question stringlengths 1 6.54k | choices listlengths 4 4 | answer stringclasses 4
values | rationale stringlengths 0 22.5k ⌀ | split stringclasses 1
value | dataset stringclasses 6
values | subject stringclasses 1
value |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
Treatment of choice of small preputial Penile carcinoma is | [
"Total Penectomy",
"Partial Penectomy",
"Wide excision",
"Emasculation"
] | C | Wide local excision with 2 cm margin is done for small preputial penile carcinoma. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Parvo virus causes all except | [
"Non - immune hydrops fetalis",
"Polyarthralgia syndrome",
"Heamorrhagic cystitis",
"Erythema infectiosum"
] | C | Heamorrhagic cystitis is caused by Adenovirus type 11, 21. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The commonest focus of scrofuloderma is | [
"Lung",
"Lymph nodes",
"Larynx",
"Skin"
] | D | Scrofuloderma is a skin condition caused by tuberculosis involvement of the skin by direct extension, usually from underlying tuberculous lymphadenitis. Ref: Textbook of microbiology; Ananthanarayan and paniker's; 10th edition; Pg: 367 | train | med_mcqa | null |
The muscle that crosses both shoulder and elbow joint - | [
"Coracobrachialis",
"Medial head of triceps",
"Biceps brachii",
"Brachialis"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
40 year old male patient who is case of chronic limb ischaemia is on clopidogrel for the past 1year. He is posted for elective rhinoplasty. What should be done regarding the clopidogrel | [
"Stop clopidogrel 7days priorly.",
"Continue clopidogrel",
"Stop clopidogrel and replace with ticlopidine",
"Give low dose clopidogrel."
] | A | Clopidogrel is ideally stopped 7 days prior to the surgery. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is true of Wilson's disease | [
"increased urinary excretion of copper",
"increased ceruloplasmin in blood",
"decreased copper and ceruloplasmin in serum",
"decreased urinary excretion of ceruloplasmin"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Typical silvery scales of psoriasis are absent in - | [
"Scalp",
"Knee",
"Groin",
"Elbow"
] | C | <p>PSORIASIS:-Inflammatory skin disease.Genetic predisposition. Psoriasis susceptibility 1 (PSORS1) is the most impoant susceptibility locus. Clinical features:-1. Classic lesion-Well defined erythematous plaque with a silvery white scales.2. Size varies from pin point papules to plaques. Types:-1. Chronic plaque psoriasis/psoriasis vulgaris:- Most common type Erythematous scaly plaques with silvery white scales of various sizes distributed symmetrically on the extensor aspect of extremities 2. Eruptive psoriasis:- More commonly seen in children and young adults with a shower of small papules and plaques all over the trunk and limbs. lesions are of size 1-2 cm, associated with streptococcal infection 3. Flexural psoriasis:-Involvement of flexural areas-axillae,perineum ,groin and inflammatory folds. Scaling minimal or absent. 4. Sebo - psoriasis : Occurs in sebum rich areas.Predominantly on scalp,face,inframammary region, retroauricular regions Moist erythematous lesions with yellow greasy scales. {Reference: IADVL textbook of dermatology page 1032 | train | med_mcqa | null |
During fetal life development of testis takes place in relation with: | [
"Intraperitoneal near ventral wall",
"Anterior abdominal wall",
"Retroperitoneal near dorsal wall",
"All"
] | C | C i.e. Retroperitoneal Near dorsal wall | train | med_mcqa | null |
Dehiscence in the external auditory canal cause infection in the parotid gland via: | [
"Fissure of Santorini",
"Notch of Rivinus",
"Petro-tympanic fissure",
"Retro pharyngeal fissure"
] | A | (a) Fissure of Santorini(Ref. Cummings, 6th ed., 1981)The notch of Rivinus is the upper attachment of pars flaccida.Petro-tympanic fissure is present on the anterior wall of middle ear, on which attaches the anterior malleolar ligament.Retropharyngeal fissure does not exist. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 36-year-old, male has a family h/o suicide with abnormal movements with dementia. The investigation of choice is | [
"Trinucleotide repeats",
"Psychological examination",
"ECG",
"MRI"
] | A | (A) Trinucleotide repeats Harrison18-3330]> Huntington's disease is one of the Trinucleotide repeat disorders which can explained above mentioned patient condition.# Huntington's Disease (HD)> HD is a progressive, fatal, highly penetrant autosomal dominant disorder characterized by motor, behavioral, and cognitive dysfunction> HD is characterized by rapid, nonpatterned, semipurposeful, involuntary choreiform movements. In the early stages, the chorea tends to be focal or segmental, but progresses over time to involve multiple body regions. Dysarthria, gait disturbance, and oculomotor abnormalities are common features. With advancing disease, there may be a reduction in chorea and emergence of dystonia, rigidity, bradykinesia, myoclonus, and spasticity. Functional decline is often predicted by progressive weight loss despite adequate calorie intake. In younger patients (about 10% of cases), HD can present as an akinetic-rigid or parkinsonian syndrome (Westphal variant). HD patients eventually develop behavioral and cognitive disturbances, and the majority progress to dementia. Depression with suicidal tendencies, aggressive behavior, and psychosis can be prominent features. HD patients may also develop non-insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus and neuroendocrine abnormalities, e.g., hypothalamic dysfunction. A clinical diagnosis of HD can be strongly suspected in cases of chorea with a positive family history. The disease predominantly strikes the striatum. Progressive atrophy of the caudate nuclei, which form the lateral margins of the lateral ventricles, can be visualized by MRI. More diffuse cortical atrophy is seen in the middle and late stages of the disease. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The primary endogenous substrate for nitric oxide synthase (NOS) is : | [
"Citrulline",
"Arginine",
"Heme",
"Methionine"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Sensitivity; True is: | [
"Most important parameter for screening",
"Identifies those who have the disease",
"Both",
"None"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
A/E are the features of exercise:- | [
"Left shift of Hb- O2 dissociation curve",
"Increase blood supply to muscle",
"Increase stroke volume",
"Increase O2 extraction"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e. left shift of Hb-O2 dissociation curve A right shift of Hb-Oz dissociation curve is seen in exercising muscles.During exercise, the contracting muscles need more O2 for energy production.This need in meet by increasing the blood supply to the muscles. Cardiac activity increases to increase the stroke volume. Capillary bed of the contracting muscle dilates and many previously closed capillaries open up.In contracting muscle the amount of O2 extracted from blood increases (There is a net 3 fold increase in O2 extraction from each unit of blood). This is because of right shift of Hb-O2 dissociation curve.Right shift of Hb-O2 dissociation curve occurs because of -Accumulation of CO2 (Decrease pH)*Increased temp, of contracting muscles*Rise in RBCs 2,3 - DPG-* | train | med_mcqa | null |
In embryo, Hemopoiesis is first demonstrable in | [
"Yolk sac",
"Liver",
"Spleen",
"Bone marrow"
] | A | In the early embryo, hemopoiesis is demonstrable first in the yolk sac, followed by the liver and finally bone marrow.Reference: William&;s Obstetrics; 24th edition; Chapter 7; Embryogenesis and Fetal Morphological Development | train | med_mcqa | null |
Brain natriuretic peptide is degraded by | [
"Neutral endopeptidase",
"Elastase",
"Collagenase",
"Ompatrilat"
] | A | Brain natriuretic peptide or B type natriuretic peptide: It is a hormone produced by the ventricles of the heart.
