question stringlengths 1 6.54k | choices listlengths 4 4 | answer stringclasses 4
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Most common urinary bladder tumour in childhood is – | [
"Haemangioma",
"Rhabdomyosarcoma",
"Transitional cell carcinoma",
"Squamous cell carcinoma"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Life span of cut380a - | [
"10yrs",
"20yrs",
"Iyrs",
"None"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., 10 years "The Cu-T 380A is approved for use for 10 years. However, the Cu-T 380A has been demonstrated to maintain its efficacy over at least 12 years of use -- ParkIntra-uterine deviceso An intrauterine device is a long acting reversible contraceptive birth control device placed in the uterus,o There are two basic types of IUD -ISon-medicated and medicated.o According to evolution, lUDs can be categorizedIUDsLifespanFirst generation :Lippe's loop (obsolete)-Second generationCopper-T-CuT-200-B4yrCuT-2003yrCuT-220C-Nova-T5yrMultiload - 2503753 yr5yrCuT-3 80A10yrThird generation Progestasert1yrLNG-20 (Mirena)5 yr (Ref: Novak p263: Note that Park mention: the life span of mirena to he 10 yrs)o So it is the CuT-3 80A which has the longest life spano In India under the National Family Welfare Programmes, CuT-200B is being used. From the year 2002, CuT380A has been introduced. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Best method to treat a large port-wine hemangioma is? | [
"Radiotherapy",
"Tatooing",
"Excision with skin grafting",
"Pulsed dye Laser"
] | D | ANSWER: (D) Pulsed dye LaserREF: Roxburgh's common Skin Diseases 17th edition page 194 & 205, Clinical Dermatology by John Hunter, John Savin & Mark Dahl 3rd edition page 275"Selective Photothermolysis or Pulsed dye laser is the treatment of choice for Portwine hemangioma"Port-wine stains are crimson blotches in which there is marked capillary dilatation compared to a capillary angioma, which is a red nodule or plaque containing proliferating endothelial cells. The latter tend to flatten and disappear at puberty. Larger ones may cause problems from bleeding and/or erosion. Cavernous haemangiomata are larger and compressible, containing large vascular spaces.Occasionally a port-wine stain of the trigeminal area is associated with a vascular malformation of the leptomeninges on the same side, which may cause epilepsy or hemiparesis (the Sturge- Weber syndrome), or with glaucoma.Excellent results have been obtained with careful and time-consuming treatment with a 585-nm flashlamp-pumped pulsed dye laser. Treatment sessions can begin in babies and anaesthesia is not always necessary. If a trial patch is satisfactory, 40-50 pulses can be delivered in a session and the procedure can be repeated at 3-monthly intervals. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The relationship between the pulpal and periodontal tissue complex begins during dental development at | [
"Adolescent stage",
"5-10 years",
"Embryonic stage",
"None of the above"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Fungal infections not associated with AIDS patient are - | [
"Pneumocystis jirovecii",
"Penicillium marneffei",
"Candida",
"Cryptococcus"
] | A | Fungal infections are Pneumocystitis jirovecii ,candidiasis, cryptoccosis, Aspergillosis, Histoplasmosis. REF:ANANTHANARAYAN AND PANIKER'S TEXTBOOK OF MICROBIOLOGY 9TH EDITION PAGE NO-576 | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following are true regarding thyroid adenoma, except: | [
"Solitary, spherical and well encapsulated lesion",
"Uniform-appearing, colloid-containing follicles",
"Cystic change, calcification and Huhle cell change",
"Vascular invasion is commonly seen"
] | D | THYROID FOLLICULAR ADENOMA: Most common benign tumor of thyroid caused d/t G-protein coupled receptor mutation. Typical thyroid adenoma is a solitary, spherical, encapsulated lesion that is demarcated from surrounding thyroid parenchyma by a well-defined, intact capsule. Hence, vascular invasion is not seen in this tumors. Microscopically, constituent cells often form uniform appearing follicles that contain colloid. Follicular growth pattern is usually quite distinct from adjacent non-neoplastic thyroid. Areas of hemorrhage, fibrosis, calcification & cystic change, similar to those encountered in multinodular goiters, are common in follicular adenomas, paicularly in larger lesions. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Defence mechanism in OCD | [
"Progression",
"Regression",
"Magical thinking",
"Reaction formation"
] | D | Three defense mechanisms are common in OCD- Isolation, Undoing & Reaction formation Isolation: Unconsciously isolate and disown their own thoughts, experiencing as forign thoughts. Undoing: unconsciously cancel out an unacceptable desire or act by performing another act. Reaction formation: suppress an unacceptable desire by taking on a lifestyle that expresses the opposite desire. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A middle aged female repoed with dull diffuse progressive headache of 2 months duration associated with episodes of vomiting and blurred vision at times. Cough increases the headache.Likely patient has | [
"Vascular headache",
"Intracranial space occupying lesion",
"Intracerebral hemorrhage",
"Acute pyogenic meningitis"
] | B | A space-occupying lesion of the brain is usually due to malignancy but it can be caused by other pathology such as an abscess or a haematoma. Almost half of intracerebral tumours are primary but the rest have originated outside the CNS and are metastases Features of a headache indicating a high risk of a space-occupying lesion of the brain or idiopathic intracranial hypeension include: A new headache with features suggestive of raised intracranial pressure, including papilloedema, vomiting, posture-related headache, or headache waking the patient from sleep Ref Harrison20th edition pg 2456 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Ideal contraceptive for newly married couple is : | [
"Barrier method",
"Combined OCP(hormonal)",
"IUCD",
"emergency contracepton"
] | B | Three-monthly injections or implants, skin patches and vaginal rings may be acceptable to young married adolescents, and side effects tolerated. Reference: Shaw's Textbook of Gynaecology,16th edition, page 285 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following drug binds only with the anionic site of cholinesterase | [
"Physostigmine",
"Neostigmine",
"Edrophonium",
"Pyridostigmine"
] | C | Refer kDT 6/e p 105,katzung 11e 104 Physostigmine, neostigmine and pyridostigmine are carbamates by chemical nature, they bind to both esteric site and anionic site where as edrophonium is an alcohol and binds to anionic site only | train | med_mcqa | null |
Operculated sulcus is another name of | [
"Central Sulcus",
"Lunate Sulcus",
"Collateral Sulcus",
"Calcarine Sulcus"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Systolic BP of a group of person follows normal distribution curve. The mean BP is 120. The values above 120 are: | [
"25%",
"75%",
"50%",
"100%"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e. 50% in the normal distribution curve 50% of values lies on either side of the mean .Therefore values lying above 120 (which is the mean B.R) are 50% | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is true regarding ataxia telangiectasia? | [
"It is X linked recessive disease",
"It is autosomal recessive disorder",
"It is associated with increased levels of IgM",
"None of the above"
] | B | Ans. (b) It is autosomal recessive disorder(Ref: Robbins 9th ed p 315)Several rare autosomal recessive cancer syndromes have been described that are characterized by hypersensitivity to certain kinds of DNA-damaging agents, such as ionizing radiation (Bloom syndrome and ataxia-telangiectasia), or DNA cross-linking agents, such as many chemotherapeutic drugs (Fanconi anemia). The phenotype of these diseases is complex and includes, in addition to predisposition to cancer, features such as neural symptoms (ataxia- telangiectasia), bone marrow aplasia (Fanconi anemia), and developmental defects (Bloom syndrome). | train | med_mcqa | null |
Acid fast staining can be positive with? | [
"Tubercle bacilli",
"Nocardia",
"Lipofuschin",
"All"
] | D | Ans. d (All).(Ref. Microbiology by Ananthnarayan, 7th/357; Harsh Mohan, Pathology, 4th ed., 32)ACID FAST STAINING IS POSITIVE with {Mnemonic = MMC BLINC) :- Mycobacterium tuberculosis, - Mycobacterium leprae, - Cyclospora, - Bacterial spores, - Lipofuschin pigment,- Isospora, - Nocardia, - Cryptosporidium.Educational points:# Nocardia are aerobic, crooked, branching, beaded, gram +ve and partially acid fast filaments on microscopy. TMP- SMX is Rx of choice.# Lipofuschin is "wear and tear" lipid pigment in cells and can be stained by fat stains but differs from other lipids in being fluorescent and acid fast. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Infectionrate without antibiotic prophylaxis for clean contaminated surgery is | [
"1 - 2 %",
"2 - 5 %",
"6 - 9 %",
"10 - 15 %"
] | C | Type of surgery
Infection rate with prophylaxis
Infection rate without prophyloxis
Clean surgery
1 - 2 %
1 - 2 %
Clean contaminated surgery
3%
6 - 9 %
Contaminated surgery
6 %
13 - 20%
Dirty surgery
7%
40% | train | med_mcqa | null |
'Linnitis plastica' is seen in: March 2004 | [
"Gastric carcinoma",
"Gastric ulcer",
"Gastric lymphoma",
"Corrosive strictures"
] | A | Ans. A i.e. Gastric carcinoma | train | med_mcqa | null |
Tensor fascia lata is supplied by | [
"Nerve to quadratus femoris",
"Superior gluteal nerve",
"Inferior gluteal nerve",
"Sciatic nerve"
] | B | Of all the nerves, that passes through greater sciatic foramen, superior gluteal N is only one that passes above piriformis muscle. After entering gluteal region. Nerve loops up over inferior margin of gluteus minimus & travels anteriorly & laterally in plane b/w gluteus medius & minimus muscle It supplies gluteus minimus - abductors at hip joint gluteus medius - medially rotates thigh Tensor fasciae latae -prevent pelvis drop on opposite swing side during walking. Nerve to quadratus femoris : Enters gluteal region through greater sciatic foramen inferior to piriformis muscle & deep to sciatic nerve. Lies anterior to plane of deep muscles. It descends along the ischium deep to tendon of obturator internus muscle & associated gemellus muscle to penetrate & innervate quadratus femoris a Supplies small branch to gemellus anterior. * Inferior gluteal nerve : Enters gluteal region through sciatic foramen inferior to piriformis muscle & along the posterior surface of sciatic nerve Penetrate & supplies gluteus maximus muscle. Sciatic nerve : Largest nerve in body & innervates all muscles in posterior compament of thigh that flex the knee & all muscles that move ankle & foot Innervates large area of skin in lower limb. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following statements regarding jaundice in a newborn are true, Except | [
"Physiological Jaundice usually peaks after 48 hours",
"Breast milk jaundice usually peaks after day 7",
"High levels of conjugated bilirubin may cause Kernincterus",
"All of the above are true"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., High levels of conjugated bilirubin may cause Kernincterus Kernincterus is caused by high levels of un-conjugated bilirubin. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Relative risk formula(2018) | [
"Incidence of disease among non-exposed divided By Incidence of disease among exposed",
