question stringlengths 1 6.54k | choices listlengths 4 4 | answer stringclasses 4
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Emphysema aquosom is associated with? | [
"Dry drowning",
"Wet drowning",
"Immersion syndrome",
"Secondary drowning"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e. Wet drowning o There are two similarly looking terms, related to drowning : (i) emphysema aquosum and oedema aquosum.o Emphysema aquosum is seen in wet drowning. In this condition, the lungs are characterized by rupture of aleveolar spaces with accumulation of haemolysed blood with water and small amount of air. This condition results from violent respiratory efforts when the victim is submerged in conscious state.o Oedema aquosum is a condition of lung characterized by oedematous change due accumulation of some water in lung. This condition results due to passive enterance of water in the lungs when the victim is submerged in unconscious state having no violent effort for respiration. It is seen in submersion of unconscious. | train | med_mcqa | null |
48 y old male patient with anterior myocardial infarction has undergone a primary angioplasty with a bare metal stent . You are posted as a junior resident in the ward preparing a discharge card . What duration of antiplatelets will you advise to the patient ? | [
"Dual antiplatelets for 12months and then aspirin longterm",
"Ticagrelor for 1month and aspirin longterm",
"Aspirin for 1month and ticagrelor longterm",
"Ticagrelor alone is adequate longterm"
] | A | Stent thrombosis Prevention Acute (<24 h) Dual antiplatelet therapy (DAPT) Subacute(1-30 days) -Aspirin -P2Y12 receptor blocker(ticagrelor) Late (30 days-1 year) DAPT for up to 1 year - If DAPT is discontinued in the 1st month- 3 - 9 fold increased risk for stent thrombosis. - If elective surgery has to be done where discontinuation of antiplatelet therapy is required, surgery should be postponed for minimum 3 months and ideally for 6 months. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The following structure may be injured during the repair of an inguinal hernia | [
"Ilioinguinal nerve",
"Lateral femoral urtaneous nerve",
"Iliohypogastic nerve",
"All of the above"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
The main cause of increased blood flow to exercising muscles is : | [
"Raised blood pressure",
"Vasodilatation due to local metabolites",
"Increased sympathetic discharge to peripheral vessels",
"Increased hea rate"
] | B | B i.e. Vasodilatation due to local metabolites | train | med_mcqa | null |
Unaltered final product of TCA cycle ? | [
"Oxaloacetate",
"Acetyl CoA",
"CO2",
"Pyrovate"
] | A | TCA cycle consists of sequential reactions. It begins with condensation of four carbon oxaloacetate molecule with 2 carbon acetyl CoA molecule to form six carbon citrate molecule. In subsequent reaction two carbon atoms are lost in the form of CO2 at two different reactions. A series of modifications occur in the remaining four carbon atoms to ultimately form oxaloacetate. Thus the last substrate (oxaloacetate) of one cycle is ready for use as a substrate in the next cycle. In this way, there is no net generation of OAA, or of any of the cycle intermediates. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A female developed brown macule on the cheek, forehead and nose after exposure to light following delivery of a baby, the diagnosis is - | [
"SLE",
"Chloasma",
"Photodermatitis",
"Acne rosacea"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following are the features of phenytoin toxicity: | [
"Gum hyperophy",
"Acne rosacea",
"Exacerbation of acne vulgaris",
"Loss of hair"
] | A | Gum hyperophy: Commonest ( more in younger age (b) Hirsutism, coarsening of facial fea :-..:: c (troublesome in young girls), acne. REF: KD TRIPATIH 8TH ED. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following pharyngeal pouch give rise to ultimobranchial body? | [
"II",
"III",
"IV",
"V"
] | D | Pharyngeal pouch V give rise to ultimobranchial body which is a pa of the thyroid gland that give rise to parafollicular or C cells. Pharyngeal pouches and their derivatives: Pharyngeal pouchStructures derivedIMiddle ear cavity, eustachian tube, tympanic membraneIIPalatine tonsil, tonsillar fossaIIIInferior parathyroid gland, thymusIVSuperior parathyroid glandsVUltimobranchial bodyRef: Atlas of Neuroradiologic Embryology, Anatomy, and Variants edited by J. Randy Jinkins page 48 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Commonest cause of loss of vision in non- proliferative diabetic retinopathy is – | [
"Vitreous heamorrhage",
"Macular edema",
"Detachment of retina",
"Subretinal haemorrhage"
] | B | Macular edema is the most common cause of loss of vision in NPDR. | train | med_mcqa | null |
To store avulsed tooth, which kind of milk is shown to be suitable? | [
"Hot milk",
"Cold milk",
"Low fat milk",
"High fat milk"
] | C | Milk has shown to maintain the vitality of periodontal ligament cells for 3 hours.
Low fat milk is relatively bacteria-free with pH and osmolality compatible with vital cells.
Ref: Textbook of endodontics, Nisha Garg and Amit Garg, 3rd edition, pg no:476 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Maximum action of corpus luteum is at ......... day: | [
"7",
"9",
"11",
"22"
] | D | 22 | train | med_mcqa | null |
An enterococcus (E. faecium) was isolated from a urine specimen (100,000 cfu/mL). Treatment of the patient with ampicillin and gentamicin failed. The most clinically appropriate action is | [
"Do no further clinical workup",
"Suggest to the laboratory that low colony counts may reflect infection",
"Determine if fluorescent microscopy is available for the diagnosis of actinomycosis",
"Consider vancomycin as an alternative drug"
] | D | These questions demonstrate commonly occurring clinical infectious diseases and microbiologic problems. Enterococci may be resistant to ampicillin and gentamicin. Vancomycin would be the drug of choice. However, laboratory results do not always correlate well with clinical response. The National Committee on Clinical Laboratory Standards recommends testing enterococci only for ampicillin and vancomycin. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 2-year-old child, fed on milk diet, presents with persistent diarrhea, acidic stools (pH of stools less than 5.5) on two separate occassions and presence of 1% of reducing substances in the fresh stools. What is the most probable diagnosis: September 2012 | [
"Cystic fibrosis",
"Lactose intolerance",
"Rotavirus induced diarrhoea",
"Intestinal tuberculosis"
] | B | Ans. B i.e. Lactose intolerance | train | med_mcqa | null |
The tourniquet test is positive if the petechiae are more than: | [
"50 petechiae per square inch",
"40 petechiae per square inch",
"30 petechiae per square inch",
"20 petechiae per square inch"
] | D | Ans. D: 20 petechiae per square inch Dengue fever and dengue hemorrhagic fever (DHF) are acute febrile diseases and caused by four closely related virus serotypes of the genus Flavivirus, family Flaviviridae. Dengue is transmitted to humans by the Aedes aegypti (rarely Aedes albopictus) mosquito, which feeds during the day. This infectious disease is manifested by a sudden onset of fever, with severe headache, muscle and joint pains (myalgias and ahralgias -- severe pain gives it the name break-bone fever or bonecrusher disease) and rashes. The dengue rash is characteristically bright red petechiae and usually appears first on the lower limbs and the chest; in some patients, it spreads to cover most of the body. The classic dengue fever lasts about six to seven days, with a smaller peak of fever at the trailing end of the disease (the so-called "biphasic pattern"). Cases of DHF also show higher fever, haemorrhagic phenomena, thrombocytopenia, and haemoconcentration. A small propoion of cases lead to dengue shock syndrome (DSS) which has a high moality rate. The classic picture is high fever with no localising source of infection, a petechial rash with thrombocytopenia and relative leukopenia. The WHO criteria of dengue haemorrhagic fever; all four criteria must be fulfilled: Fever, bladder problem, constant headaches, severe dizziness and loss of appetite. Hemorrhagic tendency (positive tourniquet test, spontaneous bruising, bleeding from mucosa, gingiva, injection sites, etc.; vomiting blood, or bloody diarrhea) Thrombocytopenia (3or estimated as less than 3 platelets per high power field) Evidence of plasma leakage (hematocrit more than 20% higher than expected, or drop in haematocrit of 20% or more from baseline following IV fluid, pleural effusion, ascites, hypoproteinemia) A tourniquet test/ Rumpel-Leede Capillary-Fragility Test/capillary fragility test determines capillary fragility. The test is defined by the WHO as one of the necessary requisites for diagnosis of Dengue fever. A Mood pressure cuff is applied and inflated to a point between the systolic and diastolic blood pressures for five minutes. The test is positive if there are more than 20 petechiae per square inch. This est does not have high specificity. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is a sexual spore ? | [