It has been shown to increase in response to ventricular volume expansion and pressure overload. B.N.P. is a marker of ventricular systolic and diastolic function.
Like Atrial natriuretic peptide, it is degraded by neutral endopeptidase. Atrial natriuretic peptide:
Atrial natriuretic factor (ANP) is a hormone released by atrial walls of the heart when they become stretched.
Because in heart failure,
there is an almost always excessive increase in both the right and left atrial pressures that stretch the atrial walls the circulating levels of ANP in the blood increase
fivefold to tenfold in severe heart failure. The ANF, in turn, has a direct effect on the kidneys to increase greatly their excretion of salt and water.
Therefore ANP plays a natural role to prevent the extreme congestive symptoms of cardiac failure.
But the other factors promoting cardiac decompensation quickly overrides this ANP effect.
More on the physiological properties of ANP: Circulating ANP has a short half-life.
Their steady level in blood is maintained by clearance receptors. It is metabolized by neutral endopeptidase (NEP) which is inhibited by Thiorphan. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is not a type of surgery done for entropion | [
"Wheeler Procedure",
"Quicke Procedure",
"Kuhnt surgery",
"Lateral tarsal split procedure"
] | C | * Kuhnt surgery is done for ectropion Entropion Surgeries * Hotz procedure for congenital entropion * Transverse sutures along lid * Anterior lamellar resection * Tarsal wedge resection * Modified Ketssey's operation * Transverse eveing suture * Plication of Lid retractors- That is Jones Procedure * Making a scar between preseptal and pretarsal tissue- Weiss Procedure * Wheeler Procedure * Quicke Procedure- combination of jones and Weiss * Lateral tarsal split procedure | train | med_mcqa | null |
Colonic Polyp that has maximum chance of malignant change? | [
"Hyperplastic polyp",
"Adenomatous polyp",
"Juvenile polyp",
"Polyp of Peutzeger syndrome"
] | B | Ans. B. Adenomatous polyp.. (Ref. Robbin's pathology 8th/pg. 618)Robbin's pathology 8th/pg. 618....."Adenomas are neoplastic polyps that range from small, often pedunculated, tumors to large lesions that are usually sessile. Incidence of adenomas in the small intestine is very low compared to those arise in the colon.The prevalence of colonic adenomas is 20% to 30% before age 40, rising to 40% to 50% after age 60. Males and females are affected equally. There is familial predisposition to sporadic adenomas, accounting for about a fourfold greater risk for adenomas among first-degree relatives, and also a fourfold greater risk of colorectal carcinoma in any person with adenomas"Polyps of the Large Intestine.TypeHistologic DiagnosisNeoplasticAdenomaTubular adenoma (adenomatous polyp)Tubulovillous adenoma (villoglandular adenoma)Villous adenoma (villous papilloma)CarcinomaHamartomasJuvenile polypPeutz-Jeghers polypInflammatoryInflammatory polyp (pseudopolyp) Benign lymphoid polypUnclassifiedHyperplastic polypMiscellaneousLipoma, leiomyoma, carcinoid# Inflammatory polyps have no malignant potential. Cancer developing in asso with hamartomas is rare.# Hyperplastic polyps are not neoplastic and therefore do not become malignant.# Juvenile polyps- are hamartomatous proliferations, mainly of lamina propria, enclosing widely spaced, dilated cystic glands.- They occur most frequently in children younger than 5 years old but also are found in adults of any age; in the latter group they may be called retention polyps.- Irrespective of terminology, the lesions are usually large in children (1-3 cm in diameter) but smaller in adults; they are rounded, smooth, or slightly lobulated and sometimes have a stalk as long as 2 cm.- In general, they occur singly and in the rectum, and being hamartomatous have no malignant potential.- Juvenile polyps may be the source of rectal bleeding and in some cases become twisted on their stalks to undergo painful infarction.# Syndromes of juvenile polyposis have been defined:# (1) Juvenile polyposis syndrome: (1/100,000 population): (juvenile polyposis and ectodermal lesions).# (2) Bannayan-Riley-Ruvalcaba syndrome: (juvenile polyposis and macrocephaly and genital hyperpigmentation), and# (3) Cowden's disease (juvenile polyposis and facial trichilemmomas, thyroid goiter and cancer, and breast cancer).# (4). Although juvenile polyps are hamartomas with a low malignant potential, the risk of GI cancer is increased in familial juvenile polyposis patients and their relatives. The lifetime risk of colorectal cancer with juvenile polyposis syndrome is 30-60%. Furthermore, hamartomas can coexist with adenomas, and one must not assume that a polyp is a hamartoma without proof. Colonoscopic excision is performed for large or symptomatic (bleeding, intussusception) lesions. Some juvenile polyps autoamputate. Colectomy is required in patients with familial juvenile polyposis.# Peutz-Jeghers syndrome- is an uncommon autosomal dominant disease (1/200,000 population) in which multiple hamartomatous polyps appear in the stomach, small bowel, and colon.- There is melanotic pigmentation of skin and mucous membranes, especially about lips and gums.- Until recently the Peutz-Jeghers hamartomas were thought to be without malignant potential, but adenomatous changes and the development of malignancy have been described.- The lifetime risk of colorectal cancer has been reported to be 39%.- Polyps are generally removed only if symptomatic, but patients should undergo continued surveillance. Carcinoma also develops at an increased rate in other tissues, eg, stomach, duodenum, pancreas, small intestine, and breast. | train | med_mcqa | null |
What happens in hyperophy? | [
"Increase in cell number",
"Increase in cell size",
"Decrease in cell number",
"Decrease in cell size"
] | B | Hyperophy is an increase in the size of cells resulting in an increase in the size of the organ.Hyperplasia is characterized by an increase in cell number because of the proliferation of differentiated cells and replacement by tissue stem cells.Shrinkage in the size of the cell by the loss of cell substance is known as atrophy.Metaplasia is a reversible change in which one adult cell type (epithelial or mesenchymal) is replaced by another adult cell type( Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th edition, page 3 ) | train | med_mcqa | null |
In a town of population 5000, 500 are already myopic on January 1, 2011. The number of new myopia cases is 90 till it December 31, 2011. Calculate the incidence of Myopia in the town in 2011- | [
"0.018",
"0.02",
"0.05",
"18"
] | B | Out of 5000, 500 are already myopic. Thus, population at risk in the question = 5000 - 500 = 4500
Incidence = New cases in the year / Population at risk in the year = 90 / 4500 = 0.02 | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 43-year-old man had a previous injury to his wrist. The ulnar nerve was severed, as indicated by which of the following? | [
"Claw hand involving the ring and little fingers",
"Claw hand involving the index and middle fingers",
"Atrophy of the thenar muscles",
"Absent sensation in the index finger"
] | A | The lumbrical muscles arise from the flexor digitorum profundus tendons at a level distal to the small bones in the hand. The hypothenar muscles are on the ulnar side, and the thenar muscles are on the thumb side of the hand. The medial two lumbrical muscles are paralyzed, and this leads to the typical deformity. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 5 year old girl presents with pallor, abdominal examination shows hepatosplenomegaly. Which of the following test is most appropriate in making the diagnosis? | [
"Osmotic Fragility Test",
"Hb Electrophoresis",
"Peripheral Smear Examinations",
"Examination of Bone Marrow"
