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The mode of inheritance of incontinentia pigment is : | [
"Autosomal dominant",
"Autosomal recessive",
"X- linked dominant",
"X- linked recessive"
] | C | C i.e. X linked dominant | train | med_mcqa | null |
The quadrangular space is bounded by the following structures, except the- | [
"Surgical neck of the humerus",
"Long head of triceps",
"Deltoid",
"Teres major"
] | C | Ans. C. DeltoidTHE QUADRANGULAR AND TRIANGULAR SPACESa. Anteriorly, the quadrangular space is bounded by subscapularis, the capsule of the shoulder joint and teres minor above, teres major below, the long head of triceps medially, and the surgical neck of the humerus laterally.b. Posteriorly, the quadrangular space is bounded above by teres minor. The axillary nerve and the posterior circumflex artery and vein pass through the space. There are two triangular spaces. The upper triangular space is bounded above by subscapularis anteriorly, teres minor posteriorly, teres major below, and the long head of triceps laterally.c. The circumflex scapular artery passes through this space. The lower triangular space (triangular interval) is bounded above by subscapularis anteriorly and teres major posteriorly; the long head of triceps medially and the humerus laterally. The radial nerve and the profunda brachii vessels pass through this space. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Stratum lucidum is present between which two layers? | [
"Corneum and granulosum",
"Granulosum and spinosum",
"Spinous and basale",
"Basal and subbasale"
] | A | Ans. (a) Corneum and granulosumRef: Rooks 8th ed ch:3 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Structure not passing through the esophageal hiatus | [
"Left phrenic nerve",
"Left gastric aery",
"Left vagus nerve",
"Right vagus nerve"
] | A | the esophageal hiatus is an opening in the diaphragm through which the esophagus and the vagus nerve pass. It is located in the right crus, one of the two tendinous structures that connect the diaphragm to the spine. Fibers of the right crus cross one another below the hiatus Left Phrenic Nerve Passes anteriorly over the medial pa of the left subclan aery. ... Crosses the aoic arch and bypasses the vagus nerve. Coursesalong the pericardium of the leftventricle. Pierces and innervates the inferior surface of the diaphragm | train | med_mcqa | null |
All are true about Thoracolumbar facia except: | [
"Attached to spinus process of lumbar veebra",
"Attached to transverse process of lumbar veerbra",
"The facia lies posterior to posterior abdominal wall muscles.",
"Gives attachment to Transverse abdominal and Internal oblique"
] | C | C i.e. The fascia lies posterior to posterior abdominal wall musclesThe muscles of posterior abdominal wall are psoas major & minor, iliacus, & quadratus lumborum. And the thoracolumber fascia lies both anterior & posterior (not only posterior) to the muscles of posterior abdominal wall Q | train | med_mcqa | null |
Surest sign of brain stem death | [
"Absent Doll's eye reflex",
"Fixed dilated pupil not reacting to light",
"Cheyne Stokes breathing",
"Decerebrate posture"
] | B | B i.e. Fixed dilated pupil not responding to light Cooling of body & rigor mois is a sign of molecular or cellular death. - Somatic (systemic, clinical or brain) death is cessation of spontaneous breathing, circulation and brain activity (as indicated by flat isoelectric EEG, deep unconsciousness with no response to external stimuli or internal need). Surest sign of brain stem death is fixed dilated pupil not constricting (responding) to light.Q | train | med_mcqa | null |
In DNA, Adenine pairs with - | [
"Guanine",
"Thymine",
"Cytosine",
"Uracil"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Thymine o Adenine is always paired with thymine by the formation of two hydrogen bonds. Guanine is always paired with cytosine by the formation of three hydrogen bonds. Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) o DNA is the repository of genetic information. DNA is located in nucleus, DNA is also present in mitochondria (but less than 0.1% of the total DNA). Most accepted model for DNA structure is "Watson and Crick" model. Which was proposed by Watson and Crick in 1953. We will discuss that here, o DNA is a double-stranded molecule. Each strand is a polymer of nucleotides (deoxyTibonucleotides). Each strand possesses a palority. It has a 31 end and a 51 end. The two strands are antiparalleh i.e. they are parallel but run in opposite directions. o The sugar of DNA is deoxyribose. The purine bases in DNA are adenine (A) and Guanine (G), and pyrimidines are thymine (T) and cytosine (C). Uracil (U), a pyrimidine, is not found in DNA. o Bonds involved in DNA structure are - Within nucleotides: the Glycosidic bond between carbon-1 of the pentose sugar (deoxyribose) and nitrogen-9 of a purine base or nitrogen-1 of the pyrimidine base. Between two strands of DNA: The two chains (strands) are held together by hydrogen bonds between complementary pairs of bases. Adenine is always paired with thymine by the formation of two hydrogen bonds and Guanine is always paired with cytosine by the formation of three hydrogen bonds, Between successive nucleotides: Successive nucleotides in a strand of DNA are attached to each other by phosphodiester bonds. Carbon-31 and -51 of deoxyribose subunits are involved in ester linkages with an inorganic phosphate to form a 31, S' phosphodiester bond (a covalent bond). Thus alternating phosphate and deoxyribose units form the backbone structure of DNA while purine and pyrimidine bases are stacked inside. Base-staking interactions: The bases (purines and pyrimidines) lie flat in the interior, stacked on top of one another. They interact with one another through van der Waals and hydrophobic interactions. Collectively these two are known as base-stacking interactions. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All are true about communicability of Malaria, except - | [
"The number of gametocytes in blood increases with time",
"Gametocytes appear in blood 4-5 days after the appearance of the asexual parasite, in vivax infection.",
"Gametocytes appear in blood 10-12 days after the appearance of asexual parasite, in falciparum infection",
"In the early stage of infection, thei... | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e. The number of gametocytes in blood increases with time A malarial parasite (Plasmodium) has got 2 hostsMan is the intermediate hostMosquito is the definitive hostPlasmodium undergoes 2 cycles of development -the asexual or human cyclethe sexual or mosquito cycleThe mosquito cycle begins when a mosquito feeds on an infected mass and ingests gametocytesMalaria is communicable as long as mature, viable gametocytes exist in the human circulating blood in sufficient density to infect vector mosquitoes.In P. vivax infections, gametocytes appear in blood 4-5 days after the appearance of the asexual parasites.In P. falciparum infections gametocytes appear 10-12 days after the first appearance of asexual parasites.Gametocytes are the most numerous during the early stage of infection when their density may exceed 1000 per cubic mm of blood.They also tend to occur in waves in blood. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A HIV positive patient presents with cough for 10 days. Sputum culture by SDA reveals broad budding yeast, diagnosis: | [
"Histoplasma capsulatum",
"Blastomycosis",
"Coccidiodomycosis",
"Paracoccidiomycosis"
] | B | In AIDS patients fungal infections by dimorphic fungi are more common. Of the following options all four other dimorphic fungi but the yeast stage with broad-based cells is seen only in blastomycosis histoplasma shows narrow base yeast cells. In coccidioidomycosis endospore, spherules are formed and in paracoccidioidomycosis, Mickey Mouse type of cells are seen. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which vitamine deficiency can lead to neonatal seizure | [
"Thiamine",
"Riboflavin",
"Pyridoxine",
"Biotin"
] | C | (C) Pyridoxine > Deficiency of pyridoxine can lead to seizures and peripheral neuropathy.* Clinical features include failure to thrive hyperirritability hyperacusis hypochromic microcytic anemia nausea and vomiting* Daily recommended dose is 0.5-1 .Omg/day | train | med_mcqa | null |
Tattoing in entry wound of a firearm injury is due to- | [
"Burning",
"Smoke",
"Gun powder",
"Wads"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Gun powder AssociateInjury causedRange1. FlameBuring (Singeing) of hair Buring/melting/ironing of clothesShot gun -15 cm Rifled weapon - 8 cm2. HeatScrotching of skinShot gun -15 cm Rifled weapon - 8 cm3. Smoke and carbon particlesBlackeing Smoke deposition (Smudging/fouling)30 cm4. Gun powder (unburnt and partly burnt)Tattooing (stippling/pepping)60 - 90 cm5. Wads (in shotgun)Abrasion/contusion5 yards | train | med_mcqa | null |
