question stringlengths 1 6.54k | choices listlengths 4 4 | answer stringclasses 4
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False about annular pancreas | [
"Associated with down syndrome",
"Bilious vomiting",
"Treatment is duodeno-duodenostomy",
"Diagnosis is by ERCP"
] | B | Non bilious voimiting is seen in annular pancreas. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Pericytes, which are seen in the capillary bed are: | [
"Modified endothelial cells",
"Phagocytes",
"Pluripotent cells lining the capillaries",
"None of the above"
] | C | Pericytes are closely associated with capillaries. It is most commonly found at the venous end of capillary bed, and also extend onto the post capillary venules. They can differentiate into smooth muscle cells during blood vessel growth and during repair after injury to a vessel. They also act as contractile cells and can affect blood flow through the capillary. Pericytes have histologic characteristics of both smooth muscle cells and endothelial cells. Ref: NMS Histology, 3e, Page 179 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Reperfusion injury is due to? | [
"Ischemia",
"Oxidative stress",
"Toxins",
"Temperature change"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Oxidative stress Reperfusion injury* Reperfusion injury is caused by reestablishment of blood supply which was hampered initially, i.e. injury caused when perfusion is reestablished: 'reperfusion'.* Reperfusion of ischemic tissues is often associated with microvascular injury, particularly due to increased permeability of capillaries and arterioles that lead to an increase of diffusion and fluid filtration across the tissues. Activated endothelial cells produce more reactive oxygen species but less nitric oxide following reperfusion, and the imbalance results in a subsequent inflammatory response* Free radicals which are produced by recruited neutrophils also add to it.* Reperfusion injury is characteristically seen in myocardium (heart) appearing as contraction bands after myocardial infarction. Reperfusion injury can also occur in brain. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Common injury to baby is: | [
"Fracture humerus",
"Fracture clavicle",
"Fracture",
"Fracture femur"
] | B | B i.e. Clavicle | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is not antibody dependent methods | [
"ELISA",
"Chromatin Immunoprecipitation assay",
"Flow cytometry",
"SDS - PAGE"
] | D | Antibody dependent methods are:
EUSA
Protein Immunoprecipitation (ChIP assay)
Immunoelectrophoresis
Western blot
Protein Immunostaining
Flow cytometry.
Note: SDS PAGE is a method of separating proteins based on size. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Strongest force of bonding b/w retina and RPE - | [
"Vitreous gel pressure",
"Intraocular fluid pressure",
"RPE water transpo",
"IPM"
] | D | The interphotoreceptor matrix (IPM) is a highly organized structure with interconnected domains surrounding cone and rod photoreceptor cells and extends throughout the subretinal space. Based on known roles of the extracellular matrix in other tissues, the IPM is thought to have several prominent functions including serving as a receptor for growth factors, regulating retinoid transpo, paicipating in cytoskeletal organization in surrounding cells, and regulation of oxygen and nutrient transpo | train | med_mcqa | null |
Weight allowed in skeletal traction upto - | [
"5 kg",
"10 kg",
"20 kg",
"30 kg"
] | C | Weight permitted for skin traction is upto 3- 4 kg ,whereas weight permitted for skeletal traction is upto 20 kg. REF:Essential ohopaedics-Maheshwari - 5th edn- pg no 27 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following factor is mainly responsible for virulence in Streptococcus | [
"Carbohydrate",
"Streptokinase",
"Streptodornase",
"M protein"
] | D | M proteins: The most impoant protein used for typing as well as for virulence. It acts as a virulence factor by inhibiting phagocytosis. It is antigenic. The antibody to the M protein promotes phagocytosis of the coccus and is therefore protective. M protein is heat and acid stable but susceptible to tryptic digestion. It can be extracted by Lancefield's acid extraction method and typing is done with type-specific sera. About 80 M protein types have been recognized. Reference: Textbook of Microbiology; Anathanarayan and paniker's; 10th edition; Page no: 213 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following auto antibodies is most likely to be present in a patient with systemic lupus erythematosus? | [
"Anti- ds DNA",
"Anti-RNP",
"Anti-Ro",
"Antiphospholipid"
] | A | Subtypes of anti nuclear antibodies include anti-Smith and anti-double stranded DNA (dsDNA) antibodies (which are linked to SLE). | train | med_mcqa | null |
Murder is punished under | [
"300 IPC",
"307 IPC",
"302 IPC",
"304 IPC"
] | C | Refer the byte "Legal sections". | train | med_mcqa | null |
Subdural hematoma most commonly results from: | [
"Rupture of intracranial aneurysm",
"Rupture of cerebral AVM",
"Injury to coical bridging veins",
"Haemophilia"
] | C | Ans. Injury to coical bridging veins | train | med_mcqa | null |
Aerial embolization done in all except ? | [
"Uterine AV malformation",
"PPH",
"Bleeding fibroid",
"Prevent bleeding in endometriosis"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Prevent bleeding in endometriosisIndications for embolization in Obstetrics and Gynecology are the following:Postpaum hemorrhage: Uterine atony / tears, Abnormal placentationPost aboion/ ectopicPost hysterectomyUterine AV malformation/ Gestational trophoblastic tumorsGynecological malignanciesFibroids (acute bleeding) | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 38-year-old Bengali man presents with complains of multiple pappular lesions over the body especially involving the palms and soles. The lesions are not painful. He has pigmentation of skin over the abdomen. He also has veical white ridges over the nails. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? | [
"Xeroderma pigmentosa",
"Chronic arsenic poisoning",
"Lichen planus",
"Erythrodemoplasia verruciformis"
] | B | Acute arsenic poisoning Necrosis of intestinal mucosa with hemorrhagic gastroenteritis, Hypotension, Delayed cardiomyopathy, Acute tubular necrosis, Hemolysis. Nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, abdominal pain, delirium, coma, seizures; Garlicky odor on breath; Hyperkeratosis, hyperpigmentation, exfoliative dermatitis, Mees' lines (trans- verse white striae of the fingernails) Sensory and motor polyneuritis, distal weakness. EPIDERMODYSPLASIA VERRUCIFORMIS : The lesions resemble flat was or macules similar to those of pityriasis versicolor. In patients with epidermodysplasia verruciformis, squamous cell cancers develop frequently at sites infected with specific HPV types, including 5 and 8. LICHEN PLANUS Lichen planus (LP) is a papulosquamous disorder in which the primary lesions are pruritic, polygonal, flat-topped, violaceous papules. XERODERMA PIGMENTOSUM (XP) An autosomal recessive disorder Characterized by variably deficient repair of UV-induced photoproducts, Their skin phenotype often manifests the dry, leathery appearance of prematurely photoaged skin as well as basal cell and squamous cell carcinomas and melanoma in the first two decades of life. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A patient presented to ENT OPD with complaints of headache and nasal stuffiness. On CT scan Heterogeneous opacification involving multiple sinuses along with Bone erosion (as shown below) was noticed. What would be the most likely diagnosis? | [
