question stringlengths 1 6.54k | choices listlengths 4 4 | answer stringclasses 4
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In centrilobular (centriacinar) emphysema, there is an abnormal, permanent enlargement of the - | [
"Respiratory bronchioles",
"Alveolar ducts",
"Small bronchi",
"Bronchioles"
] | A | . Respiratory bronchioles | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 43 year old female presented with galactorrhoea. Her investigations show increased prolactin levels. Which among the following condition CANNOT cause increased prolactin secretion? | [
"Dopamine",
"Sleep",
"Pregnancy",
"Stress"
] | A | Prolactin is produced in the lactotroph cells of the anterior pituitary gland. Secretion of prolactin is pulsatile, and it increases with sleep, stress, pregnancy, chest wall stimulation, and trauma. During nipple stimulation and lactation, the mammary nerve gets stimulated secreting prolactin. Hypoglycemia, myocardial infarction, and surgery are some of the stress inducing factors that can elevate serum prolactin while, physical exercise and food ingestion are also potent stimuli for its secretion. Dopamine is the primary neuroendocrine inhibitor of the secretion of prolactin from the anterior pituitary gland and hence causes hypoprolactinemia not hyperprolacinnemia. | train | med_mcqa | null |
True statement about burn resuscitation is | [
"Colloid preferred in the first 24 hours",
"Half of the calculated fluid is given in the first eight hours",
"Diuretics should be given to the patient",
"Antibiotics should be given more impoance over fluid therapy"
] | B | Proper fluid management is critical to survival in a burn patient. The hypovolemic shock in burn patient is special in the sense that the total body water remains unchanged in a burn patient. The thermal injury leads to a massive fluid shift from the intravascular compament to the extravascular compament (interstitial + intracellular) leading to edema formation (in both burned pas and non burned pas of the body) This fluid shift is maximum in the first 24 hrs. Fluid resuscitation begins with an isotonic crystalloid solution - Ringer's lactate solution (RL) is the preferred solution (Normal saline should be avoided as the volumes required for resuscitation may lead to hyperchloremic metabolic acidosis). The concept behind the continuous fluid resuscitation is that the burn (and/or inhalation injury) drives an inflammatory response that leads to capillary leak; as the plasma leaks into the extravascular space, crystalloid administration would maintain the intravascular volume. The quantity of crystalloid needed for adequate resuscitation is determined by Parkland formula i.e. 4 mL/kg per % of TBSA burn. (Note that a number of formulas exist for calculating fluid needs during burn resuscitation, suggesting that no one formula benefits all patients. Parkland is one of the most commonly used formulas) half of the calculated fluid is given in the first 8 hrs and a half in next 16 hrs. Colloids are given in the next 24 hrs. The reason behind it being the observation that in the initial period, the vascular permeability is so large that even larger protein molecules leak from the capillaries. (But some workers, prefer to use colloids after 8 to 12 hrs, while there are some who use it from the very beginning) A number of parameters are widely used to assess burn resuscitation, but the most common remains the simple outcomes of blood pressure and urine output. As in any critically ill patient, the target MAP is 60 mmHg to ensure optimal end-organ perfusion. Goals for urine output should be 30 mL/h in adults and 1 to 1.5 mL/kg per hour in pediatric patients. There is no use of diuretics in burn resuscitation. Children under 20 kg have the additional requirement that they do not have sufficient glycogen stores to maintain an adequate glucose level in response to the inflammatory response. Specific pediatric formulas have been described, but the simplest approach is to add maintenance IV fluid with glucose supplementation in addition to the calculated resuscitation fluid with lactated Ringer's. Ref : Schwaz 9/e p201 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Structures passing through the centre of the cavernous sinus | [
"Occulomotor nerve",
"Trochlear nerve",
"Maxillary nerve",
"Abducent nerve"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Not a cause for Mikulicz's syndrome:- | [
"Leukemia",
"Lymphosarcoma",
"Sarcoidosis",
"Diphtheria"
] | D | Diphtheria is not a recognised cause for Mikulicz's syndrome Mikulicz's syndrome Bilateral symmetrical enlargement of lacrimal and salivary glands Causes Leukemia Lymphosarcoma Benign Lymphoid hyperplasia Hodgkin's disease Sarcoidosis Tuberculosis | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most important pathophysiological cause of GERD is: | [
"Hiatus hernia",
"transient LES relaxation",
"LES hypotension",
"Inadequate esophageal clearance"
] | B | Ans is 'b' i.e. transient LES relaxation "Transient LES relaxations account for at least 90% of reflux in normal subjects or GERD patients without hiatus hernia HarrisonTransient lower esophageal sphincter relaxations account for essentially all reflux events in individuals with a normal LES pressure at the time of reflux Pathogenesis of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)The primary event in the pathogenesis of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) is movement of gastric juice from the stomach into the esophagus.The three dominant pathophysiologic mechanisms causing gastroesophageal junction incompetence are:Transient lower esophageal sphincter relaxations (tLESRs)A hypotensive lower esophageal sphincter (LES)Anatomic disruption of the gastroesophageal junction, often associated with a hiatal herniaThe latest concept is that the dominant mechanism varies as a function of disease severity with tLESRs predominating with mild disease and mechanisms associated with a hiatus hernia and/or a weak sphincter predominating with more severe disease Transient LES relaxations are different from swallow-induced LES relaxation: tLESRs occur without an associated pharyngeal contraction, are unaccompanied by esophageal peristalsis, and persist for longer periods (>10 sec) than do swallow-induced LES relaxations. tLESRs are the physiological mechanism of belching. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 3-year-old child presented with anemia and thrombocytopenia. On examination, there was massive splenomegaly. A bone marrow aspiration revealed the following cells. What is the diagnosis? | [
"Mucopolysaccharidosis",
"Gaucher disease",
"Acute Leukemia",
"Thalassemia"
] | B | b. Gaucher diseasePancytopenia with massive splenomegaly in a child with bone marrow showing Gaucher cells' with 'crumpled tissue paper' appearance of cytoplasm are seen in Gaucher disease | train | med_mcqa | null |
Monozygotic twins do not have same- | [
"Fingerprints",
"Genetic make up",
"Facial appearance",
"Stature"
] | A | Ans. is "a' i.e., Fingerprints o Monozygotic twins are a result of the division of the single fertilized egg into two embryos. Thus, they have exactly identical DNA, except for the generally undetectable micromutations that begin as soon as the cell starts dividing.o Fingerprints of the identical twins start their development from the same DNA so they show considerable genetic similarity.o However identical twins are situated in different parts of the womb during development, so each fetus encounters slightly different intrauterine forces than their siblings.o As a result fingerprints of the identical twins have different microdetails which can be used for identification purposes. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Light microscopic characteristic features of apoptosis is | [
"Intact cell membrane",
"Eosinophilic cytoplasm",
"Nuclear moulding",
"Condensation of the nucleus"
