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Wof are anti diabetic agents that acts by increasing insulin sensitivity, and so should be euglycemics | [
"Phenformin",
"Pioglitazone",
"Sitagliptin",
"Liraglutide"
] | B | Thiazolidinedione (PPARg agonist) Pioglitazone:- Only one thiazolidinedione Pioglitazone is currently available. Mech of action:- This class of oral antidiabetic drugs are selective agonists for the nuclear peroxisome proliferator-activated receptor g (PPARg) which is expressed mainly in fat cells, but also in muscle and some other cells. It enhances the transcription of several insulin responsive genes. Glitazones tend to reverse insulin resistance by enhancing GLUT4 expression and translocation. Entry of glucose into muscle and fat is improved. Hepatic gluconeo- genesis is also suppressed. Activation of genes regulating fatty acid metabolism and lipogenesis in adipose tissue contributes to the insulin sensitizing action. Lipolysis and plasma fatty acid levels are reduced. Adipocyte turnover and differentiation is accelerated by glitazones. Thus, fatty tissue is a major site of their action. Improved glycaemic control results inlowering of circulating HbA1C and insulin levels in type 2 DM patients. Pioglitazone, in addition, lowers serum triglyceride level and raises HDL level without much change in LDL level, probably because it acts on PPARa as well to induce expression of reverse cholesterol transpoer and some apoproteins. Monotherapy with glitazones is not associated with hypoglycaemic episodes. Ref:- kd tripathi; pg num:-276,277 | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 20-year-old primigravid woman is in the third trimester and has felt minimal fetal movement. An ultrasound scan shows bilaterally enlarged echogenic kidneys and a markedly decreased amniotic fluid index. She gives birth to a stillborn male fetus at 33 weeks' gestation. At autopsy, there are deformations resulting from marked oligohydramnios, including flattening of the facies, varus deformities of the feet, and marked pulmonary hypoplasia. Microscopic examination of the liver shows multiple epithelium-lined cysts and proliferation of bile ducts. Which of the following is the most likely renal disease in this fetus? | [
"Autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease",
"Autosomal recessive polycystic kidney disease",
"Medullary sponge kidney",
"Multi-cystic renal dysplasia"
] | B | Autosomal recessive polycystic kidney disease (ARPKD) most often occurs in children, and this case with the distinctive finding of congenital hepatic fibrosis; most cases have PKHD1 gene mutations encoding for fibrocystin expressed in the kidney, liver, and pancreas. By contrast, autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease (ADPKD) manifests with renal failure in adults and involves PKD1 and PKD2 gene mutations encoding for polycystin proteins found in renal tubules. Some less common forms of ARPKD are accompanied by survival beyond infancy, and these patients develop congenital hepatic fibrosis. Enlarged kidneys with 1- to 4-cm cysts are characteristic of ADPKD in adults. Perhaps the most common renal cystic disease seen in fetuses and infants is multicystic renal dysplasia (multicystic dysplastic kidney), with focal, unilateral, or bilateral from variably sized cysts, but congenital hepatic fibrosis is not present. Medullary sponge kidney is a benign condition usually found on radiologic imaging of adults. Urethral atresia would produce marked bladder dilation, hydroureter, and hydronephrosis. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Opsomyoclonus is encountered as C/F of | [
"Meningioma",
"Cerebral atrophy",
"Excision",
"Neurofibramatosis"
] | B | At least 50% of children with opsoclonus-myoclonus have an underlying neuroblastoma." - Harrison Opsoclonus-Myoclonus Syndrome Opsoclonus is a disorder of eye movement characterized by involuntary, chaotic saccades that occur in all directions of gaze; it is frequently associated with myoclonus and ataxia. Causes of Opsoclonus-myoclonus Idiopathic Cancer-related (paraneoplastic) Cancers associated with opsoclonus-myoclonus are usually lung and breast cancers in adults and neuroblastoma in children. Ref : Harrison 17/e p626 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following can differentiate hysterical fits from epileptic fits? | [
"Occur in sleep",
"Injuries to person",
"Incontinence",
"Occur when people are watching"
] | D | Hysterical fits or dissociate convulsions / seizures or conversion disorders with convulsions/ seizures do not occur in sleep, are not associated with any injuries, are not associated with any incontinence and there is no post seizure amnesia or confusion. They usually occur when others are watching. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The common feature of Nuclear Localization Signals is | [
"They are rich in acidic amino acid residues and are located at the C-terminus of the protein",
"They are rich in basic amino acid residues and are located at the C-terminus of the protein",
"They are rich in acidic amino acid residues and may be located anywhere in the protein sequence",
"They are rich in ba... | D | Many nuclear proteins contain NLSs that are rich in basic arginine and lysine residues, which may be located anywhere in the polypeptide chain. Reference: Harper; 30th edition | train | med_mcqa | null |
SIADH is caused by all except - | [
"Vincristine",
"Vinblastine",
"Actinomycin D",
"Cyclophosphamide"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Actinomycin D Drugs causing syndrome of inappropriate ADH (SIADH1 Vasopressin or desmopressin Oxytocin, high dose Carbamazepine Phenothiazines Tricyclic antidepressants Serotonin reuptake inhibitors Chlorpropamide Vincristine or vinblastine Nicotine Cyclophosphamide Monoamine oxidase inhibitors | train | med_mcqa | null |
ionising radiation acts on tissue depending upon : | [
"linear accelaration energy",
"thermal energy",
"formation of purine analogs",
"excitation of electron from orbit"
] | D | onizing Radiation-radioactivity measurements it has linear radiating energy High energy paicles and photons that ionise atoms and molecules along their tracks in a medium are called ionizing radiation. For example, a, {3, y, cosmic rays and X-rays are ionizing radiation. Most radioactive measurement are based on their ionizing effect. Ionizing radiation causes illness such as cancer and death. Radiation effect is a health and safety concern. Ionizing radiation can also be used in industry for various purposes. Light and microwaves that do not ionize atoms and molecules are called non-ionizing radiation. Ionizing Radiation . ref : david sutton 9th ed | train | med_mcqa | null |
Akathasia is? | [
"Increase sense of restlessness and anxiety",
"Buco-linguo-masticatory triad",
"Involuntary distal movement",
"Increase sensation of worthlessness and anxiety"
] | A | Ans. (a) Increase sense of restlessness and anxiety | train | med_mcqa | null |
Organ of coi is situated in | [
"Basilar membrane",
"Utricle",
"Saccule",
"None of the above"
] | A | Organ of Coi is the sense organ of hearing and is situated on the basilar membrane. Impoant components of the organ of Coi are: 1. Tunnel of Coi- which is formed by the inner and outer rods. It contains a fluid called coilymph. The exact function of the rods and coilymph is not known. 2. Hair cells- They are impoant receptor cells of hearing and transduce sound energy into electrical energy. Inner hair cells form a single row while outer hair cells are arranged in three or four rows. Inner hair cells are richly supplied by afferent cochlear fibres and are probably more impoant in the transmission of auditory impulses. Outer hair cells mainly receive efferent innervation from the olivary complex and are concerned with modulating the function of inner hair cells. 3. Suppoing cell- Deiters' cells are situated between the outer hair cells and provide suppo to the latter. Cells of Hensen lie outside the Deiters' cells. 4. Tectorial membrane- It consists of gelatinous matrix with delicate fibres. It overlies the organ of Coi. The shearing force between the hair cells and tectorial membrane produces the stimulus to hair cells. Reference-Dhingra 6/e, p 13. | train | med_mcqa | null |
