question stringlengths 1 6.54k | choices listlengths 4 4 | answer stringclasses 4
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The maximum life of a transfused R.B.C. is - | [
"One hour",
"One day",
"15 days",
"50 days"
] | D | Mean life is around 35 days . | train | med_mcqa | null |
Fastest tolerance develops in | [
"Cannabis",
"Opiods",
"Alcohol",
"Benzodiazepines"
] | B | (Opiods): (Neeraj Ahujapsychiatry)DRUGUSUAL ROUTE OF ADMINISTRATIONPHYSICAL DEPENDENCEPSYCHIC DEPENDENCETOLERANCE1. AlcoholOral+ ++ ++2. Alcohol (Morphine Heroin)Oral, Parenteral, Smoking+ + ++ + ++ + +3. Cannabis (Marihuana)Smoking, Oral++ ++4. CocaineInhalation,, Oral, Smoking, Parenterl-+ +-5. AmphetaminesOral, Parenteral++ ++ + +6. Lysergic acid Diethylamide (LSD)Oral-++7. BarbituratesOral, Parenteral+ ++ ++ + +8. Benzodiazepine sOral, Parenteral+++9. Volatile SolventsInhalation++ ++10. Phencyclidine (PCP)Smoking, Inhalation, Parenteral, Oral+++ | train | med_mcqa | null |
Lung volume reduction operations have been developed as a method of managing patients with | [
"Asbestosis",
"Emphysema",
"Bronchiectasis",
"Amyloidosis"
] | B | In a patient with diffuse severe emphysema, resection or pa of the damaged lung may allow the patient's residual lung to function more efficiently. This technique may serve either as an alternative to lung transplantation or as a bridge until an appropriate donor organ is available. ref - Harrisons internal medicine 20e pg 1997 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following β2 agonists are given by inhalation, and is suitable for both terminating acute asthma attacks as well as for twice daily prophylaxis | [
"Terbutaline",
"Bambuterol",
"Salmeterol",
"Formoterol"
] | D | Terbutaline is a fast-acting bronchodilator useful for terminating the acute attack of bronchial asthma. Due to short duration of action, it is not suitable for chronic prophylaxis.
Bambuterol, salmeterol and formoterol are long-acting β2 agonists useful for chronic prophylaxis.
Bambuterol and salmeterol are delayed acting, therefore are not suitable for acute attacks.
Formoterol is fast acting also, therefore can be used for the treatment of acute attack of asthma. | train | med_mcqa | null |
In a female child at bih, oocyte is in a stage of | [
"Anaphase of the first meiotic division",
"Prophase of the first meiotic division",
"Anaphase of the second meiotic division",
"Prophase of the second meiotic division"
] | B | Inderbir Singh&;s Human embryology; Tenth edition; Pg 24At the time of bih, all primary oocytes are in the prophase of the first meiotic division. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Herbeden's ahropathy affects | [
"Lumbar spine",
"Symmetrically large joints",
"Sacroiliac joints",
"Distal interphalangeal joints"
] | D | Answer is D (Distal interphalangeal joints) Herbeden's nodes or bony enlargement of distal interphalangeal joints are the most common form of idiopathic osteoahritis Bouchard's nodes lierbeden's nodes Bony enlargement of PIP joint in Bony enlargement of DIP joint in osteoahritis | train | med_mcqa | null |
A G4P2 lady presented with history of two aboions at 16 weeks and 20 weeks POG. Which of the following could be the most likely reason for these aboions? | [
"Chromosomal abnormality",
"Cervical incompetence",
"Placenta pre",
"Thyroid abnormality"
] | B | Aboions- MC causes 1st trimester - chromosomal causes 2nd trimester - Anatomical cause | train | med_mcqa | null |
CSF rhinorrhea is most commonly seen in fracture of: | [
"Cribriform plate",
"Temporal bone",
"Nasal bone",
"Occipital bone"
] | A | CSF rhinorrhea occurs when there is a communication between the intracranial (intradural) and nasal cavities. CSF, rhinorrhea indicates a basal tear of dura mater along with a fracture involving the paranasal sinuses, frontal, ethmoid, or sphenoid bone. Cribriform plate of the ethmoid bone separates the anterior cranial fossa from the nasal cavity and is the most common site of fracture in CSF rhinorrhea because it is extremely thin. The cerebrospinal fluid has high glucose content, makes a dry hanky stiff, and if mixed with blood it classically produces a halo effect on the white bed clothes. Patients of CSF rhinorrhea are at increased risk of meningitis particularly pneumococcal. Patient should be given prophylactic antibiotic (penicillin) followed by X-ray. Fractures of the middle 1/3rd of the face should be reduced and most of the times CSF rhinorrhea stops. Indications for anterior fossa explorations are persistence of CSF rhinorrhea for> 10 days; presence of a fracture involving the frontal or ethmoidal sinus; aerocele; an attack of meningitis that has been treated. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Adenoid cystic carcinoma may cause paralysis of: | [
"Lingual nerve.",
"Facial nerve.",
"Hypoglossal nerve.",
"All of the above."
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
An RNA molecule is extracted from culture of gram negative bacteria. This extract contained dihydrouracil, Pseudouridine thymidine residues. which of the following is most likely composition of 3' end of this molecule | [
"AUG",
"CCA",
"UAG",
"PolyA"
] | B | The given RNA is tRNA as it has unusal bases. It has CCA sequence at its 3' end that is used as recognition sequence by proteins. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Sphenopalatine foramen opens in which wall of pterygopalatine fossa? | [
"Medial wall",
"Lateral wall",
"Superior wall",
"Inferior wall"
] | A | The pterygopalatine fossa is a small pyramidal space inferior to the apex of the orbitThe pterygopalatine fossa communicates to:DirectionPassageConnectionPosteriorlyforamen rotundummiddle cranial fossaPosteriorlypterygoid canal (Vidian)middle cranial fossa, foramen lacerumPosteriorlypalatovaginal canal (pharyngeal)nasal cavity/nasopharynxAnteriorlyinferior orbital fissureorbitMediallysphenopalatine foramennasal cavityLaterallypterygomaxillary fissureinfratemporal fossaInferiorlygreater palatine canal (pterygopalatine)oral cavity, lesser palatine canals | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most common gene associated with pancreatic cancer | [
"KRAS",
"SMAD",
"P53",
"Rb"
] | A | Ans. (a) KRAS(Ref Robbins 9th/pg 892-894)GeneChrPercentage KRAS12p90Most commonly involved Oncogene Qp16/CDKN2A9p95Most commonly involved Tumor suppressor gene QTP5317p50-70Involved in Response to DNA damageSMAD418q55TGF b pathwayBRCA213q10Germ-line mutation Q | train | med_mcqa | null |
Simplest and most effective method to prevent nosocomial infection- | [
"Use of antibiotics",
"Use of laminar airflow",
"Use of filters",
"Hand washing"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Hand washing o As hand contact is the most common mode of transmission, the best preventive measure of nosocomial infection is proper hand hygiene. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Widmark's formulae are used for estimation of | [
"Cyanides",
"Alcohol",
"D.D.T.",
"Teeth"
] | B | B i.e. Alcohol | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is feminizing ovarian tumours: | [
"Granulosa cell tumour",
"Arrhenoblastoma",
"Hilus cell tumour",
"Gynandroblastoma"
] | A | (Granulosa cell tumour): Ref: 362-S (339-S14th)TUMOURS ARISING FROM PRIMITIVE MESENCHYME(a) Feminizing: Granulosa cell, Theca cell, Leteoma(b) Neutral: Dyserminoma (Seminoma)(c) Virilising: Arrhenoblastoma, suprarenal cortical tumour, Hilus cell tumours(d) Mixed: Gynandroblastoma | train | med_mcqa | null |
"Chovestek's sign" is seen in: | [
"Hypocalcemia",
"Hypercalcemia",
"Hypokalemia",
"Hyperkalemia"
] | A | (Hypocalcemia): Ref: 777-778-CMDT-09Hypocalcemia - Sign & Symptoms* Extensive spasm of skeletal muscle causes cramps and Tetany* Laryngospasm with stridor can obstruct the airway* Convulsions can occur as well as parasthesias of lips and extremities and abdominal pain* Chvostek's sign (contraction of the facial muscle in response to tapping the facial nerve anterior to the ear)* Trousseau's sign: - (carpal spasm occurring after occlusion of the brachial artery with a blood pressure cuff for 3 minutes)* Prolongation of the QT interval (due to lengthened ST segment) predisposes to the development of ventricular arrhythmias | train | med_mcqa | null |
Scrub typhus is trasmitted by - | [
"Mite",
"Louse",
"Tick",
"Flea"
] | A | Description: Vector Diseases transmitted Soft tick Relapsing fever, Q fever, KFD (outside India) Hard tick Tularemia, Babesiosis, KFD (India), Tick paralysis, Tick encephalitis, Indian tick typhus, Tick hemorrhagic fever, Rocky Mountain spotted fever. Epidemic Typhus - Louse - R. prowazaki Endemic typhus - Flea - R. typhi Shrub typhus - trombiculid mite - O. tsutsugamushi Indian Tick Typhus - Tick - R. conori REF: PARK'S TEXTBOOK OF PREVENTIVE AND SOCIAL MEDICINE, 25TH EDITION, PG NO. 841 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Putrefaction is retarded by: | [
"Lead",
"Mercury",
"Arsenic",
"Copper"