] | D | Ref, Robbins 8/ep41-15,26-27,9/ep53 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Nerve involved in hyperacusis | [
"Facial nerve",
"Glossopharyngeal",
"Vagus",
"Hypoglossal"
] | A | Paralysis of stapedius muscle which is supplied by 7th cranial nerve causes hyperacusis or phonophobia Ref: Dhingra 7e pg 510. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Nail pitting is caused by all except - | [
"Lichen planus",
"Psoriasis",
"Alopecia areata",
"Pityriasis Rosacea"
] | D | Nail involvement is common in alopecia areata, paicularly in severe forms. Pitting is the most common finding, but other abnormalities such as trachyonychia have been repoed. Nail plate pitting tends to be more shallow and regularly spaced than in psori-atic nail pitting Nail pitting is often a sign of another condition that can include: psoriasis, which causes skin inflammation. reactive ahritis or inflammation caused by an infection elsewhere. alopecia areata, which causes temporary bald patches on the scalp. Ref Harrison20th edition pg 1278 | train | med_mcqa | null |
A fundamental technique used in psychoanalysis is : | [
"Concentration",
"Hyponsis",
"Empathy",
"Free association"
] | D | D. i.e. Free association | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which one of the following is an antiapoptotic protein/ gene? | [
"BAK",
"BCL-2",
"BAX",
"BIM"
] | B | Ans. (b) BCL-2(Ref Robbins 9th/pg 55; 8th/pg 28)Anti-apoptotic.Pro-apoptoticSensorsBCL2, BCL-XL, and MCL1BAX and BAKBAD, BIM, BID, Puma, and Noxa | train | med_mcqa | null |
All are true of &;Postive health&; in today&;s world except | [
"Dependent on social, economic and culture",
"Mirage because of changing environment",
"Body and mind at peace",
"Changing behaviour with respect to change in future"
] | D | Concept of Positive Health Perfect functioning of heath and mind Conceptualie health biologically, psychologically and socially. Depends on economic, social and cultural factors Positive health remians a mirage due to constant change. Park 25th edition Pgno: 16 | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 3 year old child presents with four days history of puffiness of face, fever and tea coloured urine. During the course of his disease, he can have any of the complications except- | [
"Hypokalemia",
"Hypeensive encephalopathy",
"Acute renal failure",
"Acidosis"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Hypokalemia It is a case of acute nephritic syndrome which can result in ARF. In ARF there is hyperkalemia (not hypokalemia) and acidosis. Acute nephritic syndrome is also characterized by hypeension, So hypeensive encephalopathy may also occur. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Removing level I to V lymphnode along with removal of sternoclenoid muscle is called as | [
"Selective neck dissection",
"Modified radical neck dissection",
"Radical neck dissection",
"Functional neck dissection"
] | B | MRND is Removing level I to V lymphnode along with saving any of the three structres (Spinal accessory nerve , IJV and sternocleidomastoid muscle). | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 24 year old male came with hypopigmented skin lesions over his trunk with fine, powdery scales which becomes prominent on scratching the skin. KOH mount of the lesions shows | [
"Copper penny bodies",
"Miner's wheel appearance",
"Asteroid bodies",
"Sphagetti Meatball appearance"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is not a coccidian parasite? | [
"Isospora",
"Toxoplasma",
"Blastomyces",
"Cyclospora"
] | C | Isospora, Toxoplasma and Cyclospora all three are coccidian parasites which belongs to a phylum apicomplexa. They all have a common feature of organelle that helps in the penetration in host cells whereas blastomyces is a dimorphic fungi. Blastomyces is a fungus. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Ivy technique is a test done to measure the: | [
"Clotting time",
"Bleeding time",
"Both",
"None"
] | B | IVY method
The IVY method is the traditional format for this test. While both the IVY and the Duke method require the use of a sphygmomanometer, or blood pressure cuff, the IVY method is more invasive than the Duke method, utilizing an incision on the ventral side of the forearm, whereas the Duke method involves puncture with a lancet or special needle. In the IVY method, the blood pressure cuff is placed on the upper arm and inflated to 40 mmHg. A lancet or scalpel blade is used to make a shallow incision that is 1 millimeter deep on the underside of the forearm.
A standard-sized incision is made around 10 mm long and 1 mm deep. The time from when the incision is made until all bleeding has stopped is measured and is called the bleeding time. Every 30 seconds, filter paper or a paper towel is used to draw off the blood.The test is finished when bleeding has stopped.
A prolonged bleeding time may be a result from decreased number of thrombocytes or impaired blood vessels. However, the depth of the puncture or incision may be the source of error.
Normal values fall between 3 – 10 minutes depending on the method used.
A disadvantage of Ivy's method is closure of puncture wound before stoppage of bleeding. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Next to HBV, virus implicated in hepatocellular Ca is | [
"HCV",
"Herpes",
"HAV",
"HEV"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e. HCV Hepatitis B and Hepatitis C viruses can cause hepatocellular carcinoma. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 31-year-old woman experiences abdominal pain 1 week after noticing blood in her urine. She has had three episodes of urinary tract infection during the past year. There are no remarkable findings on physical examination. Urinalysis shows 2+ hematuria, 1+ proteinuria, hypercalciuria, and no glucose or ketones. Serum creatinine is 1.0 g/dL. Microscopic examination of the urine shows numerous RBCs and oxalate crystals. An abdominal CT scan with contrast shows linear striations radiating into the renal papillae, along with small cystic collections of contrast material in dilated collecting ducts. She is advised to increase her daily intake of fluids, and her condition improves. Which of the following renal cystic diseases is most likely to be associated with these findings? | [
"Autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease",
"Autosomal recessive polycystic kidney disease",
"Medullary sponge kidney",
"Multi-cystic renal dysplasia"
] | C | The congenital disorder known as medullary sponge kidney (MSK) is present to some degree in 1% of adults. In MSK, cystic dilation of 1 to 5 mm is present in the inner medullary and papillary collecting ducts. MSK is bilateral in 70% of cases. Not all papillae are equally affected, although calculi are often present in dilated collecting ducts. Patients usually develop kidney stones, infection, or recurrent hematuria in the third or fourth decade. More than 50% of patients have stones. Autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease (ADPKD) produces much larger cysts that involve the entire kidney, eventually leading to massive renomegaly. Autosomal recessive polycystic kidney disease (ARPKD) is rare and leads to bilateral, symmetric renal enlargement manifested in utero, with renal failure evident at birth. Multi-cystic renal dysplasia may occur sporadically or as part of various genetic syndromes, such as Meckel-Gruber syndrome, in fetuses and newborns. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 45 year old male had multiple hypoaesthetic mildly erythematous large plaques with elevated margins on trunk and extremities. His ulnar and lateral popliteal nerves on both sides were enlarged. The most probable diagnosis is – | [
"Lepromatous leprosy",
"Borderline leprosy",
"Borderline tuberculoid leprosy",
"Borderline lepromatous leprosy"
] | D | This patient has:-
Multiple lesions
Hypoesthetic
Bilateral symmetrical nerve thickening
These favour lepromatous end of the spectrum.
Now question arises, whether it is BL or LL.
