge of a firearm weapon. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most common location of SEGA (sub ependymal giant cell strocytoma) | [
"Foramen of monro",
"Foramen of luschka",
"Foramen of magendine",
"Roof of lateral ventricle"
] | A | Foramen of monro is the most common site for SEGA. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Growth factor needed for salmonella - | [
"Tryptophan",
"Niacin",
"B-12",
"Citrate"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Tryptophan | train | med_mcqa | null |
Cause of hydrocoele in infants is | [
"Patent gubernaculum",
"Patent processus vaginalis",
"Cyst of morgagni",
"Harmonal factors"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Examination of a peripheral blood smear demonstrates leukemia composed of small mature lymphocytes without blast forms. Which of the following is the most likely age of this patient? | [
"1 year",
"20 years",
"45 years",
"65 years"
] | D | The disease described is chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL), which is a disease of older adults. The 1 year-old (choice A) would be most likely to have acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL). The 45 year-old (choice C) would be likely to have either AML or chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML). | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following drugs is used in Ml? | [
"Cocaine",
"Pethidine",
"Morphine",
"Butorphanol"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Morphine | train | med_mcqa | null |
Magnesium sulphate potentiates the hypotensive action of - | [
"Methyldopa",
"Nifedipine",
"Enalapril",
"Hydralazine"
] | B | ans-B | train | med_mcqa | null |
In which of the following locations, Carcinoid tumor is most common | [
"Esophagus",
"Stomach",
"Small bowel",
"Appendix"
] | D | carcinoid tumour commonly occurs in appendix(45%),ileum(25%),rectum(15%).other sites are(15%)other pas of GIT ,bronchus, and testis SRB,5th,877. | train | med_mcqa | null |
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