] | C | Arsenic | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 17-year-old boy from Calcutta was playing football when he was tackled by another player. The opponent hit the lateral aspect of his knee. He presented to a hospital 1 week after the injury, complaining of swelling and pain in his right knee. On physical examination of his right knee, there is a large effusion. There is increased laxity (as compared to his uninjured knee) of his knee when his knee is passively placed in a valgus (abducted) position. In addition, there is significant anterior translation of his tibia with respect to his femur when his knee is tested at ninety degrees of flexion. Injury to which of the following structures most likely accounts for the increased laxity of his knee when his knee is passively placed in a valgus position? | [
"Anterior cruciate ligament",
"Lateral collateral ligament",
"Medial collateral ligament",
"Patellar ligament"
] | C | The medial collateral ligament originates from the medial femoral epicondyle and inses on the medial proximal tibia. Its function is to prevent valgus instability of the knee. When a valgus stress is placed on the tibia, the medial collateral ligament is stressed and prevents displacement. The anterior cruciate ligament passes from the medial surface of the lateral femoral condyle to the anterior intercondylar area of the tibia. Its primary function is to prevent anterior translation of the tibia in reference to the femur (or posterior displacement of the femur in reference to the tibia). The lateral collateral ligament originates on the lateral femoral epicondyle and inses on the head of the fibula. It functions to prevent varus instability of the knee. When a varus stress (adduction) is placed on the tibia, the lateral collateral ligament becomes taut and prevents displacement. The patellar ligament runs from the inferior pole of the patella to the tibial tubercle, and is commonly referred to as the patellar tendon. However, this structure connects bone to bone, which is the definition of a ligament, not a tendon. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following statements about Corynebacterium diphtheria is false | [
"Toxin production is mediated by native chromosome",
"Organism may be identified by tests for toxigenicity",
"Toxin acts by inhibiting protein synthesis",
"Toxin may affect the hea and nerves"
] | A | The toxigenicity of diphtheria bacillus depends on the intercellular presence of corynephage (tox+), which acts as the genetic determinant controlling toxin production. The toxin produced by all the strains of the diphtheria bacilli is qualitatively similar. The standard strain almost universally used for toxin production is the Park-Williams 8 strain. The toxin acts by inhibiting protein synthesis. It has a special affinity for ceain tissues such as myocardium, adrenals and nerve endings. Reference: Textbook of Microbiology; Anathanarayan and panicker's; 10th edition; Page no: 240 | train | med_mcqa | null |
OCP fails when used with the following drugs, EXCEPT: | [
"Aspirin",
"Phenytoin",
"Rifampin",
"Tetracycline"
] | A | Larger doses of aspirin may be required when given with oral contraceptive pills. Drugs that May Reduce Combined Hormonal Contraceptive Efficacy: Antituberculous Rifampin Antifungals Griseofulvin Anticonvulsants and Sedatives Phenytoin Mephenytoin Phenobarbital Primidone Carbamazepine Ethosuximide Antibiotics Tetracycline Doxycycline Penicillins Ciprofloxacin Ofloxacin Antiretrovirals Ref: Cunningham F.G., Leveno K.J., Bloom S.L., Hauth J.C., Rouse D.J., Spong C.Y. (2010). Chapter 32. Contraception. In F.G. Cunningham, K.J. Leveno, S.L. Bloom, J.C. Hauth, D.J. Rouse, C.Y. Spong (Eds), Williams Obstetrics, 23e. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Drugs associated with gingival changes are: | [
"Phenytoin, cystine and nifedipine",
"Nifedipine, ibuprofen and Lignocaine",
"Cyctosporin, chlorine and iodine",
"Phenytoin, hydrogen, hydrogen peroxide and paracetamol"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
In Dissociative disorder, all are seen except - | [
"Fugue",
"Amnesia",
"Multiple personality",
"Hearing loss"
] | D | Hearing loss (sensory symptom) is seen in conversion disorder (not in dissociative disorder).
Dissociative disorders are:-Amnesia, fugue, Identity (multiple personality) disorder, depersonalization disorder, dissociative disorder NOS (transe or possession, Ganser syndrome, somnambulism). | train | med_mcqa | null |
which was the first type of antidepressant that was introduced | [
"MAOI",
"SSRI",
"NDRI",
"SNRI"
] | A | MAOI * IMPOANCE First class of antidepressant drugs that were introduced * MECHANISM There are three monoamines namely dopamine, adrenaline and serotonin. These mon amines are degraded by monoamine oxidase. MAOI inhibit this enzyme and acts increasing monoamines * DRUGS Phenelezine Tranylcipromine * USE ATYPICAL DEPRESSION, depression with reverse vegetative symptoms * SIDE EFFECTS Hypeensive crisis Cheese reaction When a patient on MAOI takes tyramine rich food like tyramine there will be increased release of monoamines. These excess monoamines cannot be degraded by MAO as it is blocked by MAOI. Thus, this may result in hypeensive crisis. Paresthesia's due to pyridoxine deficiency LIKE IPRONIAZID WEIGHT gain SEXUAL dysfunction Ref. Kaplon and Sadock, synopsis of psychiatry, 11 th edition, pg no. 925 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Diffusion hypoxia seen during ? | [
"Induction of anesthesia",
"Reversal of anesthesia",
"Post operative period",
"None of the above"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Reversal of anaesthesia Second gas effect and diffusion hvpoxia In initial pa of induction, diffusion gradient from alveoli to blood is high and larger quantity of anaesthetic is entering blood. If the inhaled Concentration of anaesthetic is high (eg N20), Substantial loss of alveolar gas volume will occur and it creates negative intralveolar pressure that leads to removal of more gas from cylinder to alveoli Concentration effect. If another inhalation agent is (eg Halothane) is being given at the same time, it also will be delivered to lung from the cylinder (due to negative intraalveolar pressure) Second gas effect. During recovery reverse occurs - N20 having low blood solubility, rapidly diffuses into alveoli and dilutes the alveolar air --> paial pressure of oxygen in alveoli is reduced. The resulting hypoxia is known as diffusion hypoxia. Diffusion hypoxia can be prevented by continuing 100% 02 inhalation for a few minutes after discontinuing N20, instead of straight away switching over to air. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Cyanosis may seen in: March 2013 | [
"Histotoxic hypoxia",
"Anemic hypoxia",
"Stagnant hypoxia",
"All of the above"
] | C | Ans. C i.e. Stagnant hypoxia Central cyanosis Often due to a circulatory or ventilatory problem that leads to poor blood oxygenatio in the lungs. It develops when aerial saturation drops to 85% or 75% (in dark-skinned individuals). Central cyanosis may be due to the following causes Central Nervous System (impairing normal ventilation): Intracranial hemorrhage, Drug overdose (Heroin) - Respiratory System: Pneumonia, Bronchilitis, Pulmonary hypeension - Cardiac Disorders: Congenital hea disease: TOF, Right to left shunts Blood: Methemoglobinemia, Polycythemia Others: High altitude Peripheral cyanosis Peripheral cyanosis is the blue tint in fingers or extremities, due to inadequate circulation. The blood reaching the extremities is not oxygen rich and when viewed through the skin a combination of factors can lead to the appearance of a blue colour. All factors contributing to central cyanosis can also cause peripheral symptoms to appear, however peripheral cyanosis can be observed without there being hea or lung failures. Peripheral cyanosis may be due to the following causes: - All common causes of central cyanosis Reduced cardiac output (e.g. hea failure, hypovolemia) - Cold exposure - Aerial obstruction (e.g. peripheral vascular disease, Raynaud phenomenon) - Venous obstruction (e.g. DVT) Differential cyanosis Differential cyanosis is the bluish coloration of the lower but not the upper extremity and the head. This is seen in patients with a patent ductus aeriosus . Patients with a large ductus develop progressive pulmonary vascular disease, and pressure overload of the right ventricle occurs. As soon as pulmonary pressure exceeds aoic pressure, shunt reversal (right-to-left shunt) occurs. The upper extremity remains pink because the brachiocephalic trunk, left common carotid trunk and the left subclan trunk is given off proximal to the PDA. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Histidine is converted to histamine by: | [
"Transamination",
"Hydroxylation",
"Decarboxylation",
"Reduction"
] | C | Active form of Pyridoxine
Pyridoxal Phosphate (PLP)
Mainly used for Amino Acid metabolism.