] | B | The child is showing features of beta thalssemia intermedia. Definitive diagnosis of this condition can be made by hemoglobin electrophoresis which shows HbF in the range of 10-50%, High HbA2 >4%. Criteria for diagnosing beta thalassemia intermedia includes: Clinical: Late presentation 2-5years, with relatively high hemoglobin 8 -10 g/dl and moderate bone changes and hepatosplenomegaly. Serum electrophoresis showing HbF in the range of 10-50%, High HbA2 >4% Genetics: One or both parents can be a silent carrier, absence of heterozygosity for beta thalassemia or presence of high HbF beta thalassemia. Molecular: Mild beta thalassemia mutation, Co inheritance of alpha thalassemia, co inheritance of high fetal hemoglobin. Ref: Harrison's Internal Medicine, 18th Edition, Page 859 ; Kochars Clinical Medicine for Students By Dario.M.Torre, Page 582 | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 21 year old primigravida is admitted at 39 weeks gestation with painless antepaum hemorrhage. On examination uterus is soft non-tender and head engaged. The management for her would be : | [
"Blood transfusion and sedatives",
"A speculum examination",
"Pelvic examination in OT",
"Tocolysis and sedatives"
] | C | Ans. is c i.e. Pelvic examination in OT Patient is presenting with painless vaginal bleeding and uterus is soft and nontender. These findings confirm the diagnosis of placenta pre (In abruptio-bleeding is accompanied by pain, uterus is tense, tender and rigid). The gestational age of patient is 39 weeks i.e., fetal maturity is attained and pregnancy has to be terminated either vaginally or by cesarean section. Before termination of pregnancy, vaginal examination should be done in OT (keeping everything ready for cesarean section) to know : -- The degree of placenta pre To assess whether vaginal delivery is possible or not. Remember Vaginal examination should not be done outside the operation theatre as it can provoke fuher separation of placenta with torrential bleeding which may be fatal. These days the need for carrying out vaginal examination in OT has decreased as the patients have an antenatal ultrasound specifying the degree of placenta pre. Also Knov. Conditions where vaginal examination should not be done (even in OT) Patient is in exsanguinated statedeg. Diagnosed cases of major placenta pre on USGdeg Associated complicating factors such as malpresentation, elderly primigravida, previous cesarean section. Luriiith,led pelvis etcdeg which prevent vdginal delivery. As in all these conditions cesarean section is mandatory (so no point in wasting time to know the type of placenta pre by vaginal examination and taking the risk of occurrence of brisk hemorrhage). | train | med_mcqa | null |
True regarding hepatitis E virus is-a) Seen in Post transfustion casesb) Associated with increased mortality in pregnant femalec) Associated with hepatitis B virusd) Acquired by feco oral route | [
"c",
"d",
"ab",
"bd"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
All are caused by parvo virus infection except | [
"Erythema infectiosum",
"Encephalopathy",
"Aplastic crisis",
"Gloves and socks syndrome"
] | B | Parvovirus B19 causes :
Erythema infectiorum.
Arthropathy.
Myocarditis.
Transient aplastic crisis.
Skin eruptions like "Gloves and socks" syndrome. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Hyperemesis gravidarum is maximum at what gestational age? | [
"6 weeks",
"9 weeks",
"28 weeks",
"36 weeks"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., 9 weeksMaximum levels of beta HCG occur on 66th day of pregnancy, i.e. 9 weeks 3 days, and thus hyperemesis is maximum at 9 weeks of gestation. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Crohn's disease is best diagnosed by | [
"Upper GI series",
"CT enteroclysis",
"Capsule endoscopy",
"CECT"
] | B | Diagnosis CT Enteroclysis: IOC for diagnosis of Crohn's disease Earliest radiographic findings in enteroclysis are aphthous ulceration, a coarse villous pattern of the mucosa, and thickened folds Ulcerations on the mesenteric aspect with sacculation on the antimesenteric surface. Serology : Anti-Saccharomyces cerevisiae (ASCA) autoantibodies have specificity of 92% for Crohn's disease. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following can occur in rheumatic fever except: September 2007, 2010 | [
"Mitral regurgitation",
"Mitral stenosis",
"Pericarditis",
"Loud first hea sound"
] | D | Ans. D: Loud first hea sound The mitral valve is almost always affected, sometimes together with the aoic valve; isolated aoic valve involvement is rare. Early valvular damage leads to regurgitation. Over ensuing years, usually as a result of recurrent episodes,leaflet thickening, scarring, calcification, and valvular stenosis may develop. Pericarditis may develop and commonly causes a friction rub. Myocardial inflammation leads to softening of first hea sound. | train | med_mcqa | null |
In diagnosi of AIDS, criteria include the following except - | [
"CD4<200",
"CD8<500",
"CD4 : CD 8 =1",
"Presence of any of the oppounistic infections tuberculossis, pneumosystic carinii, cytomegalovirus"
] | B | absolute CD4 lymphocyte count is the predictor for HIV progression.risk of progression to an AIDS oppeunistic infection or malignancy is high with CD4<200 normal CD4:CD8 ratio is 2. If ratio decreases to 1 or less,it denotes AIDS clinical diagnosis of AIDS, minor signs includes persistent cough for more than 1 month,generalised pruritic dermatitis,oropharyngeal candidiasis,generalised lymphadenopathy,history of herpes zoster,herpes simplex infection major criteria includes weight loss >10% body weight,chronic diarrhoea >1 month,prolonged fever of more than 1 month park edition 23 page 348,350 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Glassware is sterilized in Hot air oven at - | [
"160degC for 1 hour",
"170degC for 1 hour",
"180degC for 1 hour",
"190degC for 1 hour"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., 160degC for 1 hour | train | med_mcqa | null |
Child's Child-Turcotte-Pugh is used in : | [
"Pancreatitis",
"Cirrhosis",
"Multiple myeloma",
"AIDS"
] | B | The Child-Turcotte-Pugh (CTP) score was originally developed to evaluate the risk of poacaval shunt procedures secondary to poal hypeension and subsequently has been shown to be useful in predicting surgical risks of other intra-abdominal operations performed on cirrhotic patients. Numerous studies have demonstrated overall surgical moality rates of 10% for patients with class A cirrhosis, 30% for those with class B cirrhosis, and 75 to 80% for those with class C cirrhosis. Ref : Tsung A. (2010). Chapter 31. Liver. In T.R. Billiar, D.L. Dunn (Eds), Schwaz's Principles of Surgery, 9e. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Keroin is caused by - | [
"Candida",
"Streptococcus",
"Dermatophytes",
"Herpes"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Dermatophytes Kerion is a hypersensitivity and inflammation reaction in tinea capitis caused by zoophilic species of dermatophytes (T. verruca and T. mentagrophytes). | train | med_mcqa | null |
Westermark sign is seen in: | [
"Pulmonary embolism",
"Pulmonary sequestration",
"Pulmonary alveolar proteinosis",
"Pneumothorax"
] | A | Ans. (a) Pulmonary embolism Ref- Westermark sign is a sign of pulmonary embolus seen on chest radiographs. It is one of several described signs of pulmonary embolus on chest radiographs. Pathology The theory behind the sign is either obstruction of the pulmonary artery or distal vasoconstriction in hypoxic lung 3. In one study (PIOPED) this sign was present on ~10% of chest x-rays of patients with confirmed pulmonary embolus 2. Radiographic features Plain radiograph focal peripheral hyperlucency secondary to oligaemia resulting in a collapsed appearance of vessels distal to the occlusion 2-4 central pulmonary vessels may also be dilated 3 History and etymology The Swedish radiologist Nils Johan Hugo Westermark (1892-1980) 7 first described this sign in 1938 5. Westermark was also an accomplished sailor and won a silver medal, as a member of the Swedish team, at the 1912 Olympics in Stockholm 7. Differential diagnosis emphysema 2 CXR may be normal, or may show Focal oligemia of affected segment (Westermark sign Q) Dilated right descending pulmonary artery (Palla's sign Q) Wedge-shaped opacities above the diaphragm (Hampton's Hump Q) Small pleural effusion | train | med_mcqa | null |
