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Which of the following chemical reaction is involved in the conversion of noradrenaline to adrenaline? | [
"Hydroxylation",
"Carboxylation",
"Methylation",
"Dehydrogenation"
] | C | Catecholamines are derivatives of phenylalanine/tyrosine. "Nor" in noradrenaline (norepinephrine) indicates the absence of methyl group. The methyl group of adrenaline (epinephrine) is derived from S-Adenosyl methionine (AdoMet) | train | med_mcqa | null |
The most common organism causing chorioretinitis in HIV is | [
"CMV retinitis",
"Toxoplasma chorioretinitis",
"Syphilitic retinitis",
"Pneumocystis carini"
] | A | (Refer: AK Khurana Comprehensive Ophthalmology, 6th edition, pg no. 470 - 472)Cytomegalovirus (CMV) is the most common cause of chorioretinitis in patients who are HIV positive | train | med_mcqa | null |
Phantom Tooth Pain | [
"Persistent pain after RCT for ≥ 6-month",
"not attributed to RCT",
"due to upregulation of C-Fos gene",
"All of the above"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Syneresis is associated with | [
"Hydrocolloids",
"Elastomers",
"Zinc oxide eugenol",
"Plaster of paris"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
True for PTSD are all except | [
"Past h/o psychiatric illness",
"Women are more predisposed",
"Occur in intelectuals",
"Numbness"
] | C | C i.e. Occur in intelectuals | train | med_mcqa | null |
'Keratic precipitates and cells' in anterior chamber are suggestive of? | [
"Glaucoma",
"Scleritis",
"Conjunctivitis",
"Iridocyclitis"
] | D | Ans. D. Iridocyclitis. (Ref. Khurana ophthalmology 5th/pg. 271)Signs of anterior uveitis:a. Circumcomeal ciliary injectionb. Keratic precipitates (KP) are cellular deposits on the corneal endothelium. KP most form in mid and inferior zones of cornea.- endothelial dusting- Medium size KPs- Large KPs ("Mutton fat" Kps) - granulomatous uveitis.- Old KPsc. Cellsd. Aqueos flaree. Iris nodules (Koeppe and Busacca nodules) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Down beat nystagmus could be due to: | [
"Cerebellar lesion",
"Arnold-Chiari malformation",
"All of the above",
"None of the above"
] | C | Ans. All of the above | train | med_mcqa | null |
Posthumous child is: | [
"Child delivered after death of biological mother",
"Child delivered after death of biological father",
"Bom after death of parents",
"Has been abandoned by parents"
] | B | (B) Child delivered after death of biological father[?]POSTHUMOUS CHILD: A child born after the death of its fatheroMother being conceived by the said father.oLegal issues involved includes:1. Legitimacy, 2. Inheritance of property, 3. Compensation case for slander against the mother.[?]LEGITIMACY & PATERNITYoLegitimacy: It is the legal state of a person born in lawful marriage.oAccording to section S.112, I.E.A, if at all a person is born during the continuance of a legal marriage, or within 280 days after the dissolution of the marriage by divorce or death of the husband, his birth is presumed to be legitimate.oIllegitimate or Bastard Child: if it can be proved that the husband could not possibly be the father of child by producing evidence that the alleged father.oQuestion of legitimacy arises in the following conditions:1. Inheritance: Remember! A legitimate child only can inherit the property of his father & DNA fingerprinting will positively fix or exclude paternity.2. Supposititious or Fictitious Children: Whenever a woman may1. Pretend pregnancy & delivery & later produce a living child as her own2. She may substitute a male child for female child born of her3. For an abortion-These things are done for obtaining money or for the purpose of claiming property.-Other legal issues involved are blackmailing a man or bringing a charge of breech of promise of marriage against a man. In such cases, the woman should be examined for signs of pregnancy and delivery.-In these cases, medical evidence is useful only when the age of the supposititious child does not correspond to the date of the pretended delivery.-DNA fingerprinting will be conclusive.3. Paternity: Remember, that the question of paternity arises in contests (i) Over legitimacy, (ii) Posthumous births, or (iii) Supposititious children.-Paternity is determined from:-Parental likeness: Child may resemble father (in feature, figure, gesture & other personal peculiarities) - Regarded as corroborative evidence only.-Atavism: Child does not resemble its parents, but resembles grandparents. (Due to inheritance of characteristics & due to genes)-Developmental Defects: Like disease or deformities (transmitted from parents to children).-Blood Group Tests or Paternity Tests: Because, blood groups are transmitted from the parents to children-DNA fingerprintingImportant Terminology to be Remembered!oMantle Child: A child born out of wedlock and later legitimated when the parents get married, traditionally by standing under a cloak with the parents during the marriage ceremony.oNatural child: A child by birth as distinguished from an adopted child.oNeglected child: A child whose parents or legal custodians are unfit to care for him or her because of cruelty, immorality or incapacity.-Capacity in this context could be physical or economic.oLegal Problems Artificial Insemination:-No statutory law in India for artificial insemination.-Remember! Artificial insemination with the semen of the husband is justifiable and unobjectionable.-The following are the legal aspects of A.I.D. as applicable to India.1. Adultery: Donor and recipient cannot be held guilty of adultery in India, as S. 497, I.PC.2. Legitimacy: Husband is not the actual father of the child which is illegitimate & cannot inherit property3. Nullity of Marriage & Divorce: Mere Artificial insemination is not ground for nullity of marriage or divorce.4. Natural Birth: Artificial inseminated child remains illegitimate unless A.I. child is adopted, when there is a natural born child (remains legitimate)5. Unmarried Woman or Widow: May have a child from A.I. but that child would be illegitimate.6. Incest: Risk of incest between children born by A.I and children of donor (It is not an offence in India).oSurrogate Motherhood: Legal problems of Surrogate motherhood are similar to those of Artificial insemination donor. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The following are branches of internal carotid aery except | [
"Anterior cerebral aery",
"Posterior cerebral aery",
"Ophthalmic aery",
"Middle cerebral aery"
] | B | The internal carotid aery is one of the two terminal branches of the common carotid aery.it begins at the level of the upper border of the thyroid cailage opposite the disc between the third and fouh cervical cavity by supplying the brain.this is the principal aery of the brain and the eye.it also supplies the related bones and meninges. Courses of aery are divided into four pas: 1. Cervical pa in the neck 2. Petrous pa 3.cavernous pa 4. Cerebral pa in relation to base of the brain Ref BDC volume 3;Sixth edition pg 152 | train | med_mcqa | null |
IP3 facilitates which ion entry into cytoplasm? | [
"Na+",
"K+",
"Ca++",
"Mg++"
] | C | In the cells, Phosphatidyl inositol Pyrophosphate (PIP2) is present in membrane This PIP2 is broken into DAG and IP3 by the enzyme Phospholipase C IP3 being polar will go into cytoplasm and acts as the 2nd messenger Help in releasing calcium stores and increases Calcium levels in the cell. | train | med_mcqa | null |
TRUS in carcinoma prostate is most useful for? | [
"Seminal vesicle involvement",
"Measurement of prostatic volume",
"Guiding the Diagnostic biopsies",
"To detect focal area hypo echoic of malignancy"
] | C | Transrectal ultrasound is indicated for prostate in early!
localized prostate carcinoma, as it is the most accurate method for staging the local disease and also guided biopsy
from suspicious areas of prostate (when S. PSA has been found to be elevated).. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Berry aneurysm - Defect lies in | [
"Degeneration of internal elastic lamina",
"Deposition of mucoid material in media",
"Defect in muscular layer",
"Disturbance in vessel wall"
] | B | *In berry aneurysms basic abnormality lies is the congenital deficiency of the tunica media(elastic tissue)in the aerial wall. Intimomedial mucoid degeneration (IMMD) is a rare vascular disorder characterised by the deposition of mucin in the intima and media, which leads to elastic tissue degeneration and aneurysm formation of the aerial wall.Although the condition was initially thought to involve only the aoa, subsequent publications have repoed IMMD to affect the major branches of the aoa, as well as smaller vessels such as the coronary and brachial aeries.The aneurysms in IMMD usually have a saccular or fusiform morphology and cause symptoms related to the location of the aneurysm. Surgery is often complicated by a bleeding diathesis distinct from disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), but which resolves after surgical treatment of the diseased vessel. Meticulous surgical technique is of paramount impoance. Peri-operatively, the coagulation profile and platelet function should be carefully monitored and diligently corrected Ref Harrison20th edition pg 2456 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Root shape before and after orthodontic treatment with radiographic evidence was first given by: | [
"Kaley and Phillip",
"Newman and Proffit",
"Ketchman AH",
"Malmgren and Levander"
] | A | The risk of severe localized resorption is much greater for maxillary incisors (3% affected versus <1% for all other teeth. Kaley and Phillips reported a 20-fold increase in the risk of severe resorption for maxillary incisors if the roots were forced against the lingual cortical plate during treatment. This is likely to occur during camouflage treatment for skeletal problems, when the maxillary incisors are torqued (as in Class II patients) or tipped (as in Class III treatment) so that the root apices are thrust against the lingual cortical plate. Contact with the cortical plates also can explain other patterns of localized root resorption, such as resorption of lower molar roots when buccal root torque is used in an effort to augment anchorage. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All are true about Tension pneumothorax except? | [
"Leading cause is mechanical ventilation.",
"Positive pressure in pleural space throughout the respiratory cycle.",
"Needle aspiration of air",
"Inadequate cardiac output."
