question stringlengths 1 6.54k | choices listlengths 4 4 | answer stringclasses 4
values | rationale stringlengths 0 22.5k ⌀ | split stringclasses 1
value | dataset stringclasses 6
values | subject stringclasses 1
value |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
LMP-1 gene plays a role in oncogenesis induced by: | [
"Human T cell leukemia virus type I",
"Hepatitis B virus",
"Epstein-Barr virus",
"Human papilloma virus"
] | C | LMP-1 gene plays a role in oncogenesis induced by EBV. LMP-1 signaling leads to up-regulation of antiapoptotic proteins and provide growth signals in latently infected cells. | train | med_mcqa | null |
An 18-year-old girl presented with multiple nasal polypi in both nostrils with nasal obstruction and sinusitis. CT scan shows dense shadows in the sinuses. Histopathology did not show fungal invasion of tissues. All of the following treatments can be given except: | [
"Amphotericin B",
"Intranasal corticosteroids",
"Surgical removal",
"Anti-histaminic"
] | A | The clinical picture and CT findings in the above patient indicate a diagnosis of allergic fungal rhinosinusitis. It is a type I hypersensitivity presenting with nasal polypi. CT findings are hyperdense material in the sinus cavity. Histologically no tissue invasion by fungus is seen though fungus can be stained and cultured from the tissues. Since tissue invasion by fungus is absent, there is no need for amphotericin B, though all other modes of treatment would be required to treat nasal polypi and type I hypersensitivity reaction. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Disease under WHO surveillance - | [
"Rabies",
"Mumps",
"Hepatitis",
"Tetanus"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Rabies Diseases under international surveillance (WHO) o Rabies o Poliomyelitis o Salmonellosis o Louse born typhus fever o Malaria o Relapsing fever o Human influenza | train | med_mcqa | null |
True about summation - | [
"Temporal summation is application of two stimuli together",
"Spatial summation is application of two stimuli one after another",
"Subthreshold stimuli are used",
"All are true"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Subthreshold stimuli are usedSummationo A subthreshold stimulus does not produce a response, but when more than one subthreshold stimuli are applied response is produced.o The application of two subthreshold stimuli may be sufficiently quickly, one by another (temporal summation) or two subthreshold stimuli together at diferent places (Spatial summation).o Summation is due summation of EPSP in synapses (at post-synaptic neuron). | train | med_mcqa | null |
Blow up out fracture of zygomatic arch cause | [
"Anosmia",
"Diplopia",
"Exophthalmous",
"Epistaxis"
] | B | Blow out fracture is the fracture of floor due to blunt trauma. Floor is formed of zygomatic arch ,maxillary bone and small palatine bone Refer khurana 6/e 403 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Imbibition results in | [
"Shorter cast",
"Larger cast",
"No change in cast dimension",
"Any of the above"
] | A | Imbibition leads to expansion of impression material which makes the impression material to occupy the empty space ; resulting in shorter cast. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Excessive accommodation causes: | [
"Hypermetropia",
"Myopia",
"Pseudomyopia",
"Pseudohypermetropia"
] | C | Ans. C: Pseudomyopia Pseudomyopia It refers to an intermittent and temporary shift in refraction of the eye towards myopia, in which the focusing of light in front of the retina is due to a transient spasm of the ciliary muscle causing an increase in the refractive power of the eye. It may be either organic, through stimulation of the parasympathetic nervous system, or functional in origin, through eye strain or fatigue of ocular systems. It is common in young adults who have active accommodation, and classically occurs after a change in visual requirements, such as students preparing for an exam, or a change in occupation. The major symptom is intermittent blurring of distance vision paicularly noticeable after prolonged periods of near work, and symptoms of asthenopia. The vision may clear temporarily using concave (minus) lenses. The diagnosis is done by cycloplegic refraction using a strong cycloplegic like atropine or homatropine eye drops. Accommodative amplitude and facility may be reduced as a result of the ciliary muscle spasm. Treatment is dependent on the underlying aetiology. Organic causes may include systemic or ocular medications, brain stem injury, or active ocular inflammation such as uveitis. Functional pseudomyopia is managed though modification of working conditions, an updated refraction, or through appropriate ocular exercises | train | med_mcqa | null |
If TFR in a population is 4, then GRR would be (approx.) | [
"2",
"4",
"8",
"16"
] | A | - GRR or NRR= 1/2 TFR (approx.) - In given question, TFR is 4; hence GRR is half of 4 = 2 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Soap bubble appearance on Xray is seen in which bone tumor - | [
"Osteogenic sarcoma",
"Giant cell tumor",
"Multiple myeloma",
"Chondroblastoma"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Giant cell tumor Characteristic radiological features of few bone tumors Celery-stick appearance Enchondromas Coat-hanger appearance Osteochondroma Codman tumor and chicken-wire calcification Chondroblastoma Double density sign on radionuclide scan Osteoid osteoma Nidus and sclerotic rim Osteoid osteoma "Driven snow" appearance Pindborg tumor Fallen fragment/Hinged fragment sign Simple (unicameral) bone cyst "Eggshell" covering of expansile cortex over surface of lesion ABC 'Soap bubble' appearance ABC Soap bubble appearance (& goes into corners) GCT (Osteoclastoma) 'Floating tooth' sign Eosinophilic granuloma, adamantinoma Onion skin (onion peel) appearance Ewing sarcoma Skip lesions Osteosarcoma, Ewings sarcoma 'Sunray/Sunburst' appearance Osteosarcoma String sign (to differentiate from myositis ossificans) Parosteal osteosarcoma Popcorn/mottled calcification Chondrosarcoma Shepherd's crook deformity Fibrous dysplasia Codman's triangle Osteosarcoma, Ewing sarcoma Winking owl sign Metastasis to pedicles of vertebra Corduroy/accordion vertebra/vertical striations Vertebral hemangioma Polka dot sign on CT Vertebral hemangioma Geographical skull Eosinophilic granuloma Hole-within-a-hole lesion Eosinophilic granuloma | train | med_mcqa | null |
Not an ECG finding of hypokalemia: September 2009 | [
"Absent T waves",
"ST elevation",
"Flat T waves",
"Prominent U wave"
] | B | Ans. B: ST elevation | train | med_mcqa | null |
The number of ATPs generated in krebs cycleare ? | [
"12",
"24",
"15",
"30"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' > b' i.e., 24 One turn of the TCA cycle, staing with acetyl CoA produces 10 ATPs. When the staing molecule is pyruvate, the oxidative decarboxylation of pyruvate, the oxidative decarboxylation of pyruvate yields 2.5 ATPs and therefore, 12.5 ATPs are produced when staing compound is pyruvate. Since, two molecules of pyruvate enter the TCA cycle when glucose is metabolized (glycolysis produces 2 molecules of pyruvate), the number of ATPs is doubled. Therefore, 25 ATP molecules, per glucose molecule, are produced when pyruvate enters the TCA cycle.Note : Previously calculations were made assuming that NADH produces 3 ATPs and FADH generates 2 ATPs. This will amount a net generation of 30 ATP molecules in TCA per molecule glucose and total 38 molecules from staing. Recent experiments show that these values are overestimates and NADH produces 2.5 ATPs and FADH produces 1.5 ATPs. Therefore, net generation during TCA is 25 ATPs and complete oxidation of glucose through glycolysis plus citric acid cycle yield a net 32 ATPs.Energy yield (number of ATP generated) per molecule of glucose when it is completely oxidized through glycolysis plus citric acid cycle, under aerobic conditions, is as follows :- Method ofNo of ATPsNo of ATPsPathwayStepEnzymeSource ATP formationgained perglucose(new calculation)As per oldcalculationGlycolysis1Hexokinase MinusMinus 1Do3Phosphofructokinase MinusMinus 1Do5Glyceraldehyde-3-p DHNADH Respiratory chain2.5 x 2 = 53 x 2 = 6Do61,3-BPGkinase ATPSubstrate level1 x 2 -- 21 x 2 = 2Do9Pyruvate kinaseATP Substrate level1 x 2 = 21 x 2 = 2Pyruvate to?PyruvateNADH Respiratory chain2.5x2= 53x2= 6Acetyl CoA Dehydrogenase TCA cycle3Isocitrate DHNADH Respiratory chain2.5x2= 53 x 2= 6Do4Alpha keto glutarate DHNADH Respiratory chain2.5x2= 53x2= 6Do5Succinate thiokinaseGTP Substrate level1 x 2 = 21 x 2 = 2Do6Succicinate DHFADH2Respiratory chain1.5x2= 32 x 2= 4Do8Malate DHNADH Respiratory chain2.5x2= 53 x 2= 6Net generation in glycolytic pathway 9 minus 2= 7 10 minus 2= 8Generation in pyruvate dehydrogenase reaction 5 * 6Generation in citric acid cycle 20 * 24Net generation of ATP from one glucose mole 32 * 38 | train | med_mcqa | null |
During Exercise the cardiac output rises upto 5 times, but pulmonary vascular resistance only few mm hg. Why? | [
"Sympathetic stimulation causing vasodilatation",
"Opening of parallel channels",
"Pulmonary vasoconstriction",
"J receptors"
] | B | Ans. B. Opening of parallel channelsDuring exercise there is an increase in CO due to increased HR and SV.a. Peripheral resistance and DBP also increase due to sympathetic vasoconstriction. Sympathetic cholinergic system does cause Vasodilatation but only in few organs like Skeletal muscle, Uterus and Sweat glands.b. In Lungs there is not much rise in pulmonary vascular resistance because of opening of precapillary sphincters. They cause opening of more blood vessels leading to increasing in pulmonary perfusion.c. But the vessels are arranged in parallel to each other, their resistances are added asRT 1 =R1 1 +R2 1 +R3 1 +R4 1 ...d. So, more is the number of resistances (vessels) in parallel lower is the Total resistance (RT ).e. During exercise this mechanism counters the effect of sympathetic vasoconstriction in lungs and there is only small rise in pulmonary vascular resistance. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following drugs does not cross the blood placental barrier: | [
"Atropine",
"Glycopyrrolate",
"Physostigmine",
"Hyoscine hydrobromide."