True regarding anaemia of chronic disease are all except | [
"Decreased TIBC",
"Increased macrophage iron in marrow",
"Decrease serum ferritin level",
"Decreased serum iron levels"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
All are true about ramelteon except : | [
"Agonist at MT1 and MT2 receptors",
"Is a substrate of CYP1A2",
"Has high addiction liability",
"Approved for treatment of insomnia"
] | C | Ramelteon is a non-addictive drug. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Increased iron absorption is seen in - | [
"Iron deficiency anaemia",
"Hypoxia",
"Inflammation",
"Antacids"
] | A | <p>In pregnancy & in iron deficiency ,the propoion of iron absorption is raised to 20-40%.</p><p>Harsh mohan textbook of pathology sixth edition pg no 295</p> | train | med_mcqa | null |
Temporary method of contraception among the following is : | [
"Vasectomy",
"OCP",
"Tubectomy",
"Postpaum sterilisation"
] | B | Temporary contraceptive methods are Hormonal contraception Intrauterine devices Barrier contraception Natural family planning methods Ref: TEXTBOOK OF GYNAECOLOGY; SHEILA BALAKRISHNAN; SECOND EDITION; PAGE NO 364 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Cardiac manifestations of Grave's disease would include all of the folloing except - | [
"Wide pulse pressure",
"Atrial fibrillation",
"Pleuropericardial scratch",
"Aoic insufficiency"
] | D | The most common cardiovascular manifestation of Graves' disease is sinus tachycardia, often associated with palpitations, occasionally caused by supra-ventricular tachycardia. The high cardiac output produces a bounding pulse, widened pulse pressure, and an aoic systolic murmur and can lead to worsening of angina or hea failure in the elderly or those with preexisting hea disease. Atrial fibrillation is more common in patients >50 years of age. The Means-Lerman (pleuropericardial) scratch is a mid-systolic scratching sound best heard over the upper pa of the sternum or second left intercostal space at the end of expiration .This results from the rubbing of the pericardium against the pleura in the context of hyperdynamic circulation and tachycardia, and may mimic the sound of a pericardial rub . Reference : page 2294 Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine 19th edition | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most common type of twin pregnancy is : | [
"Veex + transverse",
"Both veex",
"Veex + breech",
"Both breech"
] | B | Ans. is b i.e. Both veex In twins most common lie of both the fetus at term is longitudinal.deg Rarest lie is both the twins transverse.deg Presentations : Both veex (Most common) 60% Veex (1st) - Breech (1Ind) 20% Breech (1st) - Veex (11nd) 10% Both Breech 8 - 10% Note : Interlocking of twins is a rare complication seen in twins with 1st Breech presentation and Ind veex presentation. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The marked area in skull represents: | [
"Asterion",
"Pterion",
"Bregma",
"Lambda"
] | B | Ans. B Pterion | train | med_mcqa | null |
pulse oxmetry is based on:
Beers law
Dopplers law
Lambert's law
Poilles law | [
"1&2",
"2&3",
"1&3",
"1&4"
] | C | The principle of pulse oximetry is based on Beer-Lambert law, which states that the concentration of an absorbing substance in solution can be determined from the intensity of Light transmitted through that solution.
In other words, arterial oxygen saturation is based on the differential absorption of red and infrared photons by oxyhemoglobin and deoxy-haemoglobin measured by the pulse oximeter.
This law is a combination of 2 laws:
Beers law: The intensity of transmitted light decreases exponentially as the concentration of the substance increases.
Lambert's Law: The intensity of transmitted tight decreases exponentially as the distance travelled through the substance increases. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Diagnostic test commonly used to determine the status
of vitality of pulp is: | [
"Radiography",
"Thermal testing",
"Computerized axial tomography scanning",
"Percussion and palpation"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Regression of Mullerian duct in males occurs at: | [
"5 weeks",
"6 weeks",
"7 weeks",
"8 weeks"
] | D | Ans. is d, i.e. 8 weeksRef: Leon Speroff 8th/ed, p342"AMH gene expression is induced by SOX-9 in sertoli cells and results in the ipsilateral regression of mullerian ducts by 8 weeks in males" | train | med_mcqa | null |
The normal pH of tear is (REPEATED) | [
"5.7",
"7.5",
"6.5",
"7.9"
] | B | pH of tear is 7.4 Refer: Khurana 6th edition page number 366 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Edmund Locard is known for his : | [
"System of personal identification using the body measurement",
"Finger print study",
"Formula for estimation of stature",
"Theory of exchange"
] | D | D i.e. Theory of exchange | train | med_mcqa | null |
Transamination of pyruvate with glutamate produces | [
"Oxaloacetate & aspartate",
"Alanine & aspartate",
"Oxaloacetate & α-ketoglutarate",
"Alanine & α-ketoglutarate"
] | D | Two most important transamination reactions are catalyzed by alamine transminase (ALT) and aspartate transaminase (AST). | train | med_mcqa | null |
Ig secreted in secondary immune response is: | [
"Ig G",
"Ig M",
"Ig A",
"Ig E"
] | A | Types of vaccinesLive attenuated vaccineKilled vaccineSubunit vaccineToxoidOral Polo Vaccne (Sabin)Injectable Polio Vaccine (Salk)Hepatitis B vaccine (HbSAq)Tetanus toxoidYellow FeverRabiesTyphim-Vi (Typhoid Vi antigen)Diphtheria toxoidVaricellaJapanese encephalitis MeaslesCholera Mumps Rubella BCG Typhoral (mutant S. typh: strain Ty2 1a) Ref: Ammtkanaraycm. Paniker CJ. Textbook of microbiology. 8th Edition. London: John Wiley & Sons: 2009. Pg. 139Explanation:Primary immune response is the antibody response to an initial antigenic stimulus, white response to subsequent stimuli with the same antigen is known as secondary immune response.Differences between primary and secondary immune responsePrimary immune responseSecondary immune responseSlow, sluggish and short-livedPrompt, powerful and prolonqedLong lag phaseShort or negligible lag phaseLow titre of antibodies that does not persist for longHigh titre of antibodies that last longerAntibody formed is predominantly IgMAntibody formed is predominantly IgGRemember M->G (Mahatma Gandhi) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Gradual lightening / blue black colour shift in a tattoo is called: | [
"Tyndall effect",
"Halo effect",
"Washing out",
"Leaching"
] | A | Changes in tattoo maturation Halo effect - extrusion of pigment on deposition near follicle Washing out / leaching/pigment migration-carrying away of pigment by macrophages on deep inseion Ref: Textbook of dermatosurgery & cosmetology, satish S savant, E-2,P-338. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Cobra venom is: | [
"Haemotoxic",
"Neurotoxic",
"Myotoxic",
"None of the above"
] | B | Ans: b (Neurotoxic) Ref: Reddy, 27th ed, p. 494Cobra venom is neurotoxic.Different kinds of venom produced by poisonous snakes.Neurotoxic venom - Cobra, krait (Elapidae family)Hemotoxic venom - Viper, (due to phosphatidases)Myotoxic - Sea snakesIdentifying features of snakesCobra - Spectacle mark. 3rd supralabial is large and touches the eye.Krait - 4th infralabial is large. Central row of hexagonal scales.Pit viper - Pit b/w the eye and nostrils.Note:Most poisonous snake - Australian tiger snakeLargest snake - PythonMost of the snakes are non poisonous. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Atavism is inheritance of features of: Kerala 11 | [