] | C | Tension pneumothorax occurs mostly during Mechanical ventilation or Resuscitative effos The positive pressure is transmitted to mediastinum decreasing the venous return and cardiac output. A large bore needle should be inseed into pleural space through second intercostal space to allow air to escape. Needle aspiration using syringe is done for primary spontaneous pneumothorax Types of pneumothorax and primary management Primary spontaneous pneumothorax Simple needle aspiration followed by thoracoscopy with pleural abrasion. Secondary pneumothorax Tube thoracotomy followed by thoracostomy with stapling of blebs. Traumatic pneumothorax Supplemental oxygen or aspiration followed by tube thoracostomy. Tension pneumothorax Large bore needle in 2nd I/C space followed by tube thoracostomy. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Functional disorder is- | [
"Fugue",
"Conversion",
"Hypochondriasis",
"All of above"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e., All of above Functional Neurological Disordero Transformation of inner psychological conflict into physical symptomso Two typesSomatoformDissociativeSomatoform disorder include-ConversionSomatizationPain disorderHypochondriasisBody dysmorphic disorderDissociative disorder - include-Dissociative amnesiaFugueo They are often associated with co-morbid mood & anxiehg disorder. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Brick incinerator is used for ? | [
"Waste sharp",
"Discarded medicine",
"Infectious waste",
"Disposable items"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Infectious waste Drum (or field) incinerator and brick incinerator should be used only as a last reso, as it is difficult to burn the waste completely without generating potentially harmful smoke.The option is appropriate only in emergency situations during acute outbreaks of communicable diseases and should be used only for infectious waste. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following section of IPC are concerned with dowry death? | [
"300",
"302",
"304",
"304-B"
] | D | D i.e. 304 B | train | med_mcqa | null |
Parachute reflex disappears? | [
"3 months",
"6 months",
"Never",
"At birth"
] | C | Parachute reflex:-
This reflex occurs in slightly older infants (starts between 6 and 7 months and become fully mature by 1 year of age and persists thereafter) when the child is held upright and the baby's body is rotated quickly to face forward (as in falling). The baby will extend their arms forward as if to break a fall, even though this reflex appears long before the baby walks. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Rh incompatibility does not produce serious complications in the first pregnancy. Which of the following explains this phenomenon? | [
"Antibodies are not able to cross placenta",
"Antibody titer is very low during secondary immune response",
"IgG generated is ineffective against fetal red cells.",
"Massive hemolysis is compensated by increased erythropoesis."
] | A | Fetomaternal hemorrhage occur only at the time of delivery. Only in 5% cases transplacental transfer of RBC occur in the first trimester. The leak is very small and insufficient to produce primary immune response. Moreover as a primary response IgM antibodies are produced, which due to its large size do not cross the placenta. Therfore primary sensitization occur in less than 1% of first Rh incompatible pregnancy. Ref: Pregnancy at Risk: Current Concepts By Krishna, 4th Edition, Page 387 ; Textbook of Obstetrics By D.C.Dutta, 6th Edition, Pages 333-4 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which effect of morphine can be attenuated by atropine? | [
"Analgesia",
"Respiratory depression",
"Antitussive effect",
"Miosis"
] | D | The miotic effect of morphine is caused by activation of the Edinger-Westphal nucleus of the third cranial nerve, which activates the parasympathetic outflow to the iris sphincter muscle, causing pupillary constriction. This effect can be antagonized by muscarinic antagonists such as atropine. Atropine has no effect on the other central nervous system or peripheral actions of opiates. Ref: KD Tripathi 8th ed. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following 'statins' has the longest half life ? | [
"Cerivastatin",
"Rosuvastatin",
"Atorvastatin",
"Simvastatin"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
In which of the following conditions does internal derangement cause mandibular deviation to the same side? | [
"Bilateral TM joint dislocation",
"TM joint ankylosis",
"Unilateral TM joint dislocation",
"Unilateral disk placement anteriorly without reduction"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Painless loss of vision is seen in all, EXCEPT: | [
"Papilledema",
"Papillitis",
"Angle closure glaucoma",
"CRAO"
] | C | Acute angle-closure glaucoma is an ophthalmic emergency that causes severe visual loss without treatment. Symptoms include ocular pain, blurred vision, lacrimation, halos around lights, frontal headache, nausea, and vomiting. Causes of Sudden Painless Loss of Vision: Retinal detachment Vitreous haemorrhage Retinal vein occlusion Retinal aery occlusion Wet age related macular degeneration Anterior ischemic optic neuropathy Optic neuritis Cerebrovascular accident Papillitis Papilledema | train | med_mcqa | null |
The sarcoma which has equal propensity for maxilla and mandible is: | [
"Fibrosarcoma",
"Osteosarcoma",
"Ewing’s sarcoma",
"Chondrosarcoma"
] | D | Chondrosarcomas are unusual in the facial bones, accounting for about 10% of all cases. They occur in the mandible and maxilla with equal frequency. Maxillary lesions typically occur in the anterior region in areas where cartilaginous tissues may be present in the maxilla. Mandibular lesions occur in the coronoid process, condylar head and neck, and occasionally the symphyseal region.