"Acute bacterial rhinosinusitis",
"Chronic Bacterial rhinosinusitis",
"Allergic Fungal rhinosinusitis",
"Invasive Fungal Rhinosinusitis"
] | C | Heterogeneous opacification in multiple sinuses with areas of central hypoattenuation is characteristic of AFRS. Erosion of medial wall of right orbit can be clearly seen without any invasion into the orbit as Medial Rectus Muscle can be clearly seen with out distoion. ( compare with Left Side) Areas of increased signal intensity are thought to be due to the accumulation of heavy metals such as iron, manganese, and calcium within the inspissated allergic mucin. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The only sensory modality which does not reach the thalamus directly is: | [
"Proprioception",
"Taste",
"Olfaction",
"Pain and temperature"
] | C | Ans. C. Olfaction"Smell pathways (olfaction) have no relay in the thalamus; & there is no neocortical projection area for olfaction. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 21-year-old woman with moderately severe asthma on three-drug treatment has elevated liver function tests thought to be caused by one of her medications. Which drug is causing this adverse effect? | [
"Chromone agent",
"Lipoxygenase inhibitor",
"Leukotriene receptor antagonist",
"Methylxanthines"
] | B | Zileuton It is a 5-LOX inhibitor, blocks LTC4/D4 as well as LTB4 synthesis. It therefore has the potential to prevent all LT induced responses including those exeed by activation of cysLT1 receptor. Durationof action of zileuton is sho side effects:. HEPATOTOXIC Ref:- kd tripathi; pg num:-229 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Hypertrichosis is seen with following drugs EXCEPT: | [
"Minoxidil",
"Cyclosporine",
"Barbiturates",
"Phenytoin"
] | C | (Barbiturates) (276-H 16th) (301-345-H17th)Hypertrichosis - Occurs in use of phenytoin, minoxidil, or cyclosporine, Diazoxide, Androgens, oral contraceptives containing androgenic progestins. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 60-year-old farmer presents with multiple patches of discoloration on his face. Biopsy of lesional skin reveals actinic keratosis. Which of the following terms best describes this response of the skin to chronic sunlight exposure? | [
"Atrophy",
"Dysplasia",
"Hyperplasia",
"Hypertrophy"
] | B | Dysplasia. Actinic keratosis is a form of dysplasia in sun-exposed skin. Histologically, such lesions are composed of atypical squamous cells, which vary in size and shape. They show no signs of regular maturation as the cells move from the basal layer of the epidermis to the surface. Dysplasia is a preneoplastic lesion, in the sense that it is a necessary stage in the multistep evolution to cancer. However, unlike cancer cells, dysplastic cells are not entirely autonomous, and the histologic appearance of the tissue may still revert to normal. None of the other choices represent preneoplastic changes in sun-exposed skin.Diagnosis: Actinic keratosis, dysplasia | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which is most dangerous for transmitting plague- | [
"Blocked flea",
"Partial blocked flea",
"Both",
"Unblocked flea"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Zenkers degeneration is? | [
"Coagulative necrosis",
"Liquefactive necrosis",
"Fibroid necrosis",
"Caseous necrosis"
] | A | Zenkers degeneration is a severe waxy hyaline degenration or necrosis of skeletal muscles in acute infectious diseases like typhoid. It is a prototype of coagulative necrosis. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The contents of the aponeurotic adductor canal of Hunter are all, EXCEPT: | [
"Femoral aery",
"Popliteal aery",
"Nerve to Vastus medialis",
"Saphenous nerve"
] | B | The adductor canal (Subsaorial/Hunter's canal) is an aponeurotic tunnel in the middle third of the thigh, extending from the apex of the femoral triangle to the opening in the Adductor magnus, the Adductor hiatus. The canal contains the femoral aery, femoral vein, and branches of the femoral nerve (specifically, the saphenous nerve, and the nerve to the Vastus medialis). | train | med_mcqa | null |
Internal pudendal artery is a branch of - | [
"Anterior division of internal iliac",
"Posterior division of internal iliac",
"Anterior division of external iliac",
"Posterior division of external iliac"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Anterior division of internal iliac o Branches of anterior division of internal iliac artery are : (i) Superior vesical, (ii) Middle rectal, (hi) Inferior vesical (in males), (iv) Internal pudendal, (v) Vaginal (in females), (vi) Uterine (in females), (vii) Obturator, and (viii) Inferior gluteal.o Branches of posterior division are : (i) Iliolumbar, (ii) Lateral sacral, and (iii) Superior gluteal. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Of the following which is the best projection to study the fracture of zygomatic arch: | [
"Lateral oblique view",
"PA Caldwell view",
"Submentovertex view",
"Lateral cephalometric view"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Road - to health cha was given by? | [
"John Snow",
"David Morley",
"Koch",
"Henrey Ducant"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., David morley Growth cha Also known as "road-to-health" cha. It was first designed by David morley. It is a visible display of the child's physical growth and development. It is designed primarily for the longitudinal follow-up (growth monitoring) of child. Mostly weight for age is taken into consideration (height is not taken into consideration). This is because weight is the most sensitive measure of growth and any detion from normal can be detected easily by comparison with reference curves. A child can lose weight but not height. The growth cha offers a simple and inexpensive way of monitoring weight gain and infact child health oveime. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Entropion is | [
"Inversion of eyelid",
"Inversion of eyelashes",
"Eversion of eyelid",
"Eversion of eyelashes"
] | A | Entropion is a condition in which the lower eyelid turns inward, rubbing against the eye. Entropion occurs most commonly as a result of aging. Infection and scarring inside the eyelid are other causes of entropion. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All are true about menisci of knee joint except - | [
"Lateral meniscus covers more articular surface of tibia",
"Lateral meniscus is more mobile",
"Lateral meniscus is more prone to injury",
"Lateral meniscus is semicircular"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Lateral meniscus is more prone to injury Medial MeniscusLateral Meniscuso Semilunar in shape (Less circular)o Larger in diameter but narrower in bodyo Anterior horn is small while posterior horn is largeo Covers less tibial articular surface than lateral (Covers about 65 percent of tibial articular surface)o Entire periphery of the meniscus is attached to the joint capsuleo Is attached to the medial collateral ligamento Less mobile (due to firmer attachment with joint capsule and medial collateral ligament)o More prone to injury (due to reduced mobility) The medial meniscus is three to four times more prone to injury than the lateral meniscuso Semicircular in shape (C shaped; more circular)o Smaller in diameter but wider in bodyo Anterior horn and posterior horn are uniform in sizeo Covers more tibial articular surface than medial (Covers about 85 percent of tibial articular surface)o Entire periphery of meniscus is not attached to joint capsule (Area where the popliteus tendon crosses the joint through the popliteus hiatus is not attached)o Is not attached to the lateral collateral ligamento More mobile (due to gaps in attachment with joint capsule and lateral collateral ligament)o Less prone to injury (due to increased mobility) | train | med_mcqa | null |
