question stringlengths 1 6.54k | choices listlengths 4 4 | answer stringclasses 4
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The following rodent is the natural reservoir of plague - | [
"Mus musculus",
"Tatera indica",
"Rattus Rattus",
"Rattus norvegicus"
] | B | - the reservoir of plaque is wild rodents, filed mice gerbils and skunks. - in India, the wild rodent Tatera indica is the main reservoir. Reference : Park's textbook of preventive and social medicine, 23rd edition, pg no:293 <\p> | train | med_mcqa | null |
Termination nucleotide sequence among following is | [
"AUG",
"UAA",
"AUA",
"AGG"
] | B | UAA (Termination codons: UAA, UAG, UGA) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is not a tumor marker- | [
"CEA",
"Tyrosinase",
"Human leucocyte antigen A2",
"AFP"
] | C | HLA-A is a group of human leukocyte antigens (HLA) that are coded for by the HLA-A locus, which is located at human chromosome 6p21.3.] HLA is a major histocompatibility complex (MHC) antigen specific to humans. HLA-A is one of three major types of human MHC class I cell surface receptors. The others are HLA-B and HLA-C. The receptor is a heterodimer, and is composed of a heavy a chain and smaller b chain. The a chain is encoded by a variant HLA-A gene, and the b chain (b2-microglobulin) is an invariant b2 microglobulin molecule.] The b2 microglobulin protein is coded for by a separate region of the human genomeAlpha fetoprotein (AFP) germ cell tumor, hepatocellular carcinoma but may also be elevated in for example endometrial cancer, fallopian tube cancer, lung cancer, breast cancer and gastrointestinal cancer. May also increase in endometriosis. Calcitonin medullary thyroid carcinoma Calretinin mesothelioma, sex cord-gonadal stromal tumour, adrenocoical carcinoma, synol sarcoma Desmin smooth muscle sarcoma, skeletal muscle sarcoma, endometrial stromal sarcoma Epithelial membrane antigen (EMA) many types of carcinoma, meningioma, some types of sarcoma Factor VIII, CD31 FL1 vascular sarcoma Glial fibrillary acidic protein (GFAP) glioma (astrocytoma, ependymoma) Gross cystic disease fluid protein (GCDFP-15) breast cancer, ovarian cancer, salivary gland cancer HMB-45 melanoma, PEComa (for example angiomyolipoma), clear cell carcinoma, adrenocoical carcinoma Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) gestational trophoblastic disease, germ cell tumor, choriocarcinoma immunoglobulin lymphoma, leukemia inhibin sex cord-gonadal stromal tumour, adrenocoical carcinoma, hemangioblastoma keratin (various types) carcinoma, some types of sarcoma lymphocyte marker (various types lymphoma, leukemia MA-1 (Melan-A) melanoma, steroid-producing tumors (adrenocoical carcinoma, gonadal tumor) Myo D1 rhabdomyosarcoma, small, round, blue cell tumour placental alkaline phosphatase (PLAP) seminoma, dysgerminoma, embryonal carcinoma prostate-specific antigen (PSA) PTPRC (CD45) lymphoma, leukemia, histiocytic tumor Breast cancer, Lung cancer, Pancreatic cancer,] Esophageal Cancer] Stomach Cancer,[Cervical Cancer, Ovarian Cancer, vimentin sarcoma, renal cell carcinoma, endometrial cancer, lung carcinoma, lymphoma, leukemia | train | med_mcqa | null |
Maximum permissible radiation dose in pregnancy is : | [
"0.5 rad",
"1.0 rad",
"1.5 rad",
"5.0 rad"
] | D | 5.0 rad | train | med_mcqa | null |
In which of the following vegetation are friable and easily detachable from the cardiac valves | [
"Rheumatic fever",
"Rheumatoid hea",
"SLE",
"Infective endocarditis"
] | D | Infective endocarditis is a serious infection mandating promt diagnosis and intervention. Microbial invasion of hea valves or mural endocardium often with destruction of the underlying cardiac tissue characteristically results in bulky , friable vegetation composed of necrotic debris, thrombus, and organisms. The aoa , aneurysmal sacs , other blood vessels and prosthetic devices also can be affected. Robbins 9 th edition page no. 393 | train | med_mcqa | null |
All are TRUE about paralytic squint, EXCEPT - | [
"Head tilt",
"Lateral deviation",
"Diplopia",
"Amblyopia"
] | D | Paralytic squint usually occurs in adults when visual acuity has already been developed. Therefore amblyopia does not occur usually and visual acuity is normal. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Multiple loose bodies are seen in -a) Osteochondritis dessicansb) Synovial chondromatosisc) Osteoarthritisd) Rheumatoid arthritis e) Osteogenesis imperfecta | [
"abc",
"bc",
"acd",
"bcd"
] | A | Causes of loose bodies include :-
Osteoarthritis
Osteochondritis dessicans
Osteochondral fracture (injury)
Charcot's disease
Synovial chondromatosis
Among these, osteochondral fracture causes single loose bodies, while all other can cause multiple loose bodies, maximum by synovial chondromatosis (up to hundred’s). | train | med_mcqa | null |
Langerhans cells in skin are - | [
"Antigen presenting cells",
"Pigment producing cells",
"Keratin synthesizing cells",
"Sensory neurons"
] | A | Professional antigen-presenting cells, including macrophages, B cells, Langerhans cells and dendritic cells, present foreign antigens to helper T cells, while other cell types can present antigens originating inside the cell to cytotoxic T cells. Reff: Ananthanarayanan & Panikers textbook of microbiology 9th edition pg: 138 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most common mental disorder as a cause of suicide - | [
"Mania",
"Depression",
"Alcohol dependence",
"Schizophrenia"
] | B | Psychiatric disorders are the most common cause of suicide. Depression is the most common cause followed by alcoholism. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A female at 37 week of pregnancy comes with grade 3 placenta pre, bleeding per vaginum with uterine contractions. What is the MOST appropriate management in this patient? | [
"Dexamethasone and nifedipine",
"Bed rest and sedation",
"Wait and watch",
"Emergency LSCS"
] | D | The best management in this patient presenting with grade 3 placenta pre, bleeding per vagina and uterine contraction is emergency LSCS. Also know: Other indications of LSCS in patients with placenta pre are: Severe degree of placenta pre (type II posterior, type III, type IV) Lesser degree of placenta pre when amniotomy fails to stop bleeding or fetal distress appears. Complicating factors associated with lesser degrees of placenta pre where vaginal delivery is unsafe. Ref: Textbook of Obstetrics By D.C Dutta, 6th edn, page 252 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Vaccine carrier contains how many ice packs | [
"2",
"3",
"4",
"5"
] | C | Vaccine carriers are used to carry small quantities of vaccines (16 - 20) ls for the out reach sessions ,with four fully frozen ice packs for lining the sides. Ref: p.119 25th edition Park's Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine | train | med_mcqa | null |
Calcaneum is associated most commonly with which | [
"rib",
"vertebrae",
"skull",
"fibula"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e. vertebra Fractures of the calcaneum are caused by fall from height on to the heels, thus both heels may be injured at the same time.Fractures of the calcaneum are most often associated witha compression fracture of a vertebral body* (usually in the dorso lumbar region) of the pubic rami*. oran atlanto axial injury | train | med_mcqa | null |
Careful testing of the visual fields in a patient complaining of difficulty reading demonstrates a central scotoma involving one visual field. This defect is MOST likely due to a lesion involving which of the following structures? | [
"Macula",
"Optic chiasm",
"Optic radiations in the parietal lobe",