In comparison to inhaled adrenergic agonists, the inhaled anticholinergics: | [
"Are more effective in bronchial astham",
"Are better suited for control of an acute attack of asthma",
"Produce slower response in bronchial asthma",
"Produce little benefit in chronic obstructive lung disease"
] | C | (Ref: KDT 6/e p222) Anticholinergic drugs like ipratropium and tiotropium produce slower response in bronchial asthma. Anticholinergic drugs are more effective in COPD than bronchila asthma. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 60-year-old male diabetic and smoker came with 3 hours of substernal pain. Which of the following statements is true regarding his ECG? | [
"Hea rate is 45/min",
"ECG shows acute anterior myocardial infarction",
"Patient should be given IV lidocaine",
"ECG is suggestive of hypokalemia"
] | B | The hea rate of the patient is about 75 BPM. The current ECG shows presence of ST elevation in lead I, aVL and the precordial leads V2-V5 suggestive of anterior wall MI Patient should be given lidocaine, in case of post-Ml ventricular tachycardia ST elevation and Tall tented T waves should be present in all leads. P wave should disappear. qRS should be wide complex. These findings suggestive of HyperK+ not hypoK+ | train | med_mcqa | null |
Zoonotic diseases are all except - | [
"Typhoid",
"Anthrax",
"Rabies",
"Q fever"
] | A | Enteric fever causing Salmonellae like S. Typhi and S. Paratyphi are exclusively human Pathogens. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The drug used in petit mal seizures and has a narrow spectrum of antiepileptic activity is: | [
"Lamotrigine",
"Ethosuximide",
"Sodium valproate",
"Primidone"
] | B | Ethosuximide is paicularly effective against absence seizures but has a very narrow spectrum of clinical activity. Documentation of its effectiveness in human absence seizures was achieved with long-term electroencephalographic recording techniques.Ethosuximide has an impoant effect on Ca2+ currents, reducing the low-threshold (T-type) current. This effect is seen at therapeutically relevant concentrations in thalamic neurons. The T-type Ca2+ currents are thought to provide a pacemaker current in thalamic neurons responsible for generating the rhythmic coical discharge of an absence attack. Inhibition of this current could, therefore, account for the specific therapeutic action of ethosuximide. A recently described effect on inwardly rectifying K + channels may also be significant.Reference: Katzung Pharmacology; 13th edition; Chapter 24; Antiseizure Drugs | train | med_mcqa | null |
Retained mandibular deciduous central incisors will 10
result in | [
"Lingual eruption of mandibular permanent incisors",
"Labial eruption of mandibular permanent incisors",
"Impaction of mandibular permanent incisors",
"Ankylosis of mandibular permanent incisors"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Innermost stratum of tear film is: | [
"Mucus layer",
"Aqueous layer",
"Oily layer",
"None of the above"
] | A | Ans. Mucus layer | train | med_mcqa | null |
Schwannoma arises most frequently from: | [
"Vestibular Nerve",
"Trigeminal nerve",
"Cochlear Nerve",
"Facial Nerve"
] | A | A schwannoma (also known as acoustic neuroma, acoustic neurinoma, or acoustic neurilemoma) is a benign, usually slow-growing tumor that develops from the vestibular nerves supplying the inner ear. The tumor comes from an overproduction of Schwann cells--the cells that normally wrap around nerve fibers like onion skin to help suppo and insulate nerves. As the vestibular schwannoma grows, it presses against the hearing and balance nerves, usually causing unilateral (one-sided) or asymmetric hearing loss, tinnitus (ringing in the ear), and dizziness/loss of balance. It comprises 5-10% of all intracranial neoplasms in adults. Incidence peaks in the fifth and sixth decades and both sexes are affected equally. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Blood supply of premolars comes from: | [
"Same source as that of molars",
"Same source as that of anteriors",
"Posterior superior alveolar artery",
"Both 1 and 3"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following are features of MEN IIa, except - | [
"Pituitary tumor",
"Pheochromocytoma",
"Medullary carcinoma thyroid",
"Parathyroid hyperplasia"
] | A | MEN 2A includes Primary hyperparathyroidism, Medullary carcinoma of thyroid and Pheochromocytoma. MEN 2B syndrome includes medullary carcinoma thyroid, pheochromocytoma along with phenotypic changes including marfanoid habitus, skeletal abnormalities, abnormal dental enamel, multiple mucosal neuromas.Pituitary tumours are a pa of MEN 1 (Wermer's )syndrome along with Primary hyperparathyroidism and Pancreatic neuro-endocrine tumours (insulinomas, gastrinomas). Reference : page 795 Davidson's Principles and practice of Medicine 22nd edition and page 829 Textbook of pathology Harshmohan 6th edition | train | med_mcqa | null |
Brodmann&;s area number for motor area | [
"4 & 6",
"1, 2, 3",
"5 & 7",
"16 & 18"
] | A | The cerebral hemisphere is divided into several areas, called Brodmann Areas. Each cerebral hemisphere contains a total of &;47&; such areas. The area between central sulcus and precentral sulcus is called pre-central gyrus; the motor area of the brain (Brodmann area 4).Ref: Textbook of physiology, Dir. Prof. AK Jain, 5th edition | train | med_mcqa | null |
Hormone replacement therapy is not given for:(AIIMS May 2013, Nov 2011) | [
"Urogenital atrophy",
"Vasomotor symptoms",
"Prevention of osteoporosis",
"Prevention of CAD"
] | D | Ans. d. Prevention of CAD (Ref: Novak's Gynae 14/e p1330-1333)Normal women have ovarian failure or menopause, at a mean age of 51 years, with 95 percent becoming menopausal between the ages of 45 to 55 years.Estrogen is the most effective treatment available for relief of the menopausal symptoms that many women experience, including hot flashes, vaginal dryness, urinary symptoms, and emotional lability.However, data from the Women's Health Initiative showed no cardiovascular benefit with unopposed estrogen and a small increase in risk with combined therapy.Estrogen is an option for the prevention of osteoporosis in perimenopausal women, estrogen-progesterone therapy reduces fracture risk at a cost of increase in the incidence of breast cancer, coronary heart disease, stroke and venous thromboembolism, or in the case unopposed estrogen, an increase in stroke and thromboembolism.At this time, post-menopausal hormone therapy, either unopposed estrogen or combined estrogen-progestin therapy should not be initiated for prevention of CUD.Hormone Replacement TherapyEstrogen is the most effective treatment available for relief of the menopausal symptoms that many women experience, including hot flashes, vaginal dryness, urinary symptoms, and emotional lability.However, data from the Women's Health Initiative showed no cardiovascular benefit with unopposed estrogen and a small increase in risk with combined therapy.Estrogen is an option for the prevention of osteoporosis in perimenopausal women, estrogen-progesterone therapy reduces fracture risk at a cost of increase in the incidence of breast cancer, coronary heart disease, stroke and venous thromboembolism, or in the case unopposed estrogen, an increase in stroke and thromboembolism.At this time, pwst-menopausal hormone therapy, either unopposed estrogen or combined estrogen-progestin therapy should not be initiated for prevention of CHD.In addition, postmenopausal hormone therapy is no longer considered to be first line drug for prevention and treatment of osteoporosis.Bisphosphonates or raloxifene are recommended as first line drugs for prevention and bisphosphonates for treatment of established osteoporosis. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The recommended treatment for preputial adhesions producing ballooning of prepuce during micturition in a 2-year-old boy is - | [
"Wait and watch policy",
"Circumcision",
"Dorsal slit",
"Preputial adhesions release and dilatation"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Circumcision o Ballooning of prepuce during micturition is suggestive of phimosis.Phimosis# When the opening of the prepuce is so small that it cannot be retracted over the glans penis, the condition is called phimosis.# Phimosis is of two types1. Congenital2. Acquired - It usually presents late in life and is associated with: -a) Inflammation*b) T rauma*c) Balanitis xerotica obliteransd) CancerClinical features# Difficulty in micturition : It is the main symptom. In a case of typically congenital phimosis the mother complains that when the child micturates the prepuce balloons out and the urine comes out in thin stream.# In old cases patient presents withi) Recurrent balanitis (inflammation of glans) causing pain and purulent dischargeii) Paraphimosis (the tight foreskin gets retracted and stuck behind the glans penis)Complicationsa. Balanoposthitis - (inflammation of glans and prepuce)b. Prepucial stones or calculus -c. Paraphimosisd. Hydroureter, hydronephrosise. Carcinomao Treatment- the treatment is circumcision*Note - If phimosis is associated with considerable infection dorsal slit is performed | train | med_mcqa | null |
