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A 63-year-old man becomes oliguric 2 days following an open cholecystectomy. Which of the following findings would suggest that prerenal ARF is a major factor in the etiology? | [
"postural hypotension",
"fractional excretion of sodium is 3%",
"specific gravity is 1.012",
"the urine sodium is 30 mEq/L"
] | A | Although evidence of volume contraction cannot confirm prerenal ARF, as this can progress into intrinsic renal failure, it suggests that prerenal factors are contributing. In prerenal ARF, specific gravity is usually > 1.020 and sodium concentration is < 10 mmol/L. The fractional excretion of sodium relates sodium clearance to creatinine clearance and is more sensitive than direct measurements of sodium excretion. In prerenal azotemia, sodium is avidly resorbed from glomerular filtrate, but not in intrinsic renal azotemia because of tubular epithelial cell injury. Creatinine is resorbed less efficiently in both conditions. Therefore, the fractional excretion of sodium is <1% in prerenal azotemia (often much less) whereas it is >1% in intrinsic renal azotemia. Fractional excretion of sodium(%)=UNa/PCrxPNa/UCrx100. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The factories Act (1976) prohibits employment of a person below - | [
"10 years",
"14 years",
"18 years",
"21 years"
] | B | Ans. is `b' i.e., 14 years | train | med_mcqa | null |
Macula densa in kidney is located in relation to - | [
"PCT",
"DCT",
"Afferent aeriole",
"Efferent aeriole"
] | B | B i.e. DCT | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most common intracranial neoplasm in adults is: | [
"Meningioma",
"Astrocytoma",
"Posterior fossa tumor",
"Ganglioneuroma"
] | A | Harrison&;s says "meningiomas are diagnosed with increasing frequently as more people undergo neruroimaging for various indications. They are now the most common primary brain tumor, accounting for approximately 35% of total MC primary tumor: Meningioma(35%)>glialtumors(30%) MC malignant tumor of childhood: Medulloblastoma MC brain tumor: Metastasis Ref: Harrison&;s 19th edition Pgno: 602 | train | med_mcqa | null |
The differential diagnosis of the lesion, histologically resembling giant cell tumour in the small bones of the hands or feet, includes all of the following except | [
"Aneurysmal bone cyst",
"Fibrosarcoma",
"Osteosarcoma",
"Hyperparathyroidism"
] | C | The histological differential diagnosis for GCT include all giant cell-containing lesions. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Nerve supplying Gemellus inferior | [
"Nerve to Obturator internus",
"Superior gluteal nerve",
"Inferior gluteal nerve",
"Nerve to Quadratus femoris"
] | D | Nerve to Obturator internus supplies obturator internus and Gemellus superior.
Nerve to Quadratus femoris supplies Quadratus femoris and Gemellus inferior | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most common cause of secondary amenorrhoea- | [
"PCOD",
"Pregnancy",
"Hypothyroidism",
"Hyperprolactinemia."
] | B | Ans-B i.e., Pregnancy Secondary amenorrhoea o The absence of menstruation for 3 normal cycles or for 6 months or more in a woman with previous norma menstrual pattern in the absence of pregnancy and lactation. o Pregnancy is the most common cause of secondary amenorrhoea. The causes can be classified as follows: Physiological o Pregnancy o Lactation Pathological o Genital tract # Acquired obstruction (gynatresia) of cervical # Asherman's syndrome following excessive curettage, uterine infection or endometrial tuberculosis, transcervical resection of endometrium for dysfunctional uterine bleeding (DUB). # Vesicovaginal fistula-cause unknown. o Ovarian causes # Surgical extirpation. # Radiotherapy. # Autoimmune disease. # Induction of multiple ovulation in infertility-leading to premature menopause. # Polycystic ovarian disease (PCOD). # Resistant ovarian syndrome-due to absent FSH receptors. # Infections-mumps, tuberculosis, rarely pyogenic infections. # Masculinizing ovarian tumours. # Premature menopause. o Nutritional causes # Anorexia nervosa, bulimia. # Extreme obesity. # Excessive weight loss in athletes and ballet dancers. o Pituitary causes # Insufficiency as in Simmonds disease, Sheehan's syndrome. # Hyperprolactinaemia. # Tumours like prolactinomas and chromophobe adenomas, and Cushing's disease. # Empty sella syndrome. # Drugs-tranquillizers, oral contraceptive (OC) pills, metoclopramide, dopamine blockers, antihypertensives, antidepressants, cimetidine and phenothiazine. o Hypothalamus # GnRH deficiency. # Vigorous exercise. # Pseudocyesis. # Brain tumours. # Anorexia nervosa. o Suprarenal causes # Addison's disease. # Adrenogenital syndrome. # Suprarenal tumours. o Thyroid # Hypothyroidism, chest wall lesions. # Graves disease. o Other causes # Diabetes. # Tuberculosis-liver disease. # Renal disease-due to reduced excretion of LH and prolactin. # Severe anaemia, malnutrition. | train | med_mcqa | null |
To plead for insanity in a cou of law, the IPC is: AP 06; UP 09; Rajasthan 11 | [
"Sec. 84",
"Sec. 85",
"Sec. 88",
"Sec. 90"
] | A | Ans. Sec. 84 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Epilepsia partialis continua is present in | [
"Japanese encephalitis",
"Rasmussen's encephalitis",
"Tuberculosis meningitis",
"None of the above"
] | B | (B) Rasmussen's encephalitis # Epilepsia Partialis Continua Epilepsia partialis continua can be defined as a form of partial status epilepticus with simple motor manifestations that are maintained for over 1 hour, with clonic activity restricted to one body part and recurring at fairly regular intervals not responding fairly to medications. The unique clinical features of EPC are likely to reflect its anatomical location rather than its etiology. Idiopathic causes of EPC: Rasmussen chronic encephalitis Autoimmune Multiple sclerosis Anti-GluR3 or Anti-NMDA-GluR-Epsilon2 antibodies Genetic Alpers disease Kufs disease Leigh syndrome and cytochrome C oxidase deficiency Nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide (NADH) coenzyme Q reductase deficiency Mitochondrial cytopathies including mitochondrial encephalopathy with lactic acidosis and stroke (MELAS) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Continuous murmur is found in all, EXCEPT | [
"Mitral stenosis with mitral regurgitation",
"Patent ductus arteriosus",
"Rupture of sinus of Valsalva",
"Systemic arteriovenous (AV) fistula"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Obstructive jaundice is best detected by: | [
"Increased ALP",
"Decreased ALP",
"Increased AST",
"Decreased AST"
] | A | Alkaline phosphatase is a marker of cholestasis i.e. elevation of ALP occurs in >90% of patients with cholestasis and suggests a reduction in bile flow. Because isozymes are found in the liver, bone, placenta, leukocytes, and small intestine, an elevated ALP is not specific for the biliary tract. ALP levels of greater than four times the normal are taken significant. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Regarding the normal curve, true is/are-a) Both limbs of the curve touch the baselineb) Curve is bilaterally symmetricalc) There is a skew to the rightd) There is a skew to the lefte) Mean, Median, Mode coincide | [
"be",
"ad",
"bc",
"ce"
] | A | Confidence limit of normal curve can never be 100%; therefore, limbs of curve never touch the baseline.