Point two (Hypoesthetic) differentiates the two:-
Sensations
IL : Hypoesthetic or Normoesthetic
TT : Anesthetic
BT : Hypoesthetic sometimes anaesthetic
BB : Hypoesthetic
BL : Hypoesthetic
LL : Normoesthetic Late glove & stocking anaesthetic | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most common cause of renal papillary necrosis is | [
"Analgesic nephropathy",
"Sickle cell disease",
"Diabetes mellitus",
"Chronic pyelonephritis"
] | C | Renal papillary necrosis is a form of nephropathy involving the necrosis of the renal papilla. Lesions that characterize renal papillary necrosis come from an impairment of the blood supply and from subsequent ischemic necrosis that is diffuse. In terms of cause, almost any condition that involves ischemia can lead to renal papillary necrosis. A mnemonic for the causes of renal papillary necrosis is (POSTCARDS: pyelonephritis, obstruction of the urogenital tract, sickle cell disease, tuberculosis, cirrhosis of the liver, analgesia/alcohol abuse, renal vein thrombosis, diabetes mellitus, and systemic vasculitis.) Often, a patient with renal papillary necrosis will have numerous conditions acting synergistically to bring about the disease. Refer robbins 9/e936 | train | med_mcqa | null |
In 100-m dash, most of the energy consumed by skeletal muscles to replenish ATP is derived from | [
"Phosphocreatine",
"Aerobic glycolysis",
"Oxidation of Fatty acids",
"None of the above"
] | A | In a 100-m dash that takes 10s , 85% of the energy consumed is derived anaerobically by Phosphocreatine, which is hydrolysed to creatine and phosphate groups with the release of considerable energy. Ref: Guyton And Hall Textbook of Medical Physiology 13th edition Pgno: 82 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Tracheal bifurcation on X–ray corsponds to – a) T5T6b) T4T5c) Sternal angled) Thoracic inlet | [
"a",
"bc",
"ac",
"ad"
] | B | Tracheal bifurcation (carina) is located at about 4th thoracic vertebral body or T4-T5 disc space posteriorly and sternal angle of louis anteriorly. | train | med_mcqa | null |
3 pad test is done for: | [
"Stress incontinence",
"Rectovaginal fistula",
"Urinary fistula",
"Urethrocoele"
] | C | Ans: c (Urinary fistula) Ref: Shaw, 13th ed, p. 182Methylene blue - 3 swab test is an investigation for urinary fistula.ObservationInferenceUppermost swab soaked with urine but unstained with dye. The lower two fistula swabs remain dryUretero-vaginal fistulaUpper and lower swabs remain dry but the middle swab stained with dyeVesico-vaginal fistulaThe upper two swabs remain dry but the lower swab stained with dyeUrethro-vaginal fistulaCommonest cause of VVF in developing countries - Obstetrical causeCommonest cause of VVF in developed countries - GynecologicalCommonest cause of uretero vaginal fistula - Difficult abdominal hysterectomyCommonest cause of RVF - incomplete healing or unrepaired recent complete perineal tear | train | med_mcqa | null |
Facial colliculus covers- | [
"Facial nucleus",
"Abducent nucleus",
"Vestibular nucleus",
"Vagal nucleus"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Abducent nucleus o There is some misprinting in the question. It is abducent nucleus (not abducent nerve) which is covered by facial colliculus.o Facial colliculus is a small elevation in pons, produced by genu (recuring fibers) of facial nerve looping around (covering) abducent nucleus.o Facial colliculus produces medial eminence on each side of median sulcus in 4th ventricle | train | med_mcqa | null |
All the following have been shown to reduce the risk of atherothrombotic stroke in primary or secondary prevention EXCEPT: | [
"Aspirin",
"Blood pressure control",
"Clopidogrel",
"Warfarin"
] | D | Numerous studies have identified key risk factors for ischemic stroke. Old age, family history, diabetes, hypertension, tobacco smoking, and cholesterol are all risk factors for atherosclerosis and therefore stroke. Hypertension is the most significant among these risk factors. All cases of hypertension must be controlled in the setting of stroke prevention. Antiplatelet therapy has been shown to reduce the risk of vascular atherothrombotic events. The overall relative risk reduction of nonfatal stroke is about 25 to 30% across most large clinical trials. The “true” absolute benefit is dependent on the individual patient’s risk; therefore, patients with a low risk for stroke (e.g., younger, with minimal cardiovascular risk factors) may have a relative risk reduction with antiplatelet therapy but a meaningless “benefit.” Numerous studies have shown the benefit of statin therapy in the reduction of stroke risk even in the absence of hypercholesterolemia. Although anticoagulation is the treatment of choice for atrial fibrillation and cardioembolic causes of stroke, there is no proven benefit in regard to the prevention of atherothrombotic stroke; therefore, warfarin cannot be recommended. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 23-year-old woman has had altered consciousness and slurred speech for the past 24 hours. A head CT scan shows a right temporal hemorrhagic infarction. Cerebral angiography shows a distal right middle cerebral arterial occlusion. Within the past 3 years, she has had an episode of pulmonary embolism. A pregnancy 18 months ago ended in miscarriage. Laboratory studies show a false-positive serologic test for syphilis, normal prothrombin time (PT), elevated partial thromboplastin time (PTT), and normal platelet count. Which of the following is the most likely cause of these findings? | [
"Antiphospholipid antibody",
"Disseminated intravascular coagulation",
"Factor V mutation",
"Hypercholesterolemia"
] | A | These findings are characteristic of a hypercoagulable state. The patient has antibodies that react with cardiolipin, a phospholipid antigen used for the serologic diagnosis of syphilis. These so-called antiphospholipid antibodies are directed against phospholipid-protein complexes such as b2 -glycoprotein I and thrombin and are sometimes called lupus anticoagulant because they are present in some patients with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) or other autoimmune states. Patients with antiphospholipid syndrome have recurrent arterial and venous thrombosis and repeated miscarriages. In vitro, these antibodies inhibit coagulation by interfering with the assembly of phospholipid complexes, and a "mixing study" with normal serum will not correct the PTT (which primarily measures factors II, V, VIII, IX, X, XI, and XII and fibrinogen in the "intrinsic pathway" of in vitro coagulation). In vivo, the antibodies induce a hypercoagulable state by unknown mechanisms. Disseminated intravascular coagulation is an acute consumptive coagulopathy characterized by elevated PT and PTT, and decreased platelet count. The PT and PTT are normal in patients with factor V (Leiden) mutation. Hypercholesterolemia promotes atherosclerosis over many years, and the risk of arterial thrombosis increases. Von Willebrand disease affects platelet adhesion and leads to a bleeding tendency, not to thrombosis. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Nerve supply of skin around the umbilicus is | [
"T8",
"T9",
"T10",
"T11"
] | C | A dermatome is an area of skin that is mainly supplied by a single soinal nerve. There are 8 cervical nerves (C1 being an exception with no dermatome), 12 thoraxic nerves, 5 lumbar nerves and 5 sacral nerves. Each of these nerves relays sensation (including pain) from a paicular region of skin to the brain.A dermatome also refers to the pa of an embryonic somite. T10 peains to umblicus Ref - BDC 6e vol2 pg 198-200 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Inhibition of anaerobic glycolysis by increase supply of O2 is called: | [
"Carbtree effect",
"Pasteur effect",
"Lewis effect",
"None"
] | B | Pasteur effect Warburg effect Crabtree Effect In aerobic conditions, glucose consumption decreases Or In the presence of O2 , anaerobic glycolysis is inhibited Under aerobic conditions, glucose consumption increases Or Even In the presence of O2 , anaerobic glycolysis is promoted (in cancer cells) If glucose increases, then O2 consumption falls Or When O2 supply is kept constant & glucose concentration is increased, then the O2 consumption by cell falls | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which one of the following is not strategy under Roll Back Mlaria - | [
"Strengthening of helth system",
"Use of insecticide treated bed nets",
"Anti-larval measures",
"Development of new antimalaria drugs"
] | C | <p> Antilarval measures. Reference: Roll Back Malaria Website. <\p> | train | med_mcqa | null |
Commonest variety of acute inflammation is ? | [
"Purulent inflammation",
"Serous inflammation",
"Catarrhal inflammation",