"Father",
"Mother",
"Grandfather",
"Uncle"
] | C | Ans. Grandfather | train | med_mcqa | null |
Intracellular receptors are used by ? | [
"ACTH",
"TSH",
"Glucocoicoids",
"Insulin"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Glucocoicoids | train | med_mcqa | null |
Fertilization takes place after how much time of ovulation - | [
"1-2 days",
"5-6 days",
"8-12 days",
"> 12 days"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., 1-2 dayso Human ovum remains fertile for 12-24 hours after ovulation. Thus, fertilization can occur during this period only.o Reproductive life of ovum - 24 hours (12-24 hours)o Reproductive life of sperm - 24 - 72 hours | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following are true for occupational lead poisoning except | [
"lead poisoning is not a notifiable disease",
"lead in blood and urine provide quantitative indicators of exposure",
"inhalation is the most common mode of absorption",
"Basophilic stippling is a sensitive parameter of hematological response"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 70 year old male patient presented with history of chest pain and was diagnosed to have coronary aery disease. During routine evaluation, an ultrasound of the abdomen showed presence of gallbladder stones. There was no past history of biliary colic or jaundice. What is the best treatment advice for such a patient for his gallbladder stones? | [
"Open cholecystectomy",
"Laparoscopic cholecystectomy",
"No surgery for gallbladder stones",
"ERCP and removal of gallbladder stones"
] | C | The patient in question is a 70 years old male, with no evidence of symptomatic disease or prior history of complication. Gall stones were accidentally detected on a routine ultrasound examination of the abdomen. So no active intervention is indicated in such a patient for management of gall stones. Prophylactic cholecystectomy is indicated in children with hemolytic anemia and gallstones and patients with large (>2.5) stones. It is not recommended for diabetics, cirrhotics or patients undergoing solid organ transplantation. Ref: General Surgery: Principles and International Practice By Kirby I. Bland, Volume 2, Pages 1035-8; Schwaz's Principles of Surgery, 9th Edition, Chapter 32. | train | med_mcqa | null |
True about Bell's palsy - | [
"Spontaneous recovery",
"Steroid contraindicated",
"25% have resolved",
"Antibiotics mainstay of treatment"
] | A | Majority of patients with Bell's palsy recover completely.
Steroids are the mainstay of treatment. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Dense calcification is seen in | [
"Chondroblatoma",
"Chondrosarcoma",
"Osteosarcoma",
"Fibrosarcoma"
] | B | B i.e. Chondrosarcoma - Most common bone tumor = Osteochondroma Bone tumor with Dense calcification = Chondro Sarcoma Bone tumor with Calcified secondaries = Osteosarcoma | train | med_mcqa | null |
Extremely lethal among all thyroid tumors is: | [
"Medullary carcinoma.",
"Papillary carcinoma.",
"Anaplastic carcinoma.",
"Follicular carcinoma."
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Ducts of bellini are found in | [
"Pancreas",
"Submandibular salivary gland",
"Kidney",
"Liver"
] | C | The Uriniferous Tubules - From a functional point of view the kidney may be regarded as a collection of numerous uriniferous tubules that are specialised for the excretion of urine. Each uriniferous tubule consists of an excretory pa called the nephron, and of a collecting tubule. The collecting tubules draining different nephrons join to form larger tubules called the papillary ducts (of Bellini), each of which opens into a minor calyx at the apex of a renal papilla. Each kidney contains one to two million nephrons. Urinary tubules are held together by scanty connective tissue. Blood vessels, lymphatics and nerves lie in this connective tissue. REF : Inderbir Singh's Textbook of Human Histology, seventh edition, pg.no., 304. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Anticholinergics cause all except? | [
"Tachycardia",
"Mydriasis",
"Bronchoconstriction",
"Constipation"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Bronchoconstriction. Anticholinergic agents cause bronchodilatation. ACTIONS: CNS: In toxic/high doses: Maximal excitatory effect. Eye: Mydriasis - Paralysis of sphincter pupillae. Cycloplegia - Paralysis of accommodation. Increased intraocular pressure in people with shallow anterior chamber. It gives comfo & rest to eye by relieving spasm of iris sphincter & ciliary muscle. Prevents synechiae formation & demolishes already formed synechiae. Increases blood supply to anterior uvea. By relieving pressure on anterior ciliary aeries. CVS: Increased A-V conduction. GIT: Cause relaxation of LES. Renal: Urinary retention in older males with prostatic hyperophy. Secretions: Reduces salivary, lacrimal and gastric secretions. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 30 years woman presents with progressive conductive deafness bilaterally. The most common cause is - | [
"Tympanosclerosis",
"Otospongiosis",
"Meniere's disease",
"Bilateral wax in external ears"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
A common finding in osteomalacia is | [
"Low serum phosphate",
"Normal level of 1, 25 di-hydroxy vit D3",
"Low serum calcium",
"Increased hydroxy proline in urine"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
NOT used as a post - coital contraception : | [
"Danazol",
"Ethinyl estradiol",
"Levonorgesterel",
"Misoprostol"
] | D | Ans. is d i.e. Misoprostol Friends, here the answer of choice is Misoprostol as it is never used for Emergency contraception (though according to Shaw it can be used) whereas Danazol can be used but is less desirable than other methods because of its less efficacy. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 29-year-o!d G3 P2 female at 32 weeks of gestation presents to the emergency dept. with a small amount of vaginal bloeding. She doesn't have any pain. * On examination * Her PR: 66/min * B/P: 100/70 mm of Hg * RR: 10/min FHS tracings show fetal distress and shows late declerations. What is the best course of action? | [
"Emergent cesarean section",
"Fetal umbilical blood transfusion",
"Expectant management",
"Induction of labour with prost aglandins"
] | A | As there is painless vaginal delivery,the blood loss is fetal in origin it has led to fetal distress i.e, it is a case of vasa pre Management of vasa pre is emergency cesarean section Ref: Dutta Obs 9e pg 243. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following cell types undergo cell division, EXCEPT: | [
"Pericyte",
"Cardiac muscle cell",
"Smooth muscle cell",
"Satellite cell of skeletal muscle"
] | B | Myocyte cell division in the human hea ceases a few weeks after bih. Thereafter, enlargement of the hea is as a result of cell hyperophy or the laying down of collagen in the extracellular space. DNA turnover is almost undetectable except in pathologic states. Approximately 20% of myocytes in the human hea have two nuclei, so that cell separation, rather than mitosis, could bring about a small increase in the total cell number. Ref: Francis G.S., Tang W., Walsh R.A. (2011). Chapter 26. Pathophysiology of Hea Failure. In V. Fuster, R.A. Walsh, R.A. Harrington (Eds), Hurst's The Hea, 13e. | train | med_mcqa | null |
In benign hypeension commonest vascular pathology is | [
"Atherosclerosis",
"Fatty mfilitraion of intima",
"Fibmoid necrosis",
"Hyaline aeriosclerosis"