] | B | Glycopyrrolate is a quaternary ammonium compound and is thus water-soluble and to penetrate BBB. | train | med_mcqa | null |
JC virus causes | [
"Progressive Multifocal Leukoencephalopathy (PML)",
"Subacute Sclerosing Panencephalitis (SSPE)",
"Subacute Encephalitis",
"Tropical spastic paraparesis"
] | A | (A) Progressive Multifocal Leukoencephalopathy (PML) # JC virus (JCV): JCV is a type of human polyomavirus (formerly known as papovavirus) and is genetically similar to BK virus and SV40. It was discovered in 1971 and named after the two initials of a patient with progressive multifocal leukoencephalopa:hy (PML). The virus causes PML and other diseases only in cases of immunodeficiency, as in AIDS or during treatment with drugs intended to induce a state of immunosuppression (e.g. organ transplant patients).> Subacute Sclerosing Panencephalitis (SSPE) is a rare progressive clinical syndrome characterized by cognitive decline, spasticity of limbs, and seizures and caused by early-age acute infection with measles.> Subacute Encephalitis or HIV Meningoencephalitis or AIDS dementia complex (ADC) characterized by insidiously beginning dementia, with mental slowing, memory loss, and mood disturbances, such as apathy & depression; with motor abnormalities, ataxia, bladder & bowel incontinence, and seizure.> Tropical spastic paraparesis or HTLV -1 associated myelopathy (HAM) or Vascular Myelopathy is a disorder of spinal cord is found in 20%-30% of patients with AIDS & histopathological findings resemble subacute combined degeneration, though serum levels of vitamin B12 are normal. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Tumor with best prognosis is - | [
"Ependymoma",
"Medulloblastoma",
"Cerebellar astrocytoma",
"Glioblastoma multiforme"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
The actions of pure gastrin includes | [
"Stimulation of pepsin secretion",
"Stimulation of gastric motility",
"Increased flow of hepatic bile",
"All of the above"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 14-year-old girl with history of prolonged fever and abdominal discomfo is observed to have splenomegaly and leucopenia. In the course of the disease she develops acute abdominal event and died. Which of the following is the likely finding on autopsy: | [
"Transverse ulcers",
"Longitudinal ulcers",
"Pinpoint ulcers",
"Pseudopolyps"
] | B | Answer is B (Longitudinal ulcers) Typhoid ulcers (Salmonella/Enteric Fever) occur due to ulceration of Peyer's patches. Since Peyer's patches (aggregation of lymphoid follicles in the wall of gut) are oval in shape and placed longitudinally/veically along the antimesenteric border, the axis of typhoid ulcers is longitudinal. History of prolonged fever and abdominal discomfo together with typical features of splenomegaly and leucopenia suggest a diagnosis of salmonelosis or 'Enteric Fever'. Enteric fever is a potentially fatal systemic illness and death may occur from* life threatening complications of gastrointestinal bleeding and intestinal perforation. This most commonly occurs in the third or fouh week of illness and results from hvperplasia ulceration (longitudinal) and necrosis of the ileocecal Payer's patches at the initial site of salmonella infiltration. Typhoid Ulcers (Enteric Fever) Longitudinal Ulcers (as they occur over lymphoid follicles/Peyer's patches at the antimesenteric border) When they heal, they cause no features of obstruction Tubercular Ulcers Transverse ulcers (due todirection of lymphatics) When they heal they cause stenosis and obstruction due to fibrosis (since they are circular surroundings the lumen of intestine) Enteric Fever Enteric Fever is a potentially life threatening systemic disease characterized by fever and abdominal pain caused by dissemination of Salmonella Typhi or Salmonella Parotyphi. Typical Hallm- ark Features Fever Abdominal Discomfo (Pain, Anorerxia, Diarrhea or Constipation, Anorexia, Nausea, Vomiting) Non specific symptoms Headache Chills/Shivering Cough Sweating Myalgia Ahralgia Fatigue Typical Findings (Signs typical, but not always present) Rose spots Splenomegaly Leucopenia with a distinct left shift Relative Bradycardia dispite high fever Mental state changes (Typhoid Psychosis) (Muttering Delerium/Coma vigil) The lipopolysacharide endotoxin of bacteria is responsible for Leucopenia and splenomegaly Life threatening complications primarily include Gastrointestinal Bleeding and/or Gastrointestinal Perforation which most frequently occur in the third or fouh week of illness from hyperplasia, ulceration and necrosis of the ileocoecal Payer's patches at the initial site of Salmonella infection | train | med_mcqa | null |
Burn caused by moist heat is known as: | [
"Scalds.",
"Scars.",
"Ordinary burn.",
"None."
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following signs suggest benign nature in the evaluation of solitary pulmonary nodule on CT scan? | [
"Air bronchogram in nodule",
"Presence of amorphous calcification",
"Fat density within the lesion",
"Spiculated outline"
] | C | Fat density within the lesion is characteristic of hamartoma. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Web Causation of disease is most appropriate ? | [
"Mostly applicable for common disease",
"Better for all the related factors associated with causation of disease",
"Epidemiological ratio",
"Helps to interrupt the risk of transmission"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Better for all the related factors associated with causation of disease Web of causation o This model is ideally suited in the study of chronic disease, where the disease agent is often not known, but is the outcome of interaction of multiple factors. o The "web of causation" considers all the predisposing foctors of any type and their complex relationship with each other. o The causal web provides a model which shows a variety of possible interventions that could be taken which might reduce the occurrence of disease (e.g. MI) o The web of causation does not imply that the disease cannot be controlled unless all the multiple causes or chains of causation or at least a number of them are appropriately controlled. This is not the case. Sometimes removal or elimination of just only one link or chain may be sufficient to control disease, provided that link is sufficiently impoant in the pathogenic process. o Therefore, in a multifactorial event, individual factors are by no means all of equal weight. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Inhibition of placental Alkaline Phosphatase by Phenylalanine is an example of | [
"Competitive Inhibition",
"Noncompetitive inhibition",
"Uncompetitive Inhibition",
"Allosteric Inhibition"
] | C | Placental (PLAP) and germ-cell (GCAP) alkaline phosphatases are inhibited uncompetitively by L-Leu and L-Phe. Ref: Katzung 12th ed. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The wetting of an adherent surface by an adhesive is related to: | [
"Surface energy of the adherent",
"Surface texture of the adherent",
"Surface tension of the adherent",
"Nature of the adherent that is crystalline or amorphous"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Modified Kuppuswami scale include all criteria for socioeconomic status except | [
"Income per capita",
"Income of Head",
"Education of head of family",
"Occupation of head"
] | B | Modified Kuppuswami scale is a ‘Scale of Socio-economic Status of Urban families’. It comprises of 3 components:
– Occupation Status of head of family
– Education Status of head of family
– Income per capita per month | train | med_mcqa | null |
Guests at a party consumed beef broth that was boiled earlier in the day but left at room temperature for several hours. The individuals presented with symptoms of food poisoning, including watery diarrhea and abdominal cramps, 8 to 10 hours later. The symptoms lasted 24 hours. The agent that caused the symptoms is most likely which of the following? | [
"Spore-forming gram-positive bacilli",
"Gram-positive cocci",
"Gram-negative bacilli",
"An opportunistic fungus"
] | A | Under harsh environmental conditions, certain gram-positive bacteria convert from the vegetative state into a dormant state or spore. The spores, which are dehydrated structures, protect bacterial DNA and other contents from the effect of the intense heat, radiation, and standard disinfectants. If spores present in the food are not killed during preparation, and if the cooked food is left for several hours at room temperature, the spores will germinate allowing vegetative bacteria to produce the enterotoxin. The spore-forming gram-positive bacteria (a), Clostridium perfringens and Bacillus cereus, produce enterotoxins that cause watery diarrhea and abdominal cramps but no fever. While very similar, the vignette suggests C. perfringens as the etiologic agent. Onset is more rapid than with B. cereus diarrheal toxin, and while the types of food overlap, temperature-abused food is frequently associated with C. perfringens. Among the gram-positive cocci (b), Staphylococcus aureus produces enterotoxin, but the onset is more abrupt (1-6 hours) and fever may be present. The gram-negative bacilli (a) must first colonize the intestine and grow, even if an enterotoxin is at the root of the diarrhea. Thus, onset of symptoms occurs from 24 hours to several days after ingestion of the food. Opportunistic fungi (d) are not known to be involved in food poisoning. Enteric viruses (e) such as norovirus and rotavirus require 12 to 48 hours and 1 to 3 days, respectively, for symptoms to appear. They are more commonly associated with foods contaminated by food workers during preparation (salads, sandwiches, and fruit), or food prepared with contaminated water (salads, fruit, and ice). | train | med_mcqa | null |
Dissecting haematoma is a clinical complication occurring in - | [
"Turner's syndrome",
"Klinefelter's syndrome",
"Down's syndrome",
"Marfan syndrome"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which cells cause rosette formation with sheep RBCs- | [