"Necrotic inflammation"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Catarrhal inflammation o While the basic process of acute inflammation is same in all tissues, there are frequently qualitative differences in the inflammatory response seen under different circumstances. 1. Catarrhal inflammation o An inflammatory process that occurs in mucous membrane and is characterized by increased blood flow to the mucosal vessels, edema of interstitial tissue, enlargment of the secretory gland epithelial cells, and profuse discharge of mucus and epithelial debris. o It is very common, and mostly occurs in mucosal membrane of nose, pharynx and ear after upper respiratory tract infection or irritation. o It can also occur in other mucosal surfaces, e.g., GIT. 2. Serous inflammation o Marked by outpouring of a thin, serous fluid that is derived either from plasma or the secretion of mesothelial cell lining the peritoneal, pleural or pericardial cavity. The most common example is blister resulting from burn. Fibrinous inflammation o It occurs due to more severe injury when there is increased vascular permeability and larger molecules such as fibrinogen pass the vascular barrier, and fibrin is formed and deposited in the extracellular space. o It is seen in cavities, e.g., meninges, pericardium and pleura. Suppurative or Purulent inflammation It is characterized by the production of large amount ofpus (neutrophils + necrotic cells & debris + edema fluid). It is typically seen after infection with pyogenic bacteria e.g., staphylococci. A common example of an acute suppurative inflammation is acute appendicitis. Abscess is localized collection of purulent inflammatory tissue. 5. Ulcer (Ulcerative inflammation) An ulcer is a local defect, or excavation, of the surface of an organ or tissue that is produced by the sloughing (shedding) of inflammatory necrotic tissue. Ulceration occurs when tissue necrosis and resultant inflammation exist on or near a surface. It is seen in --> Inflammatory necrosis of mucosa of mouth, stomach, duodenum or genitourinary tract, and Subcutaneous inflammation of lower extremities in older persons who have circulatory disturbances that predispose to extensive necrosis. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The total volume of CSF in an adult is about - | [
"100-150 ml",
"300-350 ml",
"500-550 ml",
"600-650 ml"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., 100-150 ml o The major source of CSF is the choroidal plexus of all 4 ventricles, mainly in two lateral ventricles, o Other sources of CSF are ependymal cells of the ventricles and the brain itself, via perivascular spaces, o The total volume of CSF in an adult is about 125-150 ml. o The rate of formation of CSF is about 500-550 ml/day. Thus the CSF is replaced 3-4 times every day. | train | med_mcqa | null |
'Hatter's shakes' are see in poisoning due to: | [
"Mercury",
"Arsenic",
"Lead",
"Copper"
] | A | Ans: A (Mercury) Ref: The Essentials of Forensic Medicine and Toxicology by KS Narayan Reddy. 29th edition. 2010.Explanation:Symptoms of Mercury Poisoning:Acid metallic taste, hoarse voice, greyish white coating of tongue, blood-stained stool, circulatory collapse, necrosis of jaw-, membranous, colitis, proximal renal tubular necrosis.Acrodynia (Acro-Limbs Odynia-Pain) is seen in mercury poisoning taka Pink's Disease). It is characterized by Pain, swelling and parasthesia of Limbs.Miiuiinata disease--Contamination of fish with mercury, at a place called Minimate Bay in Japan.Chronic Poisoning (Hydrar gyrism)The symptoms are salivation, sore mouth and throat, fine tremors of the tongue, hands, arms, anemia.Shaking palsy is associated with Hg poisoning. Mercurial tremors are also called hatter's shakes or glass blower's shake or Danbury Tremors.Mercurial erethism is seen in persons working willy mercury in mirror manufacturing firms. Erethism is characterized by shyness, timidity, irritability, loss of confidence, mental depression, loss of memory and insomnia. (Psychological symptoms).Mercuria lends is a peculiar eye change due to brownish deposit of mercury through the cornea on the anterior lens capsule (Brown-Malt Reflex). it is bilateral and has no effect on visual acuity | train | med_mcqa | null |
Triple examination includes all except: March 2011 | [
"Clinical examination",
"Excision biopsy",
"FNAC",
"Mammography"
] | B | Ans. B: Excision biopsy In any patient who presents with a breast lump or other symptoms suspicious of carcinoma, the diagnosis should be made by a combination of clinical assessment, radiological imaging and a tissue sample taken for either cytological or histological analysis, the so called triple assessment | train | med_mcqa | null |
The drug causing pseudomembranous colitis: | [
"Clindamycin",
"Clindamycin",
"Vancomycin",
"Penicillin"
] | A | Clindamycin | train | med_mcqa | null |
A person was diagnosed with Gout. You will suggest the patient to avoid which of the following food product in his diet? | [
"Whisky & Beer",
"Spinach & Mushrooms",
"Meat & Fish",
"All"
] | D | Ans. D. ALLFoods rich in purine are:1. Vegetarian - spinach, peas, cauliflower, mushrooms2. Non- vegetarian- meat, liver, fish (tuna)Also alcohol & heavy exercise should be avoided in patients of gout, because they cause Lactic acidosis & Hyperuricemia. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All are true regarding the enamel spindles except: | [
"Produced by ameloblasts",
"Found in the region of cusps",
"Surrounded by interprismatic enamel",
"Terminate as rounded process"
] | A | Enamel spindles are formed by extensions of odontoblast processes into enamel before calcification. They are odontoblastic processes that cross the dentinoenamel junction and get entrapped in the enamel. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is not a paranasal sinus ? | [
"Frontal sinus",
"Pyriform sinus",
"Ethmoid sinus",
"Maxillary sinus"
] | B | Ans. is `b' i.e., Pyriform sinus A sinus is a hollow air filled cavity. Paranasal sinuses are hollow air filled cavities in the skull which are connected to nasal cavity by a narrow hole in, the ostium. There are four pairs of these cavities and are often described as a unit which is refered to as "paranasal sinuses". These four paranasal sinuses are :? i) Frontal sinus (in forehead) iii) Ethmoid sinus (Between the eyes and nose) ii) Maxillary sinus (Behind cheeks) iv) Sphenoid sinus (Deep behind the ethmoid) The four sinuses are divided into two groups Anterior group :- Include maxillary, frontal and anterior ethmoidal sinuses. All open in the midde meatus. Posterior group :- Include posterior ethmoidal which opens into superior meatus, and sphenoid sinus which opens into sphenoethmoidal recess. Pyriform sinus is a pa of hypopharynx (laryngopharynx) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Commonest cause of hypothyroidism is | [
"Defective synthesis of thyroxine",
"Defect of iodide transport",
"Defect of the thyroglobulin synthesis",
"Thyroid dysgenesis"
] | D | (Thyroid dysgenesis) (1872-73-Nelson 17th) (481-Ghai 7th)HYPOTHYROIDISM results from deficient production of thyroid hormone or a defect in thyroid hormone or a defect in thyroid hormonal receptor activity* Someform of thyroid dysgenesis (aplasia, hypoplasia or an ectopic gland) is the most common cause of congenital hypothyroidism, accounting for 85% of cases, 10% are caused by an in bom error of thyroxine synthjesis and 5% are the result of transplacental maternal thyrotropin receptor blocking antibody.* Pendred syndrome - congenital hypothyroidism with sensorineural deafness and goiter, also have a positive perchlorate discharge.* ** Sodium L-thyroxine given orally is the treatment of choices (side effects are - craniosynostosis and temperature problems pseudotumour cerebri)* Acquired hypothyroidism - is most commonly caused by auto immune destruction of thyroid as a part of Chronic lymphocytic thyroidits (Hashimoto's thyroiditis | train | med_mcqa | null |
During phagocytosis, the metabolic process called respiratory burst involves activation of | [
"Oxidase",
"Hydrolase",
"Peroxidase",
"Dehydrogenase"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Enterocele formation is a common complication of: | [
"Suburethral sling surgery",
"TVT",
"Bursch colposuspension",
"TOT"
] | C | Enterocele formation occurs with Bursch colposuspension. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Majority of surveyors have following components: | [
"Vertical arm",
"Horizontal arm",
"Level platform",
