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Normal Beat to beat variability in an NST on a term fetus is ?
[ "25-Jun", "5-Jan", ">25", "any variability which is above 110 baseline is normal" ]
A
Beat-to-Beat Variability - - Fetal hea variability is divided into four types: 1. Absent : Undetectable change in amplitude 2. Minimal: <= 5 bpm in range 3. Moderate : 6-25 bpm 4. High: > 25 bpm
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Prologned treatment with INH leads to deficiency of:
[ "Pyridoxine", "Thiamine", "Pantothenic acid", "Niacin" ]
C
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Pyridoxine o Peripheral neuritis associated with isoniaide probably relates to interference with pyridoxine ( vitamin B6).
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All of the following are modalities of therapy for hepatocellular carcinoma except
[ "Radiofrequency ablation", "Transaerial catheter embolization", "Percutaneous acetic acid", "Nd Yag laser ablation" ]
D
.Treatment modalities for hepatocellular carcinoma includes Definitive Treatment * When limited to one lobe, hemihepatectomy is done. (Removal of 80% liver is compatible with life). Laparoscopic resection is becoming popular. Indications for transplantation in HCC are - * Patient who is not a candidate for resection * Tumour less or equal to 5 cm * Tumour less than 3 in number * Tumour without poal/hepatic vein invasion * Tumour without extra hepatic spread Palliative Treatment * Radiofrequency ablation (RFA): It is thermal ablation of the tumour by passing 18 G needle into the middle of the tumour and passing electric current of 500 kHz. This creates frictional heat causing sphere of necrosis. * Per-cutaneous ethanol or acetic acid injection: (Rule of 3 is used here- indicated in HCC not >3cm and not > 3 nodules). * Intra-aerial chemotherapy using Adriamycin / cisplatin/mitomycin through gastroduodenal aery. Adjuvant Therapy * Systemic chemotherapy using intravenous adriamycin (doxorubicin), cisplatin, carboplatin, mitomycin C, 5 fluorouracil. * Octreotide is used along with other chemotherapeutic agents. It decreases the size of the tumour. ref:SRB&;s manual of surgery,ed 3,pg no 542
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Ketamine produces ?
[ "Emergence delirium", "Pain on injection", "Bronchoconstriction", "Depression of cardiovascular system" ]
A
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Emergence delirium Ketamine The primary site of action is in the coex and subcoical areas; not in the reticular activating system (site of action of barbiturates). It acts on NMDA receptors. Sho duration of action (10-15 minutes) is due to redistribution from brain and blood to other tissues of the body. Ketamine is different from most other anaesthetic induction agents in that it has significant analgesic action. Ketamine increases IOT and cerebral metabolism --> contraindicated in head injury. It causes sympathetic stimulation with elevation of HR, CO & BP --) contraindicated in hypeension and ischemic hea disease. It also raises IOT --> contraindicated in glaucoma. It relieves bronchospasm --> intravenous anaesthetic of choice in asthmatics (inhalation anaesthetic of choice in asthmatic is halothane). Injection is not painful (All other inducing agents cause pain on injection). It is i.v. anaesthetic of choice in children (Sevoflurane is inhalation agent of choice). Because it causes sympathetic stimulation it is intravenous anaesthetic of choice in patients with shock and hypovolumia. It has no muscle relaxant propey rather muscle tone is increased. Airway reflexes (pharyngeal and laryngeal) are not depressed --> intravenous anaesthetic of choice for emergency anaesthesia (no starvation is required). Ketamine produces emergence reaction during awakening from anaesthesia --> vivid dreaming, illusions, extracorporeal experiences, excitment, confusion, fear and euphoria --> contraindicated in psychiatric illness like schizophrenia.
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Characteristic pathological finding in carcinoid of heart -
[ "Fibrous endocordial thickening of right ventricle and tricuspid valve", "Collagen deposition in wall of right ventricle and tricuspid valve", "Interstitial fibrous thickening of right ventricle and pulmonary valve", "Mononuclear inflammatory infiltrate in the wall of right atrium" ]
A
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Which is not an indication of thoracotomy ?
[ "Massive pneumothorax", "Pulmonary contusion", "Bleeding more than 200m1/hr. in thoracotomy tube", "Oesophageal rupture" ]
B
Ans is 'b' ie Pulmonary contusion Indications of thoracotomy after chest trauma a) Cardiac arrest (resuscitative thoracotomy) b) Massive hemothorax (drainage of more than 1500 ml of blood when chest tube is first inseed or continuous haemorrhage of more than 200 ml/hr for more than 3 consecutive hours). c) Brisk bleeding (> 100 ml/15 min) d) Penetrating injuries of the anterior chest with cardiac tamponade. e) Large open wounds of the thoracic cage. f) Rupture of the bronchus, aoa, esophagus or diaphragm. Non emergent indication of thoracotomy a) Empyema not resolved with tube thoracostomy b) Clotted hemothorax c) Lung access d) Thoracic duct injuries e) Tracheoesophageal fistulas f) Chronic sequelae of vascular injuries (pseudo aneurysms & AV fistulas) Such an exhaustive list is prepared by mixing all the three books. (Shwaz, Sabiston, Bailey) Still Massive Pneumotharax has not been listed here (but Bailey & love, 23/e, p 765 gives the t/t of pneumothorax. If pneumothorax is not responding to initial conservative methods then thoracotomy and pleurectomy can be done.)
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Adult patient with multiple scaly macules over chest and back, test which can diagnose this condition is/ are-
[ "10% KOH mount", "Wood Lamp examination", "Skin biopsy", "All of the above" ]
A
Pityriasis vesicolor is a fungal infection of skin with hypo pigmented perifollicular macules seen mainly on the upper trunk spreading to the neck and upper arms. Diagnosis is by KOH mount and the appearance is spaghetti and meatballs appearance. Wood lamp examination is required for diagnosis of tinea infection that produces green fluorescence. From illustrated synopsis of dermatology and sexually transmitted diseases neena khanna 5th edition page no 310
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BNP is degraded by:
[ "Neutral endopeptidase", "Elastase", "Ormapatrilat", "ACE" ]
A
Brain natriuretic peptide (BNP) was cleaved by neutral endopeptidase (NEP) BNP is useful in CCF Nesiritide blocks this neutral endopeptidase thereby enhancing levels of BNP - used in CCF Ref: KD tripathi 8th ed
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The most common type of intussusception?
[ "Ileocolic", "Colocolic", "Ileoileal", "Retrograde" ]
A
Ans. a (Ileocolic) (Ref. Bailey and Love 26th/pg. 114).ACUTE INTUSSUSCEPTION# Telescoping/invagination of one portion of the gut within an immediately adjacent segment; invariably it is the proximal into distal bowel. An intussusception is composed of three parts: the entering or inner tube; the returning or middle tube; and the sheath or outer tube (intussuscipiens).# most common in children, where it occurs in an idiopathic form with a peak incidence at 3-9 months.# Seventy to 95% of cases are classed as idiopathic. It is believed that hyperplasia of Peyer's patches in the terminal ileum may be the initiating event. This is due to weaning/viral infection.# Ileocolic type is otherwise most common and the colocolic variety is common in adults.# C/F: Intermittent sudden spasmodic abdominal pain, the 'red currant' jelly stool, palpable lump, feeling of emptiness in the right iliac fossa (the sign of Dance) and Empty RIF sign.# Ultrasonography is preferred over Barium enema today.# Ultrasound shows the mass with pseudokidney apperance or a target lesion or a bowel mass-like'doughnut sign.# A barium enema may diagnose by demonstrating signs like the claw sign and the coiled spring appearance.# Hydrostatic reduction is contraindicated in the presence of obstruction, peritonism or a prolonged history (greater than 48 hours) and is unlikely to succeed where a lead point is likely. It is successful in 50% of cases with a recurrence rate 5%.# Surgery is required where hydrostatic reduction has failed or is contraindicated. Reduction is achieved by squeezing the most distal part of the mass in a cephalad direction. Do not pull. In difficult cases the little finger may he gently inserted into the neck of the intussusception to try and separate adhesions (Cope's method).# In the presence of an irreducible or gangrenous intussusception the mass should be excised in situ and an anastomosis or temporary end stoma created.