Mean, Median and mode all coincide → No skew. | train | med_mcqa | null |
True about primary lymphedema:
a) Prevalence is 2%
b) Onset b/w 2-35 years indicates lymphedema tarda
c) Onset >35 yrs indicates praecox type
d) Associated with Milroy's disease
e) Lymphangiosarcoma may occur | [
"abde",
"de",
"bde",
"bcde"
] | B | "The primary lyrnphedemas are relatively uncommon, occurring in 1 of every 10,000 individuals"-Sabiston
"Lymphangiosarcoma is a rare tumor that develops as a complication of long-standing (usually more than 10 years) lymphedema."- Sabiston
"Cutaneous lymphangiosarcoma may develop in chronically lymphedematous extremities."- Devita 8/e Chapter 45 | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following statements are TRUE about second generation antihistaminic agents EXCEPT : | [
"These do not impair psychomotor performance",
"These possess high anti–motion sickness activity",
"These lack anticholinergic actions",
"These may possess additional antiallergic mechanisms"
] | B | Anti-motion sickness activity is related to the anticholinergic property. This property is exhibited by first-generation compounds whereas second-generation antihistaminics lack this potential. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Meckel's cave is related to ? | [
"Submandibular ganglion",
"Trigeminal ganglion",
"Otic ganglion",
"Pterygopalatine ganglion"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Trigeminal ganglionTrigeminal ganglion (Gasserion ganglion or semilunar ganglion) lies in a dural pouch, the cavum trigeminale (Meckel's cave). | train | med_mcqa | null |
Fetal hemoglobin has more affinity for oxygen than adult hemoglobin because - | [
"Decreased 2,3 DPG concentration",
"Low affinity for 2,3 DPG",
"Increase 2,3 DPG concentration",
"Reduced pH"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Low affinity for 2,3 DPG o Make it very clear in mind that higher affinity' of fetal hemoglobin for oxygen is due to low affinity of HbF for 2,3- DPG (not due to decreased 2, 3-DPG concentration). HbF does not combines to 2, 3-DPG as avidly as adult hemoglobin."Fetal hemoglobin is left - shifted because it has a low affinity' for DPG", --Principles of medical physiology'"It is worth noting that DPG does not combine with fetal hemoglobin. That is perhaps one reason why HbF has greater affin ity for oxygen than adult hemoglobin (HbF) ".-- Understanding of medical physiology"Fetal hemoglobin binds less 2-3 DPG it has consequently a greater affinity for O2" -- Pediatric physiologyo All other textbooks have mentioned the same thing.o So, high affinity of HbF to O2 is due to low affinity of HbF for 2,3 DPG (and not due to decreased 2,3-DPG concentration).Effect of 2-3 diphosphoglvcerete (2.3 PPG)o Another important factor which influences oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve is 2,3 DPG in RBC. DPG is an optional by-product of the glycolytic pathway. DPG binds with deoxygenated hemoglobin but not with oxygenated hemoglobin. Therefore raised DPG concentration releases oxygen from oxyhemoglobin by shifting the following reversible reaction to the right: -HbO2 + DPG - Hb - DPG + O2o One molecule of DPG binds with one mole of deoxyhemoglobin.o That is why in the presence of raised DPG concentration, less oxygen can combine with hemoglobin at a given PO2. Hence an increase in DPG concentration shifts the oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve to the right. Thus 2,3 DPG causes delivery (unloading) of O2 to the tissues.o Factors which increases 2,3 DPG level and therefore lower the oxygen affinity of hemoglobin (right shift of O2 dissociation curve and increased delivery of oxygen to tissues) are : -# Hypoxia# High altitude# Alkalosis# Exercise# Pregnancy# Anemia# Hormones (thyroid, GH, androgen)# Cyanotic congenital heart disease# Chemical agents (Inosine, Pyruvate, PEP, phosphate, dihydroxyacetone)o Factors which decrease 2,3 DPG levels and therefore increase oxygen a ffinity of hemoglobin (left shift of O2 dissociation curve and decreased delivery' of O2 to the tissues) are : - Stored blood, and fetal hemoglobin (HbF).o Fetal hemoglobin has considerably less afinity for 2,3 - DPG than does adult hemoglobin therefore fetal hemoglobin has greater affinity for oxygen than adult hemoglobin. In human blood, the affinity of fetal hemoglobin for 2,3-DPG is only about 40% that of adult hemoglobin. This makes fetal hemoglobin behave as if 2,3-DPG levels are low. Therefore, the oxygen dissociation curve is shifted to the left. Although fetal red cells do contain 2,3 DPG, the poor binding of 2,3-DPG by fetal hemoglobin is an important factor in facilitating transport of oxygen across the placenta from mother to fetus. On the maternal side of the placenta, the reduction of hemoglobin effectively shifts the curve to the right, increasing oxygen release. On the fetal side, 2,3-DPG does not interfere with the affinity' of fetal hemoglobin for oxygen and thus the uptake of oxygen by fetal erythrocytes. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Cavitation of the lungs is not a feature of: March 2011 | [
"Lung abscess",
"Primary pulmonary tuberculosis",
"Secondary pulmonary tuberculosis",
"Bronchogenic carcinoma"
] | B | Ans. B: Primary pulmonary tuberculosis Cavitation is rare in primary TB Radiological changes of secondary TB includes ill-defined opacification in one or both of the upper lobes, and as progression occurs, consolidation, collapse and cavitation develop to a varying degree Cavitation in lungs can be seen in C- Carcinoma - Squamous is most common A- Autoimmune - Wegener's granulomatosis, Rheumatoid nodules V- Vascular - Emboli (septic emboli or bland emboli) I- Infection - Lung abscess, Bacterial pneumonia, Fungal pneumonia, Tuberculosis (secondary), Pneumatocele T- Trauma - Pulmonary laceration Y- Young (congenital) - Congenital cystic adenomatoid malformation, Pulmonary sequestration, Bronchogenic cyst | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most important buffer system in human blood: | [
"Bicarbonates",
"Chlorides",
"Hb",
"Phosphates"
] | A | Ans. a (Bicarbonates); (Ref. Ganong, Physiology, 21st ed., 736; Satyanarayan, Biochemistry 2nd ed. - 525)PRINCIPAL BUFFERS IN BODY FLUIDSBlood1. H2CO3 K H+ +HCO-3 (Bicarbonate buffer) =>>most predominant buffer of ECF. especially blood plasma.2. HProt K H+ + Prot- & HHb K H++ Hb- (Protein buffer)3. H2PO4 - KH-+ HPO42- (Phosphate buffer)Interstitial fluid1. H2 CO3 K H+ + HCO-3Intracellular fluid1. HProt K H+ + HCO 32. H2PO4 - KH-+ HPO42- | train | med_mcqa | null |
Excessive sexual desire in female | [
"Nymphomania",
"Satyriasis",
"Frigidity",
"Fetishism"
] | A | Ans. a- Nymphomania Nymphomania is an excessive sexual desire in females where she enjoys having multiple sexual paners or desires excessive sexual activity.Satyriasis is an excessive sexual desire in males where they enjoy having multiple sexual paners or desire excessive sexual activity.Types of Sexual perversionsThese are persistently indulged sexual acts in which complete satisfaction is sought and obtained without sexual intercourse.a) Sadism :Sexual gratification is obtained or increased from acts of physical cruelty or infliction of pain on one's paner.It is seen more commonly in men. To obtain sexual gratification, the sadist may bite, beat, whip, produce cuts on the victim, etc.b) Lust murder :In extremes of sadism, murder serves as a stimulus for the sexual act and becomes the equivalent of coitus, the act is accompanied by erection, ejaculation, and orgasm.c) Necrophagia : (Necros =corpse; phagia = to eat) :This is an extreme degree of sadism in which the person after mutilating the body, sucks or licks the wounds, bites the skin, drinks blood, and eats the flesh of his victim to derive sexual pleasure.d) Masochism :Sexual gratification is obtained or increased by the suffering of pain.Masochists get pleasure from being beaten, abused, toured, humiliated, enslaved, degraded, or dominated by their sexual paner.e) Necrophilia :In this condition, there is a desire for sexual intercourse with dead bodies.It is said to have a sadomasochistic foundation and that decomposition, foul smell, and coldness act as stimulants.f) Fetishism :A fetish is an abnormal stimulus or object of sexual desire.Fetishism means the use of such objects of sexual gratification leading to orgasm. For example underclothing, brassiere, petticoat, stocking, shoes, etc.g) Transvestism = Eonism:A transvestite (trans = opposite, vista = clothing) is a person whose whole personality is dominated by the desire of being identified with the opposite sex. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All are associated with increased risk of Ovarian Hyperstimulation Syndrome, EXCEPT? | [
"AMH levels of >3.3 ng/mL",
"Estradiol concentration> 3500 pg/mL",
"Previous history of OHSS",
"Age > 35 yrs"