"T cells",
"NK cells",
"Monocytes",
"B cells"
] | A | Erythrocyte rosetting or E-rosetting is a phenomenon seen through a microscope where red blood cells (erythrocytes) are arranged around a central cell to form a cluster that looks like a flower. The red blood cells surrounding the cell form the petal, while the central cell forms the stigma of the flower shape. This formation occurs due to an immunological reaction between an epitope on the central cells surface and a receptor or antibody on a red blood cell. The presence of E-rosetting can be used as a test for T cells although more modern tests such as immunohistochemistry are available. May be caused by Plasmodium in malaria. Reff: www.medscape.com | train | med_mcqa | null |
Metal fume fever is caused by | [
"Barium",
"Potassium permanganate",
"Thallium",
"Antimony"
] | D | Metal fume fever : Flue like illness 6-8 hours after exposure of fumes Subside after 36 hours Caused by Antimony Zinc Copper Nickel Lead Mercury Cobalt Cadmium Magnesium Manganese | train | med_mcqa | null |
True about protein A of staph aureus: | [
"Causes opsonization",
"Binds to Fc portion of IgG",
"Stimulate phagocytosis",
"T-cell mitogen"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Binds to Fc part of IgG(Ref: Ananthanarayan, 9th/e, p. 197, 198)* Protein A is a cell wall component of S aureus strains and is a bacterial surface protein called as microbial surface components recognizing adhesive matrix molecules (MSCRAMMs).Bacterial attachment to host cells is mediated by MSCRAMMs, and these are important virulence factors.Protein A of Staph aureus binds to Fc terminal of IgG (IgG 1, 2 and 4 but not IgG 3) and prevents opsono- phagocytosis by PMNs.* Protein A has become an important reagent in immunology and diagnostic laboratory technology; for example, protein A with attached IgG molecules directed against a specific bacterial antigen agglutinates bacteria that have that antigen ("conglutination"). | train | med_mcqa | null |
This classical presentation is of ? | [
"Pityriasis Rosea",
"P.alba",
"P.Rubra",
"P.Versicolor"
] | A | Ans. (A) Pityriasis Roasea The Picture shows inverted Christmas tree appearance of lesions suggestive of diagnosis of Pityriasis Rosea. The essential clinical features are the following: * Discrete circular or oval lesions * Scaling on Most Lesions * Peripheral Collarette scaling with central clearance on at least two lesions. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following statements best represent Ludwig's angina? | [
"A coronary aery spasm",
"Infection of cellular tissues around submandibular salivary gland",
"Esophageal spasm",
"Retropharyngeal infection"
] | B | Ludwig's angina is a rapidly progressive cellulitis of the submandibular space that can cause airway obstruction and death. The submandibular space lies between. The mucous membrane of the floor of mouth and tongue on one side and. The superficial layer of deep cervical fascia extending between the hyoid bone and mandible on the other. The submandibular space is divided into 2 compaments by the mylohyoid muscle. a. Sublingual compament (above the mylohyoid). b. Submaxillary and submental (below the mylohyoid) The two compaments are continuous around the posterior border of the mylohyoid muscle. Aetiology - Dental infections are the most common cause. The infection is most often caused by a virulent Streptococcus (Group A streptococcus are most common) along with anaerobes. Clinical Features Odynophagia (painful swallowing). Trismus (difficulty in the opening mouth). When infection is localized to sublingual space, structures in the floor of the month are swollen and tongue seems to be pushed up and back When the infection spreads to submaxillary space, the submental and submandibular regions become swollen and tender with woody hard feeling. Complications Airway obstruction due to laryngeal oedema, or swelling and push back of the tongue. Spread of infection to parapharyngeal, retropharyngeal spaces and thence to the mediastinum. Aspiration pneumonia. Septicemia. Treatment Consists of giving high doses of broad-spectrum antibiotics, combined with metronidazole to combat the anaerobes immediately until the results of cultures and sensitivity tests are available. In advanced cases when the swelling does not subside rapidly with antibiotics, incision and drainage is advised. Ref : Bailey & Love 24/e p773 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which one the following drugs is a Parenteral Direct Thrombin Inhibitor ? | [
"Enoxaparin",
"Apixaban",
"Dabigatran",
"Argatroban"
] | D | INJECTABLE DIRECT THROMBIN INHIBITORS: HIRUDIN LEPIRUDIN BIVALURIDIN ARGATROBAN MELAGATRAN ORAL DIRECT THROMBIN INHIBITOR: DABIGATRAN Argatroban : A synthetic compound based on the structure of L-Arginine, binds reversibly to the active site of Thrombin . Its is administered Intravenously and has a T1/2 of 40-50 min. It is metabolized in the liver and excreted in the bile. In patients with renal impairment, but dose reduction is required for patients with hepatic insufficiency. Argatroban is licensed for the prophylaxis or treatment of patients with, or at risk of developing, Heparin-induced Thrombocytopenia . It prolongs both aPTT and PT, which can complicate the transitioning of patients from argatroban to warfarin. A factor X assay can be used instead of the PT to monitor warfarin in these patients. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which one of the following is NOT true concerning Radon? | [
"Decays by gamma emission",
"Single largest contributor to an individual's background radiation dose",
"Most stable isotope, 222Rn, has a half-life of 3.8 days",
"Implicated in Lung cancer"
] | A | Radon Radioactive, colorless, odorless, tasteless noble gas, occurring naturally as the decay product of uranium or thorium. Its most stable isotope, 222Rn, has a half-life of 3.8 days. Often the single largest contributor to an individual's background radiation dose Radon continues to decay to emit alpha paicles. Rn-222 represents a long-term hazard despite its sho half life of 3.8 days. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Ritcher transformation, CLL transforms to | [
"Diffuse large B-cell lymphoma",
"Anaplastic Large Cell Lymphoma",
"Burkitt lymphoma",
"Multiple myeloma"
] | A | Richter's Syndrome (RS), also known as Richter's Transformation, is a rare complication of Chronic Lymphocytic Leukaemia (CLL) and/or Small Lymphocytic Lymphoma (SLL). It is characterised by the sudden transformation of the CLL/SLL into a significantly more aggressive form of large cell lymphoma. Richter's Syndrome occurs in approximately 2-10% of all CLL/SLL patients during the course of their disease. In the most cases the normally slow growing, or indolent, CLL transforms into a common type of non-Hodgkin lymphoma (NHL) known as Diffuse Large B-Cell Lymphoma (DLBCL). Rarer cases transform into Hodgkin lymphoma(HL)/Hodgkin Disease (HD), and some types of T-cell lymphomas also have been repoed The most common symptoms of Richter's Syndrome arise from a sudden and dramatic increase in the size of lymph nodes (also known as 'lymphadenopathy') characterised by usually painless areas of swelling in the neck, axilla, abdomen (most commonly in the spleen, also known as 'splenomegaly') or groin. Patients also often experience a dramatic increase in unexplained weight loss, fevers and night sweats (often collectively referred to as 'B-symptoms'). Other signs and symptoms may include low haemoglobin (anaemia) characterised by: increasing fatigue shoness of breath dizziness and possible palpitations low platelets (thrombocytopaenia) characterised by excessive bruising or bleeding an increase in serum lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) or elevated serum calcium (hypercalcaemia) on routine blood tests. It is impoant to note that whilst some of these signs and symptoms may already be present to a lesser degree in people with previously diagnosed CLL/SLL, the possibility of Richter's Syndrome needs to be considered if there is a sudden and dramatic increase in these symptoms, which is not generally considered to be a typical feature of normally relatively indolent CLL/SLL disease. Richter's syndrome is a serious complication of CLL/SLL and unfounately is often fatal. If Richter's syndrome is diagnosed, it is advised that the person should seek recommended treatments, but also to get their lives in order to prepare for any outcome. You may wish to discuss an advanced health directive with your treatment team, to let them and your family know how you would like your health to be managed if your treatments are not successful Richter's Syndrome affects approximately 2-10% of patients with a prior diagnosis of CLL/SLL and can occur at any time throughout the course of the disease. Ref Davidson 23rd edition pg 789 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Least absorbed from mucous membrane are | [
"Lidocaine",
"Tetracaine",
"Procaine",
"Cocaine"
] | C | Hydrophobicity is a primary determinant of intrinsic anesthetic potency because the anesthetic molecule must penetrate into the nerve membrane and bind at a paially hydrophobic site on the Na+ channel. Clinically, however, the correlation between hydrophobicity and anesthetic potency is not as precise as in an isolated nerve. Differences between in vitro and in vivo potency may be related to a number of factors, including local anesthetic charge and hydrophobicity (which influence paitioning into and transverse diffusion across biologic membranes) and vasodilator or vasoconstrictor propeies (which influence the initial rate of vascular uptake from injection sites into the central circulation). Ref: Miller's anesthesia 8th edition Ref: Morgan & Mikhail's clinical anesthesiology 6e | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is a foldable rubber dam frame? | [
"Starlite visi frame",