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First sign of puberty in girls –
[ "Puberchy", "Thelarchy", "Growth spurt", "Menarche" ]
B
In girls, the first visible sign of puberty is the appearance of breast buds (Thelarche), between 8-12 years of age. In boys the first visible sign of puberty is testicular enlargement, beginning as early as 9% yr.
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A 68-year-old male presents with symptoms of anemia. On workup, you discover that the patient has been losing blood from the GI tract secondary to a tumor mass in his colon. The pathology repo from a biopsy specimen indicates that this mass is an invasive adenocarcinoma. Which one of the listed descriptions best describes the most likely histologic appearance of this tumor?
[ "A uniform proliferation of fibrous tissue", "A disorganized mass of proliferating fibroblasts and blood vessels", "A uniform proliferation of glandular structures", "A disorganized mass of cells forming glandular structures" ]
D
Malignant tumors are generally classified as being either carcinomas or sarcomas. Carcinomas are malignant tumors of epithelial origin, while sarcomas are malignant tumors of mesenchymal tissue. malignant epithelial tumors (carcinomas) include adenocarcinomas, which consist of a disorganized mass of malignant cells that form glandular structures, and squamous cell carcinomas, which consist of a disorganized mass of malignant cells that produce keratin. malignant mesenchymal tumors include rhabdomyosarcomas, leiomyosarcomas, fibrosarcomas, and liposarcomas. Reference: Robbins & Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease, 9edition.
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Test for estimating kidney function is:
[ "Serum creatinine", "Serum phosphatase", "Inulin test", "Insulin test" ]
C
null
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True for Bochdalek hernia:
[ "Commonly occurs on the right side", "Congenital disorder", "Anterior position", "Breathing difficulty in newborns from day 2-3" ]
B
Ans. B. Congenital disorderBochdalek hernia is the other name for congenital diaphragmatic hernia. It is a posterior (and not anterior) congenital defect of the diaphragm and is primarily due to lack of closure of the pleuroperitoneal cavity between the eighth and tenth week of embryonic life. Majority of cases occur on the left side. Affected newborns frequently present with breathing difficulty, particularly within the first few hours of life.
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48 year old male develops lesion affecting his autonomic system supplying the eye. which of the following clinical condition are true about his pupillary movements ?
[ "Pupil of normal size that react to light", "Mydriatic pupil and reacts to light", "Pupil are constricted and reacts to light", "Pupil of normal size that does not react to light" ]
D
Lesion in autonomic system will affect both the sympthetic and parasympthetic systems : Pupil dilation occurs by sympatheticfibersinnervating pupillodilator muscle fibers. Pupil constriction is achieved by parasympathetic fibers. When there occurs a lesion in both the pathways, there will be no net effect, as there is no dilation or constriction, so the pupil will appear normal in size The pupils normal response to light is constriction, which is also absent here as the parasympathetic fibers responsible for constriction are also affected.
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What is the IOC for bronchiectasis?
[ "HRCT scan", "Spiral CT", "Bronchoscopy", "Pulmonary angiography" ]
A
The best test to evaluate the destruction and dilatation of large airways which are filled with pus in bronchiectasis is HRCT. Spiral CT is preferred for pulmonary embolism. Pulmonary angiography is done for lung sequestration and is the gold standard for pulmonary embolism.
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Most important role in apoptosis by
[ "SER", "Golgi complex", "Mitochondria", "RER" ]
C
null
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Most common cause of persistent hypeension in child with Intrinsic Renal disease is
[ "CGN", "Chronic pyelonephritis", "Obstructive uropathy", "Renal tumor" ]
B
ACEIs or ARBs, appropriate diuretic therapy, and dietary salt restriction make up the foundation for the treatment of HTN in CKD. Bedtime dosing of at least one antihypeensive medication improves BP control in patients with CKD. Reference: GHAI Essential pediatrics, 8th edition
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The following are given intradermally except
[ "BCG vaccine", "Insulin", "Test dose of drugs", "Mantoux test" ]
B
.
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All are benefits of prone ventilation except-
[ "Prone position recruits dorsal lung regions where greater lung mass is located", "Displacement of cardiac mass away from lung tissue", "Homogenous distribution of ventilation in prone position", "Proper tolerance of enteral feeding" ]
D
Prone position (PP) has been used since the 1970s to treat severe hypoxemia in patients with ARDS because of its effectiveness at improving gas exchange. Compared with the supine position (SP), placing patients in PP effects a more even tidal volume distribution, in pa, by reversing the veical pleural pressure gradient, which becomes more negative in the dorsal regions. PP also improves resting lung volume in the dorsocaudal regions by reducing the superimposed pressure of both the hea and the abdomen. In contrast, pulmonary perfusion remains preferentially distributed to the dorsal lung regions, thus improving overall alveolar ventilation/perfusion relationships. Moreover, the larger tissue mass suspended from a wider dorsal chest wall effects a more homogeneous distribution of pleural pressures throughout the lung that reduces abnormal strain and stress development.
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Vaccine which requires the most stringent conditions for storage
[ "DPT", "OPV", "BCG", "TT" ]
B
Among the vaccines, polio is the most sensitive to heat, requiring storage at minus 20 degree Celsius. Vaccines which must be stored in the vaccine compaments are polio and measles. The cold chain is a system of storage and transpo of vaccines at low temperature from the manufacturer to the actual vaccination site (refer pgno:109 park 23 rd edition)
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Action of vincristine -
[ "Tubulin inhibitor", "Antimetabolite", "Adenylate cyclase inhibitor", "Anti folate" ]
A
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Tubulin inhibitorVincristine (Oncovin)o Alkaloid derived from Vinca rosae.o Vincristine belongs to the plant alkaloid group of anticancer.o Rapidly acting anticancero This class of drugs are also known as spindle poison,o These drugs bind to microtubular protein (tubulin)o The drug-tubulin complex then attaches itself to microtubules and causes depolvmerization of microtubules.o Depolvmerization of microtubule causesMitotic arrest at metaphaseDissolution of mitotic spindleInterference with chromosome segregationo Useful for inducing remission in childhood ALL (not useful in maintenance therapy)o It can also be used for pediatric solid tumors (Wilnvs tumor, neuroblastoma, rhabdomyosarcoma) and lymphomas,o Prominent adverse effects-Peripheral neuropathy Alopecia SL4DHVincristine is a marrow sparing drug but some times it may cause myelosuppression which is very less than vinblastin.o Indications of vincristine-Hodgkins disease Wilms's tumour Carcinoma lungNon hodgkin's disease Ewings sarcoma Myelomao Vinblastine and vinorelbine are other vinca alkaloids.o Vinblastine's most important clinical use is the curative therapy of metastatic testicular tumor,o Vinblastine can cause bone marrow suppression (in contrast with vincristin), alopecia, and nausea & vomiting,o As they arrest mitosis, all vinca alkaloids act in M phase.
