question stringlengths 1 6.54k | choices listlengths 4 4 | answer stringclasses 4
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To check disorder or patency of coronary artery circulation which technique is not recently used? | [
"Intravascular USG",
"C.T guided angiography",
"Echocardiography",
"USG"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Liver in hemochromatosis is stained by ? | [
"Masson Fontana",
"Prussain blue",
"Masson trichrome",
"Congo red"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Prussian blueo Fontana-Masson method : most commonly used. It relies upon the melanin granules to reduce ammoniacal silver nitrate.o Ped's iron stain/Prussian blue method : It is the classic method for demonstrating iron in tissues. The section is treated with dilute hydrochloric acid to release ferric ions from binding proteins. These ions then react with potassium ferrocyanide to produce an insoluble blue compound (the Prussian blue reaction).o Masson trichrome stain : It helps to highlight the suppoing collagenous stroma in sections from a variety of organs.o Congo red : It stains amyloid in the tissue. | train | med_mcqa | null |
High affinity of HbF with O2 due to: | [
"Decrease binding with 2,3 DPG",
"Decrease concentration of Hb",
"Increase in the Ph",
"Double Bohr effect"
] | A | Ans. A. Decrease binding with 2,3 DPGa. The affinity of fetal hemoglobin (hemoglobin F) for O2 , which is greater than that for adult hemoglobin (hemoglobin A), facilitates the movement of O2 from the mother to the fetus.b. The cause of this greater affinity is the poor binding of 2,3-BPG by the polypeptide chains that replace chains in fetal hemoglobin.c. Some abnormal hemoglobins in adults have low P50 values, and the resulting high O2 affinity of the hemoglobin causes enough tissue hypoxia to stimulate increased red cell formation, with resulting polycythemia.d. It is interesting to speculate that these hemoglobins may not bind 2,3-BPG.e. Factors affecting the concentration of 2,3-BPG in the red cells includei. pH (acidosis inhibits red cell glycolysis, the 2,3-BPG concentration falls when the pH is low).ii. Thyroid hormones, growth hormone, and androgens increase the concentration of 2,3-BPG and the P50.iii. Exercise has been reported to produce an increase in 2,3-BPGiv. Ascent to high altitude triggers a substantial rise in 2,3-BPG concentration in red cells,v. The affinity of fetal hemoglobin (hemoglobin F) for O2 . The cause of this greater affinity is the poor binding of 2,3-BPG by the polypeptide chains that replace chains in fetal hemoglobin.vi. Red cell 2,3-BPG concentration is increased in anemia and in a variety of diseases in which there is chronic hypoxiavii. In bank blood that is stored, the 2,3-BPG level falls. This decrease, is less if the blood is stored in citrate- phosphate-dextrose solution rather than the usual acid-citrate-dextrose solution .viii. Inosine increases 2,3 DPG in red blood cells. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The maximum punishment for issuing a false ceificate? | [
"6 months",
"1 year",
"3 years",
"7 years"
] | D | Issuing or signing a false ceificate is equivalent to giving false evidence (Sec. 197 IPC) and punished with imprisonment of up to 7 years and fine (Sec. 193 IPC). Ref: Krishan Vij textbook of forensic medicine, 5th edition pg : 11 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Lose of digoxin in a child as mg/kg is – | [
"0.02–0.04",
"0.03–0.05",
"0.04–0.06",
"0.06–0.08"
] | C | Premature and neonates --> 0.04 mg/kg
1 months to 1 year --> 0.08 mg/kg
Between 1 to 3 years --> 0.06 mg/kg
Above 3 years --> 0.04 mg/kg | train | med_mcqa | null |
Dystocia dystrophia syndrome : | [
"Android pelvis",
"Platypelloid pelvis",
"Anthropoid",
"Gynaecoid pelvis"
] | A | Android pelvis | train | med_mcqa | null |
Spleen projects into the following space of peritoneal cavity | [
"Paracolic gutter",
"Infracolic compament",
"Left subhepatic space",
"Greater Sac"
] | D | The diaphragmatic surface of the spleen (or phrenic surface) is convex, smooth, and is directed upward, backward, and to the left, except at its upper end, where it is directed slightly to the middle. It is in relation with the under surface of the diaphragm, which separates it from the ninth, tenth, and eleventh ribs of the left side, and the intervening lower border of the left lung and pleura. The visceral surface of the spleen is divided by a ridge into two regions: an anterior or gastric and a posterior or renal. The gastric surface (facies gastrica) is directed forward, upward, and toward the middle, is broad and concave, and is in contact with the posterior wall of the stomach. Ref - BDC vol2 6e pg295-298 | train | med_mcqa | null |
A patient presents with subarachnoid haemorrhage. NCCT reveals blood in the fouh ventricle. The bleeding is most likely to occur from an aneurysm of which of the following aeries | [
"Anterior communicating aery",
"Basilar top region",
"AICA",
"PICA"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e., PICA | train | med_mcqa | null |
All are tests for vestibular function EXCEPT: | [
"Galvanic stimulation",
"Fistula test",
"Acoustic reflex",
"Cold caloric test"
] | C | The acoustic reflex/ Stapedius reflex/ Attenuation reflex/ Auditory reflex It is an involuntary muscle contraction that occurs in the middle ear in response to high-intensity sound stimuli When presented with a high-intensity sound stimulus, the stapedius and tensor tympani muscles of the ossicles contract. The stapedius stiffens the ossicular chain by pulling the stapes (stirrup) of the middle ear away from the oval window of the cochlea and the tensor tympani muscle stiffens the ossicular chain by loading the eardrum when it pulls the malleus (hammer) in toward the middle ear. The reflex decreases the transmission of vibrational energy to the cochlea, where it is conveed into electrical impulses to be processed by the brain. The acoustic reflex normally occurs only at relatively high intensities; activation for quieter sounds can indicate ear dysfunction. The pathway involved in the acoustic reflex is complex and can involve the ossicular chain (malleus, incus and stapes), the cochlea (organ of hearing), the auditory nerve, brain stem, facial nerve and other components. | train | med_mcqa | null |
In chronic respiratory alkalosis, HCO3- falls by _____ mmol/L for every 10 mm Hg decrease in C02 | [
"1",
"2",
"3",
"4"
] | D | R. acidosis: CO2| HCO3| Compensation Acute 10 mm 1 meq Chronic 10 mm 4 meq R. alkalosis CO2| HCO3| Acute 10mm 2meq Chronic 10mm 4meq | train | med_mcqa | null |
Coca cola bottle sign is seen in | [
"Blowout fracture",
"Glioma",
"sphenoid wing Meningioma",
"Thyroid ophthalmopathy"
] | D | The Coca-Cola bottle sign refers to the appearance of the muscles of the orbit inthyroid eye disease. The belly of the muscle enlarges with sparing of the tendinous inseion, giving the appearance of the traditional Coca-Cola bottle. The nature of the enlargement is impoant as it is one of the chief findings to differentiate it from orbital pseudotumor, in which the tendinous inseion is also involved and enlarged, unlike in thyroid eye disease. Hyperostosis seen in case of spehnoid wing meningioma on CT scan | train | med_mcqa | null |