All are true about hormone functions except | [
"Thyroid hormones regulate metabolism",
"ADH regulates blood osmolality",
"Insulin regulates blood glucose",
"Coisol regulates plasma volume"
] | D | Coisol the principal glucocoicoid produced by the zona fasciculata of the adrenal coex. It promotes gluconeogenesis and lipolysis, suppresses protein synthesis, inhibits inflammatory and immune responses, and has mild mineralocoicoid (for example, hypernatremic, kaliuretic, antidiuretic) effects. Most plasma coisol is bound to transcoin and albumin. Thyroid hormones are iodothyronines secreted by the thyroid gland, principally thyroxine (tetraiodothyronine or T4) and triiodothyronine (T3).Insulin is a double-chain protein formed from proinsulin in the beta cells of the islets of Langerhans in the pancreas. Insulin promotes the storage of glucose and the uptake of amino acids, increases protein and lipid synthesis, and inhibits lipolysis and gluconeogenesis. play an impoant role in maintaining normal blood glucose level. Antidiuretic hormone(ADH) a hormone that decreases the production of urine by increasing the reabsorption of water by the renal tubules. It is secreted by cells of the hypothalamus and stored in the neurohypophysis. ADH is released in response to a decrease in blood volume, an increased concentration of sodium or other substances in plasma, pain, stress, or the action of ceain drugs.Ref: Ganong&;s review of medical physiology; 24th edition; page no-362 | train | med_mcqa | null |
ECG changes seen in hypocalcemia: March 2010 | [
"ST segment depression",
"Prolongation of ST segment",
"Inversion of T wave",
"Prolongation of PR segment"
] | B | Ans. B: Prolongation of ST segmentHypocalcemia causes prolongation of the ST segment and consequently of the QT interval, a change that is also produced by phenothiazines and tricyclic antidepressant drugs and by various diseases of the central nervous system. Increases in extracellular Ca2+ concentration enhance myocardial contractility. When large amounts of Ca2+ are infused into experimental animals, the hea relaxes less during diastole and eventually stops in systole (calcium rigor). However, in clinical conditions associated with hypercalcemia, the plasma calcium level is rarely if ever high enough to affect the hea. | train | med_mcqa | null |
HER-2/ neu receptor plays a role in: | [
"Predicting therapeutic response",
"Determining treatment for recurrence of tumor",
"Diagnosis of breast Ca",
"Screening of breast Ca"
] | B | . Determining treatment for recurrence of tumor | train | med_mcqa | null |
In Wharfe assessment of impacted third molars, "A" stands for: | [
"Axis of rotation",
"Application of elevator",
"Amber line",
"Angulation of 3rd molar"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Sitting without suppo is appear at which month | [
"5 month",
"6 month",
"7 month",
"8 month"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., 6 month | train | med_mcqa | null |
First change to occur in the distal segment of cut nerve: | [
"Myelin degeneration",
"Axonal degeneration",
"Mitosis of Schwann cell",
"Sprouting"
] | B | After axotomy, the nerve terminals of the injured neuron begin to degenerate (first). | train | med_mcqa | null |
Caseous necrosis in granuloma are not found in | [
"TB",
"Leprosy",
"Histoplasmosis",
"CMV"
] | B | ref Robbins 7/e p73,9/e p98 It is also seen in wegener's granulomatosis. Caseous necrosis is a form of cell death in which the tissue maintains a cheese-like appearance. The dead tissue appears as a soft and white proteinaceous dead cell mass. CausesEdit Frequently, caseous necrosis is encountered in the foci of tuberculosis infections. It can also be caused by syphilis and ceain fungi. A similar appearance can be associated with histoplasmosis, cryptococcosis, and coccidioidomycosis. AppearanceEdit In caseous necrosis no histological architecture is preserved. On microscopic examination with H&E staining, it is characterized by acellular pink areas of necrosis surrounded by a granulomatousinflammatory process. When the hilar lymph node for instance is infected with tuberculosis and leads to caseous necrosis, its gross appearance can be a cheesy tan to white, which is why this type of necrosis is often depicted as a combination of both coagulative and liquefactive necrosis. However, in the lung, extensive caseous necrosis with confluent cheesy tan granulomas is typical. The tissue destruction is so extensive that there are areas of cavitation (also known as cystic spaces). See Ghon's complex | train | med_mcqa | null |
Bleomycin toxcity is characterized by destruction of- | [
"Endothelial cells",
"Type I pneumocytes",
"Type II pneumocyutes",
"Alveolar macrophages"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Type I Pneumocytes Bleomycin is well known to cause pulmonary toxicity.The incidence of bleomycin induced pulmonary toxicity is 5% for a total cumulative dose of450 units and 15% for higher dosages.Bleomycin is concentrated preferentially in the lung and is inactivated by hydrolase enzyme. This enzyme is relatively deficient in lung tissue.This may explain relative sensitivity of bleomycin to lung tissuePathological features of bleomycin toxicityEarly endothelial cell damageDestruction of type I pneumocytes^Migration of type II pneumocytes into alveolar spaces inducing interstitial changesType I epithelial cells are more vulnerable to bleomycin toxicity and are destroyed by bleomycin QFollowing destruction of type I pneumocytes repair is characterized by hyperplasia and dysplasia of type II pneumocytesFibroblast proliferation with subsequent pulmonary fibrosis is probably the basis for irreversible changes induced by bleomycin.Also knowHistopathology of lung in Bleomycin toxicityEndothelial cell edema and blebbingNecrosis of type I pneumocytesHyperplasia and metaplasia of type II pneumocytesInflammatory infiltrate with PMNProliferation of fibroblast and fibrosis | train | med_mcqa | null |
Dysphoria is mediated by which opoid receptor - | [
"Mu",
"Kappa",
"Delta",
"None"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Kappa o Euphoria Mu receptors Dysphoria --> Kappa receptors | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following pathways do not produce any ATP | [
"Uronic acid pathway",
"HMP pathway",
"Rapoport luebering shunt",
"All of the above"
] | D | RL shunt, HMP shunt, Uronic acid pathway, Oxidation of very long chain fatty acids, alpha oxidation of fatty acids do not produce any ATP. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The treatment of hydrocele in children is : | [
"Herniotomy",
"Eversion of sac",
"Herniorrhaphy",
"Drainage"
] | A | A hydrocele is fluid within the remnant processus vaginalis. It is characteristically an oblong, nontender soft mass. It may be around the testicle only (testicular hydrocele), extend up from the testicle into the inguinal region (inguino scrotal hydrocele), or be contained within a segment of the processus adjacent to the spermatic cord (hydrocele of the cord) or communicated with the peritoneal cavity (communicating hydrocele). In general, hydroceles that do not communicate with the peritoneal cavity are physiologic, and the vast majority resolve by 18 months of age. Those that persist after 1 year or those that demonstrate changes in size (communicating hydroceles) should be repaired by herniotomy. Ref :Albanese C.T., Sylvester K.G. (2010). Chapter 43. Pediatric Surgery. In G.M. Dohey (Ed), CURRENT Diagnosis & Treatment: Surgery, 13e. | train | med_mcqa | null |