"Young's metal frame",
"Nygaard-Ostby",
"Le cadre articule"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
If 'E' are lost due to caries at 8 years in a crowded mouth '5' will probably | [
"Impact",
"Deflected palatally",
"Deflected buccally",
"Fail to erupt"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Correlation coefficient tends to lie between ? | [
"Zero to -1.0",
"-1.0 to +1",
"+1.0 to zero",
"+2.0 to -2.0"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., -1.0 to + 1.0 There are two main type of correlation cofficients 1) Pearson's correlation cofficient o It is used in ungrouped series It measures the linear association between two variables that have been measured on interval or ratio scales, e.g. relationship between height (in inches) and weight (in pounds). It is used when the associated variables are jointly normally distributed. It is denoted by 'C. 2) Spearman correlation cofficient It used in grouped series o It is usually calculated on ocasions when it is not conveinient, economic or possible to give actual values to variables, but only to assign a rank order to instances of each variables. It may also be a better indicator that a relationship between two variables in non-linear. o It is used when two variables are not jointly normally distributed. o It is denoted by "rho (P)". | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following statements is false regarding botulism? | [
"Infant botulism is caused by ingestion of preformed toxin",
"Cl. botulinum A, B, E and F cause human disease",
"The gene for botulinum toxin is encoded by a bacteriophage",
"Clostridium baratii may cause botulism"
] | A | Infant botulism is caused by ingestion of preformed toxin is a false statement. Option 1 Infant botulism- sporulated honey ingestion (unlike food poisoning) is caused by neurotoxins produced in vivo by C. botulinum that have colonized the gastrointestinal tract of the infants. C/F- constipation, lethargy, weakness, weak and altered cry, loss of head control, etc. The condition may progress to flaccid paralysis and respiratory arrest. The infants excrete toxins in their feces. Option 2 All types can cause human disease, but type A, B and E are most common, less commonly type F. Type C & D- associated with outbreaks in cattle & wild fowl. Option 3 - Toxin production in clostridium botulinum appears to be determined by presence of bacteriophage (at least in type C & D). Option 4 - Clostridium baratii have also been found to produce toxin- botulism. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is not a disc sign in glaucoma? | [
"Bayonetting",
"Nasalization of vessels",
"Disc edema",
"Large cup"
] | C | Disc edema is not a sign of glaucoma. Optic nerve head changes seen in glaucoma Thinning of neuroretinal rim Large cup Nasalisation of vessels Deep cup Asymmetry of cup Disc hemorrhage Baring of blood vessels Bayonetting sign Laminar dot sign Pulsations of disc seen in very high IOP | train | med_mcqa | null |
Rifampin kills tubercle bacilli by | [
"Inhibiting mycobacterial DNA synthesis",
"Inhibiting synthesis of mycolic acids in mycobacteria",
"Binding to mycobacterial DNA dependent RNA polymerase",
"Damaging mycobacterial mitochondria"
] | C | Rifampin (Rifampicin, R) Mech of action:- Rifampin interrupts RNA synthesis by binding to b subunit of mycobacterial DNA-dependent RNA polymerase (encoded by rpoB gene) and blocking its polymerizing function. Pharmacokinetics:- It is well absorbed orally, (bioavailability is ~ 70%), but food decreases absorption; rifampin is to be taken in empty stomach. It is widely distributed in the body: penetrates intracellularly, enters tubercular cavities, caseous masses and placenta. Though it crosses meninges, it is largely pumped out from CNS by P-glycoprotein. It is metabolized in liver to an active deacetylated metabolite which is excreted mainly in bile, some in urine also, t 1/2 of rifampin is variable (2-5 hours). Rifampin resistance:- It is nearly always due to mutation in the rpoB gene reducing its affinity for the drug. No cross resistance with any other antitubercular drug, except rifampin congeners, has been noted. uses of rifampin :- 1. Leprosy, Tuberculosis 2. Prophylaxis of Meningococcal and H. influenzae meningitis and carrier state. 3. Second/third choice drug for MRSA, diphtheroids and Legionella infections. 4. Combination of doxycycline and rifampin is the first line therapy of brucellosis. Ref:- kd tripathi; pg num:-768 | train | med_mcqa | null |
The normal daily excretion of uric acid ranges from | [
"10 to 30 mg",
"50 to 70 mg",
"100 to 300 mg",
"500 to 700 mg"
] | D | Uric acid the end product of purine metabolism or oxidation in the body. It is present in blood in a concentration of about 5 mg/100 ml and is excreted in the urine in amounts of a little less than 1 g per day.Ref: Ganong&;s review of medical physiology; 24th edition; page no; 13 | train | med_mcqa | null |
A young patient presents to the emergency depament with fever and right upper quadrant pain Clinical examination reveals obvious hepatomegaly but there is no jaundice. Ultrasound reveals a solitary, homogeneous, hypoechoic lesion in the right lobe measuring 5 cm 5 cm 4 cm. Test for hydatid disease were negative. Which of the following is the best recommendation for initial treatment - | [
"Multiple Aspirations and antiamoebies/antibiotics",
"Catheter drainage and antiamoebics/ antibiotics",
"Antiamoebics/ antibiotics alone",
"Hepatectomy followed by antiamobics/ antibiotics"
] | C | Amoebic liver abscess The abscess is usually found in the right hepatic lobe. There may not be associated diarrhoea. Early symptoms may be only local discomfo and malaise; later, a swinging temperature and sweating may develop, usually without marked systemic symptoms or signs. An enlarged, tender liver, cough and pain in the right shoulder are characteristic but symptoms may remain vague and signs minimal. A large abscess may penetrate the diaphragm, rupturing into the lung, and may be coughed up through a hepatobronchial fistula. Rupture into the pleural or peritoneal cavity, or rupture of a left lobe abscess in the pericardial sac, is less common but more serious. Investigations The stool and any exudate should undergo prompt microscopic examination for motile trophozoites containing red blood cells. Movements cease rapidly as the stool preparation cools. Several stools may need to be examined in chronic amoebiasis before cysts are found. Sigmoidoscopy may reveal typical flask-shaped ulcers, which should be scraped and examined immediately for E. histolytica. In endemic areas, one-third of the population are symptomless passers of amoebic cysts. An amoebic abscess of the liver is suspected on clinical grounds; there is often a neutrophil leucocytosis and a raised right hemidiaphragm on chest X-ray. Confirmation is by ultrasonic scanning. Aspirated pus from an amoebic abscess has the characteristic chocolate-brown appearance but only rarely contains free amoebae . Serum antibodies are detectable by immunofluorescence in over 95% of patients with hepatic amoebiasis and intestina amoeboma, but in only about 60% of dysenteric amoebiasis. DNA detection by PCR has been shown to be useful in diagnosis of E. histolytica infections but is not generally available Ref Davidson edition23rd pg 287 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following commonly used topical antiseptics has antifungal activity? | [
"Povidone-Iodine",
"Cetrirnide",
"Chlorhexidine",
"Alcohol"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Liability for wrong limb amputation can be considered under: BHU 12; NIMHANS 14 | [
"Criminal negligence",
"Civil negligence",
"Both civil and criminal",
"Contributory negligence"
] | C | Ans. Both civil and criminal | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most impoant blood supply to stomach is | [
"Left gastric aery",
"Sho gastric aeries",
"Left gastric aeries",
"Right gastro epiploic aery"
] | A | The greater curvature of the stomach receives its blood supply from the left gastroepiploic aery along its top edge and from the right gastroepiploic aery along its lower edge. The upper poion of the greater curvature of the stomach, along with the fundus, receives blood from the sho gastric aery. ref - BDC 6e vol2 pg 277 | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following are characteristics of Lower motor neuron lesion except | [
"Fasciculations",
"Rigidity",
"Flexor plantar",
"Wasting"
] | B | (B) Rigidity # Characteristics of Lower motor neuron lesion> Muscle paresis or paralysis fibrillations fasciculations hypotonia or atonia- Tone is not velocity dependent.> Areflexia or hyporeflexia -Along with deep reflexes even cutaneous reflexes are also decreased or absent> Strength -weakness is limited to segmental or focal pattern, Root innervated pattern> Extensor Babinski reflex is usually absent. Muscle paresis/paralysis, hypotonia/atonia, and hyporeflexia/areflexia are usually seen immediately following an insult.> Muscle wasting, fasciculations and fibrillations are typically signs of end-stage muscle denervation and are seen over a longer time period. Another feature is the segmentation of symptoms - only muscles innervated by the damaged nerves will be symptomatic. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All are true for a group discussion except | [
"Not a very effective method of health communication",
"Ideally a group should comprise of 6-12 members",
"Can lead to change in health attitudes and behaviour",
"Allows free exchange of ideas and opinions"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
The most impoant factor in fracture healing is: | [
"Good alignment",
"Organization of blood clot",
"Accurate reduction and 100% apposition of fractured fragments",
"Immobilisation"
] | D | D i.e. Immobilization | train | med_mcqa | null |
Left gonadal vein drain into: | [
"Left renal vein",
"Right renal vein",
"Inferior vena cava",
"Pampiniform plexus"