25/M presented with jaundice, clay coloured stool and pruritus. Bilirubin was 7gm%, Direct Bilirubin 5gm%, ALP 500 IU/L. Biopsy from biliary tract revealed the following. What is your diagnosis? | [
"PSC",
"SBC",
"PBC",
"Bile duct stones"
] | A | Ans. (a) PSC* Clinical feature of jaundice, clay coloured stool and pruritus is suggestive of obstructive jaundice. Biopsy showing fibrotic obliteration of bile ducts ("onionskin" fibrosis) seen in primary biliary cirrhosis. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Chondrocalcinosis is seen in : | [
"Ochronosis",
"Hypoparathyroidism",
"Rickets",
"Hypervitaminosis D"
] | A | Chondrocalcinosis refers to calcification of aicular cailage. Chondrocalcinosis is seen in: Osteoahritis Gout CPPD Hemochromatosis Wilson's disease HADD Ochronosis Acromegaly Oxalosis Ochronosis refers to the connective tissue manifestation of alkaptonuria and is so named because of the ochre/yellow colour of the deposited pigment seen during microscopic examination. Alkaptonuria is produced by a defect in the metabolism of homogentisic acid that leads to darkening of the urine when exposed to air or reducing agents. Ref: Imaging of Ahritis and Metabolic Bone Disease edited by Barbara N. W. Weissman page 36. Bone and Joint Disorders By Francis A. Burgener page 137. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Thiamine acts as a cofactor in | [
"Pyruvate to oxalate",
"Malonate to oxaloacetate",
"Succinate to fumarate",
"Pyruvate to acetyl CoA"
] | D | Thiamine as a cofactor in ReactionsEnzymesPyruvate - Acetyl CoAPyruvate dehydrogenasea-ketoglutarate - Succinyl CoAa-ketoglutarate dehydrogenaseErythrose-4-PO4 + Xylulose-5-PO4 - Fructose-6-PO4 + Glyceraldehyde-3-PO4TransketolaseBranched-chain amino acids - Branched chain keto acidsBranched-chain amino acid dehydrogenase(Refer: DM Vasudevan, Textbook of Biochemistry, 7th edition, pg no: 478) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is seen in chronic contact lens wearer: | [
"Inclusion Conjuntivitis",
"Giant papillary Conjunctivitis",
"Vernal keratoconjuntivitis",
"Follicular conjunctivitis"
] | B | Ans. (b) Gaint papillary ConjunctivitisRef.: A.K. Khurana 6th ed. 182-83Please refer to above explanationAlso KnowInclusion Conjuntivitis* Caused by Chlamydia trachomatis D-K within 5-14 days of birth. Clinical features include mucoid/ mucopurulent discharge, redness in conjunctiva, swollen lids and pain in eyeballs.Follicular conjunctivitis* It is characterized by redness in conjunctiva, formation of follicles and discharge from the eyes. It is of following types:# Epidemic keratoconjunctivitis: adenovirus 8, 19; can cause "acute pseudomembranous conjunctivitis" in severe infection.# Pharyngo-conjunctival fever: caused by ad- enovirus.# Herpetic conjunctivitis: caused by HSV1 (more commonly) and HSV 2 (less commonly). | train | med_mcqa | null |
Inflation of lungs induces fuher inflation is called | [
"Hering-Breuer inflation reflex",
"Heads paradoxical reflex",
"Frank-starling law",
"J reflex"
] | B | Definition. The Head's paradoxical reflex occurs in case of cold block (or in general irritation) of the vagus nerve. The inflation inhibition explained by Hering-Breuer inflation reflex is annulled and a deep breath occurs Ref: guyton and hall textbook of medical physiology 12 edition page number: 334,335 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Wavelength of UVB rays is ? | [
"290 - 320 nm",
"320 - 360 nm",
"360 - 390 nm",
"390 - 420 nm"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., 290 - 320 nm UV rays are used directly to treat skin conditions. It is simply referred to as phototherapy. These may be :? UVB phototherapy (290-320 nm) Narrow band UVB phototherapy (311 nm) UVA1 phototherapy (360-380 nm) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Action of Proton pump inhibitors are most effective when they are given: | [
"After meals",
"Sholy before meals",
"Along with H2 blockers",
"During prolonged fasting periods"
] | B | Proton pump inhibitors should be taken 15-30 minutes before meals. This allows absorption of the medication to provide availability to the proton pumps when they are activated by the meal. This drug when taken before meals provide the best intragastric pH control. PPIs are inactive at neutral pH. At pH < 5 the drug rearranges into two charged cationic forms (a sulfenic acid and a sulphenamide configuration). They react covalently with SH group of the H+ K+ ATPase enzyme and inactivate it irreversibly. Acid secretion resumes when new H+ K+ ATPase molecules are synthesized. Ref: Advanced Therapy in Gastroenterology and Liver Disease By Theodore M. Bayless, 5th Edition, Page 56 ; Essentials of Medical Pharmacology By K D Tripathi, 5th Edition, Page 593 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Rule of 9 in burns is used to denote : | [
"Depth of burns",
"Total body surface area involved",
"Severity of burns",
"Type of burns"
] | B | For total body surface area of burns in adults: 'Rule of Wallace' or 'Rule of nine' 9% for each upper limb 9% each for the front and back of each lower limb, 9% for the front and back of chest, 9% for the front and back of abdomen, 9% for the head and neck and 1% for the perineum OTHER METHODS: Use of patient's hand -The area of the back of the patient's hand is approximately 1% of their total body surface area. The number of "hands" that equal the area of the burn can approximate the percentage of body surface area burned. Lund-Browder burn diagram- This allows an accurate age-adjusted determination of burn size for a given depth, allowing for the anatomical differences of children. NOTE: Lund-Browder cha method is a most precise method for estimation of burn area. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 13-year-old boy is brought to the emergency depament after losing control during a motorbike race in which he was run over by several of the other racers. Physical examination reveals several cuts and bruises.He is unable to extend the left wrist, fingers, and thumb, although he can extend the elbow. Sensation is lost in the lateral half of the dorsum of the left hand. Which of the following nerves has most likely been injured to result in these signs, and in what pa of the arm is the injury located? | [
"Median nerve, anterior wrist",
"Median nerve, arm",
"Radial nerve, midhumerus",
"Ulnar nerve, midlateral forearm"
] | C | The radial nerve innervates the extensor compaments of the arm and the forearm. Supplies the triceps brachii proximal to the spiral groove so elbow extension is intact. Provides sensory innervation to much of the posterior arm and forearm as well as the dorsal thumb, index, and middle fingers up to the level of the fingernails. Symptoms are described only in the distal limb due to the midhumeral location of the lesion. Median nerve innervates flexors of the forearm and thenar muscles and provides sensory innervation to the lateral palmar hand. Ulnar nerve supplies only the flexor carpi ulnaris and the medial half of the flexor digitorum profundus in the forearm. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Initial fluid of choice for diarrhea in an infant is: | [
"Salt water",
"Sugar water",
"ORS",
"Dextrose"