"All of the above"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 48-year-old alcoholic man presents with a 6-day history of productive cough and fever. The temperature is 38.7degC (103degF), respirations are 32 per minute, and blood pressure is 126/86 mm Hg. The patient's cough worsens, and he begins expectorating large amounts of foul-smelling sputum. A chest X-ray shows a right upper and middle lobe infiltrate. A CBC demonstrates leukocytosis (WBC = 38,000/mL), with 80% slightly immature neutrophils and toxic granulation. Laboratory studies reveal elevated leukocyte alkaline phosphatase. Which of the following best describes this patient's hematologic condition? | [
"Acute myelogenous leukemia",
"Chronic lymphocytic leukemia",
"Chronic myelogenous leukemia",
"Leukemoid reaction"
] | D | Neutrophilia is an absolute neutrophil count above 7,000/mL. In acute infections, neutrophilia may be so pronounced that it may be mistaken for leukemia, especially, chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML), in which case it is termed a leukemoid reaction. Clues to the benign (or reactive) nature of a leukemoid reaction include the following: (1) the cells in the peripheral blood smear are more mature than myelocytes;(2) leukocyte alkaline phosphatase activity is high in benign conditions and low in patients with CML (3) Benign neutrophils often contain large blue cytoplasmic inclusions referred to as "Dohle bodies" or toxic granulation. Diagnosis: Leukemoid reaction A.cytoplasmic granulation and numerous bluish Dohle bodies | train | med_mcqa | null |
The most appropriate route for administration of nutrition to a patient who is comatose for a long period after and automobile accident is - | [
"Nasogastric tube feeding",
"Gastrotomy tube feeding",
"Jejunostomy feeding",
"Central venous hyperalimentation"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Rigor moritis devolops ..... after death : | [
"1/2-1 hrs",
"1-2 hrs",
"3-6 hrs",
"12 hrs"
] | B | B i.e. 1 - 2 hours | train | med_mcqa | null |
In thyroplasty type 2, vocal cord is: | [
"Lateralized",
"Medialized",
"Shoerned",
"Lengthened"
] | A | Isshiki divided thyroplasty procedures into 4 categories to produce functional alteration of vocal cords: Type 1 : Medial displacement of vocal cord (done by injection of gel foam/Teflon paste) Type 2 : Lateral displacement of cord (done to improve the airway) Type 3 : Shoening (relax) the cord, to lower the pitch (gender transformation from female to male) Type 4 : Lengthening (tightening) the cord, to elevate the pitch (gender transformation from male to female) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Protein efficiency ratio is | [
"Gain in weight / protein consumed",
"Product of digestibility coefficient and biological value divided by 100",
"Percentage of nitrogen retained out of nitrogen absorbed",
"Percentage of protein absorbed after digestion"
] | A | A. i.e. (Gain in weight / Protein consumed) (702- Rana Shinde 7th) (512 - U. satyanarayan 3rd)1. PROTEIN EFFICIENCY RATIO (PER) - consists of feeding weaning (21 days old) albino rats with a 10% test protein diet and recording the gain in body weight for a period of 4 weeks.Gain in weight of young animals per unit weight ofprotein consumed**PER =Gain in body weight (g)Protein consumed (g)The PER for egg protein is 4.5 : for milk protein 3.0 for rice protein 2.22. BIOLOGICAL VALUE - defined % of absorbed nitrogen retained by bodyBV =Nitrogen retained-----------Nitrogen absorbedx 1003. NET - Protein Utilization (NPU) - defined % of food Nitrogen that is retained in the bodyNPU =Digestibility Cofficient x Biological valueProtein intake (gm)4. CHEMICAL SCORE - based on the chemical analysis of the protein for the composition of essential amino acids which is then compared with a reference protein (usually egg protein)Chemical score =mg of the limiting amino acid/g. test proteinmg. of the same amino acid/g.egg proteinx 100 | train | med_mcqa | null |
In which of the following disease macula is most commonly involved: | [
"Sarcoidosis",
"Brucellosis",
"Toxoplasmosis",
"Leprosy"
] | C | Toxoplasmosis is a protozoan infection derived from cats in the form of oocyst which affects both retina and choroid to form chorioretinitis. In infants the infection is transmitted placenta and the fundus examination demonstrates bilateral and frequently multiple chorio-retinal lesions. The macular area is paicularly involved. Such infants are acutely ill with a history of seizures and may develop hydrocephalus, areas of calcification in brain and 'mental retardation. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most common cause of fracture in hemophilic arthropathy - | [
"Osteoporosis & restrictive joint movement",
"Cartilage destruction",
"Inflammatory arthropathy",
"Osteosclerosis"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Osteoporosis & restrictive joint movemento There is increased susceptibility of fractures in patients with hemophilic arthropathy : -Although the reported cases are few in number it is believed that hemophiliacs are more susceptible to fractures because of the limitation ofjoint movement poor muscle function and osteoporosis.The most surprising feature of fracture in hemophiliacs patients is that union is not delayed despite the osteoporosis and the absence ofplama clotting factors.o Arthropathy is a frequent and serious complication of repeated joint bleeding in patients with hemophilia .o Hemarthrosis is the single most important risk factor for the development of hemophilia arthropathy.o Eighty percent of joint bleeding episodes involve the knees.elbows and ankles and the patient most often devlop multiple target joints (the joints that are most commonly affected with repeated bleeding in an individual patient),o Approximately 50% of patients with hemophilia develop permanent changes in the target joint,o The presence of blood in a joint triggers an inflammatory-' process that results in joint swelling and decreased range of motion.o Although blood rapidly clears from the joint space, the pathological process continues, resulting in both radiographical and clinical changes, Progressive joint damage results in muscle atrophy, osteoporosis, cartilage degeneration with collapse of joint space and cyst formation.ARNOLD-HIL GARTENER CLASSIFICATION OFHEMOPHILLICARTHROPATHYSTAGECHARACTERISTICSIo No visible skeletal deformities o Soft tissue swelling secondary to hemarthrosis or bleeding into the soft tissue in and around joint.IIo Osteoporosis,especially in epiphyses and their overgrowth. o Joint integrity maintained with no narrowing of cartilage space and no bone cyst.IIIo Presence of disorganisation of joint but no significant narrowing of cartilage space o Synovium may be opacified with hemosiderin deposin.IVo Narrowing of joint space and evidence of cartilage destruction in addition to stage III changesVo Fibrous joint contracture,loss of joint space extensive enlargement of epiphyses and substantial disorganisation of joint structures. o Marked restriction of joint motion o Little recognisable synovial tissue found when joint is opened, o Absence of articular cartilage. | train | med_mcqa | null |
In carcinoma head of pancreas, nausea and vomiting is due to: | [
"External compression of duodenum",
"Poal vein infiltration",
"Proliferation infiltration of tumor into duodenum",
"Chemotherapy related"
] | A | Depending upon the location of the tumor, the symptoms may vary. - Periampullary carcinoma - at the ampulla; most common symptom is Jaundice. - Carcinoma at the head of pancreas - External compression of duodenum , compression of bile duct; most common symptom is jaundice. - Carcinoma at the body or tail of pancreas - asymptomatic at early stages. Most common symptom at later stages is weight loss. Due to involvement of retroperitoneal nerve plexus, there is abdominal pain. - When malignancy advances and infiltrates the 2nd pa of duodenum, it causes nausea, vomiting or gastric outlet obstruction. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The following are related to corpus luteum except | [
"Luteinised granulosa cells produce progesterone",
"Estrogen continues to be produced by the luteinised theca cells",
"Luteolysis is due to estrogen, PGF2a and endothelin",
"The peak steroid production is between 23 and 25th day"
] | D | The estrogen attains a lower level and maintains a plateau curve as against a peak rise in follicular phase. Progesterone attains its highest peak about 8 days(22nd day of menstual cycle) after the LH peak Regression of corpus luteum is attrubuted to fall in LH level and rise in the level of estrogen and PGF2alpha. Ref: Shaw Gynecology 17 e pg 40. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Tourette syndrome is a type of ? | [
"Tic disorder",
"Mental retardation disorder",
"Seizure disorder",
"None of the above"