True about reverse transcriptasea) Forms DNA from RNAb) Forms RNA from DNAc) Important for replication of HIVd) Amplification of DNAe) DNA dependent RNA polymerase | [
"a",
"bc",
"ad",
"ac"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
In an edentulous patient, jaw relations are recorded without use of face bow. Maxillary cast is mounted on articulator. Now dentist want to increase vertical dimension of occlusion by 4 mm. It leads to? | [
"Take a new interocclusal record",
"Increase the vertical dimension at rest",
"Change in the condylar guidance",
"Change in CR"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Tumor that follows rule of 10 is - | [
"Pheochromocytoma",
"Oncocytoma",
"c) Lymphoma",
"Renal cell carcinoma"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Pheochromocytoma Note-o Pheochromocytomas usually subscribe to a convenient "rule of 10s":-10% of pheochromocytomas arise in association with one of several familial syndromes. These include the MEN-2A& MEN-2B syndromes, type I neurofibromatosis, von Hippel-Lindau syndrome & Stuige-Weber syndrome.10% of pheochromocytomas are extra-adrenal, occurring in sites such as organ of Zuckerkandl & carotid body, where these chromaffin-negative tumors are usually called paragangliomas to distinguish them from pheochromocytomas.10% of nonfamilial adrenal pheochromocytomas are bilateral: this figure may rise to 70% in cases that are associated with familial syndromes.10% ofadrenal pheochromocytomas are biologically malignant, although the associated hypertension represents a serious & potentially lethal complication of even "benign1" tumors.10% of adrenal pheochromocytomas arise in childhood, usually the familial subtypes, and with a strong male preponderance. The nonfamilial pheochromocytomas most often occur in adults between 40 & 60 years of age, with a slight female preponderance. | train | med_mcqa | null |
One Anganwari worker is for population of: | [
"1000",
"5000",
"10000",
"50000"
] | A | 1000 | train | med_mcqa | null |
According to Pugh's classification moderate to severe hepatic insufficiency is managed by - | [
"Sclerotherapy",
"Conservative",
"Ohotopic liver transplantation",
"Shunt surgery"
] | C | Child-Pugh' s classification is used to assess the status of pt. of liver cirrhosis. A liver cirrhotic pt. having variceal bleeding or ascites can be controlled by shunt surgery only if he falls in Child-Pugh's 'A' class (or some pts. of B class). Moderate to severe grade liver insufficiency can only be managed by liver transplantation. Ref : CMDT, 2001, p 682 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following materials can be absorbed directly by the surface lining cells of the stomach? | [
"Vitamin B12",
"Polysaccharides",
"Triglycerides",
"Alcohol"
] | D | Only a few Simple Substances, such as Alcohol, can be absorbed by the Epithelial Lining of the Stomach | train | med_mcqa | null |
Serotonin (5-HT) is one of several mediators of the signs and symptoms of carcinoid tumor. When released from this neoplasm, most of the manifestations of 5-HT are the result of activation of the 5-HT2 receptor. These manifestations are therefore likely to include which of the following effects? | [
"Bronchospasm",
"Constipation",
"Skeletal muscle weakness",
"Tachycardia"
] | A | - 5-HT2 receptors mediate smooth muscle contraction and thus cause bronchospasm and diarrhea, not constipation.- Skeletal muscle and cardiac muscle are relatively insensitive to 5-HT.- Peptic ulceration is not mediated in pa by 5-HT; the autacoid actually reduces acid secretion. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following about tobacco and oral cancer are true? i. MC histological type - adenocarcinoma ii. Dose-response relationship iii. Synergistic interaction with alcohol iv. Associated with mutations in p53 gene. No association with smokeless tobacco | [
"i, ii, iii, iv",
"ii, iii, iv",
"ii, iii",
"i, iii, iv,"
] | B | Risk Factors for CA Oral Cavity- Tobacco- Alcohol- Betelnut/ Areca nut- Pan Masala- Sharp Jagged tooth- Plummer Vinson syndrome- Ill-fitting denture- Syphilitic glossitis- HPV infections- EBV- Poor nutrition Impoant points of carcinoma of oral cavity:- MC mutation: In CA oral cavity - P53- MC site of CA Oral cavity - Tongue > lip- MC histological type - SCC- MC type of cancer in India - CA oral cavity (Buccal Mucosa > Anterior Tongue> LowerAlveolus)- MC pattern of spread - local extension and regional lymphatic spread- MC site of LN metastasis - lungs- MC lymph node metastasis - CA Tongue- Least common lymph node metastasis - CA lip (CA Hard Palate)- B/L lymphatic spread* lower lip* Supraglottis* Soft Palate- IOC for Dx - Edge Biopsy (Not from centre to avoid taking sample from necrotic areas)- IOC for staging of Head and Neck Malignancies including CA Oral Cavity - MRI- MC flap used for Head & Neck reconstruction - PMMC flap (Pectoralis major myocutaneousflap) - Based on Pectoral branch of Thoraco-Acromial vesselsSkin andvermillion | train | med_mcqa | null |
Best test for mycoplasma infection is? | [
"PCR of respiratory secretions",
"Gram stain of transtracheal aspirate",
"Culture of transtracheal aspirate",
"CXR"
] | A | Acute M. pneumoniae infection can be diagnosed by PCR detection of the organism in respiratory tract secretions. Oropharyngeal, nasopharyngeal, and pulmonary specimens are all acceptable for diagnosing M. pneumoniae pneumonia. M. pneumoniae culture requiring special media is not recommended for routine diagnosis because the organism may take weeks to grow and is often difficult to isolate from clinical specimens. In contrast, PCR allows rapid, specific diagnosis earlier in the course of clinical illness. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following ae used as continuous cell lines in culture and isolation of viruses, EXCEPT: | [
"LLC-MK2",
"Hep-2",
"WT-38",
"HeLa"
] | C | Isolation of viruses in cell culture is recommended as the gold standard for a definitive aetiological diagnosis. LLC-MK2, Vero cell lines, HeLa cells, Hep-2 are used as continuous cell lines. The two cell lines (Vero and LLC-MK2) displayed identical efficacy in the early detection of the mumps virus, with 100% of the samples showing positive in both cell lines at 48 hours of incubation. Thus, the shell l method provides a notable reduction in the time needed for the isolation of the virus compared with that required by the conventional tube culture method. | train | med_mcqa | null |
40 yr old female presented with breast lump of size 4 cm with involvement of skin and mobile palpable axilary LN, FNAC of lesion showed intraductal carcinoma. What is the initial management of for this pt? | [
"Radiotherapy",
"Neo-adjuvant chemotherapy",
"Modified radical mastectomy",
"Simple mastectomy"
] | B | Ans is 'b' i.e. Neo adjuvant chemotherapy | train | med_mcqa | null |
In all of the following conditions, suicidal at-tempts are more common, Except | [
"Panic attack",
"Severe depression",
"Bipolar disorder",
"Old age"
] | A | Potential symptom manifestations of a panic attack Palpitations, pounding hea, or accelerated hea rate Sweating Trembling or shaking Sense of shoness of breath or smothering Feeling of choking Chest pain or discomfo Nausea or abdominal distress Feeling dizzy, unsteady, lightheaded, or faint Derealization or depersonalization (feeling detached from oneself) Fear of losing control or going crazy Fear of dying Numbness or tingling sensations Chills or hot flashes.(Refer: Niraj Ahuja- A Sho Textbook of Psychiatry, 20thedition, pg no: 90-92) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following drug used in gout act by conveing uric acid into allantoin ? | [