] | C | Ans. c. ORS (Ref: Ghai 8/e p293 294)The cornerstone of acute diarrhea management is rehydration by using oral rehydrarion solutions (ORS). Initial fluid of choice for diarrhea in an infant is ORS.Acute Diarrhea ManagementThe cornerstone of acute diarrhea management is rehydration by using oral rehydration solutions (ORS).Principles of Acute Diarrhea Management1. Correction of dehydration, electrolytes and hypoglycemia2. Evaluation for infections using appropriate investigations and their management3. Nutritional therapyPhysiological Basis for Oral Rehydration TherapyIn most cases of acute diarrhea, sodium and chloride are actively secreted from the gut mucosa due to pathogen-induced dysfunction of several actively functioning absorption pumps.However, glucose dependent sodium pump remains intact and functional transporting one molecule of glucose and dragging along a molecule of sodium and one of water across intestinal mucosa resulting in repletion of sodium and water losses.The glucose dependent sodium and water absorption is the principle behind replacing glucose and sodium in 1:1 molar ratio in the WHO oral rehydration solution (ORS).Use of low osmolality ORS causes reduction of stool output, decrease in vomiting and decrease in the use of unscheduled IV fluids without increasing the risk of hyponatremia.For this reason, the recommendation for use of standard WHO ORS (having osmolarity of 311 mmol/l) was changed to low osmolarity WHO ORS (having osmolality of 245 mmol/l)QHome available fluids for Acute DiarrheaFluids that contain salt (preferable)* Oral rehydration solution* Salted drinks (e.g. Salted rice water or salted yoghurt drink)* Vegetable or chicken soup with saltFluids that do not contain salt (acceptabte)* Plain water, water in which a cereal has been cooked (e.g. unsalted rice water), unsalted soup, yoghurt drinks without salt, green coconut water, weak unsweetened tea, unsweetened fresh fruit juiceUnsuitable home available fluids* Commercial carbonated beverages, commercial fruit juices, sweetened teaZinc SupplementationIt is helpful in decreasing severity and duration of diarrhea and also risk of persistent diarrhea.Zinc is recommended to be supplemented as sulphate, acetate or gluconate formulation, at a dose of 20 mg of elemental zinc per day for children >6 months for a period of 14 days.Composition of WHO Recommended ORSConstituentg/lOsmole or ionmmol/lSodium chloride2.6Sodium75QGlucoser anhydrous13.5Chloride65Potassium chloride1.5Glucose, anhydrous75Trisodium citrate, dihydrate2.9Potassium20Q Citrate10Total osmolarity 245Q | train | med_mcqa | null |
H5N1 An Influenza has not become an epidemic till now. What is the most impoant reason for this? | [
"Seen only in wild birds and not in domestic poultry",
"It has an influenza genes",
"Human to Human transmission is rare",
"It causes serious illness leading to death of the patient"
] | C | An influenza refers to a large group of different influenza virus that primarly affect birds. The vast majority of an influenza viruses donot infect humans. However an H5N1 is a strain with pandemic potential, since it might ultimately adapt in to a strain that is contagious among human.As this has not occured it cannot become an epidemic.Founately H5N1 virus doesn&;t jump from birds to humans of spread readily and sustainably among humans. Reference; Park&;s Textbook of preventive and social medicine, 24th edition.Pg no. 166 | train | med_mcqa | null |
In abdominal surgery Lembe sutures refers to ? | [
"Single layer suturing",
"Sero muscular sutures",
"All coat intestinal suturing",
"Skin suturing"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Sero muscular sutures | train | med_mcqa | null |
Standard error of mean indicates -a) Dispersionb) Distributionc) Variationd) Deviation | [
"abc",
"ad",
"bc",
"acd"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most common rheumatic disease in children is ________ | [
"Juvenile idiopathic ahritis",
"Juvenile ankylosing spondylitis",
"Systemic lupus erythematosus",
"Morphea"
] | A | The most common rheumatic disease in children is Juvenile idiopathic ahritis (JIA), Juvenile idiopathic ahritis represents a homogenous group of chronic disorders charcterized by Ahritis in >/= 1 joint Age at onset: <16 years Duration of disease: >/=6 weeks Ahritis is clinically defined as: Swelling or effusion, or the presence of 2 or more of the followin signs: Limitation of range of motion Tenderness or pain on motion Increased heat Ref: Nelson textbook of pediatrics 21st edition pgno: 1258 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Sensorineural deafness may be feature of all of the following conditions, EXCEPT: | [
"Alpo syndrome",
"Bater syndrome",
"Nail-patella syndrome",
"Distal renal tubular acidosis"
] | C | Alpo syndrome, Bater syndrome and distal renal tubular acidosis are all associated with sensorineural hearing loss. Alpo syndrome consist of nephritis and progressive sensorineural hearing loss. Bater syndrome consist of hypokalemia, metabolic alkalosis and sensorineural hearing loss. Distal renal tubular acidosis is associated with growth retardation and hearing loss. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Caplan syndrome is seen in | [
"COPD",
"Pneumoconiosis",
"Pulmonary odema",
"Bronchial asthma"
] | B | Ref Harrison 17th/1625 Caplan syndrome is a combination of rheumatoid ahritis and pneumoconiosis that manifests as intrapulmonary nodules which appears homogeneous and well defined on chest X ray... It is also called as rheumatoid pneumoconiosis | train | med_mcqa | null |
In children renal failure in terms of urine output is defined as ? | [
"Less than 0.3 ml/kg/hr",
"Less than 0.5 ml/kg/hr",
"Less than 0.8 ml/kg/hr",
"Less than 1 ml/kg/hr"
] | A | .Many people with acute kidney failure only create 16 ounces of urinea day (the average adult urinates between 34 to 50 ounces per day). When urine output is low, fluid retention occurs, causing swelling in the legs, feet and ankles. Because wastes are not being removed from your body, you will feel ill. Reference: GHAI Essential pediatrics, 8th edition | train | med_mcqa | null |
Excessive fibrosis in tumor in called- | [
"Anaplasia",
"Metaplasia",
"Desmoplasia",
"Dysplasia"
] | C | Desmoplasia a growth of fibrosis or connective tissue. It is swamp plastic growth secondary to an insult. May occur around a brook ask causing dense fibrosis. Or within scar tissue as adhesions in the abdomen after abdominal surgeries. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Triage means - | [
"Soing out of cases on availability of medical resources and seventy of patients condition",
"Patients are divided into 3 groups",
"Severely injured patients are attended first in military camps",
"None of the above"
] | A | Triage is the name of the system that is used to so when and where patients will be seen in an emergency depament. The triage system exists because, while all patients at emergency depaments may be experiencing serious illness or injury, those with life-threatening and severe conditions must be treated first. Ref Davidson 23rd edition pg 1337 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Following is an example of Type 4 hypersensitivity? | [
"Glomerulonephrirtis",
"Serum sickness",
"Myasthenia gravis",
"Contact dermatitis"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Contact dermatitis Tvpe IV (Cell mediated! hvpersesivitvo Tuberculin testo Lepromin testo Sarcoidosiso Tuberculosiso Contact dermatitiso Granulomatous inflammationo Type I lepra reactiono Patch testo Temporal arteritiso Jones mote reaction (cutaneous basophilic HSN)o Graft rejectiono Fairleys testo Frie's test | train | med_mcqa | null |
Clouding of consciousness is seen in: | [
"Dementia",
"Delirium",
"Schizophrenia",
"Depression"
] | B | Ans. (b) DeliriumRef.: Harrison 19th ed. /166DELIRIUM* It is characterized by global impairment of consciousness (clouding of consciousness), resulting in reduced levels of alertness, attention & perception of environment along with acute onset of fluctuating cognitive impairment.* It is the commonest organic mental disorderClinical Features & Diagnosis* Global impairment of consciousness & attention is the hallmark/cardinal feature of Delirium. It manifests as:# Diminished ability to focus, sustain or shift attention.# Reduced levels of alertness, attention, and perception of environment.# Drowsiness (mental slowness), distractibility & disorientation.* Global impairment of cognition is manifested as:# Disorientation (in time, place and person)# Disturbance of immediate & recent memory# Remote memory is intact. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Peripheral neuropathy as a side effect is caused by which of the following anti cancer drugs : | [