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Postzone phenomenon is seen in -
[ "Antigen excess", "Antibody excess", "Equivalance zone", "None of the above" ]
A
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Antigen excess Antigen - antibody reaction || ||Ascending partPeakDescending part|||Prozone or zone of antibody excessZone of equivalencePost zone or zone of antigen excess
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All are organophosphorus poison, EXCEPT -
[ "Abate", "Dibenanone", "Propoxur", "Malathione" ]
C
Ans. is 'c' i.e. Propoxur * Below is given the classification of insecticides. This table is very important. Learn it by heart atleast those which are marked *
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Among the following statements, true about DCIS breast is:
[ "DCIS is a benign proliferation of epithelial cells", "DCIS involves only specific sectors of breast", "DCIS is almost always detected histologically", "Rarely, DCIS can produce nipple discharge" ]
D
Ductal Carcinoma in Situ (DCIS) DCIS is a malignant clonal proliferation of epithelial cells limited to ducts and lobules by the basement membrane DCIS can spread throughout the ductal system and produce extensive lesions involving an entire sector of a breast. DCIS is almost always detected by mammography. Histologically:-DCIS can be divided into two major architectural subtypes: Comedo It is defined by two features: Tumor cells with pleomorphic, highgrade nuclei and Areas of central necrosis Noncomedo Lacks either high-grade nuclei or central necrosis Calcifications may also be seen in noncomedo forms of DCIS in association with focal necrosis or intraluminal secretions.
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Most common occular foreign body is -
[ "Chiesel and hammer", "Glass", "Plastics", "Stone" ]
A
The chipping stone with an iron chisel, it is commonly a chip of the chisel and not of the stone which enters the eye.
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Suspiciousness is a characteristic feature of -
[ "Paranoid personality disorder", "Schizoid personality disorder", "Schizotypal personality disorder", "Anankastic personality disorder" ]
A
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Paranoid personality disorder Paranoid personality disordero It is characterized by generalised mistrust and Suspiciousness about the motives and actions of others and a tendency to interpret them as malevolent. The patient believes thatOthers are exploiting or deceiving the person.Friends are untrustworthy and not loyal.The spouse/partner is unfaithful.There is hidden meaning in neutral or friendly remarks.
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True about rigor mortis -a) First appear in chinb) It last 18-36 hours in summerc) Seen immediately after deathd) It disappears in the sequence as it appearse) It last 24-48 hours in winter
[ "abc", "ade", "ace", "bde" ]
D
Rigor mortis first appears in eyelid (among voluntary muscles). It lasts 18-36 hours in summer and 24-48 hours in winter. It starts 1-2 hours after death. It disappears in same order in which it has appeared.
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"Brain Natriuretic Peptide" is degraded by:
[ "Neutral endopeptidas", "Elastase", "Collagenasee", "Ompatrilat" ]
A
Neutral endopeptidase
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H is useful in all of the following except:
[ "Vaginal atrophy", "Flushing", "Osteoporosis", "Coronary hea disease" ]
D
Advantages of Estrogen in H: 1.prevents osteoporosis 2.decreases hot flushes 3.vaginal application of estrogen decreases vaginal atrophy Disadvantages of H: 1.Coronary Hea Disease 2.stroke 3.thromboembolic events 4.breast cancer 5.cholecystitis
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Which of the following is not effective against anaerobes -
[ "Gentamycin", "Cefotetan", "Imipenem", "Clindamycin" ]
A
Arts, is 'a' i.e., Gentamycin Antibiotics that cover the Anaerobes1.Penicillin with Beta lactamase inhibitoro Augment in (Amoxicillin & Clavulanate)o Timentin (Ticaricillin & Clavulanatejo Unasyn (Ampicillin & Sulbactam)o Zosyn (Pipericillin & Tazobactam)2.Second generation Cephalosporinso Cefoxitino Cefotetano Cefmetazole3.Imipenem4.Chloramphenicol5.Clindamycin6.Metronidazole7.TrovafloxacinNote : Aminoglycosides are not active against anaerobes
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Desmosomes are helpful in connecting -
[ "Keratinocytes", "Melanocytes", "Dermis and epidermis", "Langerhanscells" ]
A
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Keratinocytes Desmosomeso Desmosomes are the major adhesion complex in epidermis, anchoring keratin intermediate filaments (IFs) to the cell membrane and bridging adjacent keratinocytes, and allowing cells to withstand trauma.o The main components of desmosomes consist of the products of three gene superfamilies : -Desmosomal cadherins They are calcium ion dependent cell adhesion molecules that show homophillic homophi llic adhesions (i.e. a cadherin molecule of one cell binds to same molecule on another cell.)They includeo Desmogleins l-4(Dsgl-Dsg4)o Desmocollins 1-3 (Dscl-Dsc3)Armadillo proteinso Plakoglobins (Pgs)o Plakophillin (Pkps 1-3)Plakinso Desmoplakins (Dps),o Plectino Envoplakino PeriplakinAntigen defectDiseaseDsg 1Pemphigus foliaceusDsg 3Pemphigus vulgarisDsc lSubcorneal pustular dermatosisDpk 1&2Erythema multiformeEnvoplakin & PeriplakinPerineoplastic pemphigus
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Which protease inhibtor has boosting effect ?
[ "Amprenavir", "Tenofovir", "Nelfinavir", "Ritonavir" ]
D
null
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All of the following are watersoluble radical trapping antioxidants except?
[ "Ascorbate", "Carotenes", "uric acid", "Polyphenols" ]
B
Ascorbate, uric acid, and a variety of polyphenols derived from plant foods act as water-soluble radical trapping antioxidants. Ubiquinone and carotenes similarly act as lipid-soluble radical-trapping antioxidants in membranes and plasma lipoproteins. Reference: Harpers illustrated biochemistry 30th edition
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Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis involves:
[ "Upper motor neuron and lower motor neuron both", "Posterior column only", "Lower motor neuron only", "Raphae nucleus" ]
A
A i.e. Upper motor neuron and lower motor neuron both.Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis is the most common form of progeressive motor neuron disease. It involves both upper motor neuron (UMN) & lower motor neuron (LMN)Q.Motor neuron disease Is characterized by degeneration of motor neurons, either upper motor neuron or lower motor neuron or both.
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Flowing wax appearance on anterior and posterior borders of veebrae is seen in -
[ "Ankylosing spondylitis", "DISH", "Psoriatic ahropathy", "Rheumatoid ahritis" ]
B
Radiological features of DISH (Diffuse Idiopathic skeletal hyperostosis) : Flowing calcification and ossification along the anterolateral aspect of veebral bodies. - Flowing wax appearance Preserved disc space. Absence of bony ankyosis of facet joints,absence of sacroiliac bony erosion,sclerosis or bony fusion.