Coenzyme Role of Pyridoxal Phosphate (PLP)
Transamination
Alanine Amino Transferase (ALT)
Aspartate Amino Transferase (AST)
Alanine Glyoxalate Amino Transferase.
Decarboxylation of amino acids
This results in the formation of Biogenic Amines
Glutamate: CABA
5-Hydroxy Tryptophan: Serotonin
Histidine: Histamine
Cysteine: Taurine
Serine: Ethanolamine
DOPA: Dopamine.
Key Concept:
Histidine is converted to Histamine by the process of decarboxylation. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following are visual agnosias arising from a defect in the ventral or &;What Pathway&;, except | [
"Cerebral Achromatopsia",
"Prosopagnosia",
"Pure Alexia",
"Akinetopsia"
] | D | Akinetopsia arises from a defect in the Dorsal, or "Where?" Pathway. Disorders of the ventral or "What Pathway" Ventral Pathway is known as the "What Pathway" of vision for its role in object recognition Disorders of the Dorsal, or "Where Pathway" Dorsal Pathways is known as the "Where pathway" of vision its role determining object&;s position in space. Object agnosia Cerebral Achromatopsia Prosopagnosia Topographagnosia Pure Alexia Akinetopsia Simultanagnosia Optic Ataxia The visual Agnosia and Related Disorders: Visual agnosia is an impairement in recognition of visually presented objects. It is not due to a deficit in vision (acuity, visual field and scanning), language, memory or intellect. Disorders arising from a defect in the dorsal, or "Where?", pathway Akinetopsia: Akinetopsia also known as cerebral akinetopsia or motion blindness is a neuropsychological disorder in which a patient cannot perceive motion in their visual field, despite being able to see stationery objects without issue. Simultanagnosia: (or Simultagnosia) : is a rare neurological disorder characterized by the inability of an individual to perceive more than a single object at a time. Optic Ataxia: (Component of Balint&;s Syndrome): Optic Ataxia is a type of ataxia where the patient is not able to guide his/her hand towards an object with the help of visual information. Patients with optic Ataxia are unable to move their hand to reach or grab an object by using vision. Ref: The visual Agnosias and related disorders. J. Neuroophthalmol 2017 | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following soft tissue sarcoma has propensity for lymphatic spread except | [
"Neurofibrosarcoma",
"Synol sarcoma",
"Rhabdomyosarcoma",
"Epitheloid sarcoma"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Neurofibrosarcoma Soft tissue sarcomas are tumors of mesenchymal origin. Unlike most carcinomas, soft tissue sarcomas rarely metastasize to the lymph nodes (<5%); therefore lymph node surgery usually is not necessary. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Treatment of transverse lie at labour is : | [
"Aificial rupture of membrane",
"Oxytocin infusion",
"Cesarean section",
"Forceps delivery"
] | C | Cesarean section | train | med_mcqa | null |
Best indication foe testicular biopsy in male is: | [
"Polyspermia",
"Oligospermia",
"Necrospermia",
"Azoospermia"
] | D | Testicular Biopsy in Male Infeility The testis biopsy provides direct information regarding the state of spermatogenesis Abnomalities of seminiferous tubules architecture and cellular composition are then categorized into several patterns. This procedure is most useful in the azoospermia patient, in which it is often difficult to distinguish between a failure of sperm production and obstruction within reproductive tract ducts. A testis biopsy allows definitive delineation between these 2 conditions and can guide fuher treatment options in azoospermic men. Testis biopsies may also be indicated to identify patients at high risk for intratubular germ cell neoplasia. This premalignant condition exists in 5% of men with a contralateral germ cell tumour of the testis and is more prevelent in infeile than feile men. Ref: Smith 18th edition Pgno: 699 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Common cause of acute osteomyelitis is DLETE | [
"Trauma",
"Surgery",
"Fungal infection",
"Hematogenous spread"
] | D | Hematogenous osteomyelitis is the commonest form of osteomyelitis and most common source if bone and joint infection is Hematogenous Refer Maheshwari 6th/e 168 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Uremic complications typically arise during which of the following phases of Renal Failure: | [
"Initiation",
"Maintenance",
"Diuretic Phase",
"Recovery Phase"
] | B | Answer is B (Maintenance) Uremic complications and Electrolyte imbalance typically arise during the Maintenance Phase of Acute Renal Failure (Also known as Oliguric Phase). Maintenance phase refers to the phase of Renal Failure in which the renal injury becomes established. It is also known as the Oliguric Phase. During this phase the GFR and Urine output progressively decrease until they stabilize at their lowest. Fluid retention gives rise to edema, water intoxication, and pulmonary congestion if the period of oliguria is prolonged. Hypeension frequently develops during this phase. Uremic complications and Electrolyte imbalance typically arise during this phase. Continuous Renal Replacement Therapy (CR) or Dialysis should be initiated in this phase. The oliguric-anuric phase generally lasts 10 to 14 days but can last for several more. The longer the patient remains in this phase, the poorer the prognosis for a return to normal renal function. | train | med_mcqa | null |
True about is / are : | [
"MS surgery better avoided in pregnancy",
"MR with PHT-definite indication for termination of pregnancy",
"Aoic stenosis in young age is due to Bicuspid valve",
"All"
] | D | Ans. a, b and c i.e. MS surgery better avoided in pregnancy; MR with PHT- definite indication for termination of pregnancy; and Aoic stenosis in young age is due to Bicuspid valve | train | med_mcqa | null |
Causes of wide fixed splitting of second heart sound include all except: | [
"Atrial septal defect",
"Ebstein anomaly",
"Total anomalous pulmonary venous return",
"Right bundle branch block"
] | B | b. Ebstein anomaly(Ref: Nelson's 20/e p 2190)Wide fixed splitting of second heart sound is seen in Atrial septal defect, Total anomalous pulmonary venous return (TAPVC) and Right bundle branch block (RBBB) | train | med_mcqa | null |
A male child presented with cryptorchidism, mental retardation and pulmonary stenosis. He has normal karyotype. Which of the following is the diagnosis? | [
"Noonan's syndrome",
"Turner's syndrome",
"Down's syndrome",
"Angelmann's syndrome"
] | A | The karyotype is normal and it is a male child so the diagnosis is Noonan's syndrome. Noonan syndrome have normal karyotypes and it is an impoant distinction with Turner's syndrome. Mutations in the RAS-MAPK signaling pathway are responsible for Noonan syndrome. The cardinal features of Noonan syndrome include unusual facies (ie, hypeelorism, down-slanting eyes, and webbed neck), congenital hea disease (in 50%), sho stature, and chest deformity. Approximately 25% of individuals with Noonan syndrome have mental retardation. Bleeding diathesis is present in as many as half of all patients with Noonan syndrome. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Spontaneous rhythmic respiration initiated in | [
"Pre-Botzinger complex",
"Dorsal respiratory group",
"Pneumataxic centre",
"Apneusic centre"
] | A | A i.e. Pre-Botzinger complex | train | med_mcqa | null |
Hamartomatous lung tissue is? | [
"Hypoplasia of lung",
"Congenital cyst",
"Lobar sequestration",
"Congenital cystic adenomatoid malformation"
] | D | Ans. (d) Congenital cystic adenomatoid malformation(Ref: Robbins 9th/pg 670; 8th/pg 679)Congenital cystic adenomatoid malformation (CCAM): Hamartomatous Q or dysplastic lung tissue, usually confined to one lobe. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following correlates well with the "severe" type of bronchial asthma exacerbation: March 2011 | [
"Bradycardia with HR less than 100/ min",
"Pulsus paradoxus less than 10/min",
"Tachypnea with RR less than 30/min",
"Usual use of accessory muscles of respiration"
] | D | Ans. D: Usual use of accessory muscles of respiration Bronchial asthma: Hyper-responsiveness of airways with bronchoconstriction Increased leukotrienes Histology: Creola bodies, - Charcot Layden crystals, - Curschmann's spiral FEV1 is the parameter to improve maximum on bronchodilator therapy | train | med_mcqa | null |
What wavelength is used in the given instrument to treat any pathology in new born? | [
"360 nm",
"470 nm",
"540 nm",
"230 nm"
] | B | Ans. B. 470nmAbove image is phototherapy unit machine used to treat jaundice in newborn. Wavelength which is most effective in treating this is 470-490nm | train | med_mcqa | null |