"Vincristine",
"Cyclophosphamide",
"Etoposide",
"Irinotecan"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Medulla oblongata is derived from ? | [
"Telencephalon",
"Diencephalon",
"Mesencephalon",
"Myelencephalon"
] | D | Ans. is d i.e., MyelencephalonNervous system develops from ectoderm (neuroectoderm). Nervous system develops from neural tube which in turn develops by process of neurulation, i.e. formation of neural plate and its infolding into neural tube. Structures formed from neural tube are :?A) From cranial pa (enlarged cephalic pa)Gives rise to brain. Developmental pas are :i) Forebrain (prosencephalon)Telencephalon : Cerebral hemisphere and lateral ventricle.Diencephalon : Optic cup and stalk (gives rise to retina), pituitary, thalamus, hypothalamus, epithalamus, pineal gland, and third ventricle.ii) Midbrain (mesencephalon)Cerebral aqueduct.iii) Hindbrain (rhombencephalon)Metencephalon : Cerebellum, ponsMyelencephalon Medulla oblongataB) From caudal paGives rise to spinal cord. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Elderly man with a long standing mole over the face which is increasing in size and showing irregular borders Diagnosis | [
"Lentigo maligna",
"Superficial spreading melanoma",
"Acral melanoma",
"Nodular melanoma"
] | B | superficial spreading melanoma is the most common type of malignant melanoma and it is also the most reommon type which occursin a patient with a pre existing mole. ref : bailey and love 27th ed | train | med_mcqa | null |
Hour glass deformity of the stomach is seen in : | [
"Gastric ulcer",
"Gastric carcinoma",
"Gastric lymphoma",
"Lipoma"
] | A | Gastric stenosis (hourglass stomach) : Hour-Glass deformity can also occur with gastric ulcer disease. Occasionally a gastric ulcer is associated with such scarring that a stricture develops in the body of the stomach (hourglass deformity). This causes a clinical picture similar to pyloric obstruction.The definite treatment being gastrectomy. Ref : Dempsey D.T. (2010). Chapter 26. Stomach. In T.R. Billiar, D.L. Dunn (Eds),Schwaz's Principles of Surgery, 9e. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which nerve is involved in this presentation? | [
"Long thoracic Nerve",
"Musculocutaneous nerve",
"Lateral anterior thoracic nerve",
"Thoracodorsal nerve"
] | A | Ans. A long thoracic nerveNerve involvedMuscleLong thoracic NerveSerratus anteriorMusculocutaneous NerveCoracobrachialis muscleLateral anterior thoracic NervePectoralis major muscleThoracodorsal NerveLatissimus Dorsi | train | med_mcqa | null |
&;Duret Hemorrhages&; are seen in: | [
"Brain",
"Kidney",
"Hea",
"Lung"
] | A | Duret hemorrhage: In case of increased ICP downward herniation of brainstem occur, which causes stretching of perforators of basilar aery and may results in bleed (Duret hemorrhage) Duret hemorrhage is small area of bleeding in ventral and paramedian pa of upper brainstem (midbrain and pons) It usually indicates a fatal outcome, however survival has been repoed Diagnosis is made on CT or MRI Ref: Robbins 9th edition pgno: 1255 | train | med_mcqa | null |
1/68 DI.C. is seen in- | [
"Acute promyelocytic leukemia",
"Acute myelomonocytic leukemia",
"CMC",
"Autoimmune hemolytic anemia"
] | A | Abstract Malignancy is associated with a "hypercoagulable" state and a high risk for thrombohemorrhagic complications. Clinical complications may range from localized thrombosis to bleeding of varying degrees of severity because of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC). Life-threatening bleeding is frequent in acute leukaemias, particularly in acute promyelocytic leukaemia (APL).
Laboratory assessments show a profound hemostatic imbalance in this condition, with activation of coagulation, fibrinolysis, and nonspecific proteolysis systems. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A contraindication to the use of ciprofloxacin is a history of: | [
"Epilepsy",
"Deep vein thrombosis",
"Gout",
"G-6 PD deficiency"
] | A | * Ciprofloxacin is contraindicated with NSAIDs because this combination results in increased risk of seizures. * It is also contra-indicated with theophylline because it increases the risk of theophylline toxicity by inhibiting its metabolism. * It is contra-indicated in pregnancy because it increases the risk of cailage damage in newborn. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Brought dead patient is maastricht classification type? | [
"Type 1",
"Type 2",
"Type 3",
"Type 4"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Life span of Sigmund Freud was | [
"1856-39 and he passed most of his life in Austria",
"1859-36 and he passed most of his life in Austria",
"1859-36 and he passed most of his life in Grmany",
"1859-36 and he passed most of his life in France"
] | A | A. i.e. 1856 - 39 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which among the following is not vertically transmitted? | [
"CMV",
"Toxoplasmosis",
"HIV",
"HSV"
] | D | Ans: d (HSV) Ref: Park, 19th ed, p. 91Vertical transmission means transplacental transmission. This is a form of direct transmission.Eg. Toxoplasma gondiSyphilisRubellaHepatitis BCytomegalo virusCoxsackie BVaricella virusHIVNon living agents transmitted vertically-Thalidomide, diethyl stilbesterol.Herpes simplex is usually transmitted transvaginally. So the best answer is HS V | train | med_mcqa | null |
A married middle aged female gives history of repeated aboions for the past 5 years. The given below is conceptions pre-natal karyogram. This karyogram suggests the following - | [
"Klinefelter's syndrome",
"Turner's syndrome",
"Down's syndrome",
"Patau's syndrome"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Down's syndrome Most common chromosomal abnormalies causing aboion are chromosomal trisomy. Trisomy 21 is synonymous with down's syndrome and is the most common of the chromosomal disorders Trisomy 21 DOWN SYNDROME Trisomy 18 EDWARD SYNDROME Trisomy 13 PATAU SYNDROME | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following are strategies to prevent contrast nephropathy, except: | [
"Intravenous Hydration",
"Use of High Osmolar Contrast Agents",
"Theophylline administration",
"Hemodialysis"
] | B | Answer is B (Use of High Osmolar Contrast Agents): Low Osmolar Contrast Media (LOCM) results in substantially less Contrast Induced Nephropathy (CIN) than High Osmolar Contrast Media (HOCM) in patients with preexisting renal dysfunction. The type of contrast medium used is an impoant risk factor for the development of contrast medium induced nephropathy with iso-osmolar contrast media (I0CM) and low-osmolar contrast media (LOCM) being less nephrotoxic than high-osmolar contrast agents in patients with pre-existing renal impairment. Therefore low-osmolar or iso-osmolar nonionic contrast media are recommended in high-risk patients to reduce the risk of contrast medium-induced nephropathy. Note: No benefit has been demonstrated in those without renal dysfunction. Although there is no proven decrease in CIN in normal populations, better tolerability and fewer side effects of LOCM have largely resulted in their supplanting HOCM in routine clinical practice. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The Good prognostic factors of schizophrenia include all except | [
"Age 12 yrs",
"Catatonic type",
"Female",
"More positive symptoms"
] | A | Age below 18years, male, insidious onset, simple and hebephrenic are usually bad prognostic factors for schizophrenia Ref: Essentials of postgraduate psychiatry By JN Vyas 1st ed Pg: 370 | train | med_mcqa | null |
The following statements are true regarding Clostridium perfringes except : | [
"It is the commonest cause of gas gangrene",
"It is normally present in human faeces",
"The principal toxin of C. perfringens is the alpha toxin",
"Gas gangrene producing strains of C. perfringes produces heat resistant spores"
] | D | Gas gangrene is caused by Cl perfringens (MC by type A), Cl novyi, Cl septicum, Cl. histolyticum.