] | A | Ans. A Left renal veinRef: BDC, Vol. II pg. 236 VENOUS DRAINAGE OF TESTIS* The veins emerging from the testis form the pampiniform plexus.* Out of this plexus finally one vein forms in each side:# On the right side: Drains into the inferior vena cava# On the left side: Drains into the left renal vein.* Femoral vein drains into external iliac vein.Remember: IVC is on right side, so the right side testicular vein drains here"And left side testicular vein drains into left renal vein. | train | med_mcqa | null |
SARS causative agent - | [
"Corona-virus",
"Picorna-virus",
"Myxovirus",
"Retrovirus"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Type of necrosis in pancreatitis ? | [
"Fibrinoid",
"Coagulative",
"Fat",
"Caseous"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Fat Fat necrosis is seen most frequently in acute pancreatitis due to leakage of lipase. Fat necrosis Fat necrosis may be of two types : ? 1. Enzymatic fat necrosis This is due to action of lipase on adipose tissue. It occurs most frequently in acute pancreatitis due to leakage of lipase. Depending on the severity of acute pancreatitis, fat necrosis may occur in : - a Adipose tissue contiguous to pancrease, retroperitoneal fat. Adipose tissue in anterior mediastinum. Bone marrow Omental and abdominal fat 2. Nonenzymatic or Traumatic fat necrosis Occurs due to trauma Is seen in subcutaneous tissue of breast, thigh, and abdomen. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Iron absorption is increased in - | [
"Iron deficiency anemia",
"Pregnancy",
"All types of anemia",
"Malignancy"
] | A | <p>In iron deficiency anemia & in pregnancy ,the propoion of absorption is raised to 20-30%.It is because when the demand is increased ,intestinal iron absorption will be elevated.</p><p>Reference :Harsh mohan textbook of pathology sixth edition pg no 295</p> | train | med_mcqa | null |
Life span of microfilaria in human blood is | [
"2 Months",
"3 Months",
"4 Months",
"6 Months"
] | B | Life span of micro filaria in human blood is 3 Months. | train | med_mcqa | null |
True about Propagated epidemic is following Except | [
"Secondary waves are absent",
"Spreads from person to person",
"The speed of spread depends upon Herd immunity",
"Shows gradual rise and fall over long period of me"
] | A | A propagated epidemic is most often infectious origin and results from person to person transmission of an infectious agent.The e[idemic usually shows a gradual rise and tails off over a much longer period of time.The speed of spread depends upon herd immunity, oppounities for contact and secondary atttack rate.Park 23e pg: 65 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which artery is responsible for epistaxis after ligating of external carotid artery? | [
"Ethmoidal artery",
"Greater palatine artery",
"Superior labial artery",
"Ascending pharyngeal"
] | A | Answer: (A) Ethmoidal arteryREF: Dhingra 4th ed p. 140Both anterior and posterior ethmoidal arteries are branches from internal carotid artery not external carotid artery | train | med_mcqa | null |
In Phenylketonuria, the first line therapy is: | [
"Replacement of the defective enzyme",
"Replacement of the deficient product",
"Limiting the substrate for deficient enzyme",
"Giving the missing amino acid by diet"
] | C | In phenylketonuria:- There is accumulation of phenylalanine Accumulated phenylalanine inhibits the transpo of other amino acids required for neurotransmitter synthesis, reduces synthesis and increases degradation of myelin - Mental retardation Breastfeeding introduces phenylalanine and symptoms will be:- 1. Vomiting 2. Irritability 3. Convulsions & tremors are the usual presentations. Thus, limiting the substrate of the deficient enzyme, i.e. phenylalanine, is the first-line of management. Breastfeeding should be avoided. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Inferior angle of scapula is at the level of: | [
"T 4",
"T 5",
"T 6",
"T 7"
] | D | Inferior angle of scapula lies at the level of T 7. Spine of the scapula is at the level of T 3. Root of the spine of the scapula is opposite the spinous process of T3 veebrae.Superior angle of scapula lies at the level of veebrae T2. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Massive transfusion in previous healthy adult male can cause hemorrhage due to - | [
"Increased tPA",
"Dilutional thrombocytopenia",
"Vitamin K deficiency",
"Decreased Fibrinogen"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Drugs used for the treatment of Parkinson's disease include:– | [
"Levodopa",
"Bromocriptine",
"Benserazide",
"All of these"
] | D | Levodopa, bromocriptine and benserazide are used in Parkinsonism.
Mazindol is a potent anorectic agent. It has an additional peripheral effect of increasing metabolic rate.
Acyclovir is an antiviral agent, not used in parkinsonism. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Use of oral contraceptives decreases the incidence of all of the following except : | [
"Ectopic pregnancy",
"Epithelial ovarian malignancy",
"Hepatic adenoma",
"Pelvic inflammatory disease"
] | C | Benefits of combined pills -It effectively controls feility. -As it causes regular and scanty menstruation, it is useful in menorrhagia and polymenorrhoea. -By viue of nonovulation, it can relieve dysmenorrhoea and premenstrual tension. -It prevents anaemia by reducing the menstrual loss. -It has proved to lower the incidence of benign breast neoplasia such as fibrocystic disease. -It reduces the incidence of functional ovarian cyst (50%) and ovarian and uterine malignancy. The incidence of ovarian cancer is reduced by 40% and uterine malignancy by 50% if taken for 1 year, and this effect lasts as long as 10 years after stoppage. The risk decreases with duration of its use. -The incidence of PID is reduced, though it does not reach the same low level as seen with the barrier method. This effect is due to the thick cervical mucus caused by progestogen, preventing the organisms entering into the uterine cavity. -Reduced incidence of ectopic pregnancy is due to suppression of ovulation and reduction in PID. -It protects against rheumatoid ahritis. -Reduces the risk of anorectal cancer by 30-40%. -It is useful in acne, PCOD and endometriosis. Reference: Shaw's Textbook of gynaecology 16th edition page no 274 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following explanations is not an explanation for decreased variability of the fetal hea tracing : | [
"Fetal \"sleep state\"",
"Prematurity",
"Barbiturate ingestion",
"Fetal stimulation"
] | D | Fetal stimulation | train | med_mcqa | null |
Increased renin activity is seen in all of the following, except: | [
"Benign nephrosclerosis",
"Malignant nephrosclerosis",
"Haemolytic Uremic Syndrome",
"Juxtaglomerular cell tumour"
] | A | Answer is A (Benign Nephrosclerosis): Benign nephrosclerosis is usually not accompanied by increased production of renin or activation of the reninangiotensin-aldosterone pathway. Benign vs. Malignant Nephrosclerosis Nephrosclerosis refers to the ischemic changes of the kidney arising from vascular diseases affecting the renal aeries, typically hypeension. Benign Nephrosclerosis represents a typical change in renal blood vessels as a consequence of chronic nonspecific hypeension. Pathological changes in Benign Nephrosclerosis are usually not significant enough to activate the Renin Angiotensin Pathway. Malignant nephrosclerosis is a more severe form of nephrosclerosis with unique lesions in the form of fibrinoid necrosis of the afferent aerioles that can lead to renal ischemia. This activates the renin angiotensin pathway which in turn raises the blood pressure even more. Activation of the renin-angiotensin system could be a critical step in the transition from benign to malignant nephrosclerosis. Malignant nephrosclerosis is accompanied by increased production of renin, angiotensin, and aldosterone Hypeension in Haemolytic Uremic Syndrome is often renin mediated (Increased Renin) Hypeension in the acute phase of HUS is usually volume related while in the later stages it is often produced as a result of increased renin levels Juxtaglomerular Cell Tumours are associated with high renin levels Juxtaglomerular cell tumours may produce excess renin directly and cause hypeension without affecting renal circulation | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following are larva control measures except - | [
"Gambusia",
"Intermittent irrigation",
"DDT",
"Paris green"
] | C | Antilarval measures of mosquito control are: Environmental control - Source reduction and minor engineering methods like filling, levelling and drainage of breeding places and water management(like intermittent irrigation) Chemical control -Mineral oils, Paris green, synthetic insecticides Biological control with gambusia and lebister which feed on larvae of mosquitos. Park's Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine, 25th Edition, Pg 832 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following organ is not involved in calcium metabolism? | [
"Lung",
"Liver",
"Spleen",
"Skin"
] | C | Calcium metabolism refers to the movements and regulation of calcium ions (Ca2+) in and out of various body compaments, such as the gastrointestinal tract, the blood plasma, the extracellular and intracellular fluids, and bone tissue. An impoant aspect of calcium metabolism is plasma calcium homeostasis, the regulation of calcium ions in the blood plasma within narrow limits. In this process, bone tissue acts as a calcium storage center for deposits and withdrawals as needed by the blood, continual bone remodeling.:276-277 Derangement of this mechanism leads to hypercalcemia or hypocalcemia, both of which can have consequences for health. The level of the calcium in humans' plasma is regulated by calcitonin and parathyroid hormone (PTH); calcitonin is released by the thyroid gland when its plasma level is above its set normal point (in order to lower calcium level); PTH is released by the parathyroid glands when calcium level falls below set point Ref: guyton and hall textbook of medical physiology 12 edition page number :577,578,579 | train | med_mcqa | null |
