question stringlengths 1 6.54k | choices listlengths 4 4 | answer stringclasses 4
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|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
How do you manage placenta accreta | [
"Low transverse cesarean; hysterectomy",
"Classical cesarean; hysterectomy",
"Classical cesarean; myometrial resection",
"Low vertical cesarean; hysterectomy"
] | B | Classical cesarean is done to delivery fetus, to avoid the placenta and profuse hemorrhage before fetal delivery. After which, placenta is left in-situ and hysterectomy is done. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The following will be most helpful radiological investigation in a patient suspected of left pleural effusion | [
"Right lateral decubitus",
"Left lateral decubitus",
"Left lateral erect",
"Right lateral erect"
] | B | B i.e. Left lateral decubitus | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is true about division A bone | [
"Not mandatory FP-1 prosthesis",
"Full range of prosthetic options is available",
"RP-4 doesn’t require osteoplasty",
"All of the above"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following increases appetite ? | [
"Insulin",
"Leptin",
"a-MSH",
"Neuropeptide Y"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Neuropeptide Y | train | med_mcqa | null |
Hyperlysinemia may be associated with: | [
"Subluxation of the lens",
"Spherophakia",
"Strabismus",
"All of the above"
] | D | Ans. All of the above | train | med_mcqa | null |
Drug of choice for treatment of leptospirosis is: | [
"Penicillin",
"Ampicillin",
"Tetracycline",
"Doxycycline"
] | A | Penicillin is the drug of choice for treatment of leptospirosis. Other drugs used are tetracycline and doxycycline. Ref: Park 21st edition, page 267. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Best indicator of Cardiovascular Disease risk | [
"Skin fold thickness",
"Waist Hip ratio",
"Waist Circumference",
"BMI"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 4 year old female child complains of weakness and pain in joints. Her parents are known case of sickle cell trait. Hb electrophoresis reveal HbS pattern. This disease occurs because of which base alteration? | [
"CTC → CAC in DNA",
"GAG → GUG in DNA",
"CTC → CAC in RNA",
"GAG → CAC in RNA"
] | A | The occurrence of the disease sickle-cell anemia due to a single base alteration (CTC + CAC in DNA, and GAG + GUG in RNA) is a classical example of the seriousness of mutations.
Satyanarayana- Biochemistry, 3rd edition, pg-549 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most common organism causing post-transplant lymphoma is | [
"EBV",
"HHV6",
"HSV1",
"HTLV-1"
] | A | Post transplant lymphoproliferative disease (PTLD) is a well-recognized complication of both solid organ transplantation (SOT) and allogeneic hematopoietic stem cell transplantation (HSCT). It is one of the most common post transplant malignancies. In most cases, PTLD is associated with Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) infection of B cells, either as a consequence of reactivation of the virus post transplantation or from primary EBV infection; a consequence of the detrimental effect of immunosuppressive agents on the immune-control of EBV. In cases of primary infection, EBV may be acquired from the donor graft or, less commonly, from environmental exposure. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which one of the following drugs cause hypomagnesemia by increased excretion | [
"Frusemide therapy",
"Cisplatin",
"Digitalis",
"Aminoglycosides"
] | A | Frusemide therapy "Loop diuretics cause the abolition of transepithelial potential difference that results in marked increase in excretion of Cc?'" and Me". Loop and thiazide diuretics cause significant urinary loss of magnesium. - Magnesium deficiency brought about by diuretics is rarely severe enough to induce the classic picture of neuromuscular irritability. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Posterior boundary of carotid triangle is - | [
"Omohyoid superior belly",
"Sternocleidomastoid posterior margin",
"Digastric posterior belly",
"Sternocliedomastoid anterior margin"
] | D | Posterior boundry of carotid triangle is formed by anterior border of sternocleidomastoid. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Geographic lytic lesions in the vault of skull with beveled edges are seen with – | [
"Multiple myeloma",
"Eosinophilic granuloma",
"Hyperparathyroidism",
"Reticular cell Ca"
] | B | Punched out lesions of skull are seen both in Eosinophilic granuloma and multiple myeloma. However, beveled edges (double contour) is characteristic of eosinophilic granuloma due to uneven destruction of the inner and outer table of the skull.
Punched out lesions of skull → Multiple myeloma
Punched out lesions with beveled edges → Eosinophilic granuloma | train | med_mcqa | null |
A hypertensive, diabetic is having proteinuria,antihypertensive of choice is - | [
"Propanolol",
"Clonidine",
"Enalapril",
"Alpha methyldopa"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Drug of choice for bipolar syndrome: | [
"Lithium",
"Imipramine",
"Phenytoin",
"Clozapine"
] | A | Ans. A. LithiumLithium is mood stabilizer which is drug of choice for bipolar syndrome. It has narrow therapeutic index. (8-1.2ng/dl). It is known to cause tremor, nephrotoxicity, hypothyroidism and Ebstein anomaly. Other drugs like SSRI, valproate, carbamazepine, lamotrigine can also be given in bipolar disease. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Erosion of bones seen in all except: | [
"SLE",
"Psoriasis",
"RA",
"Gout"
] | A | Ans- A SLE Ref: Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine, 18th edition, pg 2728 Explanation: SLE causes non erosive polyarthritis of the hands, wrist & knees. Can cause avascular necrosis of joints increased by steroid use. Psoriasis, RA & gout cause erosive arthritis. Psoriatic Arthritis (PsA): DIP involved, nail changes (pitting, ridging, onycholysis, yellow discoloration, hyperkeratosis) dactylitis Asymmetrical oligoarthritis Symmetrical polyarthritis Arthritis mutilans with destruction and telescoping of digits CASPAR criteria used to diagnose PsA Treatment; Anti-TNF-a- infliximab, etanercept, adalimumab, golimumab Anti T cell- Alefacept Newer agent- Ustekinumab Methotrexate, sulfasalazine, letlunomide Rheumatoid Arthritis (RA): MCP, PIP, &MTP involved Juxta-articular osteopenia- earliest radiological finding ACR & EULAR revised criteria used to diagnose RA Treatment: Anti TNF- a- Infliximab. Etanercept, adalimumab. golimumab, certolizumab Abatacept, unakinra. rituximab, tocilizumab Gouty arthritis: Acute, monoarthritis, 1st MTP involved Precipitated by diet, trauma, surgery, alcohol.stress Joint aspirate for needle shaped MSU crystals, birefringent with negative elongation. TC 2-60 thousand S.uric acid can be low /normal during attack Acute attack-NSAIDS. Colchicine, steroids, anakinra Hypouricemic drugs- AUopurinoi. febuxostat. Rasburicase, pegloticase | train | med_mcqa | null |
The degective migration of neural crest cells results in | [
"Congenital megacolon",
"Albinism",
"Adrenogenital hypoplasia",
"Dentinogenesis imperfecta"