"Optic radiations in the temporal lobe"
] | A | Here is a list that may help you so through these problems: Central scotoma ~ macula Ipsilateral blindness ~ optic nerve Bitemporal hemianopia ~ optic chiasm Homonymous hemianopia ~ optic tract Upper homonymous quadrantanopia ~ temporal optic radiations Lower homonymous quadrantanopia ~ parietal optic radiations Also, coical lesions produce defects similar to those of the optic radiations, but may spare the macula. Ref: Sterns G.K., Faye E.E. (2011). Chapter 24. Low Vision. In P. Riordan-Eva, E.T. Cunningham, Jr. (Eds), Vaughan & Asbury's General Ophthalmology, 18e. | train | med_mcqa | null |
In the rejection phenomenon after kidney transplant, the primary target for early immunological attack is - | [
"Vascular endothelium",
"Renal papillae",
"Glomeruli",
"Proximal tubules"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Vascular endothelium | train | med_mcqa | null |
Nerve supply of larynx above the vocal cord is | [
"Internal laryngeal nerve",
"Recurrent laryngeal nerve",
"Glossopharyngeal nerve",
"External laryngeal nerve"
] | A | Motor nerves-Recurrent laryngeal nerve supplies all intrinsic muscles except cricothyroid,which is supplied by the external laryngeal nerve.Sensory nerves-The internal laryngeal nerve supplies the mucous membrane upto the level of vocal folds.The recurrent laryngeal nerve supplies it below the vocal folds. REF.BDC VOL.3,FIFTH EDITION. | train | med_mcqa | null |
In marasmus wasting is due to - | [
"Prolonge dieiery deficiency of caloris",
"Prolonge dieterv deficiency of protein",
"Excess catabolism of fat & muscle mass to provide energy",
"All of above"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e., All of above MarasmusProlonge deficiency of calory & protein due to starvation.Monkey facies- loss of buccal fat.Baggy pants appearance- loose skin of the buttocks hanging down,Loss of axillary fat.Appetite is preserved.No edema. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The receptors/buds responsible for carrying bitter taste sensation are situated | [
"At the tip of the tongue",
"Just behing the tip",
"All the sides",
"At the posterior aspect"
] | C | Humans have five established basic tastes: sweet, sour, bitter, salt, and umami. It used to be thought that the surface of the tongue had special areas for each of the first four of these sensations, but it is now clear that all tastants are sensed from all pas of the tongue and adjacent structures. Afferent nerves to the NTS contain fibers from all types of taste receptors, without any clear localization of types. The fifth taste sense, umami, was recently added to the four classic tastes. This taste has actually been known for almost 100 years, and it became established once its receptor was identified. It is triggered by glutamate and paicularly by the monosodium glutamate (MSG) used so extensively in Asian cooking. The taste is pleasant and sweet but differs from the standard sweet taste.Reference: Ganong review of medical physiology 23rd edition Page no: 224 | train | med_mcqa | null |
What is the syndrome that this child with cholestatic jaundice and an ejection systolic murmur, on auscultation, in the pulmonary area, is suffering from? | [
"Crouzon syndrome",
"William syndrome",
"Smith Lemli Opitz syndrome",
"Alagille syndrome"
] | D | Crouzon Syndrome | Brachycephaly (d/t premature fusion of coronal suture) Bulging eyes, mid-face hypoplasia Prognathism (protruding jaw) Williams syndrome is caused by hemizygous microdeletion on chromosome 7q11.23; It is characterized by cardiovascular, intellectual disability, unique personality, growth and endocrine abnormalities like hypercalcemia and hypothyroidism. Characteristic facial features include thick lower lip, bulbous nasal tip, periorbital fullness and long philtrum.Clinical diagnostic criteria are available for Williams syndrome; But the definitive diagnosis requires demonstration of the gene microdeletion. Alagille syndrome - Triangular facies - (Also seen in Russell Silver syndrome) - Butterfly veebra - Pulmonary Stenosis - Cholestatic Jaundice Smith Lemli Opitz syndrome Mutations in DHCR7 gene (chr 11) | Deficiency of microsomal enzyme 7-dehydro cholesterol-D7 reductase (DHCR7) | Low plasma cholesterol and accumulation of precursors (7-dehydrocholesterol) | Multiple congenital anomalies and developmental delay Clinical features of Smith-Lemli-Opitz syndrome: Craniofacial: Microcephaly, Retromicrognathia, Midline cleft palate Skeletal Anomalies: Syndactyly of toes II/III, Postaxial polydactyly Genital Anomalies: Ambiguous genitalia, Hypospadias, Cryptorchidism Development: Growth retardation, Feeding problems, Mental impairment CNS: Holoprosencephaly, Corpus callosal Agenesis, Cerebellar hypoplasia CVS: Atrioventricular canal defect, Patent ductus aeriosus, VSD Urinary Tract: Renal hypoplasia, Hydronephrosis, Ureteral duplication GI: Hirschsprung disease, Pyloric stenosis, progressive liver disease Pulmonary: Pulmonary hypoplasia | train | med_mcqa | null |
Recurrent pain abdomen with intestinal obstruction and mass passes per rectum goes in favour of - | [
"Internal herniation",
"Stricture",
"Strangulated hernia",
"Intussusception"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Length of external auditory canal is | [
"20 mm",
"22 mm",
"24 mm",
"15 mm"
] | C | Ans. c (24 mm). (Ref. PL Dhingra Diseases of ENT 2nd/pg.3)EXTERNAL AUDITORY CANAL# It starts at the external auditory meatus and ends at the tympanic membrane, where a bony structure (bony outer attic wall at tympanic membrane, where ECA ends) projects, called scutum.# It is almost S shaped curved canal of about 24 mm length.# It has:- outer cartilaginous part (2/3rd) and- inner bony part (l/3rd).# It is directed upwards, backwards and medially in outer part and downwards, forwards and medially in inner part.# The periosteum is very firmly adherent in EAC and hence even a minor infection like a furuncle is extremely painful. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The position adopted for tonsillectomy is also adopted for this procedure: | [
"Direct laryngoscopy",
"Bronchoscopy",
"Tracheostomy",
"Indirect laryngoscopy"
] | C | (c) Tracheostomy(Ref. Stell & Maran, 5th ed., 275)Tonsillectomy, adenoidectomy and tracheostomy all are done in Rose's position.For direct laryngoscopy and bronchoscopy the position of the patient is known as "sniffing the morning air" or barking dog or Boyce position. Here there is flexion at cervical and extension at atlanto-occipital joint | train | med_mcqa | null |
Professional death sentence is : | [
"Imprisonment for whole life",
"Rigorous imprisonment",
"Erasing the name from the panel of RMPs",
"None"
] | C | C i.e. Erasing the name from the panel of RMP's | train | med_mcqa | null |
Virus lacking hemagglutinin and neuraminidase but having membrane fusion protein is ? | [
"RSV",
"CMV",
"HSV",
"EBV"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., RSV RSV does not posses hemagglutinin or neuraminidase. . The viral envelope has two glycoproteins? i) G protein --> By which virus attaches to cell surface ii) F- protein ( Fusion protein) -->which bring about fusion between viral and host cell membranes. It is also responsible for cell to cell fusion, which leads to characteristic syncytial formation. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is false about Botulism? | [
"It is a type food poisoning",
"Botulinum toxin is a potent neurotoxin",
"It is an infection and not intoxication",