"Incidence of disease among non-exposed minus Incidence of disease among exposed",
"Incidence of disease among exposed divided by Incidence of disease among non-exposed",
"Incidence of disease among exposed minus Incidence... | C | Estimation of disease risk associated with exposure is obtained by an index known as "Relative Risk" (RR) or '"risk ratio" , which is defined as the ratio between the incidence of disease among exposed persons and incidence among non-exposed. It is given by the formula: Incidence among exposed/ incidence among non exposed. Ref:- park; pg num :- 81 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is a prodrug - | [
"Enalapril",
"Clonidine",
"Salmeterol",
"Acetazolamide"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Enalapril Prodrugo Few drugs are inactive as such and need conversion in the body to one or more active metabolites,o Such a drug is called a prodrug.o All the drugs in following table are very important, sorry, I can not shorten the listProdrugLevodopaEnalaprila - MethyldopaChloralhydrateDipiveffineOxcarbazepinePrednisoneBacampicillinSulfasalazineCyc lophospham ideMercaptopurineFluorouracilSulindacAzathioprineCortisoneBenorilateProguanilZidovudinTerfenadineProntosilo Advantages of prodrugs over active formMore stableBetter bioavailabilityLess side effects and toxicity. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Chancroid is caused by - | [
"H. ducreyi",
"T. pallidum",
"Gonococcus",
"HSV"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Lennox-Gastaut Syndrome is characterized by: | [
"Single seizure type",
"Good prognosis and adequate controlled epilepsy",
"Affects mainly adolescents",
"Multiple seizure types that are difficult to control"
] | D | Lennox-Gastaut syndrome (LGS): High yield facts It typically stas between the ages of 3 to 10 yr It consists of a triad of developmental delay, multiple seizure types and typical EEG changes Patients commonly have multiple seizure types (myoclonic, atypical absence, atonic, astatic, and tonic seizures) that are difficult to control, and most are left with long-term cognitive impairment and intractable seizures despite multiple therapies. EEG findings are 1-2 Hz spike-and-slow waves, polyspike bursts in sleep, and a slow background in wakefulness. Some patients sta with Ohtahara syndrome, develop West syndrome and then progress to LGS | train | med_mcqa | null |
Dangerous area of eye: | [
"Ciliary body",
"Optic nerve",
"Sclera",
"Choroid"
] | A | A i.e. Ciliary body | train | med_mcqa | null |
Ureter develops from which of the following embryologic structure? | [
"Mesonephric tubules",
"Mesonephric duct",
"Urogenital sinus",
"Paramesonephric duct"
] | B | Ureteric bud arise from the mesonephric ducts. The ureter is derived from the pa of ureteric bud that lies between the pelvis of the kidney, and the vesico-urethral canal. The permanent kidneys develop from 2 sources, both of which are of mesodermal origin. 1) The metanephric diveiculum (ureteric bud). 2)The metanephric mesoderm. Ref: Human Embryology INDERBIR SINGH 6th Ed Page 269. | train | med_mcqa | null |
True about blood transfusion reaction -a) Complement mediated severe haemolysisb) Renal blood flow is decreasedc) Transfusion should not be stoppedd) Death is not seen | [
"ac",
"ab",
"ad",
"bc"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following are features of Mobiz type I block except- | [
"Constant PR interval",
"Normal QRS morphology",
"Regular atrial rhythm",
"Atrial rate more than ventricular rate"
] | A | Type 1 Second-degree AV block, also known as Mobitz I or Wenckebach periodicity, is almost always a disease of the AV node. ... Today, Mobitz I hea block is characterized by progressive prolongation of the PR interval on consecutive beats followed by a blocked P wave (i.e., a dropped QRS complex Ref Harrison 20th edition pg 1443 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which bacteria show Rotatory motility | [
"Trichomonas",
"Mycoplasma",
"Balantidium",
"Borrelia"
] | C | Balantidium coli is ciliate which shows rotatory motility. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Prolactin secretion is inhibited by: | [
"Dopamine antagonist",
"GABA",
"Neurophysin",
"Bromocripitine"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e. BromocriptineRef. K.D.T. 4th/ep244, K.D.T 5th/ep217Prolactin is under predominant inhibitory control of hypothalamus through prolactin releasing inhibitory hormone (PRIH).PRIH is a dopamine that acts on pituitary lactotrope D2 receptor.So, Dopaminergic agonists decrease plasma prolactin levels. These agonists are :Dopamine*Bromocriptine*Apomorphine*Dopaminergic antagonists and DA depletes will increase prolactin levelDopaminergic antagonists are :ChlorpromazineHaloperidolMetoclopramideDopamine depletes are :Reserpine Methyl dopaUses of Bromocriptine are :Hyperprolactinemia*AcromegalyParkinsonism Hepatic comaSuppression of lactation and breast engorgement after delivery. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Changes in cardiac output is minimal during: | [
"Sleep",
"From supine to standing position",
"Exercise",
"Arrhythmias"
] | A | Ref: Pal GK. Cardiac output. In: Textbook of Medical Physiology. Ahuja Publishing House. 2007; 74: 607.Explanation:Increased cardiac outputExerciseAnxietyEmotion and excitementT environmental temperatureEatingPregnancyDecrease in cardiac outputStanding from supineSweatingNo change in cardiac outputSleepMild to moderate change in environmental temperature | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following cis-acting elements typically resides adjacent to or overlaps with many prokaryotic promoters? | [
"Regulatory gene",
"Structural gene(s)",
"Repressor",
"Operator"
] | D | Operator resides adjacent to or overlaps with many prokaryotic promoters. Operator site should be free for the movement of RNA polymerase. Operator region is unique for prokaryotic operons. Eukaryotes do not contain operator elements in the genome. Operator locus exhibit two-fold symmetry and an inveed palindrome. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Crus commune is a part of: | [
"Cochlea",
"Middle ear",
"Semicircular canal",
"Vestibule"
] | C | (c) Semicircular canal(Ref Shambaugh, 6th ed., page 42)The posterior and superior semicircular canals fuse together to form a common crus called as "crus commune" which opens into the utricle. Because of this the three semicircular canals open into utricle by five openings instead of six. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A patient presents with diarrhoea, analysis of stool on wet mount shows mobile protozoa without RBCs and pus cells. The diagnosis is - | [
"Balantidium coli",
"plasmodium",
"Trichomonas hominis",
"Entamoeba hystolytica"
] | A | Infection is acquired from pigs and other animal reservoirs or from human carriers. The infective form is the cyst, which is ingested in contaminated food or drink. Excystment takes place in the small intestine and the liberated trophozoites reach the large intestine where they feed and multiply as lumen commensals. Infection is very often confined to the lumen and is asymptomatic. Clinical disease results only when the trophozoites burrow into the intestinal mucosa, set up colonies and initiate inflammatory reaction. This leads to mucosal ulcers and submucosal abscesses resembling the lesions in amoebiasis. Clinically also, balantidiasis resembles amoebiasis, causing diarrhoea or frank dysentery with abdominal colic, tenesmus, nausea and vomiting. Occasionally there may occur intestinal perforation with peritonitis and rarely involvement of genital and urinary tracts. Diagnosis Diagnosis is established by demonstration of the parasite in faeces. While motile trophozoites occur in diarrhoeic faeces, cysts are found in formed stools. TEXTBOOK OF MEDICAL PARASITOLOGY,CKJ PANIKER,6TH EDITION,PAGE NO 111 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Actinomycosis most commonly affects | [
"Thorax",
"Facio - cervical region",
"Liver",
"Pelvis"
] | B | Facio - cervical Actinomycosis is most common type. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following amyloid forms is seen in secondary amyloidosis associated with chronic diseases- | [
"Amyloid Associated Protein",
"Amyloid light chain",
"Beta 2 Amyloid",
"ATTR"
] | A | Reference :Robbins basic pathology 9th edition pg no 154: chronic disease ~chronic inflammation ~macrophage activation~IL1 and IL6 ~Liver cells~SAA protein~limited proteolysis ~AA protein | train | med_mcqa | null |
Treatment of Medullary carcinoma of thyroid is | [
"Surgery and Radiotherapy",
"Radiotherapy and Chemotherapy",
"Surgery only",
"Radioactive ablation"
] | C | Management Total thyroidectomy + Routine central lymph node dissection + ipsilateral modified radical node dissection (Tumor > 1cm) +- Bilateral modified Radical neck dissection (if any lymph node is positive) MCT - Poor prognosis (because it does not respond to radioactive iodine ablation) Vandetanib - Only FDA approved drug in advanced progressive medullary thyroid cancer. | train | med_mcqa | null |
HMGCoA reductase is inhibited by : | [
"Lovastatin",
"Gemfibrozil",
"Clofirate",
"Nicotinic acid"
] | A | Ans is 'a' Lovastatin (Ref. KDT, 5/e p. 577 (4/e, p. 620, 621); Harrison, 16/e, p 2296 (15/e, p. 2254)).Lovastatin is a hypolipidemic drug.Its mechanism of action is Inhibition of HMGCoA reductaseHMGCoA reductase inhibitors includeLovastatinMevastatinSimvastatinMechanism of action of other hypolipidemic drug.Fibric acid derivatives (Gemfibrozil)* - Activation of lipoprotein lipase*.Bile acid resins (Cholestyramine and colestipol)* - Interruption of enterohepatic recycling of bile acids*.Nicotinic acid - Unclear or (inhibition of lipolysis)* | train | med_mcqa | null |
Fibers are maximum in | [
"Wheat",
"Oat",
"Rice",
"Corn"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Corn Wheat bran42.2Oat bran22.2Soy bran70.0Corn bran82.3Rice bran38.0Barley bran70-0 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Posterior wall of axilla is not formed by | [
"Subscapularis",
"Latissimus dorsi",
"Supraspinatus",
"Teres major"
] | C | AXILLA: Is a pyramidal space situated between the upper pa of the arm and the chest wall. BASE OR FLOOR: It is directed downwards, and is formed by skin, superficial fasciae. It is convex upwards in congruence with the concavity of axilla. ANTERIOR WALL: Formed by pectoralis major in front clavipectoral fascia pectoralis minor. The posterior wall of axilla is formed by Subscapularis above Teres major and Latissimus dorsi below MEDIAL WALL: It is convex laterally upper 4 ribs with their intercostal muscles the upper pa of serratus anterior muscle LATERAL WALL: It is narrow because the anterior and posterior walls converge on it. It is formed by the following the upper pa of pa of the humerus Coracobrachialis and sho head of biceps brachii. REF: BD Chaurasia 7th edition page no: 48. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Anorexia nervosa can be erentiated from bulimia by- | [
"Intense fear of wt gain",
"Disturbance of body image",
"Adolescent age",
"Peculiar patterns of food handling"
] | D | Patients with anorexia nervosa exhibit peculiar behavior about food. They hide food all over the house and frequently carry large quantities of candies in their pockets and purses. They cut their meals into very small pieces and spend a great deal of time rearranging the pieces on their plates. While eating meals, they try to dispose of food in their napkins or hide it in their pockets.