Duct of Bartholins gland opens | [
"On outer side of Labium minus",
"On inner side of Labium majus",
"On outer side of Labium majus",
"On inner side of Labium minus"
] | D | Duct of Bartholins gland opens on the inner side of Labium minus external of hymen. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is not used in Crohn's disease? | [
"Infliximab",
"Adalimumab",
"Ustekinumab",
"Natalizumab"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Ustekinumab Immumodulators used in Crohn's disease :- i) Anti-TNF-a : Infliximab, adalimumab, ceolizumbab ii)Anti-Integrin therapy : Natalizumab | train | med_mcqa | null |
Molar concentration of oral rehydration fluid is – | [
"Sodium 30 meq",
"Potassium 20 meq",
"Bicarbonate 30 meq",
"Chloride 20 meq"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Arnold-Chiari malformation-All are true except- | [
"Cerebellomedullary malformation",
"Almost always associated with severe spina bifida",
"There is obstruction to the flow of CSF",
"4th ventricle lies above the level of formen magnum"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Imipramine belongs to which group of drugs? | [
"Antiepileptic",
"Antidepressant",
"Anxiolytic",
"Antipsychotic"
] | B | ANTIDEPRESSANTS 1. TYPICAL a. MAO INHIBITORS i. NON-SELECTIVE (NOT USED NOW) 1. TRANYLCYPROMINE 2. ISOCARBOXAZIDE 3. PHENELZINE ii. SELECTIVE MAO-A INHIBITOR 1. MOCLEBEMIDE b. REUPTAKE INHIBITORS i. NON SELECTIVE (BOTH SEROTONIN AND NA) REUPTAKE INHIBITORS 1. TRICYCLIC ANTIDEPRESSANTS (TCA) a. NA + 5HT REUPTAKE INHIBITORS i. IMIPRAMINE ii. CLOMIPRAMINE iii. TRIMIPRAMINE iv. AMITRIPTYLINE b PREDOMINANTLY NA REUPTAKE INHIBITORS i. DESIPRAMINE ii. NORIPTYLINE iii. REBOXETINE 2. SEROTONIN AND NOR-ADRENALINE REUPTAKE INHIBITORS (SNRI) a. VENLAFAXINE b. DESVENLAFAXINE c. DULOXETINE d. MILNACIPRAN e. LEVO-MILNACIPRAN ii. SELECTIVE SEROTONIN REUPTAKE INHIBITORS (SSRI) 1. FLUOXETINE 2. FLUVOXAMINE 3. PAROXETINE 4. DAPOXETINE 5. SERALINE 6. CITALOPRAM 7. ESCITRALOPRAM 2. ATYPICAL a. TRAZODONE b. MIANSERIN c. MIAZAPINE d. BUPROPION e. AMOXAPINE f. TIANEPTIN g. AMINEPTIN h. NEFAZODONE | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 7-year-old boy presented with generalized edema. Urine examination revealed marked albuminuria. Serum biochemical examinations showed hypoalbuminemia with hyperlipidemia. Kidney biopsy was undertaken. On light microscopic examination, the kidney appeared normal. Electron microscopic examination is most likely to reveal - | [
"Fusion of foot processes of the glomerular epithelial cells",
"Rarefaction of glomerular basement membrane",
"Deposition of electron dense material in the basement membrane",
"Thin basement membrane"
] | A | The child in presenting with features S/o Nephrotic syndrome most frequent cause of which amongst children is minimal change disease.
Light microscopic finding of MCD → no abnormality
Electron microscopic finding of MCD → fusion of foot processes of the glomerular epithelial cells
Note that loss of foot processes may also be seen in other proteinuric states (eg. Membranous glomerulonephritis, diabetes), but when the fusion is associated with normal glomeruli only then the diagnosis of MCD can be made.
MCD is also know as lipoid nephrosis as cells of the proximal tubules are often laden with lipids. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which one of the following pulses has the highest content of iron – | [
"Bengal gram",
"Black gram",
"Red gram",
"Soyabean"
] | D | Only Bengal gram contains Vitamin C among the common pulses | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of this pa of veebral canal will show secondary curves with concavity backward? | [
"Cervical",
"Thoracic",
"Sacral",
"Coccyx"
] | A | In veebrates, cervical veebrae (singular: veebra) are the veebrae of the neck, immediately below the skull. Thoracic veebrae in all mammalian species are those veebrae that also carry a pair of ribs, and lie caudal to the cervical veebrae. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Alosetron is | [
"5HT1 receptor antagonist",
"5HT2 receptor antagonist",
"5HT3 receptor antagonist",
"Analogues of somatostatin"
] | C | . | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which among the following statements is TRUE about presynaptic inhibition? | [
"It results due to failure of the action potential to reach the synapse",
"It occurs due to hyperpolarization of presynaptic membrane",
"It occurs due to inhibition of release of neurotransmitter from presynaptic terminal",
"It occurs due to blockade of neurotransmitter receptors"
] | C | Presynaptic inhibition provides a mechanism for controlling the efficacy of transmission at individual synapses. It is mediated by axo axonal synapses. Binding of neurotransmitters to the receptors mediating presynaptic inhibition leads to a reduction in the amount of neurotransmitter secreted by the postsynaptic axon. This reduction is caused either by a decrease in the size of the action potential in the presynaptic terminal as a result of activation of K+ or Cl- channels or by reduced opening of Ca2+ channels in the presynaptic terminal, thereby decreasing the amount of transmitter release. Presynaptic inhibition thus provides a mechanism whereby the "gain" at a paicular synaptic input to a neuron can be reduced without reducing the efficacy of other synapses that impinge on that neuron. Ref: Waxman S.G. (2010). Chapter 3. Signaling in the Nervous System. In S.G. Waxman (Ed), Clinical Neuroanatomy, 26e. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Lipschutz bodies are seen in ? | [
"Hodgkin's disease",
"Viral hepatitis",
"Herpes",
"Yellow fever"
] | C | Answer- C. HerpesLipschutz bodies are Cowdry type A intranuclear inclusion bodies seen in herpes infection. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Elisabeth Kubler-Ross classified five stages of | [
"Schizophrenia",
"Delusion",
"Grief",
"None"
] | C | Elisabeth Kubler-Ross made a comprehensive and useful organisation of reactions to impending death. Stage1- Shock & Denial Stage2- Anger Stage3- Bargaining Stage4- Depression Stage5- Acceptance Ref: Synopsis of Psychiatry, 11e, pg 1352. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Association fibres are A/E | [
"Uncinate",
"Cingulum",
"Longitudinal fasciculus",
"Forceps major"
] | D | D i.e. Forceps major | train | med_mcqa | null |
Septic shock is due to - | [
"Protein",
"Lipopolysaccharide",
"Teichoic acid",
"Peptidoglycan"
] | B | Septic shock results most often from gram-negative bacteria entering the body. lysis of gram negative bacteria releases endotoxin, a lipopolysaccharide into the circulation. it is responsible for immune system activation and systemic inflammatory response. Reference:rush Mohan textbook of pathology, 7th edition, pg no: 96 <\p> | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most common type of congenital adrenal hyperplasis is | [
"11 β Hydroxylase deficiency",