"The causative organism is Clostridium botulinum"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e.. It is an infection and not intoxication Botulismo It is a form of food poisoning.o Botulinum toxin is a potent neurotoxic protein. It paralyses the nerve endings by blocking the nerve impulses at the myoneural junction. It blocks the action of acetylcholine,o Botulism is an intoxication, not an infection. Clostridium botulinum organism does not grow in the body.o The causative organism is Cl. botulinum. It multiplies in food (sausages, tinned meat) before it is consumed, and produces a powerful exotoxin under suitable anaerobic conditions. | train | med_mcqa | null |
During an attempted extraction of upper posterior teeth, to determine the position of the roots displaced into antrum, ideal radiograph would be | [
"Bitewing radiography of maxillary posteriors",
"IOPA of mandibular posterior teeth",
"Upper oblique occlusal radiograph",
"Lateral oblique view of mandibular posteriors"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
The most common organism responsible for symptomatic Native valve infective endocarditis in children - | [
"b-hemolytic streptococci",
"a-hemolytic streptococci",
"Staph aureus",
"Group D. streptococci"
] | C | Ans- C Staph aureus Ref- Causative Organism(s) Clinical Features of IE Staphylococcus aureus Overall, S aureus infection is the most common cause of IE, including PVE, acute IE, and IVDA IE. Approximately 35-60.5% of staphylococcal bacteremias are complicated by IE. More than half the cases are not associated with underlying valvular disease. The mortality rate of S aureus IE is 40-50%. S aureus infection is the second most common cause of nosocomial BSIs, second only to CoNS infection. The incidence of MRSA infections, both the hospital- and community-acquired varieties, has dramatically increased (50% of isolates). Sixty percent of individuals are intermittent carriers of MRSA or MSSA. The primary risk factor for S aureus BSI is the presence of intravascular lines. Other risk factors include cancer, diabetes, corticosteroid use, IVDA, alcoholism, and renal failure. The realization that approximately 50% of hospital- and community-acquired staphylococcal bacteremias arise from infected vascular catheters has led to the reclassification of staphylococcal BSIs. BSIs are acquired not only in the hospital but also in any type of health care facility (eg, nursing home, dialysis center). Of S aureus bacteremia cases in the United States, 7.8% (200,000) per year are associated with intravascular catheters. Streptococcus viridans This organism accounts for approximately 50-60% of cases of subacute disease. Most clinical signs and symptoms are mediated immunologically. Streptococcus intermedius group These infections may be acute or subacute. S intermedius infection accounts for 15% of streptococcal IE cases. Members of the S intermedius group, especially S anginosus, are unique among the streptococci in that they can actively invade tissue and form abscesses, often in the CNS. Abiotrophia Approximately 5% of subacute cases of IE are due to infection with Abiotrophia species. They require metabolically active forms of vitamin B-6 for growth. This type of IE is associated with large vegetations that lead to embolization and a high rate of posttreatment relapse. Group D streptococci Most cases are subacute. The source is the gastrointestinal or genitourinary tract. It is the third most common cause of IE. They pose major resistance problems for antibiotics. Nonenterococcal group D The clinical course is subacute. Infection often reflects underlying abnormalities of the large bowel (eg, ulcerative colitis, polyps, cancer). The organisms are sensitive to penicillin. Group B streptococci Acute disease develops in pregnant patients and older patients with underlying diseases (eg, cancer, diabetes, alcoholism). The mortality rate is 40%. Complications include metastatic infection, arterial thrombi, and congestive heart failure. It often requires valve replacement for cure. Group A, C, and G streptococci Acute disease resembles that of S aureus IE (30-70% mortality rate), with suppurative complications. Group A organisms respond to penicillin alone. Group C and G organisms require a combination of synergistic antibiotics (as with enterococci). Coagulase-negative S aureus This causes subacute disease. It behaves similarly to S viridans infection. It accounts for approximately 30% of PVE cases and less than 5% of NVE cases. Staphylococcus lugdunensis Staphylococcus lugdunensis is another coagulase-negative Staphylococcus species but is extremely aggressive compared to coagulase-positive S aureus. S lugdunensis frequently causes IE. Pseudomonas aeruginosa This is usually acute, except when it involves the right side of the heart in IVDA IE. Surgery is commonly required for cure. HACEK (ie, Haemophilus aphrophilus, Actinobacillus actinomycetemcomitans, Cardiobacterium hominis, Eikenella corrodens, Kingella kingae) These organisms usually cause subacute disease. They account for approximately 5% of IE cases. They are the most common gram-negative organisms isolated from patients with IE. Complications may include massive arterial emboli and congestive heart failure. Cure requires ampicillin, gentamicin, and surgery. Fungal These usually cause subacute disease. The most common organism of both fungal NVE and fungal PVE is Candida albicans. Fungal IVDA IE is usually caused by Candida parapsilosis or Candida tropicalis. Aspergillus species are observed in fungal PVE and NIE. Bartonella The most commonly involved species is Bartonella quintana. IE typically develops in homeless males who have extremely substandard hygiene. Bartonella must be considered in cases of culture-negative endocarditis among homeless individuals. Multiple pathogens (polymicrobial) Pseudomonas and enterococci are the most common combination of organisms. It is observed in cases of IVDA IE The cardiac surgery mortality rate is twice that associated with single-agent IE. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following are fiber posts except: | [
"Carbon fiber reinforced.",
"Polyethylene fiber reinforced.",
"Glass fiber reinforced.",
"Aluminium fiber reinforced."
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Organisms involved in smooth surface caries: | [
"Streptococcus mutans.",
"Lactobacillus.",
"Actinomyces.",
"All of the above."
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
True about amnion are all except: | [
"No lymph supply",
"Rich blood supply",
"No nerve supply",
"Dilates cervix during labour"
] | B | Ans: B (Rich blood supply) Ref: Dutta Textbook of Obstetrics 5th ed pg 37Explanation:AMNIONInner layer of fetal membranesAmnion can be peeled off the fetal surface of placenta except at the site of insertion of umbilical cord0.02 to 0.5 mm thickNo blood or nerve or lymph supplyFunctions:Contributes to formation of liquor amniiPrevents ascending uterine infectionDilatation of cervix during labourSteroid hormone metabolismSource of glvcerophospholipids--Precursors of PG E2 and F2 alpha | train | med_mcqa | null |
Not a cause of hemoptysis - | [
"Pneumonia",
"Bronchiectasis",
"Empyema",
"Mitral stenosis"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Infant with blood in stools and mass in abdomen,diagnosis is – a) Intussusceptionb) Volvulusc) Idiopathic abdominal epilepsyd) Hirschsprung's disease | [
"ac",
"a",
"ab",
"bc"
] | C | Causes of rectal bleeding in the infant
Anal fissure
Intestinal duplication
Volvulus
Intussusception
Meckel's diverticulum
Infectious diarrhoea
Out of these diseases only intussception and volvulus present with an abdominal mass.
