question stringlengths 1 6.54k | choices listlengths 4 4 | answer stringclasses 4
values | rationale stringlengths 0 22.5k ⌀ | split stringclasses 1
value | dataset stringclasses 6
values | subject stringclasses 1
value |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
Which of the bone is NOT a component of the bony pa of nasal septum? | [
"Maxilla",
"Ethmoid",
"Vomer",
"Sphenoid"
] | D | The nasal septum is composed of quadrilateral cailage and five bones such as premaxilla, crest of maxillary bone, crest of palate bone, vomer and perpendicular plate of ethmoid. Composition of nasal septum:Anteriorly by the quadrilateral cailage and maxilla.Posteriorly by perpendicular plate of the ethmoid bone and sphenoid crest.Inferiorly by crest of the vomer, maxillary, and palatine bones.The skin within the nasal vestibule is a keratinized squamous cell epithelium containing vibrissae and sebaceous glands.At the leading edge of the inferior turbinate the epithelium transitions into a cuboidal cell type and then into pseudostratified ciliated columnar respiratory epithelium.At the most posterior aspect of nasopharynx, the mucosa returns to a non keratinized squamous cell epithelium. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Paul Bunnell test is seen in - | [
"Infections mononucleosis",
"Syphilis",
"Typhoid",
"RA"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Infections mononucleosis Serological TestsTypeUse to diagnosePaul Bunnell testTube agglutinationInfectious mononucleosisWasserman reactionComplement fixation testsyphilisRose waaler testPassive hemagglutinationRheumatoid arthritisWidal testTube agglutinationTVpboidVDRLSlide precipitationSyphilisKahn s flocculation testTube precipitationSyphilisWeil Felix testHeterophile tube agglutinationationRickettsiaeLancejield testRing precipitationGroup of streptococciAscoli's testRing precipitationAnthrax | train | med_mcqa | null |
Mammography is not advised in | [
"Pregnant females",
"Mastitis",
"Adolescent age group",
"All of the above"
] | D | Ans. D. All of the above* Mammography is a radiation emitting modality which is used to image the breast. In this technique breast tissue is compressed under 2 paddles. The imaging rests on the difference between fatty and glandular components on breast and less glandular the breast better is the imaging.* In pregnant females as this is an ionizing modality we don't advise it. The breasts are already engorged and congested in pregnant females and mastitis where compression will be painful.* In adolescent age group nearly 75% of breast tissue is glandular and hence many small abnormalities will be obscured. Generally, mammography is advised in females above age of 40 years. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is/are not the features of Henoch-Schonlein purpura (HSP)? | [
"Abdominal pain",
"Splinter hemorrhage",
"Thrombocytopenia",
"Epistaxis"
] | C | c. Thrombocytopenia(Ref: Nelson's 20/e p 1612, Ghai 8/e p 632)HSP is characterized by a tetrad of palpable purpura, arthritis, glomerulonephritis and abdominal painLess common skin lesions are macules, vesicles, bullous lesions, splinter hemorrhage and ulcerations; Rarely, epistaxis may occur. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Hypolipidemic drugs act on all except ? | [
"HMG Co A reductase",
"Lipoprotein lipase",
"Acyl CoA, cholesterol acyl transferase 1",
"Peripheral decarboxylase"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Peripheral decarboxylase Hypolipidemic drugs HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors (statins) - Lovastatin, Simvastatin, Pravastatin, Atorvastatin, Rosuvastatin. Bile acid sequestrants (Resins) - cholestyramine, colestipol. Activate lipoprotein lipase (fibric acid derivatives) - clofibrate, gemfibrozil, bezafibrate, fenofibrate. Inhibit lipolysis and triglyceride synthesis - Nicotinic acid. Other - Probucol, Gugulipid, Ezetimibe, Avasimibe, Torcetrapib. Ezetimibe inhibits intestinal cholesterole absorption. Avasimibe inhibits enzyme acyl Coenzyme A : cholesterol acyl transferase-1 (ACAT-1) which causes esterification of cholesterol. Torcetrapib inhibits cholesterol ester triglyceride transpo protein - T HDL cholesterol. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 23-year-old woman has had several episodes of severe wheezing over the past 3 years. She is a nonsmoker and feels well in between episodes. She has no personal or family history of atopy. The wheezing episodes are most likely to occur in spring. Which of the following is the most likely mechanism of wheezing in this woman? | [
"elevated IgE levels",
"mast cell instability",
"nonspecific hyperirritability of the tracheobronchial tree",
"disordered immediate hypersensitivity"
] | C | There is a constant state of hyperreactivity of the bronchi, during which exposure to an irritant precipitates an asthmatic attack. A following subacute phase has been described that can lead to late complications. The presence of inflammation in the airways has resulted in increased usage of inhaled corticosteroids for maintenance therapy. Many cases of asthma have no discernible allergic component. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Acantholysis is due to destruction of : | [
"Epidermis",
"Subepidermis",
"Intercellular substance",
"Basement membrane"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' Intercellular Substance It is loss of cohesion b/w epidermal cells due to destruction of intercellulare substance. IgG Antibodies are formed against the intercellular substance.Acantholysis occurs in stratum Basale in Pemiphus Vulgaris*Acantholysis is demonstrated by Nikolsky's sign*Acantholytic cells are demonstrated by Tzanck smear* | train | med_mcqa | null |
Characteristic of Guillain-Barre syndrome is:September 2005 | [
"Profouund sensory loss",
"Loss of limb reflex",
"Residual paralysis",
"Descending paralysis"
] | B | Ans. B: Loss of limb reflex | train | med_mcqa | null |
Type of wave in Metabolic Encephalopathy - | [
"Alpha",
"Beta",
"Gamma",
"Delta"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Central cyanosis is seen if | [
"Methemoglobin 0.5 gm/dl",
"O2 saturation < 85%",
"O2 saturation < 94%",
"Hb – 4 gm%"
] | B | Oxygen saturation should be less than 85% for central cyanosis to occur. Deoxyhemoglobin level should be at least 5gm%. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which one of the following is NOT a common feature of bile duct stone | [
"Obstructive jaundice",
"Itching",
"Clay colored stools",
"Distended gallbladder"
] | D | In obstruction of CBD due to a stone,distension of the gall bladder seldom occurs,the organ is usually already shrivelled.In obstruction from other causes,distension of the gall bladder is common by comparison. Obstructive jaundice is present with clay coloured stools in choledocholithiasis due to the absence of stercobilinogen.Pruritis is also present due to the accumulation of bile acid. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Angle of anteversion of uterus is between ? | [
"Long axis of uterus and cervix",
"Long axis of cervix and vagina",
"Long axis of uterus and vagina",
"None of the above"
] | C | Long axis of uterus and vaginaThe normal position of the uterus is one of the anteflexion and anteversion, i.e. the fundus and upper pa of the body bent forward in relation to the long axis of the cervix (angle of anteflexion: normal 1251, while the organ thus leans forward as a whole from the vagina (angle of anteversion: normal 90"). | train | med_mcqa | null |
Threshold level of herd immunity of Peussis is - | [
"80%",
"70%",
"90%",
"50%"
] | C | Park&;s texbook of Preventive and Social Medicine 23rd edition Page no: 165 The control of peussis by immunization is still an unsolved problem Even if the level of immunization reaches 100 per cent, it is possible that the disease would not be entirely eliminated because whooping cough vaccines have never been claimed to be more than 90 per cent effective. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The following group of lymph nodes receives lymphatics from the uterus except - | [
"External iliac",
"Internal iliac",
"Superficial inguinal",
"Deep inguinal"
] | D | Lymphatic drainage of the uterus
- Cervix- External iliac, internal iliac, sacral lymph nodes
- Body (Lower part)- External iliac
- Body (upper part) and fundus- para-aortic nodes, superficial inguinal | train | med_mcqa | null |
Pulmonary fibrosis is the most common complication after treatment with | [
"6- mercaptopurine",
"Vincristine",
"Bleomycine",