] | A | Ans. A. Tic disorderTourette syndrome (also called Tourette's syndrome, Tourette's disorder, Gilles de la Tourette syndrome, GTS or, more commonly, simply Tourette's or TS) is an inherited neuropsychiatric disorder with onset in childhood, characterized by multiple physical (motor) tics and at least one vocal (phonic) tic.Average onset between the ages of 3 and 9 years.Males are affected about three to four times more often than females.Common associations are ADHD and OCD. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following conditions may predispose to pulmonary embolism except - | [
"Protein S deficiency",
"Malignancy",
"Obesity",
"Progesterone therapy"
] | D | "Oesterogen predisposes to thrombosis and not progesterone" - | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following production is noted in Cushing's Syndrome a tumour associated ? | [
"Decrease production of coisol",
"Increase production of coisol",
"Excessive production of epinephrine",
"Excessive production of vasopressin"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Increase production of coisol Cushing syndrome o Cushing syndrome is characterized by an excess production of coisol. o The most common cause of cushing syndrome is exogenous hypercoisolism, administration of exogenous glucocoicoids. o The cause of endogenous hypercoisolism (endogenous cushing syndrome) are : - i) ACTH producing pituitary m7icroadenoma -* o It is the most common cause of endogenous hypercoisolism and this form of cushing syndrome is referred to as cushing disease. ii) Hypersecretion of corisol by an adrenal adenoma, carcinoma or nodular hyperplasia. iii) The secretion of ectopic ACTH by a nonendocrine neoplasm, e.g., small cell carcinoma of lung. | train | med_mcqa | null |
In a clinical trial, blood pressure was measured between in a group of patients before and after treatment, which of the following test will be suitable as at test of significance? | [
"Paired t-test",
"Mann Whitney U test",
"Student test",
"ANOVA"
] | A | Ans. A. Paired t-test | train | med_mcqa | null |
In "Three glass test" shreds are present in 1stglass only. The likely diagnosis would be: | [
"Cystitis",
"Renal pathology",
"Anterior urethritis",
"Prostatitis"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
An intern while doing venesection at lower limb could injure - | [
"Sural nerve",
"Saphenous nerve",
"Common peroneal nerve",
"Tibial nerve"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Saphenous nerve o Venesection of lowrer limb is usually done in great saphenous vein, which is accompanied by saphenous nerve. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Carbamoyl phosphate intermediates the synthesis of | [
"Urea",
"Urea & Pyrimidine",
"Uric acid",
"Ketone body"
] | B | (B) Urea & Pyrimidine # Biosynthesis of urea begins with the condensation of CC>2, NHs and ATP to form carbamoyl phosphate, a reaction catalyzed by carbamoyl phosphate synthase I which is a mitochondrial enzyme, and rate limiting or pacemaker enzyme and the enzyme is active only in the presence of its allosteric activator N-acetylglutamate, which enhances the affinity of synthase for ATP. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following anticancer drugs is not derived from plants? | [
"Irinotecan",
"Doxorubicin",
"Paclitaxel",
"Etoposide"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Doxorubicino Antitumor antibiotics includes anthracvcline antibiotics (doxorubicin also known as adriamycin, daunorubicin, epirubicin and idarubicin), mitoxantrone, bleomycin, dactinomycin and mitomyin. All antitumor antibiotics are obtained from Streptomyces.DrugSourceCamptothecins (Irinotecan and Topotecan)Camptotheca acuminate treePaclitaxelBark of Western yew treeEtoposidePodophyllotoxin, a plant glycosideAnitumor antibioticsStreptomyces | train | med_mcqa | null |
All are TNF–α antagonists used in rheumatoid arthritis except : | [
"Ifosfamide",
"Infliximab",
"Etanercept",
"Adalimumab"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following laryngeal cartilage is hyaline - | [
"Epiglottis",
"Corniculate",
"Cricoid",
"Cuneiform"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Cricoid Hyaline cartilagesElastic cartilages (do not ossify)o Thyroid cartilageo Epiglottiso Cricoid cartilageo Corniculateo Basal part of arytenoid cartilageo Cuneiform o Processes of arytenoid | train | med_mcqa | null |
Ophthalmic artery is a branch of: | [
"Maxillary artery",
"Sphenopalatine artery",
"ICA",
"ECA"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
The cecum is found to be placed below the stomach and in the midline. Which of the following abnormality must have taken place while rotation of the gut? | [
"Non rotation",
"Mal rotation",
"Reversed rotation",
"Mixed rotation"
] | B | In classical intestinal malrotation, this process fails; the duodenojejunal flexure lies to the right of the midline and the caecum is central, creating a narrow base for the small bowel mesentery, which predisposes to mid-gut volvulus (Fig. 6.21). Malrotation with volvulus is life-threatening and typically presents with bilious vomiting. Bile- Ref: Bailey & Love&;s Sho Practice of Surgery,E25,Page-85 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Drug with Antidepressant and antipsychotic propey is: | [
"Buspirone",
"Amoxapine",
"Trazodone",
"Mianserine"
] | B | Amoxapine | train | med_mcqa | null |
Ratio of tympanic members to oval window is | [
"17:01",
"22:01",
"50:01:00",
"25:01:00"
] | A | According to some workers (Wever and Lawrence) out of a total of 90 mm2 area of human tympanic membrane, only 55 mm2 is functional and given the area of stapes footplate (3.2 mm2), the areal ratio is 17:1 and total transformer ratio (17x 1.3) is 22.1. Ref: Dhingra 7e pg 17. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Tennis player can spontaneously reduce a shoulder dislocation. He can do it again and again himself. He is suffering from? | [
"Acute shoulder dislocation",
"Recurrent shoulder dislocation",
"Inferior shoulder dislocation",
"Fracture upper end humerus"
] | B | Most common shoulder dislocation is Anterior type of shoulder dislocation which accounts for 95%. Since, it was mentioned that the player can reduce the dislocation "again and again", it could be a habitual type of dislocation which is recurrent. Acute shoulder dislocations are very painful which cannot be reduced or relocated again and again. Inferior type of shoulder dislocation usually presents with a characteristic"salute position" hence can be excluded. | train | med_mcqa | null |
ANCA negative vasculitis among the following is | [
"Wegener's granulomatosis",
"Churg - Strauss syndrome",
"Polyaeritis nodosa",
"Microscopic polyangiitis"
] | C | c- ANCA predominant vasculitis p- ANCA predominant vasculitis 1. Wegener`s granulomatosis Microscopic polyangiitis Churg-Strauss syndrome Crescentic glomerulonephritis | train | med_mcqa | null |
Blood spot Tandem mass spectrometry can be used in the diagnosis of all the following disorders EXCEPT? | [
"Lesch Nyhan disease",
"Fatty acid oxidation defects",
"Mitochondrial disorders",
"Propionic Acidemia"
] | A | Tandem mass spectrometry used in the diagnosis of: Fatty acid oxidation defects Mitochondrial defects Organic acidemias Aminoacidopathies Urea cycle disorders. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Concomitant treatment with which of the following can cause OCP failure | [
"Enalapril.",
"Metformin",
"Ibuprofen",
"Rifampicin"
] | D | Rifampicin | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most common site of squamous cell carcinoma: | [
"Floor of the mouth",
"Tongue",
"Buccal mucosa",
"Lip"
] | B | Lateral border of tongue is the most common site of squamous cell carcinoma.
Carcinoma of the tongue accounts for more than 50% of intraoral cancers in the United States. Two-thirds of lingual carcinomas appear as painless, indurated masses or ulcers of the posterior lateral border; 20% occur on anterior lateral or ventral surfaces, and only 4% occur on the dorsum. For unknown reasons, the oral tongue represents an increasingly common site of involvement in young patients. | train | med_mcqa | null |
True about dermoid cyst of ovary:a) It is teratomab) Frequently undergo torsionc) X-ray is diagnosticd) Invariably turns to malignancye) Contains sebaceous material and hairs | [
"bcde",
"abce",
"acde",
"abde"
] | B | Dermoid cyst: Dermoid cyst is a benign teratoma.
– It is most common benign tumour of ovary in reproductive age group.
– Most common benign neoplasm diagnosed during pregnancy.
Most common Germ cell tumor.
It is the commonest tumor to undergo torsion.
– Characteristically they are unilocular cyst containing hair and cheesy sebaceous material, teeth, bones, thyroid tissue and cartilage.
– If teeth or bone are seen in X-ray in adnexal mass, this finding is pathognomic for teratoma and thus X-ray is diagnostic.