Others - Cl. sporogenes, Cl. fullax, Cl. bifermantans, Cl. Sordelli Cl. aerofoetidium and C. tertium.
Most important toxin for gas gangrene is Alpha toxin = lecithinase which is responsible Naegler’s Reaction.
Cl. perfringes is found in feces and contaminates the skin of perineum, buttocks, thigh.
Its spores is used as remote indicator of fecal contamination of water.
Spores are usually destroyed within 5 minutes by boiling but those of food poisoning strains of Type A and certain type C strain resist boiling for several hours.
Spores are destroyed by autoclaving at 121 0 C for 20 minutes.
Spores are resistant to antiseptics and disinfectants in common use. | train | med_mcqa | null |
ANCA is NOT associated with which of the following diseases : | [
"Wegener's granulomatosis",
"Henoch schonlein purpura",
"Microscopic PAN",
"Churg Strauss syndrome"
] | B | Answer is B (H.S. Purpura) : H.S. purpura is not associated with any antinuclear cytoplasmic antibody (ANCA). It is an example of ANCA negative vasculitis. ANCA (Antineutrophilic cytoplasmic Antibodies) arc Antibodies directed against ceain proteins in cytoplasmic granules of Neutrophil & monocytes. These are two major categories of ANCA based on different targets for the antibodies. ANCA (Antineutrophic cytoplasmic antibodies): ANCA is of 2 types C-ANCA (Cytoplasmic proteinase 3q is the target antigen) Wegeners Granulomatosisq (90-95%) P-ANCA (perinuclear myeloperoxidaseQ is the major target antigen) Microscopic PAN (microscopic polyangitis) Churg-Strauss syndrome Crescenteric glomerulonephritise Good pasteur's syndrome | train | med_mcqa | null |
A chronic alcoholic presents with complaints of confusion, ataxia, ophthalmoplegia and peripheral neuropathy. Diagnosis is | [
"Alcoholic hallucinations",
"Wernicke's encephalopathy",
"Korsakoff's psychosis",
"Delirium tremens"
] | B | Wernicke&;s encephalopathy:This is an acute reaction due to severe thiamine deficiency (Vit. B-1), the commonest cause being chronic alcohol abuse. Characteristically, the onset occurs aftera period of persistent vomiting.Signs and Symptoms:i. Ocular: Coarse nystagmus and ophthalmoparesis (usually the VIth cranial nerve is involved). Pupillary irregularity, retinal hemorrhages, papilledema and impairment of vision.ii. CNS: Disorientation, confusion, recent memory disturbances, poor attention span, and distractibility. Apathy and ataxia are early symptoms.iii. Peripheral neuropathy and serious malnutrition are often coexistent.Pathologically, neuronal degeneration and hemorrhage is seen in the thalamus, hypothalamus (mammillary bodies) and midbrain. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Feature of 3 degree burn: | [
"Pain present",
"Transudation of fluid present",
"Whole dermis destroyed",
"Erythematous in appearance"
] | C | Answer- C. Whole dermis destroyedThe whole of the dermis is destroyed of the burns.Clinically, they have a hard, leathery feel, The appearance can vary from that similar to the patient's normal skin to charred black depending upon the intensity of the heat. . There is no capillay return after, thrombosed vessels can be seen under the skin.These burns are completely anaesthetised: a needle can be stuck deep into the dermis without any pain or bleeding. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Transverse ligament of atlas is part of - | [
"Cruciform ligament",
"Ligamentum flava",
"Anterior longitudinal ligament",
"Posterior longitudinal ligament"
] | A | Transverse ligament forms the horizontal part of cruciform ligament. | train | med_mcqa | null |
In a patient with gouty ahritis, strongly birefringent needle-shaped crystals with negative elongation in synl fuid aspiration are composed of:September 2007 | [
"Monosodium urate",
"Calcium pyrophosphate",
"Homogentisic acid",
"Sodium pyrophosphate"
] | A | Ans. A: Monosodium UrateGout is a metabolic disease most often affecting middle-aged to elderly men and postmenopausal women. It is the result of an increased body pool of urate with hyperuricemia.It is typically characterized by episodic acute and chronic ahritis, due to deposition of Monosodium urate (MSU) crystals in joints and connective tissue tophi, and the risk for deposition in kidney interstitium or uric acid nephrolithiasis.If the clinical appearance strongly suggests gout, the diagnosis should be confirmed by needle aspiration of acutely or chronically involved joints or tophaceous deposits.Acute septic ahritis, several of the other crystalline-associated ahropathies, palindromic rheumatism, and psoriatic ahritis may present with similar clinical features.During acute gouty attacks, strongly birefringent needle-shaped MSU crystals with negative elongation are typically seen both intracellularly and extracellularly.Synol fluid cell counts are elevated from 2000 to 60,000/ | train | med_mcqa | null |
The difference between hyoscine and atropine is that hyoscine: | [
"Exes depressant effects on the CNS at relatively low doses",
"Exes more potent effects on the hea than on the eye",
"Is longer acting",
"Has weaker antimotion sickness activity"
] | A | ATROPINE HYOSCINE CNS EFFECT : AT LOW DOSE : EXCITATION(MILD) DEPRESSANT AT HIGHT DOSE : EXCITATION AND HALLUCINATION EXCITATION AND HALLUCINATION DURATION LONGER SHOER ANTICHOLINERGIC PROPEY MORE POTENT ON HEA, BRONCHIAL MUSCLES AND INTESTINE MORE POTENT ON EYE AND SECRETORY GLANDS | train | med_mcqa | null |
Auspitz sign is seen in ? | [
"Psoriasis",
"Lichen Planus",
"Vitiligo",
"Contact dermatitis"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Psoriasis See explanation- 5 of session- 5 of Skin of All India 2014-15 pattern of this book. | train | med_mcqa | null |
True about Chick-Main test ? | [
"Phenol is taken as standard",
"Test for efficacy of disinfectant",
"Disinfection in presence of organic matter",
"All of the above"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e., All of the above There is no reliable test available to determine the efficacy of a disinfectant. This is due to the number of parameters which influence disinfectant activity. Traditionally in such tests phenol is taken as the standard. Two impoant tests are :- i) Rideal-Walker test Suspensions containing equal numbers of typhoid bacilli are submitted to action of varying concentration of phenol and of the disinfectant to be tested. The dilution of test disinfectant which sterilises the suspension in given time, divided by the corresponding dilution of phenol, is stated as the phenol coefficient of disinfectant (phenol-1). In this test disinfectant react directly without any organic matter being present. ii) Chick-Main test In this, the disinfectant acts in the presence of organic matter (dried yeast or feces). | train | med_mcqa | null |
Gonococcus resistant structure is | [
"Urethra",
"Testis",
"Fallopian Tube",
"Ampulla of cervix"
] | B | B i.e. Testis | train | med_mcqa | null |
You are working in a PHC and have to send a sample for blood glucose estimation. Which of the following anticoagulant will you use for sending your sample? | [
"EDTA",
"Heparin",
"Potassium oxalate + sodium fluoride",
"Tri Sodium citrate"
] | C | Blood samples for measurement of glucose are taken in Gray l containing Potassium oxalate + sodium fluoride. Enolase enzyme in the glycolysis is inhibited by fluoride so sample is collected in tubes containing fluoride to inhibit glycolysis. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The main corneal mechanism holding the LASIK flap in place after surgery is | [
"Endothelial pump",
"Stromal collagen adhesions",
"Bowman's layer-stromal adhesions",
"Endothelial-Descemet's membrane forces"
] | A | In LASIK surgery after creating a corneal flap and ablating the midstromal tissue , the flap is reposited back without sutures. The main mechanism holding the flap is corneal endothelial pumps. | train | med_mcqa | null |
With Couinad's nomenclature which following segments of liver has an vascularisation - | [
"Segment I",
"Segment II",
"Segment IV",
"Segment VIII"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Segment I | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following statement is true regarding subclavian steal syndrome | [
"Reversal of blood flow in the ipsilateral vertebral artery",
"Reversal of blood flow in the contralateral carotid artery",
"Reversal of blood flow in the contralateral vertebral artery",
"Bilateral reversal of blood flow in the vertebral arteries."