"Chlamydospore",
"Sporangiospore",
"Ascospore",
"Phialoconidia"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Ascospore | train | med_mcqa | null |
Mannitol decreases the intraocular pressure by ? | [
"Withdrawing water from vitreous",
"Increasing uveoscleral outflow",
"Increasing aqueous through trabecular meshwork",
"Inhibiting the enzyme carbonic anhydrase in the ciliary body"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Withdrawing water from vitreous By osmotic action mannitol encourages movement of water from aqueous humour --> decrease. Mannitol is used in angle closure (narrow angle, acute congestive) glaucoma. Treatment of acute congestive glaucoma o Definitive therapy is surgery (laser iridotomy) Drugs are used to decrease the i.o.t. during an acute attack. o Approch is : Sta i.v. mannitol or i.v. acetazolamide When i.o.t. stas falling, sta topical pilocarpine or b -blocker (timolol). Apraclonidine/latanoprost may be added. Once i.o.t. is reduced, surgery is done. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Normal diurnal variation of intraocular pressure is: | [
"0-2 mm of Hg",
"2-3 mm of Hg",
"3-6 mm of Hg",
"6-8 mm of Hg"
] | C | Ans. 3-6 mm of Hg | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is the predominant site of erythropoiesis during 7 month of gestation? | [
"Yolk sac",
"Liver",
"BM",
"Thymus"
] | B | In the human, large nucleated blood cells are first formed in the yolk sac and some enucleate. During the second gestational month, erythropoiesis moves to fetal liver, wherein smaller, but still macrocytic, non nucleated cells are produced. At bih, the hepatic phase of blood cell production ceases, and erythropoiesis moves to the marrow. Ref: Prchal J.T. (2010). Chapter 31. Production of Erythrocytes. In J.T. Prchal, K. Kaushansky, M.A. Lichtman, T.J. Kipps, U. Seligsohn (Eds), Williams Hematology, 8e. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Antidote in Atropine poisoning is ? | [
"Flumazenil",
"Physostigmine",
"Naloxone",
"NaHCO3"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Physostigmine Atropine blocks cholinergic receptors. So, for atropine overdose, we require a drug that increases cholinergic action. Physostigmine increases the concentration of Ach. Physostigmine counteracts central (because it crosses BBB) as well as peripheral symptoms of atropine toxicity (other anticholinesterases like neostigmine and pyridostigmine counteract only peripheral symptoms as they cannot cross BBB) Physostigmine is the DOC. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Bronchial Asthma is characterized | [
"Inflammatory disease of airway",
"Allergic disease of air way",
"All",
"Hyper responsive ness of airway"
] | C | Asthma is associated with a specific chronic inflammation of the mucosa of the lower airways.The airway inflammation in asthma is associated with airway hyperresponsiveness(AHR).Patients with asthma commonly suffer from other atopic diseases,paicularly allergic rhinitis,which may be found in over 80% of asthmatic patients,and atopic dermatitis.The allergens that lead to sensitisation are usually proteins that have protease activity,and the most common allergens are derived from house dust mites,cat and dog fur,cockroaches,grass and tree pollens,etc. Reference:Harrison' s medicine-18th edition,page no:2102,2104. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All are true about neurotrophins except ? | [
"Help integrity of postsynaptic neurons",
"TrK B is associated with brain derived neurotrophic factor",
"Helps in growth of cholinergic neurons in basal forebrain",
"Always transpoed antegrade along the axon"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Always transpoed antegrade along the axon NeurotrophinsThis name is given to a group of proteins necessary for the survival and growth of neurons.Some of them are synthesized by extraneuronal structures innervated by the neurons, e.g. skeletal muscle innervated by alpha-motor neurons and tissue innervated by autonomic neurons.Many are produced by astrocytes.From the non-neural tissues, neurotrophins are taken up by endocytosis at the nerve terminal and transpoed to the soma by axonal retrograde transpo mechanism. | train | med_mcqa | null |
True regarding amyloidosis are, A/E ? | [
"Massive proteinuria",
"Mild hypeension",
"Normal kidney size",
"None"
] | D | Ans. is None o It is also the most serious form of organ involvement. The size of kidney is characteristically normal or increased. The earliest pathological change seen in renal amyloidosis is mesangial expansion by amorphous hyaline material and thickning of the glomerular basment membrane. o Amyloid is primarily deposited in the glomeruli, but interstitial peritubular tissue, aeries and aerioles are also affected. With time there is capillary narrowing and distoion of glomerular tufts. o Eventually the glomerulus obliterated completely. Clinical manifestations Nephrotic range proteinuria (most common) o Fanconi syndrome Edema (due to albuminemia) o Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus Azotemia (when there is tubular involvement) o Renal tubular acidosis Urine may show RBC cast. o Hypeension (in 20-50%) Renal vein thrombosis | train | med_mcqa | null |
Sickle cell anemia is characterized by:September 2010 | [
"Microcytosis",
"Macrocytosis",
"Splenomegaly",
"Autosplenectomy"
] | D | Ans. D: AutosplenectomySickle cell anemia causes autosplenism by causing hypoxia and infarcts in the spleen. Since in the spleen blood flow is sluggish, the oxygen tension is low.When red blood cells with hemogblobin S are exposed to this low oxygen tension they tend to aggregate and polymerize. Sickled cells also express more adhesion molecules and appear more sticky. The sickle cells arrest in the hypoxic vascular bed in the spleen, resulting in a vicious cycle: decrease in 02, sickling and vascular obstruction from thrombus formation. Initially the spleen is enlarged, then progressively becomes smaller. The stasis of flow in the spleen causes hypoxic damage, thrombosis, infarction and fibrosis. In the end the spleen "disappears" completely (termed 'autosplenectomy'). | train | med_mcqa | null |
Popcorn calcification is seen in: | [
"Pulmonary hamaoma",
"Fungal infection",
"Metastasis",
"Tuberculosis"
] | A | Ans. Pulmonary hamaoma | train | med_mcqa | null |
Secondary attack rate of chicken pox is around: | [
"60%",
"70%",
"80%",
"90%"
] | D | Chicken pox is highly contagious with secondary attack rates of nearly 90%. The period of communicability ranges from 1 to 2 days before onset of rash to 4 to 5 days thereafter. Ref: Park 21st edition, page 134 | train | med_mcqa | null |
When the sympathetic nervous system is activated: | [
"Norepinephrine is released by the vascular smooth muscle cells",
"Acetylcholine is released onto vascular smooth muscle cells",
"Norepinephrine is released from axons onto the arteriolar wall",
"The arterioles constrict because nitric oxide production is suppressed"
] | C | Ans. C. Norepinephrine is released from axons onto the arteriolar wallNerve fibers, not vascular smooth muscle, release norepinephrine. The norepinephrine from the sympathetic nerves simply diffuses from the axons and binds to specific receptors on smooth muscle cells. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is not true about Xenon anaesthesia – | [
"Non explosive",
"Minimal cardiovascular side effects",
"Slow induction and slow recovery",
"Low blood gas solubility"
] | C | Advantages of xenon : Inert, Minimal cardiovascular effects, nonexplosive, Rapid induction & recovery, Environmental friendly, does not trigger malignant hyperthermia.