Kinky hair disease is due to defect in ? | [
"Iron transpo",
"Calcium transpo",
"Copper transpo",
"Magnesium transpo"
] | C | Answer- C. Copper transpoKinky Hair Disease(Steely Hair Disease, Menkes disease, Copper Transpo Disease)It is a X-linked recessive disorder that affects copper levels in the body, leading to copper deficiency.It is caused by mutations in the copper transpo gene, ATP7A (located on chromosome Xq21.1), which is responsible formaking a protein that is impoantfor regulating the copper levels in the body.It is characterized by kinky hair, growth failure, and deterioration ofthe nervous system. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most common location for chronic gastric ulcer: | [
"Pylorus of stomach",
"Lesser curve near proximal stomach",
"Lesser curve near incisura",
"Greater curvature"
] | C | Ref. API Textbook of Medicine. Pg. 812
Most common site -lesser curve near incisura angularis .
Duodenal ulcer -Most common site -1st part of duodenum (overall most common site for peptic ulcer)
Most common complication of peptic ulcer is gastrointestinal bleeding because of the erosions of gastroduodenal artery. | train | med_mcqa | null |
In membranous conjunctivitis, membrane is found in – | [
"Limbus",
"Palpebral conjunctiva",
"Bulbar conjunctiva",
"Cornea"
] | B | In membranous conjunctivitis, fibrinous membrane is formed on palpebral conjunctiva. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Epiphyseal dysgenesis is a feature of | [
"Hyperparathyroidism",
"Hypoparathyroidism",
"Hypothyroidism",
"Hypehyroidism"
] | C | Radiological finding * Retardation of osseous development * Absence of distal epiphysis * Epiphyseal dysgenesis * Deformity (beaking) of 12th thoracic or is&; or 2nd lumbar veebra * Skull show large fontanels and wide sutures Congenital hypothyroidism (CH) : is defined as thyroid hormone deficiency present at bih * most cases of congenital hypothyroidism are not herediatory and result from thyroid dysgenesis * Some cases may be famalial,usually caused by one of the inborn errors of thyroid hormone synthesis and may be associated with goiter. Clinical Manifestations Infants protected for is&; few wks of life * Fraction of maternal thyroid hormone crosses placenta * >4o wk GA * Head size Slightly higher % due to brain myxedema * Large fontanels & wide sutures * Macroglossia * Distended abdomen with umbilical hernia * Rough dry skin * Skin cold with mottling * Sensorineural deafness Sluggish feeding Constipation * Lethargic * Sleep more, needs to be awakened to feed * Hoarse cry * Hypothermia * Cardiomegaly * Murmur * Asymptomatic pericardial effusion * Macrocytic anemia * Hypotonic with slow reflexes * Prolonged physiological jaundice ref : maheswari 9th ed | train | med_mcqa | null |
The ability to recognize an unseen familiar object placed in the hand depends on the integrity of____. | [
"Posterior column",
"Posterior spinocerebellar tract",
"Spino-olivary tract",
"Spinospinal tract"
] | A | Stereognosis: Ability to recognize the form and texture of an unseen familiar object. It is a function of the posterior(dorsal) column-medial lemniscus system Functions of Dorsal column - medial leminiscus system Pressure Vibration Tactile discrimination Stereognosis Conscious proprioception The dorsal spinocerebellar tract (posterior spinocerebellar tract, Flechsig's fasciculus, Flechsig's tract) conveys unconscious proprioceptive information from proprioceptors in the skeletal muscles and joints to the cerebellum. | train | med_mcqa | null |
As a general rule in borderline crowding cases of a broad facial type: | [
"An expansion treatment should be carried out",
"Extraction therapy, should be considered",
"No treatment required",
"Only surgical treatment required"
] | A | Key comment:
In broad face type(brachycephalic) patient with mild crowding, if expansion is possible, it is the first line of treatment of choice rather than extraction. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is true regarding Typhoid in children - | [
"Leukochyosis is characteristic",
"Encephalitis is common",
"Mild splenomegaly is usual",
"Urine culture is positive in 4 to 6 days"
] | C | Ans. is c i.e., Mild splenomegaly is usual Typhoid in children o Splenomegaly is usual and seen in about 90% of patients The spleen is palpable for 1 of 2 cm below the costal margin (Mild Splenomegaly) in over 2/3 rd of patients. Blood counts usually show a normal or low leukocyte count (not leukocytosis) There is always a moderate neutropenia leading to relative lymphocytosis Neurological complications are uncommon and seen in about 3% of cases. These include encephalitis, meningitis, peripheral neuritis, aphasisa and cerebral vein thrombosis. J Stool & urine culture may reveal Salmonella after 2 weeks of illness (not on 4th to 6'h day) Two impoant manifestation of typhoid fever in adults which are uncommon in children include : (.Stepladder pattern of fever characteristic in adults is not seen in children. In children the onset is generally sudden with rapid elevation of temperature associated with headache and vomiting. 2. Relative Bradycardia seen in adults is not always present in children. Pulse rate may rise proprotionately to the height of temperature. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 5 year old child presents with itchy excoriated papules and elevated Ig E levels. Most probable diagnosis is? | [
"Scabies",
"Seborrhic dermatitis",
"Atopic dermatitis",
"Urticaria"
] | C | ANSWER: (C) Atopic dermatitisREF: Roxburgh's common skin disease 17th edition page 105-112, Roxburgh's common skin disease 17th edition page 105-112, Sauer's Manual of Skin Diseases - Page 77Atopic dermatitis (AD) is a pruritic disease of unknown origin that usually starts in early infancy {an adult-onset variant is recognized); it is characterizedby pruritus, eczematous lesions, xerosis (dry skin), and lkhenification (thickening of the skin and an increase in skin markings).The skin on the flexural surfaces of the joints (for example inner sides of elbows and knees) are the most commonly affected regionsAtopic dermatitis most often begins in childhood before age 5 and may persist into adulthood.Atopic dermatitis may be associated with other atopic (immunoglobulin E [IgEJ) diseases (eg, asthma, allergic rhinitis, urticaria, acute allergic reactions to foods)The disease typically has an intermittent course with flares and remissions.Sensitization to inhalant allergens can be detected by skin prick test or elevated IgE levels. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Follicular stimulating hormone receptors are present on: | [
"Theca cells",
"Granulose cells",
"Leydig cells",
"Basement membrane of ovarian follicle"
] | B | B i.e. Granulosa Cell | train | med_mcqa | null |
Familial tendency is not seen in | [
"Sarcomas",
"Stomach carcinoma",
"Colon carcinoma",
"Laryngeal carcinoma"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Following are predispositions of Alzheimer's disease except: | [
"Down's syndrome",
"Head trauma",
"Smoking",
"Low education group"
] | C | Smoking is considered to be one of the protective factors in Alzheimer's disease; however this finding has been inconsistent across the studies. Risk factor for Alzheimer disease Age Head injury HTN Insulin resistance Depression Down syndrome | train | med_mcqa | null |
Hand foot mouth syndrome is caused by? | [
"Parvovirus 6",
"Parvovirus 19",
"Coxsackie virus A16",
"Coxsackie virus A19"
] | C | Ans. (c) Coxsackie virus A16Ref: Jawetz 24th ed ch-36 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Commonest congenital lesion complicated by infective endocarditis is | [
"ASD",
"VSD",
"PDA",
"TOF"
] | B | VSD is the commonest congenital lesion complicated by infective endocarditis. The incidence of infective endocarditis has been estimated as 2/100 patients in a follow up of ten years, that is 1/500 patient years. The incidence of infective endocarditis is small enough that it is not an indication for operation in small defects. However, it is impoant to emphasize good oral-dental hygiene in all patients with VSD. Reference: Essential Paediatrics; O.P. Ghai; Page no: 417 | train | med_mcqa | null |
In management, "goal" refers to | [
"Planned end point of all activity",
"Discrete activity",
"Ultimate desired state towards which objectives and resources are directed",
"Analysis of health situation"
] | C | The goal is defined as the ultimate desired state towards which objectives and resources are directed.Unlike objectives and targets, goals are not constrained by time or existing resources, nor are they necessarily attainablePark 23e pg: 868 | train | med_mcqa | null |