"Colchicine",
"Allopurinol",
"Probenacid",
"Rasburicase"
] | D | Ans: D. RasburicaseDrugs increasing metabolism of uric acid:Urate oxidase metabolizes insoluble uric acid to soluble allantoin in the birds'.This enzyme is absent in humans.Rasburicase (a recombinant urate oxidase) is used for this Purpose.PEGylateil uricase (pegloticase) is another similar drug. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following features is not shared between T cells and B cells | [
"Positive selection during development",
"Class I MHC expression",
"Antigen specific receptors",
"All of the above"
] | A | Ans. (a) Positive selection during development B cell undergoes negative selection, whereas T cells undergoes both positive and negative selection. Mechanism of central tolerance: B cell: The recognition of antigens by the immature B-cells in the bone marrow is critical to the development of immunological tolerance to self. For proper immunological function it is essential B cell do not recognize self antigen and should recognize antigen derived from pathogens. In the bone marrow the immature B cells bearing surface IgM, if recognizes self molecule undergo negative selection. This self antigen induce loss of cells from the B cell repeoire is called as clonal deletion. Thus only those B cells that do not recognizes self molecules as antigen comes out of bone marrow. T cells tolerance: T cells are selected for survival more rigorously than B cells. They undergo both positive and negative selection to produce T cells that recognizes self MHC but do not recognizes self peptides. T cell tolerance is induced in thymus. (i) Positive selection occurs in thymic coex, if a maturing T cell is able to bind to a surface MHC molecule it is saved from program cells death; whereas cells fails to recognize MHC dies. Positive selection ensures that T cell recognize antigen in association with MHC molecule only. (ii) Negative selection occurs in coex, coico-medullary junction, and the medulla. Here MTEC (modullary thymic epithelial cells) signal self reactive T cells to die apoptosis. Other Options Option b: Class I MHC are expressed by all nucleated cells and platelets. Ref. Robbin's 8/e 190 Option c: Both B cells and T cell possess antigen receptors. On B cells surface Ig acts as antigenic receptor whereas on T cell, TCR along with CD3 acts as antigenic receptors. Ref. AA 8/e 128, 9/e, p 133 | train | med_mcqa | null |
All are true about Bupivacain EXCEPT | [
"Less cardiotoxic than lignocaine",
"Dose increases with adrenaline",
"Long acting",
"Cannot given in veins"
] | A | (Less cardiotoxic than lignocaine) (391 Less' 13th) (357-KDT 6th)* 0.25% bupivacain or 0.5% lidocaine both with adranaline are suitable. The dose of bupivacain should not exceed 2mg / kg (456 - Lees)* Bupivacaine causes more sensory than motor block* It is not recommanded for intravenous regional analgesia because leakage post the tourniquet in to blood stream may cause toxic or even fatal complication* The duration of effect is between 5 and 16 hours - it is one of the longest - acting local analgesics known* Lignocaine - It is less toxic than bupivacain but cardiotoxic and CNS symptoms of poisoning may occur* The new local anaesthetics levobupicaine and ropivacaine undoubtedly safer than bupivacaine, But case reports of convulsions and cardiac arrest are emerging (385 - Lees 13th) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Burst fracture of cervical spine is due to: | [
"Whiplash injury",
"Fall of weight on neck",
"Veical compression injury",
"Car accident"
] | C | Jefferson fracture is burst fracture of ring of atlas (C1) veebrae Burst fracture is a veical compression fracture. Whiplash injury-Most cervical spine fractures occur predominantly at two levels - at the level of C2 or at C6 or C7. BURST FRACTURE: | train | med_mcqa | null |
HBV replication is indicated by | [
"HBV DNA",
"DNA polymerase",
"HBe Ag",
"All of the above"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which proton pump inhibitor can be used IV? | [
"Omeprazole",
"Rabeprazole",
"Pantoprazole",
"Fomeprazole"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Pantoprazole o Pantaprazole is more acid stable and has higher oral bioavailability. It is also available for i.v. administration; paicularly employed in bleeding peptic ulcer and for prophylaxis of acute stress ulcers. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Not a feature of Korsakoff Psychosis is | [
"Normal sensorium",
"Loss of recent memory",
"Loss of long term memory",
"Confabulation"
] | A | A i.e. Normal Sensorium | train | med_mcqa | null |
Alkalization of local anesthetics solutions by the addition of sodium bicarbonate has following benefit except- | [
"Speeds the onset",
"Improves quality",
"Decreases systemic toxicity",
"Decreases pain at site"
] | C | Addition of sodium bicarbonate prevents causation of drug and spreads the onset -, improves the quality, increases duration and decreased pain at site of injection. Explanation The addition of sodium bicarbonate to local anesthetics improves the speed of onset, reduces the minimum concentration of the local anesthetic required and improves the quality of block. Adding sodium bicarbonate increases the pH of the local anesthetic solution, and thus more amount of free uncharged drug is available which can increase the rate of diffusion across the nerve sheath and improve the onset of anesthesia. Subcutaneous injections of local anesthetics are painful. Alkalinization of the solution by adding sodium bicarbonate before injecting can decrease the pain. Addition of adrenaline or any vasoconstriction causes decrease in systemic toxicity. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Milk ring test is seen in- | [
"Brucellosis",
"Bacteroides",
"Tuberculosis",
"Salmonellosis"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Brucellosis o Tests for detection of brucellosis in herds of cattle.Rapid plate agglutination testRose bengal card testo Tests to detect antibodies in milk.Milk ring testWhey agglutination test | train | med_mcqa | null |
During your preoperative assessment, a 28-year-old woman complains of dyspnea on exeion. Upon auscultation of her hea, you notice a mid-diastolic rumbling murmur. This murmur is most characteristic of which valvular lesion | [
"Mitral stenosis",
"Mitral regurgitation",
"Aoic regurgitation",
"Aoic stenosis"
] | A | The murmur described is characteristic of mitral stenosis. The murmur of mitral stenosis is a mid-diastolic rumbling murmur, best heard at the apex with the patient in the left lateral position. The murmur of mitral regurgitation is typically a holosystolic murmur that may radiate to the axilla. The murmur associated with aoic regurgitation is a midsystolic ejection murmur generally heard best at the base of the hea and is transmitted to the jugular notch. The murmur associated with aoic stenosis is a mid-systolic crescendo- decrescendo murmur that often radiates to the carotids. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which branch of poal vein is involved in chronic pancreatitis | [
"Superior mesenteric vein",
"Inferior mesenteric vein",
"Left branch of poal vein",
"Splenic vein"
] | D | , | train | med_mcqa | null |
Adenoid lies in the: | [
"Hypopharynx",
"Oropharynx",
"Trachea",
"Nasopharynx"
] | D | Tonsils:-
Collections of lymphoid tissue in the oral, nasal and pharyngeal region.