A male patient is observed to be HBs Ag antigen positive HBe Ag antigen negative and anti-HBe antibody positive. HBV DNA copies are observed to be 100,000/m1 while SGOT and SGPT are elevated to 6 times the upper limit of normal value. What is the likely diagnosis: | [
"HBV surface mutant",
"HBV precore mutant",
"Wild HBs Ag",
"Inactive HBV carrier"
] | B | Answer is B (HBV pre-core mutant) Evidence of chronic active hepatitis B (suggested by elevated liver enzymes) in a patients with detectable HBV DNA but negative HBe Ag suggests a diagnosis of precore mutant chronic hepatitis B Precore mutant chronic hepatitis B Precore mutant form of chronic hepatitis B represents an infection with a molecular variant of the hepatitis B virus that results in an unusual serologic -- clinical profile. Such patients have severe chronic hepatitis B infection with detectable HBV DNA levels, but HBe Ag antigen is typically negative This results from an infection with an HBV mutant that contains an alteration in the precore regions rendering the virus incapable of encoding HBe Ag Patients with such mutations in the precore region are unable to secrete HBc Ag, have a negative HBe Ag phenotype but tend to have severe liver disease that progresses more rapidly to cirrhosis Characteristic' of such HBe Ag negative (precore mutant) chronic hepatitis B are lower levels of HBV DNA (< 105 copies /m1) and one of several patterns of aminotransferase activity -- persistent elevation, periodic fluctuation above the normal range and periodic fluctuations between the normal and elevated range HBe Ag negative chronic hepatitis B with mutation in the pre-core region is now the most frequently encountered form of hepatitis B in the Mediterranean countries and in Europe. HBs Ag Anti HBs Antibody Anti HBc Antibody HBe Ag Anti HBe Antibody HBV DNA Acute Hepatitis B (early) + + - + Acute Hepatitis B - (window period) - IgM + - + - Acute Hepatitis B (recovery) + + IgG - + ? Chronic Hepatitis B, high replication - IgG + - + Chronic Hepatitis B, low/non-replicati Ye phase - IgG - + - Chronic Hepatitis B Precore Mutant - IgG 4- + Chronic Hepatitis B inactive carrier + - IgG - +7- Low-level + Chronic hepatitis B reactivation + - IgM + - Hepatitis B vaccine - - - | train | med_mcqa | null |
Hallpike test is done for: | [
"Vestibular function",
"Tinnitus",
"Veigo",
"Facial weakness"
] | C | The Dix-Hallpike test -- or Nylen-Barany test -- is a diagnostic maneuver used to identify benign paroxysmal positional veigo (BPPV). | train | med_mcqa | null |
Referred ear pain may travel through all except | [
"Trigeminal nerve",
"Glossopharyngeal nerve",
"Abducens nerve",
"Vagus nerve"
] | C | Referred pain travels trigeminal nerve, glossopharyngeal nerve and vagus nerve Ref: PL DHINGRA diseases of ear nose and throat,6th edition, page no 128 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Many young adults & children are admitted in emergency depament with complaint of exacerbation of asthma on may 2nd, which is a very hot day. There is no history of chronic bronchitis/ hea diseases among these patients. Which of the following pollutant is most common cause of this condition? | [
"Ozone",
"Carbon dioxide",
"Nitrogen dioxide",
"Sulphur oxide"
] | A | Given clinical scenario suggest towards the pollutant Ozone Ozone: Ozone at ground level is one of the major constituents of photochemical smog. It is formed by photochemical reaction of sunlight with pollutants such as nitrogen oxides from vehicle, industry emissions and volatile organic compounds (VOCs) . Highest levels of ozone pollution occurs during periods of sunny weather. Excessive ozone in the air can have a marked effect on human health. It can cause breathing problems, trigger asthma, reduce lung function and cause lung diseases. Other impoant pollutants are carbon monoxide, carbon dioxide, hydrogen sulphide, sulphur dioxide, sulphur trioxide, nitrogen oxides etc. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All statements about papillary thyroid cancer are true except: | [
"It is the most common subtype of thyroid cancer",
"The most common variant, and the one most liable to misdiagnosis is follicular variant",
"Is not associated with radiation as a risk factor",
"Diagnosis is made by the presence of nuclear finding and not on papillae formation"
] | C | Discussing options one by one: OPTION 1 - TRUE - Papillary thyroid cancer is most common subtype of thyroid cancer OPTION 2 - TRUE - Follicular variant of papillary cancer is most common type & is easily misdiagnosed as follicular ca. OPTION 3 - FALSE - RET-PTC gene mutation & radiation exposure are most impoant risk factors. OPTION 4 - TRUE - Its diagnosis is made by presence of nuclear finding like Orphan Annie eye nuclei, intranuclear inclusions ("pseudo-inclusions") ,intranuclear grooves & not on papillae formation. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Sebaceous cell carcinoma of the lids arises from: | [
"Meibomian gland",
"Sebaceous gland of eyebrows",
"Caruncle",
"All of the above"
] | D | Ans. All of the above | train | med_mcqa | null |
In venturi mask maximum 02 concentration attained is | [
"90%",
"100%",
"60%",
"80%"
] | C | In Venturi mask normal O2 concentration is between 24 and 60% . In non breathing masks oxygen saturation is between 80 and 90%. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following anti hypertensives act by decreasing heart rate only? | [
"Propranolol",
"Methyl dopa",
"Prazosin",
"Nitrate"
] | A | Ans: a (Propranolol) Ref: Katzung, 10th ed, p. 160Beta blockers decrease heart rate, force of contraction and cardiac output, this leads to decrease in blood pressure.Drugs used in hypertension are:1) Diuretics - Low-dose thiazide diuretics are often used as first-line agents, alone or in combination with other antihypertensive drugs e.g., hydrochlorthiazide, chlorthalidone.2) ACE-inhibitors and angiotensin receptor blockers - ACE inhibitors decrease the production of angiotensin n, increase bradykinin levels, and reduce sympathetic nervous system activity. Angiotensin II receptor blockers provide selective blockade of AT1 receptors.3) Beta Blockers - a adrenergic receptor blockers lower blood pressure by decreasing cardiac output, due to a reduction of heart rate and contractility. Other actions include renin inhibition.4) Calcium Channel Blockers - Calcium channel antagonists reduce vascular resistance through L- channel blockade, which reduces intracellular calcium and blunts vasoconstriction.5) Aldosterone Antagonists - It may be a particularly effective agent in patients with low-renin essential hypertension, resistant hypertension, and primary aldosteronism.The newer agent, eplerenone, which is a selective aldosterone antagonist have lesser side effects than spironolactone.6) a adrenergic blockers - They lower blood pressure by decreasing peripheral vascular resistance.7) Sympatholytic Agents - Centrally acting a2 agonists lower blood pressure by inhibiting sympathetic outflow and thereby decreasing peripheral resistance e.g., clonidine.8) Direct vasodilators - These agents decrease peripheral resistance.Hydralazine is a potent direct vasodilator.S/e: lupus-like syndrome.Minoxidil is another vasodilator and is most frequently used in patients with renal insufficiency that is refractory to all other drugs.S/e: hypertrichosis and pericardial effusion.9) Adrenergic neuron-blocking agents-These drugs lower blood pressure by preventing normal physiological release of norepinephrine from postganglionic sympathetic neurons.E.g. Guanethidine, reserpine | train | med_mcqa | null |
Sebaceous gland activity is mainly controlled by which hormone- | [
"Estrogen",
"Androgens",
"Progesterone",
"Coisole"
] | B | Sebaceous glands:Lipid producing glands. Arise from hair follicle at the junction if infundibulum and isthmus. A sebaceous gland+ associated hair follicle= Pilosebaceous unit. Although these glands are well developed at bih, they regress soon after and mature at pubey under hormonal influence especially androgen Ref Harrison20th edition pg 1209 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Color of hemosiderin is? | [
"Black",
"Brown",
"Blue",
"Yellow"
] | B | Ans. (b) Brown(Ref: Robbins 9th/pg 64; 8th/pg 36-38)Hemosiderin is yellowish-brown granular pigment formed from breakdown of Hb in RE cells; composed of ferritin complex. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All are branches of thyrocervical trunk except- | [
"Inferior thyroid artery",
"Suprascapular artery",
"Superficial cervical artery",
"Superior thyroid artery"