] | D | In smaller aeries (< 1 mm), hyaline aeriosclerosis occurs in the wall, the lumen narrows and aneurysms may develop. Widespread atheroma develops and may lead to coronary and cerebrovascular disease, paicularly if other risk factors (e.g. smoking,diabetes, hyperlipidaemia,) are present.These structural changes in the vasculature often perpetuate and aggravate hypeension by increasing peripheral vascular resistance and reducing renal blood flow, thereby activating the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone axis. ref:davidson&;s principles and practices medicine,ed 21,pg no 624 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Both fenfluramine and phentermine | [
"Produce central nervous system stimulation",
"Act to suppress appetite",
"Are effective in treating narcolepsy",
"Have been used in children with attention deficit disorders"
] | B | . Both fenfluramine and phentermine have been successfully used, alone and in combination, for the treatment of obesity. They apparently reduce appetite by affecting the satiety centers in the hypothalamus. Whereas phentermine is a central nervous system (CNS) stimulant related to the amphetamines and is believed to act by releasing norepinephrine from CNS neurons, fenfluramine causes lethargy and sedation and acts by augmenting serotonin neurotransmission. For this reason, the drugs may be used together without causing excessive CNS stimulation or depression. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Father of ophthalmology? | [
"William Osler",
"Sushruta",
"Albrecht Von Graefe",
"David James"
] | C | Father of Ophthalmology = Albrecht Von Graefe Von Graefe sign= lid lag sign in hypehyroidism Pseudo Von Graefe sign= seen in abberant 3rd nerve regeneration | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following anti-tubercular drugs act by inhibiting mycolic acid synthesis in mycobacteria? | [
"Rifampicin",
"Streptomycin",
"Isoniazid",
"Ethambutol"
] | C | Isoniazid acts by inhibiting mycolic acid synthesis in mycobacteria. MECHANISM OF ACTION OF FIRST LINE ATD DRUG MECHANISM Rifampicin Inhibit transcription of RNA Isoniazid Inhibit mycolic acid synthesis Pyrazinamide Act on mycobacterial membrane Ethambutol Inhibit arabinogalactan synthesis Streptomycin Inhibit protein synthesis | train | med_mcqa | null |
RMP of smooth muscle is? | [
"-50mv",
"-75mv",
"-90mv",
"-35mv"
] | A | Ans- A | train | med_mcqa | null |
The complication that can occur with internal podalic version for transverse lie: | [
"Uterine rupture",
"Uterine atony",
"Cervical laceration",
"Vaginal alceration"
] | A | Ans. is a, i.e. Uterine ruptureRef. Dutta Obs. 9/e, p 543, Munrokerr 100/e, p 292Internal podalic version (IPV):In modern obstetrics, there is no place for this procedure in a singleton pregnancy.Internal podalic version is only used for the second twin when it is lying transversely and external version failsQ.Prerequisites for IPV:The membranes should be intact or very recently ruptured in other words liquor should be adequate.The cervix should be fully dilated.Fetus must be living.Anesthesia: General anesthesiaQ (halothane).Contraindications:Obstructed laborQMembranes ruptured with all the liquor drainedPrevious cesarean section even if it is LSCS.Contracted pelvis.Complications:MaternalFetalPlacental abruptionAsphyxiaRupture uterusCord prolapseIncrease morbidityIntracranial hemorrhage | train | med_mcqa | null |
During application of the cup in Ventouse, 'knob' of the cup points towards: March 2013 | [
"Brow",
"Chin",
"Neck",
"Occiput"
] | D | Ans. D i.e. Occiput Ventouse Indications As an alternative to forceps operation. Deep transverse arrest with adequate pelvis Delay in descent of head of the second baby of twins Delay in first stage due to uterine ineia or primary cervical dystocia Contraindications Prematurity Head not engaged Fetal distress Pelvic contraction Transverse lie After coming head of breech Paially dilated cervix Congenital anomalies Dead fetus. Complications Cephalhematoma Subaponeurotic or subgaleal haemorrhage Chignon Retinal hemorrhage | train | med_mcqa | null |
Feature of Autosomal dominant disorder: | [
"Present early in life",
"Complete penetrance common",
"New germ cell mutations in old fathers",
"Male to male transmission not possible"
] | C | Autosomal dominant disorder usually have late onset of disease due to presence of one non mutated gene which can function normally. In contrast with autosomal recessive where onset is early due to presence of mutation in both gene present. Complete penetrance is feature of autosomal recessive disorder, as individual who inherits the both mutated gene, individual will have symptom. As in autosomal dominant disorder, some individual shows mild, some might have moderate or some severe. Some individual might not express the phenotype even though they inherit the allele. Therefore incomplete penetrance is feature of AD disorder. Male to male transmission is possible in autosomal inheritance condition. In autosomal dominant condition like achondroplasia: Normally, FGF-mediated activation of FGFR3 inhibits endochondral growth. Constitutive activation of FGFR3 exaggerates this effect, suppressing growth. Approximately 90% of cases stem from new mutations, almost all of which occur in the paternal allele. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is responsible for adhesion of plate!lets to the vessel IN all?(.4//MS May 2015, November 2013 | [
"Factor IX",
"Von Willebrand factor",
"Fibrinogen",
"Fibronectin"
] | B | Ans: B. Von Willebrand factor(Ref. Robbins 9/e pill), 660 & Robbins 9/e p116Von-Willebrand factor:Product of normal endothelial cells.An essential cofactor for platelet binding to matrix elements (adhesion of platelets to vessel wall).Events:Endothelial injury allows platelets to contact underlying extracellular matrix a subsequent adhesion occurs through interactions with von Willebrand factor (vWF). | train | med_mcqa | null |
True about Post-Streptococcal Glomerulonephritis is: | [
"50% of cases occur after pharyngitis",
"Early treatment of Pharyngitis eliminates the risk of P.S.G.N.",
"Glomerulonephritis, secondary to skin infection, is more common in summer",
"Recurrence is seen"
] | C | Answer is C (Glomerulonephritis secondary to skin infection is more common in Summer): 'During cold weather post streptococcal glomerulonephritis commonly follows streptococcal pharyngitis; whereas during warm weather, the G.N. generally follows streptococcal skin infection or pyoderma'. "Early systemicantibiotic therapy of Streptococcal throat and skin infection will NOT eliminate the risk of glomerulonephritis". Nelson 15th / 1488 "Recurrence are extremely rare" Nelson 15th / 1488 ......Immunity to strains causing G.N. is type-specific and long-lasting, and hence repeated infection and nephritis are rare. Post streptococcal glomerulonephritis may follow either pharyngitis or, skin infection (pyoderma) with a nephritogenic strain of group A beta haemolytic streptococci. I could not however, find what percentage of PSGN cases follow pharyngitis and what percentage follow skin infections. . All I could gather was that these incidences are relative, depending upon the climatic conditions of the area concerned such that in the tropics, skin infection is more impoant than pharyngitis as a cause. The epidemic forms, on the other hand, are seen in children of 2-6 years of age, and are secondary to pharyngitis. Thus no exact demarcation in terms of percentages can be made. | train | med_mcqa | null |
While using EDTA and NaOCl what should be the sequence of irrigation i) Normal Saline II) NaOCl iii) EDTA | [
"i>ii>iii",
"ii>i>iii",
"iii>i>ii",
"iii>ii>i"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
The time interval between reception of infection and maximum infectivity of the host is known as | [
"Generation time",
"Serial interval",
"Latent period",
"Median incubation period"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
A woman has a bilateral headache that worsens with emotional stress; she has two children, both doing badly in school; diagnosis is | [
"Migraine",
"Cluster headache",
"Tension headache",
"Trigeminal neuralgia"