Oral radiology White and Pharaoh; 7th ed. Page no 440 | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following statements about Gynaecomastia are true except | [
"Subcutaneous mastectomy is the initial treatment of choice",
"Seen in liver disease",
"There may be estrogen \\/ testosterone imbalance",
"Can be drug induced"
] | A | Gynaecomastia is the hyperophy of amle breast which may be bilateral or unilateral. Its associated with estrogen ecxess , cirrhosis with liver failure to metabolise estrogens.Also associated with drugs likw cimetidine, digitalis anabolic steroids which increases estrogen levelsBailey and Love'sSho practice of surgery.Edition 23.Pg no:770 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Chevron Sign is seen with? | [
"Rickets",
"Scurvy",
"Achondroplasia",
"Osteogenesis Imperfecta"
] | C | *Chevron sign is the inveed V shape notches of growth plates especially distal femur seen in Achondroplasia | train | med_mcqa | null |
Russell's traction is used in: | [
"Inter-trochanteric fracture",
"Fracture Shaft of femur",
"Low back ache",
"Flexion deformity of hip"
] | A | Russell's traction Trochanteric fractures (described as skin traction) Best treatment for interochanteric fracture is Dynamic hip screw. The fracture is reduced under X-ray control and fixed with Dynamic hip screw / Gamma nail or proximal femoral nail. Dynamic Hip Screw: OTHER OPTIONS: Fracture shaft femur- gallows traction, Bryant traction Lower backache- lumbar corset Flexion deformity hip- agnes hunt traction | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is not used in the prophylaxis of febrile seizures? | [
"Sodium valproate",
"Carbamazepine",
"Phenobarbitone",
"Diazepam"
] | B | Ans: B (Carbamezapine) Ref: NP Rosman, NP et al. A controlled trial of diazepam administered during febrile illnesses to prevent recurrence of febrile seizures NEJM. Vol 329, 1993 79-84 & Nelson Textbook of Pediatrics, 19th ed.Explanation:Drugs that can be used for prophylaxis of febrile seizures are Phenobarbitone. Primidone diazepam and Sodium Valproate.However currently only oral diazepam is preferred during febrile episodes to reduce the risk of recurrent febrile seizuresIntravenous benzodiazepines. phenobarbitaL phenytoin, or valproate may be needed in the case of febrile status epilepticus.If the parents are very anxious concerning their child's seizures, intermittent oral diazepam can be given during febrile illnesses (0.33 mg/ kg every 8 hr during fever) to help reduce the risk of seizures in children known to have had febrile seizures with previous illnesses.Intermittent oral nitrazepam, clobazam. and clonazepam (0.1 mg/kg/day) have also been used. Other therapies have included intermittent diazepam prophylaxis (0.5 mg/kg administered as a rectal suppository every 8 hr), phenobarbital (4-5 mg/kg/day in 1 or 2 divided doses), and valproate (20-30 mg/kg/day in 2 or 3 divided doses). | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 23-year-old man complains of intermittent double vision and fatigue. The symptoms are worse at the end of the day, and he has stopped working as a courier because of easy leg fatigue and weakness. He finds that the symptoms improve with resting. On physical examination, there is weakness of the eyelids, masticatory muscles, and thigh flexors. Having him look up at the ceiling for a long time brings on his double vision. There is no sensory abnormality, and reflexes are normal. Which of the following treatments is contraindicated in this patient? | [
"anticholinergic drugs",
"surgery",
"plasmapheresis",
"cyclophosphamide"
] | A | Anticholinergic drugs exacerbate the underlying defects in patients with myasthenia gravis. Cholinergic drugs are largely inhibitors of cholinesterase. Prednisone may improve as many as 80% of patients. Thymectomy helps patients with no thymoma, but thymoma patients do not do as well. Plasmapheresis benefits most patients but needs to be repeated at intervals. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The most common organism amongst the following that causes acute meningitis in an AIDS patients is? | [
"Streptococcus pneumoniae",
"Steptococcus agalactiae",
"Cryptococcus neoformans",
"Listeria monocytogenes"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Cryptococcus neoformans Neurological manifestations . Frequent oppounistic diseases of CNS are ? - Toxoplasmosis (most common cause of CNS infection in AIDS patients) - Cryptococcosis - Primary CNS lymphoma - Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy. . AIDS dementia complex (HIV encephalopathy) is a result of direct effects of HIV on CNS (not an oppounistic disease). It is subcoical dementia. . Most common cause of seizures --> Toxoplasma . Most common cause of meningitis --> Cryptococcus . M.C. cause of focal neurological deficit --> Toxoplasma | train | med_mcqa | null |
Mydriatic with no cycloplegic effect is seen with | [
"Atropine",
"Phenylephrine",
"Tropicamide",
"Homatropine"
] | B | Mydriasis with no loss of accommodation(cycloplegia) is seen with phenylephrine which is alpha agonist Ref: Katzung 11th ed pg 117 | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 2-year-old boy is brought to the physician by his parents, who complain that their son continually loses his balance. They also report that his speech seems more slurred. Physical examination confirms the truncal ataxia and wide-based gait. The child appears lethargic, and there is bobbing of the head while he is sitting. Muscle tone is normal. This patient may have a midline tumor in which anatomic portion of the brain? | [
"Cerebellum",
"Corpus callosum",
"Frontal lobes",
"Hypothalamus"
] | A | The neuroectoderm may (albeit infrequently) give rise to a neoplasm of neuronal heritage. These tumors occur most often in childhood, and their cellular composition is usually primitive. An example is medulloblastoma, which arises in the cerebellum, generally in the first decade of life. This entity is usually situated in the vermis. Its growth is rapid and regional infiltration is extensive. Children with medulloblastoma are first seen with cerebellar dysfunction or hydrocephalus. Tumors in the other areas do not ordinarily produce the symptoms described.Diagnosis: Medulloblastoma | train | med_mcqa | null |
False regarding Type A personality: | [
"Hostile",
"Time pressure",
"Competitiveness",
"Mood fluctuations"
] | D | Type A personality Competitive Time urgency Hostility Anger *Increase chance coronary aery disease Type B personality Relaxed Not competitive Type D personality Negative affectivity Social inhibition Increase susceptibility to coronary aery disease | train | med_mcqa | null |
False regarding cavernous hemangioma is | [
"More infiltrative than capillary hemangioma",
"Undergo spontaneous regression",
"Intravascular thrombosis and dystrophic calcification seen commonly",
"Associated with VHL disease"
] | B | Cavernous hemangiomas are composed of large, dilated vascular channels. Compared with capillary hemangiomas, cavernous hemangiomas are more infiltrative, frequently involve deep structures, and do not spontaneously regress. On histologic examination, the mass is sharply defined but unencapsulated and is composed of large, cavernous blood-filled vascular spaces, separated by connective tissue stroma. Intravascular thrombosis with associated dystrophic calcification is common. They may be locally destructive, so surgical excision may be required in some cases. More often the tumors are of little clinical significance, but they can be cosmetically troublesome and are vulnerable to traumatic ulceration and bleeding. Moreover, cavernous hemangiomas detected by imaging studies may be difficult to distinguish from their malignant counterpas. Brain hemangiomas also are problematic, as they can cause symptoms related to compression of adjacent tissue or rupture.Cavernous hemangiomas constitute one component of von Hippel-Lindau disease , in which vascular lesions are commonly found in the cerebellum, brain stem, retina, pancreas, and liver. (Robbins Basic Pathology,9th edition,pg no.359) | train | med_mcqa | null |
NOT a feature of post-traumatic stress disorder: AI 08; JIPMER 13; NIMHANS 14 | [
"Hyperarousal",
"Emotional numbing",
"Flashbacks",
"Hallucinations"
] | D | Ans. Hallucinations | train | med_mcqa | null |
Kiesselbach's area does not involve ________ | [
"Anterior ethmoidal aery",
"Posterior ethmoidal aery",
"Sphenopalatine aery",
"Greater palatine aery"
] | B | Kiesselbach's area, also Kiesselbach's plexus, Kiesselbach's triangle, and Little's area, is a region in the anteroinferior pa of the nasal septum, where four aeries anastomose to form a vascular plexus called Kiesselbach's plexus. The aeries are 1) Anterior ethmoidal aery (from the ophthalmic aery) 2) Sphenopalatine aery (from the maxillary aery) 3) Greater palatine aery (from the maxillary aery) 4) Septal branch of the superior labial aery (from the facial aery) | train | med_mcqa | null |
A direct acting cholinomimetics that is lipid soluble and has been used in the treatment of glaucoma is | [
"Acetylcholine",
"Physostigmine",
"Pilocarpine",
"Neostigmine"
] | C | Ref-KDT 6/e p98 Pilocarpine is a directly acting and physostigmine-acetylcholine is an indirectly acting cholinomimetic useful for glaucoma. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following statements about the typical features
of a periapical granuloma are true EXCEPT? | [
"It consists of proliferating granulation tissue",
"It can form only if the periapical bone is resorbed",
"It shows evidence of Local antibody production",
"It results from immunologically mediated tissue damage"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Hanging cast is used in : | [
"Femur",
"Radius",
"Tibia",
"humerus"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' ie Humerus Following are some of the imp, casts*Hanging cast*- humerus*Cylinder cost*- patella*PTB cast*- tibia*Minerva cast*-Cervical spine ds*Risser's cast*-Scoliosis*Milwaukee brace*-Scoliosis*Boston brace-Scoliosis | train | med_mcqa | null |
NK cells activity is enhanced by - | [
"IL-1",
"TNF",
"IL-2",
"TGP-β"
] | C | IL-2 acts as a growth factor for N K cells. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Replacement resorption is characterized by: | [
"Lamina dura is lost",
"Moth eaten appearance",
"Metallic sound on percussion",
"All of the above"
] | D | Complications
When a tooth is avulsed, the attachment apparatus of the tooth is damaged and blood vessels at the apex are severed. If the cemental layer is intact, it acts as a physical barrier that prevents the toxins from the pulp from reaching the periodontal ligament. After avulsion, if the protective cemental layer is damaged, the insulating quality is lost. If the pulp becomes infected, the toxins can now pass through the dentinal tubules and stimulate inflammatory root resorption. The denuded root surface is resorbed by multi-nucleated giant cells and is continued until the stimulus is removed. Radiographically, inflammatory resorption is observed as progressive radiolucent areas.