] | D | Ans. D. Superior thyroid arterySubclavian ArteryOrigina. right subclavian artery (RSA) is one of the terminal branches of the brachiocephalic arteryb. left subclavian artery (LSA) arises as the third branch of the aortic arch after the left common carotid arteryCourseThe subclavian artery exits via the thorax via the superior thoracic aperture between the anterior and middle scalene muscles before passing between the first rib and clavicle. At the lateral border of the first rib it continues as the axillary artery.PartsThe vessel can be split into three parts (first, second, third) depending on the position of the vessel in relation to scalenus anterior:a. First part: from its origin to the medial border of scalenus anteriorb. Second part: posterior to scalenus anteriorc. Third part: from the lateral border of scalenus anterior to the lateral border of the first ribBranchesa. First partvertebral artery:internal thoracic artery:thyrocervical trunk: branches into- inferior thyroid A., Superficial cervical A., Suprascapular A.b. Second partcostocervical trunk: divides into superior intercostal and deep cervical arteriesdorsal scapular arteryc. Third partnil | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most likely precipitating cause for acute hepato-cellular failure is? | [
"Oral lactulose",
"Large IV albumin infusion",
"Large carbohydrate meal",
"Upper GI bleeding"
] | D | Upper GI bleeding will provide the bacteria in the gut with lots of nutrition to multiply and this will lead to increase in production of ammonia. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Chronic viral hepatitis is seen with all of the following viruses, except? | [
"HBV",
"HCV",
"HDV",
"HEV"
] | D | Chronic hepatitis is defined as symptomatic, biochemical, or serologic evidence of continuing or relapsing hepatic disease for more than 6 months. Etiology rather than the histologic pattern is the most impoant determinant of the probability of developing progressive chronic hepatitis. Chronic viral hepatitis is seen in HBV, HCV, HDV. Hepatitis A virus (HAV) infection is a self-limited disease and does not lead to chronic hepatitis or a carrier state. HAV and HEV (in immunocompetent hosts) do not cause chronic hepatitis. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following condition is associated with the presence of Herbe pits on eye examination? | [
"Trachoma",
"Psoriasis",
"Spring catarrh",
"Fungal keratitis"
] | A | Herbe's pits are pathognomonic limbal signs of trachoma seen as clear cavities following rupture and cicatrization of limbal follicles due to filling of the defect by epithelialization. Herbe's pits are the clinical characteristic signs of trachoma and a sufficient indication of previous trachoma. For diagnosis of trachoma WHO has laid down some diagnostic criteria and individual cases must have at least two of the following signs: Follicles on the upper tarsal conjunctiva Limbal follicles or their sequelae, Herbe's pits Typical conjunctival scarring Vascular pannus most marked at the superior limbus Ref: Comprehensive Manual of Ophthalmology By Ahmed E page 166 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Inveed T waves are seen in | [
"Hyperkalemia",
"Hypehermia",
"Wellen syndrome",
"Coronary syndrome"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Wellen syndrome Severe anterior wall Ischemia (with or without infarction) may cause prominent T-wave inversions in the precordial leads. This pattern (sometimes referred to as Wellens T-waves) is usually associated with a high-grade stenosis of the left anterior descending coronary aery. Hyperkalemia has tall Tented T-waves. Coronary syndrome Xis characterised by blockage of perforators while the epicardial coronary aery is normal. In these patients stenting of coronaries is not useful. Nitrates are mainstay of therapy. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following are true about the middle ear activity except | [
"Roof is formed by tegmen tympani",
"Anterior wall has opening of two canals",
"Medial wall is formed by tympanic membrane",
"Floor has bulb of internal jugular vein"
] | C | RELATIONS OF MIDDLE EAR: ROOF-Tegmen tympani FLOOR-Internal jugular vein ANTERIOR WALL-Internal carotid aery, canal for tensor tympani, tubal opening POSTERIOR WALL-Facial canal, aditus to antrum, MEDIAL WALL-Tympanic plexus, promontory, oval window, round window, pyramid LATERAL WALL-Tympanic membrane,chorda tympani nerve, incus, malleus Ref BDC volume 3,sixth edition | train | med_mcqa | null |
BIRADS stands for | [
"Breast Imaging Repoing and Data System",
"Best Imaging Repoing and Data System",
"Brain Imaging Repoing and Data System",
"Blood Imaging Repoing and Data System"
] | A | Category 1 Incomplete assessment, need additional imaging evaluation Category 2 Negative, routine mammogram in 1yr is recommended Category 3 Benign findings, routine management in 1 year is recommended Category 3 Probably benign findings, sho term follow up suggested Category 4 Suspicious abnormality, biopsy should be considered Category 5 Highly suggestive of malignancy, appropriate action should be taken Category 6 Known biopsy - proven malignancy | train | med_mcqa | null |
Koebner's phenomenon is seen in all of the following conditions, EXCEPT: | [
"Lichen planus",
"Ichthyosis",
"Psoriasis",
"Pemphigus"
] | B | Koebner's phenomenon refers to development of morphologically identical lesions in the traumatized uninvolved skin of the patients who have cutaneous diseases. It is also known as isomorphic phenomenon. Conditions associated with Koebner's phenomenon are: Was Molluscum contagiosum Autoimmune (vitiligo) Psoriasis Pemphigus Lichen planus Ref: An Aid to the MRCP: Essential Lists, Facts and Mnemonics By Nicholas Boeckx, page 184. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The inferior hypogastric plexus is located - | [
"Anterior to the aorta",
"Behind the kidney",
"Between layers of anterior abdominal wall",
"On the side of rectum"
] | D | Inferior Hypogastric plexus is located on the side of the rectum. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Antibody in asthma treatment- | [
"Omalizumab",
"Rituximab",
"Transtusuzumab",
"Daclizumab"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., OmalizumabOmalizumabo Omalizumab is an anti IgE agent approved by the (FDA) for use in patients age 12 and above with moderate to severe persistent allergic asthma with : -An IgE level of30-700 lu/ml.Positive allergen skin or specific IgE tests to a perenmial allergen andIncomplete symptom control with inhaled glucocorticoid treatment.o Omalizumab is administered by "subcutaneous injection " every mo to four weeks in a dose that is determined by- body weights and the level of serum IgE.o Omalizumab produces 25% reduction in rate of asthma exacerbations.o The response to omalizumab therapy is variable and difficult to predict with overall response rates in patients with moderate to severe asthma averaging 30-50%.o A minimum of 12 weeks of treatment is necessary to determine the efficacy1 ofanti-IgE therapy. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Rapid-speed autoclaves | [
"require at least 30 minutes for sterilization.",
"require no antirust prctreatment.",
"destroy cloth products.",
"produce verifiable sterilization."
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Pneumocystis carinii is diagnosed by: | [
"Sputum examination for trophozoites and cyst under microscope",
"Culture",
"Positive serology",
"Growth on artificial media"
] | A | Ans: aRef: Harrison, 16th ed, p. 1195 | train | med_mcqa | null |
2 months old child having birth weight 2kg, with poor feeding, very sleepy and wheezing. The diagnosis is - | [
"No pneumonia",
"Severe pneumonia",
"Very severe disease",
"None"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following serves as the MOST DIAGNOSTIC sign of Pregnancy? | [
"Amenorrhoea",
"Quickening",
"Foetal heart sounds",
"Distention of abdomen"
] | C | Ans. C. Foetal heart soundsPresence of fetal heart sounds is considered to be one of the most diagnostic signs of pregnancy.Other absolute signs of pregnancy are mentioned as follows:* Perception of active fetal movements and Palpation of fetal parts.* Ultrasonographic evidence of gestational sac and embryo in early pregnancy and even later.Probable signs:* Osiander's sign (increased pulsation felt through lateral fornix by 8 weeks), Chadwick's sign (Blue hue of vagina), and Goodell sign (softening of cervix)* Enlargement of the abdomen.* Change in shape, size as well as consistency of uterus* Softening of cervix* Internal as well as external ballottement* Contraction of Braxton Hicks | train | med_mcqa | null |
Metabolic acidosisis caused by which of the following? | [
"Hypovolemia",
"Hypokalemia",
"Hypocalcemia",
"Hypoaldosteronism"
] | D | The principal function of aldosterone is to increase sodium reabsorption in the distal tubule and collecting ducts, which causes secretion of potassium and hydrogen ions.