Disadvantages of xenon : High cost, low potency, No commercially available anaesthesia equipment. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Warfarin skin necrosis is caused by- | [
"Protein C/Protein S deficiency",
"APLA",
"Vitamin K deficiency",
"Fibrinogen deficiency"
] | A | Ans. (a) Protein C/Protein S deficiency(Ref: Wintrobe's 12th/pg 1490)Warfarin skin necrosisDue to warfarin-induced rapid reduction in protein C levels in patients with a pre-existing inherited protein C deficiency that results in a hypercoagulable state and thrombosis.Not all heterozygous protein C-deficient patients receiving warfarin experience this complication, and not all patients with this complication have protein C deficiency. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following hormones have receptors on the plasma membrane of target tissues except | [
"Thyrotropin",
"Glucagon",
"Estradiol",
"Insulin"
] | C | b-Estradiol; 17b-estradiol; the most potent naturally occurring estrogen in mammals, formed by the ovary, placenta, testis, and possibly the adrenal coex; therapeutic indications for estradiol are those typical of an estrogen.Ref: Ganong&;s review of medical physiology; 24th edition; Page no: 403 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Estrogen in the OCP causes all the following except : | [
"Carcinoma in situ cervix",
"Breast carcinoma",
"Endometrial carcinoma",
"Thromoembolism"
] | A | Carcinoma in situ cervix | train | med_mcqa | null |
Iridocyclitis is a feature of – | [
"Juvenile rheumatoid arthritis with systemic involvement",
"Seropositive, pauciarticular, juvenile rheumatoid rthritis",
"Seronegative pauciarticular juvenile rheumatoid arthritis",
"Seropositive, polyarticular juvenile rheumatoid arthritis"
] | C | Anterior uveitis is more common in pauciarticular seronegative (RA factor negative) JRA. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most feared complication of endoscopic sinus surgery is? | [
"Retroorbital hematoma",
"CSF rhinorrhea",
"Internal carotid injury",
"Nasolacrimal duct injury"
] | C | ANSWER: (C) Internal carotid injury > (A) Retro orbital hematomaREF: Operative Otolaryngology: Head and Neck Surgery by Eugene N. Myers 2nd edition published by Elsevier chapter 20, Head and Neck Imaging by Peter M. Som and Hugh D. Curtin 5th edition published by Elsevier chapter 5Carotid artery injury during endonasal surgery is the most feared and catastrophic complication during sinus surgeries including FESS. Internal carotid artery injury is more frequent during skull base surgery, and risk factors include acromegaly, previous revision surgery, and prior radiotherapy and bromocriptine therapy. Injury to the ICA is the most devastating and, fortunately, the rarest complication. The ICA is vulnerable when surgery is performed in or around the posterior ethmoid air cells and the sphenoid sinus.Note:Orbital complications are most feared over all complication of FESSICA bleeding is most feared (single) complication of both FESS and open sinus surgeryRetro orbital hemorrhage are one of the most feared complication (after ICA bleed) in FESS y Bleeding is most feared complication of open sinus surgery | train | med_mcqa | null |
Eligible couple means | [
"A couple having 2 living children",
"A couple having given bih to 2 children, irrespective of their survival status",
"A couple with wife aged 15-45 yrs",
"A couple who is ready for sterilization"
] | C | The eligible couple are currently married couple wherein the wife is in the reproductive age (i.e. 5 -49 yr. of age) Don't confuse with target couple: Eligible couples who have 2 - 3 living children Ref : Park 23rd edition Pgno : 492-493 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Deep transverse arrest occurs in ...... pelvis : | [
"Gynaecoid",
"Platypelloid",
"Android",
"Mixed"
] | C | Android | train | med_mcqa | null |
A HIV patient with CD4 count of 160 cells/ul presented with fever, cough and shoness of breath for 3 weeks. Chest X ray is shown below. Based on the x ray findings silver staining of the bronchoalveolar lavage was done and shown below. What is drug of choice for the causative organism? | [
"Azithromycin",
"Vancomycin",
"Gentamycin",
"Cotrimoxazole"
] | D | Chest X ray depicts bilateral widespread interstitial pneumonia and Gomori Methenamine silver staining shows cysts with crushed ping pong balls appearance and are present in aggregate of 2-8. This is characteristic of Pneumocystis Pneumonia which is typically seen in AIDS patient in which CD4 cell count is below 200cells/ul Treatment:Double strength Cotrimoxazole i.e. Trimethoprim160mg + sulfamethoxazole800mg (continued till CD4 count is more than 200cells/ul.) | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following are used in Bronchial Asthma, Except: | [
"Salbutamol",
"Aminophylline",
"Steroids",
"Morphine"
] | D | Answer is D (Morphine): Morphine is not used in the treatment of Bronchial Asthma. Bronchodilators (Salbutamol; Aminophylline) and Coicosteroids (Systemic/inhalational)form the mainstay for treatment of Bronchial Asthma | train | med_mcqa | null |
IV Metronidazole is used in the treatment of: March 2004 | [
"Pseudomembranous enterocolitis",
"Anaerobic bacterial infection",
"Amoebiasis",
"All of the above"
] | D | Ans. D i.e. All of the above | train | med_mcqa | null |
A young 16-year-old boy presented with anaemia (Hb-6 mg%). He gives a history of frequent nasal bleed, What is the most probable diagnosis | [
"Juvenile angiofibroma",
"Nasal trauma",
"Nasal polyp",
"Hypeensive bleed"
] | A | Angiofibroma, as the name implies, is made up of vascular and fibrous tissues: the ratio of the two components may vary. Mostly, the vessels are just endothelium-lined spaces with no elastic or muscle coat. This accounts for the severe bleeding as the vessels lose the ability to contract; also the bleeding cannot be controlled by the application of adrenalin (Ref: Diseases of Ear, Nose and Throat, P.L Dhingra, 7th edition, page 279) | train | med_mcqa | null |
In Kwashiorkor, which immunoglobulin is most affected - | [
"IgD",
"lgA",
"IgE",
"IgM"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., IgA In malnourished subjects, secretory IgA is generally reduced. Therefore infections tend to be severe and recovery delayed. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The usual location of glomus jugulare tumor is - | [
"Epitympanum",
"Hypotympanum",
"Mastoid air cells",
"Internal auditory meatus"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Ectopic ureter opening is not located in - | [
"Bulbar urethra",
"Prostatic urethra",
"Seminal vesicle",
"Bladder neck"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which group of streptococcus grow at > 60 o C | [
"A",
"B",
"C",
"D"