"21 Hydroxylase deficiency",
"17 α Hydroxylase deficiency",
"None of the above"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Thiopentone is used for induction of anaesthesia. It shows marked redistribution which is a characteristic of: | [
"Highly lipid soluble drugs",
"Highly water soluble drugs",
"Weak electrolytes",
"Highly plasma protein bound drugs"
] | A | * Highly lipid- soluble drugs get initially distributed to organs with high blood flow,i.e. brain, hea, kidney, etc. * Later, less vascular but more bulky tissues (muscle, fat) take up the drug. Plasma concentration falls and the drug is withdrawn from the highly perfused sites. * If the site of action of the drug was in one of the highly perfused organs, this redistribution results in termination of drug action. Anaesthetic action of thiopentone sod. injected IV is terminated in few minutes due to redistribution. * Greater the lipid solubility of the drug, faster is its redistribution | train | med_mcqa | null |
Vaccine can be stored at subcentre for: | [
"2 days",
"7 days",
"15 days",
"30 days"
] | A | 2 days | train | med_mcqa | null |
Nasal polyps with subcutaneous nodules are seen in- | [
"Zygomycosis",
"Rhinosporidiosis",
"Sporotrichosis",
"Aspergillosis"
] | B | Clinical features of Rhinosporodiosis : Leafly, polypoidal mass, pink to purple in colour, attached to nasal septum or lateral wall mass is very vascular, bleeds on touch and studded with white dots (Strawberry-Like appearance). | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 40-year-old female patient on long term steroid therapy presents with recent onset of severe pain in the right hip. Imaging modality of choice for this problem is: | [
"CT scan",
"Bone scan",
"MRI",
"Plain X-ray"
] | C | Ans. MRI | train | med_mcqa | null |
Nerve supply of the papillary muscle, the sphincter papillae is done through | [
"Third cranial nerve",
"Fouh cranial nerve",
"Sixth cranial nerve",
"Seventh cranial nerve"
] | A | The ciliary ganglion is a peripheral parasympathetic ganglion topographically connected with the nasociliary nerve from ophthalmic division of trigeminal nerve but functionally connected to the oculomotor nerve.The motor or parasympathetic root of the ciliary ganglion is derived from nerve to inferior oblique and consists of preganglionic parasympathetic fibres from the Edinger-Westphal nucleus. These fibres relay in the ganglion. The postganglionic parasympathetic fibers arise from the cells of the ganglion and pass through sho ciliry nerves to supply the ciliary muscle and sphincter pupillae.The branches of the ciliary ganglion are sho ciliary nerves that contain fibres from all 3 roots, run above and below the optic nerve towards the eyeball. On reaching the eyeball, they pierce the sclera around the attachment of the optic nerve and pass forwards in the space between the sclera and the choroid to reach the target organs.The ciliary ganglion is blocked to produce dilatation of the pupil before cataract extraction.Reference: Textbook of anatomy, Head neck, and brain, Vishram Singh, 2nd edition, page no.298 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Molybdenum is present in which enzyme ? | [
"Cytochrome oxidase",
"Xanthine oxidase",
"Glutathione peroxidase",
"Urease"
] | B | Ans:B.)Xanthine Oxidase.Molybdenum containing enzymes include: xanthine oxidase and closely related enzymes (the molybdenum-containing hydroxylases), sulphite oxidase and nitrate reductase. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The cast should not be stored above: | [
"50° C",
"55° C",
"40° C",
"45° C"
] | B | If the storage temperature is raised to between 90°C and 110°C (194°F to 230°F), shrinkage occurs, along with loss of strength as the water of crystallization is removed and the dihydrate reverts to the hemihydrate form. As a rule of thumb, it is not safe to store or heat a stone cast in air at a temperature higher than 55°C (130°F).
Phillips Science of Dental Materials ed 12 pg 192 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which is best used for sex differentiation? | [
"Pelvis",
"Skull",
"Femur",
"Humerus"
] | A | Ans: a (Pelvis) Ref: KS Narayan, Reddy 21st ed, p. 55Pelvis is the bone best used for sex determination. There are many differences between male and female pelvis. Listed below are some of the important points. FEMALEMALEBuiltBones thinner, markings less prominentThicker, markings more prominentPelvis Inlet: Large circularCavity: Short cylindricalWalls: VerticalOutlet: Wide sub pubicangle (80-85)Short pubic crestsLong conicalLess verticalNarrow(50-60)IliumVertical bladesCurved bladesIschial tuberosityEvertedLess evertedPre and post auricular sulcusProminentLess prominentGreater sciatic notchWider, shallowDeep narrowObturator foramenSmall triangularOval and largerIschiopubic index-100-83 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Posterior relation of neck of pancrease ? | [
"Gastroduodenal aery",
"Superior mesenteric vein",
"Inferior vena cava",
"Bile duct"
] | B | Posterior surface of neck is related to termination of superior mesenteric vein and its combination with splenic vein to form poal vein. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Enlargement of pituitary tumor after adrenalectomy is called as: | [
"Nelson syndrome",
"Steel-Richardson syndrome",
"Hamman-Rich syndrome",
"Job's syndrome"
] | A | Nelson Syndrome: Nelson syndrome refers to a spectrum of symptoms ansd signs arising from an adrenocoicotropin (ACTH)- secreting pituitary macroadenoma after a therapeutic bilateral adrenalectomy The spectrum of clinical features observed relates to the local effects of tumors on surrounding structures , the secondary loss of other pituitary hormones, and the effects of the high serum concentrations of ACTH on the skin Ref: Harrison 19th edition PGno: 2273 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most impoant route of lead accumulation in the body is: | [
"Ingestion",
"Inhalation",
"Cutaneous absorption",
"None of the above"
] | B | The inhalation route is the main source of lead absorption in the industrial environment, being responsible for the occupational hazard observed in lead refining plants if the control protocols are not followed. Ref : | train | med_mcqa | null |
Physiological uncoupler is- | [
"Thermogonin",
"2, 4 nitrophenol",
"2, 4Dinitrophenol",
"Oligomycin"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Thermogenin o Amongst the given options, a, b and c are uncouplers.o However, only thermogenin, among these three is a natural (physiological) uncoupler.i) Natural:- Thermogenin, thyroxineii) Synthetic:- 2,4-dinitrophenol (2,4-DNP), 2,4-dinitrocresol (2,4-DNC), and CCCP (chlorocarbonylcyanidephenyl hydrazone). | train | med_mcqa | null |
"Dacryocystitis" is interruption in drainage of | [
"Submandibular gland",
"Parotid gland",
"Lacrimal gland",
"Sublingual gland"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Palmar erythema is seen in: | [
"CCF",
"ARF",
"CRF",
"Hepatic failure"