Hypoaldosteronism (e.g., in Addison’s disease)therefore results in a decrease in H+ secretion, which leads to the production of metabolic acidosis (and hyperkalemia and hyponatremia).
Hypoventilationproduces respiratory acidosis.
Hypokalemiacauses an increase in K+ reabsorption and an increase in H+ secretion, resulting in a metabolic alkalosis.
Hypovolemiaresults in an increase in aldosterone secretion, which can lead to an increase in H+ secretion and a metabolic alkalosis.
Hypocalcemia does not directly affect acid-base balance. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 38-year-old man presents with involuntary facial grimacing, shrugging of the shoulders, and jerking movements of the limb. His father was similarly affected. There is also a history of mood changes for the past 3 months. On examination, he appears restless with intermittent slow movements of his hands and face. He has difficulty performing rapid finger movements, and tone is decreased in the upper and lower limbs. Which of the following is most likely to represent the progression of his illness? | [
"a normal life span",
"a 50% chance of only male children being similarly affected",
"mental deterioration",
"eventual development of rigidity"
] | C | This is a case of Huntington's chorea. It is an autosomal dominant gene (found on the short arm of chromosome 4), and male and female children are equally affected. Movement disorder, mental deterioration, and personality change are the hallmarks of the disease, but can be very subtle initially. The disease starts typically between ages 35 and 40 (although the variation is wide) and runs its course in about 15 years. The akinetic rigid variety (Westphal variant) of Huntington's typically has a childhood onset. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Amputated digits are preserved in- | [
"Cold saline",
"Cold Ringer Lactate",
"Plastic bag in ice",
"None"
] | D | Ans. is None Schwaz 9/e writes- "The amputated pa should be wrapped in moistened gauze and placed in a sealed plastic bag. This bag should then be placed in an ice water bath. Do not use dry ice and do not allow the pa to contact ice directly; frostbite can occur in the amputated pa, which will decrease its chance of survival after replantation. Bleeding should be controlled in the proximal stump by as minimal a means as necessary, and the stump dressed with a nonadherent gauze and bulky dressing." According to Schwaz 8th edtition answer was - Plastic bag in ice.According to it: The amputated digits should be cleansed under saline solution, wrapped in a saline-moistened gauze, and placed in a plastic bag. The plastic bag containing the pa is then placed on (not packed in) a bed of ice in a suitable container. - The amputated pa should never be immersed in nonphysiological solution such as antiseptics or alcohol. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following iodinated compound is present in a maximum concentration in the thyroid? | [
"Monoiodotyrosine (MIT)",
"Diiodotyrosine (DIT)",
"T3",
"Reverse T3"
] | B | THYROID HORMONE SYNTHESIS AND SECRETIONThyroid hormones are synthesized in the colloid, near the apical cell membrane of the follicular cells. Catalyzed by the enzyme thyroidal peroxidase, iodide in the thyroid cell is oxidized to iodine.The iodine enters the colloid and is rapidly bound at the 3 position to tyrosine molecules attached to thyroglobulin, forming monoiodotyrosine (MIT).MIT is next iodinated at the 5 position, forming diiodotyrosine (DIT).Two DIT molecules then condense in an oxidative process ("coupling reaction") to form one thyroxine (T4) molecule.Some T3 is probably formed within the thyroid gland by condensation of MIT with DIT. A small amount of reverse T3 (rT3) is also formed.In the normal thyroid, the average distribution of iodinated compounds is 23% MIT, 33% DIT, 35% T4, 7% T3, and 2% reverse T3. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Gingival fluid from diabetics contain a reduce level of cyclic adenosine monophosphate which may lead to | [
"Increased severity of gingival inflammation",
"Decreased severity of gingival inflammation",
"No response on gingiva",
"Epithelial desquamation"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
What is false about mafenide acetate? | [
"Painful",
"Deeper penetration",
"Metabolic acidosis",
"Immunodulatory action"
] | D | Cerium nitrate has Immunodulatory action. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All are causes of white-dot syndrome except: | [
"Fuch's heterochromic uveitis",
"VKH syndrome",
"HIV retinopathy",
"Sympathetic ophthalmitis"
] | D | Ans. Sympathetic ophthalmitis | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following childhood disorder improves with increase in age - | [
"Conduct disorder",
"Emotional problems",
"Temper tantrum",
"Sleep disorder"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Temper tantrum Temper tantrum reaches its peak point during second and third year of life and gradually subsides in between 3 to 6 years as the child learns to control his negativism and complies to the requests of others. | train | med_mcqa | null |
In AIDS there is a deficiency of which cell? | [
"CD2",
"CD3",
"CD4",
"CD8"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
A child with a small head, minor anomalies of the face including a thin upper lip, growth delay, and developmental disability can have all of the following, except: | [
"A chromosomal syndrome",
"A teratogenic syndrome",
"A Mendelian syndrome",
"A polygenic syndrome"
] | D | d. A polygenic syndrome(Ref: Nelson's 20/e p 618-619)The given child has microcephaly, thin upper lip & growth & developmental delay. These features can be seen in:a. A chromosomal syndrome like Tetrasomy 12p (Pallister-Killian syndrome)b. A teratogenic syndrome like fetal alcohol syndromec. Amendelian syndrome like Rubinstein-Taybi syndromeHence, a polygenic syndrome is least likely in the given scenarioIn a polygenic disease, multiple genes contribute to the disease like hypertension & diabetes | train | med_mcqa | null |
Occupational cancer involve following organs except- | [
"Lung",
"Breast",
"Bladder",
"Liver"
] | B | Occupational cancers
Lung (most common)
Bladder
Larynx
Mesothelioma
Lymphatic system
Pharynx
Liver
Hematopoietic system
Nasal cavity and sinuses
Skin
Soft tissue sarcoma | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following anticancer drugs can cause hypecoagulble state | [
"5-FU",
"L-aspargainase",
"Melphalan",
"Carmustine"
] | B | L aspargaine causes breakdown of aspargaine and thus interferes withs protein synthesis .It can inhibit the productoon6 of clotting factors as well as anticlotting proteins vein thrombosis and other hyper coagulable states Refer Kkatzung 11/e 955 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Chronological age 10yrs, mental age 4yrs. What that person called as? | [
"Idiot",
"Imbecile",
"Normal",
"Genius"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Imbecile | train | med_mcqa | null |
Annexin V is associated with which of the following? | [
"Necrosis",
"Apoptosis",
"Atherosclerosis",
"Inflammation"
] | B | Annexin V is a calcium-dependent phospholipid binding protein that has a high affinity for the phophatidylserine (PS), a plasma membrane phospholipid. One of the earliest features of apoptosis is the translocation of PS from the inner to the outer leaflet of the plasma membrane, thereby exposing PS to the external environment. Annexin V binds to PS exposed on the cell surface and identifies cells at an earlier stage of apoptosis than assays based on DNA fragmentation. The Annexin V Assay, a classical technique for detecting apoptosis, is the most commonly used method for detecting apoptosis by flow cytometry. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A patient of type 2 diabetes mellitus is given nutrition rich in | [
"Proteins",
"Carbohydrates",
"Fat",
"Fibre rich diet"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Hinge fracture is seen in: | [
"Wrist",
"Mandible",
"Basilar skull fracture",
"Cl vertebra fracture"
] | C | Ref: Apleys System of Orthopaedics and Fractures, 9th editionExplanation:HINGE FRACTUREBasilar fracture of skull.Involves middle cranial fossa and pituitary fossa.Divides the skull into anterior and posterior segments.Mechanism of injuryo Blow to chin, e.g. Boxingo Motor-cycle accident - Due to impact on the chin during the fall.JEFFERSON FRACTUREBurst fracture of Atlas I Cl vertebra).Lower incidence of spinal cord injury when compared to burst fractures of the other vertebrae.This is due to absence of vertebral body in Cl vertebra. | train | med_mcqa | null |
An example of high level disinfectant is | [
"Phenol",
"Glutaraldehyde",
"Alcohol",
"Povidone Iodine"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following factors can differentiate primary polycythemia from secondary polycythemia | [
"Increased Red cell mass",
"Aerial oxygen tension <90% on room air",
"Pniiritis",
"Hypeension"