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Macrocytic anaemia is noted with all of the following except :
[ "Phenytoin", "Methotrexate", "Pyrimethamine", "Ciprofloxacin" ]
D
null
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Hypersensitivity vasculitis usually involve
[ "Aerioles", "Post capillary venules", "Capillaries", "Medium sized aeries" ]
B
Refer robbins 9/e p510, 8/e 515 Harrison 7/2128 Direct quote from Harrison 18th /2798; Postcapillary venules are most commonly involved vessels. Capillaries and aerioles are less frequent involved
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Aificial bruise is commonly seen in which of the following irritant poison
[ "Strychnos nux vomica", "Semicarpus anacardium", "Abrus precatorius", "Capsicum annum" ]
B
Aificial bruise: 1. Cause: Juice of Semicarpus anacardium (marking nut tree), Calotropis or Plumbago rosea 2. Color: Dark brown 3. Shape: Irregular 4. Site: Exposed accessible pas 5. Margins: Well-defined and regular, covered with small vesicles 6. Redness and inflammation: Seen in surrounding skin 7. Itching: Present 8. Vesicles: May be found on fingeips due to scratching 9. Contents: Acrid serum 10. Chemical tests: Positive for the chemical
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A male patient presents with headache, profuse sweating and palpitations with a blood prssure of 180/120 mmHg. The drug of choice would be -
[ "Nifedipine", "Labetalol", "Prazocin", "Phenoxy benzamine" ]
D
Answer- D. Phenoxy benzamineSymptoms of the patient suggests pheochromocytoma .The drug of choice for pheochromocytomas is phenoxybenzamine
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Which of the following responses in an infant is corresponding to verbal response of "speaking inappropriate words" in adults?
[ "Moans to pain", "Cries, irritable", "Cries to pain", "None of the above" ]
C
"Cries to pain" in an infant is corresponding to verbal response of "speaking inappropriate words" in adults. Adult Infant Score Eye Opening Spontaneous Spontaneous 4 To speech To speech 3 To pain To pain 2 No response No response 1 Verbal response Oriented Coos, babbles, fixes, follows 5 Confused Irritable, cries but consolable 4 Inappropriate words Cries to pain, inconsolable 3 Incomprehensible sounds Moans to pain 2 No response No response 1 Motor response Obeys Moves spontaneously 6 Localizes Withdraws to touch 5 Withdraws Withdraws to pain 4 Decoicate to pain Decoicate to pain 3 Decerebrate to pain Decerebrate to pain 2 No response No response 1
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All of the following statements regarding Sickle Cell Anemia is true, EXCEPT:
[ "Patients require frequent blood transfusions", "Patients usually presents before the age of 6 months", "There is a positive correlation between HBS and polymerization of HBS", "Reccurent infections is the most common cause of death" ]
B
Sickle cell anemia is an autosomal recessive disorder, caused by an amino acid substitution of valine for glutamine in the sixth position on the beta-globin chain. Onset of the disease stas during the first year of life especially after 6 months of age, when hemoglobin F levels falls, as a signal is sent to switch from production of gamma globin to beta globin. Hemoglobin S is unstable and polymerizes during hypoxemia and acidosis, leading to sickling of red blood cells. Patients develops jaundice, pigmented gallstones, spleenomegaly, and poorly healing ulcers over the lower tibia. Acute painful episodes can occur due to acute vaso-occlusion by clusters of sickled red cells during infection, dehydration, or hypoxia. Common sites of acute painful episodes include the bones and the chest. Ref: Current Medical Diagnosis and Treatment 2012, Chapter 13 ; Medical Assisting: Administrative and Clinical Competencies By Lucille Keir, 6th Edition, Page 471
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Prolonged administration of Sodium nitroprusside can cause poisoning of:
[ "Cyanide", "Methanol", "Arsenic", "Phenol" ]
A
Cyanide poisoning can occur in rapid or excessive administration of sodium nitroprusside. The breakdown of nitroprusside in the body leads to dissociation into the components cyanide and nitric oxide. Accumulation of cyanide is more common in infusions of sodium nitroprusside exceeding 2g/kg/min. Guidelines for safe administration of sodium nitroprusside has been established to prevent the risk of cyanide toxicity: Maximum acute dose: 1.5 mg/kg for 1-3 hours Maximum chronic dose: 0.5 mg/kg/hr
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Which of the following feature differentiates pethidine from morphine?
[ "Local anaesthetic action", "More analgesic action", "More respiratory depression", "Suppresses cough effectively" ]
A
In contrast to morphine, pethidine has following features 1/10 analgesic potency More rapid onset of action Shoer duration of action Not an effective cough suppressant Lesser spasmodic action on smooth muscles Local anesthetic action Less histamine relief - safer in asthmatics Higher oral; parenteral activity ratio Atropinic effects - dry mouth, blood vision Miosis, constipation Urinary retention are less prominent.
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Horseshoe kidney ascent is prevented by:
[ "Superior mesenteric aery", "Superior mesenteric vein", "Inferior mesenteric aery", "Inferior mesenteric vein" ]
C
Ascent of horseshoe kidney remains incomplete due to Inferior Mesentric Aery prevents fuher migration of kidney . Isthmus usually located adjacent to L3-L4 veebrae , just below the origin of IMA from abdominal aoa .
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How is folic acid absorbed in proximal jejunum?
[ "Facilitated diffusion", "Active transport", "Passive transport", "Both active 8t passive transport" ]
D
ANSWER: (D) Both active & passive transportREF: Harrisons 18thed chapter 105, style="font-size: 1.04761904761905em; font-family: Times New Roman, Times, serif; margin: 0 0 0 8px; text-indent: 0; text-align: left">Folates are present in natural foods and tissues as polyglutamates because these forms serve to keep the folates within cells. In plasma and urine, they are found as monoglutamates because this is the only form that can be transported across membranes. Enzymes in the lumen of the small intestine convert the polyglutamate form to the monoglutamate form of the folate, which is absorbed in the proximal jejunum via both active and passive transport.
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Which statement is false:
[ "The cells in the centre of the enamel organ are densely packed to form enamel knot.", "Enamel cord is the vertical extension of enamel navel.", "The Enamel cord extends to meet the outer enamel epithelium and form enamel septum.", "None." ]
B
Enamel Knot: The cells in the center of the enamel organ are densely packed to form enamel knot. Enamel cord: It is the vertical extension of the enamel knot. Enamel Septum: The enamel cord extends to meet the outer enamel epithelium and form enamel septum.
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Bhore committee advised -
[ "Integration of health services", "100% immunisation", "Eradication of povey", "Minimum needs programme" ]
A
One of the impoant recommendations of the Bhore Committee was Integration of preventive and curative services at all administrative levels (refer pgno:873 park 23 rd edition)
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40 yr old with koilonychias, iron deficiency & dysphagia, diagnosis is ?
[ "Plummer Vinson syndrome", "Achalasia cardia", "7ES", "None" ]
A
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Plummer Vinson syndrome Plummer-Vinson syndrome Plummer-Vinson syndrome, also known as Brown-Kelly-Paterson syndrome or sederopenic dysphagia, seen in middle aged edentulous women. The plummer Vinsion Paterson Brown Kelly Syndrome is characterized by : - Dysphagia Chronic iron deficiency anemia Atrophic oral mucosa and glossitis Brittle, spoon-shaped fingernails (Koilonychia) The cause of dysphagia is usually a cervical esophageal web, but abnormal pharyngeal and esophageal motility may play a role. The syndrome characterstically occurs in middle aged edentulous (without teeth) women. It is a premalignant lesion. Approximately 10% of patient develop squamous cell Ca of esophagus, oral cavity or the hypopharynx. As iron-deficiency anemia is a common finding, it is also known as sideropenic dysphagia. Carcinoma develops in post-cricoid region.
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Vital layer in slow sand filter is seen in
[ "Top of water", "On the sand bed", "Near filter", "None" ]
B
Ans. is 'b' i.e., On the sand bed Vital layer is seen into the top poion of sand bed (not on the top of water). Slow sand filter Also known as biological filter It has following layers from above down words : - 1. Supernatant (raw) water to be purified. 2. Sand bed 3. Gravel suppo 4. Filter bottom o Vital layer, when full formed, extends for 2 to 3 cm into the top poion of sand bag.