] | D | A symmetrical and slightly warm area of erythema on the thenar and hypothenar eminences of the palm in chronic liver disease patients is referred to as palmar erythema. Features of Palmar Erythema May have a mottled appearance or blanch when pressed. Not associated with pain, itch or scaling. May involve the palmar aspect of the fingers and proximal nail folds Causes of palmar erythema Primary causes Secondary causes Hereditary - rare Pregnancy - common Senile Chronic liver disease Autoimmune (e.g. Rheumatoid ahritis) Endocrine causes -Hypehyroid Neoplastic | train | med_mcqa | null |
Patients with bilateral CDH walk with the following gait - | [
"Antalgic",
"Stumbling",
"Knock knee",
"Waddling"
] | D | Hip girdle muscle is responsible for keeping pelvis level when walking .Weakness on one side will lead to drop in the pelvis on the contralateral side of pelvis while walking(trendelenburg sign ) with bilateral weakness will have dropping of the pelvis on both side during walking leading to waddling. In unilateral CDH- trendelenburg gait antalgic gait us seen in painful condition of lower limb | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which amongst following is the most common cause of UTI | [
"Instrumentation",
"Urethral diverticulum",
"Bladder stones",
"Pregnancy"
] | A | Ans. (a) InstrumentationRef: Harrison 18th ed. / 288* Urethral catheterization is the single most important predisposing factor in the development of nosocomial urinary tract infection. Cystoscopy may be followed by a transient bacteremia.* The most important risk factor for bacteriuria is the presence of a catheter. Eighty percent of nosocomial UTIs are related to urethral catheterization, while 5-10% are related to genitourinary manipulation. Catheters inoculate organisms into the bladder and promote colonization by providing a surface for bacterial adhesion and causing mucosal irritation. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Insulin release due to K+ closure is seen with | [
"Nateglinide",
"Acarbose",
"Exenatide",
"Sitagliptin"
] | A | Glinides acts by the closure of potassium channels like sulphonylureas REF KD TRIpathi 8th ed | train | med_mcqa | null |
Ankyloblepharon is: | [
"Fusion of bulbar conjunctiva with palpebral conjunctiva",
"Fusion of upper and lower palpebral eyelid margines",
"Fusion of bulbar conjunctiva with cornea",
"Fusion of palpebral conjunctiva with cornea"
] | B | ANKYLOBLEPHARON & SYMBLEPHARON: *Fusion of upper and lower eyelids margins : ankyloblepharon. *Most common cause: chemical & thermal injury, SJS, TEN, pterygium surgery Ankyloblepharon Symblepharon- adhesion b/w palpebral & bulbar conjunctiva, eyelids gets adherent to eyeball. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All are true about Peyronie's disease except ? | [
"Self limiting",
"Medical treatment is effective",
"Association with Dupytren's contracture",
"Calcified plaques"
] | B | Ans. is `b' i.e., Medical treatment is effective | train | med_mcqa | null |
Dose of digoxin is NOT altered in ? | [
"Old age",
"Hepatic disease",
"Renal disease",
"Hypercalcemia"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Hepatic disease o Make it clear once and for all that Digitalis is the parent compound. Digitalis is applied as a collective term for the whole group and has come to mean a cardiac glycoside. o Digoxin and digitoxin are two of the many types of cardiac glycoside. o Digoxin is a polar glycoside, and is excreted by kidney, does not undergo hepatic metabolism. So dose need not be altered in hepatic disease. o Digitoxin undergoes hepatic metabolism and its dose has to be altered in hepatic disease. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Child presents with recurrent abdominal pain and bilious vomiting. Condition was diagnosed by barium follow through. Surgery was done, - mesentric widening, appendicectomy, cutting the Ladd's band. What is the diagnosis? | [
"Recurrent Caecal volvulus",
"Mal rotation",
"Recurrent appendicitis",
"Stricture TB"
] | B | Malrotation The surgey mentioned in the question is Ladd's procedure done for malrotation. 3 things are done: A. Lysis of cecal and duodenal bands. B. Broadening of the mesentery. C. Appendectomy. Obstruction in a patient with malrotation can occur because of mid gut volvulus or because of bands (Ladd's band). Midgut volvulus can occur at any age, although it is seen most often in the first few weeks of life. Bilious vomiting is usually the first sign of volvulus, and all infants with bilious vomiting must be evaluated rapidly to ensure that they do not have intestinal malrotation with volvulus. When volvulus is suspected, early surgical intervention is done to avoid or reverse the ischemic process. Surgery: Volvulus occurs clockwise, and it is therefore untwisted counterclockwise. (This can be remembered by using the memory aid "Turn back the hands of time.") Subsequently, Ladd's procedure is performed. This operation does not correct the malrotation but does broaden the narrow mesenteric pedicle to prevent volvulus from recurring. Steps done in Ladd's procedure are: - duodenal and cecal bands are divided, - Broadening of the mesentery - The appendix is removed to avoid diagnostic errors in later life. This maneuver brings the straightened duodenum into the right lower quadrant and the cecum into the left lower quadrant. Note that: A subset of patients with malrotation can also present with incomplete obstruction or chronic obstruction. (so the patient here in this question has either incomplete volvulus or obstruction because of-duodenal hand) Ladd's procedure is performed to prevent voluvulus ; however, volvulus can still occur rarely after Ladd's procedure. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Definition of clinical depression includes? | [
"Depressed mood",
"Slowed thinking",
"Psychomotor retardation",
"All of the above"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e., All of the abo\e* The classical triad of depression is depressed mood, psychomotor retardation, and slowed-down thinking.Diagnostic criteria for major depression* 5 or more of following symptoms should be present most of the day for at least 2 weeks: -1) Depressed mood2) Loss of interest or pleasure in all activities.3) Decrease/increase appetite or loss/gain of weight.4) Insomnia or hypersomnia (Increased or decreased sleep).5) Psychomotor retardation or agitation (decreased or increased psychomotor activity).6) Fatigue or loss of energy (weakness or lethargy).7) Feelings of worthlessness or excessive guilt.8) Diminished concentration9) Recurrent thoughts of death or recurrent suicidal ideation or suicidal attempt.* At least one of symptoms should be either1) Depressed mood or 2) Loss of interest or pleasure - These two (1 & 2) are essential criteria. Therefore 1 essential criterion and 4 other criteria (total 5) should be present. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most common site of ectopic testis is | [
"Superficial inguinal ring",
"In the perineuim",
"Root of the penis",
"Femoral triangle"