] | B | Answer is B (Aerial oxygen tension < 90% on room air) Aerial oxygen tension < 90% on room air indicate a secondary cause of polycythemia from either hea, i or lung disease Primary polycythemia (Polycythemia vera) is characteristically associated with a normal aerial oxygen saturation >92% on room air. Both primary and secondary polycythemia will have an elevated red cell mass. Pruritis and Hypeension are consequences of increased red cell mass and the resultant hyperviscocity, and may hence be seen in both forms of polycythemia. A summary of significant differences between Polycythemia Vera and Other Types of Polycythemia Findings Polycythemia vera Secondary polycythemia Red cell mass Increased Increased Erythropoietin Decreased or absent Normal or increased Aerial oxygen saturation Normal Decreased or normal Erythrocyte sedimentation rate Decreased Normal Leukocyte alkaline phosphate stain Increased Normal Vitamin B12 binding capacity Increased Normal Total leukocytes Increased (Leukocytosis) Normal Total Platelets Increased (Thrombocytosis) Normal Basophil count Increased Normal Blood histamine Increased Normal Serum iron Decreased Normal or increased Splenomegaly Present Absent Marrow Panhyperplasia Erythroid hyperplasia | train | med_mcqa | null |
Treatment of choice for acute anterior uveitis is | [
"Local steroids",
"Systemic steroid",
"Local Nsaids",
"Systemic NSAIDS"
] | A | A i.e. Topical steroid | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is the best to compare vital statistics of countries? | [
"Crude death and bih rates",
"Propoional moality rate",
"Age standardized death rate",
"Age specific death rate"
] | C | If we want to compare the death rates of two populations with different age-composition, the crude death rate is not the right yardstick This is because rates are only comparable if the populations upon which they are based ae comparable.It is cumbersome to use a series of age-specific death rates, hence &;age standardization&; is used to remove the confounding effect of different age groups.Park 23epg: 59 | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 56-year-old woman presents to the hospital because of symptoms of dyspnea, blurry vision, and headaches. The symptoms started that morning and are getting worse. Her past medical history is significant for hypertension and osteoarthritis. She stopped taking her anti-hypertensive medications 3 months ago because of side effects.On examination, her blood pressure is 210/130 mm Hg, heart rate 100 beats/min, and oxygen saturation 95%. Her fundi reveal retinal hemorrhages and papilledema. The heart sounds are normal expect for an S4, and the lungs have lower lobe crackles. Which of the following is the most appropriate agent to reduce her blood pressure? | [
"IV hydralazine",
"IV labetalol",
"oral methyldopa",
"IV nitroprusside"
] | D | Nitroprusside is very effective in lowering blood pressure and is easy to titrate and adjust to response. Labetalol is also useful since is can be administered in an oral preparation, but has more contraindications. It is particularly useful in the setting of angina or myocardial infarction. Regardless of which drug is selected, early administration of medications for long-term control is mandatory. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most common fractured bone on face: | [
"Nasoethmoid bone",
"Zygomatic bone",
"Nasal bone",
"Mandible"
] | C | Ans. (c) Nasal boneRef. Dhingra's ENT 6th ed./147-148* Facial trauma, also called maxillofacial trauma, is any physical trauma to the face.* Commonly injured facial bones include the nasal bone, maxilla, and the mandible. The mandible may be fractured at its symphysis, body, angle, ramus, and condyle.* Nasal fracture is the most common facial fracture, and the third most common fracture of the skeleton overall.* Facial fractures occur for a variety of reasons related to sports participation: contact between players (eg, a head, fist, elbow); contact with equipment (eg, balls, pucks, handle bars); or contact with the environment, obstacles, or a playing surface (eg, wrestling mat, gymnastic equipment, goalposts, trees).* Facial fractures may be associated with head and cervical spine injuries and it requires a significant amount of force. | train | med_mcqa | null |
In congenital dystrophic epidermolysis bullosa defect is seen in: | [
"Laminin 4",
"Collagen type 7",
"Collagen 4",
"Collagen 3"
] | B | B. i.e. Collagen 7 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is not seen in mania | [
"Hypersexuality",
"Hyperactivity",
"Decreased sleep",
"Clouding of consciousness"
] | D | D i.e. Clouding of consciousnessDisorientation & clouding of consciousness is seen in organic brain syndromes (delirium)Q. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Action of ADH | [
"Reabsorption of Na+ in DCT",
"Reabsorption of water in DCT",
"Reabsorption of Glucose in DCT",
"Reabsorption of HCO3 in DCT"
] | B | Ans. (b) Reabsorption of water in DCT(Ref: Ganong, 25th ed/p.696)ADH facilitates water resorption by acting in DCT and collecting tubules | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following are actions of muscarinic antagonist except | [
"Decrease gastric secretion",
"Prolonged AV conduction",
"Decreases tracheobronchial secretion",
"Causes contraction of radial muscle of iris"
] | B | Refer katzung 11e p 113,123 Muscarinic antagonist will produce action opposite of parasympathetic system, that will decrease gastric as well as respiratory secretion Action of acetylcholine through muscarinic receptors is to increase the AV conduction, thus, resulting in bradycardia. Antagonists will thus result in opposite effect that is shoen the AV conduction Acetylcholine muscarinic receptors cause contraction of sphincter pupillae muscle and result in miosis. Muscarinic antagonist will have opposite effect that is mydriasis. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Find out prevalence in a population of 5000, 500 are suffering from a disease. There are 150 old cases of disease in the population | [
"9%",
"12%",
"13%",
"18%"
] | C | The term "disease prevalence" refers specifically to all current cases (old and new) existing at a given point in time, or over a period of time in a given population. A broader definition of prevalence is as follows: "the total number of all individuals who have an attribute or disease at a paicular time (or during a paicular period) divided by the population at risk of having the attribute or disease at this point in time or midway through the period . No. of old and new cases = 650 Total population at that point of time = 5000 Prevalence = (650/5000) x 100 = 0.13 x 100 = 13% | train | med_mcqa | null |
Type of inheritance in Tuberous sclerosis ? | [
"Autosomal dominant",
"Autosomal recessive",
"X-linked dominant",
"X-linked recessive"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Autosomal dominant | train | med_mcqa | null |
Angle of the Neck Of Femur to shaft is: | [
"110deg",
"125deg",
"135deg",
"100deg"
] | B | The Angle formed by axis of Femoral Shaft and Line drawn along axis of Femoral Neck is about 127deg (125-140deg). | train | med_mcqa | null |
LMP 1 gene plays a role in oncogenesis induced by | [
"Human T cell leukemia virus type 1",
"Hepatitis B virus",
"Epstein Barr virus",
"Human papilloma virus"
] | C | Ref Robbins 9/e p328 LMP 1 gene plays a role in oncogenesis induced by EBV Epstein-Barr virus latent membrane protein 1 (LMP1) is expressed in multiple human malignancies, including nasopharyngeal carcinoma and Hodgkin and immunosuppression-associated lymphomas. LMP1 mimics CD40 signaling to activate multiple growth and survival pathways, in paicular, NF-kB. LMP1 has critical roles in Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)-driven B-cell transformation, and its expression causes fatal lymphoproliferative disease in immunosuppressed mice. Here, we review recent developments in studies of LMP1 signaling, LMP1-induced host dependency factors, mouse models of LMP1 lymphomagenesis, and anti-LMP1 immunotherapy approaches | train | med_mcqa | null |
Treatment of cord prolapse is based on all of the following factors, except: | [
"Fetal viability",
"Fetal maturity",
"Fetal weight",
"Cervical dilatation"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Blood when stored at 4degC can be kept for- | [
"7 days",
"14 days",
"21 days",
"28 days"
] | C | Typically, blood storage at 4 degrees C is sho term, which ranges from a few days to a few weeks. However, long-term storage usually involves blood being frozen, with a resultant loss in DNA yield. Refer robbins 9/e | train | med_mcqa | null |
Silicosis can be controlled by: September 2004 | [
"Effective implementation of factories act",
"Rigorous dust control",
"Adequate personal hygiene",
"BCG vaccination"
] | B | Ans. B i.e. Rigorous dust control | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is the agent of choice for treating thyrotoxicosis during pregnancy ? | [
"Carbimazole",
"Propylthiouracil",
"Methimazole",
"Radioactive I131"
] | B | The antithyroid drugs like carbimazole, methimazole crosses the placenta (transplacental passage) and produce fetal hypothyroidism and goiter if the maternal dose is excessive. However, propylthiouracil should be used in early gestation at low doses as its greater protein binding allows less transfer to the foetus. Carbimazole and methimazole are also associated with rare cases of fetal aplasia cutis and other defects, such as choanal atresia. Pregnancy and breast-feeding are absolute contraindications to radioiodine treatment I131. Reference : page 254 Essentials of Medical Pharmacology K D Tripathi 7th edition and page 2297 Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine 19th edition | train | med_mcqa | null |
The cohesive gold used as bulk filler is: | [
"Electra alloy",
"Mat gold",
"Spherical gold",
"Gold foil"
] | B | Electrolytic Precipitate Gold
Another form of direct filling gold is microcrystalline gold powder formed by electrolytic precipitation, which is sandwiched between sheets of gold foil and formed into strips. It is also called mat or sponge gold. The powder consists of dendritic crystals approximately 0.1 mm in length.