The following situations are associated with rise of temperature after death except: | [
"Burns",
"Heat stroke",
"Pontine hemorrhage",
"Septicemia"
] | A | A i.e. Burns In burns, there is lot of evaporation from raw surface 1/t heat loss, so it leads to algor mois (cooling) not post moem caloricity. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Anterior ischaemic optic neuropathy is characterized by: | [
"Centrocaecal scotoma",
"Altitudinal hemianopia",
"Ring scotoma",
"Increased blood supply"
] | B | (Altitudinal hemianopia) (335-Parson 20th)Anterior ischaemic optic neuropathy (AION) - refers to the segmental or generalized infarction of anterior part of the optic nerve.Clinical features -* Visual loss is usually marked and sudden* Pale or hyperaemic disc, with splinter haemorrhage* Visual field shows typical altitudinal hemianopia.* Confirmation of the diagnosis - Temporal artery biopsy* Annular or ring shaped scotoma are seen in Retinitis pigmentosa. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 55-year-old cowboy is admitted to the emergency department after he was knocked from his feet by a young longhorn steer. MRI examination reveals a large hematoma in the knee joint. Physical examination reveals that the patient suffers from the "unhappy triad" (of O'Donahue). Which of the following structures are involved in such an injury? | [
"Medial collateral ligament, medial meniscus, and anterior cruciate ligament",
"Lateral collateral ligament, lateral meniscus, and posterior cruciate ligament",
"Medial collateral ligament, lateral meniscus, and anterior cruciate ligament",
"Lateral collateral ligament, medial meniscus, and anterior cruciate ... | A | The "unhappy triad" (of O'Donahue) is composed of the medial collateral ligament, medial meniscus, and anterior cruciate ligament. Sudden, forceful thrusts against the lateral side of the knee put tension on the medial collateral ligament, which can then rupture. The medial meniscus is attached to the medial collateral ligament so that it then tears. The anterior cruciate ligament resists hyperextension of the knee; thus, it is the third structure that breaks in the "unhappy triad" of the knee. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Soiling index is a measure of | [
"Soil pollution",
"Water pollution",
"Noise pollution",
"Air pollution"
] | B | Smoke or soiling index: A known volume of air is filtered through a white paper under specified conditions and the stain is measured by the photoelectric meter.Smoke concentration is estimated and expressed as micrograms/cubic metre of air as an average level over a period of time.Park 23e pg: 736 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Influenza is caused by | [
"Orthomyxo virus, which is a DNA virus",
"Paramyxo virus, which is a RNA Virus",
"Paramyxo virus, which is a DNA Virus",
"Orthomyxo virus, which is a RNA virus"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 50-year-old woman presents with easy fatigability, a smooth sore tongue, numbness and tingling of the feet, and weakness of the legs. A complete blood count shows a megaloblastic anemia that is not reversed by folate therapy. Hemoglobin is 5.6 g/dL, WBC count is 5,100/mL, and platelets are 240,000/mL. This patient most likely has a deficiency of which of the following vitamins? | [
"Vitamin B1 (thiamine)",
"Vitamin B2 (riboflavin)",
"Vitamin B12",
"Vitamin K"
] | C | Except for a few rare situations, vitamin B12 (cyanocobalamin) deficiency is usually a result of pernicious anemia, an autoimmune disease of the stomach. Vitamin B12 is required for DNA synthesis, and its deficiency results in large (megaloblastic) nuclei.Diagnosis: Vitamin B12 deficiency, pernicious anemia | train | med_mcqa | null |
Middle aged female with mass in sellaturcica hormone increased is- | [
"Prolactin",
"Thyroxine",
"Extrogen",
"ADH"
] | A | hypopituitarism occurs as prolactin has an inhibitory effect from normal pituitary resulting in increased prolactin level( Harrison 17 pg2199) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is not a part of lower motor neuron? | [
"Anterior nerve root",
"Peripheral ganglia",
"Peripheral nerve",
"Anterior horn cells"
] | B | Ans. B Peripheral gangliaRef: Gray's, 41st ed. pg. 231, 303Lower motor neuron (LMN): It consists of-* Anterior horn cells or homologous cells in brainstem* Anterior spinal nerve root* Peripheral nerve | train | med_mcqa | null |
Plasma half life of Carbimazole is | [
"4 hrs",
"8 hrs",
"16 hrs",
"24 hrs"
] | B | Refer KDT 6/e p 250 Half life of Carbimazole is around 8 hours Where'as propylthiouracil has t1/2 of 2hrs | train | med_mcqa | null |
Drug of choice for Restless leg syndrome | [
"Febuxostat",
"Diazepam",
"Ropinirole",
"Baclofen"
] | C | Ropinirole which is a dopamine agonist is the drug of choice for Restless leg syndrome. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Arrange the insulin in order of their duration of action (shoest first and longest last) a. NPH b. Glargine c. Detemir d. Degludec | [
"d<a<c<b",
"a<c<b<d",
"b<a<d<c",
"c<d<a<b"
] | B | Duration of action of insulin : a<c<b<d a. NPH- Intermediate Acting(10-20h) b. Glargine- Long Acting(20-24h)- pH-Acidic c. Detemir - Long acting(16-24h) d. Degludec- Longest acting (>40h) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Mineralocoicoid receptors are present in all except | [
"Hippocampus",
"Colon",
"Liver",
"Kidney"
] | C | Mineralocoicoid receptor are present in kidney,hippocampus and colon. Glucocoicoid receptor are present in liver. Mineralocoicoid receptors (MR) bind bothmineralocoicoids and glucocoicoids with high affinity (deoxycoicosterone = coicosterone >/= aldosterone = coisol), and are found in both Na(+) transpoing epithelia (e.g. kidney, colon) and nonepithelial tissues (e.g. hea, brain). (REF.Essential of medical pharmacology K D TRIPATHI 6 Edition, Page No - 277) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Raju, a 30-year-old male presents to the OPD with sudden onset pain, swelling and redness of the left first metatarsophalangeal joint. A needle aspirate of the joint shows needle-shaped, negatively birefringent crystals. The physician prescribed a drug for the patient, but he came back next day with nausea, vomiting and diarrhea after taking the medication. Which of the following is the most likely drug that was prescribed to this patient? | [
"Allopurinol",
"Colchicine",
"Steroids",
"Indomethacin"
] | B | This patient's acute onset pain and swelling of the right first metatarsophalangeal joint and joint aspirate showing needle-shaped negatively birefringent crystals indicate that he most likely has acute gouty ahritis. Colchicine is an effective anti-inflammatory agent in acute gouty ahritis but commonly result in nausea, vomiting, diarrhea and myopathy as adverse effects. | train | med_mcqa | null |
When is surgery not done in cases of Ulcerative Colitis? | [
"Toxic megacolon",
"Colonic perforation",
"Colonic obstruction",
"Refractory fistula"
] | D | Surgical indications for ulcerative colitis: Urgent Non-urgent: Fulminant colitis Toxic megacolon Perforation Massive hemorrhage Acute colonic obstruction Colon cancer Medically refractory disease Unacceptable medication related toxicity Dysplasia Suspected ca Ulcerative colitis Crohn's disease MC pa involved is Rectum(colon) MC is terminal ileum (mouth to anus) Hallmark is pseudo polyp Fistula More prone for malignancy Less prone that ulcerative colitis Mucosa and submucosa involved Transmural involvement Complications: Hemorrhage Toxic megacolon Fistula Abscess Obstruction Perforation Lead pipe colon String of Kantor Surgery can be done DOC is sulphasalazine Surgery is of no use DOC is sulphasalazine | train | med_mcqa | null |
False about breast feeding jaundice | [
"Pregnanediol may be a factor",
"Free fatty acids can be a cause",
"Temporary interruption of bilirubin conjugation",
"Starts in first week of life"
] | D | (D) Starts in first week of life> Bilirubin conjugation may be inhibited by certain fatty acids that are present in breast milk, but not serum of mothers whose infants have excessive neonatal hyperbilirubinemia called breast mild jaundice. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The most common cause of laryngeal stridor in a 60 year old male is - | [
"Nasopharyngeal carcinoma",
"Thyroid carcinoma",
"Foreign body aspiration",
"Carcinoma larynx"
] | D | Most common cause for stridor in 60 years old male will be carcinoma larynx as carcinoma larynx occurs in males (predominantly) at the age of 40–70 years.