] | A | Hirschsprung's disease (congenital mega colon) Hirschsprung's disease is characterised by the congenital absence of intramural ganglion cells (aganglionosis) and the presence of hyperophic nerves in the distal large bowel. The absence of ganglion cells is due to a failure of migration of vagal neural crest cells into the developing gut. The affected gut is in spasm, causing a functional bowel obstruction. The aganglionosis is restricted to the rectum and sigmoid colon in 75% of patients (sho segment), involves the proximal colon in 15% (long segment) and affects the entire colon and a poion of terminal ileum in 10% (total colonic aganglionosis) . A transition zone exists between the dilated, proximal, normally innervated bowel and the narrow, distal aganglionic segment.Hirschsprung's disease may be familial or associated with Down syndrome or other genetic disorders. Gene mutations have been identified on chromosome 10 (involving the RET proto-oncogene) and on chromosome 13 in some patients. Hirschsprung's disease typically presents in the neonatal period with delayed passage of meconium, abdominal distension and bilious vomiting but it may not be diagnosed until later in childhood or even adult life, when it manifests as severe chronic constipation. Enterocolitis is a potentially fatal complication. The diagnosis requires an adequate rectal biopsy and an experienced pathologist. A contrast enema may show the narrow aganglionic segment, a cone and the dilated proximal bowel. Surgery aims to remove the aganglionic segment and 'pull-through' ganglionic bowel to the anus (e.g. Swenson, Duhamel, Soave and transanal procedures), and can be done in a single stage or in stages after first establishing a proximal stoma in normally innervated bowel. Most patients achieve good bowel control but a significant minority experience residual constipation and/or faecal incontinence or fuher enterocolitis. Ref: Bailey and love 27th edition Pgno : 136 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most effective bactericidal system within phagocytes- | [
"Lysozyme mediated",
"Lactoferrin mediated",
"Reactive oxygen metabolite mediated",
"Cationic basic protein mediated"
] | C | H2O2-MPO-halide system is the most efficient bactericidal system of neutrophils H2O2 is not able to efficiently kill microbes by itself. the azurophilic granules of neutrophils contain the enzyme myeloperoxidase (MPO), in the presence of a halide such as Cl-, conves H2O2 to hypochlorite(OCl2-) which is a potent antimicrobial agent that destroys microbes by halogenation (in which the halide is bound covalently to cellular constituents) or by oxidation of proteins and lipids (lipid peroxidation). NADPH oxidase pathway Robbins pathology 9th ed page 79 | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 7-year-old child has normal occlusion except for lingually
erupting maxillary central incisor. He should be treated with: | [
"Crossbite elastic",
"Tongue blade therapy",
"Maxillary acrylic inclined plane",
"Myofunctional therapy"
] | B | Tongue Blade Therapy
Tongue blade therapy can be employed in developing crossbite, when the maxillary incisor is erupting into crossbite and there is adequate space for the tooth to be moved. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A patient develops an infection of methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus. Which of the following drug cannot be used to treat the infection: | [
"Vancomycin.",
"Cotrimoxazole.",
"Cefaclor.",
"Ciprofloxacin."
] | C | Cefaclor is a second generation cephalosporin and is not active against MRSA. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Primary prevention includes:a) Marriage counselingb) Health educationc) Pap smeard) Selfbreast examinatione) Health promotion | [
"cb",
"bad",
"abe",
"da"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is not a feature of retinoschisis | [
"Splitting of inner retinal layers",
"Require active treatment",
"Caweel maculopathy is seen",
"May be seen in patients of high myopia"
] | B | Retinoschisis does not need active treatment as compared to retinal detachement Retinoschisis : * Term is used to describe splitting of inner retinal layers(intra neurosensory layer). * Can be acquired or juvenile X linked congenital retinoschisis * Absolute scotoma is seen as a clinical feature * Beaten metal appearance is seen over elevated retinal surface * Does not require active treatment * Inferotemporal location is most common * Laser will blanch retinoschis but not a retinal detachment * OCT is the investigation of choice to diagnose * May be seen in cases of pathological myopia | train | med_mcqa | null |
Sympathetic stimulation increases blood flow except: | [
"Skin",
"Coronary circulation",
"Cerebral",
"Renal"
] | A | Ans. a. Skin Sympathetic stimulation decreases blood flow in skin. Sympathetic Stimulation Stimulation of sympathetic fibers causes vasoconstriction but it is not impoant, as the vasocontricor system is not well developed in cerebral vascular bed. Sympathetic stimulation increases myocardial blood flow through an increased metabolic demand and a predominance of beta-receptor activation. | train | med_mcqa | null |
In pyogenic liver abscess commonest route of spread is | [
"Hematogenous through poal vein",
"Ascending infection through biliary tract",
"Hepatic aery",
"Local spread"
] | B | Routes of spread 1st most common - Biliary tract 2nd most common - poal vein | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which one of the following reagents is not used as sclerosant in the treatment of bleeding varices | [
"Ethyl alcohol",
"Ethanolamine oleate",
"Phenol",
"Sodium morrhuate"
] | A | Injection Sclerotherapy in Varicose veins Sodium tetradecyl sulphate is most commonly used Destroys lipid membranes of endothelial cells causing them to shed, leading to thrombosis, fibrosis and sclerosis Sclerosing agents These are irritants causing inflammation, coagulation and ultimately fibrosis, when injected into hemorrhoids or varicose veins Used only for local injection Sclerosing agents are Phenol(5%) in almond oil or peanut oil Ethanolamine oleate (5%) in 25% glycerin and 2% benzyl alcohol Polidocanol(3%) Sodium tetradecyl sulphate (3%) with benzyl alcohol (2%) Hypeonic saline Ref : Sabiston 20th edition Pgno :1835 | train | med_mcqa | null |
The must age specific index is | [
"DMFT",
"DMF",
"def",
"All of the above"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 30 year old male with a history of alcohol abuse for 15 years is brought to the hospital emergency with complaints of fearfulness, misrecognition, talking to self, aggressive behavior, tremulousness and seeing snakes and reptiles that are not visible to others around him. There is a history of drinking alcohol two days prior to the onset of the present complaints. He is most likely suffering from - | [
"Delirium tremens",
"Alcoholic hallucinosis",
"Schizophrenia",
"Seizure disorder"
] | A | This patient has:-
H/O alcohol abuse
Abstinence from alcohol drinking for two days
Visual hallucinations (seeing snake & reptiles)
Disorientation (misrecognition, talking to self)
Anxiety (fearfulness and tremulousness)
All suggest the diagnosis of delirium tremens. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following may be associated with primary aldosteronism, Except: | [
"Adrenal adenoma",
"Adrenal hyperplasia",
"Von-Hippel-Lindau syndrome",
"Adrenal carcinoma"
] | C | Answer is C (Von-Hippel-Lindau syndrome): Von Hippel Lindau syndrome is not associated with primary aldosteronism. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Excitatory post synaptic potential is due to | [
"K+ influx",
"Na+ efflux",
"Na+ influx",
"Ca++ influx"
] | C | EPSP (Excitatory post synaptic potential) -
1. Definition: the increase in voltage above the normal resting potential — that is to a less negative value — is called
EPSP because if this potential rises high enough, it will elicit on action potential in the neuron, thus exciting it.
EPSP is due to depolarization.