On the other hand, ankylosis can occur. Ankylosis is termed as replacement resorption. Radiographically, a traceable lamina dura is lost and a moth-eaten appearance results. Clinically, lack of mobility and metallic sound to percussion of the tooth is pathognomonic. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The most common histologic type of thyroid cancer is | [
"Medullary type",
"Follicular type",
"Papillary type",
"Anaplastic type"
] | C | Papillary carcinoma accounts for 80% of all thyroid malignancies in iodine-sufficient areas and is the predominant thyroid cancer in children and individuals exposed to external radiation." The incidence of primary malignant tumours of the thyroid gland Also, remember - Thyroid carcinoma is the most common malignancy of the endocrine system Ref : Schwaz 9/e p1361 | train | med_mcqa | null |
What was the theme for World Health Day in 1976? | [
"Better eyes better health",
"Foresight prevents blindness",
"Better vision better future",
"None of the above"
] | B | "Foresight prevents blindness" was the slogan chosen by WHO for World Health Day in 1976, when effos were made around the world to raise public awareness about the problem of preventable blindness. Ref: Education Of Communicable And Non-Communicable Diseases By Sumer Lal Goel, 2009, Page 149. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The hertwig's epithelial root sheath is essential to development of the root because it | [
"Gives rise to cementoblasts that produce cementum of the root",
"Moulds the shape of roots and stimulates differentiation of odontoblasts",
"Given rise to odontoblasts that lay down dentin of the root",
"Remains as an essential constituent of the periodontal ligament"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 32-year-old man complains of recurrent hematuria since his youth. The hematuria typically occurs following upper respiratory tract infections. Vital signs are normal. Urinalysis shows proteinuria, hematuria, and a few red blood cell casts. Laboratory studies disclose normal levels of BUN and creatinine. The ANA and ANCA tests are negative. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? | [
"Amyloid nephropathy",
"Berger disease (IgA nephropathy)",
"Hereditary nephritis (Alport syndrome)",
"Membranous glomerulopathy"
] | B | Berger disease is the most common form of glomerulonephritis in adults. Deposition of IgA-dominant immune complexes is the cause of the nephropathy, but the constituent antigens and the mechanism of accumulation have not been determined. Exacerbations of IgA nephropathy are often initiated by infections of the respiratory or gastrointestinal tracts. The diagnostic finding on renal biopsy is intense mesangial staining for IgA, which is almost always accompanied by staining for C3. IgA nephropathy manifests a continuum of glomerulopathies, ranging from no discernible light microscopic changes to chronic sclerosing glomerulonephritis. Patients frequently present with hematuria and proteinuria, and 20% of patients develop renal failure after 10 years. Neither amyloid nephropathy (choice A) nor membranous nephropathy (choice D) features RBC casts. Hereditary nephritis (Alport syndrome; choice C) reflects abnormal type IV collagen in the glomerular basement membrane. Hematuria is present early in life; proteinuria, progressive renal failure, and hypertension develop later in the course of the disease. Wegener granulomatosis (choice E) is usually positive for ANCA.Diagnosis: Berger disease, IgA nephropathy | train | med_mcqa | null |
Following is not true regarding summons ? | [
"It is a legal document",
"No conduct money is paid to the doctor in criminal cases",
"Section 61 - 69 CrPC deal with summons",
"None of the above"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e., None of the above All are true. Summon Summon is a legal document compelling attendance of a witness in a cou of law under penalty, on a paicular day, time and place, for the purpose of giving evidence. It is issued by the Cou in writting, in duplicate, signed by presiding officer of cou and bears the seal of the cou. Conduct money refers to the travelling and daily expences to reach the cou. In civil cases, it is paid by the pay calling him, at the time of serving the summon. Judge decides the conduct money in civil case. The summon in civil case can be ignored if conduct money is not sanctioned or if the amount is less, and the witness can bring the fact to notice of judge. In criminal cases, no money is paid along with summon. The witness can ask for it, after giving evidence, but he should not insist if the cou is not willing to sanction, since otherwise he can be charged for contempt of cou. To an independent doctor it is always paid (known as bhatta), while the doctor in government service, can claim from his office. In case, two or more summons are received for the same date and time, the principles for preference of summon are: Criminal case is preferred over civil case. If both cases are criminal/civil, summon from higher cou is preferred. If both cases are criminal/civil and from cou of same status, summon received earlier is preferred. However, in each situation other cou is informed accordingly. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which among the following is a vasoconstrictor? | [
"Histamine",
"PGI2",
"Bradykinin",
"TXA2"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e., TXA2 Important mediators* Vasodilatation Histamine, prostaglandins, prostacyclins, serotonin, Nitric oxide, bradykinin.* Vasoconstriction Leukotrienes (LTC4, D4, E4), Thromboxane A2. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The following are associated with endocytosis: | [
"Clathrin",
"Megalin",
"SNARE proteins",
"Both 1 and 2"
] | D | Endocytosis is mediated by clathrin and megalin SNARE proteins are associated with exocytosis Both are active vesicular transpo systems | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is NOT a high risk factor for cholangiocarcinoma? | [
"Chronic typhoid",
"Choledocholisthiasis",
"C. sinensis infestation",
"Ulcerative colitis"
] | B | Cholangiocarcinoma is a rare tumor arising from the biliary epithelium and may occur anywhere along the biliary tree. About two thirds are located at the hepatic duct bifurcation. Risk factors associated with cholangiocarcinoma include, Primary sclerosing cholangitis Choledochal cysts Ulcerative colitis Hepatolithiasis Biliary-enteric anastomosis Biliary tract infections with Clonorchis Chronic typhoid carriers Liver flukes Dietary nitrosamines Thorotrast Exposure to dioxin Ref: Oddsdottir M., Pham T.H., Hunter J.G. (2010). Chapter 32. Gallbladder and the Extrahepatic Biliary System. In F.C. Brunicardi, D.K. Andersen, T.R. Billiar, D.L. Dunn, J.G. Hunter, J.B. Matthews, R.E. Pollock (Eds), Schwaz's Principles of Surgery, 9e | train | med_mcqa | null |
Treatment of choice for sputum positive pulmonary tuberculosis detected in 1st trimester of pregnancy ? | [
"Defer till second trimester",
"Sta cat. I immediately",
"Sta cat. II immediately",
"Sta cat. III immediately"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Sta cat. I immediately Sputum positive tuberculosis falls under category I; therefore category I treatment should be staed Treatment of tuberculosis in Pregnanacv Work up and treatment of tuberculosis should not be delayed in Pregnant women. All pregnant women with active tuberculosis should be treated immediately because the risk to the mother and fetus is 1.6 much higher from maternal tuberculosis than it is from potential harm from the anti-tubercular drugs. First line drugs can be safely used in pregnancy except streptomycin which is contraindicated because of its associated with fetal ototoxicity. Second line drugs are not recommended in pregnancy (They are used only if benefit outweighs the risk, as in case of MDR tuberculosis) Pyrazinamide is not recommended by CDC (USA) in absence of sufficient safety data, however many tubercular authorities all over world suppo its use. CDC recommends an alternative 9 month regimen containing isoniazid and rifampin throughout (supplemented by ethambutol, until drug susceptibility results are available). Breastfeeding is not contraindicated in women using antituberculosis drugs. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The most effective drug against extracellular mycobacteria is : | [
"Isoniazid",
"Rifampicin",
"Pyrazinamide",
"Ethambutol"
] | B | Ethambutol is a bacteriostatic drug.
INH and rifampicin are equally effective against intra as well as extracellular mycobacteria. INH require a concentration of 0.25 µg/ml whereas rifampicin inhibits the growth of bacteria at a concentration of 0.05 µg/ml.
Pyrazinamide acts more in acidic pH and it requires a concentration of 12.5 µg/ml.