"Adriamycine"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., bleomycin This question has been repeated numerous times before so its well-known that Bleomycin causes Pulmonary fibrosisThe other important fact about Bleomycin is its mechanism of action.* It causes DNA chain scission and inhibits repair by intercalating between DNA strands*Other drugs causing pulmonary fibrosis areacyclovir*amiodarone*busulphan*cyclophosphamide*melphalan*methotrexate*methysergide* | train | med_mcqa | null |
You are explaining to your patient about epidemic typhus. He wants to know how he could have got infected with the disease. All the following are TRUE regarding transmission of epidemic typhus, EXCEPT: | [
"It may be transmitted by getting bitten by an infected louse",
"It may be transmitted by self inoculation of infected louse faeces while scratching",
"It may be transmitted by inhalation of infected louse faeces",
"It may be transmitted by self inoculation due to an infected louse being crushed due to scratc... | A | Epidemic typhus is caused by R.prowazekii. Although the louse gets infected by feeding on the blood of an infected person during the febrile stage it cannot be transmitted from one person to another by the bite of the louse. The rest of the options given above are believed to be modes of transmission of the disease. Ref: Park, Edition 21, Page 276 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which is not a cataract surgery- | [
"Lensectomy",
"Goniotomy",
"Phacoemulsification",
"IOL"
] | B | Lensectomy In this operation most of the lens including anterior and posterior capsule along with anterior vitreous are removed with the help of a vitreous cutter. Childhood cataracts,both congenital/developmental and acquired, being soft are easily dealt with this procedure especially in very young children (less than 2 years of age) in which primary IOL implantation is not planned. Goniotomy Surgical procedure for congenital glaucoma In this procedure a Barkan&;s goniotomy knife is passed through the limbus on the temporal side. Under gonioscopic control the knife is passed across the anterior chamber to the nasal pa of the angle. An incision is made in the angle approximately midway between root of the iris and Schwalbe&;s ring through approximately 75deg. The knife is then withdrawn. Although the procedure may have to be repeated, the eventual success rate is about 85 percent. Phacoemulsification Phacoemulsification is a technique of extracapsular cataract extraction in which after the removal of anterior capsule (by capsulorhexis), the lens nucleus is emulsified and aspirated by the probe of a phacoemulsification machine. IOL Indication : Recent trend is to implant an IOL in each and every case being operated for cataract; unless it is contraindicated. However, operation for unilateral cataract should always be followed by an IOL implantation. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following are true about HMG CoA reductase inhibitors except: | [
"CNS accumulation of simvastatin and lovastatin is high and less for pravastatin and fluvastatin",
"Simvastatin is rapidly and pravastatin is least metabolized.",
"Bioavailability is minimally modified when pravastatin is taken with food",
"Fibrinogen levels are increased by pravastatin"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Nodules seen near the collarette are called | [
"Busacca's nodules",
"Koeppe's nodules",
"Lisch nodules",
"Dalen fuch's nodules"
] | A | (Refer: AK Khurana Comprehensive Ophthalmology, 6th edition, pg no. 153, 156, 504, 524)Koeppe's nodules are situated at the pupillary border and may initiate posterior synechiaBusacca's nodules situated near the collarette are large but less common than the Koeppe's nodules | train | med_mcqa | null |
The mechanism of direct transfer of free DNA involves _____ | [
"Transformation",
"Transduction",
"Conjugation",
"Mutation"
] | A | Transformation is a process of the transfer of DNA itself from one bacterium to another. This may occur either in nature or in a laboratory. DNA is released from a bacterium by lysis, which may be taken up by recipient bacterium that must be competent. In laboratory conditions, DNA may be extracted from one type of bacterium and introduced into genetically different bacteria. The cell walls of bacteria in vitro are made more permeable for DNA uptake by using substances, such as calcium chloride. Transduction is the process by which foreign DNA is introduced into a cell by a virus or viral vector. Conjugationis the process by which onebacteriumtransfers genetic material to another through direct contact. This takes place through a pilus. During conjugation, onebacteriumserves as the donor of the genetic material, and the other serves as the recipient. | train | med_mcqa | null |
While dispatching blood and urine for chemical analysis, sodium fluoride is added as preservative in the following concentration - | [
"30 mg/10 ml",
"40 mg/10 ml",
"50 mg/ ml",
"100 mg/10 ml"
] | D | 10 mg/ml of Na-fluride (i.e. 100 mg/10 ml) is used with 3 mg of potassium oxalate for preserving blood. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Toxic amblyopia is produced by: | [
"INH",
"Rifampicin",
"Ethambutol",
"Pyrazinamide"
] | B | Ans. Rifampicin | train | med_mcqa | null |
In thromboasthenia there is a defect in ? | [
"Platelet aggregation",
"Platelet adhesion",
"Decreased ADP release",
"Desordered platelet secretion"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Platelet aggregation Platelet adhesion o Platelet adhesion referes to the binding of platelets to subendothelial matrix. o Platelet membrane glycoprotein Ib-IX is essential for platelet adhesion to subendothelial matrix. Platelet aggregation Platelet aggregation referres to adherence of platelets to one another. Platelet membrane glycoprotein IM-11.1a helps in aggregation. Congenital dysfunction of platelet Bernard-soulier syndrome o Defect in platelet adhesion due to inherited deficiency of glycoprotein lb-IX. Glanzmann's thrombasthenia o Defect in platelet aggregation due to inherited deficiency of glycoprotein | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most common symptom of Interstitial Lung disease is: March 2010 | [
"Hemoptysis",
"Dyspnea",
"Substernal discomfo",
"Wheezing"
] | B | Ans. B: Dyspnea Many of the ILDs have similar clinical features and are not easily distinguished on examination. Symptoms are generally limited to the respiratory tract. Exeional breathlessness (dyspnea) and a nonproductive cough are the most common symptom. However, sputum production, hemoptysis, or wheezing are helpful in classifying the disease. If the patient also has prominent nonrespiratory symptoms, such as myalgia, ahralgia, or sclerodactyly, ILD might be the result of underlying connective tissue disease. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Tension pneumothorax is associated with - | [
"Mediastinal displacement away from the lesion",
"Decreased percussion note on the side of the lesion",
"increased blood pressure",
"Stridor"
] | A | In tension pneumothorax the pressure in pleural space is positive throughout the respiratory cycle. This condition usually occurs during mechanical ventilation and resuscitative effos. Difficulty in ventilation during resuscitation or high peak inspiratory pressures during mechanical ventilation strongly suggest the diagnosis. Physical examination shows : Enlarged hemithorax Absent breath sounds Hyperresonance on percussion Shift of mediastinum to contralateral side The positive pleural pressure in tension pneumothorax is life threatening because ventilation is severely compromised and the positive pressure is transmitted to mediastinum resulting in decreased venous return to hea and reduced cardiac output. Hence it should be treated as a medical emergency. If not treated immediately the patient may die of inadequate cardiac output and hypoxemia. Ref Davidson edition23rd pg 627 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Dumping syndrome can occur after | [
"Billroth-II operation",
"Heller's operation",
"Whipple's operation",
"Nissen fundoplication"
] | A | Billroth ii is an operation wherein the greater curvature of the stomach is attached to 1st pa of jejunum in end to side anastomosis It occurs due to rapid delivery of osmotically active solid and liquid into jejunum due to alteration in the storage function of the stomach resulting in increased intestinal activity leading to diarrhoea and fall in blood volume. Reference SRB 5th edition page no.839 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Using Mifepristone, therapeutic abortion can be effectively induced until______ weeks of gestation? | [