] | A | Subclavian steal syndrome -
is a condition in which there is atherosclerotic occlusion in the first part of the subclavian artery.
Reduction of blood flow in the subclavian artery beyond the stenosis leads to diminished blood flow to of arm vessels.
This leads -to the formation of the collateral vessel from the vertebral artery which serves as a source of blood flow to the arm.
There will be a reversal in the direction of blood flow in the vertebral artery, as the pressure in the vessels of the arm is low. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Gonorrhea is assumed to be caused by gonococcus. Gonococcus can be identified by being: | [
"By the growth on McConkey medium",
"By the fermentation of maltose",
"By the fermentation of glucose",
"Gram positive"
] | C | By the fermentation of glucose | train | med_mcqa | null |
IDDM patient presents with septal perforation of nose with brownish black discharge, probable diagnosis is: | [
"Rhinosporidiosis",
"Aspergillus",
"Leprosy",
"Mucormycosis"
] | D | Mucormycosis is fungal infection of nose and paranasal sinuses which may prove rapidly fatal if untreated. It is seen in uncontrolled diabetes or in those taking immunosuppressive drugs. It presents as black necrotic mass filling the nasal cavity and eroding the septum and hard palate. Treatment is by amphotericin B and surgical debridement. Most common fungal infection of nose is Aspergillosis. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which is not seen in iron deficiency anaemia - | [
"Hyper-segmented neutrophils",
"Hypochromia precedes microcytosis",
"MCHC<50%",
"Commonest cause of anaemia in India"
] | A | <p>The mature neutrophils showing hypersegmentation of their nuclei with cells having six or more nuclear lobes ,is a characteristic finding in megaloblastic anaemia .</p><p>Reference :Davidson&;s principles & practice of medicine 22nd edition pg no1024 </p> | train | med_mcqa | null |
Inguinal hernia with hydrococle is know as | [
"Gibbon's hernia",
"Pantalan's hernia",
"Sliding hernia",
"Norath's hernia"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
All are features of Alpo syndrome, except: | [
"Hematuria",
"Sensorineural hearing loss",
"Lenticonus",
"Hypeelorism"
] | D | Classic Alpo syndrome is with hematuria, sensorineural deafness, and conical deformation of the anterior surface of the lens (lenticonus). Reference: Harrisons Principles of Internal Medicine, 18th Edition, Page 3213 | train | med_mcqa | null |
The 'heel effect' results | [
"In low intensity X-ray beam on anode side of central ray",
"In high intensity beam of X-rays towards cathode",
"Both of them are true",
"None of the above are true"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following statements about the vagus nerve are true except that it | [
"Supplies hea & lung",
"Carries postganglionic parasympathetic fibers",
"Innervates right two third of transverse colon",
"Stimulates peristalsis & relaxes sphincters"
] | B | It carries preganglionic secretomotor fibres to the submandibular ganglion for supply of the submandibular and sublingual salivary glands. REF:BDC VOL.3,FIFTH EDITION. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Dihydrouridine is found in | [
"DNA",
"mRNA",
"tRNA",
"rRNA"
] | C | Dihydrouridine (abbreted as D, DHU, or UH2) is a pyrimidine which is the result of adding two hydrogen atoms to a uridine, making it a fully saturated pyrimidine ring with no remaining double bonds. D is found in tRNA and rRNA molecules as a nucleoside; the corresponding nucleobase is 5,6-dihydrouracil Ref- Sathyanarayana 4/e | train | med_mcqa | null |
Substrate level phosphorylation in glycolysis is seen in - | [
"Pyruvate kinase",
"Succinatethiokinase",
"Enolase",
"PDH"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e.. Pyruvate kinase o Amongst the given options, two enzymes induce substrate level phosphorylation :Pyruvate kinase - in glycolysisSuccinate thiokinase - in TCA cycleo Succinyl-CoA is converted to succinate by the enzyme succinate thiokinase (succinyl-CoA synthetase). This is the only example in the citric acid cycle of substrate level phosphorylation. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 23-year-old woman is noticed to have irregular pupils on routine examination. She has 1 large pupil, which has minimal response to light stimulation, but it does respond to accommodation. The eye movements are normal and she experiences no double vision.For the above patient with a pupillary abnormality, select the most likely diagnosis. | [
"essential anisocoria",
"Horner syndrome",
"tonic pupils (Holmes-Adie syndrome)",
"Argyll Robertson pupils"
] | C | The tonic pupil (Holmes-Adie syndrome) is caused by a parasympathetic lesion at or distal to the ciliary ganglion. The pupil is large and usually unilateral, with absent response to light. A bright room, by causing constriction of the normal pupil, accentuates the anisocoria. The tonic pupil can be associated with Shy-Drager syndrome, amyloidosis, or diabetes. However, it is most commonly seen in otherwise healthy young women. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is not seen in black gun powder of Bullet: | [
"Sulphur",
"Charcoal",
"Potassium",
"Nitrocellulose"
] | D | Ans. (d) NitrocelluloseRef: The essentials of FSM by KS Narayan Reddy 31st ed. /197-98Gun powders can be of two types and is made of:Black gun powderSmokeless powderConsists of:* Potassium nitrate 75%* Sulphur 10%* Charcoal 15%Consists of:* Nitrocellulose (single base; gun cotton)* Nitroglycerine + Nitrocellulose* Nitroglycerine + Nitrocellulose + Nitroguanidine (triple base) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Beta hemihydrate particles absorb | [
"more water",
"less water",
"no water",
"none of the above"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Diagnostic of Rabies aEUR' | [
"Guarneri bodies",
"Negri bodies",
"Cowdry A body",
"Bollinger bodies"
] | B | Negri bodies "Negri bodies are pathognomonic for Rabies". - Negri bodies are eosinophilic cytoplasmic inclusion bodies in brain neurons and are composed of randomly oriented rabies virus, nucleocapsids embedded in an amorphous substance or matrix. These inclusions are seen in:? - Purkinje cells of cerebellum - Pyramidal cells of hippocampus Also know:- In Measles Both nuclear and intracytoplasmic bodies can be seen. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following physiological effect is not produced by stimulation of Kappa opioid receptor? | [
"Sedation",
"Diuresis",
"Meiosis",
"Constipation"
] | D | Constipation is due to stimulation of u receptor. The effect of stimulation of Kappa opioid receptor includes analgesia, dieresis, sedation, meiosis and dysphoria. Ref: Review of Medical Physiology by Ganong, 20th Edition, Page 107. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Treatment of biopsy proven CIN 3 in 50yr old woman: | [
"Conisation",
"Hysterectomy",
"Colposcopy with LEEP",
"Trachelectomy"
] | C | When a cytologic specimen suggests the presence of HSIL, colposcopy and directed biopsy should be performed. Although high-grade CIN can be treated with a variety of techniques, the preferred treatment for CIN 2 and 3 is loop electrosurgical excision procedure . Hysterectomy is currently considered too radical for treatment of CIN, however may be offered in presence of a concurrent indication. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following statements about Penicillin Resistance is true, EXCEPT: | [