CLINICAL ANATOMY
Hypertrophy or enlargement of the nasopharyngeal tonsil or adenoids may obstruct the posterior nasal aperture and may interfere with nasal respiration and speech leading to mouth breathing. These tonsils usually regress by puberty.
Hypertrophy of the tubal tonsil may occlude the auditory or pharyngotympanic tube leading to middle ear problems.
Waldeyers tonsillar ring has:-
Adenoid tonsil (or nasopharyngeal tonsils) – in nasopharynx
Two palatine tonsils (or simply tonsils) – in oropharynx b/w palatoglossal and palatopharyngeal arches
Lingual tonsil – Behind terminal sulcus (tongue) Two tubal tonsils — root of pharynx.
Key Concept:
Adenoid tonsils are also known as nasopharyngeal tonsil, named based on its location. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Wof is the most accurate statement regarding digoxin | [
"Increases vagal tone and decreases AV node conduction",
"Decreases moality in patients with congestive hea failure with normal sinus rhythm",
"Lengthens the action potential and increases the refractoriness of the hea",
"Useful in the treatment of Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome"
] | A | CARDIAC GLYCOSIDES PHARMACOLOGICAL ACTIONS Hea:- Hea rate:-Hea rate is decreased by digitalis. Bradycardia is more marked in CHF patients because improved circulation (due to positive inotropic action) restores the diminished vagal tone and abolishes sympathetic overactivity. In addition, digitalis slows the hea by vagal and extravagal actions. Vagal tone:- is increased reflexly by sensitization of baroreceptors, as well as by stimulation of vagal centre. Extravagal:- A direct depressant action on SA and A-V nodes. This component of bradycardia is not reversed by atropine. Ref:- kd tripathi; pg num:-512,513 | train | med_mcqa | null |
False regarding opiate withdrawal syndrome - | [
"Characterized by body pain",
"Characterized by dilatation of pupils",
"Treated with naltrexone",
"Treated with methadone"
] | C | Here I would like to clear all the confusion regarding the use of naltrexone in opioid withdrawal.
Though naltrexone can be given during treatment of opioid withdrawal (detoxification), It is not given to treat the symptoms of withdrawal syndrome, rather it is given to precipitate the symptoms of withdrawal syndrome, which are prevented and treated by addition of clonidine. By this method, more rapid detoxification occurs. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most common site of glioblastoma multiforme is | [
"CP angle",
"Frontal lobe",
"Brain stem",
"Occipital lobe"
] | B | Most common site of glioblastoma multifonne is temporal & frontal lobe and basal ganglia.
It frequently crosses midline. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A child is suffering from watery diarrhea. The isolated organism is showing darting motility. The most probable diagnosis is - | [
"Campylobacter",
"V. Cholerae",
"Enterotoxigenic E coli",
"Shigella"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., V. Cholerae * Among the given options, Campylobacter and vibrio cholerae show darting motility.* V. Cholerae causes watery diarrhea, whereas Campylobacter usually causes dysentery.Types of MotilityMotilityOrganismsDarting* V. cholerae* Campylobacter* Gardnerella vaginalisStatelyClostridiaTumblingListeriaLashingBorreliaCorkscrew motilityT. pallidumGlidingMycoplasmaSwarmingProteus mirabilis & vulgaris, B. cereus, Cl tetani | train | med_mcqa | null |
Muscle of third arch is | [
"Tensor tympani",
"Stylopharyngeus",
"Cricothyroid",
"None"
] | B | HUMAN EMBRYOLOGY-INDERBIR SINGH TENTH EDITION-PAGE NO:132 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Ideal position for dentist to stand while taking radiographs | [
"Behind head of patient",
"At an angle of 90-135 degrees and six feet away from patient",
"In 11'o clock position",
"At an angle of 180° and 9 feet away"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Mechanism of action of imatinib mesylate is : | [
"Increase in metabolism of P glycoprotein",
"Blocking the action of P glycoprotein",
"Blocks the action of chimeric fusion protein of bcr–abl",
"Non–competitive inhibition of ATP binding site"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following structure does not pass through diaphragm? | [
"Aorta",
"IVC",
"Esophagus",
"Cisterna chyli"
] | D | Ans. D Cisterna chyliRef Clinically Oriented Anatomy by Keith, Moore, 5th ed. pg. 387; Gray's Anatomy 40th ed. pg. 180* The cisterna chyli is a normal anatomical structure seen as saccular area of dilatation in the lymphatic channels that is located in the retrocrural space, usually to the immediate right of the abdominal aorta. It originates at the level of L1/2 vertebral body and extends 5-7 cm in the caudocephalad axis.* Thoracic duct originates from the chyle cistern in the abdomen and ascends through the aortic hiatus in the diaphragm. Thoracic duct ascends in the posterior mediastinum among the thoracic aorta on its left, the azygos vein on its right, the esophagus anteriorly, and the vertebral bodies posteriorly. At the level of the T4, T5, or T6 vertebra, the thoracic duct crosses to the left, posterior to the esophagus, and ascends into the superior mediastinum.* Note: Although thoracic duct derives from cisterna chyli, it is the thoracic duct that passes through diaphragm and not the cisterna chyli. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Stratified sampling is ideal for | [
"Hetergenous data",
"Homogenous data",
"Both",
"None"
] | A | Ref:Park's Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine 25th Ed | train | med_mcqa | null |
Carcinoma common in dye industry workers: | [
"Skin",
"Scrotum",
"Urinary bladder",
"Maxilla"
] | C | Ans. c (Urinary bladder). (Ref. Bailey and Love, 25th/pg.1334)RISK FACTORS FOR CARCINOMA OF BLADDER# Following occupations have been reported to be associated with a significantly increased risk of carcinoma bladder:- Cigarette smoking- Dye workers, Textile workers, Petrol workers, Leather workers, Tyre tube and cable workers, Painter, Shoe manufacturers and cleaners.# Following compounds are carcinogenic, as far as urinary bladder carcinoma is considered:- 2-naphthylamine, 4-aminobiphenyl benzidine, Chloro-o-toludine, O-toludine, 4--4'-methylene bis (2-chloroaniline), Methyleneclianiline# Other risk factors:- Genetic: Polymorphisms for N-acetyl transferase, glutathione transferase & cytochrome P450 (CYP2D6)- Schistosomiasis (Squamous cell carcinoma)0- Balkan nephropathy- In activation of tumor suppressor genes like p53, pl6&Rb and activation of tumor oncogenes like ras & c-erb. B- 2. | train | med_mcqa | null |
BCG should be given :- | [
"Immediately after bih",
"At age of 6 months",
"At age of 1 year",
"Any time after 1 year age"
] | A | BCG is a live vaccine, should be given Immediately after bih. BCG vaccine if not given at bih : Give along with first dose of DPT vaccine (6 weeks). Age limit for BCG vaccine under NIS : Till 1 year age. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Once a case is completed between two paies, it cannot be tried again under the defence, | [
"Res indicata",
"Res judicata",
"Composite negligence",
"Corporate negligence"
] | B | Res judicata means 'the things have been decided': according to this rule, once a case is completed between two paies, it cannot be tried again. For example, a patient sues a doctor in a negligence case and things are decided; he cannot sue the doctor again in the same case. Ref: FORENSIC MEDICINE AND TOXICOLOGY Dr PC IGNATIUS THIRD EDITION PAGE 383 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Rubella cataract is seen as – | [
"Posterior polar cataract",
"Nuclear cataract",
"Blue dot cataract in young",
"Cuneiform cataract"
] | B | Congenital rubella infection can cause congenital nuclear cataract and congenital total cataract.