] | D | Risk factors for OHSS *Polycystic ovary syndrome *polycystic ovarian morphology with elevated AMH levels (>3.36ng/mL) *previous episodes of OHSS *high E2(estradiol) concentrations *more than 20 preovulatory follicles | train | med_mcqa | null |
Good prognostic factor in schizophrenia is | [
"Early age of appearance",
"Male sex",
"Presence of negative symptoms",
"Precipitating factors"
] | D | Prognostic factors in Schizophrenia Good Prognosis Poor Prognosis Age* Late onset Young onset Sex Female male Precipitating factors present Absent Mode of onset Acute onset Insidious onset Premorbid functioning Good social, sexual, and work histories Poor social, sexual, and work histories Affective symptoms* Mood disorder symptoms (especially depressive disorders) Withdrawn, autistic behaviour Marital status Married Single, divorced, or widowed Family h/o* Family history of the mood disorders Family history of schizophrenia Suppo systems Good Poor Symptoms * Positive symptoms Negative symptomsNeurological signs and symptomsHistory of perinatal traumaNo remissions in 3 yearsMany relapsesHistory of assaultiveness Reference: P.476 chap 13 SchizophreniaKaplan & Sadock's Synopsis of Psychiatry, 10th Edition | train | med_mcqa | null |
The major lipids that make up the cell membrane are: | [
"Triglycerides",
"Phospholipids",
"Sphingomyelins",
"Fatty acids"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
An early systolic murmur may be caused by all of the following except: | [
"Small ventricular septal defect",
"Papillary muscle dysfunction",
"Tricuspid regurgitation",
"Aoic stenosis"
] | D | Answer is D (Aoic stenosis) The murmur of Aoic Stenosis is characteristically an ejection systolic murmur Q that occurs in midsystole (stas only sholy after SI and never with SI) when the ventricular pressure becomes high enough to open the semilunar valve. The murmur increases in intensity as the velocity of ejection increases and as ejection declines it decreases. The murmur ends before ventricular pressure falls enough to permit closure of aoic or pulmonary leaflets. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which among the following is the earliest symptom of acoustic neuroma in a young female? | [
"Deafness",
"Tinnitus",
"Veigo",
"Facial weakness"
] | A | Acoustic neuroma is also known as vestibular schwannoma, neurilemmoma or eighth nerve tumor. Progressive unilateral sensorineural hearing loss is the presenting symptom. It is often accompanied by tinnitus. There is marked difficulty in understanding speech, out of propoion to the pure tone hearing loss. This feature is characteristic of acoustic neuroma. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Inulin like fructans are used as prebiotics as they are non digestible. Resistance to digestion in the upper GI tract results from: | [
"Absence of digestive enzyme in the upper GIT",
"Beta configuration of anomeric C2",
"Low pH of the stomach",
"Presence of a-osidic linkages"
] | B | Inulin is a dietary fibre, its a fructan with 2-60 fructose units linked a beta (1-2)bond. Due to this beta - configuration of anomeric C2 in their fructose monomers it is resistant to digestion in the GIT. Ref: Food Science and Technology Bulletin : Functional Foods By Glenn R. Gibson, Page 5; Dietary Fibre : New Frontiers for Food and Health By J. W. van der Kamp, Julie Jones, Barry Mccleary, David J. Topping, Page 177; Functional Foods : Concept to Product By Glenn R. Gibson, Christine M. Williams, Page 249. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A depressed patient does not want to take medication on a daily basis. The selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) most suitable for this patient is? | [
"Escitalporam",
"Fluoxetine",
"Fluvoxamine",
"Paroxetine"
] | B | The half life of fluoxetine is longer than 72 hour so patient can take the medication every other day and thus it is most suitable for him. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Peripheral neuritis induced by isoniazid is prevented by giving which vitamin along with it? | [
"Vitamin B1",
"Vitamin B6",
"Vitamin B3",
"Vitamin B12"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Vitamin B6 Isoniazid induced peripheral neuritis/ neuropathy* Peripheral neuritis is a well documented adverse effect of INH, which is also the most important dose dependant toxic effect.* Peripheral neuropathy is observed in 10 to 20% of patients given dosages greater than 5 mg/kg/d, but it is infrequently seen with the standard 300-mg adult dose.* Peripheral neuropathy is more likely to occur in slow acetylators and patients with predisposing conditions such as malnutrition, alcoholism, diabetes, AIDS, and uremia.* Neuropathy is due to a relative pyridoxine deficiency. It is due to interference with production of active co - enzyme PLP (Pyridoxal phosphate) from pyridoxine.* It is readily reversed by administration of pyridoxine in a dosage as low as 10 mg/d. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Syndrome of inappropriate ADH secretion is commonly associated with: March 2012 | [
"Breast carcinoma",
"Ovarian carcinoma",
"Lung carcinoma",
"Hepatocellular carcinoma"
] | C | Ans: C i.e. Lung carcinomaParaneoplastic syndromeParaneoplastic syndromes associated with breast carcinoma are hypercalcemia, dermatomyositis etc.Paraneoplastic syndrome associated with ovarian carcinoma is hypoglycaemiaThe most frequent causes of SIADH include the secretion of ectopic ADH by malignant neoplasms (paicularly small cell carcinomas of the lung), drugs that increase ADH secretion etc.Other paraneoplastic syndromes associated with lungs carcinoma are hypercalcemia (squamous cell carcinoma), cushings syndrome (small cell carcinoma), acanthosis nigricansParaneoplastic syndromes associated with hepatocellular carcinoma are carcinoid syndrome and polycythemia | train | med_mcqa | null |
Drugs of choice for myoclonic epilepsy in pregnancy is: | [
"Carbamazepine",
"Sodium valproate",
"Phenobarbitone",
"Phenytoin"
] | B | Among the given options only sodium valproate can be used for myoclonic seizures. Carbamazepine and phenytoin can worsen these seizures whereas phenobarbitone is not effective. However, these days preferred drug is lorazepam. REF: HARRISONS 20TH ED. | train | med_mcqa | null |
In which of the following locations would you least except to find significant atherosclerotic lesions in a patient with risky factors of smoking, hypeension, diabetes mellitus, and serum cholesterol level of 280 mg/dl - | [
"Left main coronary aery",
"Left main coronary aery",
"Circle of Willis",
"Pulmonary aery trunk"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Pulmonary trunk o Atherosclerosis usually involves Abdominal aoa (M.C.), coronary aeries, popliteal aeries, ICA, circle of willis. | train | med_mcqa | null |
More than 5% carboxy hemoglobin is indicative of | [
"Ante mortem burn",
"Drowning",
"HCN poisoning",
"Suffocation"
] | A | There is increased carboxyhemoglobin (>5%) in antemortem burning. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Present in "locked in" syndrome | [
"Cognition",
"Movements",
"Speech",
"All of the above"
] | A | (A) Cognition # LOCKED-IN SYNDROME is a condition in which a patient is aware and awake, but cannot move or communicate due to complete paralysis of nearly all voluntary muscles in the body except for the eyes. Total locked-in syndrome is a version of locked-in syndrome where the eyes are paralyzed as well. It is the result of a brain stem lesion in which the ventral part of the pons is damaged. The condition has been described as "the closest thing to being buried alive".> Locked-in syndrome is also known as cerebromedullospinal disconnection, de-efferented state, pseudocoma, and ventral pontine syndrome.> A "locked-in" state of preserved consciousness with quadriplegia & cranial nerve signs suggests complete pontine & lower midbrain infarction (Harrison) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Muscles of facial expression develops from | [
"I Arch",
"II Arch",
"III Arch",
"IV Arch"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following species of borrelia are associated with tick borne relapsing fever except? | [
"Borrelia recurrentis",
"Borrelia hermsii",
"Borrelia turicatae",
"None of the above"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Frequently occurring value in a series is known as | [
"Average",
"Median",
"Mean",
"Mode"
] | D | Ans. (d) ModeRef : K. Park 23rd ed. / 847-88THE MODE* The mode is the commonly occurring value in a distribution of data. It is the most frequent item or the most fashiionable" value in a series of observations. For example, the diastolic blood pressure of 20 individuals was:85, 75 79, 71, 95, 75, 75, 77, 75, 9071, 75, 79, 95, 75, 77, 84, 75, 81, 75* The mode or the most frequently occurring value is 75. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The frequency of renal involvement in HSP - | [
"20-40%",
">80%",
"40-60%",
"10%"
] | C | The reported incidence of renal involvement in HSP varies considerably between different studies.