"b- Lactamase production is the most common mechanism of resistance",
"Alteration in target PBPs is an impoant resistance mechanism in Gram negative bacteria",
"Alteration in permeability / penetration of antibiotic causes resistance only in Gram negative bacteria",
"b-Lactamase production causes resistance i... | B | Alteration in target Penicillin Binding Proteins (PBPs) is an impoant resistance mechanism in gram positive bacteria and not gram negative. It is very unusual to encounter Gram Negative bacteria that have acquired Resistance to b -Lactam Antibiotics due to an alteration in target (Penicillin Binding Proteins). Ref: Antimicrobial Resistance : A Crisis in Health Care By Jungkind, Page 17; Jawetz, Melnick and Adelberg's Medical microbiology, 23rd Edition, Page 175. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 22-year-old woman develops an acute contact dermatitis to a household-cleaning agent. Which of the following treatments is most appropriate during the bullous, oozing stage? | [
"wet dressings",
"systemic corticosteroids",
"topical anesthetics",
"systemic antibiotics"
] | A | Ointments are not used, but wet dressings are applied several times a day, using Burow solution or boric acid, and baths are also included in the treatment. The key aspect of care is prevention. When contamination does occur, washing the affected area is the first mode of treatment. Oral corticosteroids are only used in severe cases. In less severe cases, topical class I glucocorticoid preparations can be helpful. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following are true about H-files EXCEPT | [
"They have good cutting efficiency",
"They are fragile and tend to break easily",
"They are used in torquing action",
"They have more positive rake angle"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
A patient comes with hematemesis and melena. On the upper GI endoscopy, there were no significant findings. 2-days later the patient rebleeds. Next line of investigation is | [
"Emergency angiography",
"Repeat upper GI endoscopy",
"Eteroscopy",
"Laprotomy"
] | D | In case of intermittent upper GI bleeding for which no source has been found endoscopically or radiologically, laparotomy is done to see any missed common cause or angiodysplasia or for any obscure causes. SRB edition 5th page no .992 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Increased alkaline phosphate in seen in -a) Multiple myelomab) Primary hyperparathyroidismc) Chronic renal failured) Osteoporosis | [
"a",
"c",
"bc",
"ad"
] | C | Whenever the activity of osteoblasts increase, serum alkaline phosphatase is raised. Therefore, serum alkaline phosphatase acts as an index of osteoblastic activity.
The conditions in which osteoblastic activity is increased and hence the alkaline phosphatase in increased are : -
Rickets/osteomalacia
Primary hyperparathyroidism
Renal osteodystrophy (secondary hyperparathyroidism)
Chronic renal failure and secondary hyperparathyroidism
Paget's disease (osteitis deformans)
Osteoblastic secondaries | train | med_mcqa | null |
Following is an example of unusual base: | [
"Dihydrouracil",
"Adenine",
"Guanine",
"Uracil"
] | A | Dihydrouracil is an unusual base. The usual bases: Adenine guanine thymine uracil cytosine | train | med_mcqa | null |
Base stalking of DNA is done by: | [
"Linear dichromicity",
"Hypochromicity",
"Hyperchromicity",
"Electrophoresis"
] | C | Hyperchromicity | train | med_mcqa | null |
Oral submucous fibrosis is diagnosed by | [
"Juxta, epithelial fibrosis (Changes)",
"Changes in epithelium",
"Changes in submucosa",
"All of the above"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following causes bony ankylosis | [
"TB",
"Septic ahritis",
"Gouty ahritis",
"Behcet's disease"
] | B | CAUSES OF BONY ANKYLOSIS : TRAUMA HEMAHROSIS SUPPURATIVE AHRITIS RHEUMATOID AHRITIS OSTEOMYLITIS FRACTURE OF CONDYLE REF : MAHESWARI 9TH ED | train | med_mcqa | null |
Cillia can transport radiolabelled particle in antrum with: | [
"1-20dm/min",
"20-30mm/sec",
"1-20mm/ min.",
"20-30mm/min"
] | C | Cilia can transport radiolabeled particles an average of 6mm/min, with a range of 1-20mm/min. Thus this transport can clear inhaled particles from nasal cavity in 10-20 min. | train | med_mcqa | null |
False regarding delirium tremens | [
"Tremors",
"Opthalmoplegia",
"Visual hallucination",
"Clouding of consciousness"
] | B | The classic sign of alcohol withdrawal is tremulousness, although the spectrum of symptoms can expand to include psychotic and perceptual symptoms (e.g., delusions and hallucinations) & seizures. In addition to the symptoms of delirium, the features of alcohol intoxication delirium include autonomic hyperactivity such as tachycardia, diaphoresis, fever, anxiety, insomnia, and hypeension; perceptual distoions, most frequently visual or tactile hallucinations; and fluctuating levels of psychomotor activity, ranging from hyperexcitability to lethargy. Reference: Kaplan & Sadock's Synopsis of Psychiatry: Behavioral Sciences/Clinical Psychiatry, 11th Edition, page 631. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following tests would be most beneficial in the diagnosis of a patient suspected of having chronic granulomatous disease of childhood? | [
"E rosette - forming assay",
"Cell-mediated cytolysis",
"Nitroblue tetrazolium (NBT) test",
"Determination of CD4: CD8 ratio"
] | C | Patients with the chronic granulomatous disease, a sex-linked recessive disease, are deficient in phagocyte function. The neutrophils/ monocytes lack reduced nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide phosphate (NADPH) oxidase, a critical enzyme that is needed for the production of reactive oxygen intermediates (ROIs) responsible for the respiratory burst. Nitroblue tetrazolium (NBT) is a pale yellow dye that accepts H+ and is reduced as a result of NADPH oxidation to a blue intracellular precipitate. In the NBT test, peripheral blood neutrophils take up the dye after a stimulus (latex beads or other paicles). Failure of the cells to reduce the NBT dye to a blue color is consistent with a diagnosis of chronic granulomatous disease.E rosette-formation is a historically impoant assay for identification of human lymphocytes. T cells have a receptor (CO2) by which they are able to bind sheep erythrocytes (E). A lymphocyte with several erythrocytes attached to it has the appearance of a rosette. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A patient present painful vesicles in ear, and tongue. He is also complaining of facial weakness and hearing loss. Dignosis is - | [
"Fungal infection",
"Chicken pox",
"Ramsay hunt syndrome",