"6 weeks",
"7 weeks",
"8 weeks",
"9 weeks"
] | D | Ans. d. 9 weeks. (Ref Gynaecology by Dutta 5th/pg. 511, Dutta obstetrics 6th/pg. 175&550; Shaw Gynecology 15th/pg. 317; Ref KDT 6th/pg. 310).Text book of Obstetrics by DC Dutta 7th/pg. 174...........Mifepristone (RU 486/progesterone receptor antagonist) is effective in inducing therapeutic abortion upto 63 days of gestation, but is most effective when used with 49 days of gestation.Uses of Mifepristone (RU-486)(anti-progestin):APostcoital contraceptiveMifepristone 600 mg given 72 hrs of intercourse interferes with implantation and is highly effective method of emergency contraception. The menstrual cycle is however disturbed.B.Termination of pregnancy# Up to 7 weeks: 600 mg as single dose causes complete abortion in 60-85% cases. # To improve the success rate, current recommendation is to follow up 48 hrs later by a single 400 mg oral dose of misoprotol. This achieves > 90% success rate and is the accepted nonsurgical method of early first trimester abortion.# In place of oral Misoprostol, a 1 mg geneprost pessary can be inserted intravaginally. Mifepristone administered within 10 days of missed period results in an apparent late heavy period in upto 90% cases.# Anorexia, nausea, tiredness, abdominal discomfort, uterine crapms, loose motions are the side effects, apart from problems like prolonged bleeding and failed abortion in some cases.C.Cervical ripening24-30 hrs before attempteing surgical abortion or induction of labour, mifepristone 600 mg results in softening of cervix.D.Once a month contraceptiveA single 200 mg dose of mifepristone given 2 days after the midcycle each month prevents conception on most occasions.E.Induction of labourBy blocking the relaxant action of progesterone on uterus of late pregnancy, mifepristone can induce labour. It may be tried in cases with IUD and to deliver abnormal fetuses.F.Cushing's syndromeMifepristone has palliative effect due to glucocorticoid receptor blocking property. May be used for inoperable cases.Note: Other recently developed antiprogestins are Onapristone (a pure antagonist ) and Gestinone (most efficacious in endometriosis).Gossypol is nonsteroidal compound obtained from cotton seeds. Its effective orally-causes suppression of spermatogenesis in 99% men and reduces sperm motility. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Smallest diameter of p elvis is? | [
"Interspinous diameter",
"True conjugate",
"Diagonal conjugate",
"Intertuberous diameter"
] | A | ANSWER: (A) Interspinous diameterREF: Clinical Obstetrics 10th edition by S. Gopalan, Sarala & Jain, Vanita Page 4, Manual of Obstetrics, 3e by Shirish N Daftary Page 11-12, Manual Of Obstetrics (2Nd Edition) by Daftary Page 16-18"Interspinous diameter (transverse diameter of midpelvis = 10 cm or somewhat more) is the smallest diameter of pelvis" REF: Williams's obstetric 22nd edition page 34Measurements of Pelvis AnterioposteriorObliqueTransverseInletTrue conjugate11 cm12 cm13 cmObstetric conjugate10.5 cmDiagonal conjugate12 cmMid pelvisPlane of greatest dimension12 cm12 cm12 cmPlane of least dimension10 cm10 cm10 cm(interspinous)Outlet13 cm12 cm11 cmShortest anteroposterior diameter of inlet of pelvis is obstetrical conjugateInterspinous diameter, 10 cm or somewhat more, is usually the smallest diameter of the pelvisPelvic inlet is an adequate size for a normal fetus if the diagonal conjugate is 12 cm or greater | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 10-year-old boy on examination was found to have scoliosis and tuft of hairs over skin of lumbar spine. He has weakness and features of lower motor neuron paralysis in both lower limbs. X-ray spine reveals the 2 lumbar veebrae at that level are fused. Most likely diagnosis is | [
"Hemiveebra",
"Diastematomyelia",
"Sacrococcygeal teratoma",
"Spinomuscular Dystrophy"
] | B | Diastematomyelia (split cord malformation), refers to a type of spinal dysraphism (spina bifida occulta) when there is a longitudinal split in the spinal cord. Diastematomyelia signs and symptoms of tethered cord, although patients with mild type II may be minimally affected or entirely asymptomatic. Presenting symptoms include: leg weakness, low back pain, scoliosis, incontinence Associated anomalies including: meningocoele, neurenteric cyst, dermoid, clubfoot, spinal cord lipoma, haemangioma overlying spine. Type I: duplicated dural sac, with common midline spur (osseous or fibrous) and usually symptomatic Type II: single dural sac containing both hemicords; impairment less marked. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Mark the true statement regarding Carcinoma of the bladder: | [
"Is primarily of squamous cell origin.",
"Is preferentially treated by radiation.",
"May be treated conservatively by use of intravesical agents even if it invades the bladder muscle.",
"May mimic an acute UTI with irritability and hematuria."
] | D | Carcinoma of the bladder Transitional cell origin, arising from the transitional epithelium that lines the bladder. It may be confused with an acute UTI by producing urgency, frequency, and hematuria. Rx Tumor is intraepithelial in origin and no invasion through the basement membrane- Treat conservatively using intravesical agents if the Neither radiation nor chemotherapy is the treatment of choice for disease that invades the muscle of the bladder. Paial cystectomy may be chosen only when the disease is focal and there are no mucosal changes in other pas of the bladder. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Tree in bud sign on HRCT suggestive of | [
"Sarcoidosis",
"Miliary TB",
"Endobronchial spread in TB",
"All the above"
] | C | Tree in bud sign - Endobronchial spread in TB. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Upper segment : lower segment ratio decreases in all of the following except? | [
"Spondylo epiphyseal dysplasia",
"Alagille syndrome",
"Achondroplasia",
"Pott's disease"
] | C | Upper segment : lower segment ratio increases in Achondroplasia- cause of sho limb dwarfism. Sho trunk dwarfism (US:LS ratio- decreases) Sho limb dwarfism (US:LS ratio- increases) Sho- Spondyloepiphyseal dysplasia Rickets Man- Mucopolysaccharidosis Achondroplasia May- Mucolipidosis Osteogenesis imperfecta Climb- Caries spine (pott's disease) Congenital hypothyroidism High- Hemiveebra Chondroectodermal dysplasia | train | med_mcqa | null |
Least irritant fluid to peritoneum - | [
"Blood",
"Urine",
"Bile",
"Pancreatic fluid"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Morphine should not be used in: | [
"Ischaemic pain",
"Biliary colic",
"Cancer pain",
"Post-operative pain"
] | B | Ans. B. Biliary colicOpioids have potent analgesic effect via mu, kappa receptor. They are known to increase the intrabilliary pressure by constricting the smooth muscle. Therefore, they are contraindicated in biliary colic. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A patient presented with normal eyesight and absence of direct and consensual light reflexes. Which of the following cranial nerves is suspected to be lesioned? | [
"Occulomotor",
"Trochlear",
"Optic",
"Abducent"
] | A | When light is shone to one (e.g. left) eye, left optic nerve carries afferent impulse to brain and from brain efferent impulse to ipsiplateral (left) eye comes through ipsilateral (left) occulomotor nerve (for direct light reflex) and efferent for contralatcral (right) eye comes through contralateral (right) occulmotor nerve for consensual light reflex. When light is shone to other (right) eye, right optic nerve carries afferent impulse to brain and from brain, efferent impulse to right eye (for direct light reflex) comes through right occulmotor nerve and efferent for left eye (for consensual light reflex) comes through left occulomotor nerve. So :-
Optic nerve is responsible for direct light reflex in ipsilateral eye and consensual light reflex for contralateral eye. (In above example, afferent for right sided direct and left sided.consensual light reflex is through right optic nerve; and afferent for left sided direct and right sided consensual light reflex is through left optic nerve).
Occulomotor nerve is responsible for direct and consensual light reflex in the same eye. (In above example, efferent for right sided direct as well as consensual light reflex is through right occulmotor nerve and efferent for left sided direct as well as consensual light reflex is through left occulomotor nerve).