This peculiar behavior about food is not seen in bulimia nervosa.
About other options
Both anorexia and bulimia patients have fear of weight gain.
The onset of both is in adolescence (Anorexia early adolescence; bulimia late adolescence).
Body - image disturbance is seen in both diseases. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Aztreonam is a/an - | [
"beta-lactamase inhibitor",
"beta-lactam antibiotic",
"Antitubercular drug",
"Antifungal drug"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., beta -lactam antibiotic | train | med_mcqa | null |
Following the given X Ray most probable diagnosis is ? | [
"Ewing sarcoma",
"Giant cell Tumor",
"Osteosarcoma",
"Aneurysmal Bone cyst"
] | B | * Giant cell tumor - It goes till the joint. It is the only tumor to involve the joint. It is seen in 20-40 years of age (after skeletal maturity). It occurs in epiphysis (mainly) and extends into metaphysis, so called as epiphyseal-metaphysis tumor * Osteosarcoma - aggressive presentation and found in metaphysis. * Giant cell tumor-Osteoclastoma. * ABC - It occurs in metaphysis and seen in skeletally immature individuals (11-20 years) | train | med_mcqa | null |
A patient has a surgical cause of obstructive jaundice. USG can tell all of the following except: | [
"Biliary tree obstruction",
"Peritoneal deposits",
"Gall bladder stones",
"Ascites"
] | B | Ans. b. Peritoneal deposits (Ref: Sabiston 19/e p1481: Schwartz 9/e p1140; Bailey 25/e p 1113-1114, Blumgart 5/e p223: Schackelford 7/e p1303)Peritoneal deposits are not detected by ultrasound. Even CECT can miss the peritoneal deposits.Best investigation for diagnosis of peritoneal deposits is diagnostic laparoscopy.Ultrasound:Initial imaging modality of choice in obstructive jaundiceQIt can identify intra- and extrahepatic biliary dilatationQAscites can be detected by ultrasound.USG is IOC for acute calculous cholecystitis, chronic cholecystitis and cholilithiasisUltrasonographyInitial imaging modality of choice in obstructive jaundiceQIt is operator dependent and maybe suboptimal due to excessive body fat and intraluminal bowel gasQ.USG can demonstrate* Size of GB and CBDQ* Thickness of GB wallQ* Presence of inflammationQ around GB* Biliary calculiQ* Occasionally, presence of stones within the biliary treeQ.It may even show a carcinoma of the pancreas occluding the CBDQ.USG in obstructive jaundiceInitial imaging modality of choice in obstructive jaundiceQIt can identify intra- and extrahepatic biliary dilatationQIdentify the level of obstructionQCause of the obstructionQ may also be identified (gallstones in the gall bladder, common hepatic or CBD stones or lesions in the wall of the duct suggestive of a cholangiocarcinoma or enlargement of the pancreatic head indicative of a pancreatic carcinoma)Q | train | med_mcqa | null |
Causative agent of SABE should be culture on ? | [
"Nutrient agar",
"Blood agar",
"U medium",
"Tel lurite broth"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Blood agar | train | med_mcqa | null |
All are alkylating agents, except | [
"5-Fluorouracil",
"Melphalan",
"Cyclophosphamide",
"Chlorambucil"
] | A | Ans. (A) 5-Fluorouracil(Ref: Katzung 11th/e p945, KDT 8th/e p918-919)5-Fluorouracil is an antimetabolite whereas melphalan, cyclophosphamide and chlorambucil are alkylating agents. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following isotope is commonly used in teletherapy: September 2010 | [
"Cesium",
"Iridium",
"Technetium",
"Iodine"
] | A | Ans. A: Cesium Cobalt-60 and Cesium-137 sources are the most common ones used in radiotherapy. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Mydriatic which does not cause cycloplegia is: | [
"Tropicamide",
"Atropine",
"Homatropine",
"Phenylephrine"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Parts of some human skeletal remains are brought to you. The pelvis is complete, yet the individual bones of the pelvis, the ilium, ischium, and pubis have just staed to fuse together. The subpubic angle you estimate at 60deg and the pelvic brim has a distinctive hea shaped appeareance. On the basis of this information, you guess the remains are of which of the following? | [
"3-year-old female",
"4-year-old male",
"14-year-old male",
"30-year-old female"
] | C | Because the sub- pubic angle is about 60deg and the pelvic brim is hea shaped, you are look ing at a male. The bones of the pelvis arise from three different centers of ossification and generally fuse together at about pubey through the twenty-third year, thus you know you have to be looking at a 14-year-old male, not a 3-year-old or an 80-year- old male. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most common cause of Pubey Menorrhagic : | [
"Anovulation",
"Malignancy",
"Endometriosis",
"Bleeding disorder"
] | A | Ans. is a i.e. Anovulation Pubey menorrhagia is excessive cyclical regular bleeding occuring in adolescents. Most common cause of pubey menorrhagia is anovulation which results in excess of estrogen or unopposed estrogen in absence of progesterone. Ilnd most common cause is - Bleeding disorders - blood dyscrasias and coagulation disorders. Other causes of Abnormal bleeding in Adolescents. Pregnancy related bleeding Sexually transmitted-Infections - paicularly chlamydia Sexual abuse Exogenous hormones Other endocrine or systemic problems eg. ?Hepatic dysfunction Hyperprolactinemia ( it can cause either amenorrhea or irregular bleeding) PCOS - It can occur during adolescence also Hypothyroidism Anatomical causes - Paially obstructive genetic anomalies. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Foster kennedy syndrome seen with | [
"AION",
"Retinal detachment",
"Frontal lobe tumor",
"Macular edema"
] | C | Answer- C. Frontal lobe tumorFoster - kennedy syndrome :- The frontal lobe, pituitary and middle ear tumor such as meningiomata of the oflactor groove are sometimes associated with Ipsilateral pressure atrophy of the optic nerve and contralateral papilloedema. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Regarding prolactinoma in pregnancy, all are true, EXCEPT: | [
"Most common pituitary tumor but rarely symptomatic",
"Increase in prolactin levels worse prognosis",
"Macroadenoma > 1 cm is associated with bad prognosis",
"Regular visual checkup"
] | C | Pituitary adenoma more than 2cm is associated with bad prognosis. Other poor prognostic factors includes high preoperative prolactin levels, increased age and longer duration of amenorrhea. Prolactinomas are prolactin secreting tumours of the pituitary It is a benign tumour It is the commonest pituitary tumor seen in pregnancy. During pregnancy the stimulatory effect of hormonal mileu of pregnancy result in significant enlargement of prolactinoma during pregnancy. Patients with prolactinoma usually presents with amenorrhea, galactorrhea, headache, visual field defect (bitemporal hemianopia) and diabetes insipidus | train | med_mcqa | null |
The deficient enzyme in Niemann-Pick disease is: | [
"b-Glucosidase",
"Sphingomyelinase",
"b-Galactosidase",
"Cerebrosidase"
] | B | (Sphingomyelinase): Ref: 206-LP, 203-HP (56- R.S.7th)NIEMANN-PICK DISEASE: -* Sphingomyelinase deficiency* Enlarged liver and spleen filled with lipid* Severe mental retardation and neurodegeneration* Death in early childhood.* Tay-sach's disease (GM2-gangliosidosis): - hexosaaminidase A* GMi Gangliosidosis - b galactosidase* Metachromic Leukodystrophy (MLD): - Aryl sulfatase A* Fabry's disease - a - Galactosidase* Krabbe's disease - b Galactosidase* Gaucher's disease - b - Glucosidase* Farber's disease - Ceramide | train | med_mcqa | null |
Sign suggestive of carcinoma lung on chest X-ray is: | [
"Rib erosion",
"Central destruction within lesion",
"Flattening of diaphragm",
"Calcification"
] | A | Ans. Rib erosion | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most common cause of first trimester aboion is. | [
"Chromosomal abnormalities",
"Syphilis",
"Rhesus isoimmunization",
"Cervical incompetence"