2. Production à rapid influx of Na+ to the interior neutralised part of the negativity of RMP à RMP ed from - 65 to - 45 my à EPSP à excite the neuron. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Pulmonary hypeension in COPD is due to all, Except: | [
"Hypoxia",
"Pulmonary vasoconstriction",
"High lung volume",
"Bronchoconstriction"
] | D | Answer is D (Bronchoconstriction) Bronchoconstriction is not a cause for Pulmonary Hypeension Pulmonary Hypeension in COPD has been attributed to multiple factors including: Hypoxia Pulmonary vasoconstriction (secondary to hyoxia) Acidemia Hypercapnia Mechanical effect of high lung volume on pulmonary vessels Loss of small vessels in vascular bed Regions of emphysematous lung destruction | train | med_mcqa | null |
Second injury in an explosion is due to ? | [
"Due to flying debris",
"Due to blast wind",
"Due to shock wave",
"Due to complication"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Due to flying debris | train | med_mcqa | null |
Tricyclic antidepressants can alter the oral absorption of many drugs by | [
"Complexing with other drugs in the intestinal lumen",
"Altering gut motility",
"Altering gut flora",
"Damaging gut mucosa"
] | B | Alter gut motility Ref: KDT 6/6 pg 14,411 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Subconjunctival cyst is seen in QUESTION REPEATED | [
"Toxoplasmosis",
"Cysticercosis",
"Leishmaniasis",
"Chagas disease"
] | B | Parasitic cysts such as subconjuctival cyst is seen in Cysticercosis . Hydatid cyst and filarial cust are not infrequent in development countries. Common cystic lesions of conjunctiva are : Congenital cystic lesions Lymphatic cysts of conjunctiva Retention cysts Epithelial implantation cyst (traumatic cyst) Aqueous cyst Pigmented epithelial cyst Parasitic cysts Ref;A.K.Khurana; 6th edition; Page no: 92 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Telomerase activity is expressed in | [
"Myocytes",
"Keratinocytes",
"Osteocytes",
"Germ cells"
] | D | Telomeres are sho repeated sequences of DNA present at the ends of linear chromosomes that are impoant for ensuring the complete replication of chromosome ends and for protecting the ends from fusion and degradation. When somatic cells replicate, a small section of the telomere is not duplicated and telomeres become progressively shoened. As the telomeres become shoer, the ends of chromosomes cannot be protected and areseen as broken DNA, which signals cell cycle arrest. Telomere length is maintained by nucleotide addition mediated by an enzyme called telomerase. Telomerase is a specialized RNA-protein complex that uses its own RNA as a template for adding nucleotides to the ends of chromosomes. Telomerase activity is expressed in germ cells and is present at low levels in stem cells, but it is absent in most somatic tissues.Ref: Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease; 9th edition; Chapter 2; Cellular aging; Page no: 67 | train | med_mcqa | null |
IQ =20-34 - | [
"Severe MR",
"Profound MR",
"Moderate MR",
"Mild MR"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Severe MR The Intelligence Quotient (I.Q.) is calculated according to the formula:The WHO classification of mental retardation is based on the concept of IQ and includes the following categories:CategoryIQMild50-70Moderate35-49Severe20-34Profound<20A child with IQ <70 is called mentally retarded. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Model analysis indicated for 2 quadrants: | [
"Hixon-old father",
"Peck and peck index",
"Pont's index",
"All of the above"
] | D | Key Concept:
The question wants to ask about the analysis that can be performed in 2 quadrants i.e. in single arch either maxilla or mandible.
Examples:
Hixon - old father (mandibular arch)
Peck and peck index (mandibular arch)
Pont's index (maxillary arch) | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following adverse effects are associated with carbamazepine except: | [
"Teratogenicity",
"Neurotoxicity",
"Decrease in antidiuretic hormone",
"Hypersensitivity"
] | C | Carbamazepine It is an antiepileptic Chemically related to imipramine, it was introduced in the 1960s for trigeminal neuralgia; is now a first line antiepileptic drug. Its pharmacological actions resemble phenytoin, but impoant differences have been noted in experimental studies. Adverse effects Carbamazepine produces dose-related neurotoxicity-sedation, dizziness, veigo, diplopia and ataxia. Vomiting, diarrhoea, worsening of seizures are also seen with higher doses. Acute intoxication causes coma, convulsions and cardiovascular collapse. Hypersensitivity reactions are rashes, photosensitivity, hepatitis, lupus like syndrome, rarely agranulocytosis and aplastic anaemia. Some degree of leucopenia due to hypersensitivity is more common. Water retention and hyponatremia can occur in the elderly because it enhances ADH action. Increased incidence of minor foetal malformations has been repoed. Its combination with valproate doubles teratogenic frequency. Ref KD Tripati 8thh ed. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Embryo implanted in uterus by ? | [
"14 days",
"28 days",
"8 weeks",
"24 weeks"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Posterior polymorphous dystrophy | [
"Causes corectopia",
"Is inherited in an autosomal recessive fashion",
"Causes blindness in over 90% of sufferers",
"Can be treated with lamellar corneal grafts"
] | A | Ans. Causes corectopia | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following drugs were found to reduce the efficacy of combined OCP when used together, EXCEPT: | [
"Rifampin",
"Penicillin",
"Griseofulvin",
"Carbamazepine"
] | B | Penicillin was found to have no association with the efficacy of OCP when used together. It is excreted through kidney. Drugs which induce Cyt P450 was found to lower the efficacy of OCPs when combined together. Drugs which induce Cyt P450 are: Rifampin Griseofulvin Phenytoin, mephenytoin Phenobarbital Primidone Carbamazepine Ethosuximide Ref: Cunningham F.G., Leveno K.J., Bloom S.L., Hauth J.C., Rouse D.J., Spong C.Y. (2010). Chapter 32. Contraception. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Triage is done for - | [
"Treating the most serious cases",
"Categorisation of the patients and treating them according to the available resource",
"Giving emergancy services to all patients",
"Treating mentally ill patients"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Categorisation of the patients and treating them according to the available resource Triageo When the quantity and severity of injuries overwhelm the operative capacity of health facilities, a different approach to medical treatment must be adoptedo The usual principle of first come, first treated", is not followed in mass emergencies.o Triage consists of rapidly classifying the injured and the likely hood of their survival with prompt medical intervention.o Higher priority is granted to victims whose immediate or long-term prognosis can be dramatically affected by simple intensive care.o Moribund patients who require a great deal of attention, with questionable benefit have the lowest priority. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following drugs is not given in enteric fever? | [
"Amikacin",
"Co-trimoxazole",
"Ciprofloxacin",
"Ceftriaxone"
] | A | Ciprofloxacin is the drug of choice for Enteric fever and Cotrimaxazole is used as an alternative drug for the treatment of Enteric fever and Ceftriaxone is used for treatment of multi-drug resistant enteric fever. Amikacin is not used for the treatment of enteric fever. Other recommended drugs in the treatment of enteric fever are Ceftriaxone, Azithromycin, Amoxycillin, and chloramphenicol. Ref: Lippincott's Illustrated Reviews: Pharmacology, 4th Edition, Page 378 ; Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine, 17th Edition, Page 959 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Fetal haemoglobin has higher affinity for O2 due to | [