This may be because of the different criteria used to describe the involvement & the variability of the length used to follow up.
In different studies, incidence of pediatric renal involvement in HSP was between 20-56% and in adults 50-78% | train | med_mcqa | null |
Quarantine is related to | [
"Minimum incubation period",
"Maximum incubation",
"Serial interval",
"Generation time"
] | B | Quarantine has been defined as the limitation of freedom of movement of such well persons or domestic animals exposed to communicable diseases for a period of time not longer than the longest usual incubation period of the disease in such manner to prevent effective contact with those not exposed. ( refer pgno:121 park 23 rd edition) | train | med_mcqa | null |
During knife fight a person gets injured in the neck region and presents to emergency depament with weakness in raising right arm above head. On fuher examination winging of right scapula is noted. The injury has damaged | [
"Spinal accessory nerve",
"Long thoracic nerve of Bell",
"Suprascapular nerve",
"Dorsal scapular nerve"
] | A | Spinal accessory nerve Spinal accessory nerve is quite superficial in the neck region and is damaged more often as compared to long thoracic nerve of Bell (which gets damaged in the axilla region more commonly). Both the muscles (Serratus anterior and Trapezius) are involved in overhead abduction (90-180deg). Both the muscles also keep the medial border of the scapula approximated to the chest wall and if paralysed can produce winging of scapula | train | med_mcqa | null |
Defect in collagen formation is seen in: | [
"Scurvy",
"Hunter's syndrome",
"Marfan's syndrome",
"All"
] | A | A i.e. Scurvy Collagen show triple helixQ and is never present free inside the cytoplasmQ. Scurvy, osteogenesis imperfectaQ, Ehler - Danlos syndrome & Alpo syndrome occurs d/t its deficient synthesis. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Naltrexone is used to maintain abstinence following opioid withdrawal in addicts. It blocks all of the following featues of opioid use, except - | [
"Euphoriant effects of opioids",
"Craving for opioids",
"Miosis",
"Respiratory depression"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Craving for opioids o Naltrexone can reverse all effects of opioids like sedation, analgesia, constipation, respiratory depression and miosis, but it does not reduce craving. "Craving for opioids may continue during naltrexone treatment" Principles of addiction medicine o It is interesting to know that naltrexone does not reduce craving for opioid, but it reduces craving for alcohol in chronic alcoholism | train | med_mcqa | null |
All are true about dengue virus except: | [
"Belong to flaviviridae",
"Type DEN 4 is most common in India",
"Main vectors are aedes aegypti and aedes albopictus",
"Virus has positive sense RNA"
] | B | Ans: (b) Type DEN 4 is most common... (Ref: Park 23'/246-56; Ananthanarayan 9th/523; Harrison 19th/1318-19;Jawetz 27th/552-541 Belong to genus flavivirus with positive sense RNA(Harrison 19th 214e-1 table)All the 4 serotypes i.e dengu 1,2,3 and 4 have been isolated in India but at present DENV-1 and DENV-2 serotypes are widespread, Vector- Aedes aegypti and Aedes albopictus are the two most impoant vectors of dengue | train | med_mcqa | null |
In a 3 year old most common cause of Hepatitis B is | [
"Pin prick",
"Saliva exchange",
"Perinatal",
"Blood transfusion"
] | C | *HBV is transmitted through contact with blood and body fluids of an infected person . *In highly endemic areas , HBV infections occur mainly due to perinatal transmission resulting from carrier mothers to their infants during first 5 years of life. * It may also occur through horizontal transmission from casual contact . * HBV is not transmitted by breastfeeding Reference : OP Ghai pgno 217 9th edition. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The receptor response decline despite of the continued presence of a stimulus is know as: | [
"Accomodation",
"Adaptation",
"Refractoriness",
"Electrotonus"
] | B | Adaptation: When a maintained stimulus of constant strength is applied to a receptor the frequency of the action potentials in its sensory nerve declines over time. This phenomenon is known as adaptation or desensitization. Ref: Ganong's Review of Medical Physiology, 21st Edition, Page 125 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Cells found in intermediate zone secretes: | [
"Glycosaminoglycans",
"Collagen",
"Amino acid",
"Hyaluronic acid"
] | A | GAG provides resiliency to the tissue, that means, has the ability to absorb the stress applied. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Dialysis disequalibrium occurs due to - | [
"Cerebral edema",
"Hypertension",
"Alumunium toxicity",
"A amyloid deposition"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Cerebral edema o Two ty pes of neurological disturbance are unique to patients on chronic dialysis.A) Dialysis dementiaQB) Dialysis disequilibriumQDialysis dementia -o It may occur in patients who have heen on dialysis for many years0 and is characterized by dyspraxia, myoclonus, dementia and eventually seizure and death.o The major contribution to this syndrome is Aluminium intoxicationQ.Dialysis disequilibrium -o This occurs during first few weeksQ of dialysis and is associated with rapid reduction in blood urea levels0. It manifests clinically with nausea, vomiting, drowsiness, headache and rarely seizures.o This syndrome has been attributed to cerebral edema & increased intracranial pressureQ due to the rapid (dialysis induced) shift of osmolality and pH between extracellular and intracellular fluids. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following drug is used postop to reverse the effect of heparin used intraoperatively in cardiac surgery? | [
"Protamine sulfate",
"Vitamin K",
"Tranexamic acid",
"Factor VIII concentrate"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Protamine sulfate Protamine Sulfate* It is a strongly basic, low molecular weight protein obtained from the sperm of certain fish.* Given i.v.it neutralises heparin weight for weight, i.e. 1 mg is needed for every 100 U of heparin.* For the treatment of heparin induced bleeding, due consideration must be given to the amount of heparin that may have been degraded by the patient's body in the mean time.* However, it is needed infrequently because theaction of heparin disappears by itself in a fewhours, and whole blood transfusion is needed toreplenish the loss when bleeding occurs.* Protamine is more commonly used when heparin action needs to be terminated rapidly, e.g. after cardiac or vascular surgery. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Healthy carriers are found in all EXCEPT | [