] | D | GROUP D streptococci grow at 10 degrees C and 45 degrees C, survive at 60 degrees C for 1 hour. generally susceptible to penicillin and are inhibited by 6.5% sodium chloride or bile. They may cause urinary infection or endocarditis. Reference: Textbook of Microbiology; Anathanarayan and panicker's; 10th edition: Pg:220 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Sausage finger appearance is seen in- | [
"Psoriatic ahritis",
"Rickets",
"Hypehyroidism",
"Addison's disease"
] | A | Psoriatic ahritis: Involvement of IP joints (interphalangeal) Saucerization of digits Tapering of pharynges Pencil in cup deformity Telescoping sign positive Ahritis multilans / erosive ahritis Opera glass deformity (La Main en Lorgnette) Pencil Cup Deformity | train | med_mcqa | null |
Mycotic abscess are due to | [
"Bacterial infection",
"Viral infection",
"Fungal infection",
"Mixed infection"
] | C | . | train | med_mcqa | null |
Orchiectomy is not indicated in - | [
"Seminoma testis",
"Prostatic carcinoma",
"Tubercular epididymitis",
"Male breast cancer"
] | C | For tubercular epididymitis, usually ATT is sufficient, if resolution does not occur, then epididymectomy can be done. (Orchiectomy is done if pt. has orchitis, non-responsive to ATT). | train | med_mcqa | null |
A postmenopausal diabetic woman presents with bleeding per vaginum. The most likely diagnosis is : | [
"Carcinoma vulva",
"Carcinoma cervix",
"Carcinoma endometrium",
"Carcinoma ovary"
] | C | Carcinoma endometrium | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 28-year-old female presents with fluctuating fatigue, drooping of her eyelids, difficulty swallowing, and slurred speech. The patient is given a drug that affects an enzyme's activity, and kinetic analysis of the enzyme-catalyzed reaction, in the presence and absence of the drug, is shown below. The effect of this medication can best be described by which set of terms below? | [
"Type of Inhibition - Competitive; Effect on Km (as Compared to No Drug) - Increased; Effect of Vmax(as compared to No drug - No change",
"Type of Inhibition - Competitive; Effect on Km (as Compared to No Drug) - Decreased; Effect of Vmax(as compared to No drug - Decreased",
"Type of Inhibition - Non-competitiv... | A | The patient has myasthenia gravis, and the treatment is pyridostigmine, a competitive, reversible inhibitor of acetylcholinesterase. Myasthenia gravis is caused by autoantibodies to the acetylcholine receptor, reducing the effectiveness of acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction. By reversibly inhibiting acetylcholinesterase, the effective levels of acetylcholine are increased, thereby providing sufficient acetylcholine to bind to the few functional receptors that remain. The graph is classic for a competitive inhibitor. Competitive inhibitors display an increased apparent Km and a constant Vmax . | train | med_mcqa | null |
Distant direct ophthalmoscopy is done at | [
"100 cm",
"25 cm",
"As close to the face as possible",
"1 m"
] | B | Ans. (b) 25 cmDistant direct ophthalmoscopy is done from a distance of 20 - 25 cm, and the features of the red reflex are noted.Option a/d are the same (mathematical conversion), so rule them out distance for retionscopy.Option c - distance for Direct ophthalmoscopy. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Haabs striae are seen in- | [
"Buphthalmos",
"Keratoglobus",
"Trachoma",
"Keratoconus"
] | A | Haabs striae -Tears and breaks in descemets membrane . These occur because Descemt's membrane is less elastic than the corneal stroma. Tears are usually peripheral, concentric with the limbus and appear as lines with double contour. Ref:Comprehensive ophthalmology-AK Khurana 6th edition chapter-10 page no:226 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Popcorn variant of Reed-Sternberg cell is seen in? | [
"Follicular center lymphoma",
"Lymphocyte depleted Hodgkin's disease",
"Nodular sclerosis Hodgkin's disease",
"Lymphocyte predominant Hodgkin's disease"
] | D | Popcorn variant of Reed-Sternberg cell is seen in lymphocyte predominant Hodgkin's disease Variants of Reed -Sternberg Cells Subtypes of Hodgkin's Associated Mononuclear variant = Variant of R.S. cell, mononucleated. Mixed cellularity Lacunar Variant = Large cells with hyperlobated nucleus, multiple small nuclei and eosinophilic cytoplasm around the nucleus creating an empty space called lacunae Nodular sclerosis Lympho-histiocytic variant (popcorn cell variant) = Cell with multiple folded or convoluted nuclear contour resembling a "popcorn kernel" Lymphocytic predominant Note MC subtype of Hodgkin lymphoma : Nodular sclerosis ( Globally ) Mixed cellularity ( In India ) | train | med_mcqa | null |
60 yrs old male with bony abnormality at upper tibia associated with sensori neural hearing loss. On laboratory examination serum alkaline phosphatase levels are (440 mU/1) elevated and serum Ca++ and PO4-- are normal. Skeletal survey shows ivory veebrae and cotton wool spots in x-ray skull. Diagnosis is : | [
">Fibrous dysplasia",
">Paget disease",
">Osteosclerotic metastasis",
">Osteoporosis"
] | B | Paget disease The clinical and lab. findings in this elderly male along with characteristic x-ray findings are indicative of Paget ds. Paget disease Paget disease, a relatively common bone disorder, is a chronic progressive disturbance in bone metabolism that primarily effects older persons. Male > Females (3 : 2) Pathology The basic pathological process in Paget disease involves the balance between hone resorption and new bone formation (Osteoclastic and osteoblastic bone activity) The disease passes through three stages : 1st - Oeolytic or hot phase - the pathological process is initiated by overactive osteoclastic bone resorption. IInd - Intermediatior Mixed phase - Osteoclastic hone resorption is followed by compensatory increase in osteoblastic new bone formation. 111rd - Cool Phase - this is sclerotic phase in which the osteoblastic activity is greatly in excess of osteoclastic resorption, leading to marked thickening of bony trabeculae and coex. New pagetic bone is structurally disorganized and more susceptible to bowing and fracture. Although most patients are asymptomatic, a variety of symptoms and complications may result directly from bony involvement or secondarily from the expansion of bone and subsequent compression of neural tissue (sensorineural hearing loss in this patient due to compression of choclear nerve from temporal bone involvement) Biochemically the increase in osteoblastic activity is reflected in elevated levels of serum alkaline phosphatase which can rise to extremely high values. The increase in osteoclastic bone resorption is reflected in high urinary levels of hydroxyproline, which is formed as a result of collagen breakdown. Distribution The distribution of the disease varies from monostotic involvement to widespread disease. Pelvis is the most commonly involved bone followed by femur, skull, tibia, veebrae. Clinical manifestations Asymptomatic patients are