In complete optic nerve lesion of one side (Amaurosis light reflex or total afferent pupillary defect)
The ipsilateral direct reflex is lost
The ipsilateral consensual reflex is intact
The contralateral direct reflex is intact
The contralateral consensual reflex is lost
In occulomotor nerve lesion of one side (efferent pupillary defect
The ipsilateral direct reflex is lost
The ipsilateral consensual reflex is lost
The cool ralateral direct reflex is intact
The contralateral consensual reflex is intact | train | med_mcqa | null |
Rapid Antigen Test for meningitis organisms in a child can be done on the following specimens except | [
"Blood",
"CSF",
"Urine",
"Throat swab"
] | D | Throat swab is not a test for meningitis organisms in child . Since organisms may present in the CSF , blood and urine they are to be tested for rapid antigen test. Reference: GHAI Essential pediatrics, 8th edition | train | med_mcqa | null |
Components of neonatal resuscitation - | [
"Maintenance of temprature",
"Maintenance of respiration",
"Maintenance of circulation",
"All"
] | D | Ans. is All Resuscitation of newborn o The goal of pediatric resuscitation is to maintain adequate oxygenation and perfusion of blood throughout the body while steps are taken to stabilize the child and establish long term hemostasis. o The most common indication for neonatal resuscitation is asphyxia. o Second most common indication is extreme prematurity. o The components of neonatal resuscitation are TABC ? Maintenance of temprature B - Initiate breathing A- Establish an open airway C - Maintain circulation Maintenance of temprature o Newborn baby is susceptible for hypothermia. o Therefore maintenance of temprature is very impoant. o Temprature is maintained by - i) Radiant heat source ii) Drying the baby and removing wet linen. Establish an open airway o Neonate is placed on his back with neck slightly extended by elevating the shoulder 3/4 or 1 inch off the mattress with the help of a rolled blanket or towel. o Suction of mouth, nose and in some instance trachea. o If necessary, inse an endotracheal tube (ET) to ensure an open airway. Initiate breathing o Tactile stimulation can be given to initiate breathing. o When necessary bag and mask ventilation or ET tube can be used. Maintain circulation o This is done by chest compression and/or medications. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Danazol used in the treatment of endometriosis causes which of the following changes within the endometrium and endometriosis tissue? | [
"Aplasia",
"Atrophy",
"Hyperplasia",
"Neoplasia"
] | B | Danazol Isoxazole derivative of 17 - alpha ethinyl testosterone propeies Causes atrophy of endometrium It is strictly antigonadotropin but acts as an androgen agonist Mode of action Acting on the hypothalamo - pituitary - gonadal axis - depression of frequency of GnRh pulses - suppression of pituitary FSH and LH surge. There is however no change in the basal gonadotropin level Indication of danazol Endometriosis DUB Symptomatic fibroid Precocious pubey | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following drugs act by blocking calcium channel except | [
"Dantrolene",
"Nicardipine",
"Diltiazem",
"Verapamil"
] | A | Refer kDT 6/e p 529 Dantrolene sodium is a postsynaptic muscle relaxant that lessens excitation-contraction coupling in muscle cells. It achieves this by inhibiting Ca2+ ions release from sarcoplasmic reticulum stores by antagonizing ryanodine receptors. It is the primary drug used for the treatment and prevention of malignant hypehermia, a rare, life-threatening disorder triggered by general anesthesia. It is also used in the management of neuroleptic malignant syndrome, muscle spasticity (e.g. after strokes, in paraplegia, cerebral palsy, or patients with multiple sclerosis), and 2,4-dinitrophenol poisoning, and the related compounds dinoseb and dinoterb. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The pacemaker potential is due to | [
"Fast Na+ channel",
"Decrease in K+ permeability",
"Slow Ca++ channel",
"Rapid repolarization"
] | B | . | train | med_mcqa | null |
Postural exophthalmometric changes are diagnostic of: | [
"Orbital varix",
"Carotico-cavernous aneurysm",
"Haemangioma",
"Thyroid ophthalmopathy"
] | D | Ans. Thyroid ophthalmopathy | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is true regarding technique of Cu-T inseion: | [
"Preferably done under local anaesthesia with paracervical block with cervical dilatation upto Hegar dilator No.8",
"Preferably done with Push-in technique as it is easier and less painful for the patient",
"Preferably done with Withdrawal technique and requires assessment of uterocervical length prior to insei... | C | Cu - T inseion is a simple procedure done usually on last day of menstrual cycle when the cervix is already dilated, thus not requiring dilatation or anaesthesia. It is inseed by withdrawal technique. Sounding is done prior to copper T inseion to check the uterocervical length and also to know whether the uterus is anteveed or retroveed. Hysteroscopic method is used for inseion of ESSURE coil into fallopian tubes, a method of female sterilisation , and not for copper T inseion. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is not true regarding cDNA | [
"It is DNA complementary to mRNA",
"Reverse transcriptase is needed for its synthesis",
"Synthesis of human insulin requires c DNA",
"Contains noncoding and coding sequences."
] | D | C DNA contains only coding sequences. | train | med_mcqa | null |
According to Hagitt&;s classification, a polyp invading neck in between head and stalk is level: | [
"1",
"2",
"3",
"4"
] | B | Haggit&;s Classification for Polyps: Haggit&;s classification for polyps containing cancer according to the depth of invasion By definition, all sessile polyps with invasive carcinoma are level 4 by Haggit criteria Level Depth of invasion by Carcinoma 0 Doesnot invade the muscularis mucosa (Carcinoma-in-situ or Intra mucosal carcinoma) 1 Invades through the muscularis mucosa into the submucosa but is limited to the head of the polyp 2 Invades the level of the neck of the polyp (junction between the head and the stalk) 3 Invades any pa of the stalk 4 Invades into the submucosa of the bowel wall below the stalk of the polyp but above the muscularis propria Ref: Sabiston 20th edition Pgno : 1366 | train | med_mcqa | null |
M.C. type of cutaneous T.B. is – | [
"Lupus vulgaris",
"Scrofuloderma",
"T.B. verruca cutis",
"Erythema induratum"
] | A | Common type of cutaneous tuberculosis
Lupus vulgaris (55%)
Tuberculids (7%)
Tuberculous gumma (5%)
Scrofulodenna (25%)
TB verrucosa cutis (5%)
Other rare (3%) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Pancreatic juice rich in water & electrolytes, poor in enzymes are secreted by | [
"Secretin",
"Cholecystokinin",
"Pancreatozymin",
"Gastrin"
] | A | The pancreatic juice contains enzymes that are of major impoance in digestion. Its secretion is controlled in pa by a reflex mechanism and in pa by the gastrointestinal hormones secretin and cholecystokinin(CCK). Secretion of pancreatic juice is primarily under hormonal control. Secretin acts on the pancreatic ducts to cause copious secretion of a very alkaline pancreatic juice that is rich in HCO3-and poor in enzymes. The effect on duct cells is due to an increase in intracellular cAMP. Secretin also stimulates bile secretion. CCK acts on the acinar cells to cause the release of zymogen granules and production of pancreatic juice rich in enzymes but low in volume. Its effect is mediated by phospholipase C.REF: GANONG&;S REVIEW OF MEDICAL PHYSIOLOGYKIM BARRETT, HEDDWEN BROOKS, SCOTT BOITANO, SUSAN BARMANPAGE NO:435,436 | train | med_mcqa | null |
In Buerger disease which is the site of pain? | [
"Calf pain",