"Poliomyelitis",
"Measles",
"Diphtheria",
"Salmonellosis"
] | B | B. i.e. (Measles) (90 - Park 19th) (91 - Park 20th)Carriers-classifications Incubatory carriers - Measles, mumps, polio, pertussis, influenza, diphtheria and Hepatitis - B Convalescent carriers - Typhoidfever, dysentery, cholera, diphtheria, and whooping cough Healthy carriers - Poliomyelitis*, Cholera, meningococcal meningitis, salmonellosis and diphtheria* Chronic carrier - Typhoidfever, hepatitisB, dysentery, cerebro- spinal meningitis, malaria, gonorrhoea | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is not seen in MEN1? | [
"Posterior pituitary tumors",
"Foregut carcinoids",
"Parathyroid hyperplasia",
"Pancreatic neuroendocrine tumors"
] | A | Features of Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia (11q l3)/Intron 4 ss : Parathyroid adenoma (90%)- Most common presentation. Entero-pancreatic tumours- Most common is gastrinoma and least common is V.I.Poma in MEN1. Pituitary adenoma- most common is Prolactinoma and least common is non-functioning adenoma in MEN1. Associated tumours. Adrenal coical tumour. Neuroendocrine tumours- thymus, lungs (Foregut derivatives include bronchus and thymus and hence choice B is correct). Lipoma Angiofibroma -Most common skin manifestation in MEN 1 (Angiofibroma>collagenoma) Brain tumour -meningioma Pheochromocytoma (<1%) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Muscle rigidity due to opioids is because of their effect on? | [
"mu",
"kappa",
"sigma",
"delta"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., mu o Opioids appear to produce their physiologic effects by binding to at least three types of opioid receptors, the mu GO, delta (b), and Kappa (K). Muscle rigidity occurs after administration of supra-analgesic doses of potent mu preferring agnoists like a fentaniL "The present data demonstrate that opiate-induced muscle rigidity is primarily due to the activation of central mu receptors, and supraspinal delta and kappa receptors may attenuate this effect" | train | med_mcqa | null |
Normal urine output is: | [
"500-800 ml",
"1500-1800 ml",
"2200-2500 ml",
"3000-3200 ml"
] | B | Ans: b (1500-1800 ml) Ref: Ganong, 22nd ed, p. 713* 180 L of fluid is filtered through the glomeruli each day, while the average daily urine volume is about 1 liter.* At least 87% of filtered water is reabsorbed* Oliguria - 24 hr urine output of <500 ml.* Anuria - complete absence of urine formation.* Polyuria - 24 hr urine out put >3 liters. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The use of combined OCP's is associated with an increased incidence of: | [
"Bacterial vaginosis",
"Chlamydial endocervicitis",
"Vaginal warts",
"Genital herpes"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
The following features are hallmarks of postprimary pulmonary tuberculosis except- | [
"It results from endogenous reactivation of latent infection",
"The disease is usually localized to the anterior segment of the upper lobe",
"If cavity formation occurs, satellite lesions result from the discharge of liquefied contents into the airways",
"Up to one-third of untreated patients die due to sever... | B | Tuberculosis is classified as one of the granulomatous inflammatory diseases. Macrophages, T lymphocytes, B lymphocytes, and fibroblasts aggregate to form granulomas, with lymphocytes surrounding the infected macrophages. When other macrophages attack the infected macrophage, they fuse together to form a giant multinucleated cell in the alveolar lumen. The granuloma may prevent dissemination of the mycobacteria and provide a local environment for interaction of cells of the immune system.However, more recent evidence suggests that the bacteria use the granulomas to avoid destruction by the host's immune system. Macrophages and dendritic cells in the granulomas are unable to present antigen to lymphocytes; thus the immune response is suppressed. Bacteria inside the granuloma can become dormant, resulting in latent infection. Another feature of the granulomas is the development of abnormal cell death (necrosis) in the center of tubercles. To the naked eye, this has the texture of soft, white cheese and is termed caseous necrosis. TB bacteria gain entry to the blood stream from an area of damaged tissue, they can spread throughout the body and set up many foci of infection, all appearing as tiny, white tubercles in the tissuesThis severe form of TB disease, most common in young children and those with HIV, is called miliary tuberculosis.People with this disseminated TB have a high fatality rate even with treatment (about 30%). In many people, the infection waxes and wanes. Tissue destruction and necrosis are often balanced by healing and fibrosis.Affected tissue is replaced by scarring and cavities filled with caseous necrotic material. During active disease, some of these cavities are joined to the air passages (bronchi) and this material can be coughed up. It contains living bacteria, and thus can spread the infection. Treatment with appropriate antibiotics kills bacteria and allows healing to take place. Upon cure, affected areas are eventually replaced by scar tissue Ref Harrison20th edition pg 1079 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Not a feature of brain death : | [
"Complete apnea",
"Absent pupillary reflex",
"Absence deep tendon reflex",
"Hea rate un-responsive to atropine"
] | C | C i.e. Absent deep tendon reflex The absence of deep tendon reflexes is not required to diagnose brain death because the spinal cord may remain functional.Q | train | med_mcqa | null |
All are DNA viruses except : | [
"Adenovirus",
"Poxvirus",
"Paramyxovirus",
"Parvovirus"
] | C | Paramyxovirus is a RNA containing virus. There are 7 families of DNA viruses. Adenovirus, Poxvirus, Parvovirus, Papillomavirus, Polyomavirus, Herpesvirus and Hepadnavirus | train | med_mcqa | null |
Thickened gall bladder wall in USG seen in – a) Acute cholecystitisb) Mucosal thickeningc) Cholesterosisd) Ascitese) AIDS cholangitis | [
"abcd",
"bcde",
"abde",
"ade"
] | C | All the given causes except cholesterosis can cause thickening of gallbladder wall. For details read text of the chaptor.