often diagnosed by discovery of an elevated alkaline phosphatase level on routine blood chemistry or from an abnormality on a skeletal radiograph obtained for other reasons. Pain is the most common presenting symptom. It occurs due to increased bony vascularity, expanding lytic lesions, fractures, bowing or other deformities of the extremities. Bowing of the femur or tibia causes gait abnormalities and abnormal mechanical stresses with secondary osteoahritis of the hip or knee joints. Back pain results due to enlarged pagetic veebrae, veebral compression fractures, spinal stenosis or kyphosis. Skull involvement may cause headache, symmetric or assymmetric enlargement of the parietal or frontal bones (frontal bossing) and increased head size Cranial expansion may narrow cranial foramine and cause neurological complications including hearing loss from choclear nerve damage from temporal bone involvement, cranial nerve palsies, and softening of the base of the skull (platybasia) and the risk of brainstem compression. Pagetic involvement of the facial bones may cause facial deformities, loss of teeth or other dental conditions. Other complications are - Fractures (most common complication) - Neoplastic transformation: development of bone sarcoma (most commonly osteosarcoma) is a rare but serious complication of Paget disease. - Cardiovascular complications : The extensive aeriovenous shunting and marked increase in blood flow through the vascular pagetic bone leads to a high output state and cardiac enlargement. Diagnosis The diagnosis may be suggested on clinical examination by the enlarged skull with frontal bossing, bowing of an extremity, or sho stature with simian posturing. A warm extremity on palpation may suggest an underlying pagetic bone Radiological findings Radiographic features depend on the stage of the disorder In the early osteolytic phase - active bone resorption is evident as a radioluscent wedged area in long bones termed as 'candle flame' or 'blade of grass'. - in the flat bones such as the calvarium or the iliac bone, purely osteolytic lesion is noted, k/a osteoporosis circumscripta Later phases of new bone formation - Bone remodelling appears radiographically as thickening of the coex, coarse trabeculation and enlargement or expansion of an entire bone or area of a long bone. - Veebral coical thickening of the superior and inferior end plates creates a 'picture frame veebra'. - Diffuse radiodense enlargement of a veebra is referred to as 'ivory veebra'. - Skull x ray shows focal patchy densities - cotton ball appearance, which is quite characteristic of Paget disease. - Pelvic radiograph demonstrate disruption or fusion of the sacro-iliac joints and softening with protrusio acetabuli - Long bones reveal bowing deformities and typical pagetic changes of coical thickening and expansion and areas of lucency and sclerosis. Biochemical findings - T alkaline phosphatase levels (indicative of osteoblastic activity, marker of bone (formation) - T Urinary hydroxyproline levels (marker of bone resorption) [The parallel rise in serum alkaline phosphatase and urinary hydroxyproline levels confirm bone formation and resorption in Paget disease} The degree of bone marker elevation reflects the extent and severity of the disease. - Urinary and serum deoxypyridinoline N-telopeptide, and C-telopeptide levels are products of degradation and are more specific for bone resorption than hydroxyproline. - Serum calcium and phosphate levels are normal Treatment - Paget disease is treated with drugs which suppress the very high rates of bone resorption and secondarily decrease the high rates of bone formation Bisphosphonates - Etidronate - A lendronare - Tiludronate - Risedronate - Pamidronate Calcitonin | train | med_mcqa | null |
A patient with hip dislocation with limitation of Abduction at hip and flexion and internal rotation deformity at hip and shortening. Diagnosis is: | [
"Central dislocation",
"Anterior dislocation",
"Posterior dislocation",
"Fracture dislocation"
] | C | (c) Posterior dislocationExplanationSince the question mentions limitation of abduction, hence there is adduction deformity along with flexion and internal rotation deformity. Thus this is a case of Posterior dislocation of hip.Position of hipPattern of InjuryFlexion, adduction, internal rotationPure posterior dislocationLess flexion, less adduction (neutral or slight abduction), internal rotationPosterior fracture dislocation > central dislocationHyper abduction + Flexion + External rotationAnterior dislocationSome students remember an alternate format of the question 6b | train | med_mcqa | null |
Laser used in LASIK- | [
"Excimer",
"Argon",
"Holmium",
"Nd-yag"
] | A | Excimer (excited dimer) lasers are used in photo refractive keratotomy (PRK), LASIK and phototherapeutic keratectomy. Mechanism : produce UV light of very sho wavelength which breaks chemical bonds of biologic materials, conveing them into small molecules that diffuse away. Ref: AK Khurana 6thE pg462 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Agonal period is the duration between | [
"Death and postmoem examination",
"Lethal trauma upto death",
"Traumatic event and staing of the operation",
"Traumatic event and information given to the relatives"
] | B | AGONAL PERIOD:- It is the time between a lethal occurrence and death. Ref:- k s narayan reddy; pg num:-142 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Carboxylases require: | [
"Vitamin B7",
"Vitamin B2",
"Vitamin B12",
"Vitamin B1"
] | A | All carboxylases require Vitamin B7 i.e. Biotin. Biotin is a cofactor responsible for CO2 transfer for several carboxylase enzymes. WITH REGARD TO OTHER OPTIONS: Main biochemical role of- Vitamin B2: Oxidation-Reduction reactions, required for Glutathione Reductase Vitamin B12: Synthesis of Methionine, isomerization of Methyl Malonyl CoA to Succinyl CoA by Mutase Vitamin B1: Oxidative decarboxylation, for Transketolase of HMP. | train | med_mcqa | null |
True statement concerning placenta previa is | [
"Its incidence decreases with maternal age",
"The initial hemorrhage is usually painless and rarely fatal",
"Management no longer includes a double setup",
"Vaginal examination should be done immediately on suspicion of placenta previa"
] | B | The initial hemorrhage in placenta previa is usually painless and rarely fatal.
If the fetus is premature and if hemorrhaging is not severe, vaginal examination of a woman suspected of having placenta previa frequently can be delayed until 37 weeks gestation; this delay in the potentially hazardous examination reduces the risk of prematurity, which is often associated with placenta previa.
Vaginal examination, when needed to determine whether a lowlying placenta is covering the internal os of the cervix, should be performed in an operating room fully prepared for an emergency cesarean section (i.e., a double setup).