Most common and earliest symptom of subglottic cancer is stridor.
NOTE:
Nasopharyngeal cancer does not lead to stridor
Thyroid cancer causes stridor rarely
Foreign body aspiration is a common cause of stridor in children and not adults. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All the following are true regarding Type A influenza virus, EXCEPT: | [
"There are only 14 subtypes of haemagglutinin",
"There are only 9 subtypes of neuraminidase antigen",
"Humans are generally infected by virus of subtype H1, H2 or H3 and N1 or N2.",
"It shows both antigenic shift and drift"
] | A | There are 16 subtypes of hemagglutinins. Rest of the statements given are true. Antigenic changes occurs only to a lesser degree in group B influenza virus. Influenza C virus appears to be antigenically stable. Note: Almost all of the pandemic which has ever occurred is due to Type A influenza virus. Ref: Park, Edition 21, Page - 143,144 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Activation of G-protein regulate all of the following except - | [
"Adenyl cyclase activity",
"Ion channels",
"I Pi & DAG",
"Transcription factor"
] | D | Ans is 'd' i.e., Transcription factoro The activated G protein effects one of the following effect pathway (activated stimulatory G protein stimulates, or activated inhibitory G protein inhibits) -Adenylyl cyclase (AC)o Activation of AC results in increased synthesis and intracellular accumulation of cAMP (by stimulatory G protein). cAMP acts through cAMP dependent Protein Kinase 'A', which phosphorylate and alters the function of many enzymes, ion channels and structural proteins. Inhibitory G protein inhibits AC and has opposite effects.o Examples - Corticotropin releasing hormone (CRH), FSH, LH, TSHACTH (corticotropin), ADH, Vasopressin (V2 receptors), Parathormone, Catecholamines (fi, CL2) e.g., adrenaline (most actions), Glucagon, hCG, Calcitonin, Somatostatin, acetylcholine (M2), Dopamine (Dj, D2), Angiotensin II(epithelial cells), GABAb, Histamine (H2).Phospholipase IP3 - DAG systemo Activation of phospholipase (by stimulatory G protein) hydrolyses the membrane phospholipid phosphatidyl inositol 4, 5 bisphosphate (PIP2) to generate \hc second messenger inositol 1,4, 5 - triphosphate (IP3 ) and diacytglycerot (DAG). IP3 mobilizes Ca+2 from intracellular organelles increased cytosolic Ca+2 DAG enhances Protein Kinase 'c' activation by Ca+2. Ca+2 acts as third messenger in this type of transduction mechanism and mediates the physiological effects of drugs.o Example - Growth hormone releasing hormone (GHRH), Thyrotropin releasing hormone (TRH), GnRh, A DH/Vasopressin (VI receptor, vasopressor action), oxytocin, cholecystokinin, PDGF, Gastrin, Catecholamines (some actions via Of/ receptors), Angiotensin II (vascular smooth muscle), Substance P, Histamine - H1, muscarinic M1, M3C) Channel regulationo Activated G-proteins can open or close ion channels - Ca , K7 or NaLo Examples -(1)|Ca+2-b1-adrenergic, (2) -|Ca+2-Dopamine D2, GABAB,(3) |K+-Adrenergic a2, muscarinic M2, Dopamine D2, GABAB. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Mauriac's syndrome is characterized by all except | [
"Diabetes",
"Obesity",
"Dwarfism",
"Cardiomegaly"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Cardiomegaly Mauriac Sydrome Children with poorly controlled type I diabetes may develop Mauriac syndrome. It is characterized by : - Growth attenuation Delayed pubey Hepatomegaly Abnormal glycogen storage and steatosis Cushingoid features Rare in modern era of insuling therapy but is occasionlly repoed. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Anteversion of uterus is maintained by: | [
"Cardinal ligament",
"Uterosacral ligament",
"Pubocervical ligament",
"Round ligament"
] | D | Anteversion of uterus is maintained by Round ligament. Round Ligaments are extension of the uterine musculature and represent the homolog of the gubernaculum testis. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A pregnant lady with persistent variable decelerations with cervical dilatation of 6 cm is planned for emergency LSCS. Which of the following is NOT done in management while preparing patient for surgery | [
"Supine position",
"O2 inhalation",
"I.V. fluid",
"Foleys catheterisation"
] | A | Variable decelerations are attributed to umbilical cord compression A supine position will have a mechanical compression from the fetus on the umbilical cord resulting in fetoplacental insufficiency and is hence avoided. Patient is therefore made to lie in left lateral position till surgery Catheerisation is done and IV fluids are given routinely prior to surgery Oxygen inhalation is given for maintaining adequate oxygen supply to the already compromised fetus. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Following MI, staining of cardiac tissue with TTC within 12 hours of infarction showed red color. This red colour is seen: | [
"In the infarcted area due to loss of LDH",
"In the non-infarcted area due to presence of LDH",
"In the infracted area due to loss of creatine kinase",
"In the non-infarcted area due to presence of creatine kinase"
] | B | Ans: b (In the non infracted.....) Ref: Direct pick from Robbins, 7th ed, p. 578-79Myocardial infarcts 2-3 hours after infarct can be stained by immersion of tissue slices in a solution - Triphenyl tetrazolium chloride (TTC). This histochemical stain imparts a brick red colour to the intact, non infarcted myocardium where the dehydrogenase enzymes are preserved.But the dehydrogenase enzymes are depleted in the area of ischaemic necrosis (they leak out through the damaged cell membrane).So the infarcted area is revealed as an unstained pale zone. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most common nerve damaged in leg: | [
"Common peroneal nerve",
"Femoral nerve",
"Sciatic nerve",
"Tibial nerve"
] | A | Ans. A Common peroneal nerveRef: Neuromuscular Diseases: A Practical Approach to Diagnosis and Management By Schwartz, P 134* Book states: "In leg the common peroneal nerve is most often affected nerve". Nerves may be damaged at the time of fracture or afterwards from the effects of movement or of reduction of a dislocation.* Iatrogenic injuries occur from penetrating injury to nerves. These usually occur during intramuscular injection of drugs, for example, a sciatic nerve injury may occasionally follow drug injections into the buttock. The femoral nerve is also vulnerable in the thigh. Attempted cannulation of veins or arteries, especially in the antecubital fossa where the median nerve is vulnerable, may cause a severe nerve injury. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Heerfordt's disease is characterised by all of the following except: | [
"Unilateral non-granulomatous panuveitis",
"Painful enlargement of parotid glands",
"Cranial nerve palsies",
"Skin rashes, fever and malaise"
] | A | Ans. Unilateral non-granulomatous panuveitis | train | med_mcqa | null |
MMC (migrating motor complex) occurs at the rate of _____ and at an interval of _______ | [
"90 cm/min, 5 min",
"5cm/min, 90 min",
"90 cm/sec, 5 min",
"5 cm/sec, 90 min"
] | B | Migrating motor complex (MMC) migrates from the stomach to the distal ilieum at a rate of about 5 cm/min and also occurs at intervals of approximately 90 minutes. MMC is a type of gastrointestinal motility that occurs during fasting between periods of digestion. It is initiated by motilin. It helps to clear the stomach and small intestine of luminal contents in preparation for the next meal. Gastric secretion , bile flow, and pancreatic secretion increases during each MMC. After ingestion of a meal, secretion of motilin is suppressed and the MMC is abolished. Each cycle of MMC has 3 phases Phase I- Quiescent period Phase II- Period of irregular electrical & mechanical activity. Phase III- ends with bursts of regular activity Ref: Ganong&;s Review of medical physiology 26th edition Pgno: 486 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Endosalpingitis is best diagnosed by | [