"Foot pain",
"Hand pain",
"Thigh pain"
] | A | Ans. (a) Calf painRef: Harrison 19th ed. /1645-46* Claudication in the arch of the foot is an early sign and is suggestive of, or even specific to, TAO.* This condition is a manifestation of infrapopliteal vessel occlusive disease.* As the disease progresses, typical calf claudication and eventually ischemic pain at rest and ischemic ulcerations on the toes, feet, or fingers may develop.* Ischemia of the upper limbs is clinically evident in 40- 50% of patients, but may be detected in 63% of patients by Allens test and in 91% of patients by arteriogram of the hand and forearm.* Criteria for diagnosis ofTAO* Onset before age 45* Current (or recent past) tobacco use* Distal extremity ischemia (infra-popliteal and/or intra- brachial), such as claudication, rest pain, ischemic ulcers, and gangrene documented with non-invasive testing* Laboratory tests to exclude autoimmune or connective tissue diseases and diabetes mellitus* Exclude a proximal source of emboli with echocardiography and arteriography* Demonstrate consistent Arteriographic findings in the involved and clinically non-involved limbs | train | med_mcqa | null |
Goal of NPCB was to reduce prevalence of blindness to ? | [
"< 0.3% by 2000",
"< 0.3% by 2005",
"< 0.5% by 2010",
"< 0.5% by 2015"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., < 0.3% by 2000 NATIONAL PROGRAMME FOR CONTROL OF BLINDNESS (NPCB) Launched in 1976 Its objective is to reduce the prevalence of eye diseases in general, and the prevalence of blindness from 1.40% to 0.3% by 2000 AD. Apex Centre (National Eye Institute) is Dr. Rajendra Prasad Centre for Ophthalmic Sciences (New Delhi, AIIMS). Moblie Ophthalmic Unit (MOU) It provides a comprehensive eye health care to the people in remote rural areas. Each unit organizes campus in a group of village in five adjoining districts to provide: Free ophthalmic service (Medical or Surgical) Vision testing service Prescription of spectacles Survey of eye diseases Education on prevention & rehabilitation. Methods of intervention in National Programme for Control of Blindness. PRIMARY EYE CARE : It is provided by ? Locally trained primary health care workers e.g. Village-health guides Multipurpose workers o Primary care involves treatment and prevention of following eye conditions? Acute conjunctivitis Ophthalmia neonatorum Trachoma | train | med_mcqa | null |
Sense organ for hearing is - | [
"Organ of Corti",
"Cristae",
"Macula",
"None"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Causes of Psedoahrosis is all of the following except - | [
"Idiopathic",
"multiple compound Fractures",
"Osteomyelitis",
"Neurofibromatosis"
] | C | Pseudoahrosis is pseudo joints * it can be seen after a fracture - non union of a fracture may be painless if pseudojoint forms between fracture ends. *it can be idiopathic *can be seen in neurofibromatosis *congenital pseudoahrosis of tibia - rare condition , in 50-90% cases neurofibromatosis is present * in established cases - Boyd dual onlay graft is the treatment of choice in patients with street fracture. REF:textbook of ohopedics, John ebnezer, 4th edition ,pg.no.501 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Pathogenesis of all of the following is granulomatous inflammation, except: | [
"Wegener's granulomatosis",
"Churg-Strauss syndrome",
"Takayasu's aeritis",
"Microscopic polyangitis"
] | D | Microscopic polyangitis is characterized by segmental fibrinoid necrosis of the media with focal transmural necrotizing lesions; granulomatous inflammation is absent. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Density of cells in adult corneal endothelium ? | [
"2000 cells/mm2",
"3000 cells/mm2",
"4000 cells/mm2",
"5000 cells/mm2"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., 3000 cells/mm2 The cell density of corneal endothelium is around 3000 cells/mm2 in young adults, which decreases with the advancing age. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Transtentorial uncal herniation causes all except : | [
"Ipsilateral dilated pupils",
"Ipsilateral hemiplegia",
"Cheyne stokes respiration",
"Decoicate rigidity"
] | D | Answer is D (Decoicate rigidity): Decoicate rigidity is not seen as a manifestation of uncal herniation. All other features form pa of the spectrum. `Herniation or coning' is said to be occurring when pa of the brain is forced through a rigid hole. Uncal herniation Central herniation The uncus and the temporal lobe are forced through the cerebellar tentorium (tentorium that separates the cerebrum from the cerebellum) The diencephation i.e. the thalamus and related structures that lie between upper brainstem and cerebral hemispheres are forced through the tentorium. What happens What happens Sequential compression occurs of the - Ipsilateral third nerve Sequential compression occurs of the - Upper midbrain (first) - Contralateral brainstem (later) - Pons (later) - Whole brainstem (eventually) - Medulla (finally) Physical signs Physical signs Early Later Still later Early Later Still later * I/L dilated pupils * I/L hemiplegia * Tetraparesis * Errotic respiration * Cheyne * Fixed * Signs of supra * Progressive ptosis * B/e fixed dilated * Small reactive pupils. stokes dilated xentorial mass & third n palsy pupils * Increased limb tone respiration pupils lesions * Cheyne- stokes * Erratic respiration * Bilateral extensor * Decoicate * Deccrebrate respiration * Death plantar rigidity posturing | train | med_mcqa | null |
Subacute Sclerosing Pan Encephalitis (SSPE) is a complication of: | [
"Measles",
"Mumps",
"Rubella",
"Chicken pox"
] | A | Measles: Cause : RNA paramyxovirus. Incubation period: 10-14 days. Source of infection: Cases . Mode of transmission : Respiratory / air droplets. Period of communicability : 4 days before & 5 days after rash. Pathognomic clinical feature : Koplik spot . Clinical feature : Retro-auricular origin of rash. MC complication : Serous otitis media. Subacute sclerosing pan encephalitis is a rare,late complication of measles - Aka 'dawson's disease', Dawson's encephalitis. Vaccine : Live attenuated ; Edmonsten zagreb strain. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A male patient has a sucking stab wound to the chest. Which action should the nurse take first? | [
"Drawing blood for a hematocrit and hemoglobin level",
"Applying a dressing over the wound and taping it on three sides",
"preparing a chest tube insertion tray",
"Preparing to start an I.V. line"
] | B | The nurse immediately should apply a dressing over the stab wound and tape it on three sides to allow air to escape and to prevent tension pneumothorax (which is more life-threatening than an open chest wound).
Only after covering and taping the wound should the nurse draw blood for laboratory tests, assist with chest tube insertion, and start an I.V. line. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Non- selective proteinuria is seen in: | [
"Minimal change",
"Mesangial-proliferative GN",
"Membranous glomerulonephritis",
"Nodular Glomerulosclerosis"
] | C | Membranous glomerulonephritis loss of size selectivity + loss of charge selectivity - Non selective proteinuria Minimal change nephropathy loss of the charge selectivity, size selectivity of the glomerular capillary wall is intact - preferential albuminuria | train | med_mcqa | null |
Warfarin therapy is prolonged by all except: | [
"Rifampicin",
"Amoxicillin",
"Erythromycin",
"Tetracycline"
] | A | Barbiturates (but not benzodiazepines), carbamazepine, rifampicin and griseofulvin induce the metabolism of warfarin.The dose of anticoagulant determined during therapy with these drugs would be higher: if the same is continued after withdrawing the inducer- marked hypoprothrombinemia can occur causing fatal bleeding.