] | C | A tension-type headache (TTH) is a syndrome characterized by bilateral tight, band-like discomfo, builds slowly, fluctuates in severity, episodic or chronic (present >15 days per month).Usually occurs without accompanying features such as nausea, vomiting, photophobia, phonophobia, osmophobia, throbbing, and aggravation with movement. Ref: Harrison's 18/e p121,122 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Insulin dependent glucose uptake is not seen in ? | [
"Skeletal muscles",
"Hea",
"Adipose tissue",
"Kidney"
] | D | Insulin dependent glucose uptake is through GLUT-4 and is seen in :? 1) Skeletal muscles 2) Cardiac muscles (hea) 3) Adipose tissue | train | med_mcqa | null |
Carcinoma cervix is commonest at : | [
"Poio vaginalis",
"Endocervix",
"Erosion",
"Squamocolumnar junction"
] | D | Squamocolumnar junction | train | med_mcqa | null |
Features of papilloedema include all except: | [
"May be due to intracranial haemorrhage",
"Disc becomes elevated",
"Cotton wool spots may be seen",
"Vision is impaired"
] | D | Ans. Vision is impaired | train | med_mcqa | null |
Anastomosis around the shoulder is between branches of: | [
"1st pa of subclan and 1st pa of axillary aery",
"1st pa of subclan and 3rd pa of axillary aery",
"3rd pa of subclan and 2nd pa of axillary aery",
"3rd pa of subclan and 3rd pa of axillary aery"
] | B | - Shoulder anastomosis occurs between branches of 1st pa of subclan aery and 3rd pa of axillary aery. - Two sites of scapular anastomosis: 1. Around the body of scapula: (a) suprascapular aery (branch of the thyrocervical trunk from the first pa of the subclan aery) (b) circumflex scapular aery (branch of the subscapular aery from the third pa of the axillary aery) (c) deep branch of the transverse cervical aery (branch of the thyrocervical trunk) 2. Over the acromion process: (a) acromial branch of the thoraco-acromial aery (b) acromial branch of the suprascapular aery (c) acromial branch of the posterior circumflex humeral aery. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Anxiety is ? | [
"Neurosis",
"Psychosis",
"Personality disorder",
"None"
] | A | Ans., A. NeurosisImpoant neurotic disorders are Anxiety disorders (Panic), Phobia (Phobic anxiety disorder), obsessive compulsive Disorder & Dissociative conversion disorder. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Schirmer test is done for? | [
"Oculomotor nerve",
"Optic nerve",
"Facial nerve",
"All"
] | C | ANSWER: (C) Facial nerveREF: Khurana 4th edition page 366, Yanoff 2nd edition page 524Repeat from December 2008The Schirmer's tear test is used to assess lacrimation function of facial nerve.Schirmer's test determines whether the eye produces enough tears to keep it moist. This test is used when a person experiences very dry eyes or excessive watering of the eyes. It poses no risk to the subject. A negative (more than 10 mm of moisture on the filter paper in 5 minutes) test result is normal. Both eyes normally secrete the same amount of tears.It is performed with the help of a 5 x 35 mm strip of Whatman-41 filter paper which is folded 5 mm from one end and kept in the lower fornix at the junction of lateral one-third and medial two-thirds. The patient is asked to look up and not to blink or close the eyesA young person normally moistens 15 mm of each paper strip. Because hypolacrimation occurs with aging, 33% of normal elderly persons may wet only 10 mm in 5 minutes. Persons with Sjogren s syndrome moisten less than 5 mm in 5 minutes.How to read results of the Schirmer's test:Normal which is >15 mm wetting of the paper after 5 minutes.Mild which is 14-9 mm wetting of the paper after 5 minutes.Moderate which is 8-4 mm wetting of the paper after 5 minutes.Severe which is <4 mm wetting of the paper after 5 minutes. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Elevated androgens in PCOD | [
"Convert terminal hair to vellus hair irreversibly.",
"Convert vellus hair to terminal hair irreversibly.",
"Reversible conversion of vellus hair to terminal hair.",
"Reversible conversion of terminal hair to vellus hair."
] | B | Elevated androgen convert vellus hair into coarse terminal hair. This conversion is irreversible. | train | med_mcqa | null |
What is proposed mechanism of dissociative anesthesia effect of ketamine:- | [
"Inhibition of thalmocoical pathway",
"Stimulation of limbic system",
"Both",
"None"
] | C | Ketamine produces dissociative anesthesia which is characterized by a state wherein the patient is conscious (eg., eye opening, swallowing, muscle contracture) but unable to process or respond to sensory input. It acts as an antagonist at the phencyclidine site of the NMDA receptor. Ketamine functionally "dissociates" the thalamus (which relays sensory impulses from the reticular activating system to the cerebral coex) from the limbic coex (which is involved with the awareness of sensation). Though the patient may have intact corneal, cough, and swallow reflexes, they need not be protective. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The sigmoid nature of Hb-O2 dissociation curve is because of: | [
"Binding of one O2 molecule increase the affinity for the next O2 molecule.",
"Alpha chain has more affinity for O2 than beta chain",
"Beta chain has more affinity for than alpha chain",
"Hemoglobin in acidic in nature."
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e. Binding of one O2 molecule increases the affinity for next Hb also .Lehninger writes : "Hemoglobin must bind oxygen efficiently in lungs and release oxygen in the tissues, myoglobin, or any protein that binds oxygen with a hyperbolic binding curve, would be ill-suited to this function. A protein that binds O2 with high affinity would bind it efficiency in the lungs but would not release much of it in the tissues. If the protein oxygen with a sufficiently low affinity to release it easily in the tissues, it would not pick up much of oxygen in lungs.Haemoglobin solves this problem by undergoing a transition from a low affinity state (the *T state) to a high affinity state (the (R state) as more oxygen molecules are bound. As a result, the Haemoglobin hos a hybrids-shaped, or sigmoid*, binding curve for oxygen*. " | train | med_mcqa | null |
Rosettes found at the lid margin are a feature of | [
"Ulcerative blepharitis",
"Squamous blepharitis",
"Both of the above",
"None of the above"
] | A | Ulcerative blepharitis Etiology: It is a chronic staphylococcal infection of the lid margin usually caused by coagulase positive strains. The disorder usually stas in childhood and may continue throughout life. Symptoms: These include chronic irritation, itching, mild lacrimation, gluing of cilia, and photophobia. The symptoms are characteristically worse in the morning. Signs: Yellow crusts are seen at the root of cilia which glue them together. Small ulcers, which bleed easily, are seen on removing the crusts. In between the crusts, the anterior lid margin may show dilated blood vessels (rosettes). Ref:- A K KHURANA; pg num:-344 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most common symptom associated with adult OCD? | [
"Pathological doubt",
"Need for symmetry",
"Sexual",
"Aggressive"
] | A | (a) Pathological doubt, Ref: Complete review of psychiatry by Dr. Prashant Agrawal, ed.,, 2018, ch- 7, pg. 164 Explanation: Variable % Obsessions (N=200) Contamination 45 Pathological doubt 42 Somatic 36 Need for symmetry 31 Aggressive 28 Sexual 26 Other 13 Multiple obsessions 60 Compulsions (N=200) Checking 63 Washing 50 Counting 36 Need to ask for confess 31 Symmetry and precision 28 Hoarding 18 Multiple compulsions 48 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Drug of choice for cholera chemoprophylaxis is | [
"Erythromycin",
"Ampicilline",
"Tetracyclines",
"Ciprofloxacin"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
All are included in Manning Score except : | [
"Breathing",
"Non stress test",
"Movement",
"Vibroacoustic recording"