] | A | Ans. is a i.e. Chromosomal abnormalities Aboion is spontaneous termination of pregnancy before the period of bility There are various definitions of aboion depending on the criteria for bility or survival of fetus. In the past, the criterion for bility was considered from 28 weeks onwards, but due to improvement in neonatal survival, this has been changed to 20th completed weeks". Another commonly used definition is the "-delivery of a fetus or any pa of product of conception with weight less than 500gms.'deg Incidence : About 15% of all conceptions end up in spontaneous aboions. Out of these 80% occur before 12 weeks i.e. in 1st trimester and among these 50-75% are due to chromosomal anomalies. Common causes of aboion : Petal factors Chromosomal abnormalities Hydropic degeneration of villi Multiple pregnancy Maternal factors Maternal infections like : TORCH infections, malaria,ureoplasma, chlamydia, brucella, spirochaetes Maternal medical disorders like : -- Hypeension -- Chronic renal disease -- Cyanotic hea disease -- Hemoglobinopathies Environmental factors like : -- Alcohol, caffeine. -- Exposure to radiation (> 5 rads) & anaesthetic gases Endocrine problems like : - Luteal phase defect (deficiency of progesterone) -- Thyroid abnormalities - hypothyroidism. - Poorly controlled diabetes mellitus -- PCOD Immunological causes : -- Antiphospholipid antibody syndrome -- Inherited thrombophilias Uterine factors like -- Cervical incompetence -- Mullerian anomalies - Large and multiple submucous leiomyoma -- Ashermann syndrome -- DES exposure in utero Others : Trauma; Subchorionic hematoma; Defective placentation Mnemonic to remember maternal causes of aboion--Mnemonic T = Trauma 12 = Infections/immunological causes M = Maternal medical diseases E' = Environmental factors/Endocrine problem D = Developmental/anatomical problems Mnemonic to remember maternal causes of aboion--Mnemonic T = Trauma 12 = Infections/immunological causes M = Maternal medical diseases E' = Environmental factors/Endocrine problem D = Developmental/anatomical problems | train | med_mcqa | null |
Essential pentosuria is due to defect in | [
"HMP pathway",
"Glycolysis",
"Gluconeogenesis",
"Uronic acid pathway"
] | D | It is an inborn error of metabolism.In the pathway, L-xylulose is conveed to D-xylulose by two enzymes, xylitol dehydrogenase, and xylulose reductase.Absence of any of these enzymes leads to pentosuria.Ref: DM Vasudevan, 7th edition, page no: 135 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following condition is characterized by abnormally large pulp chamber? | [
"Amelogenesis imperfecta",
"Regional odontodysplasia",
"Dentinogenesis imperfecta",
"Dentinal dysplasia type I"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Munchaussen syndrome is a | [
"Factitious disorder",
"Conversion disorder",
"Malingering",
"Dissassociation disorder"
] | A | (A) Factitious disorder # FACTITIOUS DISORDERS are conditions in which a person acts as if he or she has an illness by deliberately producing, feigning, or exaggerating symptoms. Factitious disorder by proxy is a condition in which a person deliberately produces, feigns, or exaggerates symptoms in a person who is in their care. Munchausen syndrome is an older term for Factitious disorder. People with this condition may produce symptoms by contaminating urine samples, taking hallucinogens, injecting themselves with bacteria to produce infections, and other such similar behaviour. They might be motivated to perpetrate factitious disorders either as a patient or by proxy as a caregiver to gain any variety of benefits including attention, nurturance, sympathy, and leniency that are unobtainable any other way. Somatoform disorders are characterised by multiple somatic complaints. Conversion disorder is a condition in which you show psychological stress in physical ways. The condition was so named to describe a health problem that starts as a mental or emotional crisis -- a scary or stressful incident of some kind -- and converts to a physical problem. Malingering is a medical term that refers to fabricating or exaggerating the symptoms of mental or physical disorders for a variety of "secondary gain" motives, which may include financial compensation (often tied to fraud); avoiding school, work or military service; obtaining drugs; getting lighter criminal sentences; or simply to attract attention or sympathy. Dissociation is an altered state of consciousness characterized by partial or complete disruption of the normal integration of a person's normal conscious or psychological functioning. Dissociation is most commonly experienced as a subjective perception of one's consciousness being detached from one's emotions, body and/or immediate surroundings. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Cetrimide is | [
"Aldehyde",
"Halogen",
"Phenol",
"Quaernary ammonium compounds"
] | D | Cetrimide is Quaernary ammonium compounds. Lysol, Cresol derivatives of coal tar are a type of phenols Formaldehyde and glutaraldehyde are aldehydes Iodine and chlorine are halogens Ref : Ananthanarayana textbook of Microbiology 9th edition Pgno : 33 | train | med_mcqa | null |
A patient of diabetes mellitus with hypeension, the goal blood pressure to be maintained is ? | [
"<160/90 mm Hg",
"<130/80 mm Hg",
"<140/80 mm Hg",
"<120/80 mm Hg"
] | B | According to European Society of Cardiology guidelines (2018)) Category Target 1. All patient 140/90 mmHg - Initially * <65 years - < 130/80mmHg *>= 65 years -<140/90mmHg 2. HTN with CKD <140/80 mmHg 3. HTN with DM <130/80 mmHg | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following are true regarding removal of dentin smear layer during root canal preparation except: | [
"Removal of dentin smear layer is done by using 37% EDTA",
"Dentin smear layer contains debris and microoroganism",
"Removal of dentin smear layer removes microorganism",
"Removal of dentin smear layer is enhanced by EDTA"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
One unit of fresh blood rises the Hb% concentration by: | [
"0.1 gm%",
"1 gm%",
"2gm%",
"2.2 gm%"
] | B | In general for a stable, euvolemic adult patient, the transfusion of 1 unit of packed cells raises the hemoglobin concentration by 1g/dl. Ref: Fundamentals of Surgical Practice By Andrew Kingsnoh, Douglas Bowley, 3rd Edition, Page 234; Bailey and Love's Sho Practice of Surgery, 24th Edition, Page 62. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Treatment of whooping cough is : | [
"Rifampicin",
"Tetracycline",
"Erythromycin",
"Ampicillin"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' Erythromycin DOC for pertussis infection - ErythromycinDOC is one of the favorites of all paper setters. Below given list will be helpful to tackle these type of questions.Drug of choice for suspected or proved microbial pathogens (according to Harrison's 16th/e)Infective organismDrugs of choiceReferenceCommentsGram-Positive CocciPenicillinP.822AlternativeStaphylococcal inf.- Sensitive to penicillinNafcillin, cefazolin, Vancomycin- Sensitive to methicillinNafcillin or oxacillinP.822Cefazolin, Vancomycin- Resistant to methicillinVancomycinP.822TMP-SMX, Minocycline-Resistant to methicillin with intermediate or complete resistance to vancomycinUncertainP.822 * Streptococcal inf. Group A - PharyngitisBenzathine Penicillin GP.825 - ImpetigoBenzathine Penicillin GP.825 - Erysipelas/cellulitisSevere - Penicillin G mild to moderate - Procaine Penicillin GP.825 - Necrotizing Fascitis/myositisSurgical debridement + Penicillin G + ClindamycinP.825 - Pneumonia/empyemaPenicillin G + Drainage of empyemaP.825 - Streptococcal toxic shock syndromePenicillin G + Clindamycin + intravenous immunoglobulinP.825 Group BPenicillinP.829Penicillin is the t/t of choice for all group B streptococcal infectionGroup DEnterococci and non enterococcalCombination therapyIf penicillin allergicPenicillin or Ampicillin + Gentamycin Vancomycin in combination with GentamycinP.830Enterococci are resistant to all cephalosporins therefore this class of antibiotic should not be used for t/t of enterococcal infections.Viridans streptococciPenicillinP.831In neutropenic pts the t/t is first started with vancomycin (as they are often resistant to penicillin)* Streptococcus pneumoniaeFor otitis mediaAmoxicillin812,813Second line - Amoxicillin Third line - ceftriaxoneFor PneumococcalPneumoniaOral therapy - amoxicillin, quinolone eg. GatifloxacinParenteral - Penicillin, Ampicillin, therapy Ceftriaxone, cefotaxime, Quinolone * Streptococcus meningitis - Antibiotic susceptibility