] | A | (Superficial inguinal ring) (1405-LB) (1379-B &L 25th)Ectopic testis descending order (i) Superficial inguinal ring (ii) perineum (iii) Root of the penis (iv) femoral triangle* Continued descent of the testis may progress after birth, but descent comes to a halt before 2 years of age. The degenerative changes begin to occur at 2 years of age.* Operation is indicated after 12-18 months since degenerative changes begin to take place* The incidence of testicular cancer in a cryptoorchid testis (30 times higher than the normal population)* The prognosis for fertility following orchidopexy in unilateral maldescent is 80%, whereas fertility after bilateral orchidopexy is about 50% | train | med_mcqa | null |
Involvement of the joints of hand is relatively uncommon in which of the following ahritis? | [
"Ankylosing spondylitis",
"Reactive ahritis",
"Psoriatic ahritis",
"Rheumatoid ahritis"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Ankylosing spondylitis Joints involved in ankylosing spondylitis Ankylosing spondylitis primarily affects axial skeleton. The disease usually begins in the sacro-iliac joints and usually extends upwards to involve the lumbar, thoracic, and often cervical spine. In the worst cases the hips or shouldersare also affected. Hip joint is the most commonly affected peripheral joint. Rarely knee and ankle are also involved. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The marker used for determining efficacy of Hepatitis B Vaccination is? | [
"HBsAg",
"IgM anti HBcAg",
"IgG anti HBcAg",
"Anti HBsAg"
] | D | ANSWER: (D) Anti HBsAgREF: APPENDIX-28 below for "MARKERS OF HEPATITIS-B""Positive Anti HBsAg determines the efficacy of hepatitis B vaccination" APPENDIX - 28Markers of Hepatitis-BWeeks after exposureTestsResultsInterpretationHBsAgAnti-HBcAnti-HBsNegativeNegativeNegativeSusceptibleHBsAgAnti-HBcAnti-HBsNegativePositivePositiveImmune due to natural infectionHBsAgAnti-HBcAnti-HBsNegativeNegativePositiveImmune due to hepatitis B vaccinationHBsAg Anti-HBc IgM anti-HBc Anti-HBsPositivePositivePositiveNegativeAcutely infectedHBsAg Anti-HBc IgM anti-HBc Anti-HBsPositivePositiveNegativeNegativeChronically infectedHBsAgAnti-HBcAnti-HBsNegativePositiveNegativeInterpretation unclear' four possibilities:1. Resolved Infection (most common)2. False-positive anti-HBc, thus susceptible3. "Low level" chronic infection4. Resolving acute infection | train | med_mcqa | null |
Immunoglobulin implicated in atopy and anaphylaxis is: | [
"IgE",
"IgM",
"IgG",
"IgA"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Caspase dependent programmed cell death is | [
"Necroptosis",
"Pyroptosis",
"Autophagy",
"None of them"
] | B | It is a caspase (caspase 1 & 11) dependent programmed cell death. It is a form of programmed cell death associated with antimicrobial responses during inflammation. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Otomycosis is caused by | [
"Aspergillus niger",
"Histoplasma capsulatum",
"Rhinosporidium seeberi",
"Cryptococcus neoformans"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
In a specimen of kidney, fibrinoid necrosis is seen and onion peel appearance is also present. Most probable pathology is - | [
"Hyaline degeneration",
"Hyperplastic aeriosclerosis",
"Glomerulosclerosis",
"Fibrillary glomerulonephritis"
] | B | . Hyperplastic aeriosclerosis | train | med_mcqa | null |
If the circumflex aery gives off the posterior interventricular aery, then the aerial supply is called | [
"Right dominance",
"Left dominance",
"Balanced dominance",
"Codominance"
] | B | If the circumflex aery gives off the posterior interventricular aery, then the aerial supply is called left dominance. In 65% of the population, the posterior interventricular aery (PIVA) is a branch of right coronary aery and this is called the right dominance. In 10% of the population, PIVA is given by the circumflex aery (a branch of the left coronary aery) and this is called the left dominance. Ref: Gray&;s Anatomy 41st edition Pgno: 1019 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Baby borne to patient suspected of chlamydial infection sample to be taken for diagnosis - | [
"Conjunctival",
"Urethral",
"Urine sample",
"Blood"
] | A | Ans, is 'a' i.e., Conjunctival o About 70% of baby bom to positive chlamydal infection develop conjuctivitis at day 5 of life so sample taken for diagnosis is conjuctival,o Chlamydal infection is most common cause of conjuctivitis in newborn.o Chlamydal infection causes watering dischange form eye (unlike purulent dischange in Gonococcal),o Neonate's eyelid everted and specimen obtained,o Treatment is local enythromycin application. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Drug used in triple drug therapy of H. Pylori: | [
"Metronidazole",
"Erythromycin",
"Ciprofloxacin",
"Aminoglycosides"
] | A | Ans. A. MetronidazoleH pylori have triple and 4 drug therapy for H. Pylori where 4 antibiotics can be given like amoxicillin, clarithromycin, Metronidazole and tetracycline. Other drugs are PPI like omeprazole and bismuth sub citrate. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 10 year old boy is having hypeension. There is no other significant history and urine analysis is cause for his hypeension - | [
"Chronic glomerulonephritis",
"Polycystic kidney disease",
"Reflux nephropathy",
"All"
] | A | Ans. is a' i.e., Chronic glomerulonephritis o Hypeension is children is commonly of renal origin. o It is anticipated as a complication of renal parenchymal disease CPDT o Among the renal parenchymal diseases, chronic glomerulonephritis is the most common cause followed by chronic pyelonephritis. Also know Hypeension in a newborn is most often associated with umblical aery catheterization and renal aery thrombosis. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All the following biochemical roles of the Ascorbic acid EXCEPT | [
"Role of coenzyme in hydroxylation of proline and lysine",
"Deamination of the hydroxyl group containing amino acids",
"Steroid biosynthesis",
"Bile acid synthesis"
] | B | (Deamination of the hydroxyl group containing amino acids) (134-U.S 3rd) (165-Rana ShindeMetabolic roles and Functions of Ascorbic acid1. Role in cellular Oxidation-Reduction - serving as hydrogen-transport agent2. Role in collagen synthesis - Hydroxy proline and hydroxylysine are important constituents of mature collagen fibres. The are hydroxylated by corresponding "hydroxylases" in presence of vitamin C, Fe++ and molecular O23. Functional activity of Fibroblasts/Osteoblasts - formation of MPS of connective tissue, dentine and intercellular cement substance of capillaries.4. Role in Tryptophan metabolism - as a cofactor for hydroxylation of tryptophan to form 5-OH derivative in the pathway of biosynthesis of serotonin (5-HT)5. Role in Tyrosine metabolism as a cofactor with the enzyme P-OH phenyl pyruvate hydroxylase, which is necessary for hydroxylation and conversion of P-OH phenyl pyruvate to Homogentisic acid (Alkaptonuria)6. Formation of Active FH4 (Tetrahydrofolate) - vitamin-C regulates the conversion of folic acid to folinic acid (so-called citrovorum factor)7. Formation of Ferritin; ATP, NAD+ and NADP+ stimulates the process.8. Absorption of Fe - helps in absorption of Fe in