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Incisura terminalis is between ?
[ "Tragus and crux of helix", "Ear lobule and antihelix", "Antihelix and external auditory meatus", "Tragus and ear lobule" ]
A
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Tragus and crux of helix Incisura ternzinalis is the area between the tragus and crus of helix
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Which of the following statement is true about external haemorrhoids?
[ "Painful, below the dentate line", "Painless, above the denate line", "Rubber band ligation is the treatment of choice", "May be associated with a skin tag" ]
A
It presents as a suddenonset, olive-shaped, painful blue subcutaneous swelling at the anal margin and is usually consequent upon straining at stool, coughing or lifting a heavy weight .The thrombosis is usually situated in a lateral region of the anal margin. If the patient presents within the first 48 hours the clot may be evacuated under local anaesthesia. Ref: Bailey & Love&;s Sho Practice of Surgery,E25,Page-1259
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True about male breast cancer is all except:-
[ "Less than 2% of all cases of breast cancer", "Most commonly it is infiltrating lobule carcinoma", "Gynaecomastia is not a risk factor", "Exocrine or endocrine estrogen exposure can predispose to it" ]
B
Lobular carcinoma(both in-situ & invasive) is rarely seen due to absence of lobules in males. Most common variety is infiltrating ductal carcinomaQ. PREDISPOSING FACTORS Excess endogenous or exogenous estrogen(Testicular disease,infeility, obesity, cirrhosis)Q Radiation therapy, Klinefelter's syndrome and testicular feminizing syndromesQ. BRCA2 mutationsQ Gynecomastia is not a risk factor for carcinoma male breastQ.
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All of the following are true about Aspirin except:
[ "At low doses it acts as an antiplatelet drug", "It irreverssibly inhibits the synthesis of Thromboxane", "It is used to inhibit Niacin induced Flushing.", "It is a reversible inhibitor of COX" ]
D
Aspirin is an irreversible inhibitor of COX.
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What is true about ischiorectal fossa:
[ "Apex is formed by obturater internus", "Levater ani forms the roof", "Lateral wall is formed by inferior pubic ramus", "Communicates with the other side Posteriorly" ]
D
D. i.e. Communicates with other side posteriorly
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A lady singer with singer's node with history of reflux, the best treatment is:
[ "Voice therapy and PPI", "Microlaryngeal excision and PPI", "LASER excision and PPI", "Vocal cord stripping" ]
A
(a) Voice therapy and PPI(Ref. Cummings, 6th ed., 906; Scott Brown, 8th ed., Vol 3; 951; 984)Initial management of vocal nodule is conservative by advising voice rest and speech therapy. Pharyngo-laryngeal reflux of acid is a common aggravating cause of most of the laryngeal pathologies, so PPI also will benefit this singer.Microlaryngeal excision with knife or LASER is done in persistent nodules despite speech therapyVocal cord stripping is done in keratosis laryngis/ leukoplakia and Reinke's oedema.
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Untoff phenomenon is
[ "Worsening of symptom with cold", "Relief of symptom with cold", "Worsening of symptom with heat and exeion", "Palsy of symptom with heat and excretion" ]
C
Harrison's principles of internal medicine 17th edition. *U/l visual blurring may occur following a hot shower or with physical exercise. Uhthoff's phenomenon (also known as Uhthoff's syndrome, Uhthoff's sign, and Uhthoff's symptom) is the worsening of neurologic symptoms in multiple sclerosis (MS) and other neurological, demyelinating conditions when the body gets overheated from hot weather, exercise, fever, or saunas and hot tubs. Ref Harrison20th edition pg 2345
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Lisch nodule seen in-
[ "Sympathetic ophthalmitis", "Neurofibromatosis", "Chronic iridocyclitis", "Trachoma" ]
B
*Lisch nodules are the most common type of ocular involvement in NF-1. These nodules are melanocytic hamaomas, usually clear yellow to brown that appear as well- defined, dome-shaped elevations projecting from the surface of the iris. Ref: Harrison 18th/e p.2964
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Which of the following is only yeast ?
[ "Candida", "Mucor", "Rhizopus", "Cryptococcus" ]
D
Ans. is d i.e., Cryptococcus
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Odynophagia means:
[ "Pain during swallowing", "Difficulty in swallowing", "Bad odour from mouth", "Psychiatric disease" ]
A
Ans. a (Pain during swallowing). (Ref. Diseases of ENT by PL Dhingra /3rd 402, 444)TermDefinationOdynophagiapainful deglutition.Dysphagiadifficulty in deglutition.Dysphagia lusoriaesophageal compression due to aberrant vessel, leading to dysphagia.Globus hystericusa psychiatric condition characterized by dysphagia.Halitosisbad odour from mouth.
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A 6-yrs-old child complains of difficulty in swallowing and on examination there is a sublingual swelling, which is suspected to be Lingual thyroid. The 1st step in management of this child would be:
[ "Tracheostomy and airway maintenance", "Thyroid scan", "Intubation", "Explain to child's parents that he may require immediate surgery" ]
B
Lingual Thyroid It represents failure of median thyroid tissue to descend normally. Presentation * Asymptomatic * Choking, dysphagia * Airway obstruction, hemorrhage * Hypothyroidism (occasionally) Investigation. Thyroid scan- always performed before radioablative therapy or surgery as it may be the only thyroid tissue present. Treatment * Replacement thyroxine - decrease the size * Radioactive iodine - decrease the size * Surgery- excision rarely required.
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True regarding presentation of primary T.B. is -
[ "B/L pleural effusion with negative Tuberculin test.", "U/L hilar lymphadenopathy", "Sustained chronic pyrexia", "B/L pelural effusion with positive tuberculin test." ]
B
null
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Stress-induced analgesia occurs due to release of which of the following?
[ "Cannabinoids", "Coisol", "Serotonin", "Substance P" ]
A
Stress-induced analgesia: It is the reduced pain sensitivity when a person undergoes any stressful event. Eg. Soldiers injured in battle often don't feel any pain until the battle is over. Amygdala is a pa of the limbic system. It is responsible for mediating the motivational-affective responses to pain and is involved in stress induced analgesia. Stress-induced analgesia occurs due to release of endogenous cannabinoids, eg. 2-arachidonoylglycerol (2-AG) and anandamide They act CB receptors: CB1 receptor -- Associated with euphoria. CB2 receptor -- Associated with control of pain. Release of Norepinephrine from brainstem catecholaminergic neurons in the amygdala also leads to stress induced analgesia.
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Salt sensation is produced by
[ "Alkaloids", "Organic substances", "Ionizing substances", "Acidic substances" ]
C
null
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Spread by mosquitoes:
[ "Dengue", "Kala azar", "Trypanomiasis", "Listeriosis" ]
A
Vector Diseases transmitted Culex Bancroftian filariasis JE West Nile Fever Anopheles Malaria Filaria (outside India) Aedes Yellow fever Dengue Chikungunya Rift Valley Fever Mansonia Brugian filariasis and Chikungunya Kala-azar by Sandfly Trypanosomiasis African - Tsetse fly American (Chagas) - Triatomine bug Listeriosis is by direct transmission by drinking infected milk REF: PARK'S TEXTBOOK OF PREVENTIVE AND SOCIAL MEDICINE, 25TH EDITION, PG NO. 832
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PG F-2d contrandicated is in:
[ "Bronchial asthma", "DM", "Twins", "HT" ]
A
PG F-2d is never used in asthmatic patients. "Postpartum hemorrhage is treated with oxytocin or PGE2. Prostaglandin F-2a or ergotamine derivatives are contraindicated because they may cause significant bronchospasm." —Williams 24/e, p 1015 Remember: In asthmatic patients PGE2 is not contraindicated and can be used for cervical ripening and induction.