unknownT/t with ceftriaxone + vancomycin812, 813 - Susceptibility results availableSusceptible - Ceftriaxone Resistant - T/t with both ceftriaxone & Vancomycin - Life threating penicillin allergyT/t with imipenem Gram - negative Cocci * Meningococcus (Neisseria Meningitis)Penicillin for confirmed invasin meningococcal diseaseP.853Alternatives - Chloramphenicol, Meropenem* Moraxella CatarrhalisPenicillin/Clavulanic acid is highly appropriateP.863Alternatives - Cephalosporins (2nd or 3rd generation) Tetracyclines, Macrolides, Ketolide, Trimethoprim - Sulfamethoxazole* Gonococcal infectionCervix, urethra, pharynx RectumFirst line-Ceftriaxone, Ciprofloxacin ofloxacin861Alternative- Spectinomycin, Ceftizoxime, CefotetanGonococcal conjunctivitisCeftriaxone861 Ophthalmia neonatorumCeftriaxone861 Disseminated gonococcal infectionPatient tolerant of b lactam drugsCeftriaxone, Cefotaxime, Ceftizoxime Patient allergic to b lactam drugsCiprofloxacin, Ofloxacin, Spectinomycin Continuation therapyCiprofloxacin, Ofloxacin, Levofloxacin Gonorrhoeae EpididymitisCeftriaxone followed by doxycycline765 Gonococcal urethritisCefpodoxime or ceftriaxone or fluoroquinolones765 P1DORALRegimen A - Ofloxacin or levofloxacin Plus metronidazoleRegimen B - Ceftriaxone plus doxycycline plus metronidazolePARENTERALRegimen A - Cefotetan or cefoxitin plus GentamycinRegimen B - Clindamycin Plus gentamycin771 Gram-Positive bacilli:Ciprofloxacin or doxycycline +Rifampicin, penicillin or ChloramphenicolP. 710 Bacillus Anthrax ClostridiumGas gangrenePenicillin (i.v.) + clindamycinP.761 Clostridial sepsisPenicillin (i.v.) + ClindamycinP. 761 Suppurative deep tissue infectionsPenicillin (i.v.) + Gentamycin or third generation cephalosporinP. 761 Clostridium difficile (diarrhoea)Metronidazole and vancomycinP. 761use of vancomycin in first episodes is discouraged because of possible drug resistanceClostridium tetaniI.V. PenicillinP.841Some prefer metronidazoleDiphtheria (Respiratory)Erythromycin or Procaine penicillin834, 835Administration of diptheria antitoxin is the most important element in the t/t of respiratory diphtheriaListeria monocytogenesI.V. ampicillin or PenicillinP.839 Enteric Gram-negative bacilliCefotaxime, Ceftizoxime, Ceftriaxone ceftazidime, CefepimeFluoroquinolones, nitrofurantoinC.M.D.T. 2004 1487- 881. (37.1) Escherichia Coli SepsisUrinary infection Klebsiella infectionsCarbapenemsP.883Imipenem remain the most active antibiotic class against KlebsiellaSalmonellaCiprofloxacin, ceftriaxoneP.900Alternative-Azithromycin, ciprofloxacinShigellaIn developing countries In U.S.A.Nalidixic acid Ampicillin,Cotrimoxazole Ciprofloxacin, Azithromycin CefiximeP.906 CampylobacterErythromycinP.909 Yersinia pestis (Plague)StreptomycinP.925Gentamycin is considered as effectiveAlternative-Tetracycline & chloramphenicolOther Gram-Negative bacilliInitial t/t consists of cephalosporins such as Ceftriaxone or cefotaximeP.865Alternative - Penicillin + ChloramphenicolHaemophilus infectionsHaemophilus influenzae 'b' Haemophilus ducreyiThe recommended t/t is a single 1 gm oral dose of azithromycinP.867Alternative - Ceftriaxone ciprofloxacin, ErythromycinPertussisMacrolides Antibiotics - Erythromycin, clarithromycin, AzithromycinP.877Trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole can be given to macrolide allergic patientsLegionellaNewer Macrolides - Azithromycin, clarithromycin, Respiratory Quinolones - levofloxacin, moxifloxacin GemifloxacinP.873 DonovanosisAzithromycin, Erythromycin, Tetracycline, DoxycyclineP. 933Azithromycin begin increasingly used as first choiceBrucellaMonotherapy - Streptomycin Dual therapy - Streptomycin & Tetracycline917, 916The gold standard is Ultra muscular streptomycin together with doxycyclineTularemiaStreptomycin (i.m.) for both adult & childrenP.921 Gardnerella VaginosisMetronidazoleP. 767 ChlamydiaChlamydia trachomatisAzithromycin1015-18Erythromycin is D.O.C. is pregnant womenChlamydia psittaci Chlamydia pneumoniaeTetracyclineErythromycin, Tetracycline, AzithromycinP. 1018Alternatives - FluoroquinolonesChlamydia urethritisAzithromycin or DoxycyclineP. 765 Rickettsial infections Rocky mountain spotted feverDoxycycline1001-02 Rickettsial PoxDoxycycline or Ciprofloxacin1001-02 Endemic typhusDoxycycline or Chloramphenicol1001-02 Epidemic typhusDoxycycline1001-02 Scrub typhusDoxycycline or Chloramphenicol1001-02 * Spirochetes P.983 Syphilis Primary, Secondary>> or early latentPenicillin G benzathine Late Latent cardiovascular or benign tertiaryNormal C.S.F. - Penicillin benzathine Abnormal C.S.F. T/T as neurosyphilis Neuro syphilisAqueous Penicillin G or Aqueous Penicillin G Procaine Syphilis in pregnancyAccording to stage LeptospirosisMild - Doxycycline, Ampicillin or AmoxicillinModerate/Severe - Penicillin G, Ampicillin,Amoxicillin, ErythromycinP.911 BorreliaRelapsing fever Lyme diseaseDoxycycline (or other tetracyclines) Erythromycin, ChloramphenicolP.995 Oral therapy - Adult - Doxycycline < 9 year AmoxicillinIntravenous therapy - Ceftriaxone Second choice - Amoxicillin Third choice - cefuroxime Second choice - Cefotaxime Third choice - Na PenicillinMycoplasmaErythromycin or doxycyclineCMDT 2004 P. 1489Alternatives - Clarithromycin Azithromycin, Fluoroquinolone Third generation cephalosporins or cefotaxime in the initial therapy as it also covers meningitis causing bacteriaActinomycetesActinomycosisNocardiaPenicillinP.939 Sulfonamides minocycline is an acceptable alternativeP.937Some believe that cotrimoxazole may be more effective but it poses a greater risk of hematological toxicityHelminthic infections * Cestodes H. NanaPraziquantelP. 1276 Taenia saginataPraziquantelP. 1273 Taenia SoliumPraziquantelP. 1274 * TrematodeSchistosomiasisPraziquantelP. 1271 Liver flukes Lung flukesPraziquantelPraziquantelP. 1271 * Nematodes (tissues) TrichinellaEnteric stage - Mebendazole & AlbendazoleP. 1254Trichinella larva in muscle (Drugs ineffective)* Intestinal Nematodes AscariasisAlbendazole, Mebendazole, Pyrantel Pamoate (used in Pregnant women)P. 1257 Hook wormAlbendazole, Mebendazole, Pyrantel PamoateP. 1258 StrongyloidiasisIvermectin,P. 1259Alternative - AlbendazoleTrichuriasis (Whipworm)Mebendazole or albendazoleP. 1259 Enterobiasis (Pinworm)Mebendazole, Albendazole, Pyrantel pamoateP. 1259 Extraintestinal Nematodes FilariaFilariasisTropical Pulmonary EosinophilaDiethyl carbimazole Diethyl carbimazoleP. 1262 P. 1263 OnchocerciasisIvermectin is the D.O.C.P. 1264 Dracunculiasis (Guinea worm)Metronidazole may relieve symptoms but has no proven activity against the wormP. 1265 Protozoal infections AmoebaAsymptomatic carrier Acute Colitis Amoebic liver abscessIodoquinol Paromomycin Metronidazole + Luminal agent MetronidazoleP. 1217 TrichomoniasisMetronidazoleP. 1252 GiardiasisMetronidazoleP. 1250 Toxoplasma infection Congenital infection Immunocompetent patients Immunocompromised patientsOral pyrimethamine and sulfadiazine usually do not require t/tTrimethoprim sulfamethoxazole (Alternative is dapsone - pyrimethamine)P. 1247 ANTIVIRAL Influenza A and B Prophylaxis TreatmentAmantadine or rimantadine Oseltamivir, Zanamivir, AmantadineP. 1028 t (162.1)Amantadine is used for influenza A onlyRSV InfectionRibavirin99 CMV-retinitis in immunocompromised host (AIDS)Ganciclovir Valganciclovir, Foscarnet, CidofovirVaricellaImmunocompetent host Immunocompromised hostAcyclovirAcyclovir" Herpes simplex EncephalitisAcyclovir" NeonatalAcyclovir GenitalPrimary (treatment) Recurrent (treatment)AcyclovirAcyclovir: KeratitisTrifluridineP. 