Intussusception presents with sausage-shaped mass in the right hypochondrium. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The most impoant source of infection for meningococci - | [
"Case",
"Subclinical case",
"Carriers",
"Latent case"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Carriers Transmission of meningococci The human nasopharynx is the only reservoir of meningococcus. Carriers are the most impoant source of infection not the clinical cases. Meningococcal meningitis is common in children between 3 months to 5 yrs. Out of 13 serogroup group 'A', B and 'C' are most impoant group 'A' meningococcus is associated with epidemics and group C mostly with localised outbreaks, while group B causes both epidemics and outbreaks. Group 29-E, W-135 and Y also frequently cause meningitis. Drug of choice for chemoprophylaxis is rifampicin (Penicillin is unable to eradicate carrier state). | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following clinical condition is associated with 'Herbe pits'? | [
"Trachoma",
"Psoriasis",
"Spring catarrh",
"Fungal keratitis"
] | A | Trachoma is usually caused by C trachomatis serovars A, B, Ba, or C. In established trachoma, there may also be superior epithelial keratitis, sub epithelial keratitis, pannus, or superior limbal follicles, and ultimately the pathognomonic cicatricial remains of these follicles, known as Herbe's pits -- small depressions covered by epithelium at the limbo corneal junction. The associated pannus is a fibrovascular membrane arising from the limbus, with vascular loops extending onto the cornea. Ref: Nijm L.M., Garcia-Ferrer F.J., Schwab I.R., Augsburger J.J., Correa Z.M. (2011). Chapter 5. Conjunctiva & Tears. In P. Riordan-Eva, E.T. Cunningham, Jr. (Eds), Vaughan & Asbury's General Ophthalmology, 18e. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Definitive diagnosis of oral cancer is made by | [
"Complete radiographic survey",
"Biopsy",
"Exfoliative cytology",
"Pantograph"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is more frequently seen in Churg Strauss Syndrome in comparison to Wegener's Granulomatosis | [
"Renal involvement",
"Lower Respiratory Tract involvement",
"Eye involvement",
"Upper Respiratory Tract involvement"
] | B | Answer is B (Lower Respiratory Tract involvement): Lower Respiratory Tract involvement is typically more common in Churg Strauss Syndrome in comparison to Wegener's Granulomatosis. Organs involved in small vessels vasculitis: Organ involvement throughout disease course Wegner's granulomatosis Microscopic polyangitis Churg-Strauss syndrome Upper respiratory tract 80% Uncommon 55% Lower respiratory tract 70% 30% 100% Eye 46% 10% 6% Kidney 80% 90% 33% Peripheral nervous system 35% 20% 67% Gastrointestinal system 5% 5% 17% Hea Uncommon Uncommon 28% Skin 50% 25% 44% Constitutional symptoms 95% 90% 94% | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 50-year-old female presented with mild to moderate unilateral headache which becomes severe occasionally along with fever, jaw pain and visual disturbances, malaise, fatigue and weight loss. On examination, scalp tenderness was noted. Lab findings revealed normocytic normochromic anemia, elevated ESR and raised ANA titers. Biopsy was taken from the temporal aery. Which of the following cells are most impoantly involved in the pathogenesis of the above disease: - | [
"CD4 T cells",
"CD8 T cells",
"B cells",
"Dendritic cells"
] | A | This is a case of Giant-cell aeritis. HPE image shows panaeritis with presence of mononuclear cells and giant cells along with proliferation of the intima and fragmentation of the internal elastic lamina. Giant cell aeritis (GCA)/Temporal aeritis, Systemic inflammatory vasculitis Occurs in older persons Most common form of systemic vasculitis in adults. It is initiated in the adventitia. CD4+ T cells enter through the vasa vasorum, become activated, and orchestrate macrophage differentiation. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Destruction of fat in acute pancreatitis is due to ? | [
"Lipase and elastase",
"Lipase and trypsin",
"Secretin",
"Cholecystokinin and trypsin"
] | B | Ans. is `b' ie Lipase and trypsinAn enzyme activated by trypsin is phospholipase A2. This enzyme splits a fatty acid off lecithin, forming lysolecithin. Lysolecithin damages cell membrane. It has been hypothesized that in acute pancreatitis phaspholipase A2 is activated in the pancreatic ducts, with formation of lysolecithin from lecithin that is normal constituent of bile. This cause disruption of pancreatic tissue and necrosis of surrounding fat. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Regarding alpha feto-protein true statement is : | [
"Major source in fetal life is yolk sac",
"Commonly incrased in wilms tumour",
"Maximum level at 20th week",
"Half life 5-7 days"
] | A | Ans. is a i.e. Major source in fetal life is yolk sac As discussed earlier : "AFP is synthesized early in gestation by the fetal yolk sac and later by the fetal GITand liver." No where it is given that major source is yolk sac so this statement (option "a") is paially correct. AFP levies are not increased in wilms tumour (i.e. option "b" is incorrect). Maximum level of AFP in : -- Fetal serum is at - 13 weeks -- Amniotic fluid is at 13 weeks. Maternal serum is at 28-32 weeks. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Coarctation of aoa is associated with - | [
"TAPVC",
"Bicuspid aoic valve",
"PDA",
"None"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Bicuspid aoic valve Although coarctation of Aoa may occur as a solitary defect it is accompanied by ? o Bicuspid aoic valve in 50% cases and may be associated with :? Congenital Aoic stenosis, ASD, VSD, mitral regurgitation and Berry aneurysm of the circle of willis. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 3-day-old boy delivered at 32 weeks of gestation is experiencing respiratory distress syndrome. The physician detects a hea murmur characteristic of a patent ductus aeriosus, a diagnosis that is confirmed with an echocardiogram. Which embryonic structure is involved in this diagnosis? | [
"Left third aoic arch",
"Right third aoic arch",
"Left sixth aoic arch",
"Umbilical aeries"
] | C | C. Patent ductus aeriosus (PDA) is a condition in which the ductus aeriosus, a bloodvessel that allows blood to bypass the baby's lungs before bih, fails to normally close afterbih. The ductus aeriosus is derived from the distal poion of the left sixth aoic arch | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following are used for treatment of hyperkalaemia except : | [
"Calcium gluconate",
"Sodium bicarbonate",
"Intravenous infusion of glucose with insulin",
"Beta blockers"
] | D | Answer is D (Beta blocker) Beta blockers have no role in management of hyperkalemia Parenteral or Nebulrized Beta 2 agonist may be useful by promoting cellular uptake of IC . Calcium gluconate provides cardiac protection by decreasing membrane excitability, white Insulin and Sodium bicarbonate decrease plasma IC concentration by shifting IC+ into cells. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A patient presents with low serum calcium, high phosphorus and elevated PTH. Which of the following investigations is least contributory to establish a diagnosis: | [
"Vitamin D levels",
"Serum creatinine levels",
"Cyclic AMP response to PTH",
"Urine myoglobin"
] | A | Answer is A (Vitamin D levels): Vitamin D deficiency is associated with hypophosphatemia and not hyperphosphatemia Renal failure (t serum creatinine), Pseudohypoparathyroidism (J-CAMP response to PTH) and increased urinary myoglobin (crush syndrome; tissue injury) may all be associated with combination of hypocalcemia, hyperphosphatemia and elevated PTH levels | train | med_mcqa | null |
Issuing false ceificate is punishable under Sec 197 IPC for imprisonment upto | [
"4 years",
"5 years",
"7 years",
"10 years"
] | C | Issuing false ceificate is punishable under Sec 197 IPC : imprisonment upto 7 years and fine and erasure of name from medical register. Ref: FORENSIC MEDICINE AND TOXICOLOGY Dr PC IGNATIUS THIRD EDITION PAGE 11 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Western blot is used for? | [
"DNA",
"RNA",
"PROTEINS",
"mRNA"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
A female patient is having diarrhea and abdominal distension. Small intestinal biopsy shows villous atrophy and crypt hyperplasia. Diagnosis is - | [
"Celiac sprue",
"Tropical sprue",
"Whipples disease",