"Decreased 2,3 DPG concentration",
"Reduced pH",
"Increased release of CO2",
"Oxygen dissociation curve shifted to right"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
The progesterone component of OCP acts by: | [
"Preventing ovulation",
"Inhibiting implantation",
"Bringing about alterations in cervical mucus",
"All of the above"
] | D | Ans. is d, i.e. All of the aboveRef: SK Chaudhary 7th/ed, p125-126,14Actions of the progesterone component of combined oral contraceptives:* Suppresses ovulation by its inhibitory action on the pituitary and the hypothalamus. This is predominantly achieved by estrogens but even by progesterone.* Causes atrophic changes in the endometrium and prevents nidation even if fertilization occurs.* Acts on the cervical mucus, making it thick and tenacious and impenetrable by sperms.The third-generation progestogens have a higher affinity for progesterone receptor and have a role in inhibiting ovulation.The main function of progestogens in combined pills is, to counteract the undesirable effects of estrogen such as endometrial hyperplasia and heavy withdrawal bleeding. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Sideroblastic anemia is caused by all except ? | [
"Collegen vascular disease",
"Iron deficit",
"Lead poisoning",
"Cutaneous porphyria"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Iron deficit Causes of sideroblastic anemia Hereditary o X-linked recessive sideroblastic anemia. Acquired Hematological Drugs & chemicals Others Myelofibrosis INH RA Myelodysplasia Penicillamine Myxedema Acute leukemia Lead SLE Lymphoma Alcohol Iron overload Myeloma Pyridoxin dificiency Porphyria Polycythemia vera Chloromphenicol Hemolytic anemia | train | med_mcqa | null |
LAP score is maximum in? | [
"CML",
"AML",
"Essential thrombocytosis",
"Polycythemia vera"
] | D | Answwr is option 4 A Leukocyte Alkaline Phosphatase (LAP) score is still requested from the hematology laboratory as an aid in differential diagnosis in the peripheral hospital setting where molecular biology techniques are not readily available. The LAP score is usually decreased in chronic myelogenous leukemia and paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria, while it is increased in leukemoid reaction and polycythemia vera. www.mlo-online.com | train | med_mcqa | null |
No genetic recombination during gametogenesis seen with? | [
"X chromosome",
"Y chromosome",
"Autosome 21",
"Mitochondrial chromosome"
] | D | Ans. d (Mitochondrial chromosome) (Ref. Robbin's pathology 7th/ 185; Harper's Biochem 26th/ 323; Ganong Physiology 22nd/pg. 11,27).# Non-Mendelian inheritance mechanisms include mitochondrial inheritance (exhibiting maternal transmission), expansion of triplet repeats (exhibiting anticipation in pedigrees as in the fragile X syndrome), and genomic imprinting (exhibiting different phenotypes according to maternal or paternal origin of the aberrant genes).The mitochondrial genome does not recombine and is inherited through the maternal line because sperm does not contribute significant cytoplasmic components to the zygote. A noncoding region of the mitochondrial chromo- some, referred to as D- loop, is highly polymorphic. This property, together with the absence of mtDNA recombination, makes it a valuable tool for studies tracing human migration and evolution, and it is also used for specific forensic applications. Inherited mitochondrial disorders are transmitted in a matrilineal fashion; all children from an affected mother will inherit the disease, but it will not be transmitted from an affected father to his children. The resulting heterogeneity in the proportion of mitochondria with and without a mutation is referred to as heteroplasmia and underlies the phenotypic variability that is characteristic of mitochondrial diseases.Mitochondrial Disorders# The mitochondrial genome does not recombine and is inherited in a matrilineal fashion (all children from an affected mother will inherit the disease, but it will not be transmitted from an affected father to his children because sperm does not contribute significant cytoplasmic components to the zygote).# Heterogeneity in the proportion of mitochondria with and without a mutation is referred to as heteroplasmia and underlies the phenotypic variability that is characteristic of mitochondrial diseases.# Acquired somatic mutations in mitochondria are thought to be involved in age-dependent degenerative disorders affecting predominantly muscle and nervous system (e.g., Alzheimer's and Parkinson's disease).# Alterations in the mtDNA affecting enzymes required for oxidative phosphorylation lead to reduction of ATP supply, generation of free radicals, and induction of apoptosis.# Azidothymidine (AZT) causes acquired mitochondrial myopathy through depletion of muscular mtDNA.# A noncoding region of the mitochondrial chromosome, referred to as D-loop, is highly polymorphic. This property, together with the absence of mtDNA recombination, makes it a valuable tool for studies tracing human migration and evolution, and it is also used for specific forensic applications.# Diseases transmitted by mitochondrial inheritance:- Leber's hereditary optic atrophy,- Leigh disease,- NARP- Familial progressive external ophthalmoplegia,- MERRF syndrome,- MELAS syndrome,- Succinic dehydrogenase complex-II deficiency & Cytochrome C oxidase complex-IV dt.MITOCHONDRIAL DNA (mtDNA)# It is small (16.5 kb) circular, double-stranded, and composed of heavy and light chains.# One percent of cellular DNA is in mitochondria.# Contains very few untranslated sequences.# High mutation rate (5-10 times more than nuclear DNA)# Genetic codes differ slightly from the standard code:- UGA (standard stop codon) is read as Trp.- AG A and AGG (standard codon for Arg) are read as stop codons.# Functions:- Encodes t and rRNAs, and 13 proteins of the respiratory chain involved in oxidative phosphorylation and ATP generation. | train | med_mcqa | null |
True about tumour marker is - | [
"P.S.A. is used for CA prostrate",
"Tumour marker is used to diagnose residual recurrence of disease",
"Can be used for diagnosis of cancer",
"CA-19-9 is used for colon cancer"
] | A | PSA is present in small quantities in the serum of men with healthy prostates, but is often elevated in the presence of prostate cancer or other prostate disorders.A tumor marker is a biomarker found in blood, urine, or body tissues that can be elevated by the presence of one or more types of cancer. There are many different tumor markers, each indicative of a paicular disease process, and they are used in oncology to help detect the presence of cancer. An elevated level of a tumor marker can indicate cancer; however, there can also be other causes of the elevation (false positive values). Tumor markers can be produced directly by the tumor or by non-tumor cells as a response to the presence of a tumor. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 24 year old male presents with abdominal pain, rashes, palpable purpura and, ahritis. The most probable diagnosis is: | [
"Henoch Schonlein Purpura (HSP)",
"Sweet syndrome",
"Meningococcemia",
"Hemochromatosis"
] | A | The above mentioned clinical features are the classic presentation of HSP. So Henoch Schonlein Purpura is the single best answer of choice. Ref: Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine, 16th Edition, Page 2010 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following statement is false regarding bulimia nervosa? | [
"Weight is normal",
"Common in females",
"Onset in early adulthood",
"Mortality is high"