An 1 year old girl is brought to OPD by her parents with complaint of dry flakes and yellow, greasy scales with reddened skin on scalp and redness over the face. On physical examination there is lymphadenopathy and hepatosplenomegaly. On X-Ray of long bones multiple lytic lesions are seen. what is the most likely cause of all this? | [
"Hand- Schuller- Christian disease",
"Eosionophilic granuloma",
"Letterer-Siwe disease",
"Unifocal Langerhans cell histiocytosis"
] | C | From the above case history, this seems to be likely case of Letterer-Siwe disease as- - child is < 2 years old - skin lesions such as seborrhic dermatitis is seen on skull. - Multiple lytic lesions are seen on X-ray of bones. All above signs indicate towards Letterer-Siwe disease which is a multifocal and multisystem disease. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Not a radiological feature of Ankylosing spondylitis | [
"Dagger sign",
"Trolley track sign",
"Romanus sign",
"Fish mouth vertebrae"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Clutton's joint are | [
"Syphilitic joints",
"End stage Tuberculous joints",
"Associated with trauma",
"Usually painful"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Anterior vibrating Line is located on: | [
"Soft palatal tissue",
"Hard palatal tissue",
"Either on soft or hard palatal tissue",
"Posterior to fovea palatine"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
False about cystic fibrosis: (PGI June 2009) | [
"Associated with CFTR gene",
"Autosomal recessive inheritance",
"Associated with 7p chromosome",
"Recurrant respiratory tract infection"
] | C | Ans: C (Associated with 7p chromosome] /Ref: Robbins 7 th/490-95]"The primary defect in cystic fibrosis results from abnormal function of an epithelial chloride channel protein encoded by the cysticfibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator(CFTR) Q gene on chromosome band 7q31.2Q"-Robbins 7th/490Cystic Fibrosis (Mucoviscidosis)Autosomal recessive? inheritanceAppear at any point in life from before birth 9 to much later in childhood or even in adolescence*May leads to chronic lung disease1, pancreatic insufficiency ., steatorrhoea'-', malnutrition, hepatic cirrhosis, intestinal obstruction & male infertility'."In sweat glands duct, ENaC (Epithelial sodium channel) activity decreases as a result ofCFTR mutation; therefore a hypertonic luminal fluid containing both high sweat chloride (the sine qua non of classic CF)& high sodium content is formed .This is the basis of the salty sweat; the mothers can often detect in their affected infant"-Robbins7th/490Biochemical studies indicate that the F5(JH mutation'-' leads to improper processing and intracellular degradation of the CFTR protein. Thus, absence of CFTR in the plasma membrane is central to the molecular pathophysiology of the F508 mutationCF patients exhibit a characteristic sputum microbiology. Haemophilus influenzae Q and S. aureus are often the first organisms recovered from lung secretions in newly diagnosed patients with CF. P. aeruginosa, often mucoid and antibiotic-resistant, is typically cultured from lower respiratory tract secretions thereafter. Burkholderia (formerly Pseudomonas cepacia) is also recovered from CF sputum and is pathogenicDiagnostic biophysical hallmark of CF is the raised transepithelial electric potential difference detected in airway epitheliumLate onset of puberty is common in both males and females with CF | train | med_mcqa | null |
Type I thyroplasty is for - | [
"Vocal cord medialization",
"Vocal cord lateralization",
"Vocal cord shortening",
"Vocal cord lengthening"
] | A | Type 1: Medial displacement of vocal cord (done by injection of gel foam/Teflon paste)
Type 2: Lateral displacement of the cord (done to improve the airway).
Type 3: Shortening (relax) the cord, to lower the pitch (gender transformation from female to male).
Type 4: Lengthening (tightening) the cord, to elevate the pitch (gender transformation from male to female). | train | med_mcqa | null |
Spastic paraplegia is caused by all of the following, except: | [
"Lead poisoning",
"Cervical spondylosis",
"Vitamin B12 deficiency",
"Motor neuron disease"
] | A | Cord compression due to Cervical spondylosis, sub acute combined degeneration of cord due to vitamin B12 deficiency, and motor neuron disease involving the upper motor neuron's are all established cause for spastic paraplegia. Causes of spastic paraplegia includes: Thrombosis of anterior spinal aery Inflammation of cord: acute transverse myelitis Trauma of the spinal cord: fracture of veebrae, gunshot injury Nutritional: sub acute combined degeneration of the cord, lathyriasis Spinal cord compression: tumor in meninges or cord, caries of spine, syphilitic patchy meningitis Degeneration of the cord: multiple sclerosis, cervical spondylosis, amyotropic lateral sclerosis and syringomyelia Ref: Principles and Practice of Medicine a TB for Students and Practitioners By Prasad, Page 670 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which is not true about attitude - | [
"Adjustment",
"Knowledge",
"Cognition",
"Affect"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Adjustment Attitudeso An attitude is a hypothetical construct that represents an individual's degree of like or dislike for an item.o In simple words, attitude means how a person expresses his/her likes and dislikes towards particular people, things, and occurences.o Attitude can be positive, negative, or neutral.o It is also common to have more than one of these feelings towards something - When that happens, for example, in the case of a person both likes and dislikes something at once, it is referred to as ambivalent attitude.o An attitude includes three componentsCognitive (knowledge) elementAffective (emotional or feeling) elementA tendency to action | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 5 years old boy presents with hepatomegaly, hypoglycaemia, ketosis. The diagnosis is: | [
"Mucopolysaccharidosis",
"Glycogen storage disorder",
"Lipopolysaccharidosis",
"Diabetes mellitus"
] | B | Ans. B. Glycogen Storage Disorder(Ref: Nelson 20e Chapter 715 Defects in metabolism of Carbohydrates)Patients with type IGSD may present in the neonatal period with hypoglycemia and lactic acidosisThese children often have doll-like faces with fat cheeks, relatively thin extremities, short stature, and a protuberant abdomen that is due to massive hepatomegaly; the kidneys are also enlarged, whereas the spleen and heart are normal.The biochemical hallmarks of the Type Ia GSD (Von Gierke's) disease are hypoglycemia, lactic acidosis, hyperuricemia, and hyperlipidemia | train | med_mcqa | null |
True about streptococcus - | [
"Lancefield classification is based on M protein",
"Group `G' not found in human",
"Group 'B' causes neonatal meningitis",
"Group 'C' can be isolated from vaginal flora"
] | C | Ans. is `c i.e. Group 'B' causes neonatal meningitis Lancefield classification is based on carbohydrate 'C' antigen not on M protein. Besides Str. pyogenes, streptococci belonging to group B, C, D, F, G and rarely H, K, 0 and R may also cause human infections. Group B streptococcus is the single most common cause of neonatal meningitis. Group C streptococci are pa of normal flora of throat (not of vaginal flora) Group D streptococci ie enterococci can cause urinary tract infection. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Alkalinization of urine is done during administration of which of the folloiwng chemotherapeutic drugs? | [
"Ara-C",
"Methotrexate",
"Cisplatin",
"Ifosafamide"
] | B | Ans is 'b' i.e. Methotrexate o Urine alkalinization by NaHCO3 enhances the elimination of weak acids, e.g. Salicylates, Phenobarbitone, Chlorpropamide, formic acid and methotrexate. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The relative hardness of elastomers is determined using | [
"Rockwell tester",
"Barcol indenter",
"Knoop pyramid",
"Shore duromete"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
In a survey, many children are examined and were found to have urogenital abnormalities. Which congenital anomaly is associated with increased risk of bladder carcinoma. | [
"Medullary sponge kidney",
"Bladder exstrophy",
"Unilateral renal agenesis",
"Double ureter"
] | B | Ans is b ie Bladder exstrophy Congenital anomalies associated with increased risk of bladder cancer are: - patent urachus - exstrophy bladder - Both increase the risk for adenocarcinoma. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Drug of choice given in ANUG: | [
"Penicillin",
"Metronidazole",
"Both of the above",
"Tetracycline"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which one of the following is not a symptom of atherosclerotic occlusive disease at the bifurcation of aoa (Lehriche syndrome)? | [
"Claudication of buttock and thigh",
"Claudication of the calf",
"Sexual impotence",
"Gangrene localized to the feet"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e. Gangrene localized to the feet | train | med_mcqa | null |
Mac Conkey's Agar is | [
"Enriched medium",
"Enrichment medium",
"Differential medium",
"Synthetic medium"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following drug is a long-acting beta-2 agonist | [
"Albuterol",
"Salmeterol",
"Pirbuterol",
"Orciprenaline"
] | B | ref; KD Tripathi Pharmacology 7th edition(page no;223) Salmeterol is the first long-acting selective beta 2 agonist with a slow onset of action; used by inhalation on a twice-daily schedule for maintenance therapy and for nocturnal asthma, but not for acute symptoms. salbutamol can be used for acute symptoms | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most common inherited cause of Aplastic anemia | [
"Idiopathic",
"Fanconi anemia",
"Scwachman - diamond syndrome",
"Down syndrome"
] | B | M/C acquired cause - Idiopataic.