"Hirchsprung's disease"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Celiac sprue o Villous atrophy with crypt hyperplasia is characteristic of celiac disease.Celiac disease (celiac sprue / gluten - sensitive enteropathy)o Celiac disease is a chronic disease, in which there is a characteristic mucosal lesion of the small intestine and impaired nutrient absorption, which improves on withdrawal of wheat gliadins and related grain proteins from the diet.o The fundamental disorder in celiac sprue is sensitivity to gluten which is alcohol soluble, water-insoluble protein component. It is found in wheat and closely related grains such as oat, barley, and rye.o Celiac disease presents with features of malabsorption and the characteristic is that withdrawal of gluten-containing substances from the diet i.e. (wheat, oat, barley, and rye) produces a dramatic improvement in the disease,o Almost all individuals with celiac disease share the major histocompatibility complex HLA-DQ 2 or HLA - DQ8.o Gliadin is deamidated by the enzyme transglutaminase and deamidated gliadin peptides bind to DQ2 and DQ8.o Recognition of these peptides by CD4+T cells leads to secretion of IFN-y, which damages the intestinal wall.Pathophysiologyo Celiac disease is caused by the action of acidic peptides containing the gliadin fraction of wheat,o The basic abnormality is thought to be an increased rate of loss of epithelial cells. Crypt cells show increased activity. This causes hypertrophy of crypt But even this increased activity cannot keep pace with the loss of cells, resulting in a progressive decrease in height of villi causing villous atrophyo The epithelial cells show decreased cytoplasm and mucuso The intestinal biopsy shows a decrease in the villus: crypt ratio. Normally the villi are 3-4 times the height of the crypts (ratio of 3-4: 1); in celiac disease, the ratio decreases progressively (partial, subtotal and total villous atrophy). Total villous atrophy is seen in severe celiac ds and is quite characteristic of celiac ds (partial villous atrophy may be seen in many other conditions). | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 32 year old woman presents with complaints of several months of burning substernal chest pain exacerbated by large meals, cigarettes, and caffeine. Her symptoms are worse when she lies on her back, especially when sleeping at night. Antacids often improve her symptoms. This patient is at risk for which of the following conditions? | [
"Cardiac ischemia",
"Columnar metaplasia of the distal oesophagus",
"Mallory-Weiss lesion in the esophagus",
"Squamous cell carcinoma"
] | B | This woman likely suffers from reflux esophagitis, a condition in which the lower esophageal sphincter (LES) does not adequately prevent acidic gastric contents from refluxing back into the distal esophagus. Most commonly, there is a defect in the LES mechanism itself, in addition to secondary causes such as pregnancy (due to increased abdominal pressure) and some medications (anticholinergics, beta-2 agonists, theophylline, nitrates, calcium-channel blockers). Symptoms can mimic cardiac chest pain and must be carefully evaluated. Complications of reflux esophagitis include esophageal strictures, ulcerations, laryngitis, pulmonary aspiration, and Barrett's esophagus (columnar metaplasia of the distal esophagus). Barrett's esophagus is considered a premalignant state, with roughly a 30-fold increase in the incidence of esophageal adenocarcinoma. The normal squamous epithelium of the esophagus transforms into columnar epithelium similar to gastric epithelium as a result of recurrent reflux of acidic gastric contents. Anginal pain, signaling cardiac ischemia, is generally not burning in nature, and is not relieved by antacids. Mallory-Weiss lesions are actual tears of the epithelia of the proximal stomach or distal esophagus as a result of retching (seen in anorexics and alcoholics). The incidence of pure squamous cell carcinoma is not increased by acid reflux disease. Ref: Wyatt C., Butterwoh IV J.F., Moos P.J., Mackey D.C., Brown T.G. (2008). Chapter 14. Gastrointestinal Pathology. In C. Wyatt, J.F. Butterwoh IV, P.J. Moos, D.C. Mackey, T.G. Brown (Eds), Pathology: The Big Picture. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following are true for Meckel's diveiculum EXCEPT: March 2013 (a, b, e, f) | [
"Lind by heterotopic epithelium",
"3-5% population",
"More commoner in females",
"Mesenteric border"
] | D | Ans. D i.e. Mesenteric borderMeckel's diveiculumTrue congenital diveiculum,Vestigeal remnant of omphalomesenteric duct/ vitelline duct,2 feet from ileocaecal valve,2 types of ectopic tissue are common:- Gastric &- PancreaticTorsion may lead to obstruction, ischemia & necrosis,IOC to diagnose Meckel's diveicula: Technetium-99m peechnetate (99mTc),It can be a leading point of intussusception | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most common cause of ARDS in children is: | [
"Aspiration",
"Injury",
"Severe pneumonia with sepsis",
"DIC"
] | C | c. Severe pneumonia with sepsis(Ref: Neonatal and Pediatric Respiratory Care 4/e By Brian K. Walsh p 564)Pneumonia, sepsis and aspiration are the most common cause of ARDS and ALI in children | train | med_mcqa | null |
Highest biological value of protein is seen in - | [
"Eggs",
"Fish",
"Soyabean",
"Gram"
] | A | Net protein utilization which combines in a single value the biological value and digestibility is 100 for egg compared to 80 for meat and 75 for milk Ref: P.687 25 th edition Park's Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine | train | med_mcqa | null |
Aspirin acts by inhibiting which of the following enzymes? | [
"Cyclooxygenase",
"Lipoxygenase",
"Phospholipase",
"None of the above"
] | A | Aspirin inhibits COX enzyme irreversibly and thus results in decreased synthesis of TXA2 as well as PGI2. TXA2 is produced by platelets and as platelets do not contain nuclei, TXA2 is not synthesized till there is production of fresh platelets, whereas vessel wall contains nucleus and thus can resume the synthesis of enzymes required for the formation of prostacyclins. The net effect is inhibition of TXA2 synthesis leading to anti-aggregatory effects. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A patient posted for Lap Cholecystectomy had drug eluting stent placed two years back. Patient has no symptom since then. Which of the following set of investigation should be done in this patient. | [
"ECG, CBC, Stress echocardiography",
"ECG, CBC, coronary angiography",
"ECG, CBC Stress echocardiography, coronary angiography",
"Coronary angiography, thallium echocardiography"
] | A | Coronary angiography is an invasive procedure hence not done. Pre-Anesthetic Check up: 1. Always take a history 2. General examination, 3. Systemic examination 4. Investigations: Routine Investigation: CBC, RFT (Urea, Creatinine, Serum Electrolytes) If Male and above 40 years: Do ECG, Chest Xray If Female above 45: ECG, Chest Xray History of PTCA and Medicated stent: Elective surgery should be done after one year, if not medicated stent then surgery is done after one month. If patient is having no symptoms: Invasive monitoring should be avoided for eg: Coronary angiography. Always in a cardiac patient ECG and Echo is done (Noninvasive) , stress echo can also be done. 5.ASA Grading 6. Airway evaluation | train | med_mcqa | null |
A child presented with intermittent episodes of left sided flank pain. Ultrasonography reveals large hydronephrosis with dilated renal pelvis and cortical thinning with a normal ureter. Kidney differential function was observed to he 19% which of the following is the best management – | [
"Nephrectomy",
"Pyeloplasty",
"External drainage",
"Endopylostomy"
] | B | Pelvi-ureteral junction (PUS)/ureteropelvic IUPJ)
UPJ obstruction is the most common obstructive lesion in childhood and is the most common cause of hydronephrosis found on prenatal and early postnatal ultrasonography. •
It is most commonly caused by intrinsic stenosis of a segment of ureter which is usually localized to the region of pelviureteric junction. Other causes include ureteric folds & extrinsic obstruction by crossing lower pole vessels.
Presentation
Hydronephrois revealed by maternal USG (Dilated renal pelvis but normal ureter).
Palpable renal mass in new horns or infants.
Abdominal flank or back pain typically exacerbated by drinking large volumes of liquid.
UTUHaemanuia after minimal trauma.
Epidemiology
Left side more commonly involved than right (Bilateral = 10%).
Male more commonly involved than females (M : F = 2 : 1).
Initial iagnosis by Ultrasonography
Hydronephrosis with dilated renal pelvis.
Ureter if visualized is of normal caliber (not dilated).
Renal Differential function
Nuclear Renography is used to determine Renal Differential function
A differential function of < 40% is considered significant and often an indication for surgical management. Management
Management depends on the differential renal function and AP diameter of PUJ :-
Differential renal function > 40% especially when AP diameter ofPILI <30 min -3 Conservative treatment.
Differential renal function < 40% especially when AP diameter of PUI > 30 MM —4 Surgical treatment is indicated. Pyeloplasty is the surgical procedure of choice. Other surgical procedures used are external drainage (nephrostomy), endopyelotomy and nephrectomy.