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Smoky stool is seen in which poisoning?
[ "Mercury", "Phosphorous", "Iodine", "Lead" ]
B
Ans. (b) PhosphorousRef. Parikh 6/e, p 9.2, Textbook of forensic medicine and Toxicology by Nagesh kumar rao, p 371, Modern medical toxicology byV.V. Pillary, 3/e, p 61
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Dubin Johnson syndrome characteristically makes the liver:
[ "Black", "Blue", "Red", "White" ]
A
This rare autosomal recessive condition, characterized by conjugated hyperbilirubinemia, with normal liver transaminases, a unique pattern of urinary excretion of heme metabolites (coproporphyrin) and the deposition of a pigment, that gives liver a characteristic black color.
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Most common cause of pyomyositis is?
[ "Streptococcus pyogenes", "Pseudomonas", "Staphylococcus Aureus", "E. Coli" ]
C
ANSWER: (C) Staphylococcus AureusREF: Staphylococci in Human Disease Kent B. Crossley, Gordon Archer, Kimberly Jefferson Page 383, http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/PyomyositisPyomyositis, also known as tropical pyomyositis or myositis tropicans, is a bacterial infection of the skeletal muscles wrhich results in a pus-filled abscessPyomyositis is most often caused by the bacterium Staphylococcus aureus. The infection can affect any skeletal muscle, but most often infects the large muscle groups such as the quadriceps or gluteal muscles
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Which of the following statements about Rheumatoid Factor is true ?
[ "It is an IgM antibody directed against IgG", "It is an IgG antibody directed against 1gM", "It is more specific than Anti-CCP antibodies", "It is positive in all cases of Juvenile Rheumatoid Ahritis" ]
A
In rheumatoid ahritis it is suspected that antibodies plays a role in the disease. About80% of patients have serun IgM autoantibodies that bind to fc poion of their own self IgG. These antibodies are called rheumatoid factor. Ref :Robbins basic pathology 9th edition page no 784,green box=Pathogenesis
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IUD of choice in menorrhagia: (Repeat)
[ "Lippe loop", "Cu-T 375", "Cu-T 200", "Levonorgestrel IUCD" ]
D
Ans: D (Levonorgestrel IUCD) Ref: Shaw's Textbook of Gynaecology 15th Edition Pg: 230Explanation:Levonorgestrel IUCD is progesterone impregnated IUCD and is recommended to control bleeding in menorrhagia.Other non contraceptive benefits of LNG IUCD:DUBEndometrial hyperplasiaIntrauterine contraceptive devices (IUCD)Biologically inert devices : Lippe's loopCopper containing devices : CopperT Hormonal IUCDS : Progestasert, Levonova, MIRENAHormonal IUCDs Progesterone38mg of ProgesteroneReleases 65 micrograms/dayEffective for 1 year40% reduction in Menorrhagia40% reduction in DysmenorrheaLevonova60 mg of LevonorgestrelReleases 20 micrograms/dayIncreased chances of ectopic pregnancySafe during lactationEffective for 5 yearsMIRENA52 mg of levonorgestrelReleases 25 micrograms/dayDoes not suppress ovulationActs on endometrium and cervical mucusUsed in DUB, Endometrial hyperplasia, HRTEffective for 5 years
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Jafferson's fracture is the fracture of-
[ "Odontoid", "C1", "C2", "C3" ]
B
*Jefferson's fracture is the most common type of fracture of atlas(1) Ref: Apley's 9th/e p.813,814
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Most Common cause of subarachnoid hemorrhage is: March 2009
[ "Rupture of bridging veins", "Saccular aneurysm rupture", "Hypeension", "Idiopathic" ]
B
Ans. B: Saccular aneurysm rupture Excluding head trauma, the most common cause of subarachnoid hemorrhage (SAH) is hemorrhage from an intracranial aneurysm. Other causes include vascular malformations, tumors, and infection. The management of aneurysmal SAH has changed due to superiority of early surgery for clipping of ruptured aneurysms. This superiority derives from the relative safety of early aneurysm surgery and the major threat of early rebleeding (approximately 25% in three weeks after SAH).
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Coagulative necrosis is seen in:
[ "Brain", "Breast", "Liver", "All" ]
C
Coagulative necrosis is a form of necrosis in which the underlying tissue architecture is preserved for at least several days after the death of cells in the tissue. The affected tissues take on a firm texture. Presumably, the injury denatures not only structural proteins but also enzymes, thereby blocking the proteolysis of the dead cells; as a result, eosinophilic, anucleate cells may persist for days or weeks. Leukocytes are recruited to the site of necrosis, and the dead cells are ultimately digested by the action of lysosomal enzymes of the leukocytes. The cellular debris is then removed by phagocytosis, mediated primarily by infiltrating neutrophils and macrophages. Coagulative necrosis is characteristic of infarcts (areas of necrosis caused by ischemia) in all solid organs except the brain. Robins 10 th ed P:36
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All the following signs could result from infection within the right cavernous sinus except-
[ "Constricted pupil in response to light", "Engorgement of the retinal veins upon ophthalmoscopic examination", "Ptosis of the right eyelid", "Right ophthalmoplegia" ]
A
Cavernous sinus thrombosis Source → Infection from nose, sinuses, orbits, ear or pharynx Onset → Abrupt with high fever and chills and with signs of toxemia. Cranial N involvement → III to VII Ocular features Patient develops severe pain in the eye and forehead of the involved side. Conjunctiva is swollen and congested Proptosis Ptosis (due to 3rd N. palsy) Ophthalmegia (due to palsy of 3rd , 4th and 6th cranial N) Dilated pupil (due to 3rd N involvement) Retinal veins shows congestion Papilloedema Fundus may be normal
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Sampling method used in assessing immunization status of children under immunization programme is-
[ "Systemic sampling", "Stratified sampling", "Group sampling", "Cluster sampling" ]
D
<p> Cluster sampling . Reference: Simple Biostatistics by Indeayan & Indrayan,1st edition,pg no:35-36 and Methods in Biostatistics by Mahajan,7 th edition,pg no:91.
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All are indications for surgical intervention in pyogenic liver abscess, EXCEPT:
[ "Multiple large or loculated absecc", "Thick walled abscess with loculated pus", "Concurrent intraabdominal surgical pathology", "Right lobe abscess" ]
D
Indications for surgical drainage in pyogenic liver abscess are: No clinical response after 4-7 days of drainage a catheter Multiple, large, or loculated abscess Thick walled abscess with viscous pus Concurrent intra-abdominal surgical pathology. Right lobe abscess as such is not an indication for surgical drainage to rupture into the pericardium, which is lethal. Ref: Heneghan et al. BMC Research Notes 2011, 4:80.
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A 35-year-old insulin dependent Diabetes Mellitus (iddm) patient on insulin for the past 10 years. He complains of gradually progressive painless loss of vision. Most likely he has:
[ "Cataract", "Vitreous haemorrhage", "Total rhegmatogenous retinal detachment", "Tractional retinal detachment not involving the macula" ]
A
Cataract - pre senile cataract, so is likely possibility here and is answer of choice. Vitreous hamorrhage would be sudden and more so in proliferative diabetic retinopathyso excluded. Total rhegmatogenous retinal detachment would be sudden so excluded. Tractional retinal detachment not involving the macula - at periphery this won't cause loss of vision so should not be the answer here.