10291 (162.1) Herpes zoster Immunocompromised host Immunocompetent hostAcyclovirValacyclovir>> Herpes zoster ophthalmicusAcyclovir" Condyloma acuminatumIFN-a2bIFN-a n3" Chronic hepatitis BIFN- a 2bLamivudineAdefovir Chronic hepatitis CIFN- a 2a or a 2b IFN- a 2b/ribavirin Pegylated-IFN- a 2b Pegylated-EFN- a 2b/ribavirin Pegylated-IFN- a 2a/ribavirin IFN ala conP. 10301 (162.1) Chronic hepatitis DIFN-a2a or -a2b" Antifungal"Intravenous amphotericin B is the drug of choice for the treatment of patient with disseminated histoplasmosis who are severely ill or immunosuppressed or whose infection involves the C.N.S."P. 1180 Histoplasmosis Acute pulmonaryNone" Chronic pulmonaryItraconazole"Alternatives - Amphotericin BDisseminated Immunocompetent patient less severeItraconazole Alternatives - Amphotericin BRapid progressive severe illness CNS involvement, HIV infectionAmphotericin B Alternatives - ItraconazoleCoccidioidomycosisPatients with ever or rapid progressive disseminated coccidioidomycosis are first given intravenous Amphotericin B patients whose condition improves or who have more indolent disseminated infection are given itraconazole1181-82 No risk factorsItraconazole or Fluconazole"Alternatives-ObservationRisk factors, severe illness, rapid progression or diffuse pulmonary infiltratesAmphotericin B Alternatives-Switch to Itraconazole or fluconazoleChronic dissemination (no CNS disease)Itraconazole or Fluconazole Alternatives-Amphotericin BMeningitisFluconazole"Alternatives-intrathecalAmphotericin BBlastomycosisI.V. Amphotericin B is the drug of choice for patients with rapidly progressive infections, severe illness or CNS lesions.1183-83 Rapid progressing or severe illnessAmphotericin B"Alternatives-Switch to nasale when condition stabilizeCNS diseaseAmphotericin B for 10-12 weeks Alternatives-Give fluconazole if patient improvesIndolent infectionItraconazole CryptococcosisDiseases in AIDS patientsAmphotericin BP. 1185Alternatives-itraconazoleDisease of Non AIDS patientsMeningitis - Amphotericin BPulmonary disease -Treatment immunosuppressed patients as for meningitis"Alternatives-Switch to fluconazoleAlternatives-itraconazoleCandidiasisCutaneousTopical Azole1187 VulvovaginalAzole cream or suppository or oral fluconazole"Alternatives-NystatinOropharyngealClotrimazole or fluconazole"Alternatives-NystatinEsophagealFluconazole tablet Alternatives-For azole Unresponsive diseaseDeeply invasiveNon neutropenic - Fluconazole or Amphotericin caspofungin Neutropenic - Amphotericin B AspergillosisFungus base of the lungSurgical resectionP. 1189Alternatives-Bead embolization for hemoptysisAllergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosisShort course of Glucocorticoids Alternatives-itraconazole prophylaxisInvasive aspergillosisVoriconazole liposomal or conventional Amphotericin B Alternatives-Amphotericin B colloidal dispersion or lipid complex itraconazole or caspofunginMucormycosisIntravenous amphotericin B is usefulP. 1190 Pityriasis versicolorAzole creams, Application of Selenium itraconazole is also effectiveP. 1192 SporotrichosisItraconazole is the drug of choiceP. 1193 MycetomaActinomycetomaEumycetomaStreptomycin Dapsone and Cotrimoxazole Rarely responds to chemotherapyP. 1192 PneumocystosisPneumocystis cariniiTrimethoprim, SulfamethoxazoleP. 1195These are D.O.C. for all forms of Pneumocystosis | train | med_mcqa | null |
Weight loss may be seen in all of the following except : | [
"Uremia",
"Pheochromacytoma",
"Adrenal insufficiency",
"Insulinoma"
] | D | Answer is D (Insulinoma); Insulinoma is characterised by an increase in weight (weight gain) and not by weight loss. Weight gain may result from increased food ingested to combat symptoms of hypoglycemia. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Granulomatous condition causing hypercalcemia include all of the following, except: | [
"TB",
"Sarciodosis",
"Berylliosis",
"SLE"
] | D | Answer is D (SLE): SLE is not classified as a granulomatous disease and is a rare cause of Hypercalcemia (Disseminated SLE). Sarcoidosis, Tuberculosis (TB) and Berylliosis are typical Granulomatous disorders causing hypercalcemia. Granulomatous causes of Hypercalcemia Infective Causes Tuberculosis Berylliosis Histoplasmosis Coccidoimycosis Pneumocystis Granulomatous Leprosy Cat-Scratch Disease Non-Infective Cause Sarcoidosis (Most common) Wegner's Granulomatosis Inflammatory Bowel Disease Histiocytosis-X Foreign body Granulomas Almost every single disease associated with Granuloma formation has been repoed to cause Hypercalcemia | train | med_mcqa | null |
First sign of puberty in females is? | [
"Pubarche",
"Thelarche",
"Menarche",
"Increase in height"
] | B | ANSWER: (B) ThelarcheREF: Nelson Textbook of Paediatrics 17th edition page 1882, http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/PubertyRepeat in December 2009In girls, the breast bud (Thelarche) is usually the first sign of puberty (10-11 yr), followed by the appearance of pubic hair 6-12 months later. The interval to menarche is usually 2-2.5 yr but may be as long as 6 yr. Peak height velocity occurs early (at breast stage II--III, typically between 11 and 12 yr of age) in girls and always precedes menarche.STAGES OF PUBERTY:Adrenarche -Gonadarche -Thelarche -Pubarche -MenarcheSpermarcheBoth males & femalesBoth males & femalesOnly femalesBoth males 8i femalesOnly femalesOnly males7 years8 years11 years12 years12.5 years11-15 years | train | med_mcqa | null |
All true except | [
"Patient on warfarin is contraindicated to LP",
"LMWH should be stopped 24 hours prior to LP",
"IV Heparin should be stopped 6 hours before LP",
"Aspirin is not a contraindication to lumbar puncture"
] | C | Ans. C. IV Heparin should be stopped 6 hours before LPExplanationLow dose aspirin <150 mg per day aspirin is not a contraindication to LP.DrugTime to stop before LPTime after LP to start anticoagulationHeparin2-4 hours2 hoursLMWH24 hours (Therapeutic)4 hoursFondaparinux72 hours12 hoursRivaroxaban72 hours fllHI6 hoursDabigatran120 hours6 hoursApixaban72 hours6 hoursPrasugrel7-10 days6 hoursTicagrelor5-7 days6 hoursClopidogrel7 days2 hours | train | med_mcqa | null |
Reverse cholesterol transport is done by: | [
"VLDL",
"LDL",
"HDL",
"Chylomicrons"
] | C | Ans. c (HDL). (Ref. Harper, Biochemistry, 25th/pg.270)LIPOPROTEINFUNCTIONSChylomicron- Delivers dietary triglycerides to peripheral tissues and dietary cholesterol to liver.- Secreted by intestinal epithelial cells.- Levels are classically increased in lipoprotein lipase deficiency.0- Excess causes pancreatitis, lipemia retinalis, and eruptive xanthomas.VLDL- Delivers hepatic triglycerides to peripheral tissues.- Secreted by liver.- Excess causes pancreatitis.LDL- Delivers hepatic cholesterol to peripheral tissues.- Formed by lipoprotein lipase modification of VLDL in the peripheral tissue.- Taken up by target cells via receptor-mediated endocytosis.- Classically increased in familial hypercholesterolemia.- Most atherogenic.0HDL- So called 'good cholesterol'(anti-atherogenic).- Mediates centripetal transport of cholesterol (reverse cholesterol transport).- Acts as a precursor for apoC and apoE (which are needed for chylomicron and VLDL metabolism).- Secreted from both liver and intestine. # Lowest density lipoprotein with largest size>> Chylomicrons.# Highest cholesterol containing lipoprotein (50%)>> LDL.# Least cholesterol containing lipoprotein (5%)>> Chylomicrons.# Highest triacyglycerol containing lipoprotein>> Chylomicromins.# Highest protein containing lipoprotein>> HDL (2) albumin FFA (1).# Least protein containing lipoprotein>> Chylomicrons.# Least triacyl glycerol containing lipoprotein (3%)>> HDL.# Highest phospholipid containing lipoprotein>> HDL.# Exogeous lipid transport from intestine to liver & extrahepatic tissues through>> Chylomicrons.# Endogeous lipid transport is from liver to extrahepatic tissues via>> VLDL.# Reverse cholesterol transport is from extrahepatic tissues to liver via>> HDL.# Essential fatty acids are arachidonic acid.>> Linoleic acid, lenolenic acid &# Fatty acid chain with ?1 double bonds are unsaturated fatty acids, e.g., linoleic acid--18:2, lenolenic acid--18:3, arachidonic acid--20:4.e>> Oleic acid, | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following are causes of "lupus", except : | [
"Hydralazine",
"Clofibrate",
"Penicillamine",
"Chlorpromazine"
] | B | Drugs associated with Lupus Erythematosus. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Function of hypo used in fixer is: | [
"Inactivates the carryover developing agent",
"Dissolves and removes the unexposed silver halide",
"Prevents damage to gelatin",
"All of the above"
] | B | An aqueous solution of ammonium thiosulfate (“hypo”) dissolves the unexposed silver halide grains. It forms stable, water-soluble complexes with silver ions, which diffuse from the emulsion. Excessive fixation (hours) results in a gradual loss of film density because the grains of silver slowly dissolve in the acetic acid of the fixing solution.