] | D | Ans. D. Mortality is highCommon Characteristics of Anorexia Nervosa and Bulimia Nervosa Anorexia NervosaBulimia NervosaClinical CharacteristicsOnsetMid-adolescenceLate adolescence/early adulthoodFemale: male10:110:1Lifetime prevalence in women1%1-3%WeightMarkedly decreasedUsually normalMenstruationAbsentUsually normalBinge eating25-50%Required for diagnosisMortality5% per decadeLowPhysical and Laboratory FindingsSkin/extremitiesLanugoAcrocyanosisEdema CardiovascularBradycardiaHypotension GastrointestinalSalivary gland enlargementSlow gastric emptyingConstipationElevated liver enzymesSalivary gland enlargementDental erosionHematopoieticNormochromic,normocytic anemiaLeukopenia Fluid/ElectrolyteIncreased BUN,creatinineHypokalemiaHypokalemiaHypochloremiaAlkalosisEndocrineHypoglycemiaLow estrogen or testosteroneLow LH and FSHLow-normal thyroxineNormal TSHIncreased cortisol BoneOsteopenia | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following causes peripheral neuritis? | [
"Methotrexete",
"Vincristine",
"Busulfan",
"Cyclophosphamide"
] | B | Vincristine ( oncovin): It is a rapidly acting drug, very useful for inducing remission in childhood acute leukaemia, but is not good for maintenance therapy. Other indications are lymphosarcoma, Hodgkin&;s disease, Wilms&; tumour, Ewing&;s sarcoma and carcinoma lung. Prominent adverse effects are peripheral neuropathy and alopecia. Bone marrow depression is minimal. ESSENTALS OF MEDICAL PHARMACOLOGY K.D.TRIPATHI SIXTH EDITION PAGE NO:825 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following amino acids would most likely be found on the surface of a protein molecule? | [
"Alanine",
"Arginine",
"Isoleucine",
"Leucine"
] | B | This question requires two logical steps: first, you need to appreciate that the hydrophilic amino acids are more likely to appear on the surface of a protein molecule, while hydrophobic amino acids are most likely be found in its interior. Next, you need to figure out which of the amino acids listed is hydrophilic. If you recall that arginine is a basic amino acid that is positively charged at physiologic pH, you should be able to answer this question right away. All of the other choices have neutral side chains and are uncharged at physiological pH. They would most likely be found in the hydrophobic core of the protein structure. Alanine, isoleucine, and leucine all have aliphatic side chains; phenylalanine and tryptophan have aromatic side chains. Ref: Rodwell V.W. (2011). Chapter 30. Conversion of Amino Acids to Specialized Products. In D.A. Bender, K.M. Botham, P.A. Weil, P.J. Kennelly, R.K. Murray, V.W. Rodwell (Eds), Harper's Illustrated Biochemistry, 29e. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Lachman's test is done with knee in____ degree of flexion | [
"5",
"20",
"70",
"90"
] | B | Ans. b (20). (Ref. Current orthopaedics, Chapter 4).LACHMAN TEST is the most sensitive test for ACL tears. It is done with the knee flexed at 20 degrees, stabilizing the distal femur with one hand and pulling forward on the proximal tibia with the other hand. With an intact ligament, minimal translation of the tibia occurs and a firm end point is felt. With a torn ACL, more translation is noted, and the end point is soft or mushy. The hamstring muscles must be relaxed during this maneuver to prevent false-negative findings. Comparison of the injured and uninjured knees is essential.Also Remember:Anterior Drawer TestIt is done with the knee at 90 degrees of flexion and is not as sensitive as the Lachman test but serves as an adjunct in the evaluation of ACL instability. With the patient supine and the knee flexed to 90 degrees (hip flexed to approximately 45 degrees), the foot is restrained by sitting on it, and the examiner's hands are placed around the proximal tibia. Then while the hamstrings are felt to relax and the tibia is pulled forward, the displacement and the endpoint are evaluated.Pivot shift test ( Losee Test)It demonstrates the instability associated with an ACL tear. As described by Losee, a valgus and internal rotation force is applied to the tibia. Starting at 45 degrees of flexion, the lateral tibial plateau is reduced. Extending the knee causes the lateral plateau to subluxate anteriorly with a thud at approx 20 degrees of flexion. It reduces quietly at full extension.Posterior Drawer TestThe posterior drawer test evaluates the integrity of the PCL. It is performed with posterior pressure on the proximal tibia with the knee flexed at 90 degrees. Normally, the tibial plateau is anterior to the femoral condyles, and a step-off to the tibia is palpated when the thumb is slid down the femoral condyles. With a PCL injury, sagging of the tibial plateau may be appreciated, and no step-off is palpated. An associated contusion on the anterior tibia suggests a PCL injury. The posterior drawer test is done in the same fashion as the anterior drawer test, except that the examiner exerts a posterior force. The posterior sag seen in posterior cruciate disruption.The McMurray TestWith the McMurray test, forced flexion and rotation of the knee elicits a clunk along the joint line if there is a meniscus injury. Found in < 10 % of patients with a meniscus injury, joint line pain with the McMurray test is much more common. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All take part in anastomosis in Little's area except | [
"Anterior ethmoid artery",
"Sphenopalatine artery",
"Post ethmoid artery",
"Greater palatine artery"
] | C | Kiesselbach’s plexus is situated in the Little’s area which is the anterior inferior part of the septum, Anterior ethmoidal,
septal branch of superior labial, greater palatine and sphenopalatine arteries for the plexus. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A physiology experiment is conducted in which a glass microelectrode in inseed into a Pacinian corpuscle to record receptor potentials during different levels of stimulation (from 0 percent to 100 percent). Increasing stimulus strength from 10 percent of maximum to 30 percent of maximum causes a 40 percent increase in the amplitude of the receptor potential. Increasing the stimulus potential from 70 percent of maximum to 90 percent of maximum is most likely to cause which increase in the amplitude of the receptor potential (in percent)? | [
"10",
"40",
"60",
"80"
] | A | The amplitude of the receptor potential from a Pacinian corpuscle increases greatly with a step increase in stimulus intensity at lower levels of stimulus strength, and to a lesser extent with a similar step increase at higher levels of stimulus strength. This relationship between stimulus strength and amplitude of receptor potential allows the Pacinian corpuscle to discern small changes in stimulus strength at low levels of stimulation and yet still respond to changes in stimulus strength when the intensity of stimulation is high. The amplitude increases rapidly at first but then progressively less rapidly at high stimulus strength. | train | med_mcqa | null |
CAMP is a second messenger for a number of hormones and it activates protein kinase for its action. All of the following use cAMP as a second messenger, EXCEPT: | [
"Coicotropin",
"Dopamine",
"Glucagon",
"Vasopressin"
] | D | Vasopressin uses calcium or phosphatidylinositol (PIP2) as second messengers. Hormones which uses cAMP as the second messenger: ACTH FSH and LH PTH ADH HCG TSH Glucagon Calcitonin Catecholamines Ref: Textbook of Biochemistry by DM Vasudevan, 5th edition, Page 380. | train | med_mcqa | null |
In portal hypertension the sites of portosystemic anastomosis includes - | [
"Lower end of esophagus",
"Around umbilicus",
"Lower third of rectum and anal canal",
"All of the above"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is used for treatment of myopia: | [
"Nd: YAG laser",
"Excimer laser",
"Argon laser",
"Holmium laser"
] | B | Ans. Excimer laser | train | med_mcqa | null |
"Penis envy" is seen in | [
"Male child in genital phase",
"Male child in phallic phase",
"Female child in phallic phase",
"Female child in genital phase"
] | C | Female child in phallic phase (3-5 years)
Female child develops sexual feeling towards father, (electra complex) and when she comes to know that she doesn't have a penis, develops a desire to have it. This is termed as "Penis envy".