Thus, a most active drug for extra-cellular bacteria is rifampicin. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following statements about phagocytosis are true, except: | [
"Amoeba and other unicellular protozoa make their living out of this",
"Used to ingest paicles < 0.5 microns in size",
"Used to ingest paicles > 0.5 microns in size",
"Digestion occurs within phagolysosomes"
] | B | Phagocytosis, by definition refers to the internalization of large paicles >0.5 microns in diameter,smaller paicles are ingested by pinocytosis. Ref: Biochemistry By B. D. Hames, N. M. Hooper, page 153; Introduction to Air Pollution Science By Phalen, Robe N. Phalen, page 62; Textbook of Pathology' by V. Krishna | train | med_mcqa | null |
Cruel behavior towards wife by husband, family members or his relatives comes under which IPC section: | [
"498 A",
"304",
"304 A",
"304 B"
] | A | Ans. (a) 498 ARef.: The Essentials ofFSM by K.S. Narayan Reddy 31st ed. / 272-73* Cruel behavior towards wife by husband or his relatives punished by IPC 498 A.* IPC section 498 A states that whosoever being husband or relative subject women to cruelty shall be punished with imprisonment of upto 3 years with or without fine. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Avascular necrosis may be seen in all of the following, except | [
"Scapula",
"Head of femur",
"Upper end of humerus",
"Body of Talus"
] | A | Common Site of Avascular necrosisCauseHead and femurFracture neck femur (Subcapital)Posterior dislocation of hipProximal pole of scaphoidFracture through waist of scaphoidBody of talusFracture neck of talusProximal pole of lunateLunate dislocation*Other sites of common AVN are Distal medial condyle, Humeral head, Capitellum, and Metatarsal heads*In the early stages, bone scintigraphy and MRI are the diagnostic modalities of choice.*Non ohopedic causes of AVN - Sclera, Caisson's disease, Lupus erythematosus, Radiation and Alcohol (Refer: Apley's system of Ohopedics and Fracture, 8th edition, pg no: 91-103, 436-439) | train | med_mcqa | null |
In a normal ECG which lead does it represent? | [
"aVL",
"aVR",
"V1",
"V6"
] | B | The aVR is often neglected lead. It is an unipolar lead facing the right superior surface. As all the depolarization are going away from lead aVR, all waves are negative in aVR (P, QRS, T) in normal sinus rhythm. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Relations of left ureter are all EXCEPT | [
"Quadratus lumborum",
"Psoas major",
"Left gonadal vessels",
"External iliac aery"
] | A | Quadratus lumborum REF: Keith L. Moore, 4th edition, Page 117"The ureter lies over Psoas major muscle not Quadratus lumborum" (See diagram)The ureters run inferomedially along the transverse processes of the lumbar veebrae and cross the external iliac aery just beyond the bifurcation of the common iliac aery. They then run along the lateral wall of the pelvis to enter the urinary bladder. The ureter lies on the anterior surface of the psoas majorThe ureters are normally constricted to a variable degree in three places; these constricted areas are potential sites of obstruction by ureteric (kidney) stones:At the junction of the ureters and renal pelvisWhere the ureters cross the brim of the pelvic inletDuring their passage through the wall of the urinary bladder. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Mousy odour urine is seen in- | [
"Maple syrup urine",
"Phenylketonuria",
"Isovalericaciduria",
"Cystinuria"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Phenylketonuria Inborn Errors of amino acid metabolism associated with peculiar odor | train | med_mcqa | null |
HACEK group includes all of the following except | [
"Hemophilus arophilus",
"Acinetobacter baumanni",
"Eikenella corrodens",
"Cardiobacterium hominis"
] | B | Ans. (b) Acinetobacter baumanni Ref. Harrison 17/e, p 926; 18/e, p 1233 HACEK organism are a group of fastidious, slow growing, Gram negative bacteria whose growth requires an atmosphere of CO,. Species belonging to this group include: Hemophilus species Actinobacillus actinomycetemcomitans Cardiobacterium homin us Eikenella corrodens Kingella kingae Endocarditis is the most common disease caused by them. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Best medium to transport an avulsed tooth, which is not to be reimplanted immediately: | [
"Viaspan",
"HBSS",
"Coconut water.",
"Milk."
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Inconclusive autopsy is known as ? | [
"No cause of death is found on gross as well as histopathological examination",
"Cause is apparent on gross examination but not on histopathological examination",
"Gross finding are minimal",
"Cause is apparent on gross examination but not found because of constrains on the pa of doctor"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., No cause of death is found on gross as well as histopathological examination Types of autopsyNormal autopsy - cause is apparent from gross examinationDefective autopsy - cause was asceainable, but was not asceained due to constrains on the pa of doctor, hospital, facilities etcObscure autopsy - gross findings are minimal, indecisive or obscure, as in adrenal insufficiency, anesthetic overdose, myxedema, rare plant poisons, thyrotoxicosis etc.subsequent examination like histology, microbiology, toxicology or serology reveal the cause.Negative autopsy / inconclusive autopsy - Cause is not clear from gross as well as subsequent examinations. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Lead aprons of ___ mm will reduce the intensity of scattered X -rays over ____ per cent and should be worn by all workers regularly associated with X-ray procedures. | [
"0.2 and 60",
"0.3 and 70",
"0.4 and 80",
"0.5 and 90"
] | D | Lead aprons of 0.5 mm will reduce the intensity of scattered X -rays over 90 per cent and should be worn by all workers regularly associated with X-ray procedures. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most common site of colon malignancy is | [
"Sigmoid colon",
"Asending colon",
"Descending colon",
"Transverse colon"
] | A | A. i.e. (Sigmoid colon) (1179-B& L 25th) (696 - CSDT 12th) (1060- S. Das 5th)Sigmoid colon is the most common site*** Distribution of colorectal cancerRectum (38%) > Sigmoid colon (21%) > caecum (12%) Transverse colon (5.5%) > Ascending colon (5%)> Descending colon (4%) > Hepatic flexure (2%) and anus (2%) > Appendix (0.5%)* Sigmoid colon segment of colon undergoes maximum postprandial contraction**Right colonLeft colonRectum**Unexplained weakness or Iron deficiency anemia (Most common)* Occult blood in feces* Dyspeptic symptoms* Persistent right abdominal discomfort* Change in bowel habits* Gross blood in stool* Obstructive symptom* Tenesmus* Characteristic x-ray finding* Rectal bleeding alternation in bowel habits* Sensation of incomplete evacuation* Intrarectal palpable tumor* Sigmoidoscopic finding* Metastatic disease - Jaundice, ascitis, hepatomegaly* Carcinoma of the colon - particularly the right colon is more common in women*** Carcinoma of the rectum is more common in men*** Regional lymph node involvement is the most common form of metastasis in colo rectal carcinoma**.* Marker for Gastro intestinal stromal tumour (GIST) is CD-I 17*** High fibre diet is most protective against development of colorectal cancer**Risk factor for Development of colorectal cancer (574 - H17th)* Diet - Animal fat* Streptocccus bovies bacteremia* Hereditary syndrome (AD- Inheritance)* Ureterosigmoidostomy* Polyposis coli* Tobacco-use* Nonpolyposis syndrome (Lynch syndrome) * Inflammatory bowel syndrome | train | med_mcqa | null |
A girl with normal milestones spends her time seeing her own hand, do not interact with others, what is the diagnosis? | [
"ADHD",
"Autism",
"Schizophrenia",
"Depression"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e. Autism Pervasive developmental disorder includes the following conditionAutismRett's disorderAsperger's disorderChildhood disintegrative disorderPervasive disorders not otherwise specifiedPervasive development disorders are characterized by three symptom clusters-Impairment in social reciprocity marked by poor eye contact, lack of interest in other people and failure to interact appropriately with others.Communicative impairment, it is characterized by either no language at all or by deviant speech with errors in tone, prosody, pitch, grammar, or pragmatics.Restricted and repetitive behaviors include using the same words and phrases repeatedly out of context, performing the same action in routine ways or insisting that others do so, or exhibiting other vocal or visual self-stimulatory behaviors. Stereotype movements are seen.Stereotype movements are apparently purposeless movements such as hand flapping, head rolling or body rocking.)Now, the salient feature of each pervasive disorder:Autistic disorderIt gives all the classical features of pervasive developmental disorder.The patient presents with problems in social interaction, communication and repetitive stereotype behaviour.In most of these patients there is subnormal intelligence.ExampleA 3 year old boy shows no interest in or connection to his parents, other adults or children. He does not speak voluntarily and is fascinated with watching rotating objects. He screams fiercely when his environment is altered in any way such as when his mother tries to dress him.Rett's disorderIt is seen exclusively in females.The characteristic feature of these patients is that they begin to lose their acquired skills.Example After 4 months of normal development, an infant begins to lose her acquired skills. By 18 months of age, she shows little social interaction with her parents, other adults or children and she uses strange hand gestures.Asperger's disorderThe important point in differential diagnosis of these patients is that they have normal intelligence. These are the only pervasive development disorders in which the intelligence is unimpaired.These patients often have some exceptional ability.They have little or no developmental language delay and relatively normal cognitive development.In the question the lack of social interaction and communication along with stereotypic behaviour (watching her own hard) suggests Autistic disorder.The patient does not give any symptoms of attention deficit disorder i.e. there are no symptoms indicating lack of concentration and hyperactivity.The patients of ADHD can also present with symptoms similar to pervasive developmental disorder but the main complaint will always be that of attention deficit and hyperactivity.Patients with depression should give other features of depression. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Chromosome 7 involvement is seen in: | [
"Osteosarcoma",
"Osteosarcoma",
"Cystic fibrosis",
"Colon Ca"
] | C | Cystic fibrosis | train | med_mcqa | null |
The following antibiotic accentuates the neuromu-scular blockade produced by pancuronium: | [
"Streptomycin",
"Erythromycin",
"Penicillin G",
"Chloramphenicol"
] | A | (Ref: KDT 6e p721, 722) Aminoglycosides (like streptomycin and gentamicin) can accentuate the neuromuscular blockade produced by competitive blockers (like pancuronium). Mechanism of neuromuscular blockade produced by aminoglycosides is the inhibition of presynaptic release of ACh. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A thirty-two-year-old adult male presents with a chronic suppurative lesion on the angle of the jaw. Microscopic examination shows small abscesses immediately beneath
the epidermis with moderate growth of epithelial cords. In the abscess, there are oval, unicellular organisms measuring 20 µm in diameter and having a thick, double-refractive cell wall and cytoplasm containing refractive granules and vacuoles. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? | [
"Blastomycosis",
"Foreign body reaction",
"Syphilis",
"Tuberculosis"
] | A | Blastomycosis is a relatively uncommon disease caused by the dimorphic fungus known as Blastomyces dermatitidis.