foods. (hypochromic, microcytic anemia)9. Role in electron transport system of mammalian microsomes10. Action on Certain Enzymes-Activation/Inhibition - Arginase and papain are activated, whereas, activity of the enzymes like urease and b-amylase from plants is inhibited11. Role in formation of Catecholamines - as a coenzyme with the enzyme dopamine hydroxylase, which catalyzes the conversion of dopamine to norepinephrine12. Role in formation of Carnitine - Formation of 'carnitine' in liver by hydroxylation by g-butyrobetain13. Role in a-oxidation of fatty acids helps in action of the enzyme a-hydroxylase (a-mono-oxygenase)14. Effect on cholesterol levels - Relation of ascorbic acid with hypocholesterolaemia in man and guinea pigs15. Role in "stress" *The synthesis of bile acids from cholesterol (enzyme-7 a-hydroxylase) is enhanced by ascorbic acid (132-US)16. Vitamin-C has also been reported to act as coenzyme for cathepsins and liver esterases17. Ascorbic acid in both leucocytes and platelets found to be lowered significantly in women taking OCP.18. *Synthesis of corticosteroid hormone - Adrenal gland possess high levels of ascorbic acid, particularly in periods of stress. It is believed that vitamin C is necessary for the hydroxylation reaction in the synthesis of corticosteroid hormone (132-US)19. Sparing action of other vitamins - vitamin C is strong anti-oxidant*. It spares vitamin A, vitamin E, and some B-complex vitamins from oxidation20. Preventive action on cataract - vitamin C reduces the risk of cataract formation* Deamination of the hydroxyl group containing aminoacid requires pyridoxalphosphate | train | med_mcqa | null |
The lab repos of a patient given below pH = 7.2 HCO3 - 10meq/L PCO2= 30mm HG This exemplifies which of the following disorder | [
"Respiratory acidosis",
"Respiratory alkalosis",
"metabolic acidosis",
"metabolic alkalosis"
] | C | REF : HARRISONS 21ST ED | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following drugs are useful for long term treatment of congestive hea failure | [
"Digoxin",
"Ramipril",
"Dobutamine",
"Spironolactone"
] | C | Dobutamine (Ref: KDT 6/e p507) Dobutamine is indicated only for the acute treatment of decompensated CHF. Cardiac glycosides (digoxin) can be used for acute treatment as well as maintenance therapy of CHF. ACE inhibitors and spironolactone are indicated only for chronic CHF. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 45 year-male presents with abrupt onset pain, weakness, loss of contour of shoulder and muscle wasting on 5th day of tetanus toxoid immunization. Likely cause is | [
"Hysterical",
"Radial nerve entrapment",
"Brachial plexus neuritis",
"Thoracic outlet syndrome"
] | C | BRACHIAL PLEXUS INJURIES It can be: Supraclavicular injury 65% Infraclavicular injury 25% Combined 10% It can also be: Upper plexus injury. Lower plexus injury. It can be: Pre-ganglionic injury Post-ganglionic injury Avulsion injury Usually less severe More dangerous Better recovery Extends into the spinal cord Upper plexus injury (Erb's Duchenne paralysis) Lower plexus injury (Klumpke's paralysis) It is due to depression of shoulder by trauma After diffucult labour in newborn. Here C5 and C6 roots are injured Muscles affected are deltoid, biceps, brachioradialis & supinator Effects Elbow will be extended, pronated & upper limb is internally rotated (Policemen receiving tip) Sensory deficit over the lateral aspect of arm & upper pa of the lateral forearm Forcible hyperabduction of shoulder causes thr injury In newborn it results due to difficult breech delivery Here C8 & 51 are injured Intrinsic muscles of hand are involved Effects Combines Median & Ulnar claw hand Horner's syndrome Sensory deficit over the medial aspect of forearm, hand & medial 1 1/2 finger Investigations Nerve conduction studies. CT/MRI. Electromyogram. X-ray cervical spine and pa. Treatment Conservative, nerve repair. Tendon transfer, physiotherapy. Osteotomy of coracoid process proximal to the attachment of pectoralis minor, sho head of biceps and coracobrachialis is done to improve abduction--Sever's operation. Ref: SRB's Manual of Surgery 5th edition Pgno : 265 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Mode of inheritance forAchondroplasia is - | [
"Autosomal dominant",
"Autosomal recessive",
"X-linked dominant",
"X- linked recessive"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
ACTH producing lung carcinoma | [
"Small cell CA",
"Squamous cell CA",
"Mesothelioma",
"Bronchoadenocarcinoma"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Small cell carcinoma | train | med_mcqa | null |
SA node is supplied by | [
"Right coronary artery",
"LAD",
"LCX",
"RAD"
] | A | Ans. a (Right coronary artery). (Ref. Harrison's Medicine, 18th ed/Chapter 230.)SA NODE# SA node lies at the junction of right atrium and SVC.# It measures 15 mm x 2-3 mm in size.# It is supplied by sinus node artery, which arises from right coronary (60%) or left circumflex coronary artery (40%).AV node# AV node lies at the bases of inter-atrial septum just above the tricuspid annulus and anterior to coronary sinus.# It is supplied by posterior descending coronary artery (90%).Bundle of His# Has dual blood supply (*AV nodal artery + branches of anterior descending coronary artery). | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 19-vear-old patient came with c/o primary amenorrhea.She has well developed breasts and pubic hair. However there was absence of vagina and uterus. Likely diagnosis is: | [
"Turners syndrome",
"Mullerian agenesis",
"Kinefelter's syndrome",
"Gonadal agenesis"
] | B | Mullerian agenesis Normal secondary sexual charecters functional ovaries normal hormonal profile primary amenorrhea vagina and uterus absent renal and skeletal anomalies are common SHAW&;S TEXTBOOK OF GYNAECOLOGY,Pg no:286,15th edition | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which cytokine activate macrophages - | [
"IL-8",
"IFN-y",
"PAF",
"Leukotriene B4"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., IFN-y Activated macrophageso Recent studies show that there are two types of activated macrophages : -1. Classically activated macrophages (M1)o These are activated by microbial products and cytokines like IFN-g.o These cells release lysosomal enzymes, NO, IL-1, and IL-12.o These cells are involved in microbicidal activities and pathogenic inflammation.2. Alternatively activated macrophages (M2).o These cells are activated by microbial products and cytokines like IL-4, IL-5.o These cells release IL-10, TGF-b.o These cells are involved in anti-inflamatory actions and wound repair. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Taking history of smoking in pregnant woman and following its effect on fetus is what ? | [
"Case control",
"Prospective coho",
"Retrospective coho",
"Case repo"