This form of gold can be cut to a desired size and is often preferred for its ease in building up the internal bulk of the restoration. Mat gold made of electrolytic precipitate from gold, which is alloyed with a trace amount of calcium, can yield a further increase in hardness by dispersion strengthening without affecting the handling properties.
Reference: PHILLIPS’ SCIENCE OF DENTAL MATERIALS, 12th ed page no 413 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Hypocalcemia is characterized by all of the following features except | [
"Numbness and tingling of circumoral region",
"Hyperactivity tendon reflexes",
"Shoening of Q-T interval in ECG",
"Carpopedal spasm"
] | C | Answer is C (Shoening of QT interval on ECG) The OT interval on ECG is prolonged in hypocalcemia and shoened in hypercaleemia. Manifestations of chronic hyoocaleemia Neuromuscular and Neurological Mental changes Miscellaneous Cardiovascular Muscle spasmsQ Irritability Respiratory arrest Arrythmias Carpopedal spasmsQ Depression Increased ICT with papilloedemaQ Prolonged QT intervalQ Facial grimacingQ Psychosis Intestinal cramps Reduced effectiveness Laryngeal spasmsQ Chronic malabsorption of digitalisQ Convulsions t2 Circumoral tingling0 Low serum calcium leads to increased excitability of peripheral nerves and hence hyperactive tendon reflexes is a distinctive finding. Chrostek's or Traussean's sign can be used to confirm Latent tetany when signs of ove tetany are lacking Chvostek's SignQ Tapping over the branches of the facial nerve as they emerge from the parotid gland produces twitching of the facial muscles. Trousseau's Signdeg Inflation of Sphygmomanometer cuff on the upper arm to more than systolic BP is followed by carpal spasm within 3 minutes | train | med_mcqa | null |
CEA is elevated in all of the following except:March 2007 | [
"Alcoholic cirrhosis",
"Ulcerative colitis",
"Carcinoma colon",
"Prostatic carcinoma"
] | D | Ans. D: Prostatic carcinomaAn elevated level of a tumor marker can indicate cancer; however, there can also be other causes of the elevation.Tumor markers can be produced directly by the tumor or by non-tumor cells as a response to the presence of a tumor. As used in oncology, they are as follows:- Screening for common cancers on a population basisExample: elevated prostate specific antigen suggests prostate cancer.- Monitoring of cancer survivors after treatmentExample: elevated AFP in a child previously treated for teratoma suggests relapse with endodermal sinus tumor.- Diagnosis of specific tumor types, paicularly in ceain brain tumors and other instances where biopsy is not feasible.Tumor markers can be classified in two groups: Cancer-specific markers and tissue-specific markers.- Cancer-specific markers:An example of a cancer-specific marker, CEA, or carcinoembryonic antigen, is a blood-borne protein, first noted to be produced by tumors of the gastrointestinal system. Fuher investigation showed that it was produced by the occasional lung and breast cancer case, meaning that an elevated level does not mean a bowel cancer. However, in a patient with a history of a treated bowel cancer, a rising CEA level can be an early sign of bowel cancer return.A sequence of steady low CEA readings can provide much needed reassurance to the post-operative patient. Also, a rising sequence of CEA readings should ale the physician to the need for diagnostic tests such as PET scans.- Tissue-specific markers:Tissue-specific markers are related to specific tissues which have developed cancer.Generally speaking, these substances are not specifically related to the tumor, and may be present at elevated levels when no cancer is present.Examples include PSA, beta-HCG - (Human chorionic gonadotropin), AFP - (Alpha-fetoprotein), AFP-L3 - (a lectin-reactive AFP) and Thyroglobulin.For example, if man has an elevated PSA, a search for prostate cancer will be undeaken.If an individual has an elevated level of beta-HCG, AFP or AFP-L3%, a search for a testicular or liver cancer, respectively, will be made.PSA (Prostate specific antigen) is produced by the normal prostate.It is a protein enzyme called a serine protease that usually acts as an anticoagulant to keep semen liquid. Only small amounts leak into the circulation in normal circumstances.Enlarged prostates leak more substantial amounts, and cancerous prostates also leak substantial amounts. o Beta-hCG: Elevated levels cannot prove the presence of a tumor, and low levels do not rule it out (an exception is in males who do not naturally produce beta-hCG).Neveheless, elevated beta-hCG levels fall after successful treatment (e.g. surgical intervention or chemotherapy) and a recurrence can often be detected by the finding of rising levels. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which is the most common tumor associated with superior vena cava syndrome? | [
"Lung cancer",
"Lymphoma",
"Metastasis",
"Thyroid cancer"
] | A | The superior vena cava syndrome usually is caused by neoplasms that compress or invade the superior vena cava, such as bronchogenic carcinoma or mediastinal lymphoma. -produces a characteristic clinical complex consisting of marked dilation of the veins of the head, neck, and arms associated with cyanosis. -Pulmonary vessels also can be compressed, causing respiratory distress. | train | med_mcqa | null |
In deep sea divers, decompression illness is mainly due to the following factor: | [
"O2 narcosis",
"N2",
"Hypoxia",
"C02 narcosis"
] | B | Decompression sickness (DCS) is caused by the formation of bubbles from dissolved ine gas (usually nitrogen) during or after ascent (decompression) from a compressed gas dive. Breathing at elevated Pamb results in increased uptake of ine gas into blood and then into tissues. Bubbles may form within tissues themselves, where they cause symptoms by mechanical distraction of pain-sensitive or functionally impoant structures. Ref: Bennett M.H., Mitchell S.J. (2012). Chapter e52. Hyperbaric and Diving Medicine. In D.L. Longo, A.S. Fauci, D.L. Kasper, S.L. Hauser, J.L. Jameson, J. Loscalzo (Eds), Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine, 18e. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Horizontal transmission of &;R&; factor is by - | [
"Transduction",
"Transformation",
"Conjugation",
"Fusion"
] | C | Conjugation: it is the process where by a male or donor bacterium mates or makes physical contact with a female or recepient bacterium and transfer genetic material into it. This has been considered to be the bacterial equivalent of sexual mating in higher organisms but the analogy is irrelevant as following conjugation the female bacterium is in turn conveed into male cell. Bacterial conjugation was first described by Lederberg and Tatum (1946) in a strain of E.coli called K12 and has been most extensively studied in strain. it takes place between a male cell and a female cell. the maleness or donor status of a cell is determined by the presence in it of a plasmid that coded for specialised fimbriae which project from surface of the cell.. The plasmid DNA replicate and a copy of it passes from the donor to the recepirnt attains donor status and can inturn conjugate with other female cells. The maleness in bacteria is thus a transmissible or infectious characteristic . along with plasmid DNA , poion of the host DNA also are sometimes transferred to the recepient. The donor DNA then combines with DNA of the recepient effecting genetic recombination. It was E.coli K12 that the role of plasmid in conjugation was first recognised. The plasmid responsible was termed the sex facto or feility (F)factor .when other similar similar plasmids were also discovered the term transfer factor came to be used for all such plasmids when conferred on their host cells the ability to act as donor in conjugation. REF:Ananthanarayan and Panicker's Textbook ofMicrobiology 8thEdition pg no:65 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Bradycardia is common after injection of | [
"Midazolam",
"Succinylcholine",
"Dopamine",
"Isoprenaline"
] | B | Succinylchole is the only muscle relaxant, which stimulates vague nerve - BRADYCARDIA.(attenuates tachycardia and hypeension) This effect is more predominant in the pediatric age group. Therefore, I. V. Atropine is given prior to the first dose of scholine in the children and prior to the second dose in the adults. Ref.morgan 5th/e | train | med_mcqa | null |