Increasing maternal age and multiparity are associated with a higher incidence of placenta previa. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Sea snake is - | [
"Neurotoxic",
"Vasculotoxic",
"Myotoxic",
"All of the above"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Myotoxic Type of poisoningSnakeHematotoxicVipersMyotoxicSea snakesNeurotoxicElapids- cobra, Krait, coral | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 43-year-old man is admitted to the hospital, having suffered a whiplash injury when his compact auto was struck from behind by a sports utility vehicle. MRI examination reveals some herniation of a disk in the cervical region. Physical examination reveals that the patient has lost elbow extension; there is absence of his triceps reflex and loss of extension of the metacarpophalangeal joints on the ipsilateral side. Which of the following spinal nerves is most likely affected? | [
"C5",
"C6",
"C7",
"C8"
] | C | C7 is the main spinal nerve that contributes to the radial nerve and innervates the triceps. Absence of the triceps reflex is usually indicative of a C7 radiculopathy or injury. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Germs cells derived from | [
"Epiblast",
"Hypoblast",
"Endodermal sinus",
"Neural crest cells"
] | A | All the germ layers ectoderm, meroderm and endoderm derived from epiblast. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following aeries is a direct branch of the gastroduodenal aery? | [
"Right gastric aery",
"Left gastric aery",
"Inferior pancreaticoduodenal aery",
"Right gastroepiploic aery"
] | D | The greater curvature is supplied by the right gastroepiploic aery which is the direct branch from the gastroduodenal aery .Right gastroepiploic aery runs between the layer of the greater omentum, anastomosing with the left gastro epiploic aery, a branch from the splenic aery. The gastroduodenal aery arises from the common hepatic aery of the celiac trunk. ref - BDC VOl2 pg277 | train | med_mcqa | null |
All are water borne disease, except - | [
"Leptospirosis",
"Schistosomiasis",
"Fish tape worm",
"Brucellosis"
] | D | Brucellosis is transmitted by direct contact, foodborne or airborne infection. All others are waterborne. Viral Hep A, E, Polio, Rotavirus(in infants) bacterial typhoid and paratyphoid, bacillary dysentery, E. coli diarrhoea, cholera protozoal amoebiasis, giardiasis helminthic roundworm, threadworm, hydatid disease. Leptospiral Weil's disease Snail (aquatic host) Schistosomiasis Cyclops (aquatic host) Guinea worm, fish tapeworm (Ref. PARK'S TEXTBOOK OF PREVENTIVE AND SOCIAL MEDICINE 25th Edition page no.770) | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 10-year-old girl presents with scalp pruritus for several weeks. Nits are visible on her hair. Which of the following treatment recommendations would you recommend? | [
"1% permethrin lotion, apply to clean, dry hair for 10 minutes, re-treat in 4 weeks",
"1% permethrin lotion, apply to wet hair for 10 minutes, re-treat in 4 weeks",
"1% permethrin lotion, apply to clean, dry hair for 10 minutes, re-treat in 1 week",
"1% permethrin lotion, apply to wet hair for 10 minutes, re-... | C | Case of Pediculosis capitis - 1% permethrin lotion, apply to clean, dry hair for 10 minutes, re-treat in 1 week is t/t of choice. For pubic lice, the 5% permethrin lotion should be used | train | med_mcqa | null |
Following aeries anastomose in the little's area except ? | [
"Anterior ethmoidal aery",
"Superior labial aery",
"Sphenopalatine aery",
"Lesser palatine aery"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Lesser palatine aery Four aeries contribute to little's area : i) Anterior ethmoidal aery. ii) Septal branch of superior labial aery (Branch of facial A). iii) Septal branch of sphenopalatine aery (Branch of maxillary A). iv) Greater palatine aery (Branch of maxillary A). | train | med_mcqa | null |
Difference between the amount of chlorine added to the water and the amount of residual chlorine remaining at the end of a specific period of contact at a given temperature and pH of water. | [
"Break point.",
"Chlorine demand.",
"Loss of head.",
"Back wash."
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Rapid antigen test for meningitis organisms in a child can be done on the following specimens EXCEPT- | [
"Blood",
"CSF",
"Urine",
"Throat swab"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Throat swab All books have mentioned CSF as a specimen for the detection of antigen. o No book has mentioned urine or blood. o But, amongst the given options, best answer is throat swab because other three are body fluids in which antigens can be detected. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Selective media for Vibrio cholerae | [
"TCBS medium- Thiosulfate, Citrate, Bile salt & Sucrose",
"Thayer main medium",
"Skirrow medium",
"Ceftrioxone broth"
] | A | TCBS medium- Thiosulfate, Citrate, Bile salt & Sucrose Repeat .from May 2008 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Test for visual acuity in a baby of age <1 year is | [
"Electro retinography",
"Electro oculography",
"Snellen's chart",
"Optical Coherence tomography"
] | A | Test for visual acuity in an infant is Electro retinography. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Meningococcal vaccine is availble for all of the following, except - | [
"Group A",
"Group B",
"Group C",
"Group Y"
] | B | <p> Meningococcal vaccine:- Currently available meningococcal vaccines include polysaccharide vaccine and polysaccharide protein conjugate vaccine. The conjugate vaccines are more immunogenic and also induce immunogenic memory. Both vaccines are available against meningococci of serogroup A,C,W135 and Y. Polysaccharide vaccine- Bivalent- A and C Trivalent-A,C ,W135 Quadrivalent- A,C, W135 and Y. Administration-single dose to persons>2 years old subcutaneously. Conjugate vaccine- given intramuscularly in deltoid or Anterolateral aspect of thigh. Monovalent vaccine - single dose to individuals 1-29 years of age. Storage- 2-8 degree celcius. Both vaccine safe during pregnancy. {Reference: park&;s textbook of preventive and social medicine, 23rd edition, pg no.167}</p> | train | med_mcqa | null |
Good clinical practice (GCP) is not required in: | [
"Preclinical phase",
"Phase I trial",
"Phase II studies",
"Phase IV studies"
] | A | Ans. (A) Preclinical Phase(Ref: KDT 8th/e p90)* GCP guidelines are made to safeguard the interest of subjects in clinical trials. These have to be adhered to in all phases of clinical trials.* Preclinical trials are performed in animals for which different regulations are given by CPCSEA (Committee for the Purpose of Control and Supervision of Experiments on Animals). | train | med_mcqa | null |
Wrong about Laryngitis sicca - | [
"Also known as Laryngitis atrophica",
"Caused by Klebsiella ozaenae",
"Caused by Rhinosporidium",
"Common in women"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
True about chronic pelvic pain? | [
"Pain in the same location in lower abdomen lasting 6 months or more",
"Causes are exclusively gynaecological",
"Adhesiolysis should be done for all patients with adhesions causing chronic pelvic pain",
"Does not cause functional debility and patients do not require treatment"
] | A | Chronic pelvic pain Defined as pelvic pain that persists in the same location for greater than 6 months duration, acusing functional debility or requiring treatment. Causes can be gynaecological or non-gynaecological Gynaecological causes: Endometriosis Pelvic adhesions Pelvic congestion syndrome Sub acutesalpingo-oophoritis Ovarian remnant syndrome Residual ovary syndromes Vulvodynia Non-gynaecological Irritable bowel syndrome Urethral syndrome Interstitial cystitis or painful bladder syndrome Nerve entrapment syndromes Myofascial pain Fibromyalgia Low back pain syndrome Psychological pain Any surgery done for adhesions may lead to formation of fuher adhesions and so adhesiolysis is recommended only for patients with intermittent paial bowel obstruction or infeility. | train | med_mcqa | null |