She thinks she had a penis and later her mother has castrated her and becomes angry on her. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Infective form of Ascaris is | [
"Cyst",
"Egg",
"Trophozoite",
"Merozoite"
] | B | Parasitic Infections Transmitted by OvaEnterobius vermicularis (pinworm)Ascaris lumbricoides (roundworm)Toxocara canis (visceral larva migrans)Trichuris trichiura (whipworm)Echinococcus granulosus/multilocularisTaenia solium (cysticercosis)All others are transmitted in larval stage Ref : Paniker's textbook of Medical Parasitology Pgno : 196-197 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Reactionary hemorrhage occurs within | [
"1-2 days",
"2-7 days",
"< 24 hours",
"After 7 days"
] | C | Reactionary haemorrhage commonly occurs in the first 24 hours after surgery, It may be caused by slippage of a ligature, displacement of blood clot, cessation of vasospasm, after coughing or increased mobility Bailey and Love 26th edition pg 19 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Methadone is used for opioid withdrawal because | [
"Its antagonist at opioid receptor",
"Its paial antagonist at opioid receptor",
"Its agonist at opioid receptor",
"Its paial agonist at opioid receptor"
] | C | The opioid antagonist naloxone reverses the effects of a dose of morphine or heroin within minutes. This may be life-saving in the case of a massive overdose. Naloxone administration also provokes an acute withdrawal syndrome in a dependent person who has recently taken an opioid. In the treatment of opioid addiction, a long-acting opioid (eg, methadone, buprenorphine ) is often substituted for the shoer-acting, more rewarding, opioid (eg, heroin). The signs and symptoms of withdrawal include a lot of distressing symptoms which makes the patient take the substance again. the symptoms of opiod withdrawl are remebered witha clue" ALL ORIFICES BLEED" the symptoms include rhinorrhea, lacrimation, yawning, chills, gooseflesh (piloerection), hyperventilation, hypehermia, mydriasis, muscular aches, vomiting, diarrhoea, anxiety, and hostility. the detoxification of opiod withdrawl is done by 3 methods that are listed below 1.SYMPTOMATIC DETOXIFICATION============clonidine, diazepam, dicyclomine, anti emetic, anti diarrhoeal 2.AGONIST ASOSIATED DETOXIFICATION========methadone, bupenorphine 3.ANTAGONIST ASSOSIATED DETOXIFICATION=====naltrexone STRONG OPIOID AGONISTS Morphineentanyl PAIAL AGONISTS CodeineHydrocodone MIXED OPIOID AGONIST-ANTAGONISTS BuprenorphineNalbuphine OPIOID ANTAGONISTS Naloxone | train | med_mcqa | null |
The mechanism of genetic transfer where a phage serves as a vehicle is - | [
"Transformation",
"Translation",
"Conjugation",
"Lysogeny"
] | A | TRANSFORMATION: it is the transfer of genetic information through the agency of free DNA REF:Ananthanarayan and Panicker's Textbook ofMicrobiology 8thEdition pg no:63 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Specific immunological unresponsiveness is called tolerance. Which one of the following statements best describes immunological tolerance? | [
"Immunologic maturity of the host does not play a major role",
"It occurs only with polysaccharide antigens",
"It is related to the concentration of antibody",
"It is prolonged by administration of immunosuppressive drugs"
] | D | Ans. is `d' i.e., It is prolonged by administration of immunosuppressive drugs Immunological tolerance Immunological tolerance is the condition, in which contact with an antigen specifically abolishes the capacity to mount an immune response against that paicular antigen when it is administered subsequently. The induction, degree and duration of tolerance depend on the immunocompetence of the host. The higher the degree of immunocompetence of the host the more difficult it is to induce tolerance. It is for this reason that embryos and newborns are paicularly susceptible to induction of tolerance. Tolerance can be induced in adult in whom immunocompetence is temporarily interrupted by immunosuppressive therapy. Tolerance is dependent on the dose of antigen (not antibody concentration). Tolerance can occur with any antigen (not only with polysaccharide). | train | med_mcqa | null |
The following anti ulcer drug DOES NOT act by reducing the secretion of or neutralizing gastric acid: | [
"Megaldrate",
"Sucralfate",
"Misoprostol",
"Omeprazole"
] | B | (Ref: KDT 6/e p636) Megaldrate is an antacid. It acts by neutralizing the gastric acid. Omeprazole and misoprostol derease the secretion of gastrict acid. Sucralfate is an ulcer protective agent. It forms the protective coating over the ulcer base. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The brushing technique indicated for young children is | [
"Fones method",
"Modified Stillman technique",
"Modified Bass",
"Charter's technique"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is the earliest conclusive evidence of intrauterine death : | [
"Shrinking of body",
"Intra-aoic gas",
"Increased curvature of spine",
"Spalding sign"
] | B | Intra-aoic gas | train | med_mcqa | null |
45 yr old male with H/o repeated attacks of UTI, X-ray KUB showing radio opaque shadow - | [
"Ureteric pathology",
"Prostate pathology",
"Testicular pathology",
"Stricture urethra"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Ureteric pathology Ureteric Stones* Almost always associated with UTI* Usually radio opaque X ray KUB* CT KUB is the gold standard for imaging ureteric stones, with the vast majority (99%) being radiodense. Stones > 1 mm in size are visualised, with the specificity of helical CT as high as 100%* Calculi size and location as well as ureter anatomy are important factors in determining likelihood of spontaneous calculi passage with stones less than 5 mm having high likelihood of passing down the ureter. However even small calculi may be impossible to pass if it is located at the pelvicoureteric junction or in patients with ureteral strictures. Passage of calculi may be facilitated with tamsulosin and nifedipine.* In calculi >10 mm or with failed conservative management, urological procedures such as extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy (ESWL), ureteroscopic lithotripsy or percutaenous nephrostomy may be required. | train | med_mcqa | null |
White polished rice causes deficiency of - | [
"Thiamine",
"Tryptophan",
"Riboflavin",
"Protein"
] | A | Ans. is 'a > c > d' i.e., Thiamine > Riboflavin > Protein o Rice is the most common staple food. Rice proteins are richer in lysine than other cereal proteins, and for this reason, rice protein is considered to be a better quality. Rice contains 6.8 gm of protein per 100 gm.o Milling process deprives rice grain of its nutritive elements, especially thiamine (75%), riboflavin (60%) and protein (15%). People subsisting mainly on white or polished rice are prone to beri-beri, the best known deficiency disease in rice eaters. To avoid this parboiling is recommendedo Parboiling (partial cooking in steam) is technique of preserving the nutritive value of rice. In parboiling, greater parts of vitamins and minerals present in outer layer of the rice grain are driven into the deepar layers. With subsequent milling the nutrient are not removed.o Genetically engineered 'Golden rice' is rich in b-Carotene and iron. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most common cause of urethral stricture is: | [
"Trauma",
"Infection",
"Congenital",
"Post endoscopy"
] | A | Ans. (a) TraumaRef: Campbell Urology 11th Edition, Page 917* Most urethral stricture are result of trauma (usually straddle trauma) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Posterior to sternum is | [
"Left atrium",
"Left ventricle",
"Right atrium",
"Right ventricle"
] | D | Posterior to sternum is right ventricle . Ref - medscape.com | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is the Post-Chemotherapy based staging system in Wilm's tumor | [
"National Wilm's tumor staging system",
"International society of Pediatric oncology",
"AJCC TNM",
"Chadwick"
] | B | Tumor staging is one of the most impoant criteria in the therapeutic and prognostic consideration of WT. The International Society of Pediatric Oncology (SIOP) staging system is based on preoperative chemotherapy but is applied after resection. The presence of metastases is evaluated at presentation, relying on imaging studies, and chemotherapy is instituted before operative intervention. The National Wilms Tumor Study Group (NWTSG) has also developed a staging system that incorporates the clinical,surgical, and pathologic information that was obtained at the time of resection but stratifies patients before the initiation of chemotherapy. The advantage of this system is that it ors stage-based therapy, thereby avoiding unnecessary chemotherapy in patients who might not otherwise benefit from it. ref : Sabiston 20th ed , chapter 66 , pg no 1889 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Laryngeal cartilage involvement, investigation of choice is - | [
"CT",
"MRI",
"Radionuclide scan",
"X- ray"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Like scale is: | [
"Ordinal",
"Nominal",
"Variance",
"Categorical"
] | A | Ordinal | train | med_mcqa | null |
Finish lines of a complete coverage crown should lie | [
"Supragingivally",
"Subgingivally",
"Subgingival if required",
"Gingival margin"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Overall most common cancer in wold | [
"Lung cancer",
"Colon cancer",
"Breast cancer",
"Thyroid carcinoma"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 30 year old female epileptic on phenytoin, developed weakness and fatigue. Blood examination revealed Hb = 4.6 gm. MCV = 102 fl and MCH = 40 pg/dl. What is the most probable diagnosis | [
"Heart failure",
"Iron deficiency anemia",
"Phenytoin induced agranulocytosis",
"Megalobalstic anemia."