Differential function of < 10% is often considered as an arbitary cut off for nephrectomy. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Drug of choice in scabies in pregnant woman is - | [
"Permethrin",
"Gamma Benzene Hexachloride",
"Ivermectin",
"Benzyl benzoate"
] | A | Topical Permethrin 5% lotion is DOC in scabies in pregnant woman. MOA of Permethrin: Acts on Na channels. Crotamiton 10% and Precipitated sulphur can also be used Gamma Benzene Hexachloride: C/I in pregnancy. Ivermectin: Systemic agent used only in most severe scabies. Benzyl benzoate: disadvantage is multiple application is required. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is a delayed absorbablesynthetic suture material? | [
"Chromic catgut",
"Vicryl",
"Silk",
"Nylon"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Vicryl | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is a known effect of dengue to fetuses, if mother is affected | [
"Aboion",
"Teratogenicity",
"GR",
"None of the above"
] | D | Answer is option 4 None of the above Fetal risks in Dengue fever in pregnancy includes : No evidence of teratogenicity, aboion or IUGR following Dengue in pregnancy Veical transmission is present Newborn presents with fever hepatomegaly and thrombocytopenia. In grave infection Newborn may show coagulopathy | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which enzyme is not released as a proenzyme | [
"Elastase",
"Trypsin",
"Amylase",
"Chymotrypsin"
] | C | Proenzyme of
- Elastase- Proelastase
- Trypsin- Trypsinogen
- Chymotrypsin- Chymotrypsinogen | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following foramina allows cerebrospinal fluid to pass directly from the ventricular system into the subarachnoid space? | [
"Foramen of Magendie",
"Aqueduct of Sylvius",
"Third ventricle",
"Lateral ventricle"
] | A | The foramen of Magendie and the two lateral foramina of Luschka form the communication channels between the ventricular system within the brain and the subarachnoid space that lies outside the brain and spinal cord. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Shade determination of composite resin restoration on a tooth should be done; | [
"Before placement of rubber dam",
"On a dry tooth",
"Under bright light",
"Using a dry shade guide"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
You have checked the blood oestradiol levels of your patient and it comes as 150 pg/ml. The woman is LEAST likely to be in which phase of menstrual cycle? | [
"Follicular",
"Ovulation",
"Luteal",
"None"
] | B | The normal oestradiol and progesterone levels during menstrual cycle is given below Oestradiol Follicular phase 30 - 200 pg/ml Ovulation phase 200 - 600 pg/ml Luteal phase 30 - 200 pg/ml Progestrone Follicular phase 0.06 - 3 mg/ml Luteal phase 4.5 - 20 pg/ml Ref: Essentials of Gynaecology by Lakshmi Seshadri, Edition 1, page - 43. | train | med_mcqa | null |
In case of vertically unfavorable fracture, muscle responsible for displacement of fracture segment: | [
"Temporalis.",
"Medial Pterygoid.",
"Masseter.",
"All of the above."
] | B | These all muscles work in case of horizontal unfavourable fracture. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 73-year-old woman has noticed a 10-kg weight loss in the past 3 months. She is becoming increasingly icteric and has constant vague epigastric pain, nausea, and episodes of bloating and diarrhea. On physical examination, she is afebrile. There is mild tenderness to palpation in the upper abdomen, but bowel sounds are present. Her stool is negative for occult blood. Laboratory findings include a total serum bilirubin concentration of 11.6 mg/dL and a direct bilirubin level of 10.5 mg/dL. Which of the following conditions involving the pancreas is most likely to be present? | [
"Adenocarcinoma",
"Chronic pancreatitis",
"Cystic fibrosis",
"Islet cell adenoma"
] | A | The weight loss and pain suggest a malignant neoplasm. Jaundice (a conjugated hyperbilirubinemia) occurs because of biliary tract obstruction by a mass in the head of the pancreas. Such a carcinoma may manifest with "painless jaundice" as well, but it is more likely to invade the nerves around the pancreas, causing pain. Islet cell adenoma is not as common as pancreatic carcinoma. An adenoma located near the ampulla could have an effect similar to that of carcinoma; however, weight loss with adenoma is unlikely. Chronic pancreatitis usually does not obstruct the biliary tract. In cystic fibrosis, there is progressive pancreatic acinar atrophy without a mass effect. Most pseudocysts from pancreatitis are in the region of the body or tail of the pancreas, not the head, and they are nonneoplastic. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Spongiosis is seen in: | [
"Acute eczema",
"Lichen planus",
"Psoriasis",
"Pemphigus"
] | A | ECZEMA - Reaction pattern of inflammatory response of skin characterized clinically in Acute stage- Spongiosis( oozing out lesions) erythema vesiculation Chronic stages - Acanthosis (lichenified lesions) Histopathological features of eczema - Epidermis: 1 Acute phase spongiosis i.e. intercellular edema. 2 Subacute phase Parakeratotic stratum corneum. Acanthotic process stas. Rete ridges broaden and get elongated. 3 Chronic phase Rete ridges broaden and elongate fuher. Hyperkeratosis replaces parakeratosis. Dermis: Vasodilatation in the papillary dermis accompanied by lympho-histiocytic infiltrate. Polymorphs and Eosinophils are seen in Acute eczema . | train | med_mcqa | null |
Reason of difficult intubation in an obese patient is? | [
"Difficult visualization",
"Decreased safe apnea time",
"Lower tidal volume",
"All of the above"
] | D | Ans is 'd' i.e. All of the aboveReasons for difficult intubation in obese patientsi) Increased soft tissue mass* The increased weight & volume of soft tissue can distort the airway in a supine obese patient, making visualization of vital structures harder.* This can also make "lifting up" on the laryngoscope handle harder, as there is more weight to lift.ii) Increased pressure on diaphragm* Obese abdomens prevent normal diaphragmatic excursion, more so in supine position. This leads to lower tidal volumes in spontaneously breathing patients, faster desaturation once sedated/paralysed, and more difficult bag-valve-mask ventilation.iii) Reduced "Safe Apnoea Time"* This is the time between rendering a patient apnoeic with an anaesthetic, and the time they start to desaturate.* This happens more quickly in obese patients due to the poor mechanics of their airway (mentioned above), and their increased metabolic demands. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which fungicide is used as a spray for the control of bagassosis – | [
"2% acetic acid",
"2% formic acid",
"2% propionic acid",
"25% phenyl mercury"
] | C | Preventive measures for bagassosis
Dust control → Wet process, enclosed apparatus, exhaust ventilation.
Personal protection → Protective equipment (mask or respirators with mechanical filters).
Medical control → Pre-placement examination and periodic medical check-up.
Bagasse control → Keeping moisture above 20% and spraying the bagasse with 2% propionic acid, a widely used fungicide. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Cytopathology deals with ? | [
"Cellular changes for diagnosis of disease",
"Tissue changes for diagnosis of disease",
"Both 'a' and 'b'",
"None of the above"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Cellular changes for diagnosis of diseaseCytologyCytology is the study of cells.Cytology is that branch of life science, which deals with the study of cells in terms of structure, function and chemistry.Robe Hooke is sometimes seen as the father of cytology. | train | med_mcqa | null |
True about pugilistic attitude: MP 09; PGI 10 | [
"Indicate antemoem burns",
"Indicate postmoem burns",
"Cannot differentiate between ante- or postmoem",
"Indicate defense by victim"
] | C | Ans. Cannot differentiate between ante- or postmoem | train | med_mcqa | null |
The major disadvantage of treatment using a cervical head gear is | [
"Impaction of maxillary canines",
"Extrusion of maxillary incisors",
"Extrusion of maxillary molars",
"Deformity of neck"
] | C | So cervical head gear is used in patients with low mandibular plane angle and deep bite. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The drug of choice for Addison's disease is: | [
"Hydrocoisone",
"Betamethasone",
"Dexamethasone",
"Prednisolone"
] | A | Hydrocoisone | train | med_mcqa | null |
Sharp instruments may be sterilized with ? | [
"Radiation",
"Lysol",
"Hot air",
"Any of the above"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Hot air | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following bones do not contribute to the nasal septum? | [
"Sphenoid",
"Lacrimal",
"Palatine",
"Ethmoid"
] | B | The bony pa of Nasal septum is formed by: *Vomer *Perpendicular plate of ethmoid.however its margins receives contributions from nasal spine of frontal bone,the rostrum o the sphenoid,nasal crest of nasal,palatine and maxillary bones. REF.BDC vol 3 page no:241 | train | med_mcqa | null |
A client with head trauma develops a urine output of 300 ml/hr, dry skin, and dry mucous membranes. Which of the following nursing interventions is the most appropriate to perform initially? | [
"Evaluate urine specific gravity",
"Anticipate treatment for renal failure",
"Provide emollients to the skin to prevent breakdown",
"Slow down the IV fluids and notify the physician"
] | A | Urine output of 300 ml/hr may indicate diabetes insipidus, which is a failure of the pituitary to produce the anti-diuretic hormone. This may occur with increased intracranial pressure and head trauma; the nurse evaluates for low urine specific gravity, increased serum osmolarity, and dehydration.