These organisms are 8 to 20 µm in diameter. They are characterized by a doubly refractile cell wall and a broad attachment between the budding daughter cell and the parent cell.
Ref: Neville's oral and maxillofacial pathology 4th edition page 204 | train | med_mcqa | null |
The position of hand during application of POP cast for fracture scaphoid has been clasically described as | [
"Boat shaped position",
"Clenched fist position",
"Tumbler holding position",
"Boxing position"
] | C | In Scaphoid fracture, the cast is applied to maintain dorsi-flexion of the wrist area. This is called the Glass holding position/Tumbler holding position. In Colle&;s fracture, POP is applied to keep it in palmar flexion and ulnar detion. This is called Shake hand position. ref : maheswari 9th ed | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is not a side effect of paroxetine? | [
"Premature ejaculation",
"Erectile dysfunction",
"Decreased libido",
"Diarrhea"
] | A | A high incidence of gi side effects, sexual dysfunction (may interfere with ejaculation), agitation and discontinuation reaction is more with paroxetine than with other SSRI. Ref KD Tripati 8th ed. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Metaphyseal fracture touching physis but not crossing it, comes under which type of Salter Harris physeal injury? | [
"I",
"II",
"III",
"IV"
] | B | SALTER HARIS PHYSEAL INJURY : Type 2 (salter and Harris classification for physeal injury-transverse fracture through the hyperophic or calcified zone of plate but towards the edge the fracture detes away from physis and split of triangular metaphyseal segment of bone (Thurston Holland fragment). Type 1 - a transverse fracture through the hyperophic or calcified zone of plate. Even if fracture is quite alarmingly displaced, the growing zone of the physis is usually not injured &growth disturbance is uncommon. Type 3-a fracture that splits the epiphysis &then passes transversely to one or other side ,through the hyperophic layer of physis and result in growth disturbance . Type4- as type 3, Fracture splits the epiphysis but extends to metaphysis .These fracture are liable to displacement & consequent misfit between the separated pa of physis resulting in asymmetrical growth Type 5-longitudinal compression injury of physis .There is no visible fracture but growth plate is crushed &this may result in growth arrest. REF:Alley,9th edition ,pg,no.728 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Recommended initial dose of Vitamin "A" for prophylaxis in a 9 month old child is: September 2008 | [
"4,00,000 I.U.",
"5,00,000 I.U.",
"1,00,000 I.U.",
"2,00,000 I.U."
] | C | Ans. C: 1,00,000 I.U. National programme for prevention of nutritional blindness focuses on Promoting consumption of vitamin A rich foods by pregnant and lactating women and by children under 5 years of age. Administration of massive doses of vitamin A up to 5 years. First dose of 100,000 IU with measles vaccination at 9 months and subsequent doses of 200,000 IU each, every 6 months up to the age of 5 years should be given. | train | med_mcqa | null |
In emergency tracheostomy the following structures are damaged except? | [
"Isthmus of the thyroid",
"Inferior thyroid aery",
"Thyroid ima",
"Inferior thyroid vein"
] | B | Isthmus, thyroid ima aery and inferior thyroid veins are midline structures and thus can be injured during tracheostomy, more so during emergency tracheostomy. Inferior thyroid aery, a branch of the thyrocervical trunk of the subclan aery lies laterally away from midline, thus can escape injury. In emergency tracheostomy following structures can be damaged: - Isthmus - Inferior thyroid veins - Thyroid ima aery - Left brachio-cephalic vein, jugular venous arch - Pleura (especially infants) - Thymus - Esophagus (the trachea is small, mobile, and soft in infants damage the esophagus) | train | med_mcqa | null |
The posterosuperior retraction pocket, if allowed to progress, will lead to - | [
"Sensorineural hearing loss",
"Secondary cholesteatoma",
"Tympanosclerosis",
"Tertiary cholesteatoma"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Not true regarding the mimicry of Strpyogenes ? | [
"Peptidoglycan and skin antigen",
"Cell wall protein and myocardium",
"Hyaluronic acid and synol fluid",
"Group A carbohydrate and vascular intima"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Group A carbohydrate and vascular intima Antigen cross-reactivity Various streptococcal components (specially strep. pyogenes) exhibit antigenic cross reaction with different tissues of the human body. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Orthodontic brackets attached directly to the tooth are retained by a: | [
"Compressive force",
"Hydrostatic force",
"Mechanical bond",
"Chemical bond"
] | C | Bonding of resins (bracket-adhesive) to etched enamel is based on micromechanical interlocking produced by the resin tags that are formed by the penetration of the resin into micro-porosities created in the surface of the enamel after acid etching.
The essential components of composite resin are a resin matrix, filler particles, a coupling agent and a curing system.
Key comment:
The chemical method of bonding tried using GIC failed to withstand the compressive, shear stress in orthodontic bracket bonding.