] | B | Ans. is `b' i.e., Prospective coho o Prospective coho study is one in which the outcome (e.g. disease) has not occurred at the time of investigation begins. o In the given question, the outcome has not occurred at the time of investigation begins. Only history of risk factor exposure (smoking) is taken. Then outcome (effect on fetus) is followed in prospective. o This is classical prospective coho study. Types of coho studies Prospective coho study: Known as 'Current coho study' or 'Concurrent coho study' Outcome has not yet occurred when the study has begun: Only exposure has occurred; we look for development of same disease in both exposed and non-exposed groups Examples :- Framingham hea study, Doll & Hills prospective study on smoking & lung Cancer. Retrospective coho study : Known as 'Historical coho study' or 'Non-concurrent coho study' Combines advantages of both Coho study and Case control study Both exposure as well as outcome have occurred when the study has begun: First we go back in time and take only exposure into consideration (cohos identified from past hospital/ college records), then look for development of same disease in both exposed and non-exposed groups Sample size required is same as that of prospective coho study Usually used in occupational cancer studies Examples :- Effect of fetal monitoring on neonatal death; PVC exposure and angiosarcoma of liver. Combined prospective-retrospective coho study : Known as 'Mixed coho study' Combines designs of both prospective coho study and retrospective coho study Both exposure as well as outcome have occurred when the study has begun: First we go back in time and take only exposure into consideration (cohos identified from past hospital/ college records), then look for development of same disease in both exposed and non-exposed groups; later coho is followed prospectively into future for outcome Examples :- Cou-Brown & Doll Study on effects of radiation therapy. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is NOT a complication associated with Parotidectomy? | [
"Sialocele",
"Flap necrosis",
"Frey's syndrome",
"Osteoradionecrosis of mandible"
] | D | Osteoradionecrosis of mandible- Complication of radiation | train | med_mcqa | null |
At same concentration of steroid which of the following is most potent ? | [
"Ointment",
"Cream",
"Lotion",
"Gel"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
During a routine pre employment physical examination, an apparently healthy 24 year old man is found to have increased serum levels of unconjugated bilirubin. Conjugated bilirubin and transaminases are normal. Careful questioning reveals no evidence of recent illnesses. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? | [
"Crigler-Najjar syndrome",
"Dubin-Johnson syndrome",
"Gilbe's syndrome",
"Rotor syndrome"
] | C | Gilbe's syndrome is a relatively common hereditary condition that is so mild, a case can be made for classifying it as a normal variant rather than a true disease. It produces asymptomatic unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia, and is impoant to know about to avoid unnecessary diagnostic procedures. Crigler-Najjar syndrome (choice A) represents several hereditary diseases characterized by severe unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia. The type I form, in paicular, can be fatal. Dubin-Johnson and Rotor syndromes are relatively mild hereditary conjugated hyperbilirubinemias. Ref: Murray R.K. (2011). Chapter 31. Porphyrins & Bile Pigments. In D.A. Bender, K.M. Botham, P.A. Weil, P.J. Kennelly, R.K. Murray, V.W. Rodwell (Eds), Harper's Illustrated Biochemistry, 29e. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Busacca and Koeppe nodules are characteristically seen in | [
"Residual uveitis",
"Recurrent uveitis",
"Granulomatous uveitis",
"Non-granulomatous uveitis"
] | C | Non granulomatous uveitisGranulomatous uveitisBehcet disease HLA - B27 associated ankylosing spondylitis Reiter syndrome Inflammatory bowel disease Idiopathic Infections - Lyme disease, Kawasaki disease, rickettsia, mumps, measles, Chlamydia, influenza, adenovirusPsoriatic ahritis Secondary syphilis Trauma UGH syndrome Glaucomatocyclitic crisis Lens induced uveitis Corneal graft rejection Sarcoidosis Sympathetic ophthalmitis Phacoanaphylaxis Vogt - Koyanagi - Harada syndrome Infections - Tuberculosis, Leprosy, Syphilis, Leptospirosis, Brucellosis, Herpes simplex, herpes zoster, varicella, systemic mycosis Koeppe' s nodules- situated at papillary border - posterior synechiae smaller in size Busacca' s nodules- situated at the collarette; larger in size(Refer: AH Khurana, Comprehensive Textbook of Ophthalmology,5thedition, pg no: 149) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Fouchette is where | [
"Both labia minora meet posteriorly",
"Both labia minora meet anteriorly",
"Labia mionra and majora meet",
"Distance between vulva and labia minora"
] | A | Labia minora are two thick folds of skin devoid of fat, on either side just within the labia majora Anteriorly they are divided to enclose the clitoris and unite with each other in front and behind clitoris to form prepuce and frenulum, respectively The lower poion of labia minora fuses across the midline to form a fold of skin known as a fourchette. It is usually injured during childbih. Ref: D.C. Dutta's Textbook of Gynaecology, 6th edition, page no: 1 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Fracture supracondylar fracture is usually caused by : | [
"Hyper flexion injury",
"Axial rotation",
"Extension injury",
"Hyper extension injury"
] | D | D i.e. Hyper extension injury | train | med_mcqa | null |
In an epidemiological study, the first case whichcomes to the attention of the investigator is | [
"Reference case",
"Index case",
"Primary case",
"Secondary case"
] | B | Index case Epidemiological terminology Primary case - is the _first case of a communicable disease introduced into the population unit under study. Index case - is the first case, that comes to the attention of the investigator, it is not always the primary case. Secondary cases - are those cases arising d/t contact with the primary case. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Occipital lobe tumours may produce | [
"Crossed homonymous quadrantanopia",
"Crossed homonymous hemianopia",
"Both of the above",
"None of the above"
] | C | Ans. Both of the above | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which statement regarding the renal involvement associated with SLE is true? | [
"Clinically apparent renal disease occurs in 90% of affected persons",
"Interstitial nephritis is a rare finding on renal biopsy",
"Renal biopsy is not initially necessary in patients with deteriorating renal function and active urine sediment",