Option B: There’s no evidence that the client is experiencing renal failure.
Option C: Providing emollients to prevent skin breakdown is important, but doesn’t need to be performed immediately.
Option D: Slowing the rate of IV fluid would contribute to dehydration when polyuria is present. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Health guide works at the level of | [
"Village",
"Sub - centre",
"PHC",
"CHC"
] | A | Village health guide (VHG)- Preferably a female, who is the permanent resident of the community and has minimal formal education upto 6th standard. -Training at : PHC (200 hours in 3 months) -Duties of VHGs: 1) Treatment of simple ailments 2) First aid 3) Mother and child health (with Family planning) 4) Health education 5) Sanitation -National target : 1 VHG per village (1000 rural population) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Sputum can be sterilized by all of the following, EXCEPT: | [
"Chlorhexidine",
"Cresol",
"Boiling",
"Autoclaving"
] | A | Sputum can be disinfected using: 5% cresol Burning Boiling Autoclaving Ref: Park 21st edition, page 119. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following intracranial tumors has the best prognosis? | [
"Glioblastoma",
"Cerebellar astrocytoma",
"Medulloblastoma",
"Ependymoma"
] | B | Cerebellar astrocytoma is the most common type of posterior fossa tumor in childhood and has an excellent prognosis following surgical removal. Next to cerebellar astrocytoma, medulloblastoma is the most frequent tumor involving posterior cranial fossa structures and has a poor prognosis for recovery. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 29 year male complains of pain in the flank that radiates from the loin to the groin region. The first investigation to be done is - | [
"CECT",
"Plain CT Scan",
"USG abdomen",
"Xray Abdomen"
] | C | Ans. is C. First investigation is USG>Xray Abdomen IOC is CT Gold standard investigation for renal calculi: Non contrast CT scan | train | med_mcqa | null |
2 yrs duration in terms of leprosy is with regard to - | [
"Rx of paucibacillary leprosy",
"Rx of multibacillary leprosy",
"Post Rx surveillance of paucibacillary leprosy",
"Post Rx surveillance of multibacillary leprosy"
] | C | It is recommended that paucibacillary cases be examined clinically atleast once a year for a minimum of 2 years after completion of therapy. Reference; Park&;s Textbook of preventive and social medicine, 24th edition.Pg no. 344 | train | med_mcqa | null |
12th cranial nerve passes through: | [
"Jugular foramen.",
"Anterior condylar canal.",
"Posterior condylar canal.",
"Superior orbital fissure."
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Incidence of Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia has declined in recent times due to which of the following? | [
"Better living conditions",
"Decrease in the incidence of HIV infection",
"Use of combination A",
"Stronger immunity of the coho"
] | C | Answer- C. Use of combination APneumocystis pneumonia (PCP), once the hallmark of AIDS, has dramatically declined in incidence following the development of effective prophylactic regimens and the widespread use of cA. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Mineral trioxide aggregate used in apexification: | [
"Forms an integral part of the root canal filling",
"Dissolves as the apical barrier formation progresses",
"Has not yielded good results",
"Is available in a paste form"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Anorexia nervosa can be differentiated from bulimia by: | [
"Intense fear of weight gain",
"Disturbance of body image",
"Adolescent age",
"Peculiar patterns of food handling"
] | D | Unlike patients with bulimia, patients with anorexia remain preoccupied with food and show peculiar behavior like hiding food in the house, trying to dispose food in napkins, cutting food into very small pieces and rearranging the food repeatedly around the plate. Anorexia Nervosa Bulimia Nervosa Sex Females > Males Females > Males Age of onset Adolescence (13-19 years of age) Early teens or adolescence Intense fear of becoming obese + + Body image disturbance + + Binge eating +(50% of cases) + Compensation by purging etc + + Peculiar patterns of handling food + - | train | med_mcqa | null |
The following are the components of apgar score except | [
"Color",
"Muscle tone",
"Hea rate",
"Respiratory rate"
] | D | *Apgar score is an objective method of evaluating the newborn&;s condition. It includes Hea rate, Respiratory effo, Muscle tone, Reflex irritability and Color. *It is generally performed at 1min and again at 5 min after bih. Reference : page 127 Ghai Essential Pediatrics 9 th edition | train | med_mcqa | null |
Structure that passes through the internal auditory canal: | [
"Anterior inferior cerebellar aery",
"Posterior inferior cerebellar aery",
"Nerve of Wrisberg.",
"All"
] | C | C. i.e. Nerve of Wrisberg | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 2-year-old infant is brought to the emergency room with hemolytic uremic syndrome and thrombocytopenia. Which one of the following bacteria would most likely be isolated from a stool specimen? | [
"Shigella",
"Salmonella",
"Aeromonas",
"E. coli 0157/H7"
] | D | Food poisoning with E. coli 0157/H7 causes hemorrhagic colitis; it is often seen after eating beef hamburgers. The same organism also causes a hemorrhagic uremic syndrome. The toxin, called Shiga-like toxin, can be demonstrated in Vero cells, but the cytotoxicity must be neutralized with specific antiserum. With the exception of sorbitol fermentation, there is nothing biochemically distinctive about these organisms. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Constituents of Tetralogy of fallot (TOF) are all EXCEPT | [
"Aortic stenosis",
"Pulmonary stenosis",
"Overriding of aorta",
"VSD"
] | A | i.e. (Aortic stenosis): (408-Ghai 7th)TETRALOGY OF FALLOT(i) Ventricular septal defect(ii) Pulmonary stenosis(iii) Overriding or dextroposed aorta(iv) Right ventricular hypertrophyPENTALOGY OF FALLOT(i) Ventricular septal defect(ii) Pulmonary stenosis(iii) Overriding or dextroposed aorta(iv) Right ventricular hypertrophy(v) ASD or patent foramen ovale***The basic embryological defect leading to TOF is Anterior deviation of the infundibular septum (Hall mark of Tetralogy)* Commonest symptoms of TOF - dyspnea on exertion and exercise intolerance* ECG - Right axis deviation with right ventricular hypertrophy (monophasic R wave in VI with an abrupt change to an rS pattern is classical) inverted T.waves in right precordial leads P pulmonale can be present. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the statements about exenatide are true except: | [
"It is a GLP–1 analogue",
"It can be used for treatment of Type 1 diabetes mellitus",
"It is given subcutaneously",
"It decreases glucagon"
] | B | Exenatide (Exendin 4) is a GLP-1 receptor agonist that is more resistant to DPP-4 action and cleared by the kidney.
When this drug is given to patients with type 2 diabetes by subcutaneous injection twice daily, it lowers blood glucose and HbA1c levels. It is not indicated in type 1 diabetes.