M/C inherited - Fanconi anemia. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Coxsackie group A does not cause ? | [
"Conjunctivits",
"Aseptic meningitis",
"Hepatitis",
"H.F.M.D"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Aseptic meningitis. Aseptic meningitis is caused by all types group B Coxackies viruses and by many group 'A' Coxsakie viruses most commonly A7 and A9.History of fever and headache with neck stiffness suggest the diagnosis of meningitis. C'SF analysis findings of increased opening pressure, mildly increased proteins, normal glucose, increased lymphocytes are highly suggestive of viral (Coxsackie virus) meningitis. Meningitis with normal glucose is highly suggestive of viral meningitisTypical CSF Profiles for Meningitis NormalBacterialMeningitisViral MeningitisFungalMeningitisParasiticMeningitisTuberculousMeningitisWBC count (perpL)<5>1000deg25-500deg40-600150-200025-100Differential of WBC60-70%lympho-cytes, 30%monocytes /macrophagesTiPMNsdeg(N30%)PredominantlylymphocytesdegLymphocytesor PMNs,dependingon specificorganismTTEosinophils(50deg/0)PredominantlylymphocytesdegGram's stainNegativePositivedeg (in>60% of cases)NegativedegRarely positiveNegativeOccasionallypositivedegGlucose (mg/dL)40-85<40degNormaldegI to normalNormalcasesdegProtein (mg/dL)15-45>100deg20-80deg150-30050-200100-200QOpening pressure(mm H20)50-180>300deg100-350deg160-340Normal150-280degAbout other options. Acute hemorrhagic conjuctivitis can be caused by Coxsackie virus A-24, but it is not common. Mostly it is caused by enterovirus - 70.. Myocarditis and hepatitis are mainly caused by Coxsackie virus group B. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Tibialis posterior originates from | [
"tibia",
"Fibula",
"Interosseus membrane",
"All th above"
] | D | ORIGIN:The tibialis posterior muscle originates on the inner posterior borders of the tibia and fibula.It is also attached to the interosseous membrane, which attaches to the tibia and fibula.INSION:The tendon of the tibialis posterior muscle (sometimes called the posterior tibial tendon) descends posterior to the medial malleolus and terminates by dividing into plantar, main, and recurrent components.The main poion inses into the tuberosity of the navicular and the plantar surface of the medial cuneiform.The plantar poion inses into the bases of the second, third and fouh metatarsals, the intermediate and lateral cuneiforms and the cuboid.The recurrent poion inses into the sustentaculum tali of the calcaneus. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Neurons of first order for visual sensations are: | [
"Rods and cones",
"Bipolar cells",
"Ganglion cells",
"None of the above"
] | B | Ans. Bipolar cells | train | med_mcqa | null |
Hypertrophic pyloric stanosis causes | [
"Hyperkalemic metabolic alkosis",
"Hyperkalemic metabloic acidosis",
"Hyperkalemic metabolic alkalosis with paradoxical aciduria",
"Hypokalemic metabolic alkalosis with paradoxical aciduria"
] | D | In Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis dehydration causes hypokalemic, hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis with paradoxical aciduria. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Horner Tranta's spots are seen in: | [
"Vernal conjunctivitis",
"Phylectenular conjunctivitis",
"Angular conjunctivitis",
"Follicular conjunctivitis"
] | A | Ans. Vernal conjunctivitis | train | med_mcqa | null |
Neural crest cells give rise to all the dental structures except ? | [
"Odontoblasts",
"Dentine",
"Enamel",
"Tooth pulp"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., EnamelTeeth developmentA) Neural crest derivaties (Derivatives of neuroectoderm)Mesenchymall cells (derived from neural crest) of dental papilla form :?i) Odontoblasts which form Dentineii) Tooth pulpB) Derivatives of surface ectodermIt gives rise to ameloblasts which form enamel. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Equilibrium potential of K+ | [
"-70mV",
"-90mV",
"+70mV",
"+90mV"
] | B | Equilibrium potential of K+ is -90mV.(Ref: Textbook of physiology AK JAIN 4th edition page no.34) | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 40-year-old man has been bothered by oral candidiasis, fever, and diarrhea for the past year. On physical examination, he has muscle wasting. His weight is 70% of normal for his height and age. He has generalized nontender lymphadenopathy, but no hepatosplenomegaly. He developed three irregular, 1- to 2-cm, reddish-purple, nodular skin lesions on his forearm in the past 3 months. Laboratory findings show hemoglobin, 12.2 g/dL; hematocrit, 36.5%; MCV, 85 mm3; platelet count, 188,000/ mm3; and WBC count, 2460/ mm3 with 82% segmented neutrophils, 4% bands, 6% lymphocytes, 6% monocytes, and 2% eosinophils. Infection with which of the following organisms is most likely to produce these findings? | [
"Hepatitis C virus",
"Herpes simplex virus",
"HIV",
"Mycobacterium leprae"
] | C | The reddish-purple lesions are typical of Kaposi sarcoma in a patient with wasting syndrome, oral thrush, and lymphopenia characteristic of HIV infection with AIDS. Hepatitis C virus is unlikely to produce skin lesions or lymphopenia of this degree. Herpes simplex virus infections may be seen more frequently in HIV infection, but the lesions are typically vesicular and are located in the perioral or perianal regions. Hansen disease, caused by Mycobacterium leprae infection, may produce a faint reddish rash that fades, followed by hypopigmentation or anesthesia of affected skin and sometimes nodular deforming lesions developing over years. Staphylococcal skin infections tend to produce localized abscesses, such as furuncles and boils. Streptococcal skin infections may manifest as abscesses or as cellulitis. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Type IV Hypersensitivity- | [
"Farmer's lung",
"Contact hypersensitivity",
"Immediate hypersensitivity",
"Myasthenia gravis"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Contact hypersensitivity | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following are good prognostic factors for acute lymphoblastic leukemia ,except: | [
"Age of onset between 2-8 years",
"Initial WBC count less than 50000",
"Hyper ploidy",
"t(9:22), t(8:14), t(4:11)"
] | D | . t(9:22), t(8:14), t(4:11) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Inflammatory bowel disease found in children | [
"Ulcerative colitis",
"Tropical sprue",
"Crohn's disease",
"Celiac disease"
] | A | .ULCERATIVE COLITIS * It is an inflammatory condition of rectum and colon of unknown aetiology perhaps related to stress, westernized diet, autoimmune factor, familial tendency, allergic factor. * Disease commonly stas in the rectum, spreads proximally to the colon and often into the ileum as back wash ileitis (5%). * More common in females (2:1), begins in 3rd decade. Watery diarrhoea, mucus or blood stained discharge per rectum. * Colicky pain, spasms. * Decreased appetite and loss of weight. * Relapses and remissions at regular intervals. ref:SRB&;s manual of surgery,ed 3,pg no 824 | train | med_mcqa | null |
In the sensorineural hearing loss, weber's test is lateralized to - | [
"Normal ear",
"Defective ear",
"Not lateralized",
"May alternate"
] | A | Ans-A Normal ear TestNormalConductive deafnessSN deafnessRinneAC > BC (Rinne positive)BC > AC (Rinne negative)AC > BC (Rinne negative)WeberNot lateralizedLateralized to poorer earLateralized to better earABCSame as examiner'sSame as examiner'sReducedSchwabachEqualLengthenedShortened | train | med_mcqa | null |
'D' cells of the pancreas secrete: | [
"Insulin",
"Glucagon",
"Intestinal peptide",
"Somatostatin"
] | D | D i.e. Somatostatin | train | med_mcqa | null |
8-month-old male infant is brought in for routine checkup by his mother. The child is pale, but other than that, looks healthy, with growth parameters within the expected range. The mother informed that boy was breast fed for three months, followed by cow's milk substitute. For the last two months, she started giving him fruits and vegetables; however, she still hasn't introduced eggs and milk into the boy's diet. Complete blood count (CBC) shows hemoglobin (Hgb) level to be 9g/dL, mean corpuscular volume (MCV) of 65fL, increased total iron binding capacity (TIBC) and low serum iron. Neither mother nor father have a positive family history for any blood disorder. What is the best treatment? | [
"It can be treated with multivitamins.",
"It can be treated with proper diet only.",
"It can be treated with iron supplementation only.",
"It can be treated with proper diet and iron supplementation"