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e. Megaloblastic anaemiaNormal valuesMCU- 86 - 98 fLMCH- 28 - 33 pg/cellHb (female) - 12-16 gm/dLLab finding in this pt. go in favour of megaloblastic anemia. H/O phenytoin intake is also suggestive of same. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following increases the susceptability to corornary aery disease? | [
"Type V hyperlipoprotenemia",
"Von willibrand disease",
"Nephrotic syndrome",
"Systemic lupus erythematosus"
] | C | Nephrotic syndrome is a clinical complex characterized by protenuria,hypoalbunemia,edema and hyperlipedemia. A hypercoaguble state frequently accompanied by severe nephrotic syndrome due to urinary loss of AT-III reduced serum levels of protein C and S hyper fibrogenemia and enhanced platelet aggregation. Due to increased coagulation state,predisposing to CAD is present in patients with nephrotic syndrome (ref Harrisons 17th/272) | train | med_mcqa | null |
cocaine bugs is called as | [
"ekboms syndrome",
"othello syndrome",
"de cleraumbalt syndrome",
"cotards syndrome"
] | A | cocaine bugs is called as Ekbom's syndrome delusion of marital infedility is also called as Othello syndrome Delusion of love is also called as De clerambault syndrome Delusion of Nihilism is also called as Cotards syndrome Ref. kaplon and Sadock, Synopsis of PSychiatry, 11 th edition, Pg.NO.194 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Amyloid stroma is seen in which Ca thyroid ? | [
"Papillary Ca",
"Medullary Ca",
"Anaplastic Ca",
"Follicular Ca"
] | B | Ans is B ie Medullary Ca | train | med_mcqa | null |
Age group affected by osteosarcoma - | [
"upto 10 years",
"10-20 years",
"30 - 40 years",
"Older than 45 years"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., 10 - 20 years * Osteogenic sarcoma is the most common primary malignant tumor of bone in children.* This is predominantly a tumor of childhood or adolescence, occuring most commonly in the 10-25 years.* The most common site of involvement is metaphysis of long bone around knee: -# Lower end of femur (45%)# Upper end of Tibia (25%)* Other sites of involvement are proximal humerus (9%), and very rarely radius and fibula.* The usual presentation is local pain associated with gradually increasing swelling.* On examination there may be local tenderness and warmth overlying skin.* About 10% of patients have pulmonary metastasis by the time they first seen. | train | med_mcqa | null |
'Frog eyes' appearance on USG is seen in : | [
"Spina bifida",
"Anencephaly",
"Cleft lip & palate",
"Down syndrome"
] | B | FROG EYE SIGN Anencephaly on ultrasound On coronal ultrasound, the absence of the calvaria coupled with prominent orbits gives the fetus the 'frog eye' sign | train | med_mcqa | null |
In the JVP, 'a' waves are absent in - | [
"Atrial fibrillation",
"Mitral stenosis",
"Tricuspid atresia",
"myocardial infarction"
] | A | The a wave reflects right atrial presystolic contraction and occurs just after the electrocardiographic P wave, preceding the first hea sound (S1).A prominent a wave is seen in patients with reduced right ventricular compliance; a cannon a wave occurs with atrioventricular (AV) dissociation and right atrial contraction against a closed tricuspid valve. In a patient with a wide complex tachycardia, the appreciation of cannon a waves in the jugular venous waveform identifies the rhythm as ventricular in origin. The a wave is not present with atrial fibrillation. Ref Harrisons internal medicine 20e p1668 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Stasis as a cause of thrombosis is important in: | [
"Sickle cell Anemia",
"Venous circulation",
"Polycythemia",
"All of the above"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Mechanism by which water is reabsorbed from proximal convolved tubule is | [
"Active transpo",
"Passive transpo",
"Facilitated diffusion",
"Osmosis"
] | D | Water is reabsorbed from PCT by osmosis. Ref: Ganong's review of medical physiology; 24th edition; page no: 685 | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 70-year-old man has isolated systolic hypertension. On examination, his blood pressure is 170/80 mm Hg, heart and lungs are normal. He has no other medical conditions.For patient with high blood pressure, select the most appropriate medication | [
"thiazides",
"spironolactone",
"clonidine",
"prazosin"
] | A | Thiazides seem to work particularly well in Blacks and the elderly. Younger individuals and Whites respond well to beta-blockers, ACE inhibitors, and calcium channel antagonists. Isolated systolic hypertension is a common occurrence in the elderly. It is due to arteriosclerosis of the large arteries. Treatment of isolated systolic hypertension with low-dose thiazides results in lower stroke rates and death. The goal for treatment is a blood pressure of 140/90 mm Hg. | train | med_mcqa | null |
In treatment of Papillary Carcinoma thyroid, Radioiodine destroys the neoplastic cells predominantly by- | [
"X rays",
"b rays",
"g rays",
"a paicles"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., b rays | train | med_mcqa | null |
Follow ing are the side effects of thiazides except- | [
"Hypokalemia",
"Hypocalcemia",
"Hepatic coma",
"Impotence"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Hypocalcemia Following are the side effects of thiazides:o Hypokalemiao Acute saline depletion, hemoconcentration and increased risk of peripheral venous thrombosiso Dilutionsalhyponatremiao Nausea omitting diarrheao Rarely headache, giddiness, weakness, parethesias, impotenceo Hearing losso Rashes, photosensitivityo Hyperuricemiao Hyperglycemia hyperlipidemiao Hypercalcemiao Magnesium depletiono Aggravated renal insufficiencyo Brisk diuresis leading to mental disturbance and hepatic coma | train | med_mcqa | null |
The first layer of porcelain applied on to a metal in PFM crowns would be | [
"Opaque",
"Body",
"Incisal",
"Both 1 and 2"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 60 years old male presents with hematuria at onset of micturition, cause is: | [
"Urethral stone",
"Bladder tumor",
"Ureteric stone",
"Prostatitis"
] | A | Ans. (a) Urethral stone* Blood at beginning of urination: Urethral problem* Blood at end of urination: Bladder problem* Blood mixed throughout the process: Prerenal, Renal or vesical | train | med_mcqa | null |
50 year old male known case of emphysema presents to OPD with complaint of shoness of breath for 2 weeks. Chest X Ray revealed 3 cm pneumothorax on the right side. What shall be the management approach for the patient ? | [
"Repeated aspirations as chest drain inseion is dangerous if bullae are present",
"High flow oxygen and carefully monitor the patient",
"Inseion of Seldinger intercostal chest drain to cause resolution of pneumothorax",
"Inse a large bore chest drain as there may be a significant Air leak"
] | C | This patient is having secondary Pneumothorax due to presence of underlying lung disease. Cut off used for large vs small pneumothorax is 3 cm distance from Apex. So this is a large symptomatic Pneumothorax and is treated with Seldinger chest drain. Choice A is used for small pneumothorax and can damage other bulla too Choice B is ruled out as we need to intervene actively in this case Choice D, Wide bore Chest drain is used for drainage of empyema, Hemothorax and Malignant pleural effusions. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Patient sustains twisting type of injury followed by recurrent locking of knee. Most likely structure to be injured is- | [
"Menisci injury",
"Anterior cruciate ligament injury",
"Avulsed tibial tuberosity",
"Lateral collateral ligament injury"
] | A | *Twisting type of injury of knee followed by recurrent locking of knee-suggestive of meniscal tear. Causes of Meniscus Injuries * Can result from activities involving pivoting or rotational movements -- i.e. pivoting, sudden stops and turns, kneeling, deep squatting, heavy * Tears in the meni cus of the knee are commonly due to spos-rela ed injuries * Degenerative cha ges of the knee can contribute to a torn meniscus * Meniscal tears may be associated with anterior cruciate ligament tears -- The instability of the knee increases the likelihood of a meniscal tear over time Ref: Murcer 9th/e p.1126-41 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most efficient antilarval measure to prevent urban malaria is | [
"Clean drainage and sewerage systems",
"Cover overhead tanks properly",
"Filling cesspools and ditches",
"Cover pits"
] | B | In urban areas, Malaria is mainly transmitted by Anopheles stephensi.