Stains used in amyloidosis- | [
"Congo red",
"Thioflavin",
"Reticulin",
"Grams Iodine"
] | A | The histologic diagnosis of amyloid is based almost entirely on its staining characteristics. The most commonly used staining technique uses the dye Congo red, which under ordinary light impas a pink or red color to amyloid deposits. Under polarized light the Congo red-stained amyloid shows so- called apple-green birefringence . This reaction is shared by all forms of amyloid and is caused by the crossed b-pleated configuration of amyloid fibrils. Confirmation can be obtained by electron microscopy, which reveals amorphous nonoriented thin fibrils. AA, AL, and ATTR types of amyloid also can be distinguished from one another by specific immunohistochemical staining. Robbins 9 th edition page no. 156 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Non-bilious vomiting seen in | [
"Meconium ileus",
"Duodenal atresia",
"Hyperophic pyloric stenosis",
"Necrotising enterocolitis"
] | C | Vomiting in infancyBile-stainedIntestinal malrotation with volvulus Duodenal atresia/stenosis ( is usually just distal to the ampulla of Vater)Jejunal/ileal atresia (often isolated anomalies)Hirschsprung's diseaseAnorectal malformationsMeconium ileus (cystic fibrosis)Necrotising enterocolitisIncarcerated inguinal herniaIntussusception (often non-bilious initially)Non-bilious Infantile hyperophic pyloric stenosisGastro-oesophageal refluxFeeding difficulties (technique/volume)Non-specific marker of illness, e.g. infectionRef: Bailey and Love 27e pg: 128 | train | med_mcqa | null |
The physiological dead space is decreased by: | [
"Upright position",
"Positive pressure ventilation",
"Neck flexion",
"Emphysema"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Neck flexion FactorEffectPosture UprightincreaseSupinedecreasePosition of airway Neck extensionincreaseNeck flexiondecreaseAgeincreaseArtificial airwaydecreasePositive pressure ventilationincreaseAnticholinergic drugsincreasePulmonary perfusion Pulmonary emboliincreaseHypotensionincreaseEmphysemaincrease Factors affecting dead space. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which among the following is the earliest indication of sexual maturation in a girl child? | [
"Menarche",
"Pubarche",
"Thelarche",
"Maturation of breasts"
] | C | Although the first measurable sign of pubey in girls is the beginning of the height spu, the first conspicuous sign is usually the development of breast buds (thelarche) between 8 and 11 years. Although breast development usually precedes the growth of pubic hair (pubarche), the sequence may be reversed. The growth spu stas at about age 9 years in girls and peaks at age 111/2 years, usually at SMR 3-4 breast development and stage 3 pubic hair development. The spu usually ends by age 14 years. The interval between the onset of breast development and menarche (onset of menstruation) is ~2 years. Also know: Sexual maturity rating (SMR) staging includes age ranges of normal development and specific descriptions for each stage of pubic hair growth, penis and testis development in boys, and breast maturation in girls. The first sign of pubey in the male, usually between ages 10 and 12 years, is scrotal and testicular growth. Ref: Sass A.E., Kaplan D.W. (2012). Chapter 4. Adolescence. In W.W. Hay, Jr., M.J. Levin, R.R. Deterding, J.J. Ross, J.M. Sondheimer (Eds), CURRENT Diagnosis & Treatment: Pediatrics, 21e. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Dissecting haematoma is a clinical complication occurring in | [
"Turner's syndrome",
"Klinefelter's syndrome",
"Down syndrome",
"Marfan syndrome"
] | D | Ans. (d) Marfan syndrome(Ref: Robbins 9th/pg 491-492; 8th/pg 496-497, Harrison 18th ed 2063)Dissecting aneurysmWall of an artery rips (dissects) longitudinallyThis occurs because bleeding into the weakened wall splits the wall.Common in Marfan syndrome QThoracic aorta more affected Q | train | med_mcqa | null |
Normal Biophysical Profile (Manning Score) is | [
"10-Aug",
"8-Jun",
"6-Apr",
"4-Mar"
] | A | Ans. a (8-10) (Ref. Dutta, Obstetrics, 6th ed., p 109, 464)BIOPHYSICAL PROFILE (MANNING SCORE)# The BPP measures- fetal heart rate,- muscle tone,- movement,- breathing, and the- amount of amniotic fluid around fetus.# A BPP is commonly done in the last trimester of pregnancy.# If patient has a high-risk pregnancy, a BPP may be done by 32 to 34 weeks or earlier.# Its 5 components are:Q- Non-stress test (NST)- Fetal breathing movements (at least 1 episode within 30 min lasting for > 30 seconds).- Fetal tone (> 1 episode of limb extension with return to flexion within 30 seconds).- Gross fetal movements (at least 3 discrete GFM within 30 minutes).- Amniotic fluid volume (> 1 large pocket more than 1 cm vertical diameter).# Score - In absence of oligohydramnios:- Normal score = 8-10,e- Equivocal = 6 and- Abnormal = < 4.Fetal heart rate in "sinusoidal pattern"Fetal heart rate in "saltatory pattern" is seen ina) Rh isoimmunizationb) Normal fetusc) Drugs-alphaprodinea) Acid-base imbalanceb) Labourc) Acute brief hypoxia in fetusd) Depressed fetus with low APGAR | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following are true about opioids except? | [
"Naloxone is sho acting",
"Naltrexone is used to lower craving in alcoholics",
"Nalmefene can be used for opioid poisoning",
"Nalmefene is shoer acting than naloxone"
] | D | Nalmefene is a derivative of Naltrexone and is orally effective and longer acting. Naltrexone, is a medication primarily used to manage alcohol or opioid dependence. An opioid-dependent person should not receive naltrexone before detoxification. It is taken by mouth or by injection into a muscle. Effects begin within 30 minutes. All the other statements are true. Ref: KD Tripathi 8th ed. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Macrodontia is associated with | [
"Acromegaly",
"Pituitary gigantism",
"Hypoparathyroidisrn",
"Hyperthyroidism"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Crown infraction is also known as: | [
"Uncomplicated crown fracture.",
"Green stick fracture.",
"Complicated crown fracture",
"All of the above."
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 62-year-old diabetic presents with burning pain of the right foot 3 weeks after an inversion injury of the ankle. Examination reveals flat arches and decreased proprioception bilaterally. | [
"Acromegaly",
"Hemochromatosis",
"Hemophilia",
"Charcot arthropathy"
] | D | Many joint and musculo-skeletal disorders are associated with broader systemic disease. Charcot arthropathy occurs with the loss of innervation to the joint. In the absence of neurologic input, normal muscle responses that attenuate the wear and damage on a joint are lost. Over time, the joint loses articular cartilage. Additionally, there may be an increase in blood flow and bone resorption in the affected limb, leading to increased risk of bone fractures and injury. Patients may present after an injury from relatively minor trauma, and the degree of pain may be less than anticipated because of the neuropathy. Diabetes mellitus is the most common cause of neuropathic joint. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The technique of identification based on the evaluation of friction ridges on the volar areas is called as | [
"Dactylography",
"Poroscopy",
"Ridgeology",
"Rugoscopy"
] | C | Ridgeology : Ridgeology is the study of friction ridges which are composed of the edges of ridge units which vary in size, shape and alignment. | train | med_mcqa | null |
An elective surgery is to be done in a patient taking heavy doses of Aspirin. Management consists of : | [
"Proceed with surgery",
"Stopping aspirin for 7 days and then do surgery",
"Preoperative platelet transfusion",
"Intra operative platelet transfusion"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Stop aspirin for 7 days and then do surgery "Aspirin should be stopped 1 week before elective surgery." - KDT Aspirin, even in small doses, irreversibly inhibits Thrombooxane A2 (TXA2) synthesis by platelets. Thus it interferes with platelet aggregation and increase the bleeding time. This effect lasts for a week, the turnover time of platelets. | train | med_mcqa | null |
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