] | D | Answer: d) It can be treated with proper diet and iron supplementation Microcytic anemia caused by iron deficiency can be treated with proper diet and iron supplementation. Parents should be advised not to give eggs and meat at the same time as dairybecause of the intake interference. Multivitamins would not be helpful in this case because iron is deficient, not vitamins. Proper diet is important, but since the hemoglobin is low, iron supplementation is supposed to be given. Iron supplementation alone would be helpful for short term, but anemia would appear again after therapy if proper diet is not followedIRON DEFICIENCY ANEMIA* Most common type of anemia worldwide* Chronic blood loss is the most common cause of iron deficiencyIron absorption increased byIron absorption reduced by* Heme iron (10-20% absorbed)* Ferrous form (Fe2+)* Animal foods* Acid pH* Vitamin C* Increased erythropoiesis* Pregnancy* Hypoxia* Amino acids, Sugar* Iron deficiency* Non heme iron (1-5% absorbed)* Plant foods* Ferric form (Fe 3+)* Alkali pH* Iron overload* Achlorhydria* Phytates, tannates in tea* Decreased erythropoiesis* Inflammatory disorders On an average, only 10% to 15% of ingested iron is absorbed The major iron transporter from the diet across the intestinal lumen - ferroportin Iron absorbed from the diet or released from stores circulates in the plasma bound to transferrin, the iron transport proteinStages of Iron deficiencyNegative iron balanceIron deficient erythropoiesisIron deficiency anemia* Demands exceed the body's ability to absorb iron from diet* Serum ferritin decrease* Stainable iron on bone marrow aspirations decrease* Serum iron, TIBC, red cell protoporphyrin levels, RBC indices, morphology - normal* Marrow iron stores depleted - Serum iron decreases - TIBC & Red cell protoporphyrin levels increases - Transferrin saturation decreases - first appearance of microcytic cells, hypochromic reticulocytes* Decreased Hb* Decreased hematocrit* Transferrin saturation: 10 -15%* Hb<7g/dL: target cells and poikilocytes* Within the erythroid cell, iron in excess of the amount needed for hemoglobin synthesis binds to a storage protein, apoferritin, forming ferritin* Serum ferritin level is the most useful test to diagnose iron deficiency* Serum ferritin level is the most convenient laboratory test to estimate iron stores* Average Se ferritin levels: Adult males -100 mg/L; adult females - 30 mg/L* Marrow iron stores are absent when the serum ferritin level is <15 mg/L.* Transferrin receptor protein (TRP) - increased in absolute iron deficiency* MCCs of increased red cell protoporphyrin levels - absolute or relative iron deficiency and lead poisoning.Treatment* 300mg elemental iron daily* Reticulocyte count begins to rise within 4-7 days after initiation of therapy* Failure of response to iron therapy is usually due to noncompliance* Parenteral Iron indications - intolerance to oral iron, refractoriness to oral iron, gastrointestinal disease, and continued blood loss* For parenteral iron therapy, Amount of iron needed= Body weight (kg) x 2.3 x (15 - patient's Hb ) + 500 or 1000 mg | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following anaemias is a risk factor for the development of gastric carcinoma ? | [
"Pernicious anaemia",
"Megaloblastic anaemia",
"Aplastic anaemia",
"Haemolytic anaemia"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Pernicious anaemia | train | med_mcqa | null |
Oncocytes are found in all except - | [
"Thyroid",
"Panereus",
"Pituitary",
"Pineal"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Pineal Oncocytes are present in the acini and ducts of normal salivary gland.o They are also present in some benign tumors of salivary glands, thyroid, parathyroid, kidney, lung and pituitary - | train | med_mcqa | null |
Parachute lesions are seen in | [
"Eales disease",
"Diabetes",
"Sickle cell anemia",
"All of the above"
] | D | &;Parachute lesion&; or &;Retinal sea-fans&; are seen in retinal vasoproliferative disorders. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A patient presents with recurrent episodes of sharp pain over his right cheek that is precipitated on chewing. Between attacks patients is otherwise normal. The most probable diagnosis is - | [
"Preherpetic neuralgia",
"Trigeminal neuralgia",
"Mumps",
"Thalamic syndrome"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Trigeminal Neuralgia Epidemiologyo TN is a rare condition that affects women more than men.o The incidence increases gradually with age: most idiopathic cases begin after age 50.Etiology and pathogenesiso Most cases of TNare caused by compression of the trigeminal nerve root, usually within a few millimeters of entry into the pons (the root entry zone).o Compression by an aberrant loop of an artery or vein is thought to account for 80 to 90 percent of cases.o Idiopathic TN or TN caused by a vascular compression is considered classic TN.o Other causes of TN via nerve compression include vestibular schwannoma (acoustic neuroma), meningioma, epidermoid or other cyst, or, rarely, a saccular aneurysm or arteriovenous malformation.Classificationo In the International Classification of Headache Disorders, 3rd edition (ICHD-3), TN is divided into classic (or classical) trigeminal neuralgia caused by neurovascular compression and painful trigeminal neuropathy caused by a number of other conditions.Trigeminal neuralgia||ClassicPainful trigeminalo Classic TN encompasses both idiopathic TN c cases and those related to vascular compression.o Painful trigeminal neurooathv is caused by lesions other than vascular compression:# The rationale is as follows.# Painfid trigeminal neuropathy attributed to acute herpes zoster.# The ICHD-3 acknowledges that TN found to be related to compression of the trigeminal nerve by a vascular loop, as demonstrated by surgery\ should strictly be regarded as secondary.# Postherpetic trigeminal neuropathy# Painful posttraumatic trigeminal neuropathy# Painful trigeminal neuropathy attributed to multiple sclerosis plaque# However, most patients do not have surgery, and it is often uncertain as to whether they have primary or secondary neuralgia.# Painful trigeminal neuropathy attributed to space-occupying lesion# For this reason, the ICHD-3 uses the term"classical'' instead of "primary" for patients with a typical history of TN who have a presumed or demonstrated vascular source of compression as the cause.# Painfid trigeminal neuropathy'attributed to other disorderClinical featureso TN is defined clinically by paroxysmal, stereotyped attacks of usually intense, sharp, superficial, or stabbing pain in the distribution of one or more branches of the fifth cranial (trigeminal) nerve.o The pain of TN tends to occur in paroxysms and is maximal at or near onset.o Facial muscle spasms can be seen with severe pain.#This finding gave rise to the older term for this disorder, "tic douloureux"o The pain is often described as electric, shock-like or stabbing.o It usually lasts from one to several seconds, but may occur repetitively.o A refractory' period of several minutes during which a paroxysm cannot be provoked is common.o Some patients with longstanding TN may have continuous dull pain that is present between paroxysms of pain.o Unlike some other facial pain syndromes, TN typically does not awaken patients at night,o TN is typically unilateral.#Occasionally the pain is bilateral though rarely on both sides simultaneously.o The distribution of pain most often involves the V2 and/or V3 subdivisions of the trigeminal nerve.o Trigger zones in the distribution of the affected nerve may be present and are often located near the midline. Lightly touching these zones often triggers an attach leading patients to protect these areas.# Other triggers of TN paroxysms include chewing, talking, brushing teeth, cold air smiling, and/or grimacing.o Autonomic symptoms, usually mild or moderate, can occur in association with attacks ofTNin the VI trigeminal distribution, including lacrimation, conjunctival injection, and rhinorrhea.Diagnosiso The diagnosis of TN is based upon the characteristic clinical features described above, primarily paroxysms of pain in the distribution of the trigeminal nerve.o Once the diagnosis of TN is suspected on clinical grounds, a search for secondary causes should be undertaken.Diagnostic criteria for trigerm in at neuralgiao The International Classification ofHeadache Disorders, 3rd edition (ICHD-3) diagnostic criteria for classic TN are as follows:A)At least three attacks of unilateral facial pain fulfilling criteria B and CA) Occurring in one or more divisions of the trigeminal ner\>e, with no radiation beyond the trigeminal distributionA) Pain has at least three of the following four characteristics:# Recurring in paroxysmal attacks lasting from a fraction of a second to two minutes.# Severe intensity.# Electric shock-like, shooting, stabbing, or sharp in quality.# At least three attacks precipitated by innocuous stimuli to the affected side of the face (some attacks may be, or appear to be, spontaneous).D) No clinically evident neurologic deficit.E) Not better accounted for by another ICHD-3 diagnosis. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Subsets and Splits
No community queries yet
The top public SQL queries from the community will appear here once available.