Recommended measures for Urban Malaria contro l: Breeds in man-made water containers in domestic / peridomestic situations such as tanks, wells, cisterns, which are of permanent nature and hence can malaria transmission throughout the year.
Measures for Urban Malaria Control:
Lids of overhead tanks must be checked and maintained monthly basis; any leakage be repaired immediately (most effective).
Cover-up of underground and open tanks.
Open tanks used for animals be dead dried once in week Never to throw any containers in open capable of holding water.
Construction sites: Building bye-laws be implemented to prevent fault in designs, water flow on roof, gully traps open tanks for curing be treated with larvicides on weekly basis.
Unused wells either be closed or treated with larvicides Ornamental tanks, fountains be checked periodically and larvivorous fish be introduced
Public health engineers be involved for proper drainage, building designs, periodic flushing of water logged areas and drainage. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following show splaying of carina in retro cardiac shadow | [
"Left atrium enlargement",
"Left ventricle enlargement",
"Right atrium enlargement",
"Right ventricle enlargement"
] | A | ANSWER: (A) Left atrium enlargementREF: Sutton s textbook of radiology, 7th edition, volume 1 page 284Left atrial enlargement in 5 directions:(out of all 6 directions, inferior enlargement is not seen)It is believed left atrial appendage enlargement occur early. Left atrial Appendage enlargement is seen as fullness beneath the pulmonary artery shadow. It may be the earliest finding of Left atrial enlargement in X-ray. (This may appear as straight left heart border, as in classical mitral stenosis). The Left atrial appendage enlargementis not necessarily in proportion with left atrial enlargement.Left atrium could also enlarge posteriorly by pushing the esophagus towards the spine. This is visible only in barium swallow.Then LA can enlarge either to left or right (Usually towards right) and reach the right heart border or over shoot it and form the right heart border by itself. This occurs very late in the course.The other direction LA goes on to enlarge is superiorly. When LA enlarges superiorly it hits on the left main bronchus and lifts it. This is measured by the widened subcarinal angle which is normally less than 75 degrees.LA can enlarge anteriorly sometimes, but it is resisted by right ventricle but rarely right ventricle yields to the LA push and produces a left parasternal lift which could be mistaken for RV enlargement.Inferior enlargement cannot happen in a significant way as it is limited by the AV groove and strong fibrous skeleton. The upper limit of normal LA size is around 4.5cm. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Biochemical screening of newborn infants by heelprick blood samples is performed by using the – | [
"Tay–Sachs Card",
"Duchenne Card",
"Guthrie Card",
"Maple Card"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Using a small fine probe single lactiferous duct is excised. What is the name of the procedure? | [
"Microdochectomy",
"Macrodochectomy",
"Hadfield operation",
"Webster operation"
] | A | Ans. (a) Microdochectomy(Ref. Bailey and Love 27th edition Page 865)Microdochectomy:* A lacrimal probe or a Stiff Nylon is used.* It is inserted into a single duct through which discharge is coming.* A tennis racket incision is made and the duct is excised.* Usually done for duct papilloma causing bloody discharge.* Can be done for Duct ectasia where a single duct is identified.Hadfield Operation:* Cone excision of the major ducts.* Periareolar incision and cone of tissue is excised with nipple at apex and base towards Pectoralis fascia.* Entire major duct system is excised.* Done for cases where the abnormal duct is difficult to identify.* Example in Periductal mastitis/Duct ectasia. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Sections from a solid-cystic unilateral ovarian tumor in a 30-year old female show a tumor composed of diffuse sheets of small cells with doubtful nuclear grooving and scanty cytoplasm. No C -Exner bodies are seen. The ideal immunohistochemistry panel would include - | [
"Vimentin, epithelial membrane antigen, inhibin, CD99",
"Desmin, S-100 protein, smooth muscle antigen, cytokeratin",
"Chromogranin, CD45, CD99, CD20",
"CD3, chromagranin, CD 45, synaptophysin"
] | A | This patient is having granulosa cell tumor of the ovary which is characterized histologically by :
Diffuse sheets of round and oval cells
Inconspicuous groove and folds in nuclei - coffee bean appearance
Scant cytoplasm
Granulosa cell tumor is positive for →
(i) Vimentin, (ii) Inhibin, (iii) CD99
Epithelial membrane antigen is positive in surface epithelial tumor. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Iliac crest graft should ideally be taken from | [
"Lateral aspect",
"Medial aspect",
"Posterosuperior aspect",
"Antero inferior aspect"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
The retina is an out growth of the ? | [
"Mesencephalon",
"Diencephalon",
"Telencephalon",
"Pons"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Diencephalon Diancephalon forms - optic cup and stalk, pituitary, thalmus, hypothalmus, epithalmus, pineal gland (or epiphysis), and 3rd ventricle (most pa). Retina develops from walls of optic cup. The outer thinner layer becomes retinal pigmented epithelium and inner thicker layer forms neural layer of retina. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Respiratory Syncytial Virus causes all of the following in children except | [
"Bronchiolitis",
"croup",
"Pneumonia",
"Rhinosinusitis"
] | D | The most common isolates in acute sinusitis infections are S.pneumoniae,H.influenza,and M.catarrhalis.these same bacteria are implicated in chronic sinusitis as are S.aureus , anarobes and occasionally fungi. Croup caused by respiratory syncytial virus,parainfluenza types 1,2,3, inflenza virus,adeno virus and rhino virus. Pneumonia caused by RSV,influenza,parainflluenza,adeno virus, klebsiella, S.pneumoniae, H.influenzae,staphylococci,E.coli. Bronchiolitis caused by RSV,M.pneumoniae,adeno virus,influenza viruses,parainfluenza viruses Ref : ESSENTIAL PEDIATRICS,O.P.GHAI, PG NO:335,351,352,356,7 th edition | train | med_mcqa | null |
AItoxicity- | [
"Dementia",
"Bone disease",
"Cardiomyopathy",
"Anemia"
] | A | extremely high dose of aluminium developed toxic tau tangles in their brains. This led to speculation that aluminium from cans, cookware, processed foods and even the water supply could be causing dementia Ref Harrison20th edition pg 290 | train | med_mcqa | null |
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