Sometimes it may also cause lamellar (zonular) cataract. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Type of deafness seen in early stages of Meniere's disease: | [
"Low frequency conductive hearing loss",
"Low frequency sensorineural hearing loss",
"High frequency conductive hearing loss",
"High frequency sensorineural hearing loss"
] | B | Ans: B (Low frequency sensorineural hearing loss) Ref: Diseases of the Ear Nose and Throat by PL Dhingra 5th edn .2010.Page 113Explanation:Hearing loss in Meniere's disease is sensorineural type and is tluctuating.It is associated with episodic vertigo, tinnitus and sensation of fullness of ear.Early Meniere's has low frequency loss and the PTA curve is rising type.Later on the higher frequencies are affected and the PTA curve becomes flat and finally it becomes sloping type. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The side effects of digitalis are all except ? | [
"Ventricular tachycardia",
"Vasodilatation",
"Nausea and vomiting",
"Ventricular Bigemini"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Vasodilatation Digitalis causes mild vasoconstriction (not vasodilatation). | train | med_mcqa | null |
What is the type of Ag-Ab reaction seen in VDRL | [
"Agglutination",
"Flocculation",
"Passive agglutination",
"Gel precipitation"
] | B | Instead of sedimenting,the precipitate remains suspended as floccules which is called flocculation,which is a type of precipitation reactions,one amongst whose applications is the VDRL test for syphilis. Ref: anantnarayan and panikers 10 th edition | train | med_mcqa | null |
Prophylaxis of is essential to prevent which vitamin deficiency in patients taking isoniazid? | [
"B1",
"B2",
"B3",
"B6"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e., B6 * Isoniazid reacts with pyridoxal to form a hydrazone, and thus inhibits gneration of pyridoxal phosphate.* Isoniazid also combines with pyridoxal phosphate to interfere with its coenzyme function. Due to formation of hydrazones, the renal excretion of pyridoxine compounds is increased.* Thus, isoniazid therapy produces a pyridoxine deficiency state. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following statement regarding pigmentary glaucoma is false? | [
"It is secondary open-angle glaucoma",
"Slit-lamp microscopy shows Krukenberg spindles of pigment on corneal endothelium",
"Gonioscopy shows Sampaolesi line",
"Angle closure glaucoma caused due to accumulation of pigments"
] | D | Pigmentary Glaucoma: - Secondary open-angle glaucoma d/t pigment release in young male myopes, presenting with intermittent halos . - Classic triad of krukenberg spindle, Radial trans-illumination of iris defect, increased pigmentation of trabecular meshwork is seen - Anterior surface of lens shows deposition of Pigment granules. - Scheie line/ Zentmayer ring of pigment on peripheral surface around zonular inseions can be seen. - Treatment : Pilocarpine / similar miotics Krukenberg spindle Iris trans-illumination defect Sampaloesi line is a pigmented Schwalbe's line which is seen in any case that releases pigments from the iris - the most common causes being Pigmentary Glaucoma and Pseudoexfoliation syndrome | train | med_mcqa | null |
Kumar, a 31 yrs old motorcyclist sustained injury over his Right hip joint. X-ray revealed a posterior dislocation of the Right hip joint. The clinical attitude of the affected lower limb will be: | [
"External rotation, extension and abduction",
"Internal rotation, flexion and adduction",
"Internal rotation, extension and abduction",
"External rotation, flexion and abduction"
] | B | In posterior dislocation of hip, the limb is held in flexion, adduction and internal rotation. It's the opposite in anterior dislocation. The treatment is emergency reduction of the dislocated hip. Ref: Essential Ohopedics By J Maheswari, 2nd Edition, Pages 181-183 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following tumor arise from the mesenchymal portion of the tooth germ, either from dental papilla,the follicle or the PDL: | [
"Odontogenic myxoma.",
"Adenomatoid odontogenic tumor.",
"Pindborg tumor.",
"Ameloblastoma"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Advantages of light activated composite resins are: | [
"Extended working time",
"Reduced resistance to wear or abrasion",
"Better resistance to wear or abrasion",
"All of the above"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Strain used in Mumps vaccine | [
"Oka",
"Jeryl Lynn",
"Danish 1331",
"Edmonston Zagreb"
] | B | Strains in Mumps Jeryll Lynn strain RIT 4385 Leningrad 3 strain L-Zagren strain Urabe strain Rubini strain Strains in Measles Edmonston-Zagreb strain Schwatz strain Moraten strain | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is antifibrinolytic drug - | [
"Tenecteplase",
"Heparin",
"Urokinase",
"Tranexaemic acid"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Tranexaemic acid Drugs affecting the lysis of fibrin clot|| |Fibrinolytic drugs Antifibrinolytic drugso Streptokinaseo Alteplase (rt-PA)o Tenecteplaseo Urokinaseo Reteplaseo Recombinant prourokinaseo Epsilon aminocaproic acido Tranexaemic acido Aprotinin | train | med_mcqa | null |
A flat discolouration on skin as 1 cm is called : | [
"Macule",
"Plague",
"Boil",
"Papule"
] | A | A. i.e. Macule | train | med_mcqa | null |
Leading questions are not asked in - | [
"Cross-examintion",
"Examination in chief",
"Examination by judge",
"Examination by coroner"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Calculate the specificity of the screening test:\r\n \r\n \r\n\r\n\r\n\r\nScreening test results\r\n\r\n\r\nDiseased\r\n\r\nNot diseased\r\nTotal\r\n\r\n\r\n\r\nPositive\r\n\r\n\r\n400\r\n\r\n\r\n200\r\n\r\n\r\n600\r\n\r\n\r\n\r\n\r\nNegative\r\n\r\n\r\n100\r\n\r\n\r\n600\r\n\r\n\r\n700\r\n\r\n\r\n\r\n\r\nTotal\r\n\r\n\r\n500\r\n\r\n\r\n800\r\n\r\n\r\n1300\r\n\r\n\r\n\r\n | [
"70 per cent",
"75 per cent",
"80 per cent",
"85 per cent"
] | B | Specificity is the ability of a test to identify correctly those who do not have the disease, that is, the percentage of "true negatives" among those not diseased. In the above question, there are 600 true negatives among 800 who are not diseased. Hence, the specificity is (600/800)x100 = 75 per cent. Ref: Park's Textbook Of Preventive And Social Medicine, By K. Park, 19th Edition, Pages 118, 119. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All the metacarpals of the hand are endowed with one epiphysis each which is usually located near the head of the metacarpal except | [