Exenatide appears to have the same effects as GLP-1 on glucagon suppression and gastric emptying.
Only drugs approved for treatment of type 1 diabetes are insulin and pramlintide. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Focal lesion in liver is best detected by | [
"MRI",
"CT",
"USG",
"PET"
] | A | MRI in Liver lesions MRI had emerged as the best imaging test for liver lesion detection and characterization MRI provides high lesion-to-liver contrast and does not use radiation Liver-specific contrast media, such as mangofodipir trisodium (taken up by hepatocytes) and ferrumoxides (taken up by kupffer cells) demonstrate selective uptake in the liver and primarily used for lesion detection These two contrast agents are also useful in characterising specific liver tumors, such as FNH, hepatic adenoma and HCC Ref: Shackelford 7th edition Pgno : 1560 | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 38-year-old man in a rural area presents to a physician to follow up an infection. Ocular examination reveals small opaque rings on the lower edge of the iris in the anterior chamber of the eye. Nodular lesions are found on his achilles tendon. Successful therapy should be aimed at increasing which of the following gene products in hepatocyte cell membranes? | [
"Apo B-100",
"Apo B-100 receptor",
"Apo E",
"Apo E receptor"
] | B | This man has characteristic signs of familial hypercholesterolemia, an autosomal dominant disorder affecting about 1 in 500 persons. The xanthomas on the Achilles tendon and the arcus lipoides (the opaque rings in the eye) are pathognomonic. Affected individuals have very high LDL cholesterol because of deficient endocytosis of LDL paicles by LDL receptors. These receptors recognize the apo B-100 protein cotranspoed with cholesterol esters in LDL. Treatments aim at increasing genetic expression of LDL receptors (i.e., apo B-100 receptors) to enhance clearance of LDL paicles. Dietary changes, a resin drug, niacin, or an HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor could be tried. Apo B-100 is the apoprotein of liver-produced lipoproteins such as VLDL, IDL and LDL. It is therefore not in the hepatic cell membranes, and it might be expected to decrease with decreasing concentrations of circulating LDL. Apo E is an apoprotein found on VLDL, IDL, and chylomicrons, allowing "scavenging" by the liver of remnants or of the lipoprotein itself. It is not found in the hepatocyte membrane. Apo E receptor would actually be increased by the treatment with hypocholesterolemic agents. However, the apo E receptor is not involved in the scavenging of LDL paicles. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Wiscott Aldrich syndrome commonly consists of following except? | [
"Recurrent bacterial infections",
"Eczema",
"Bleeding",
"Urethritis"
] | D | Urethritis | train | med_mcqa | null |
The incidence of stump carcinoma is : | [
"6%",
"10%",
"16%",
"None"
] | D | Ans. is None Stump carcinoma It is the carcinoma which develops in the cervical stump left behind after subtotal hysterectomy. The incidence may be asrugh as 1%. In true stump carcinoma malignancy develops 2 years after primary surgery. The tumour behaves like carcinoma cervix. It is difficult to stage the disease. There is difficulty in treatment because of dense adhesion which make surgery difficult. Radiation therapy is also technically difficult. External beam radiation therapy is given. Prognosis is unourable. 5 years survival rate 30 - 60%. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which compound is not considered as a radiosensitizer? | [
"Hyperbaric oxygen",
"Misonidazole",
"Amifostine",
"Idoxuridine"
] | C | Ans. C. AmifostineMany thiol groups of compounds like amifostine are used to protect normal cells from the harmful side effects of radiation. The agent amifostine is used commonly in clinical practice to protect from toxicities of Chemoradiotherapy. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Persistent belief in something which is not a fact is | [
"Illusion",
"Hallucination",
"Delusion",
"Delirium"
] | C | Delusions are false fixed firm unshakable beliefs which are impervious to other experiences leads to compelling counter argument which are not in keeping with patient's socio-cultural and educational background. These are of two types: primary and secondary.1. Primary delusions arise de novo and cannot be explained on the basis of other experiences or perceptions. Also known as autochthonous delusions, these are thought to be characteristic of schizophrenia and are usually seen in early stages.2. Secondary delusions are the commonest type of delusions seen in clinical practice and are not diagnostic of schizophrenia as these can also be seen in other psychoses. Secondary delusions can be explained as arising from other abnormal experiences. Ref: A Sho Textbook of Psychiatry, Niraj Ahuja, 7th Edition, pg. no. 56 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Risk of HIV transmission is highest during? | [
"During Caesarian section",
"During antepartum period",
"During vaginal delivery",
"Breastfeeding"
] | C | Ans. C. During vaginal deliverya. Mothers, who are HIV infected can pass the virus on to their fetuses in utero or to infants via breast milk. Vaginal delivery is the most common and most effective mode of transmission.b. Perinatal transmission-The vertical transmission to neonates of the infected mothers is 25-35%. The baby may be affected in utero (30%) through transplacental transfer, during delivery (70-75%) by contaminated secretions and blood of the birth canal and through breast milk in neonatal period (10-20%).c. It is clear from recent European studies that Cesarean section alone, or in combination with antiretroviral therapy can affect an additional significant reduction in perinatal HIV transmission.d. These results support the conclusion that some HIV infection must be acquired during passage through the vaginal canal.e. In non-breast-feeding populations it is estimated that 50to70% of HIV infection is acquired during labor and delivery and the remainder in utero. To date, studies directed at reducing exposure to HIV during birth other than Cesarean section, have not demonstrated a benefit in reducing HIV transmission. | train | med_mcqa | null |
If a private practitioner is convinced that the patient is suffering from homicidal poisoning, he is bound to inform the police or magistrate under. | [
"Section 39 CrPC",
"Section 176 CrPC",
"Section175 CrPC",
"Section 41 CrPC"
] | A | - If a private practitioner is convinced that the patient is suffering from homicidal poisoning, he is bound to inform the police or magistrate under Section 39 CrPC - Non-compliance is punishable under Section 176 IPC. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 45-year-old hypertensive male patient presented in the casualty with 2-hour history of sudden onset of a severe headache associated with nausea and vomiting. On clinical examination, the patient had neck stiffness and right-sided ptosis. Rest of the neurological examination was normal. What is the clinical diagnosis? - | [
"Hypertensive brain haemorrhage",
"Migraine",
"Aneurysmal subarachnoid haemorrhage",
"Arterio venous malformation haemorrhage"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
The most common cause of pathological fracture is | [
"Delayed union",
"Mal union",
"Non union",
"Secondary deposits"
] | D | D i.e. Secondary deposits | train | med_mcqa | null |
Arrangement of lens from eye to source of light, in light microscope ? | [
"Ocular lens : Subjective lens : Condensor lens",
"Subjective lens : Ocular lens : Condensor len",
"Condensor lens : Sujective lens : Ocular lens",
"Subjecive lens : Condensor lens : Ocular lens"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Ocular lens : Subjective lens : Condensor lens | train | med_mcqa | null |
The following interleukin is characteristicallyproduced in a TH1 response - | [
"IL-2",
"IL-4",
"IL-5",
"IL-10"
] | A | . IL-2 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Initial IOC for intussesception is: March 2003 | [
"X-ray",
"USG",
"Barium enema",
"CT scan"
] | B | Ans. B i.e. USG | train | med_mcqa | null |
First secondary ossification center appears in - | [
"Lower end of femur",
"Upper end of humerus",
"Lower end of fibula",
"Upper end of tibia"
] | A | Ossification centre appears in lower end of femur in 36 weeks.Dr. Narayana Reddys Synopsis of Forensic Medicine & Toxicology 27th edition pg. 46. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Paranasal sinus opening in middle meatus-a) Maxillaryb) Anterior ethmoidc) Posterior ethmoidd) Frontale) Sphenoid | [
"abd",
"bcd",
"abc",
"ab"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
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