– Malignant change in a dermoid cyst occurs in 0.5 – 2% cases in patients > 40 years. Most common malignancy which develops is, squamous cell carcinoma. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is not an indication of radiotherapy in Pleomorphic adenoma of parotid? | [
"Involvement of deep lobe",
"2nd histologically benign recurrence",
"Microscopically positive margins",
"Malignant transformation"
] | B | Ans. is none or (b) is the best option The above mentioned books mention the following indications of postop radiotherapy in Pleomorphic adenoma of parotid. Indications for postop radiotherapy in Pleomorphic adenoma Involvement of the deep lobe of the parotid Recurrent lesions Large (> 5 cm) lesions, which may not allow complete surgical excision with adequate margins. Microscopically positive margins after surgical resection. Malignant transformation within a predominantly benign tumor. So all the given options are indications for post op radiotherapy, but if we have to choose one option we would go for option (b) i.e. 2nd histologically benign recurrance, as its the most controversial one. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Femoral artery begins at - | [
"Mid-inguinal point",
"Femoral ring",
"Midpoint of inguinal ligament",
"Any of the above"
] | A | External iliac artery continues as femoral artery at mid-inguinal point. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Blood supply of bronchogenic sequestration is: | [
"Aoa",
"Pulmonary aery",
"Pulmonary Vein",
"Bronchogenic aery"
] | A | Bronchogenic sequestration refers to a discrete area of lung tissue that lacks any connection to the airway system. It has abnormal blood supply arising from aoa. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following Vitamin deficiency is seen in sho bowel syndrome with ileal resection ? | [
"Vitamin K",
"Vitamin B 12",
"Vitamin B1",
"Folic acid"
] | B | Sho-bowel syndrome is a disorder clinically defined by malabsorption, diarrhea, steatorrhea, fluid and electrolyte disturbances, and malnutrition. Changes seen in Terminal Ileal Resection Malabsorption of bile salts and vitamin B12 (which are normally absorbed in this region) Vitamin B12 Malabsorption - Megaloblastic anemia Bile salts Malabsorption - Unabsorbed bile salts escape into the colon and stimulate fluid secretion from the colon - watery diarrhea Decreased bile salts in the bile - Cholesterol gall stones Ref: Sabiston 20th Ed. ; Schwaz 11th Ed. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The extrinsic pathway of clotting is activated by | [
"Release of tissue thromboplastin",
"Conversion of fibrinogen into fibrin",
"Formation of prothrombin",
"Release of calcium"
] | A | The extrinsic system is triggered by the release of tissue thromboplastin, a protein–phospholipid mixture that activates factor VII. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Ovarian art is a br. of : | [
"Abdominal aorta",
"Anterior iliac artery",
"Common iliac artery",
"Posterior iliac artery"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e. Abdominal aorta Remember :Ovarian artery is a branch of abdominal aorta*Uterine artery is a branch of internal iliac artery (ant. division) * | train | med_mcqa | null |
The following should be avoided in asthma patient- | [
"NSAID",
"Terbutaline",
"Theophylline",
"Steroids"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., NSAID o NSAID ingestion precipitate a constellation of naso-ocular and or lower respiratory symptoms in some patients with concomitant asthma and chronic rhinosinusitis (often with nasal polyposis).o These symptoms include one or more of the following: -RhinorrhoeaNasal congestionPeriorbital edemannjection of the conjunctivaBronchospasmLaryngospasmHives and/or angioedemao Patients with combination ofNS AID pseudoallergy asthma, and chronic rhinosinusitis with nasal polyposis are said to have aspirin exacerbated respiratory disease (AERD).o The ingestion of NS A IDS can give rise to two ty-pes of reaction i.e., allergic and pseudoallergic reactions which develops within minutes to hours of administration.# Allergic reactions are abnormal immunological reactions to NS A IDs while pseudoallergic reactions are nonimmunological reactions that are believed to result from acquired alterations in the biochemical pathways upon which NSA1DS act.Pseudoallergic NSAID reactionso Pseudoallergic reactions are nonimmunologic reactions that are related to the c\>cloox\>genase (COX)-1 inhibiting properties of the drug.o In susceptible individuals, these reactions may be elicited by any NSAID that inhibits COX-l, including aspirin (ASA) .o Affected patients are believed to have acquired alterations in the biochemical pathways affected by COX-1-inhibitors, although the precise mechanism underlying pseudoallergic reactions has not been established.Allergic NSAID reactionso Allergic NSAID reactions are presumed to be IgE-mediated immunologic reactions based upon their clinical characteristics. These are elicited by a single NSAID in a susceptible individual.NSAID ReactionsPseudoallergicAllergico NSAID-induced asthma and rhinosinusitiso Urticaria/angioedema to a single NSAIDo NSAID-induced urticaria/angioedema ino Anaphylaxis to a single NSAID (not ASA)patients with chronic urticarial o NSAID-induced urticaria/angioedema in otherwise asymptomatic individuals o Blended (mixed respiratory and/or cutaneous) reactions in otherwise asymptomatic individuals | train | med_mcqa | null |
Multiplying factor for estimating stature from humerus is (male) - | [
"10-12.",
"5-6.",
"7-9.",
"9-10."
] | B | As a general rule humerus is 20%, tibia is 22%, femur is 27% and spine is 35% of individual height. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is not a complication of a malunited Colles fracture: | [
"Rupture of flexor pollicis longus",
"Carpal instability",
"Carpal tunnel syndrome",
"Sudeck's osteodystrophy"
] | A | Rupture of extensor pollicis longus is a complication of colles fracture NOT Flexor pollicis longus. COMPLICATIONS:- Extensor pollicis longus rupture Loss of reduction and secondary deformity Median nerve compression Distal radioulnar joint injury Extension of Colles fracture into the RU joint has a worse prognosis. | train | med_mcqa | null |
DMPA-True:a) Failure @ 0.3/100 WYb) 150 mg/3 monthly deliveredc) Weight gaind) Glucose intolerance occure) Anemia improves | [
"bcde",
"abcd",
"abce",
"abde"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Eutectic mixture of local anaesthetic (EMLA) cream is - | [
"Bupivacaine 2.0% + Prilocaine 2.5%",
"Lidocaine 2.5% + Prilocaine 2.5%",
"Lidocaine 2.5% + Prilocaine 5%",
"Bupivacaine 0.5% + Lidocaine 2.5%"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Lidocaine 2.5% + Prilocaine 2.5% o Eutectic mixture of local anesthetics (EMLA) is unique topical preparation which can anaesthetize intact skin. It is a mixture of 2.5% lidocaine and 2.5% prilocaine. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A woman comes in obstructed labour and is grossly dehydrated. Investigations reveal fetal demise. What will be the MOST appropriate management in this patient? | [
"Craniotomy",
"Decapitation",
"Cesarean section",
"Forceps extraction"
] | C | In cases of fetal demise, delivery is the best treatment due to the risk of DIC from retained IUFD. Since this patient is in obstructed labor and is grossly dehydrated, Caesarean section is the treatment of choice. Before 20 weeks of gestation the products are evacuated from the uterus by dilation and evacuation or with mifepristone and misoprostol in some cases. After 20 weeks pregnancy is usually terminated by induction of labor with prostaglandins or high dose oxytocin. Intrauterine fetal demise refers to fetal death after 20 weeks of gestation. Signs: absence of fetal hea tones at a prenatal visit beyond 20 weeks of gestation and absence of uterine growth. Lab: Declining levels of HCG may aid in diagnosis early in pregnancy. Investigation: Ultrasound shows absent fetal cardiac activity beyond 6 weeks of gestation, scalp edema, and fetal maceration. Ref: Blueprints Obstetrics and Gynecology By Tamara Callahan page 101. Manual Of Obstretics, 3/e By Daftary page 324 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Upper border of thyroid cailage is at | [
"C2",
"C5",
"C6",
"T1"
] | B | The thyroid gland lies against veebrae C5, C6, C7 and T1 embracing the upper pa of the trachea Each lobe extends from the middle of cailage to the fouh or fifth tracheal ring The isthmus extends from second to the fouh tracheal ring Ref BDC volume3,6th edition pg 140 | train | med_mcqa | null |
An albino girl gets married to a normal boy. What are the chances of their having an affected child and what are the chances of their children being carriers ? | [
"None affected, all carriers",
"All normal",
"50% carriers",
"50% affected, 50% carriers"
] | A | Albinism as an autosomal recessive disorder.