"Index metacarpal",
"Ring metacarpal",
"Thumb metacarpal",
"Middle finger metacarpal"
] | C | All the metacarpals in the hand have one epiphysis per bone which is in the head of the bone except the thumb, where it is in the base | train | med_mcqa | null |
Indications of circumcision are all except | [
"Chronic balanoposthitis",
"Jewish religion",
"Carcinoma penis",
"Paraphimosis"
] | C | Ans. c (Carcinoma penis). (Ref. B & L, Surgery, 25th/pg. 78)Indications of circumcision (Circumcision should be avoided until hypospadias is repaired)1. Religious in Muslims and Jews2. Phimosis including due to balanitis xerotica obliterans3. Recurrent balanoposthitis4. Recurrent UTI | train | med_mcqa | null |
A bactericidal drug would be preferred over a bacteriostatic drug in a patient with : | [
"Neutropenia",
"Cirrhosis",
"Pneumonia",
"Heart disease"
] | A | Bactericidal drugs kill the bacteria whereas bacteriostatic drugs only inhibit bacterial growth. Bacteriostatic activity is adequate for the treatment of most infections, the bactericidal activity may be necessary for a cure in patients with altered immune systems like neutropenias, HIV and other immunosuppressive conditions. | train | med_mcqa | null |
T/t of CBD stone includes | [
"Endoscopic papillotomy",
"ERCP",
"Ursodeoxy xholic acid",
"Hepatojejunostomy"
] | A | ERCP-therapeutic,i.e.,Endoscopic papillotomy (sphincterotomy) and stone extraction through Dormia basket or balloon catheter is the treatment of choice for CBD stones.It has a success rate of around 95%.Other methods include mechanical/extracorporeal shock (ESW)lithotripsy and extraction;or removal through baby endoscope.CBD stent is placed insitu.Once stones are removed,laparoscopic cholecystectomy can be done. Reference:SRB's manual of surgery,5th edition,page no:651. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which statement (s) is/are true about Neuroblastoma with respect to wilms tumor | [
"Neuroblastoma causes displacement of kidney inferolaterally without distoion of collecting system",
"Stippled calcification is present in wilm's tumor",
"Aoic and IVC invasion by neuroblastoma",
"Neuroblastoma crossing mid line"
] | A | Both occur in early childhood and typically present as large abdominal masses closely related to the kidneys. Distinguishing between the two is impoant, and a number of features are helpful. Neuroblastoma calcification very common: 90% encases vascular structures but does not invade them younger age group (<2 years of age) poorly marginated elevates the aoa away from the veebral column more commonly crosses the midline, especially behind the aoa 2 more common to have extension into the chest bony metastasis are common (Hutchinson syndrome) extension into spinal canal can be seen. retroperitoneal lymph nodes are more often seen. Wilms tumor calcification uncommon: 10-15% (10% rule of Wilm&;s tumor) displaces adjacent structures without insinuating between them slightly older age group: peak 3-4 years of age well circumscribed <a href=" sign</a> with the kidney extension into IVC/renal vein. bony metastasis are rare, rather lung metastasis are common. extension into spinal canal never seen. retroperitoneal lymphadenopathy is uncommon. Reference: GHAI Essential pediatrics, 8th edition | train | med_mcqa | null |
To which of the following family of chemical mediators of inflammation, the Lipoxins belong: | [
"Kinin system",
"Cytokines",
"Chemokines",
"Arachidonic acid metabolites"
] | D | Arachidonic acid metabolites | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of these is NOT a sign of increased intracranial tension (ICT)? | [
"Erosion of dorsum sella",
"Sutural diastasis",
"Ballooning of sella",
"Copper-beaten appearance"
] | C | X-ray findings of increased intracranial tension: Sutural diastasis Sellar demineralization Erosion of posterior clinoids Silver beaten appearance Must know: Cushing's triad: It is the classic presentation of ICH: hypeension, bradycardia, and irregular respirations. Ref: Diagnostic Neuroradiology edited by Valery N.Kornienko, 2009, Page 562. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Acrodermatitis enteropathica is a classical presentation due to deficiency of | [
"Vitamin K",
"Zinc",
"Copper",
"Selenium"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
True statements(s) regarding osteoid osteoma is/are -a) Malignantb) MC bone involvement-tibiac) Local excision or curettage cured) Bone pain relieved by aspirine) X-ray shows : density surrounding radiolucent lesion | [
"bde",
"ade",
"ace",
"bce"
] | A | Osteoid osteoma is a benign tumor.
Most common site involved is diaphysis of Tibia.
Pain of osteoid osteoma is relieved by salycylates or other NSAIDs.
X-ray shows small radiolucent area (nidus) surrounded by dens sclerosis.
The only treatment is wide en block excision along with internal fixation with or without bone grafting. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is the exact mechanism of action of NO | [
"Increase in cAMP",
"Increase in CGMP",
"Increase in PGE2",
"Increase in PGD4"
] | B | Nitric oxide is produced by nearly every type of cell in the human body and one of the most impoant molecules for blood vessel health. It's a vasodilator, meaning it relaxes the inner muscles of your blood vessels, causing the vessels to widen. In this way, nitric oxide increases blood flow and lowers blood pressure | train | med_mcqa | null |
True about MgSO4: | [
"Tocolytic",
"Used in Management of eclempsia",
"Cause neonatal respiratory depression",
"All of the above"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
The most common nerve involvement is dislocation of Lunate is | [
"Median nerve",
"Anterior interosseus",
"Posterior interosseus",
"Median nerve"
] | A | A i.e. Median nerve | train | med_mcqa | null |
Metastasis of cancer has its roots in structural abnormalities of | [
"Glycolipids in nervous tissue",
"Glycoproteins on cell surface",
"Lipoproteins in blood",
"None of the above"
] | B | DiseaseAbnormalityMetastasis of cancer cellsAbnormalities in the oligosaccharide chains of membrane glycoproteins and glycolipids are thought to be of impoanceReference: Harper&;s Biochemistry; 30th edition; Chapter 40 Membranes: Structure & Function | train | med_mcqa | null |
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