In a plague epidemic all of the following are done to control it, EXCEPT: | [
"Isolation of contacts",
"Vaccination of the susceptibles",
"Surveillance",
"Chemoprophylaxis with tetracycline"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' ie Vaccination of the susceptibles Vaccination is used only for prevention and not for control of an outbreak.Immunity with vaccination develops in 5 to 7 days, therefor to be effective, vaccination should be carried out at least a week before an anticipated outbreak.Steps taken for controlling plague epidemicEarly diagnosisNotificationIsolation of casesTreatment with streptomycinDisinfection of sputum, discharges and articles soiled by the patientControl of FleasChemoprophylaxis with tetracycline Surveillance.9) Health educationAlso remember DOC for treatment of plague > Streptomycin* DOC for Chemoprophylaxis > Tetracycline* | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 4-year-old boy is brought to the physician by his parents because he falls a lot, cannot jump, and tires easily Physical examination reveals weakness in the pelvic and shoulder girdles and enlargement of the child's calf muscles. The serum level of creatine kinase is elevated. A biopsy of calf muscle reveals marked variation in size and shape of muscle fibers. There are foci of muscle fiber necrosis, myophagocytosis, regenerating fibers, and fibrosis. Molecular diagnostic assays performed on muscle biopsy from the patient would show alterations in the length of the primary transcript for which of the following muscle-associated proteins? | [
"Creatine kinase",
"Desmin",
"Dystrophin",
"Glycogen phosphorylase"
] | C | Dystrophin. Duchenne muscular dystrophy is caused by mutations of a large gene on the short arm of the X chromosome (Xp21). This gene codes for dystrophin, a protein localized to the inner surface of the sarcolemma. Dystrophin links the subsarcolemmal cytoskeleton to the exterior of the cell through a transmembrane complex of proteins and glycoproteins that binds to laminin. Dystrophin-deficient muscle fibers thus lack the normal interaction between the sarcolemma and the extracellular matrix. This disruption may be responsible for the observed increased osmotic fragility of dystrophic muscle, the excessive influx of calcium ions, and the release of soluble muscle enzymes such as creatine kinase into the serum. The other proteins are not altered in patients with Duchenne muscular dystrophy.Diagnosis: Duchenne muscular dystrophy | train | med_mcqa | null |
Layers of the scalp include all of the following except- | [
"Galea aponeurotica",
"Adventitious layer",
"Skin",
"Pericranium"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Adventitious layer Layers of scalp have been explained in NEET Dec.-16 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Endotoxin is pa of the outer poion of the cell wall of - | [
"Gram-positive bacteria",
"Gram-negative bacteria",
"Candida albicans",
"All of the above"
] | B | Endotoxins are heat stable lipopolysaccharides. Forms an integral pa of the cell wall of gram-negative bacteria. Do not diffuse into the surrounding medium. Reference : Anathanarayan & paniker's 9th edition, pg no:74 <\p> | train | med_mcqa | null |
The following are true of vibrio cholerae excepta) Produces indole and reduces nitratesb) Synthesises neuraminidasec) Dies rapidly at low temperatured) Vaccine confers long immunity | [
"ab",
"bc",
"cd",
"ac"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Treatment of choice for pseudotumor | [
"Methotrexate",
"Steroids",
"Intravenous antibiotics",
"Radiotherapy"
] | B | Steroids are the treatment of choice for pseudotumor Orbital Pseudotumor Most common cause of painful orbital mass, present like tumor histopathology - Polymorphous lymphoid infiltrate with varied amount of fibrosis Optic nerve compression may occur in massive posterior involvement May lead to frozen orbit in cases of chronic involvement and fibrosis More common seen unilaterally On MRI sequences it has both Muscle belly + Tendon involvement Rx: Oral prednisolone after confirmation is treatment of choice. Radiotherapy,methotrexate andTNF alpha inhibitors are used in recalcitrant cases | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following enzymes is common to the synthesis of cholesterol and ketone bodies: | [
"HMG -Co-A Reductase",
"HMG-Co-A Lyase",
"HMG-Co-A Synthase",
"Thiokinase"
] | C | C i.e. HMG-Co-A Synthase | train | med_mcqa | null |
The shoest diameter of fetal head is : | [
"Biparietal diameter",
"Suboccipito frontal diameter",
"Occipito frontal diameter",
"Bitemoral diameter"
] | D | Fetal head diameters Largest transverse diameter is biparietal diameter measuring approximately 9.5cms Shoest transverse diameter is bitemporal diameter measuring approximately 8cms Reference: William's Obstetrics; 24th Edition; Chapter 5 The transverse diameters of fetal skull which are concerned with the mechanism of labor are -- Biparietal diameter--9.5 cm (3 3/4 ''): It extends between two parietal eminences. Whatever may be the position of the head, this diameter nearly always engages. -- Super-subparietal--8.5 cm (3 1/2 ''): It extends from a point placed below one parietal eminence to a point placed above the other parietal eminence of the opposite side. -- Bitemporal diameter--8 cm (3 1/4 ''): It is the distance between the anteroinferior ends of the coronal suture. -- Bimastoid diameter -- 7.5 cm (3''): It is the distance between the tips of the mastoid processes. The diameter is incompressible and it is impossible to reduce the length of the bimastoid diameter by obstetrical operation. reference: D C Dutta Textbook of Obstetrics 7th edition page 85 | train | med_mcqa | null |
The schematic diagram shows appropriate pulp tissue zones following formocresol therapy, except | [
"Stainless steel crown",
"ZOE buildup",
"Fixation zone",
"Vital Tissue"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
When a diagnostic test is used in series mode then : | [
"Sensitivity increases but the specificity decreases",
"Specificity increases but the sensitivity decreases",
"Both sensitivity and specificity increase",
"Both sensitivity and specificity decrease"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e. specificity increases but the sensitivity decreases Let's first see what is meant by using a diagnostic test in 'Series mode'-It means that a particular diagnostic test (or more than one diagnostic tests) are performed sequentially.The pt. is considered positive for the diseases only when all the tests performed in the sequence give positive results.Even if one of the test is negative the pt. is considered negative for diseases.Thus as quite apparent 'serial testing' increases specificity but decreases the sensitivity.Let's also see what is Parallel testing-In parallel testing multiple diagnostic tests are given concurrently and the pt is considered positive for disease if any of the tests give positive result.For example ECG and Echocardiography are two procedures used in the diagnosis of VSD. When used in Parallel mode the pt. will be considered to have VSD, if any of the test give positive result (even if the other test gives negative result) Let me explain once again -Suppose 10 different diagnostic tests are used to diagnose a particular diseaseIf test are used in Series modethe pt. will be declared positive only when all the tests give positive result.even if 9 tests give positive and one in negative pt. will be considered negative.If test are used in Parallel Modethe pt will be declared positive if any of the tests give positive result.even if 9 tests are negative and one is positive pt. will be considered positive. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Rheumatoid factor is: | [
"IgG",
"IgM",
"IgD",
"IgM"
] | D | Answer is D (IgM): Rheumatoid factor is. an IgM antibody directed against the Fc fragment of IgG | train | med_mcqa | null |
Carcinoid syndrome produces valvular disease primarily involving: | [