"laparoscopy",
"X-Ray abdomen",
"Hysterosalpingography",
"Hystero-laparoscopy"
] | A | Clinical Triad for Diagnosis of PID Pelvic organ tenderness, Adnexal tenderness, Cervical motion tenderness (Suggests the presence of peritoneal inflammation, which causes pain when the peritoneum is stretched by moving the cervix and causing traction of the adnexa on the pelvic peritoneum) Direct or rebound abdominal tenderness may be present. Evaluation of both vaginal and endocervical secretions is a crucial pa of the workup of a patient with PID. Increased number of polymorphonuclear leukocytes may be detected in a wet mount of the vaginal secretions or in the mucopurulent discharge. More elaborate tests include Endometrial biopsy to confirm the presence of endometritis, Ultrasound or radiologic tests to characterize a tubo-ovarian abscess laparoscopy to confirm salpingitis visually A laparoscopy, if asked in the Questions, is indeed the best test to diagnose PID. Its not a practical option always since this is a common presentation in the OPD and will be impossible to do on every one . Regular OPD diagnosis is made by the clinical triad If a Laparoscopy is being done for some indication & the surgeon notices inflamed tubes, then it is diagnostic of a PID Also: Please note that for diagnosis of PID , any uterine procedure like hysteroscopy, HSG, sonosalpingography ,will all push in fluids through the Uterus and this can in fact increase the PID. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 21 year old student is found to have hyperthyroidism. She is counselled on treatment options including radioactive iodine and antithyroid medications. Carbimazole acts on which part of the thyroid hormone synthesis pathway? | [
"Cleavage of thyroglobulin by proteolysis",
"Coupling of monoiodotyrosine (MIT) and diiodotyrosine (DIT) forming triiodothyronine CTsl and thyroxine (T4)",
"Dehalogenation of iodinated tyrosine to recycle iodide",
"Organification of iodide by thyroid peroxidase incorporating tyrosine forming MIT and DIT"
] | D | Iodide is actively transported into follicular cells by a sodium/iodide transporter (Fig. 18.6). Pendrin is found at the apical membrane, where it transports iodide into colloid. A defect in this transporter underlies Pend red's syndrome (congenital hypothyroidism and deafness). Thyroid peroxidase catalyses the conversion of iodide ions into organic iodine and couples it with tyrosine to form MIT and DIT. This later step is inhibited by thionamides such as carbimazole. DIT and MIT combine forming T4 and T3. The organification of iodide and coupling of iodinated tyrosine molecules occurs on the surface of thyroglobulin. This is subsequently cleaved, releasing thyroid hormone. Uncoupled iodinated tyrosine can be dehalogenated, allowing recycling of the iodine. The majority of T4 circulates bound to thyroxine-binding globulin (TBG). | train | med_mcqa | null |
An otherwise healthy person who wears contact lenses develops a small ulceration of eye. What is the cause – | [
"Acanthamoeba",
"Cytomegalovirus",
"Toxocarna",
"Toxoplasma"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Splenomegaly is least likely associated with aEUR' | [
"CML",
"Polycythemia ruba vera",
"Idiopathic myelofibrosis",
"Primary thrombocytosis"
] | D | Primary thrombocytosis The question is about the differential diagnosis of myeloprohferative syndrome. - Myeloproliferative disorders are characterized by splenomegaly except for essential thrombocytosis. In Essential thrombocytosis - "Physical examination is generally unremarkable except occasionally for mild splenomegaly. Massive splenomegaly is more indicative of another myeloproliferative disorder in paicular polvcythetnia vera, idiopathic mvelofibrosis and chronic myeloid leukemia". | train | med_mcqa | null |
Pellagra | [
"Is due to pyridoxine deficiency",
"Occurs with diet chiefly on maize",
"Night blindness is a presenting feature",
"Causes high output cardiac failure"
] | B | • RDA is often higher than the recommended minimum requirement: RDA includes both daily requirement and some additional requirement for periods of growth or illness. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Brunners glands are seen in - | [
"Jejunum",
"Upper duodenum",
"Lower duodenum",
"Appendix"
] | B | B i.e., Upper duodenum The presence of mucous duodenal (Brunner's) glands in the submucosa is indicative of upper duodenumQ. These submucosal glands are absent in the jejunum, ileum & the entire large intestine.The histology of lower duodenum, jejunum, and ileum remains similar to that of the upper duodenum. The only differences are.- duodenal glands of Brunner are limited to upper pa of duodenumQ- large aggregates of lymphatic nodules (Peyer's patches) are observed in lower regions of ileumQ | train | med_mcqa | null |
What is the percent of total energy ratio supplied by fish protein (PE % Kcal) – | [
"20",
"40",
"60",
"80"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Vascular congestion over inseions of the rectus muscles (paicularly lateral rectus) is seen in: | [
"Lymphoma",
"Hemangioma",
"Graves ophthalmopathy",
"Trauma"
] | C | Ans. Graves ophthalmopathy | train | med_mcqa | null |
Amongst the renal cystic diseases, the one that is autosomal recessive is: | [
"Adult polycystic kidney disease",
"Childhood polycystic kidney disease",
"Medullary sponge kidney",
"Adult onset medullary cystic disease"
] | B | Disease Inheritance Pathologic Features Clinical Features of Complications Typical Outcome Diagrammatic Representation Adult polycystic kidney disease Autosomal dominant Large multicystic kidneys Liver cysts Berry aneurysms Hematuria, Flank pain, Urinary tract infection, Renal stones, Hypeension Chronical renal failure (40-60 years) Childhood polycystic kidney disease Autosomal recessive Enlarged, cystic kidneys at bih Hepatic fibrosis Variable, death in infancy or childhood Medullary sponge Sidney None Medullary cysts Hematuria, urinary tract infection, recurrent renal stones Benign Familial juvenile nephronophthisis Autosomal recessive Coicomedullary cysts, Shrunken kidneys Salt wasting, Polyuria, Growth retardation, Anemia Progressive renal failure beginning in childhood | train | med_mcqa | null |
HCG is produced almost exclusively in the placenta. At which week of gestation HCG is maximum? | [
"6-Apr",
"8-Jun",
"10-Aug",
"14-16"
] | C | The intact hCG molecule is detectable in plasma of pregnant women 7 to 9 days after the midcycle surge of LH that precedes ovulation. Thus, it is likely that hCG enters maternal blood at the time of blastocyst implantation. Plasma levels increase rapidly, doubling every 2 days, with maximal levels being attained at 8 to 10 weeks. Peak maternal plasma levels reach about 100,000 mIU/mL. At 10 to 12 weeks, plasma levels begin to decline, and a nadir is reached by about 16 weeks. Plasma levels are maintained at this lower level for the remainder of pregnancy. Ref: Cunningham F.G., Leveno K.J., Bloom S.L., Hauth J.C., Rouse D.J., Spong C.Y. (2010). Chapter 3. Implantation, Embryogenesis, and Placental Development. In F.G. Cunningham, K.J. Leveno, S.L. Bloom, J.C. Hauth, D.J. Rouse, C.Y. Spong (Eds), Williams Obstetrics, 23e. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Kussmaul respiration occurs in response to | [
"Decrease in pH of blood",
"Increase in pH of blood",
"Obstructive pulmonary disease",
"Carbon monoxide poisoning"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
In Vitamin A deficiency, respiratory tract infection due to: | [
"Keratinization of upper epithelial cells",
"Lack of antibody production",
"Dysfunction of epithelial layer",
"Defective chemotaxis"