Reference: Essentials of Medical Pharmacology Eighth Edition KD TRIPATHI page no 670 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Superior orbital fissure syndrome is frequently caused by: | [
"Carotid aneurysms",
"Meningioma",
"Arachnoiditis",
"All of the above"
] | D | Ans. All of the above | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 58-year-old female employee of a housecleaning business visits the outpatient clinic with a complaint of constant, burning pain in her knees. Clinical examinations reveal a "housemaid's knee" condition. Which of the following structures is most likely affected? | [
"Prepatellar bursa",
"Infrapatellar bursa",
"Posterior cruciate ligament",
"Patellar retinacula"
] | A | (a) Source: GAS 577, 578; GA 306 Excessive compression of the prepatellar bursa, as in working on bended knees, can result in pain and swelling of the prepatellar bursa, the socalled housemaid's knee. Prepatellar bursitis affects plumbers, carpet layers, and other people who spend a lot of time on their knees. The bursa normally enables the patella to move smoothly under the skin. The constant friction of these occupations irritates this small lubricating sac (bursa) located just in front of the patella, resulting in a deformable tense cushion of fluid. Treatment usually requires simple drainage, but this may need to be repeated and occasionally steroids introduced. Excessive irritation of the infrapatellar bursa in kneeling for frequent and long periods of time (as in prayer) can result in "parson's knee." The posterior cruciate ligament of the knee can be injured in sudden, strong flexion of the knee, with posterior displacement of the tibia upon the femur. The patellar retinacula are strong, tendinous bands of tissue that join the quadriceps tendon to the vastus lateralis and medialis muscles. The lateral meniscus is a cartilaginous structure between the lateral condyles of the femur and tibia. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The following is true about term "New Families' - | [
"It is variant of the 3-generation family",
"It is applied to all nuclear families of less then 10 years duration",
"It is variant of the joint family",
"It is applied to all nuclear families of less then 2 years duration"
] | B | - all nuclear families of less then 10 years duration is termed as new families. - the concept is impoant in view of studies relating to family planning. Reference : Park's textbook of preventive and social medicine, 23rd edition, pg no:684 <\p> | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is not helpful in preventing dracunculiasis? | [
"Filtering of drinking water",
"Active search for new cases",
"Mass mebendazole treatment",
"Education regarding water hygiene"
] | C | No drug is suitable for effective mass treatment. However infected persons are treated with niridazole, mebendazole or metronidazole. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All are pharmacogenetic conditions, except - | [
"Adenosine deaminase deficiency",
"Malignant hyper-pyrexia",
"Coumarin insensitivity",
"G6PD deficiency"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Adenosine deaminase deficiency o Examples of pharmacogenetic conditions are (i) Atypical pseudocholinesterase (prolonged succinylcholine apnea); (ii) Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G-6-PD) deficiency; (iii) Acetylator polymorphism; (iv) Acute intermittent porphyria; (v) Malignant hypehermia by halothane; (vi) Resistance to coumarin anticoagulants; (vii) inability to hydroxylate phenytoin; (viii) CYP2D6 abnormality; and (ix) Precipitation of acute angle closure glaucoma by mydriatics. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A patient having Glasgow score of 12 is suffering from | [
"Minor head injury",
"Mild head injury",
"Moderate head injury",
"Severe head injury"
] | C | Severity of head injury is classified according to the Glasgow Coma Score (GCS), as the GCS – and in particular the motor score – is the best predictor of neurological outcome:
- Minor head injury: GCS 15 with no loss of consciousness (LOC);
- Mild head injury: GCS 14 or 15 with LOC;
- Moderate head injury: GCS 9–13;
- Severe head injury: GCS 3–8. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Why carpopedal spasm seen in hyperventilation: | [
"Increased sequestration of Ca in SER",
"Increased plasma protein binding of Ca",
"Ca utilized in bones",
"Increased excretion of calcium in urine"
] | B | Hyperventilation | Alkalosis | increase in plasma protein binding to Ca++ | Overall decrease in serum Ca++ | Carpopedal spasm. At plasma calcium ion concentrations about 50 percent below normal, the peripheral nerve fibers become so excitable that they begin to discharge spontaneously, initiating trains of nerve impulses that pass to the peripheral skeletal muscles to elicit tetanic muscle | train | med_mcqa | null |
Indication of Fecal contamination of water is due to presence of - | [
"E. Coli",
"Coliform",
"Enterococci",
"Clostridium"
] | A | Coliforms are E. coli (faecal) and Klebsiella (non-faecal). E. coli is the most typical faecal coliform. They are chosen as the indicators of faecal pollution of water because, They are constantly present in abundance in the human intestine. They can be easily detected by culture methods. they tend to survive longer than the pathogens. they have greater resistance to forces of natural purification than waterborne pathogens. Park's Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine, 25th edition, Page No. 780 | train | med_mcqa | null |
The drug of choice in lymphogranuloma venereum is : | [
"Penicillin",
"Ciprofloxacin",
"Tetracycline",
"Erythromycin"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
First rank symptoms of schizophrenia are all except - | [
"Ambivalence",
"Running commentary",
"Primary delusion",
"Somatic passivity"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Formula to calculate minute ventilation volume | [
"TV x RR",
"Fio2/PEEP",
"TV x (RR-dead space)",
"TV + (RR-dead space)"
] | A | Minute respiratory volume- The minute respiratory volume I the total amount of new air moved into the respiratory passage each minute and is equal to tidal volume times the respiratory rate per minute. The normal tidal volume is about 500 milliliters, and the normal respiratory rate is about 12 breaths per minute. Therefore, the minute respiratory volume averages about 6-8L/min. A person can live for a sho period with a minute volume as low as 1.5L/min and a respiratory rate of only 2 to 4 breaths per minute. Respiratory minute vol: - (TV x RR) = 6 - 8 L / min | train | med_mcqa | null |
Creola bodies are seen in - | [
"Bronchial asthma",
"Chronicbronchitis",
"Emphysema",
"Bronchiectatsis"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Bronchial asthma o Creola bodies are a histopathologic finding indicative of bronchial asthma.o Found in a patient's sputum, they are ciliated columnar cells sloughed from the bronchial mucosa of a patient with asthma.o Other common findings in the sputum of asthma patients include.Charcot-Leyden crystalsCurschmann's SpiralsEosinophils | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following glycolytic enzyme does not catalyze irreversible step - | [
"Hexokinase",
"Phosphoglycerate kinase",
"Phosphofructokinase",
"Pyruvate kinase"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Phosphoglycerate kinase o Irreversible steps are catalyzed by Glucokinase / Hexokinase, phosphofructokinase-I, and pyruvate kinase.o Reversible steps are catalyzed by Phosphohexose isomerase, aldolase, phosphotriose isomerase, glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate dehydrogenase, phosphoglycerate kinase, phosphoglycerate mutase, Enolase.o Usually 2 ATP molecules are formed in glycolysis by substrate level phosphorylation.o But, in Rapoport Leubering cycle (in RBC), production by substrate level phosphorylation from 1,3-BPG is bypassed by taking diversion pathway, i.e. side reaction of glycolysis. Thus, only 1 ATP is formed from fructose- 6-phosphate.o In this cycle, 1,3-BPG is converted to 23-BPG which is turn is converted to 3-phosphoglycorate. | train | med_mcqa | null |
True about Borrelia recurrentis are all except: March 2007 | [
"Causes epidemic relapsing fever",
"It is transmitted by ixodes tick",
"No other known animal reservoir of B. recurrentis exists",
"It infects the person mucous membranes"
] | B | Ans. B: It is transmitted by ixodes tick Diseases caused by Borrelia are: 1. Lyme Borreliosis The major Borrelia species causing Lyme disease are Borrelia burgdorferi, Borrelia afzelii, Borrelia garinii and Borrelia valaisiana. Lyme disease/ borreliosis is transmitted by ticks. 2. Relapsing fever Borrelia recurrentis causes epidemic relapsing fever caused by the human body louse. No other known animal reservoir of B. recurrentis exists. B. recurrentis infects the person mucous membranes and then invades the bloodstream. | train | med_mcqa | null |
True regarding exfoliation of lens occurs in: | [
"Glass furnace workers",
"Glass blowers",
"Infrared exposures",
"All of the above"
] | D | (AH of the above) (254-Parson 20th) (167-Kanski 5th)Infra red radiation (Traumatic cataract) - If intense as in glass blowers. May rarely cause true exfoliation or lamellar delamination of the anterior lens capsule in which the superficial portion of a thickened capsule splits from the deeper layer and extends into anterior chamber. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Pathologic calcification is seen in | [
"Scleroderma",
"Lichen planus",
"Dystrophic epidermolysis bullosa",
"Lupus erythematosus"
] | A | Systemic sclerosis:
Characterized by ultimate induration and atrophy of skin and fixation of epidermis to deeper subcutaneous tissues. The skin becomes hardened and atrophic and cannot be wrinkled or picked up because of its firm fixation to the deep connective tissue. This contracture of skin gives a mask-like appearance to the face of claw-like appearance to hands.
Scleroderma can be circumscribed (morphea) or linear (Coup de sabre).
The tongue becomes stiff and board like, causing the patient difficulty in eating and speaking.
Reduced opening of mouth and fixation of jaw as a result of involvement of the peritemporo mandibular joint tissues making dental care very difficult.
Some times deposition of calcium in affected areas is also found.
Radiographic features:
- Extreme widening of PDL, two to four times normal thickness is diagnostic.
- Bone resorption of angle of mandibular ramus and partial or complete resorption of condyles and/or coronoid processes of the mandible are also seen.
Overall, increased collagen in tissues is characteristic feature of systemic sclerosis or scleroderma. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Function of primary dentition is/are: | [
"Formation of clear speech and chewing.",
"Provide lip support, cheek support and smile.",
"Development and alveolar bone and provide space for secondary dentition.",
"All of the above."