White and Pharoah's Oral Radiology Principles and Interpretation 8th edition | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 49-year-old man has had increasing knee and hip pain for the past 10 years. The pain is worse at the end of the day. During the past year, he has become increasingly drowsy at work. His wife complains that he is a "world class" snorer. During the past month, he has experienced bouts of sharp, colicky, right upper abdominal pain. On physical examination, his temperature is 37degC, pulse is 82/min, respirations are 10/ min, and blood pressure is 140/85 mm Hg. He is 175 cm (5 feet 8 inches) tall and weighs 156 kg (body mass index 51). Laboratory findings show glucose of 139 mg/dL, Hb A1c of 10, total cholesterol of 229 mg/dL, and HDL cholesterol of 33 mg/dL. An arterial blood gas measurement shows pH of 7.35; PCO2, 50 mm Hg; and PO2, 75 mm Hg. Which of the following additional conditions is most likely present in this man? | [
"Hashimoto thyroiditis",
"Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy",
"Laryngeal papillomatosis",
"Nonalcoholic fatty liver disease"
] | D | Morbid obesity can be associated with complications that include obesity hypoventilation syndrome, probable sleep apnea, glucose intolerance, cholelithiasis, and osteoarthritis. Macrovesicular steatosis with hepatomegaly is seen in obesity and may even progress to cirrhosis. Weight gain owing to hypothyroidism, which could occur in Hashimoto thyroiditis, is modest and does not lead to morbid obesity. An "obesity cardiomyopathy" resembles dilated cardiomyopathy, but not hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, which typically involves the interventricular septum with myofiber disarray. Laryngeal papillomatosis, which produces airway obstruction (without snoring), occurs more often in children and is not associated with obesity. The blood gas findings in this case could be seen in emphysema, which is not a complication of obesity; panlobular emphysema is much less common than the centrilobular emphysema associated with smoking. Rheumatoid arthritis tends to involve small joints first, and there is no relationship to obesity. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The advantage of Bladder drainage over Enteric drainage after Pancreatic Transplantation is better monitoring of : | [
"HBA I C levels",
"Amylase levels",
"Glucose levels",
"Electrolyte levels"
] | B | Answer is B (Amylase levels): The major advantage of Bladder drainage is the ability to measure urinary amylase which can facilitate early diagnosis of rejection. 'Urinary drainage of the pancreas has the advantage that urinary amylase levels can he used to monitor graft rejection' Exocrine Drainage after Pancreatic Transplantation Enteric Drainage The whole pancreas along with a segment of donor duodenum is transplanted into the recipient small bowel All exocrine secretions / enzymes are drained into the bowel and excreted with the stool Major Advantage of Enteric Drainage (Disadvantage of Bladder Drainage) Fewer Urinary tract infections /Urological complications (Urological complications are more common with bladder drainage) Fewer Metabolic complications (eg Acidosis) (Metabolic complications such as metabolic acidosis are more common with bladder drainage) Lesser incidence of Reflux Pancreatitis (Reflux Pancreatitis is more common with bladder drainage) Bladder Drainage The whole pancreas along with a segment of donor duodenum is transplanted into the recipient bladder All exocrine secretions / enzymes are drained into the bladder and excreted urine Major Advantages of Bladder Drainage (Disadvantage of Enteric drainage) Ability to measure urinary amylase which can facilitate early diagnosis of rejection (A fall in urinary amylase usually precedes a rise in systemic blood glucose during rejection such that anti-rejection treatment can be commenced sooner) Lower rate of Technical failure (Procedure related complications) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Common cause of congenital stridor in child- | [
"Laiyngomalacia",
"Laryngeal web",
"Hemangioma",
"Subglottic stenosis"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Laryngomalacia STRIDORo Due to upper airway obstruction, o Types -Inspiratory stridor - Obstruction above vocal cords (supraglottic).Expiratory stridor - Obstriction distal trachea.Diphasic - From supraglottic or proximal tracheal.Causeso Infective:Croup (lanyngo tracheo bronchitis)Bacterial trachetisRetropharyngeal abscess o Congenital:Laryngumalacia: 60% of all total most common cause.Vocal cord paralysis - 2nd most common.Subglottic stenosis - 3rd most common.o Iatrogenic : Long term intubation leads to subglottic stenosis - most common causes of aquired stridor in children,o Neoplasm : Recurrent respiratory papilloma (RRP) MC benign tumor and laynx. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Diagnostic criteria of Metabolic syndrome include (s) - | [
"High serum homocysteine",
"High serum triglyceride",
"High serum adiponectin",
"Low HDL cholesterol"
] | B | Ref: KV Krishna Das - Clinical Medicine 4th Edition pg no:29 The combination of abdominal obesity with metabolic risk factors such as hyperglycemia and dyslipidemia and hypeension is termed "metabolic syndrome" | train | med_mcqa | null |
Bacteria that grow optimally at 25-40oC are called as | [
"Thermophiles",
"Cryophiles",
"Psychrophiles",
"Mesophiles"
] | D | Psychrophilic forms grow best at low temperatures (-5 to 15degC) and are usually found in such environments as the Arctic and Antarctic regionspsychrotrophs have a temperature optimum between 20degC and 30degC but grow well at lower temperatures. They are an impoant cause of food spoilage. Mesophilic forms grow best at 30-37degC, most thermophilic forms grow best at 50-60degC. Some organisms are hypehermophilic and can grow at well above the temperature of boiling water, which exists under high pressure in the depths of the ocean.Jawetz microbiology 27E pg: 72 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Surest proof of antemoem burn is | [
"Heat rupture",
"Presence of soots beyond the tracheal bifurcation",
"Blackening of bones",
"Clean laryngeal airway"
] | B | In case of burns, if death has occurred from suffocation,aspirated blackish coal paicles are seen in the nose,mouth,larynx,trachea,bronchi,oesophagus and stomach, and blood is cherry red. Presence of carbon paicles especially in the terminal bronchioles and an elevated CO saturation together are absolute proof that the victim was alive when the fire occurred. In the absence of CO in blood and soot in the airways,death may possibly result due to poisoning with carbon dioxide or deficiency of oxygen. Sometimes inhalation of smoke produces vomiting which may be inhaled and found in the smaller bronchi. Ref: K.S.Narayan Reddy's Synopsis of Forensic Medicine and Toxicology, 29th edition, Chapter 11, page-163. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The operation that precipitates poosystemic encephalopathy is - | [
"Splenorenal shunt",
"Siguira operation",
"Talma-Marison Operation",
"Poacaval anastomosis"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Poacaval anastomosis | train | med_mcqa | null |
WHO ORS contains – | [
"Sodium chloride 2.5 g",
"Potassium chloride 1.5 g",
"Glucose 20 g",
"Shift of water from ECF to ICF"
] | B | Because of the improved effectiveness of reduced osmolarity ORS solution, WHO and UNICEF are recommending that countries manufacture and use the following formulation in place of the previously recommended ORS solution.
Composition of reduced osmolarity ORS | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which one of the following drugs has narrow therapeutic range ? | [
"Propranolol",
"Phenytoin",
"Piroxicam",
"Prazosin"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Allergic hy persensitivity is mediated by - | [
"IgM",
"IgG",
"IgD",
"IgE"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e., IgE o Allergic reactions (eczema, hay fever, asthma, atopy) are type I hypersensitivity, which are IgE mediated.Hypersensitivity reactionso The immune system is an integral part of human protection against disease, but the normally protective immune mechanisms can sometimes causes detrimental reactions in the host,o Such reactions are known as hypersensitivity reactions.o Currently the most commonly used classification system of hypersensitivity is that of Gell and coombs classification that divides the hypersensitivity into the following 4 types -1 Type I reactions (immediate hypersensitivity) - Involve immunoglobulin 'E'(Ig E) mediatiate release of Histamine and other mediators from mast cells and basophils.2 Type II reactions (Antibody mediated) -Involve immunoglobulin G or Immunoglobulin M bound to cell surface antigen, with subsequent complement fixation.3 Type III reactions (I mmu ne complex mediated) - involve circulating antigen-antibody complexes that deposit in postcapillary venules, with subsequent complement fixation.4 Type IV reactions (delayed hypersensitity, cell mediated) - Mediated by Tcells. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Age is an example of which of the following scales? | [
"Nominal",
"Ordinal",
"Interval",
"Ratio"
] | D | Metric scale is fuher divided into interval and ratio scales. In a ratio scale, there is a definite zero point and it is correct to say that an age of 6 years is twice that of 3 years. Ref: Medical biostatistics, 1st edition pg: 99 | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 35 years old male came with a progressive plaque over buttock for the last 2 years.The plaque is annular in shape with scarring in centre. Most likely diagnosis is: | [
"Tinea corporis",
"Lupus vulgaris",
"Borderline leprosy",
"Kala azar"
] | B | Annular plaque, progressive in nature with typical central scarring suggest of lupus vulgaris.