Amongst common cholecystoses, adenomyomatosis causes thickening of gallbladder wall not cholesterosis. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Surgery of choice for chronic acquired dacryocystitis- | [
"Dacryocystorhinostomy",
"Dacryocystectomy",
"Conjunctivo-cystorhinostomy",
"None"
] | A | It should be the operation of choice as it re-establishes the lacrimal drainage Ref: ak khurana 6th edition pg no395 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most common organism causing UI in adult? | [
"H influenza",
"Stap aureus",
"Strepto pneumonia",
"Streptococcus pyogenes"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Streptococcus pyogenes Most common cause of upper respiratory tract infection is viral infection. Rhinovirus is the most common cause. Among the bacteria, group A beta-hemolytic streptococci (streptococcus pyogenes) is the most common cause. And most common type of infection is pharyngitis. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A thiy five year old female has proximal weakness of muscles, ptosis and easy fatigability. The most sensitive test to suggest the diagnosis is: | [
"Muscle Biopsy",
"CPK levels",
"Edrophonium test",
"EMG"
] | C | Answer is C (Edrophonium test): Edrophonium test is the most sensitive test to suggest the diagnosis of myasthenia gravis amongst the options provided. Proximal weakness of muscles, ptosis and easy fatigability suggests a diagnosis of Myasthenia Gravis. Edrophonium (Tensilon) test is a highly sensitive test with 85% sensitivity in ocular and 95% sensitivity in systemic myasthenia. The diagnosis of MG is highly probable if Edrophonium test is unequivocally positive. Note Conventional (EMG) is not a sensitive diagnostic test for MG. The conventional needle EMG is usually normal in patients with MG although ceain findings may indicate probability of MG. Conventional EMG evaluation in MG serves mostly in excluding other causes of weakness like motor neuron disease, neuropathy or myopathy | train | med_mcqa | null |
Mesna is used in - | [
"hemorrhagic cystitis",
"Acute promyelocytic leukemia",
"Serous otitis media",
"Polycythemia vera"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e,, Hemorrhagic cystitiso Cyclophosphamide, an anticancer drug is the drug of choice for Wegener's granulomatosis.o Cyclophosphamide is a prodrug and is activated by hepatic biotransformation to aldophosphamide. One of its degradation products is acrolein that is responsible for hemorrhagic cystitis (its characteristic adverse effect). This adverse effect can be decreased by vigorous hydration and by the use of mercapto ethane sulfonic acid (mesna).o Cyclophosphamide may also result in cardiac dysfunction, pulmonary toxicity' and syndrome of inappropriate ADH secretion. Related drug ifosfamide is also implicated in causing hemorrhagic cystitis. Cyclophosphamide is a powerful vesicant. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is not true regarding tetracycline? | [
"It is not teratogenic",
"It can cause tooth discoloration",
"It can result in superinfection",
"It can lead to pseudomembranous colitis"
] | A | Tetracyclines are broad spectrum antibiotics Mechanism of action The tetracyclines arc primarily bacteriostatic; inhibit protein synthesis by binding to 305 ribosomes in susceptible organism. Subsequent to such binding, attachment of aminoacyl-t-RNA to the mRNA-ribosomc complex is interferred with As a result the peptide chain fails to grow. Tetracyclines have chelating propey. Calcium-tetracycline chelate gets deposited in developing teeth and bone. Given from midpregnancy to 5 months of extrauterine life, the deciduous teeth are affected: brown discolouration, ill-formed teeth, more susceptible to caries. Tetracyclines given between 3 months and 6 years of age affect the crown of permanent anterior dentition. Repeated courses are more damaging. Given during late pregnancy or childhood, tetracyclines can cause temporary suppression of bone growth. The ultimate effect on stature is mostly insignificant, but deformities and reduction in height are a possibility with prolonged use. Tetracyclines should not be used during pregnancy, lactation and in children. Essentials of medical pharmacology K D Tripathi Sixth edition Pg no 710 to 714 | train | med_mcqa | null |
True about Lacerated wound is? | [
"Clean cut wound",
"Regular margin",
"Irregular margin",
"Tapered margins"
] | C | ANSWER: (C) Irregular marginREF: Textbook of Forensic Medicine and Toxicology by Nagesh Kumar Rao Page 182Features of laceration:* Margins-irregular, with pieces of tissue attached, called as tissue tags or bridges* Bruising seen around the margins* Hair bulbs crushed* Depth of wound is variable with foreign bodies* Laceration of viscera produces fatal bleeding* In skin laceration one of the margin overhangs the other giving sign of direction of the force involved* On healing produces permanent scar | train | med_mcqa | null |
A cold exposure which is expected to bring the body temperature from 37degC to 20degC, actually brings it down to only 36.5degC. Calculate the 'Gain' of the thermoregulatory system. | [
"0.54",
"1.03",
"33",
"24"
] | C | Gain = Correction/Error Cold exposure causes body temperature to fall from 37 to 36.5degC in presence of thermoregulatory system, so error is 37-36.5=0.5degC If thermoregulatory system would not be working the body temperature would have become 20degC. But due to thermoregulatory system body temperature was 36.5degC on exposure to cold. So, the correction done by thermoregulatory mechanisms: 36.5-20=16.5degC Gain = 16.5/0.5 = 33 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Investigation of choice for temporal bone injury: | [
"CT scan",
"MRI",
"Angiography",
"Plain x-ray a"
] | A | A i.e. CT scan | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which is non essential mineral: | [
"Sodium",
"Manganese",
"Iron",
"Lead"
] | D | D i.e. Lead | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 32-year-old man is admitted to the emergency department after an injury to his foot while playing football with his college friends. An MRI examination reveals multiple tendinous tears. Which of the following bones is associated with the muscle tears? | [
"Navicular",
"Cuboid",
"Calcaneus",
"Sustentaculum tali"
] | C | (c) Source: GAS 601, 603, 604, 607, 608; GA 7, 273, 310-312, 314The bone to which the injured ligament attaches is the calcaneus. The navicular bone, located medially in the foot, articulates posteriorly with the head of the talus and anteriorly with the cuneiform bones. The cuboid bone of the lateral longitudinal arch articulates posteriorly with the calcaneus. The talus articulates with the tibia and fibula in the ankle joint mortise. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is barrier contraception? | [
"Male sterilization",
"Female sterilization",
"Spermicidal jelly",
"Natural"
] | C | Ans: c (Spermicidal jelly) Ref: Park, 19th ed, p. 393The aim of barrier method is to prevent live sperm from meeting the ovum. It includes:Physical methods:a) Condomb) Female condomc) Diaphragmd) Vaginal spongeChemical methods: (Spermicidal)Foams, creams, jellies, suppositories, soluble filmsCombined methods:Condom is the most widely used barrier device by the males around the world. It can be highly effective method of contraception if used correctly. An important advantage is that it protects against STDs also.Sterilization is the permanent method of contraception. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Selenium methionine scan is used in- | [
"Parathyroid adenoma",
"Pancreatic carcinoma",
"Bone metastasis",
"Meckels diveiculum"
] | B | Parathyroid adenoma: Tc99m Sestamibi scan used (previously thallium subtraction study is done) Pancreatic carcinoma:Selenium-methionine scan used Bone metastasis:Tc99m- MDP scan used Meckel's diveiculum:Tc99m- Peechnate scan used Normal Bone Scan Tracer uptake greatest in axial skeleton Background activity of soft tissue Kidneys routinely visualized Skull can appear uneven (variations in calvarial thickness) Sites of persistently increased symmetric uptake are- Acromial and Coracoid processes of the scapulae, Medial ends of the clavicles, Junction of the body and manubrium of the sternum and the sacral alae | train | med_mcqa | null |
Circumvallate papillae are supplied by | [
"Chordotympanic nerve",
"Vagus nerve",
"Glossopharyngeal nerve",
"Fascial nerve"
] | C | Glossopharyngeal nerve is the nerve of the third branchial arch and supplies the only muscle of that arch, the stylopharyngeus. It carries sensory fibers from the posterior one-third of tongue, tonsil, pharynx, middle ear, taste fibers from posterior one-third of the tongue and circumvallate papillae. Lastly, it provides secretomotor fibers to parotid glandReference: Chourasia head and neck; 6th edition; Page no:165 | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following statements are true about Hemolytic uramic syndrome except- | [
"Uraemia",
"Hypofibhrinogenemia",
"Thrombocytopenia",
"Positive coomb's test"