] | D | Vibroacoustic recording | train | med_mcqa | null |
An agent added to local anaesthetics to speed the onset of action is : | [
"Methylparaben",
"Bicarbonate",
"Fentanyl",
"Adrenaline"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
All are true about peripheral-neuropathy except - | [
"Glove and stocking anaesthesia",
"Poximal muscle weakness",
"Nerve-conduction deficit",
"Decreased reflexes"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
An albino girl gets married to a normal boy. What are the chances of their having an affected child and what are the chances of their children being carriers? | [
"None affected, all carriers",
"All normal",
"50% carriers",
"50% affected, 50% carriers"
] | A | **Albinism is autosomal recessive; Female here is affected (2 defective genes), while male is normal (both genes normal). **So each offspring (son/daughter) will inherit one defective gene only, from the mother. **So all children will be carriers of albinism and none will be affected. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Function of cerebrocerebellum - | [
"Vestibulo-ocular reflex",
"Smoothening and coordination of movement",
"Planning of movements",
"Postural balance"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Planning of movements Functional divisions of cerebellumo From the functional point of view the cerebellum is divided into three parts : -1) Vestibulocerebellum (flocculonodular lobe)o This division contains flocculus, and nodulus, i.e., flocculonodular lobe. It receives afferent from the vestibular apparatus and sends efferents to the vestibular nuclei directly without projecting on deep nuclei. It works with vestibular apparatus to : -Modulate muscular activity so as to achieve postural equilibrium or balance.Coordinate movements of the eyes with movements of head, i.e., vestibulo-ocular reflex.Spinocerebellumo It consists of the vermis and the adjacent medial portion of cerebellar hemisphere. It receives proprioceptive information from the body as well as a copy of the "Motor plan" from the motor cortex,o By comparing plan, it smoothens and coordinates movements that are ongoing.Cerebrocerebellum (neocerebellum)o It is the large lateral portion of cerebellar hemisphere. They are the newest from a phylogenetic point of view and therefore also called neocerebellum. They interact with the motor cortex in planning and programming movements. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Early adolescence age is | [
"8-11 yrs",
"10-13 yrs",
"14-15 yrs",
"16-19 yrs"
] | B | Adolescence is the stage of transition from childhood to adulthood. Early adolescence ( 10-13yrs) Mid adolescence ( 14-16yrs) Late adolescence (17-19yrs) Ref: Ghai, 9th edition, Chapter 5 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Forensic entomology: | [
"Study of insects",
"Study of poisons",
"Study of death",
"Study of snakes"
] | A | Ans. (A). Study of insectsThanatologyQDeath & its aspectsTaphonomyDecomposition of human remainsAnthropometrystudy of the measurements and proportions of the human bodyDactylographyQFinger printsCheiloscopyQLip printsPoroscopyQSweat poresQ in between fingerprintridgesRugoscopyQPalatal rugaeQ of hard palateQOdontologyQDentition pattern & bite marksPodographyQFoot printsCalligraphyHand writingMedical etiquetteLevel of courtesy between medical colleaguesMedical ethicsMoral principles guiding the doctorsEcotoxicologyPoisons in relation to environmentToxicologyPoisons & its effectsToxicologyToxins & its effectsHerpetologyReptilesOphiologyQSnakesEntomologyQInsects | train | med_mcqa | null |
Trichophagia is characterized by? | [
"Compulsive pulling of hair",
"Compulsive eating of hair",
"Compulsive shopping",
"Compulsive stealing"
] | B | Ans. B. Compulsive eating of hairTrichophagia is compulsive eating of hair and is usually associated with trichotillomania i.e. compulsive pulling of hair. | train | med_mcqa | null |
What is the likely diagnosis? | [
"Spondylolisthesis",
"Spondylosis",
"Compression fracture",
"Osteoporosis"
] | A | *The given X- ray is showing a forward displacement of the arrow- marked veebra on lower one, suggestive of Spondylolisthesis. Definition Anterior displacement (antero-listhesis) of a veebral body upon the bottom veebral body Usually occurs between L4-L5 and between L5-S1 Generally occurs in families Posterior displacement: retro-listhesis Pathology In the standing position there is a constant downward and forward force on the lower lumbar veebrae Body mass and normal movement may give rise to spondylolisthe The anatomical structure of the lumbo-sacral area of the veebral column is affected Pathology The degree of antero displacement is explained in Grades Ito IV These grades each comprise a quaer of the surface of the bottom veebrae u Grade I and Ills treated conservatively Grade III and IV should undergo a fusion Signs and symptoms Back or leg pain Back feels weak Sometimes lumbar scoliosis and increased kyphosis Step is felt in the back Unilateral and sometimes bilateral nerve root compression with pain in the legs Segmental instability Stiff back extensors, hamstring and m psoas - attempt to stabilise the pelvis Treatment Asymptomatic: No treatment Symptomatic: Severe cases - bed static traction localised heat analgesics rest Ref: Turek 6th/e p.503 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Complications of paranasal sinusitis include all except? | [
"Orbital cellulitis",
"Seizure",
"Nasal furuncles",
"Cavernous sinus thrombosis"
] | C | Ans. is'c'i.e., Nasal furunclesComplications of sinusitisComplications in properly managed sinusitis are uncommon.Local:- Mucocele / mucopyocele, mucous retention cyst, osteomyelitis.Orbital :-Periorbital cellulitis, orbital cellulitis, orbital abscess, subperiosteal abscess, cavernous sinus thrombosis, superior orbital fissure syndrome, orbital apex syndrome, edema of eye lids, retrobulbar neuritis with impaired vision.Intracranial :-Intracranial abscess (Epidural, subdural, parenchymal), meningitis, seizures, sepsis, focal neurological deficit.Descending infections:-Pharyngitis, laryngitis, tonsillitis, tracheobronchitis, otitis media.Systemic :-Toxic shock syndrome (very rare)Osteomyelitis:More common in frontal sinusitis.Osteomyelitis of the frontal bone can cause subperiosteal abscess known as Poft Puft Tumor.Orbital cellulitis is paicularly common in ethmoid sinusitis.Cavernous sinus thrombosis and intracranial complications are more common with sphenoid sinusitis. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A patient developed paraplegia. On routine examination and X-ray it was found that there are osteoblastic lesion in his spine. Most probable diagnosis is - | [
"Carcinoma thyroid",
"Ca. Prostate",
"Breast Ca.",
"Pancreatic Ca."
] | B | Most common tumor producing osteoblastic bone metastasis is carcinoma prostate. | train | med_mcqa | null |
First change of improvement noted after iron therapy is initiated - | [
"Decreased irritability",
"Reticulcytosis",
"Increase in serum iron levels",
"Replenishment of iron stores"
] | A | Ans is 'a' i.e., Decreased irritability"When specific iron therapy is given, patients often show rapid subjective improvment, with disappearance or marked diminution offatigue, lassitude, and other nonspecificc symptoms (e.g. irritability). This response may occur before any improvement in anemia observed" Wintrobe'so The earliest hematological evidence of response of treatment is an increase in the percentage of reticulocytes and their hemoglobin content.o So, Overall earliest indicator of improvement decreased fatigue, lassitude and other nonspecific symptoms Earliest hematological evidence of improvement ---> Increased reticulocyte count. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Subsets and Splits
No community queries yet
The top public SQL queries from the community will appear here once available.