Central clearing : Tinea corporis
Central crusting : Kala azar | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which one is a contraindication to the use of ergot derivatives : | [
"Migraine",
"Hyperprolactinemia",
"Obstructive vascular disease",
"Postpartum hemorrhage"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Basal ganglia calcification is seen in all, EXCEPT: | [
"Hypoparathyroidism",
"Wilson's disease",
"Perinatal hypoxia",
"Fahr's syndrome"
] | B | There is no association between the neurological manifestations of Wilson's disease and basal ganglia calcification. Ref: Wilson's Disease By George J. Brewer; Pages 3 - 5; Differential Diagnosis in Neurology and Neurosurgery By S. Tsementzis. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Thrombomodulin-thrombin complex prevents clotting because | [
"Thrombomodulin inhibits prothrombin activator",
"Thrombomodulin-thrombin complex activities anti-thrombin III",
"The binding of thrombomodulin with thrombin removes thrombin and also activities a plasma protein C which inactivates activated factors V & VIII",
"Thrombomodulin-thrombin complex activates hepari... | C | The endothelium of the blood vessels also plays an active role in preventing the extension of clots. All endothelial cells except those in the cerebral microcirculation produce thrombomodulin, a thrombin-binding protein, on their surfaces. In circulating blood, thrombin is a procoagulant that activates factors V and VIII, but when it binds to thrombomodulin, it becomes an anticoagulant in that the thrombomodulin-thrombin complex activates protein C. Activated protein C (APC), along with its cofactor protein S, inactivates factors V and VIII and inactivates an inhibitor of tissue plasminogen activator, increasing the formation of plasmin.Ref: Ganong&;s Review of medical physiology 25th edition. Page: 565 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Broca's area is concerned with: | [
"Word formation",
"Comprehension",
"Repetition",
"Reading"
] | A | Broca'a area (area 44 & 45; inferior frontal gyrus) is responsible for motor aspect of speech and language, such as word formation. Wernicke's area (area 22; superior temporal lobe) is responsible for comprehension of language. These areas are found in the dominant hemisphere. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is not included in the "Malnutrition universal screening tool" (MUST) for assessment of risk of undernutrition ? | [
"Age",
"BMI",
"Weight loss",
"Acute disease effect"
] | A | The MUST tool: | train | med_mcqa | null |
Na+-1C+ ATPase is a - | [
"Extrinsic protein",
"Peripheral protein",
"Transmembrane protein",
"Intracellular proteins"
] | C | Ans. is'c'i.e., Transmembrane proteinlRef: Principles of medical physiology p. 5I2) .Ion pumps (including Na* - K. ATPase) and channels are integral (Transmembrane) proteins. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Wof is true regarding tolerance occurring in regular opium abusers | [
"Tolerance develops to all actions of morphine",
"No tolerance occurs to euphoric and sedative actions of morphine",
"No tolerance occurs to constipating and miotic actions of morphine",
"Lethal dose of morphine is not significantly increased"
] | C | Tolerance and dependence :- High degree of tolerance can be developed to morphine and related opioids if the drug is used repeatedly. It is paly pharmacokinetic (enhanced rate of metabolism), but mainly pharmacodynamic (cellular tolerance). Tolerance is exhibited to most actions, but not to constipating and miotic actions. Addicts tolerate morphine in grams: lethal dose is markedly increased. Ref:- kd tripathi; pg num:-473 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Radius of Inner circle in the Logo given below is:- | [
"0.5 R",
"1.0 R",
"1.5 R",
"5 R"
] | C | Logo given question is of Radiation Hazard:- Central circles of radius R, an internal radius of 1.5R and an external radius of 5R for the blades, which are separated from each other by 60 degree. Trefoil is black in the international version. Commonly referred to as a Radioactivity warning sign, but it is actually a warning sign of ionizing radiation. Includes X-ray apparatus, medical beam cannons and paicle accelerators. | train | med_mcqa | null |
In fatty acid synthesis CO2 loss occurs in which step | [
"Hydration",
"Dehydration",
"Condensation reaction",
"Reduction"
] | C | C i.e. Condensation reaction | train | med_mcqa | null |
After her first urinary tract infection (UTI), a 1-year-old girl has a voiding cystourethrogram with findings shown below. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment option? | [
"Low-dose daily antibiotics",
"Immediate surgical reimplantation of the ureters",
"Weekly urinalyses and culture",
"Diet low in protein"
] | A | The radiograph shows reflux into the ureters and into the kidney, with dilation of the renal pelvis, making the diagnosis of vesicoureteral reflux (VUR). The higher the reflux into the renal system, especially if the renal pelvis is dilated, the more likely it is for renal damage to occur; the grading system is based upon these radiographic observations. Grade I VUR is reflux of urine into an undilated ureter. Reflux into the ureter and collecting system without dilatation is called grade II. Grade III lesions have dilatation of the ureter and collecting system without blunting of the calyces. Grade IV lesions are characterized by blunting of the calyces, and grade V lesions demonstrate even more dilatation and tortuosity of the ureter. While somewhat controversial, low-grade lesions (grade I and grade II) usually are conservatively managed with close observation, daily low-dose antibiotics, and urinalyses and cultures every 3 to 4 months. Grade V lesions (and some grade IV lesions) require surgical reimplantation of a ureter if the findings persist. Lesions in between these two extremes are treatment dilemmas. Neither a diet low in protein nor early toilet training would likely affect the VUR. | train | med_mcqa | null |
KFD is transmitted by: | [
"Fleas",
"Mite",
"Tick",
"Mosquito"
] | C | Ans. c. Tick | train | med_mcqa | null |
What is the site of lesion in a patient with alexia without agraphia? | [
"Fusiform gyrus",
"Inferior occipital gyrus",
"Psalternum",
"Splenium"
] | D | Alexia without agraphia (or Pure alexia) Patient is unable to read, despite preservation of other aspects of language such as a spelling and writing. Due to lesions in left occipital coex and posterior pa of corpus callosum known as splenium. Due to interruption of visual input into language network. The blood vessel involved is posterior cerebral aery. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is not a component of SIRS? | [
"Oral temperature >38degC",
"Urine output < lml/kg/hour",
"Respiratory rate >24/minute",
"Systolic blood pressure"
] | B | Ans. b. Urine output < lml/kg/hour | train | med_mcqa | null |
The type of receptors present on T cells are - | [
"IgG",
"IgD",
"CD4",
"Protaglandins"
] | C | T helper cells (TH cells) assist other white blood cells in immunologic processes, including maturation of B cells into plasma cells and memory B cells, and activation of cytotoxic T cells and macrophages. These cells are also known as CD4+ T cells because they express the CD4 glycoprotein on their surfaces. Reff: Ananthanarayanan & Panikers textbook of microbiology 9th edition pg: 133 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Ulnar nerve injury at wrist involves following except : | [
"Palmar interossei",
"Opponems pollicis",
"Dorsal interossei",
"Adductor pollicis"
] | B | B. i.e. Oppenens polices Ulnar nerve in hand supply-3rd & 4"1 lumbricals, interossei (pabnar & dorsal), adductor pollicis & hypothenar musclesQ. | train | med_mcqa | null |
True about keratoconus - | [
"Progressive thickening of sclera",
"Fleischer ring seen",
"Soft contact lens not used",
"myopia"
] | A | Signs of Keratoconus. Following signs may be elicited:1. Window reflex is distoed.2. Placido disc examination shows irregularity ofthe circles (Fig. 5.18B).3. Keratometry depicts extreme malalignment ofmires.4. Photokeratoscopy reveals distoion of circles.5. Slit lamp examination (Fig. 5.18C) may showthinning and ectasia of central cornea, opacity atthe apex and Fleischer's ring at the base of cone,folds in Descemet's and Bowman's membranes.Very fine, veical, deep stromal striae (Vogt lines)which disappear with external pressure on theglobe are peculiar feature.6. On retinoscopy a yawning reflex (scissor reflex)and high oblique or irregular astigmatism isobtained.7. On distant direct ophthalmoscopy an annulardark shadow (due to total internal reflection oflight) is seen which separates the central andperipheral areas of cornea (oil droplet reflex).8. Munson's sign, i.e. localised bulging of lower lidwhen patient looks down is positive in late stages REF:Comprehensive ophthalmology,4th edition,pg no.119 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Organophosphate insecticides are all except – a) Dieldrinb) Fenthion c) Diazinond) Propoxure) Lindane | [
"acd",
"bde",
"ade",
"ad"
] | C | Organo-phosphorus Insecticides:
– Malathion – Parathion
– Fenthion – Diazinon
– Fenitrothion – Chlorpyrifos
– Dioxathion – Chlorthion
Organo-chlorine Insecticides:
– DDT – BHC (HCH)
– Lindane – Dieldrin
Carbamate Insecticides:
– Carbaryl – Propoxur | train | med_mcqa | null |
Bleomycin causes damage to | [
"Type 1 pneumocytes",
"Type 2 pneumocytes",
"Both Type 1 and Type 2 pneumocytes",
"Pulmonary endothelial cells"
] | A | Bleomycin causes damage to Type 1 pneumocytes with compensatory hyperplasia of Type 2 pneumocytes. | train | med_mcqa | null |
When to do surgery in pancreatic ascites? | [
"Symptomatic",
"Recurrent ascites following abdominal drainage",
"Not responding to medical therapy",
"Leak from the stented duct"
] | B | PANCREATIC ASCITES: MANAGEMENT Pancreatic ascites occurs from a pancreatic duct disruption or from a leaking pseudocyst. High amylase levels are found in the ascitic fluid. Initial treatment: Non operative (elimination of enteral feeding, institution of nasogastric drainage, and administration of somatostatin) Repeat paracentesis may also be helpful. Roughly 50% to 60% of patients can be expected to respond to this treatment with resolution of pancreatic ascites within 2 to 3 weeks Persistent or recurrent ascites: Endoscopic or surgical treatment Endoscopic pancreatic sphincterotomy with or without placement of a transpapillary pancreatic duct stent . Resection (for leaks in the pancreatic tail) or internal Roux-en-Y drainage (for leaks in the head and neck region) | train | med_mcqa | null |
A patient presents with hematuria of several days and dysmorphic RBC casts in urine. The site of origin is: | [
"Kidney",
"Ureter",
"Bladder",
"Urethra"
] | A | Isolated microscopic hematuria with dysmorphic RBC casts can be a manifestation of glomerular diseases. The RBCs of glomerular origin are often dysmorphic when examined by phase-contrast microscopy. Irregular shapes of RBCs may also result from pH and osmolarity changes produced along the distal nephron. The most common etiologies of isolated glomerular hematuria are IgA nephropathy, hereditary nephritis, and thin basement membrane disease. IgA nephropathy and hereditary nephritis can lead to episodic gross hematuria. Isolated hematuria without proteinuria, other cells, or casts is often indicative of bleeding from the urinary tract. Ref: Cooper C.S., Joudi F.N., Williams R.D. (2010). Chapter 38. Urology. In G.M. Dohey (Ed), CURRENT Diagnosis & Treatment: Surgery, 13e. | train | med_mcqa | null |
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