Also know
Autosomal recessive disorders | train | med_mcqa | null |
Not a marker for hyperparathyroidism is : | [
"Increase in serum calcium",
"Increase in 24 hour urinary calcium excretion",
"Decrease in serum calcitonin",
"Subperiosteal resorption of phalanges"
] | C | Answer is C (Decrease in serum calcitonin) : Serum calcitonin is no marker fir hyperparathyroidism. It antagonizes the actions of parathyroid hormone and may be used as a modality of treatment of hypercalcemia secondary to hyperparathyroidism. Markers of hyperparathyroidism (|ed PTH): 1. Increased serum calcium: Stimulates Vit D which causes increased absorption of Ca-H- from gut Increased calcium reabsorption from tubules Increases osteoblastic activity in bones and mobilizes calcium from bone into serum. 2. Decreased serum phosphorus: - PTH acts on tubules to increase excretion of phosphorus. 3. Increased 24 hr urine calcium: - Despite increased reabsorption of Ca++ in renal tubules urinary calcium is increased owing to increased filtration of calcium in glomerular filtrate. 4. Increased Alkaline phosphatase: -Increased resorption of bone leads to compensatory elevation of osteoblastic activity 5. Radiological changes: Subperiosteal resorption of phalanges is characteristic (hand X Rays are always advised) Bone resorption i.e. osteitis fibrosa et cystica (brown tumours) `Salt pepper' or 'pepper pot skull' appearance - Loss of lamina dura | train | med_mcqa | null |
Spongiosis is seen in - | [
"Acute eczema",
"Lichen Planus",
"Psoriasis",
"Pemphigus"
] | A | Spongiosis is the accumulation of edema fluid within the intercellular space of epidermis and is characteristic of acute eczematous dermatitis. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Sodomy is punishable under: NEET 14 | [
"Sec. 354 IPC",
"Sec. 375 IPC",
"Sec. 377 IPC",
"Sec. 378 IPC"
] | C | Ans. Sec. 377 IPC | train | med_mcqa | null |
Prerequisite for outlet forceps application are all except: | [
"Engaged head",
"Fully dilated cervix",
"Uterus contracting",
"Station 0 or +1"
] | D | Ans. is d, i.e. Station 0 or +1The outlet forceps are applied when station of fetal head is >=+3 station and not at 0 or +1.Rest all options are prerequisites of forceps application in general | train | med_mcqa | null |
Presence of additional nodal tissue connection “bundle of Kent” results into | [
"Stokes-Adam syndrome",
"Wenckeback syndrome",
"Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome",
"None of the above"
] | C | An interesting condition seen in some otherwise normal individuals who are prone to attacks of paroxysmal atrial arrhythmias is accelerated AV conduction (Wolff–Parkinson–White syndrome).
Normally, the only conducting pathway between the atria and the ventricles is the AV node. Individuals with Wolff–Parkinson–White syndrome have an additional aberrant muscular or nodal tissue connection (bundle of Kent) between the atria and ventricles. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All is true about flumazenil except: | [
"Antagonist of benzodiazepines",
"Treat barbiturate poisoning",
"Given intravenously",
"Act GABA channel"
] | B | Ans. B. Treat barbiturate poisoningFlumazenil is the competitive antagonist of benzodiazepines receptor. It acts as specific antidote of benzodiazepines poisoning. It is given intravenously and it inhibits GABA facilitatory action. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Anaplasia is | [
"Lack of functional differentiation",
"Lack of structural differentiation",
"Is a characteristic feature of malignancy",
"All of the above"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most deaths involving placenta pre result from: | [
"Infection",
"Toxemia",
"Hemorrhage",
"Thrombophlebitis"
] | C | Hemorrhage | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 64-year-old woman complains of intermittent abdominal discomfo in the right iliac fossa along with loss of appetite and significant weight loss over 6 months. She was managed conservatively. She presented 2 days later with a cramping abdominal pain at the same location along with diarrhoea. During these episodes her husband has commented that she looked red in the face. CECT abdomen was done. Which of the following tumour markers can be seen raised in the above condition: - | [
"Synaptophysin",
"AFP",
"HCG",
"CEA"
] | A | This is a case of carcinoid syndrome. Image 2 shows liver metastasis from the neuroendocrine tumour. Diarrhea is the most common and earliest symptom. Others include flushing, right hea failure, pain and bronchospasm. It can occur as a paraneoplastic syndrome in the context of a carcinoid tumor, most commonly a gastrointestinal tract carcinoid. The presence of the carcinoid syndrome often indicates hepatic metastatic disease, usually from a primary bowel carcinoid tumor. Histologically, carcinoids are composed of islands, trabeculae, strands, glands, or sheets of uniform cells with scant, pink granular cytoplasm and a round to oval stippled nucleus. Immunohistochemical stains are typically positive for endocrine granule markers, such as synaptophysin and chromogranin A. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A vasopressin analogue does not produce therapeutic effect through vasopressin V-2 receptor in which of the following - | [
"Central diabetes insipidus",
"Bleeding esophageal varices",
"Type 1 van Willebrand's disease",
"Primary nocturnal enuresis"
] | B | Ans is option 2 bleeding esophageal varices Vasopressin stops bleeding of esophageal varices by constricting the vessels through V1 receptors. All other act through V2 receptors on kidney liver and vascular endothelium V 1 receptors are present on blood vessels smooth muscles CNS platelet etc.. Ref.. KDT 4/e p 539-541 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Muscle not cut in posterolateral thoracotomy is ? | [
"Serratus anterior",
"Latissimus dorsi",
"Rhomboides major",
"All"
] | C | Answer is 'c' i.e. Rhomboides major Postero-lateral thoractomy is the most frequently used operation to access the thorax. Usually the incision is made through the 5th ICS. The following muscles may be cut a) Latissimus dorsi b) Serratus anterior c) Trapezius d) Intercostal muscles | train | med_mcqa | null |
Indications for cesarean hysterectomy are all except: | [
"Placenta accreta",
"Couvelaire uterus",
"Atonic uterus with uncontrolled PPH",
"Rupture uterus"
] | B | Cesarean hysterectomy refers to an operation where cesarean section is followed by removal of the uterus.
Peripartum hysterectomy is the surgical removal of the uterus either at the time of cesarean delivery or in the immediate postpartum period (even following vaginal delivery).
Some indications for peripartum hysterectomy
Uterine atony
Abnormal placentation
– Bleeding
– Accrete syndromes
Uterine extension
Uterine rupture
Cervical laceration
Postpartum uterine infection
Leiomyoma
Invasive cervical cancer
Ovarian neoplasia
M/C cause of cesarean/peripartum hysterectomy is PPH. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All are tryptophan derivatives except- | [
"Melanin",
"Serotonin",
"Melatonin",
"Niacin"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., MelaninAmino acidsBiological important compoundTyrosineCatecholamines (epinephrine, norepinephrine, dopamine), thyroxine, triiodothryonine, melanin.(Note : - Phenylalanine is the precursor of tyrosine, thus it can also give rise to all these compounds through tyrosine (phenylalanine - Tyrosine - Catecholamines, thyroxine, T3' melanin).TryptophanVitamin niacin, melatonin, SerotoninGlycine, Arginine, methionineCreatineGlycine, cysteineBile saltsGlycineHemeAspartic acid and glutaminePyrimidine basesGlycine, aspartic acid, glutaminePurine basesb-alanineCoenzyme-AArginineNitric oxideHistidine, Arginine, lysineKeratinMethionine, lysineCarnitineGABAGlutamateGlutamate, cysteine, glycineGlutathione | train | med_mcqa | null |
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