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Clavicle is absent in:
[ "Osteogenesis imperfecta", "Cleidocranial dysostosis", "Fibrous dysplasia", "Osteopetrosis" ]
B
Cleidocranial Dysplasia (Marie and Sainton’s disease, Scheuthauer-Marie-Sainton syndrome, mutational dysostosis). A congenital disorder of bone formation manifested with clavicular hypoplasia or agenesis with a narrow thorax, which allows approximation of the shoulders in front of the chest.
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Clinical features of pneumonia are -
[ "Tracheal shift", "Increased breath sounds", "Decreased vocal fremitus", "Absence of Egophonv" ]
B
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Increased breath sounds Physical examination findings of Common pulmonary conditions Pleural effusionPneumoniaEndobronchial tumorPneumothoraxTracheal positionChest wall movementFremitusPercussionBreath soundsCracklesWheezeShifted or midtineReduced or normalDecreasedDullDecreasedNoneNoneMidlineReduced or normalIncreasedDullIncreasedNoneNoneShifted or midi ineReduced or normalNormal or decreased Normal or DullNormal or DecreasedNonePossibleShifted or midlineReducedNoneHyperresonantDecreased/absentNoneNoneEgophonyBand above effusion (skodiac)PresentNoneNoneTracheal positionDeviated Away fromo Pneumo thoraxo EffusionDeviated towardso Collapseo ConsolidationTactile vocal fremituso Tactile vocal fremitus is vibration felt on the patients chest during low frequency vocalisation,o Commonly the patient is asked to repeat a phrase while the examiner feels for vibtations by placing a hand over the patient chest or back.o Tactile fremitus is normally more intense in the right second intercostal space as well as in the interscapular region as these:Tactile fremituso In creased-Consolidationo Decreased or absent-Pleural effusion or Pneumothorax o Reason for increased fremitus in a consolidated lung is the fact that the sound waves are transmitted with less decay in solid or fluid medium (consolidation) than in a gaseous medium (consolidation) than in a gaseous medium (aerated lung). Conversely the reason for decreased fremitus in a pleural effusion or pneumothorax (or any pathology separating the lung tissue itself from the body wall) is that this increased space diminishes or prevents entirely sound transmissiono Egophony is a change in timbre (EO to A) but not pitch or volume.o It is due to decrease in the amplitude and an increase in the frequency of the second formant produced by solid (including compressed lung) interposed between the resonator and the stethoscope head,o The sound of a spoken "E " change to "A " over an area of consolidation. The spoken "E " is beared as "A " when listening over the consolidation because the frequencies of the vibrations are altered by the consolidation. Egophony or "E" to ".A " changes may also occur in small band like area just above a pleural effusion because of compression of lung tissue that occurs just above the effusion.
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Which of the following muscles develop from 6th pharyngeal arch
[ "Cricothyroid", "Thyrohyoid", "Stylopharyngeus", "Thyroaretynoid" ]
D
Derivatives of the Pharyngeal Arches and their Innervation Pharyngeal arch Nerve Muscles Skeleton 1st Vth nerve- trigeminal: maxillary and mandibular divisions - Muscles of Mastication (temporal: masseter, medial, lateral pterygoids) - Myelohyoid - Anterior belly of digastric - Tensor veli palatini - Tensor tympani Premaxilla, Maxilla, Zygomatic bone, Pa of temporal bone. Meckel's cailage, Mandible, Malleus. Incus, Anterior ligament of malleus, Sphenomandibular ligament 2nd VIIth nerve- Facial - Muscles of facial expression (buccinator, auricularis, frontalis, platysma, orbicularis oris, orbicularis oculi) - Posterior belly of digastric, - Stylohyoid, - Stapedius Stapes, Styloid process, Stylohyoid ligament, Lesser cornu and upper poion of body of hyoid bone 3rd IXth nerve- glossopharyngeal - Stylopharyngeus Greater cornu and lower poion of body of hyoid bone 4th Xth nerve- Superior laryngeal nerve - Pharyngeal muscles - Cricothyroid - Levator veli palatini Thyroid cailage Epiglottis 6th Xth nerve - Recurrent laryngeal nerve - All Intrinsic muscles of larynx except cricothyroid Cricoid cailage Arytenoid cailage Corniculate Cuneiform
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Destruction of fat in acute pancreatitis is due to -
[ "Lipase and elastase", "Lipase and trypsin", "Secretin", "Cholecystokinin and trypsin" ]
B
An enzyme activated by trypsin is phospholipase A2. This enzyme splits a fatty acid off lecithin, forming lysolecithin. Lysolecithin damages cell membrane. It has been hypothesized that in acute pancreatitis phospholipase A2 is activated in the pancreatic ducts, with the formation of lysolecithin from lecithin that is a normal constituent of bile. This cause disruption of pancreatic tissue and necrosis of surrounding fat.
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Most impoant amino acid which acts as methyl group donor -
[ "Cysteine", "Methionine", "Tyrosine", "Tryptophan" ]
B
Ans. is 'b' i.e., MethionineMethionine is activated into S-adenosylmethionine, which then transfers its methyl group to an acceptor. Thus methionine acts as methyl donor in transmethylation reactions.Some of the impoant transmethylation reactions are?Norepinephrine - EpinephrinePhosphatidylethanolamine - PhosphatidylcholineGunaidoacetate 4 CreatineEthanolamine - CholineAcetyl serotonin - SerotoninNucleotides methylated nucleotides
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Blood pressure is defined as the product of.
[ "Systolic pressure x pulse", "Diastolic pressure x pulse rate", "Pulse pressure x pulse rate", "Cardiac output x peripheral resistance" ]
D
D i.e. Peripheral resistance x cardiac output: Blood pressure is defined as the product of cardiac output and peripheral resistance. Blood pressure = Cardiac output x peripheral resistance or Blood flow (Q) x resistance (R)
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Which of the following should be considered as the cause6 of generalised convulsions 20 minutes post operatively
[ "Halothane", "Enflurane", "Isoflurane", "Sevoflurane" ]
B
Refer anaesthesiology by Longnecker /761 KDT 6/e p372 Enflurane Enflurane is known to produce seizures
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EDTA is used for poisoning with:
[ "Cyanide", "Lead", "Mercury", "Phosphorus" ]
B
Mercury
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All of the following organs are needed for biopsy prove GVHD except
[ "Kidney", "Skin", "Liver", "Intestine" ]
C
Graft-versus-host disease (GvHD) is a medical complication following the receipt of transplanted tissue froma genetically different person . GvHD is commonly associated with stem cell transplants such as those that occur with bone marrow transplants. GvHD also applies to other forms of transplanted tissues such as solid organ transplants. White blood cells of the donor's immune system which remain within the donated tissue (the graft) recognize the recipient (the host) as foreign (non-self). The white blood cells present within the transplanted tissue then attack the recipient's body's cells, which leads to GvHD. This should not be confused with a transplant rejection, which occurs when the immune system of the transplant recipient rejects the transplanted tissue; GvHD occurs when the donor's immune system's white blood cells reject the recipient. The underlying principle (alloimmunity) is the same, but the details and course may differ. GvHD can also occur after a blood transfusion if the blood products used have not been irradiated or treated with an approved pathogen reduction system. Ref - wikipedia.org
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Therapeutic drug monitoring is done for all the following except:
[ "Phenytoin", "Metformin", "Tacrolimus", "Cyclosporin" ]
B
null
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True about Henoch-Schonlein purpura?