"Venous valves",
"Tricuspid valve",
"Mitral valve",
"Aoic valve"
] | B | Answer is B (Tricuspid valve) The most commonly involved valve in carcinoid syndrome is tricuspid valve. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Pipe stem appearance in barium enema is seen in- | [
"Crohns disease",
"Ulcerative colitis",
"Schistosomiasis",
"Carcinoma colon"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Ulcerative colitiso In UC, Transverse colon and left colon may show pipestem appearance on barium enema. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Pembeon sign in seen in ? | [
"Retrosternal goiter",
"Grave opthalmopathy",
"Thyroid crisis",
"Addisonian crisis"
] | A | Answer- A. Retrosternal goiterThe pembeon maneuver is a physical examination method that elicits manifestations of latent increased pressure in the thoracic inlet by altering arm position to fuher marrow the apeure. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The sire of Respirable dust is - | [
"1-5 microns",
"5-10 microns",
"15 microns",
"20 microns"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., 1-5 microns Pneumoconiosis Pneumoconiosis is an occupational lung disease caused by the inhalation of dust. o The development of pneumoconiosis depends on - i) The amount of dust retained in the lungs and airways. ii) The size, shape of the paicles --> The most dangerous paicle ranges from 1 to 5 in in diameter because they may reach the terminal small airway and air sacs and settle in their linings. iii) Paicle solubility and physiochemical reactivity. iv) Additional effects of other irritants (e.g. concomitant smoking). | train | med_mcqa | null |
Granulomatous inflammatory reaction is caused by all, EXCEPT : | [
"M. Tuberculosis",
"M. Leprae",
"Yersinia pestis",
"Mycoplasma"
] | D | . Mycoplasma | train | med_mcqa | null |
The most difficult source of infection among the following to control is | [
"airborne",
"human to human",
"vector borne",
"vertical"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
A girl 15 yrs of age is diagnosed with MRKH (Mayer Rokitansky kuster Hauser Syndrome). Which of these is true for her management? | [
"Vaginoplasty to be done as soon as diagnosed",
"Sex of rearing should be male",
"Gonadectomy is to be performed",
"Child bearing can be possible through assisted reproduction"
] | D | vaginoplasty should be done before onset of sexual activity sex of rearing should be female gonadectomy is to be done for Androgen Insensitivity Syndrome and not for MRKH as it has a normal functioning ovary child bearing is possible through assisted reproduction as the patient has normally functioning ovaries, through IVF with surrogacy | train | med_mcqa | null |
Maximum incidence of developmental defects is seen in: | [
"Primary incisor",
"Permanent incisors",
"Permanent mandibular first molar",
"Primary mandibular second molar"
] | B | Maximum incidence of developmental defects is seen in permanent incisors. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Drugs causing pericarditis are all EXCEPT: | [
"Methysergide",
"Hydralazine",
"Amiodarone",
"Bretylium"
] | D | Cardiac fibrosis is caused by drugs like diuretics, amiodarone, hydralazine and methysergide. It is not caused by bretylium among the given drugs Ref: KD Tripathi 8th ed | train | med_mcqa | null |
Plasma protein, which is NOT normally synthesized in liver: September 2012 | [
"Angiotensin",
"Angiotensinogen II conveing enzyme",
"C-reactive protein",
"Albumin"
] | B | Ans. B i.e. Angiotensinogen II conveing enzymeMost of the conveing enzyme that forms angiotensin 11 in the circulation is located in endothelial cells. | train | med_mcqa | null |
In Hutchinson's triad in newborn child, what is not seen? | [
"Interstitial keratitis",
"Notched incisors",
"Deafness",
"Cataracts"
] | D | Cataracts REF: Harisson's 18`11 ed chapter 169 Hutchinson's triad is named after Sir Jonathan Hutchinson (1828-1913). It is a common pattern of presentation for congenital syphilis, and consists of three phenomena: interstitial keratitis, Hutchinson incisors, and eighth nerve deafness | train | med_mcqa | null |
In a case of myasthenia gravis, CT Chest shows anterior mediastinal mass. Diagnosis is? | [
"Retrosternal goiter",
"Thymic Hyperplasia",
"Hilar Lymphadenopathy",
"Aoic Aneurysm"
] | B | Thymus gland abnormalities are seen in 75% of anti-Ach Receptor positive antibodies patients. CT chest can identify a Thymic hyperplasia or a thymoma which though benign can produce mass effects. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Optical media are clear in: | [
"Cavernous sinus thrombosis",
"Orbital cellulitis",
"Both of the above",
"None of the above"
] | C | Ans. Both of the above | train | med_mcqa | null |
The decerebrate rigidity is characterised by all of the following EXCEPT | [
"Rigidity occurs in all muscles of the body",
"There is increased 'g' motor neuron discharge",
"Increased excitability of the motor neuron pool",
"Removal of cerebellum reduces the rigidity"
] | A | Decerebrate rigidity results from a section between the superior and inferior colliculus When a mid collicular section is made (coex removed), coical inhibitory influences on these areas are removed. Thus, there intrinsic firing is unchecked now, leading to excess facilitation of gamma motor neuron discharge and excessive activity of stretch reflexes. The resulting rigidity, called decerebrate rigidity, is mostly seen in the extensor or postural muscle groups. The rigidity in extensors causes a posture of arching backward - opisthotonus position. | train | med_mcqa | null |
% of thiopentone used in induction | [
"0.50%",
"1.50%",
"2.50%",
"4.50%"
] | C | C i.e. 2.5% | train | med_mcqa | null |
Mutton fat KPs are seen in - | [
"Granulomatous Uveitis",
"Hemorrhagic Uveitis",
"Non Granulomatous uveitis",
"Posterior uveitis"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Granulomatous Uveitis o Keratic precipitates (KPs) are proteinaceous cellular deposits occurring at the back of cornea (corneal endothelial deposits). Keratic precipitates are formed by the aggregation of polymorphonuclear cells, lymphocytes, and epitheloid cells. In the setting of uveitis, the bimicrosopic appearance of KP may yeild important diagnostic clues for the identification of the underlying inflammatory disorder1) Mutton fat KP Large, yellowish KPs, are characteristic of granulomatous uveitis .These are composed of epitheloid cells and macrophages. They are large, thick fluffy, lardaceous KPs, having a greasy or waxy appearance.2) Small or medium KPs (granular KPs):- These are composed of lymphocytes and are characteristic of nongranulomatous uveitis. These are small, round and whitish precipitates3) Red KPs:- Composed of RBCs and inflammatory cells. These are seen in hemorrhagic uveitis.4) Old KPs:- In healed uveitis. The above described KPs shrink, fade, become pigmented and irregular in shape with crenated margins. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Prusian blue detects? | [
"Ferric iron",
"Ferrous iron",
"Glycogen",
"Lipids"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Ferric iron o Perl's iron stain/Prussian blue method: It is the classic method for demonstrating iron in tissues. The section is treated with dilute hydrochloric acid to release ferric ions from binding proteins. These ions then react with potassium ferrocyanide to produce an insoluble blue compound (hydrated ferric ferrocyanide substance) (the Prussian blue reaction)Other optionso Lipid staining - Oil -Red - Oo Glycogen staining - PAS | train | med_mcqa | null |
A Patient is made to walk early after Surgery. This is for: March 2005 | [
"Treating the patient",
"Reducing disability",
"Specific protection",
"Rehabilitation"
] | D | Ans. D: Rehabilitation Medical rehabilitation is done for restoration of functions which aims at training and retraining the individual to the highest possible level of functional ability. | train | med_mcqa | null |
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