] | D | Answer is D (Positive Coomb's test) Comb's test is characteristically negative in patients with HUS. Hemolytic Uremic Syndrome is characterised by a microangiopathic hemolytic anemia, and thrombocvtopenia. The LDH is usually elevated out of propoion to degree of hemolvsis, and the coomb's test is negative. Coagulation test are normal with the exception of elevated fibrin degradation products (7 (explains hypofibrinogenemia) - normal coagulation results exclude DIC. Remember the following essentials of diagnosis : 1. Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia (coomb's negative).Q 2. Thrombocytopenia Q 3. Renal failureQ 4. Elevated LDHQ 5. Normal coagulation tests (exclude D1C)Q (an exception is elevated FDP) Q | train | med_mcqa | null |
Upper boundary of quadrangular space is formed by: | [
"Teres major",
"Teres minor",
"Long head of triceps",
"Surgical neck of humerus"
] | B | Boundaries of quadrangular spaceAbove/superior: the subscapularis and teres minorBelow/inferior: the teres majorMedially: the long head of the triceps brachiiLaterally: the surgical neck of humerus | train | med_mcqa | null |
Hyperacute rejection is due to - | [
"Preformed antibodies",
"Cytotoxic T-lymphocyte medicated injury",
"Circulating macrophage mediated injury",
"Endothelitis caused by donor antibodies"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Preformed antibodies | train | med_mcqa | null |
Nocardia infection is associated most commonly with: | [
"Liver abscess",
"Lung abscess",
"Brain abscess",
"Subcutaneous abscess"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Lung abscessRef:(Ananthanarayan, 8th/e, p. 393; 9th/e, p. 390-91)Pneumonia, the most common form of nocardial disease in the respiratory tract, is typically subacute; symptoms have usually been present for days or weeks at presentation. The onset is occasionally more acute in immunosuppressed patients. Cough is prominent and produces small amounts of thick, purulent sputum that is not malodorous and infiltrates and nodules tend to cavitate. Empyema is present in one-quarter of cases. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following drug does not affect GABAA gated chloride channel ? | [
"Muscimol",
"Alcohol",
"Picrotoxin",
"Buspirone"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which one of the following is indicative of cardiac tamponade? | [
"Pulsus paradoxus",
"Wide pulse pressure",
"Kussmaul's sign",
"Forceful apical. impulse"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is/are extracellular matrix protein: | [
"Collagen",
"Laminin",
"Fibronectin",
"All"
] | D | A, B, C i.e. Collagen, Laminin, Fibronectin | train | med_mcqa | null |
Intercalated discs are seen in | [
"Iris",
"Cardiac muscle",
"Musculotendinous endings",
"Nerve bundles"
] | B | Ans: b) Cardiac muscleIntercalated discs are cell membranes that separate individual cardiac muscle cells from one another. Cardiac muscle fibres are made up of many individual cells connected in series and in parallel in such a way that they form permeable "communicating junctions"- gap junctions that allow free diffusion of ions. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which antifungal is used intravitreally? | [
"Fluconazole",
"amphotericin B",
"Itraconazole",
"Flucytosine"
] | B | Answer- B. amphotericin BAntifungal drugs which are used intravitreally for fungal ophthalmitis are :-Variconazole (more commonly used)Amphotericin B | train | med_mcqa | null |
Somites are derived from | [
"Paraxial mesoderm",
"Lateral plate mesoderm",
"Intermediate mesoderm",
"Mesoblastic nephroma"
] | A | HUMAN EMBRYOLOGY-INDERBIR SINGH TENTH EDITION-PAGE NO:62 Some details about the paraxial mesoderm -at first, the cells of the paraxial mesoderm are homogeneously arranged .later, the mesoderm gets segmented -the segment is of two categories, somitomeres, and somites | train | med_mcqa | null |
Western blot is used for - | [
"DNA",
"RNA",
"Sugar",
"Protein"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Protein o Visualization of a specific DNA or RNA fragment among the many thousand of contaminating molecules requites the convergence of number of techniques collectively termed the blot transfer.Southern blot -Detects DNANorthern blot -Detects RNAWestern blot -Detects proteins (proteins are separated by electrophoresis, renatured and analysed for an interaction by hybridization with a specific labelled DNA probe) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which one of the following is not true regarding fibrolamellar carcinoma? | [
"Seen in young adults",
"Better prognosis than HCC",
"Associated with HBV infection",
"Elevated AFP is not seen"
] | C | Unlike HCC, fibrolamellar Ca is not associated with HBV infection. Fibrolamellar carcinoma characteristically manifests as a large hepatic mass in adolescents or young adults. Most patients present in the 2nd or 3rd decade of life. Cirrhosis; elevated a-fetoprotein levels; and typical risk factors for hepatocellular carcinoma such as viral hepatitis, alcohol abuse, and metabolic disease are typically absent. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Oval bulging terminal spores are seen in | [
"Clostridium teium",
"Clostridium welchii",
"Clostridium perfringes",
"Clostridium histolyticum"
] | A | Clostridium teium produces oval and terminal spores. It resembles tennis racket Reference: Textbook of Microbiology; Anathanarayan and paniker's; 10th edition; Page no: 258 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Trismus during block anesthesia is as a result of | [
"Massive edema",
"Damage to medial pterygoid",
"Damage to lateral pterygoid",
"Damage to inferior alveolar nerve"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Five days after an uneventful cholecystectomy, an asymptomatic middle-aged woman is found to have a serum sodium level of 125 mEq/L. Which of the following is the most appropriate management strategy for this patient? | [
"Administration of hypeonic saline solution",
"Restriction of free water",
"Plasma ultrafiltration",
"Hemodialysis"
] | B | The initial, and often definitive, management of hyponatremia is free-water restriction. Symptomatic hyponatremia, which occurs at serum sodium levels less than or equal to 120 mEq/L, can result in headache, seizures, coma, and signs of increased intracranial pressure and may require infusion of hypeonic saline. Rapid correction should be avoided so as not to cause central pontine myelinolysis, manifested by neurologic symptoms ranging from seizures to brain damage and death. Additionally, a search for the underlying etiology of the hyponatremia should be undeaken. Acute severe hyponatremia sometimes occurs following elective surgical procedures due to a combination of appropriate stimulation of antidiuretic hormone and injudicious administration of excess free water in the first few postoperative days. Other potential etiologies include hyperosmolarity with free-water shifts from the intra- to the extracellular compament (eg, hyperglycemia), sodium depletion (eg, gastrointestinal or renal losses, insufficient intake), dilution (eg, drug-induced), and the syndrome of inappropriate secretion of antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). | train | med_mcqa | null |
Highest concentration of potassium is in? | [
"Bile",
"Pancreatic juice",
"Terminal ileal secretions",
"Rectal fluid"
] | D | Colon and rectal secretion contain highest concentration of K+. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Administration of the DPT vaccine (diphtheria toxoid, peussis products, and tetanus toxoid) would stimulate which of the following types of immunity? | [
"Adoptive",
"Aificial active",
"Aificial passive",
"Natural active"
] | B | Administration of the DPT vaccine stimulates the innate immune system to produce antibody and memory cells against this mixture. Active immunity is when we produce our own antibody. Aificial refers to the fact that the stimulus was the vaccination with the antigens in question. Adoptive immunity involves the patient receiving cells from another host who had been stimulated to produce their products. Aificial passive immunity refers to the immunity produced by receiving an injection of antibody. An example is the administration of immunoglobulin directed against hepatitis A after an individual had been exposed to it. Active immunity means that we are stimulated to produce our own antibodies. The term natural active refers to the fact that we received the stimulus (antigen) by a natural means, such as exposure to the organism. Ref: Levinson W. (2012). Chapter 66. Tolerance & Autoimmune Disease. In W. Levinson (Ed), Review of Medical Microbiology & Immunology, 12e. | train | med_mcqa | null |
TIPSS involves percutaneous creation of a shunt between - | [
"Portal vein and vena cava",
"Portal vein and hepatic vein",
"Hepatic vein and vena cava",
"Portal vein and hepatic artery"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is an example of disorders of sex chromosomes? | [
"Marfan's syndrome",
"Testicular feminization syndrome",
"Klinefelter's syndome",