Textbook of ORTHODONTICS Sridhar Premkumar | train | med_mcqa | null |
A patient with Crohn's disease was opened for and an inflammed appendix found. The treatment of choice is- | [
"Appendicectomy",
"Ileocolic resection and anastamosis",
"Close the abdomen and start medical treatment",
"None of the above"
] | A | Sabiston writes - "Patients who undergo exploration for presumed appendicitis and have evidence of Crohn's disease should undergo appendectomy. Although there is theoretical concern for the development of an enterocutaneous fistula, this is extremely rare. Moreover appendectomy prevents further diagnostic confusion." | train | med_mcqa | null |
Bleeding from lesser curvature in gastric ulcer, source of bleeding is? | [
"Right gastro -epiploic aery",
"Right omento duodenal",
"Pancreatoduodenal aery",
"Left gastric aery"
] | D | Ulcer located along the lesser curve of the stomach and posterior duodenal bulb are at greater risk for severe bleeding and rebleeding due to the proximity of the left gastric aery and gastroduodenal aery, respectively. The moality rate for bleeding peptic ulcers is approximately 6%-7%. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Phenol red thread test is used for dry eye. This test- | [
"Requires topical anaesthetic agent",
"Volume of tears isn't measured as it changes color on contact with tears",
"If the color changes to blue, it depicts surface mucin deficiency",
"Requiras pH meter for reading result"
] | B | *Phenol red dye test measures the production of tears without topical anesthesia, as the dye changes its color to red on contact with tears. It doesn't require pH meter for reading the result. Ref: Ophthalmology Yanoff and Duker 4th/e p.277 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Orthodontic extrusion of intruded permanent incisor can prevent | [
"Replacement resorption",
"Calcification",
"Extraction",
"Non-vitality"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Post coital test (PCT) is done for : | [
"Cervical receptivity",
"Sperm motility",
"Absolute sperm count",
"Viable sperm count"
] | A | Cervical receptivity Friends, as I have already explained post coital test is for evaluation of the potential role of cervical factor in infeility. It does not give much information on sperm count. Motility and Morphology." | train | med_mcqa | null |
Japanese encephalitis is transmitted by - | [
"Culex",
"Aedes",
"Anopheles",
"Hard tick"
] | A | Japanese encephalitis is a mosquito-borne encephalitis caused by a group B arbovirus (Flavivirus) and transmitted by culicine mosquitoes . Ref: PARK&;S TEXTBOOK OF PREVENTIVE AND SOCIAL MEDICINE 23rd edition pg 284 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Hypehyroidism will present as all, except : | [
"Hypotension",
"Atrial fibrillation",
"Tremor",
"Panic attacks"
] | A | Hypehyroid symptoms include heat intolerance, increased sweating and thirst, and weight loss despite adequate caloric intake. Symptoms of increased adrenergic stimulation include palpitations, nervousness, fatigue, emotional lability, hyperkinesis, and tremors. The most common GI symptoms include increased frequency of bowel movements and diarrhea. Female patients often develop amenorrhea, decreased feility, and an increased incidence of miscarriages. Children experience rapid growth with early bone maturation, whereas older patients may present with cardiovascular complications such as atrial fibrillation and congestive hea failure. Common cardiovascular manifestations of hypehyroidism include palpitations, systolic hypeension, and fatigue. Sinus tachycardia is present in 40% of hypehyroid patients, and atrial fibrillation in 15%. On physical examination, weight loss and facial flushing may be evident. The skin is warm and moist and African American patients often note darkening of their skin. Tachycardia or atrial fibrillation is present with cutaneous vasodilation leading to a widening of the pulse pressure and a rapid falloff in the transmitted pulse wave (collapsing pulse). A fine tremor, muscle wasting, and proximal muscle group weakness with hyperactive tendon reflexes often are present. Ref : Lal G. (2010). Chapter 38. Thyroid, Parathyroid, and Adrenal. In T.R. Billiar, D.L. Dunn (Eds), Schwaz's Principles of Surgery, 9e. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A person with 'Inappropriate speech' evaluated by the 'Glasgow Coma Scale' will have a verbal score of: | [
"4",
"3",
"2",
"1"
] | B | Answer is B (3): Use of Inappropriate words (Inappropriate speech) carries a score of '3' under the 'Verbal Response' according to the Glasgow Coma scale. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Intermittent claudication is caused by ? | [
"Venous occlusion",
"Aerial insufficiency",
"Neural compression",
"Muscular dystrophy"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Aerial insufficiency | train | med_mcqa | null |
26 years old Ramesh, who is a painter visits infeility clinic with his wife as they couldn't conceive even after trying from last 2 years. His semen analysis showed oligospermia. Which of the following metal can be obtained from his blood sample? | [
"Cadmium",
"Lead",
"Mercury",
"Nickle"
] | B | People can be exposed to lead mainly from Inhalation of lead paicles generated by burning materials containing lead. Eg: during smelting, recycling, stripping leaded paint & using leaded gasoline or leaded ation fuel. Exposure to lead based paints. (c) Ingestion of lead-contaminated dust, water (from leaded pipes), food (from lead-glazed or lead soldered containers). (d) Use of some traditional cosmetics & medicines. Lead exposure can cause anemia, hypeension, renal impairment, immunotoxicity & toxicity to reproductive organs. In given case scenario, as the person is working in fuel industry, he would have occupational exposure to lead, which damages testes, resulting in oligospermia. Thus, Lead can be obtained from his blood & urine samples. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Avascular necrosis of bone is most commonly seen in | [
"Calcaneus",
"Cervical spine",
"Scaphoid",
"Scapula"
] | C | C i.e. Scaphoid | train | med_mcqa | null |
G-6-P deficiency occurs in: | [
"Forbes disease",
"Niemann Picks disease",
"Von-Gierke disease",
"Tay Sachs disease"
] | C | Glycogen storage disease type I (GSD I)/ von Gierke's diseaseIt is the most common of the glycogen storage diseases.This genetic disease results from deficiency of the enzyme glucose-6-phosphataseThe deficiency impairs the ability of the liver to produce free glucose from glycogen and from gluconeogenesis.Since these are the two principal metabolic mechanisms by which the liver supplies glucose to the rest of the body during periods of fasting, it causes severe hypoglycemia and results in increased glycogen storage in liver and kidneys.This can lead to enlargement of both.Both organs function normally in childhood, but are susceptible to a variety of problems in adult years.Other metabolic derangements include lactic acidosis and hyperlipidemia.Frequent or continuous feedings of cornstarch or other carbohydrates are the principal treatment. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A diagnosed case of SLE has renal biopsy finding suggestive of mesangial proliferative nephropathy. It belong to which class of lupus nephritis: | [
"Class I",
"Class II",
"Class III",
"Class IV"
] | B | Classification of lupus nephritis: Class I - Minimal mesangial lupus nephritis Class II - Mesangial proliferative lupus nephritis Class III - Focal lupus nephritis Class IV - Diffuse lupus nephritis CLass V - Membranous lupus nephritis Class VI - Advanced sclerotic lupus nephritis Ref: Harrison Edition - 18, Page - 2727 | train | med_mcqa | null |
An oblique # of the olecranon. If displaced proximally. The treatment is : | [
"Excision & resuturing",
"Tension band wiring",
"Elbow is immobilized by cast",
"Open reduction & external fixation"
] | B | "Oblique fracture may need a lag screw, neutralization by tension band system or plate". - Apley's.
Treatment of olecranon fracture :
Treatment of olecranon fracture may be either conservative or surgical.
Conservative treatment :
Conserative treatment includes immobilization in above elbow slab. Indications are :
Undisplaced fractures.
Displaced fracture with displacement less than 2 nun.
Surgical treatmentn :
It is indicated in displaced fracture (> 2mm) and in avulsion fractures due to triceps pull.
Methods of fixation are :
Open reduction and internal fixation by figure of 8 tension band wiring (TB W) : It is the most commonly used method for olecranon fracture. This method is used for avulsion fractures : transverse fractures when the fracture is proximal to coronoid : and sometimes oblique fractures.
Lag screw fixation (interfragmentary screw) : Used in comminuted fracture when the distal fragment is displaced anteriorly and in the oblique fracture.
Plate and screw fixation with grafting : Displaced comminuted fracture where tension band wiring is not possible.