] | C | Vitamin A: - Role 1) Vision 2) Reproduction & growth 3) Maintenance of epithelial cell 4) Stabilization of cellular and intra Cellular membrane 5) Synthesis of glycoprotein 6) Antioxidant 7) Skin & Bone Metabolism | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which one of the following congenital malformations of the fetus can be diagnosed earliest in a first trimester ultrasound? | [
"Anencephaly",
"Prosencephaly",
"Microcephaly",
"Meningocele"
] | A | Anencephaly can be reliably diagnosed at 11-14 weeks of gestation by ultrasound scan. With careful imaging it can be diagnosed even as early as the 8th or the 9th week. The most impoant feature is the absence of calvaria above the bony orbits paicularly on taking a coronal image of the face. It has little or no cerebral tissue usually, although some tissue might be seen protruding from the defect. The crown-rump length is reduced significantly. The ultrasonogrm shows a typical mickey mouse face sign on taking a coronal section of the head. Ref: Diagnostic imaging of fetal anomalies By David A. Nyberg, John P. McGahan, Pages 293-296, 275-276, 306-309, 232-235; The Spina Bifida: Management and Outcome By M. Memet Ozek, Giuseppe Cinalli, Wirginia June Maixner, Pages 75-81; Prenatal Diagnosis and Therapy By Chakravay, Page 74. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which one of the following drugs is used for fetal therapy of congenital adrenal hyperplasia ? | [
"Hydrocoisone",
"Prednisolone",
"Fludrocoisone",
"Dexamethasone"
] | D | These patients with congenital adrenal hyperplasia require lifelong treatment.Patients with salt wasting and virilizing forms should be treated with hydrocoisone(10-15 mg/m2/day)and fludrocoisone (0.1mg/day).After completion of growth ,synthetic glucocoicoid preperations( dexamethasone,prednisolone)can be used. Reference: OP Ghai,essentiL paediatrics,8 th edition,page no 527 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Treatment of acute congestive glaucoma includes all exept: | [
"Sclerectomy",
"Trabeculectomy",
"Trabeculoplasy",
"All"
] | C | Ans. Trabeculoplasy | train | med_mcqa | null |
A male patient 59 year old complains of multiple swellings in the neck, fever, and weight loss since 6 months. Patient is a known hypertensive and is on medication for the same. General examination reveals painless lymph node enlargement in the neck and on blood investigation, anemia is revealed. Lymph node biopsy shows cells that have a delicate multilobed, puffy nucleus resembling popped corn. Which variant of lymphoma is this? | [
"Nodular sclerosis",
"Lymphocyte rich",
"Lymphocyte depletion",
"Lymphocyte predominant"
] | D | Lymphocyte-predominant Hodgkin lymphoma, accounting for about 5% of cases, is characterized by the presence of lymphohistiocytic (L&H) variant RS cells that have a delicate multilobed, puffy nucleus resembling popped corn (“popcorn cell”). L&H variants usually are found within large nodules containing mainly small B cells admixed with variable numbers of macrophages. Other reactive cells, such as eosinophils, are scanty or absent, and typical RS cells are rare.
Unlike the RS variants in “classical” Hodgkin lymphoma, L&H variants express B cell markers (e.g., CD20) and usually fail to express CD15 and CD30. Most patients present with isolated cervical or axillary lymphadenopathy, and the prognosis typically is excellent. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Alpha helix and Beta pleated sheet are examples of? | [
"Primary",
"Secondary structure",
"Teiary",
"Quaternary structure"
] | B | Structural organization of proteins Every protein has a unique three dimensional structure, which is referred to as its native conformation and made up of only 20 different amino acids. Protein structure can be classified into four level of organization.1) Primary structuresThe linear sequence of amino acid residues and location of disulphide bridges, if any, in a polypeptide chain constitute its primary structure. In simple words, primary structure of proteins refers to the specific sequence of amino acids. Primary structure is maintained by covalent 'peptide' bond.2) Secondary structureFor stability of primary structure, hydrogen bonding between the hydrogen of NH and oxygen of C = 0 groups of the polypeptide chain occurs, which give rise to twisting, folding or bending of the primary structure. Thus, regular folding and twisting of the polypeptide chain brought about by hydrogen bonding is called secondary structure. Impoant types of secondary structure are a-helix, O-pleated sheet and 0-bends.3) Teiary structureThe peptide chain, with its secondary structure, may be fuher folded and twisted about itself forming three-dimensional arrangement of polypeptide chain, i.e., teiary structure refers to the overall folding pattern of polypeptide which forms three dimensional shape. Teiary structure (three dimensional shape) is maintained by weak non-covalent interactions which include hydrogen bonds, hydrophobic interactions, ionic bond (electrostatic bonds or salt bridges) and Van-der wall forces. Covalent linkage (disulphide bond) also plays some (but minor) role.4) Quaternary structureMany proteins are made up of more than one polypeptide chains (polymers). Each polypeptide chain is known as protomer (or subunit). The subunit are linked with each other by non-covalent bonds. The structure formed by union of subunits is known as quaternary structure, i.e., spatial relation of subunits (peptide chains) with one another is called quaternary structure. Mainly three non-covalent bonds stabilize quaternary structure : Hydrophobic, hydrogen and ionic (electrostatic).Dimeric proteins contain two polypeptide chains. Homodimers contain two copies of same polypeptide chain, while in a heterodimer the polypeptides differ. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Not true about vaccines ? | [
"Two live vaccines can be given at same time at different sites",
"Two live vaccines at same site should be given at least 3 weeks apa",
"In vaccine l monitor if the color of inner square is same as outer background, vaccine is good for use",
"Live and killed vaccines can be given together"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., In vaccine l monitor if the color of inner square is same as outer background, vaccine is good for use Vaccine Vial monitor An impoant improvement in PPI during 1998 has been the use of vaccine l monitor. Colour monitors or labels are put on vaccine bottles. Each label has a circle of deep blue colour. Inside it is a white square which changes colour and gradually becomes blue, if vaccine bottle is exposed to higher temprature. When the colour of the white square becomes blue like that of surrounding circle, the vaccine should be considered ineffective. Thereby, the health worker can easily asceain that the vaccine being given is effective or not. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Succinyl choline is short acting due to – | [
"Rapid excretion",
"Poor absorption",
"Rapid hydrolysis",
"None"
] | C | Sch is ultrashort acting because of rapid hydrolysis by plasma cholinesterase (pseudocholinesterase). | train | med_mcqa | null |
In elderly patients distance between major and minor
apical foramina is | [
"1.5-2 mm",
"0.75-1 mm",
"0.2-0.5mm",
"0-0.2 mm"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Tunica reaction is positive in ? | [
"R prowazekii",
"R typhi",
"R tsutsugamushi",
"R akari"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., R typhi Neill - Mooser (Tunica) reaction When male guinea pigs are inoculated intraperitoneally with blood from a case of endemic typhus or with a culture of R. typhi (R. mooseri) they develop fever and a characteristic scrotal inflammation. This reaction is used to differentiate R. typhi and R. prowazekii. | train | med_mcqa | null |
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