"Down's syndrome"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e. Klinefelter's syndrome Sexual differentiation can be divided into three major components * Chromosomal sexThe clinical features of patients with disorders of gonadal and phenotypic sex are divided intoDisorder of Gonadal and phenotypic sexundervirilization of 46 xy malesinappropriate virilization of 46 xx femalesThese disorders comprise a spectrum of phenotype ranging from complete "sex reversal" (e.g. 46 xy phenotypic females or 46 xx males) to "ambiguous genitalia". Example of Phenotypic and Gonadal sex disorderDisorders causing undervirilization in karyotypic malesDisorders causing virilization in karyotypic femalesDisorders of Testis developmentOvarian transdifferentiation* True hermaphroditism* True hermaphroditism* Gonadal dysgenesis* XX male* Absent testis syndromeIncreased androgen synthesisDisorders of Androgen synthesis* 21 hydroxylase deficiency* LH receptor mutations* 11 b hydroxylase deficiency* 17CC-Hydroxylase/17,20 lyase deficiency* 3 b hydroxy steroid dehydrogenase* 5a-reductase 2 deficiency* Aromatase deficiencies* Aromatase over expression* Glucocorticoid receptor mutationDisorder of androgen actionIncreased androgen exposure* Androgen insensitivity syndrome* Maternal virilizing tumours* Androgen receptor cofactor defects* Nonvirilizing tumoursOther disorders of male reproductive tractNonvirilizing disorders of the female reproductive tract* Persistent mullerian dust syndrome* Ovarian dysgenesis* Isolated hypospadias* Mullerian agenesis* Cryptoorchidism* Vaginal agenesisPAEDIATRICS | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 46-year–old male presents to OPD with diarrhea and abdominal pain. On investigations, it was found to be non–infective and you proceed with diphenoxylate therapy in this patient. Which of the following is the primary target for the drug you prescribed to this patient | [
"Secretion",
"Digestion",
"Inflammation",
"Motility"
] | D | Diphenoxylate is an opioid; it binds to mu receptors in the GIT and slows motility. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Night blindness may be caused by all except | [
"Vitamin A deficiency",
"Retinitis pigmentosa",
"Syphilis",
"Lattice degeneration"
] | D | Ans. Lattice degeneration | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following statements about pneumothorax is true: | [
"Breath sounds are increased",
"Percussion note is decreased",
"Always needs chest tube inseion",
"Often needs chest tube inseion"
] | D | Answer is D (Often need chest tube inseion): Pneumothorax is associated with decreased breath sounds, hyperresonant (increased) percussion note. Chest tube drainage is often required but is not necessary in all cases. Many small pneumothoraces resolve spontaneously as air is reabsorbed from the pleural space. In reliable patients with small stable pneumothorax observation alone may be appropriate | train | med_mcqa | null |
Local anaesthetic injections
A fail, usually because the anaesthetic solution is out of date
B followed by collapse is usually because of allergy to one of the constituents
C followed by trismus after the effect of inferior dental local anaesthetic block has subsided usually indicates trauma in the region of the medial pterygoid muscle and/or a haematoma
D except for local infiltrations should be avoided in patients with haemophilia | [
"AB is true and CD are false",
"AB are false and CD are true",
"AC are true and BD are false",
"AC are false an BD are true"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Anti-peptic ulcer drug that can be given in patients with chronic renal failure (CRF) | [
"Aluminium Hydroxide",
"Aluminium Hydroxide",
"Sucralfate",
"None"
] | D | all those drugs are aluminium derivative hence leads to aliminium toxicity so not used in renal failure ESSENTIAL OF MEDICAL PHARMACOLOGY SEVENTH EDITION KD TRIPATHI PG NO.649 | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following are the branches of intracavernous pa of the internal carotid aery except: | [
"Hypophysial branches",
"Ophthalmic aery",
"Branch to trigemical ganglion",
"Meningeal aery"
] | B | B i.e., Opthalmic aery | train | med_mcqa | null |
A patient has carcinoma on the right side of anterior 2/3rd of the tongue with lymph node of size 4cm in level 3 on the left side of the neck. Stage of the disease is | [
"N0",
"N1",
"N2",
"N3"
] | C | Ref: Dhingra 7e pg 306. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Advantage of titanium over other base metal alloys | [
"Low weight",
"Low cost",
"Low strength",
"Low melting point"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Nephelometry measures the light- | [
"Absorbed",
"transmitted",
"Scattered",
"Refracted"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Scattered* When particles are suspended in a solution in a cuvette, they make the solution unclear (turbid). Incident light entering the cuvette will be subjected to three reactions :i) Some of the light will be absorbed by the particlesii) Some will be transmitted through the cuvetteiii) Some will be scattered in various directions.Turbidimetry* Turbidimetry is involved with measuring the amount of transmitted light (and calculating the absorbed light) by particles in suspension to determine the concentration of the substance in question.* Amount of absorbed light, and therefore, concentration is dependent on# Number of particles# Size of particles* Measurements are made using light spectrophotometers* Clinical Applications# Determination of the concentration of total protein in biological fluids such as urine and CSF which contain small quantities of protein (mg/L quantities) using trichloroacetic acidNephelometry* Principle# Nephelometry is concerned with measurement of scattered light from a cuvette containing suspended particles in a dilute solution.* The components of a nephelometer are the same as a light spectrophotometer except that the detector is placed at a specific angle from the incident light. The detector is a photomultiplier tube placed at a position to detect forward scattered light. Detectors may be placed at 90o, 70o or 37o depending on the angle at which most scattered light are found.* Since the amount of scattered light is far greater than the transmitted light in a turbid suspension, nephelometry offers higher sensitivity than turbidimetry.* For most clinical applications, the light source is a tungsten lamp giving light in the visible region. For higher sensitivity and for applications that determine the size and number of particles in suspension, laser light nephelometers is used.* Clinical applications of nephelometry.# Widely used to determine concentrations of unknowns where there is antigen-antibody reactions such as-* Determination of immunoglobulins (total, IgG, IgE, IgM, IgA) in serum and other biological fluids.* Determination of the concentrations of individual serum proteins; hemoglobin, haptoglobin, transferring, c-reactive protein, a1-antitrypsin, albumin (using antibodies specific for each protein).# Turbidity is measured as Nephalometric Turbidity units (NTU) or as Formazin Turbidity unit (FTU). Formazin Turbidity Unit is the International Standard Unit. Both measure the light scattered at 90o. NTU uses white light with peak spectral output at 400 to 680nm as light source. FTU uses Infrared monochromatic light with peak output at 780 to 900nm as light source. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Minimum score of GCS is: | [
"0",
"1",
"2",
"3"
] | D | Ans: d (3) Ref: Bailey & Love, 24th ed,p. 601Minimum score of Glasgow coma scale is 3 and the maximum score is 15Eye opening:Verbal response:Best motor response:Spontaneous-4To speech - 3To pain - 2Nil-1Oriented - 5Confused conversation - 4Inappropriate words - 3Incomprehensible sounds -2Nil-1Obeys - 6Localizes-5Withdraws-4Abnormal flexion - 3Extension response - 2Nil-1Maximum score: 15Minimum score: 3Note:Best prognostic value in head injury is Glasgow coma scale (AIPGMEE 2007)BRIDGECarrier status for apolipoprotein E4 allele is considered to be a poor prognostic factor i n head injury | train | med_mcqa | null |
Warfarin mechanism of action ? | [
"Chelating Ca",
"Inhibiting antithrombin III",
"Inhibiting Vitamin K dependent carboxylation",
"Inhibiting thrombin"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Inhibiting Vitamin K dependent carboxylation Warfarin inhibits vitamin K dependent carboxylation of clotting factors by inhibiting the enzyme Vitamin K epoxide reductase. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The following group of tests should be done to optimise graft uptake in bone marrow transplant: | [
"Blood grouping",
"HLA matching",
"Culture for infection",
"All of the above"
] | B | Most prospective donors are initially typed for HLA-A and HLA-B loci. Donors identified as potential HLA-A and HLA-B matches are then asked to donate a specimen for DR- loci typing. When a donor is identified as a potential HLA-A and HLA-B and a DR match for a given recipient he is checked for transmissible infectious diseases such as Cytomeggalovirus (CMV) etc. Ref: Hematopoietic Stem Cell Transplantation By Michael R. Bishop, Page 86 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following ACE inhibitor is not a prodrug - | [
"Captopril",
"Enalapril",
"Ramipril",
"All"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Captopril o All ACE inhibitors are prod rugs except captopril and Lisinopril. | train | med_mcqa | null |
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