"None"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Ramsay hunt syndromeRamsay hunt syndromeo It is lower motor neuron type of facial palsy due to Varicella (herpes) zoster. Pain is often a prominent feature and vesicles are seen in the ipsilateral ear, on the hard palate and/or on anterior two third of tongue. It may involve other cranial nerves-V, VIII, IX and X and cervical branches (C2, C3 & C4) that have anastomotic communications with facial nerve. This results in features like:Anaesthesia of faceGiddinessHearing impairment along with VII nerve palsy.o The mechanism of disease is reactivation of the latent varicella zoster virus in the geniculate ganglion. The onset of palsy is preceeded by pain which may persist & become excruciating. When the rash is absent it is known as zoster sine herpete.o The prognosis of Ramsay Hunt syndromr is worse than Bells palsy. Persistent weakness is observed in 30-50% of patients and only 10% recover completely after complete loss of function without treatment.o Treatment recommended is prednisone (steroid) combined with acyclvir. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Disease(s) transmitted by Aedes aegypti include? | [
"Yellow fever",
"Dengue",
"Chikungunya fever",
"All"
] | D | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Yellow fever; 'b' i.e., Dengue; 'c' i.e.. Chikungunva fever | train | med_mcqa | null |
Embryologically corneal stroma is derived from which of the following layers? | [
"Neural crest",
"Ectoderm",
"Mesoderm",
"Endoderm"
] | A | Corneal stroma, keratocytes and endothelium is derived from the Neural crest. | train | med_mcqa | null |
True about beta blockers all except: | [
"Postural hypotension",
"Bradycardia",
"Glucagon used for toxicity.",
"Lipid soluble drug {cause bad dreams)"
] | A | Ref: Goodman and Gilman's "Pharmacological Basis of Therapeutics " 12th edExplanation:Beta blockers do not commonly cause postural hypotension.Postural hypotension is commonly seen with alpha blockers.Alpha-receptor antagonists often cause orthostatic hypotension and reflex tachycardia.Orthostatic hypotension is due to antagonism of sympathetic nervous system stimulation of a 1 receptors in vascular smooth muscle.Contraction of veins is an important component of the normal capacity to maintain blood pressure in the upright position since it decreases venous pooling in the periphery.Tachycardia may be more marked with agents that block a 2presynaptic receptors in the heart, since the augmented release of norepinephrine will further stimulate a receptors in the heart.Beta blocker side effectsBradycardia is a normal response to beta receptor blockade; however, in patients with partial or complete AV conduction defects, beta antagonists may cause life-threatening bradyarrhyth mias.Symptoms of peripheral vascular disease may worsen, although this is uncommon, or Raynaud's phenomenon may develop.The number of receptors on circulating lymphocytes is increased in subjects who have received propranolol for long periods; pindolol has the opposite effect.CNS side effects may include fatigue, sleep disturbances (including insomnia and nightmares), and depression and is related to lipophilicity.Glucagon is the drug of choice for beta blocker overdoseBeta Receptor antagonists block catecholamine- induced tremor.They also block inhibition of mast-cell degranulation by catecholamines. | train | med_mcqa | null |
When gratification is obtained by rubbing pelvic area or penis against non-consenting female, usually in public places which are crowded is known as | [
"Transvestism",
"Frotteurism",
"Fetishism",
"Voyeurism"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
In treatment of Osteosarcoma all of the following are used except (REPEAT) | [
"High dose Methotrexate",
"Cycloohosphamide",
"Vincristine",
"Doxorubicin"
] | C | Though surgery is the form of primary treatment in Osteosarcoma but etoposide cycloohosphamide, Cisplatin, Doxorubicin have been used High dose Methotrexate has been the drug of choice and is the only FDA approved agent for this condition Ref Katzung 10th/891 | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following statements about prenatal steroids are true except – | [
"They cause 50% reduction in respiratory distress syndrome and intraventricular haemorrhage",
"These are advocated to mothers at risk of preterm delivery at 24–34 weeks of gestation.",
"These can be safely administered to mothers with hypertension or diabetes.",
"These can be given even in the presence of cho... | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
False about signal recognition paicle ? | [
"SRP R is a docking protein",
"SRP-SRP R are GTP bound",
"Binding of signal sequence to SRP resumes translation",
"Sec 61 complex is a 3 membrane protein conducting channel"
] | C | Binding of a signal sequence to SRP temporarily blocks the translation SIGNAL RECOGNITION: Signal recognition sequence originates from ribosomes & bind to SRP. This causes temporary arrest in elongation of translation. SRP guides the protein to SRP-R. SRP-ribosome -nascent protein binds to SRP-R then SRP guides the protein to SRP-R. The SRP is released from SRP-R. The ribosome binds to sec 61 complex ( translocon ), then the signal peptide gets inseed into the channel in translocon and translation resumes. Interaction of SRP - SRP-R occurs GTP hydrolysis Reference: Harper; 30th edition | train | med_mcqa | null |
What are gitter cells - | [
"Astrocytes",
"Macroglia",
"Modified macrophages in CNS",
"Oligodendrocytes"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
The condition with postmoem cervical disc prolapse at C 6-7 is described as - | [
"Battle's sign",
"Amistane sign",
"Nutcracker's sign",
"Undeaker's fracture"
] | D | The Essentials Forensic Medicine & Toxicology Dr.K.S. Narayana Reddy 32nd edition pg no 106 UNDEAKER&;S FRACTURE is caused due to the head falling backward faorcibly after death,which tears open one of the interveebral disc usually around C6-7 due to sublaxation of lower cervical spine occurs. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most appropriate drug used in the management of chelating iron in beta thalassemia major is | [
"Oral desferrioxamine",
"Oral deferiprone",
"Intra muscular EDTA",
"Oral succimer"
] | B | Deferiprone and Deferasirox are oral chelators used for beta-thalassaemia. Reference : Medicine, Prep Manual for UG, George Mathew, 5th Edition, page no : 33. | train | med_mcqa | null |
When in labor, a diagnosis of occipito posterior presentation is made. The most appropriate management would be: | [
"Emergency CS",
"Wait and watch for progress of labor",
"Early rupture of membranes",
"Start oxytoicn drip"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Prolonged carbohydrate deficiency leads to? | [
"Metabolic alkalosis",
"Ketoacidosis",
"Vitamin C deficiency",
"Respiratory acidosis"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Allocation concealment is not possible in a research study conducted on the effects of Risperodone at NIMHANS, Bangalore. Selection bias in a study can be eliminated by which of the following procedures? | [
"Randomization",
"Single blinding",
"Double blinding",
"Matching"
] | A | Two strategies are used to reduce selection bias: allocation concealment and randomization. The ideal strategy to eliminate selection bias is randomization. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Compound nevi with dysplasia is: | [
"Clarks nevi.",
"Spitz nevi.",
"Blue nevi.",
"None."
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
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