Excision of the proximal fragments. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Propanolol is contraindicated in a patient of angina pectoris who is already receiving: | [
"Nifedipine",
"Aspirin",
"Verapamil",
"Isosorbide mononitrate"
] | C | Propanolol is a b-blocker. Verapamil should not be given with b blockers because additive sinus depression, conduction defects or asystole may occur. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Following nerve injury, the injured nerve regenerates at a rate of: | [
"0.001 cm/day",
"0.1 cm/day",
"1 cm/day",
"0.0001 cm/day"
] | B | Rate of Recovery of Nerve is 1 mm/day | train | med_mcqa | null |
The probable diagnosis in a patient with below given flow volume loop after spirometry? | [
"Emphysema",
"Myasthenia gravis",
"Bronchial Asthma",
"Endobronchial neoplasm"
] | B | The probable diagnosis in this patient based on restrictive pattern in the flow volume loop is Myasthenia gravis Features of the flow volume loop above: Decreased TLC and Vital capacity Residual volume is elevated. Because of which loop is shifted to right side(Normally it is present in the center) All the above features are seen in restrictive type of lung disease Myasthenia gravis In it, Both lung recoil and passive chest wall recoil are normal. Respiratory muscle strength is insufficient to push the passive respiratory system fully toward either volume extreme Because of reduced muscle strength MG presents with restrictive pattern on flow volume loop. =Obstructive flow pattern seen in: Asthma, Emphysema, Endobronchial neoplasm. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Potato tumor is a tumor of | [
"Carotid body",
"Sternocleido mastoid muscle",
"Carotid sinus",
"None of the above"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Difference between action of DEC and Ivermectin in a case of scrotal filariasis is - | [
"DEC acts more effectively on microfilariae than Ivermectin",
"DEC acts only on micro filariae and Ivermectin acts only on adults.",
"DEC acts on both microfilariae and adults while Ivermectin acts on adults only",
"DEC acts on adults and Ivermection on microfilariae"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e., DEC acts on adults, and Ivermectin on microfilariae o No option in this question is absolutely correct because ? 1. Diethyl - carbamazine (DEC) is effective against both the microfilariae of peripheral blood as well as the adult worm. 2. Ivermectine is effective only against microfilarae without affecting adult worm. o But for one answer, option `d' is best because, though DEC act on microfilariae of peripheral blood, it has no effect on microfilariae of W.bancrofti in a hydrocele. o So, option d is paially correct ie DEC act against adults but not against microfilarae in hydrocele, while ivermectin is active against microfilariae. DEC o It causes rapid disappearance of microfilarae of W.bancrofti, W.malayi & Loa-Loa from the human peripheral blood. o The microfilariae of W.bancrofti in a hydrocele are not affected. o DEC kills the adult worms of W.malayi, Loa-Loa, and W.bancrofti. o It has no action against adult worms of oncocerca volvulus. o DEC act by sensitizing the microfilariae, so that they become susceptible to phagocytosis. Ivermectin o It kills the microfilariae, but has no action against adult of W.bacrofti. o It act GABA agonistic action and through a special type of glutamate gate Cl- channel --> Tonic paralysis. o It is the drug of choice for onchocercosis/river blindness (in contrast with DEC) and strongyloidosis. o Ivermectin is the only drug effective orally for scabies and pediculosis. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A lady with 8 wks pregnancy presented with random blood glucose of 177mg/d1. The treatment is: | [
"Phenformin",
"Sulfonylurea",
"Insulin",
"Glipizide"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
In XLR diseases, a modified inheritance pattern called 'pseudodominance' occurs when | [
"One parent is affected homozygote and another is unaffected homozygote",
"One parent is unaffected heterozygote and another is affected homozygote",
"One parent is normal and another is unaffected het- erozygote",
"Both parents are unaffected"
] | B | Ans. b (One parent is unaffected heterozygote and another is affected homozygote). (Fig. Harrison 18th/61/l 1)In most instances of AR inheritance, an affected individual is the offspring of heterozygous parents. In this situation, there is a 25% chance that the offspring will have a normal genotype, a 50% probability of a heterozygous state, and a 25% risk of homozygosity for the recessive alleles, in the case of one unaffected heterozygous and one affected homozygous parent, the probability of disease increases to 50% for each child. In this instance, the pedigree analysis mimics an autosomal dominant mode of inheritance (pseudodominance). In contrast to autosomal dominant disorders, new mutations in recessive alleles are rarely manifest because they usually result in an asymptomatic carrier state.PSEUDODOMINANCE# The sudden appearance of a recessive phenotype in a pedigree, due to deletion of a masking dominant gene.# The phenomenon in which a recessive allele shows itself in the phenotype when only one copy of the allele is present, as in hemizygous alleles or in deletion heterozygotes.# An autosomal recessive condition present in individuals in two or more generations of a family, thereby appearing to follow a dominant inheritance patterns.Common explanations include:# A high carrier frequency.# Birth of an affected child to an affected individual and a genetically related (consanguinous) reproductive partner.# In populations with high frequencies of heterozygotes for autosomal recessive conditions, such as in geographically isolated communities, the mating of a homozygote with a heterozygote may result in an inheritance pattern mimicking dominant inheritance (pseudodominance).Examples of diseases with pseudodominance# Storgordt disease (caused by ABCR mutations)# Pseudoxanthoma elasticum (is caused by mutations in the ABCC6 gene, inherited in an autosomal recessive manner and presence of disease in two generations is due to pseudodominance.)# Glycogen storage disease type VII (Tarui's) - it is autosomal recessive, although a few cases with pseudodominance or sumptomatic heterozygous individuals have been found. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which among the following topical agent used in burns can cause acidosis | [
"Silver sulfadiazine",
"Mafenide acetate",
"Silver Nitrate",
"Povidone Iodine"
] | B | Mafenide cause acidosis, by inhibiting carbonic anhydrase. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is an oncogenic RNA virus | [
"Hepatitis B virus",
"Human papilloma viruses",
"Epstein Barr virus",
"Hepatitis C virus"
] | D | Ref Robbins 8/e p315,9/e p328 Hepatitis C virus is only oncogenic RNA virus in the options.otherd mentioned are oncogenic DNA viruses Hepatitis C Virus Epidemiology and Transmission. HCV also is a major cause of liver disease. The worldwide carrier rate is esti- mated at 175 million persons (a 3% prevalence rate, ranging widely from 0.1% to 12%, depending on the country). Per- sistent chronic infection exists in 3 to 4 million persons in the United States, where the number of newly acquired HCV infections per year dropped from 180,000 in the mid- 1980s to about 19,000 in 2006. This welcome change resulted from the marked reduction in transfusion-associated hepa- titis C (as a result of screening procedures) and a decline of infections in intravenous drug abusers (related to prac- tices motivated by fear of human immunodeficiency virus infection). However, the death rate from HCV will con- tinue to climb for 20 to 25 years, because of the decades- long lag time between acute infection and liver failure. The major route of transmission is through blood inoculation, with intravenous drug use accounting for at least 60% of cases in the United States. Transmission by blood products is now for- tunately rare, accounting for only 4% of all acute HCV infections. Occupational exposure among health care workers accounts for another 4% of cases. The rates of sexual transmission and veical transmission are low. Infections of unknown origin account for 9% to 27% of cases. HCV infection has a much higher rate than HBV of pro- gression to chronic disease and eventual cirrhosis (Fig. 15-13). In fact, hepatitis C is the condition that most frequently necessitates liver transplantation in the United States. Viral Structure and Genome. HCV is a positive-sense single-stranded RNA virus belonging to the family Flavi- viridae. It contains highly conserved 5'- and 3'-terminal regions that flank a single open reading frame of nearly 9500 nucleotides that encode structural and nonstructural proteins. HCV is subclassified into six genotypes, based on the genetic sequence. Moreover, because of the poor fidel- ity of RNA replication, an infected person may carry many HCV variants, called quasispecies. The relationships between quasispecies and disease progression are being investi- gated, but it seems that high multiplicity of quasispecies is associated with worse prognosis. In addition, this variabil- ity seriously hampers effos to develop an HCV vaccine. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 40-year-old G3P3 complains of urge hesitancy. Further some- times she gets the urge to void, but passes urine before reaching washroom. She had three normal spontaneous vaginal deliveries of infants weighing between 3.5 and 3.8 kg. Urine examination is normal. All of the following are appropriate treatments in the management of this patient except? | [
"Kegel exercises",
"Bladder training",
"Biofeedback",
"Antidepressants"
] | A | This patient’s presentation is most consistent with urge incontinence. Urge incontinence is the involuntary loss of urine associated with a strong desire to void. Most urge incontinence is caused by detrusor or bladder dyssynergia in which there is an involuntary contraction of the bladder during distension with urine. The management of urge incontinence includes bladder training, biofeedback, or medical therapy. Treatment with anticholinergic drugs (oxybutynin chloride), β-sympathomimetic agonists (metaproterenol sulfate), Valium, antidepressants (imipramine hydrochloride), and dopamine agonists (Parlodel) has been successful. These pharmacologic agents will relax the detrusor muscle. In postmenopausal women who are not on estrogen replacement therapy, estrogen therapy may improve urinary control. Kegel exercises may strengthen the pelvic musculature and improve bladder control in women with stress urinary incontinence. | train | med_mcqa | null |
True about carotid body tumour is | [
"Arises from Schwann cell",
"Causes hypertension",
"Arises from endothelial cell",
"None of the above"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Grisel syndrome all are true except | [
"Post-adenoidectomy",
"Conservation treatment",
"Inflammation of cervical spine ligaments",
"No need for neurosurgeon"
] | D | Ans. d. No need for neurosurgeon Grisel Syndrome: Non-traumatic atlanto-axial subluxation may occur secondary to any inflammatory process in the upper neck It is described following tonsillectomy and adenoidectomy Conservation treatment: Cervical immobilization, Analgesia and Antibiotics to reduce the risk of neurological deficit Grisel Syndrome Non-traumatic atlanto-axial subluxation may occur secondary to any inflammatory process in the upper neckQ Due infection in the peri-odontoid vascular plexusQ that drains the region, bringing about paraspinal ligament laxity Described following tonsillectomy and adenoidectomyQ It maybe associated with overuse of diathermy either for removal of adenoid or following curettageQ, when used for hemostasis. Children with Down syndromedeg have atlanto-axial instability Treatment: Cervical immobilizationQ AnalgesiaQ AntibioticsQ to reduce the risk of neurological deficit | train | med_mcqa | null |
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