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
What are the only muscles that perform internal rotation at the GHJ? | [
"Latissimus Dorsi,",
"Teres Major",
"Pec Major",
"Subscapularis"
] | A | of arm/humerus at shoulder. Anterior deltoid muscle. Subscapularis. ...
of thigh/femur at hip. Tensor fasciae latae. Gluteus minimus. ...
of leg at knee. Popliteus. Semimembranosus. ...
of eyeball (motion is also called "intorsion" or incyclotorsion) Superior rectus muscle. Superior oblique muscle. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Cells which surround the oocyst in graafian follicle are called ? | [
"Discus proligerus",
"Cumulus oophoricus",
"Luteal cells",
"Villus cells"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Cumulus oophoricus Oocyte lies eccentrically in the graafian (ovarian) follicle. It is surrounded by some granulsa cells that are given the name cumulus oophoriacus (or cumulus ovaricus). The cells that attach it to the wall of the follicle are given the name discus proligerus. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which is the most common site of gastrinoma in MEN 1 syndrome? | [
"Jejunum",
"Ileum",
"Duodenum",
"Stomach"
] | C | ZOLLINGER ELLISON SYNDROME/GASTRINOMA 75% cases are sporadic, 25% are associated with MEN1 M/C site - Duodenum > Pancreas 1st pa > 2nd pa > 3rd pa (4th not Involved) 90% of gastrinoma are present in Triangle of Passaro/Gastrinoma triangle M/C symptom - Abdominal pain Treatment DOC - Proton pump inhibitors TOC - Pylorus preserving Whipple's procedure | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following statements is true regarding cerclage | [
"Shirodkar procedure is most often selected.",
"Broad - spectrum antibiotic prophylaxis is required.",
"Ideally performed at 10 → 12 weeks gestation.",
"Prolapsing membranes can be reduced with Trendelenburg positioning and bladder filling prior to cerclage placement."
] | D | Timing of surgery is between 12 → 14 weeks gestation
McDonald technique is most used procedure
No need of antibiotic prophylaxis as membranes not ruptured. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All the following are true about obstructive lung disease except | [
"Decreased FeV1",
"Decreased MEFR",
"Increased RV",
"Increased diffusion capacity"
] | D | Diffusion capacity is decreased in restrivtive lung disease.decreased in expiratory flow rate is a hallmark of obstructive lung disease. Residual volume is increased & FEV1/FVC is decresde Ref Harrison 19th edition pg 1661 | train | med_mcqa | null |
"Mellanby effect" is seen with | [
"Paracetamol",
"Aspirin",
"Alcohol",
"LSD"
] | C | Mellanby effect: Intoxicating effect of alcohol are greater at a given BAC (blood alcohol concentration) when blood alcohol level is increasing than for the same BAC when blood alcohol level is falling. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Indications for use of antibiotics in acute diarrhea include (select three options): | [
"Febrile dysentery with fever 38.5",
"Immunocompromised patient",
"Elderly patient",
"All"
] | D | Answer is A, B, and C (Febrile dysentery with fever 38.5; Immunocompromised patient; Elderly patient): Antibiotic coverage is indicated whether or not a causative organism is discovered in patients who are immuncompromized, have mechanical hea valves or recent vascular grafts or are elderly. Emperical antibiotic treatment should also be staed in moderately to severely ill patients with febrile dysentery specially when fever 38.5degC Indications for Antibiotic coverage Patients who are immuno compromised2 Patients with mechanical hea valves0 Patients with recent vascular grafisQ Patients who are elderlvQ Moderately to severely ill patients with fibrile dysenttyQ (Grossly bloody stools and fever 38.5degC) Increased fecal WBCS | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following drug is a direct inhibitor of clotting factor Xa? | [
"Apixaban",
"Argatroban",
"Fondaparinux",
"Aspirin"
] | A | Impoant ones are: - (1) Rivaroxaban (2) Apixaban (3) Edoxaban (4) Betrixaban (a) Argatroban - Direct thrombin inhibitor (synthetic non-peptide compound which binds reversibly to the catalytic site of thrombin but not to the substrate recognition site) (b) Fondaparinux - Indirect thrombin inhibitor. (d)Aspirin - Inhibit COX and thus Thromboxane A2 synthesis inhibitor | train | med_mcqa | null |
Treatment of early cases of vocal nodules is - | [
"Excision",
"Laser Ablation",
"Voice therapy",
"Tissue sampling followed by definitive therapy"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Voice therapy * Early cases of vocal nodules can be treated conservatively by educating the patient in proper use of voice. Many nodules especially in children, disappear with this treatment.* Surgery is required for large nodules or long standing nodules in adults. Microscopic (microlaryngoscopic) excision is the treatment of choice. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Rideal-Walker coefficient is related with ? | [
"Disinfecting power",
"Parasitic clearance",
"Dietary requirement",
"Statistical correlation"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Disinfecting power Traditional testing of disinfectants Two traditional tests for determining the efficiency of disinfectants are :? 1) Rideal-Walker test : Phenol is taken as the standard with unit as phenol coefficient (pheno1=1) 2) Chick-Main test : The disinfectant acts in the presence of organic matter (dried yeast or feces). | train | med_mcqa | null |
Treatment of congenital cyst of head of pancreas ? | [
"Total excision",
"Paial excision",
"Marsupialization",
"Observe and medical treatment"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e.Total excision Congenital pancreatic cysts are rare lesions. Generally asymptomatic. Treatment is done to avoid complications. The treatment depends on its location. In general, whenever feasible, total excision is the treatment of choice, in paicular for cysts located in the pancreatic body or tail. Cysts arising from the pancreatic head are usually not resectable and are best treated by internal drainage in the form of cystogastrostomy or cystojejunostomy. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Failure of oral contraceptives occur when used with any of these except: | [
"Asprin",
"Tetracycline",
"Phenytoin",
"Rifampicin"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is least narcotic opioid? | [
"Morphine",
"Codeine",
"Heroin",
"Papaverine"
] | D | Papaverine is devoid of opiod or analgesic activity. Morphine and codeine are natural opium alkaloids and heroin a semi synthetic derivative. Hence all three have good narcotic action. Ref: KD Tripathi 8th ed. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A patient is admitted to the hospital after ingesting lye. The following day he complains of chest pain. His pulse is 120 bpm. On physical examination he is found to have subcutaneous crepitus on palpation. His chest x-ray shows widening of the mediastinum and a pleural effusion. What has occurred? | [
"Aortic rupture",
"Coagulation necrosis",
"Esophageal perforation",
"Oropharyngeal inflammation"
] | C | Esophageal perforation has occurred. Caustic alkali ingestion results in liquefactive necrosis while acid ingestion causes coagulation necrosis. The esophagus is more often involved than the stomach during alkaline ingestion (and conversely, the stomach is more often involved than the esophagus during acid ingestion). Features on x-ray suggesting esophageal perforation include pneumothorax, pneumomediastinum, and pleural effusion Ewald tubes or nasogastric tubes should be avoided because of the risk of perforation. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Pigmentation occurs in oral cavity and skin in all of the
following except: | [
"Peutz-jeghers syndrome",
"Addison's syndrome",
"Cushing syndrome",
"Albright syndrome"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which vaccine is contraindicated in child with history of convulsions? | [
"DPT",
"Measles",
"Typhoid",
"BCG"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e. DPT DPT vaccine is contraindicated in children with progressive neurological disease and children with convulsions following the first dose.These contraindications are because of the adverse reactions that the child can develop to the pertussis component of the vaccine.Contraindications to DPT vaccineProgressive neurological diseaseContraindications to second doseConvulsions within 72 hoursEncephalopathy within 7 hoursAnaphylaxisHyporesponsive or hypotensive episodesHyperpyrexia with fever > 105 FPersistent or high pitch cry > 3 hoursContraindications to measles vaccinePregnancyAcute illnessDeficient cell mediated immunity (can be given to asymptomatic HIV positive patients)Patients on steroidsContraindications to typhoid vaccineWithin 24 hours of antibiotic treatmentImmunosuppressionPregnancyContraindications to BCG vaccineImmunosuppression and HIV | train | med_mcqa | null |
An 8-year-old boy is brought to the emergency room after accidentally touching a hot iron with his forearm. On examination, the burned area has weeping blisters and is very tender to the touch. What is the burn depth? | [