[ "Palpable pupura", "Common in children", "Thrombocytosis", "All of the above" ]
D
Henoch-Schonlein purpura also referred to as anaphylactoid purpura, is a small-vessel vasculitis characterized by palpable purpura (most commonly distributed over the buttocks and lower extremities), ahralgias, gastrointestinal signs and symptoms, and glomerulonephritis. Henoch-Schonlein purpura is usually seen in children; most patients range in age from 4 to 7 years; however, the disease may also be seen in infants and adults.The presumptive pathogenic mechanism for Henoch-Schonlein purpura is an immune-complex deposition. A number of inciting antigens have been suggested including upper respiratory tract infections, various drugs, foods, insect bites, and immunizations. IgA is the antibody class most often seen in the immune complexes and has been demonstrated in the renal biopsies of these patients.(Harrison&;&;s principle of internal medicine,18th edition, pg no.2797)
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Multiple sclerosis affects
[ "White matter", "Gray matter", "Both", "None" ]
A
Multiple sclerosis is an autoimmune demylinating disease characterised by distinct episodes of neurological deficits, attributable to white matter lesions. Common early signs of multiple sclerosis (MS) include: vision problems. tingling and numbness. pains and spasms. weakness or fatigue. balance problems or dizziness. bladder issues. sexual dysfunction. cognitive problems. Robbins basic pathology. 7th edition . Chapter: the central nervous system. Pge no. 1382.
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All of the following muscles are derived from second branchial arch except:
[ "Posterior belly of digastric", "Anterior belly of digastric", "Stapedius", "Orbicularis oculi" ]
B
All muscles derived from the second arch are supplied by CN VII. They include stapedius, posterior belly of digastric, stylohyoid, auricular muscles (anterior, superior and posterior) and all mimetic muscles of face including buccinator. Anterior belly of digastric is innervated by trigeminal (V3 division) nerve.
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Elements of primary health c are are the following except -
[ "Health education", "Intersectoral coordination", "Cost effectiveness", "Provision of essential drugs" ]
C
Elements of primary health care education concerning prevailing health problems and the method of preventing and controlling them Promotion of food supply and proper nutrition An adequate supply of safe water and basic sanitation Maternal and child health care including family planning Immunization against major infectious diseases Prevention and control of locally endemic diseases Appropriate treatment of common diseases and injuries Provisions of essential drugs (refer pgno:891 park 23rd edition)
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For the following explanations for hirsutism, select the most likely cause.Can be associated with anovulation, obesity, and amenorrhea.
[ "drugs", "adrenal tumor", "polycystic ovarian disease (PCOD)", "idiopathic hirsutism" ]
C
The most severe form of PCOD, Stein-Leventhal syndrome, is associated with chronic anovulation, hirsutism, enlarged cystic ovaries, obesity, and amenorrhea. The spectrum of disease, however, is quite wide, and some patients have only mild hirsutism.
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Defective proteins are degraded after attaching covalently to -
[ "Clathrin", "Pepsin", "Laminin", "Ubiquitin" ]
D
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Ubiquitin o Defective proteins are often marked for destruction by ubiquitination (attachment of small, highly conserved protein called ubiquitin). Such proteins are rapidly degraded by proteosome, which is a macromolecular, ATP dependent, proteolytic system located in the cytosol.
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Chronic discharging sinus with bone particle is seen in
[ "Chronic osteomyelitis", "Acute osteomyelitis", "Subacute osteomyelitis", "Garre’s osteomyelitis" ]
A
Clinical features of chronic osteomyelitis The commonest presenng symptom is a chronic discharging sinus, a history of bone piece discharge from the chronic sinus is considered diagnosc of chronic osteomyelis. Pain is minimal or absent. Generalized symptoms of acute osteomyelis are not present except in acute excacerbaons. On examinaon there is irregular thickening of bone. Mild tenderness may be seen in deep palpaon. Adjacent joint may be sff. Radiological features Following are radiological features : - Thickening and irregularity of the corces. Patchy sclerosis Bone cavity : This is seen as an area of rarefacon surrounded by sclerosis. Sequestrum(Manipal 97): This appears denser than the surrounding normal bone because the decalcificaon which occurs in normal bone, does not occur in dead bone. Granulaon ssue surrounding the sequestrum gives rise to a radiolucent zone around it. A sequestrum may be visible in so ssue. Involucrum and cloacae may be visible
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Edman's reagent is
[ "2-4 dinitrophenol", "1-fluoro-2, 4-dinitrobenzene", "Phenyl-isocyanate", "Cynogen bromide" ]
C
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Phenyl-isocyanateDetermination of amino acid sequence (sequence analysis) is performed by Edman degradation method on automatic mechines, called cyclic sequentors. Edman's reagent is phenyl-isothiocyanate, and forms a covalent bond to N-terminal of amino-acid. This can be identified.Sanger's reagent (1-fluoro-2,4-dinitrobenzene) can be used in place of Edman's reagent.
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Selenium sulfide is indicated for treating:
[ "Tinea versicolor", "Tinea corporis", "Mixed myocotic infections", "Candidiasis only" ]
A
Tinea versicolor
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DNA synthesis requires:
[ "DNA polymerase", "DNA ligase", "DNA topoisomerase", "All" ]
D
A i.e. DNA polymerase, B i.e.DNA ligase, C i.e. DNA topoisomerase
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Most important essential fatty acid?
[ "Linoleic acid", "g Linolenic acid", "Arachidonic acid", "Cervonic acid" ]
A
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Linoleic acid* The three polyunsaturated fatty acids (PUFAs), namely, linoleic acid linolenic acid and arachidonic acid are called essential fatty acids.* They are called essential fatty acids because human beings require these fatty acids but cannot synthesize them.* Humans lack the enzymes to introduce double bonds at carbon atom beyond C9 in the fatty acid chain. Hence, human cannot synthesize linolenic acid and linolenic acid having double bonds beyond C9.* Arachidonic acid can be synthesized from linoleic acid. Therefore, in deficiency of linoleic acid, arachidonic acid also becomes essential fatty acids.* Therefore linoleic acid is the most important essential fatty acid as it serves as a basis for the production of other EFA.
train
med_mcqa
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Which of the following is characteristically associated with dermatitis?
[ "Spongiosis", "Ohokeratosis", "Hypergranulosis", "Acanthosis" ]
A
Ans. is'a'i.e., SpongiosislRef: Venkataram 1"'/e p. 36-381Intercellular edema in stratum spinosum is known as spongiosis. It is considered to be the most characteristic histopathological finding of eczema ( dermatitis)
train
med_mcqa
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X-linked recessive disease in male with clotting defect is-
[ "Hemophilia A", "IT", "Von-Willebrand disease", "None" ]
A
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Hemophilia A Hemophila A o Hemophilia A is due to deficiency offactor VIII. o Hemophilia A is inherited as an X-linked recessive trait. o Factor VIII is an intrinsic pathway component required for activation of factor X. o Clinical manifestations are due to defect in coagulation system : ? i) Large post traumatic ecchymoses or hematoma. ii) Prolonged bleeding after a laceration or any form of surgical procedure. iii) Bleeding into weight bearing joints. o Petechiae are characteristically absent (in contrast to platelet dysfunction where bleeding occur from small vessels of skin and mucous membrane, e.g., petechiae). o Laboratory findings T PTT Normal PT Normal BT Normal platelet counts Remember o Hemophilia B (christmas disease) is due to deficiency of factor IX. o Hemophilia B has clinical features and laboratory findings similar to hemophilia A.
train
med_mcqa
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