"First degree",
"Second degree",
"Third degree",
"Fouh degree"
] | B | Burn wounds are commonly classified as superficial (first degree), paial thickness (second degree), full thickness (third degree), and fouh degree burns, which affect underlying soft tissue. Paial thickness burns are classified as either superficial or deep paial thickness burns by depth of involved dermis. Clinically, first-degree burns are painful but do not blister, second-degree burns have dermal involvement and are extremely painful with weeping and blisters, and third-degree burns are leathery, painless, and nonblanching. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The frequency used in tympanometry is: | [
"256 Hz",
"220 Hz",
"222 Hz",
"440 Hz"
] | B | Ref: Diseases of the Ear. Nose and Throat by PL Dhingra 5th edn .2010 page 29Explanation:It is a part of Impedance audiometry (la)Other part is acoustic reflex measurementsTympanometryBased on the principle that when sound strikes the tympanic membrane some energy is absorbed and some is reflectedin this we measure the reflected sound and its variation with changes in EAC pressure, which is plotted as a graph called tympanogramTells us status of middle ear Types of curves are as followsA type - Seen in normal individualsB type - It is a flat curve and is seen in presence of fluid in middle ear like SOM, thickened tympanic membraneC type - Maximum compliance occurs with negative pressure and is seen in retracted TMAd type - High compliance at ambient pressure. It is seen in ossicular discontinuity or a thin and lax TMAs type - Compliance decreased at ambient pressure. Seen in fixation of ossicles (otosclerosis). (See figure below) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which organism is associated with causation of urinary bladder cancer - | [
"E. coli",
"Paragonimus",
"Schistosoma",
"Clonorchis"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., SchistosomaSchistosomes* These flukes (trematodes) reside in blood of venous plexus at different sites.* Three important species are:-i) S. haematobium : Veins of vesical & pelvic plexuses, less commonly in portal vein and its mesentric branch.ii) S. mansani: Mesentric veins draining sigmoido-rectal region (inferior mesentric veins).iii) S. Japonicum : Mesentric veins draining ilio-caecal region (superior mesentric vein).* Schistosomes are transmitted by Snails (Secondary host) to man (definitive host). Infective form in snail is cercaria.* Eggs of S. hematobium have terminal spine. Eggs of S.mansoni have lateral spine and eggs of S.japonicum have lateral knob.* S. hematobium causes bilharziasis (urinary schistosomiasis) which is characterized by painless terminal hematuria.* S. japonicum and S.mansoni cause Katayama fever. Rarerly, S. hematobium can also cause Katayama fever.* Fairly's test is an intradermal skin test with cercarial antigen. It is an allergic reaction, positive in all the varieties of schistosomiasis.* Schistosoma hematobium is a well known cause of urinary bladder cancer. | train | med_mcqa | null |
An 11-year-old child falls and cuts his hand. The wound becomes infected. Bacteria extend into the extracellular matrix around capillaries. In the inflammatory response to this infection, which of the following cells removes the bacteria? | [
"B lymphocyte",
"Fibroblast",
"Macrophage",
"Mast cell"
] | C | Macrophages in tissues derived from circulating blood monocytes are phagocytic cells that respond to a variety of stimuli, and they represent the janitorial crew of the body. The other cells listed are not phagocytes. B cells can differentiate into plasma cells secreting antibodies to neutralize infectious agents. Fibroblasts form collagen as part of a healing response. Mast cells can release a variety of inflammatory mediators. T cells are a key part of chronic inflammatory processes in cell-mediated immune responses. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most specific for Dengue diagnosis? | [
"IgM ELISA",
"Tissue culture",
"CFT",
"Electron microscopy"
] | A | Ans (a) IglYI ELISA Lapoi awry wagnosis of Dengue Thrombocytopenia (100,000/mm3 or less) Hemoconcentration: Hematocrit increased by 20% or more of base line value Elevation of serum Aminotransferase ( +) Antigen detection ELISA or PCR or virus isolation in acute phase IgM ELISA or paired serology during recovery Strip immunochromatographic test of IgM for rapid diagnosis Remember: IgM appears within 2-5 days of onset of illness and persists for one to three months. | train | med_mcqa | null |
In urinary system disease, GI symptoms appears because of : | [
"Chemical reaction",
"Renogastric reflex",
"Peritoneal reaction",
"Reflux phenomenon"
] | B | Answer is B (Renogastric Reflex) Afferent stimuli from renal capsule or musculature of pelvis may produce reflex spasm of the pylorus through the Renogastric reflex. This explains GI symptoms in Renal disease. Renal disease often presents with various GIT manifestation such as - abdominal distension, tenderness, pain, vomiting. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All cause diarrhea except; | [
"Diabetes",
"Hypercalcemia",
"Hypehyroidism",
"Irritable bowel syndrome"
] | B | Hypercalcemia increases the tone of sphincters of the gut leading to refractory constipation. Autonomic dysfunction in diabetes explains the diarrhea. Due to sympathetic activity increase in thyrotoxicosis there is a reduction in small bowel transit time explaining the diarrhea. IBS has variable presentation between diarrhea and constipation | train | med_mcqa | null |
Tzank smear in a case of pemphigus vulgaris show | [
"Acantholytic cells",
"Macrophages",
"Fibroblasts",
"Neutrophils"
] | A | Cytodiagnosis is of most value in pemphigus and its various forms. Acantholysis is the loss of intercellular connections, such as desmosomes, resulting in loss of cohesion between keratinocytes, seen in diseases such as pemphigus vulgaris. It is absent in bullous pemphigoid, making it useful for differential diagnosis In bulbous pemphigoid, eosinophils are commonly seen. Ref Harrison 20th edition pg 1245 | train | med_mcqa | null |
What is not true about use of intranasal steroids in nasal polyposis- | [
"Reduce recurrence",
"Reduce obstruction",
"Effective in eosinophilically predominant polyp only",
"May cause epistaxis"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Effective in eosinophilically predominant polyp only o Intranasal steroids have been used extensively as first-line management of nasal polyposis with few side effects.o Usually, patients with small polyps and limited involvement on CT scan are good candidates for topical therapy alone.o Intranasal steroids reduce nasal obstruction, polyp size, drainage and polyp recurrence.o The effect of steroids seems to be nonspecific, improving symptoms in both eosinophilically and non- eosinophilically dominated polyps.o Nasal bleeding is the most common adverse event and can usually be minimized by directing the medication away from nasal septum. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 7 years old boy presented with painful boggy swelling of the scalp, multiple sinuses with purulent discharge, easily pluckable hairs and lymph nodes enlarged in the occipital region. Which one of the following would be most helpful for diagnostic evaluation? | [
"Bacterial culture",
"Biopsy",
"KOH mount",
"Patch test"
] | C | Ans. c. KOH mount (Ref: Fitzpatrick 7th/1811-1814; Roxburgh's 17th/41)In a 10 years old boy, who presents with painful boggy swelling of the scalp, multiple sinuses with purulent discharge, easily pluckable hairs and lymph nodes enlarged in the occipital region, the diagnosis suggests Kerion (Tirion capitis). Tinea capitis is best diagnosed by KOH mount.Tinea CapitisDermatophytosis of the scalp and associated hairMost commonly found in pre-pubertal children between 3 to 14 years of ageMost commonly caused by Microsporum canis > Trichophyton tonsurans (never caused by Epidermophyton)Pathogenesis:Ectothrix pattern: Fungus grows completely within the hair shaft, replacing the intrapilary keratin, leaving the cortex (cuticle surface) intact.Endothrix pattern: Infection establish in perifollicular stratum corneum, spreading around and into the hair shaft. Cortex (cuticle surface) is breached.Clinical features: KerionIt is a hypersensitivity reaction to infection with Microsporum canis (MC)Ranges from pustular folliculitis to kerion, which is boggy inflammatory tender mass studded with broken hairs, follicular orifice oozing with pus and easily pluckable hairsPruritus, pain, fever, occipital and posterior cervical lymphadenopathy and scarring alopecia may occur.Diagnosis:Diagnosis is made by first examining scale and hair on a microscope slide in potassium hydroxide (KOH) wet mount. It is a single most important test for diagnosis.Treatment:Oral griseofulvin (20-25 mg/Kg/day) is the drug of choice.Topical ketoconazole, Povidone iodine, zinc pyrithione and selenium sulfide are only adjuvant treatment. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Subsets and Splits
No community queries yet
The top public SQL queries from the community will appear here once available.