"Renal disease is uncommon in patients with higher anti-double s... | C | Renal disease is clinically evident in about half of persons with SLE. However, nearly all persons with SLE have some evidence of renal disease on renal biopsy. Renal disease associated with SLE includes both glomerulonephritis and interstitial nephritis. Glomerular disease has been classified into membranous nephritis and mesangial, focal, and diffuse glomerulonephritis. Immune-complex interstitial nephritis occurs most commonly in persons who have diffuse glomerulonephritis. Urinalysis performed in persons with active renal disease usually reveals microscopic hematuria, red cell casts, and proteinuria; the exception is membranous lupus nephritis, in which proteinuria is the dominant finding. Drug-induced lupus rarely leads to renal disease. Anti-dsDNA antibodies at high titer are associated with severe nephritis. Renal biopsy is not necessary in SLE patients whose renal function is rapidly deteriorating when they have an active sediment. If such patients fail to respond to the prompt initiation of glucocorticoid therapy demanded in such a situation, then biopsy should be undertaken. Patients with mild clinical disease should have a biopsy to determine if they have active, severe, inflammatory lesions, which might respond to therapy. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A patient treated for infeility with clomiphene citrate presents with sudden onset of abdominal pain and distension with ascites. Most probable diagnosis is: | [
"Uterine rupture",
"Ectopic pregnancy rupture",
"Multifetal pregnancy",
"Hyperstimulation syndrome"
] | D | Ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome (OHSS) is a clinical symptom complex associated with ovarian enlargement resulting from exogenous gonadotropin therapy. Symptoms may include abdominal pain and distension, ascites, gastrointestinal problems, respiratory compromise, oliguria, hemoconcentration, and thromboembolism. Predisposing factors for OHSS include, Multifollicular ovaries such as with PCOS Young age High estradiol levels during ovulation induction Pregnancy Ref: Hoffman B.L., Schorge J.O., Schaffer J.I., Halvorson L.M., Bradshaw K.D.,Cunningham F.G., Calver L.E. (2012). Chapter 20. Treatment of the Infeile Couple. In B.L. Hoffman, J.O. Schorge, J.I. Schaffer, L.M. Halvorson, K.D. Bradshaw, F.G. Cunningham, L.E. Calver (Eds), Williams Gynecology, 2e. | train | med_mcqa | null |
An infant presents with bilateral white pupillary reflex. On slit lamp examination a zone of opacity is observed around the fetal nucleus with spoke like radial opacities. The most likely diagnosis is: | [
"Cataracto Centralis Pulverulenta",
"Lamellar cataract",
"Coronary cataract",
"Posterior polar cataract"
] | B | B i.e. Lamellar cataract | train | med_mcqa | null |
Koebner's phenomenon is characteristic of – | [
"Psoriasis",
"Pemphigus vulgaris",
"Pityriasis rosea",
"Lupus vulgaris"
] | A | Disorders showing koebner's phenomenon
Lichen planus Lichen nitidus Darrier disease (Keratosis follicularis)
Psoriasis Molluscum contigiosum DLE
Vitiligo Warts Pityriasis rubra pilaris
Rare causes are
Erythema multiforme Necrobiosis lipoidica
Hailey-bailey disease Xanthoma
Leukemia & Carcinoma Vasculitis
Lichen sclerosis | train | med_mcqa | null |
XDR-TB is defined as: March 2012 | [
"Resistance to at least INH and rifampicin +/- other drugs",
"Resistance to any of the 3 first line drugs",
"Resistance to all 1st line drugs and any 3 second line injectable drugs",
"Resistance to at least INH and rifampicin + any quinolones + at least 1 injectable 2nd line drug"
] | D | Ans: D i.e. Resistance to atleast INH and rifampicin + any quinolones + atleast 1 injectable 2nd line drug Terminology related to drug therapy of TB MDR/ Multi Drug Resistant TB is defined by resistance to at least rifampicin and isoniazid, with or without other drug resistance Drug resistant TB is defined by the presence of resistance to any first line agent Extensively drug resistant (XDR) TB is defined by resistance to at least rifampicin and isoniazind, in addition to any quinolone and at least one injectable second line agent | train | med_mcqa | null |
Naloxone is not used during resuscitation of a child whose mother is on - | [
"Methadone",
"Phenylcyclidine",
"Amphetamine",
"Cocain"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Methadone o Naloxone is used to reverse neonatal respiratory depression due to opioid use during labour. o It should not be used in cases where mother is opioid dependent. It can result in withdraw! syndrome. o When the mother is on opioids, fetus becomes opioid dependent in-utero and the use of naloxone in respiratory resuscitation may result in severe withdraw! symptoms. "In subjects who are dependent on morphine like opioids (e.g. methadone) small cutaneous doses of naloxone precipitate a moderate to severe withdrawl syndrome that is very similar to that seen after withdrawl of opioids, except that syndrome appears within minutes after administration and subsides in about 2 hours". | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most common pattern of Penumonia seen in Klebsiella infection is | [
"Lobar Pneumonia",
"Bronchopneumonia",
"Interstitial Pneumonia",
"Miliary Pneumonia"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Lobar Pneumonia | train | med_mcqa | null |
A Young women with secondary amenorrhoea and galactorrhoea. MRI shows a tumous of < 10 mm diameter in the pituitary fossa. Treatment is - | [
"Hormonal therapy for withdrawal bleeding",
"Radiotherapy",
"Chemotherapy",
"Bromocriptine"
] | D | bromocriptine is a dopamine receptor agonist that suppress prolactin secretion .It rapidly lowers serum prolactin levels to normal in upto 70% of patients and tumor shrinks ( Harrison 17 pg 2206) | train | med_mcqa | null |
A female developed brown macule on the cheek, forehead and nose after exposure to light following delivery of a baby, the diagnosis is | [
"SLE",
"Chloasma",
"Photodermatitis",
"Acne rosacea"
] | B | Answer is B (Chloasma): Patient has a characteristic 'brown' macule on cheek, with no history suggestive of any systemic involvement, with positive history of delivery of a baby suggesting pregnancy. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Definition of measles elimination- | [
"<1\\/1000",
"<1\\/10000",
"<1\\/100000",
"<1\\/100"
] | C | WHO define elimination of measles as the absence of endemic measles for a period of grater than 12 months in the presence of adequate surveillance measles incidence less than 1/100,000 population. REF. PARK'S TEXTBOOK OF PREVENTIVE AND SOCIAL MEDICINE 21ST EDITION. - 137 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Overcontoured tooth restoration is caused by: | [
"Underprepared tooth",
"Overprepared tooth",
"Oversized die",
"Inadequate thickness of veneer"
] | A | Insufficient axial reduction or under preparation of tooth leads to inevitable overcontoured restorations that hamper plaque control. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A young man presented to you with night blindness and tubular vison. On examination the findings are IOP is 18mm, normal anterior segment, fundus examination shows waxy, pallor of disc, attenuation of aeriole, bony corpuscles like spicules of pigmentation in midperipheral retina. Perimetry test shows a ring scotoma with subnormal ERG. What is the your most likely diagnosis? | [
"Primary closed angle glaucoma",
"Pigmented retinal dystrophy",
"Lattice degeneration of retina",
"Paving stone degeneration of retina"
] | B | Patient in the question is showing features of retinitis pigmentosa, which is a primary pigmentary retinal dystrophy affecting the rods more than the cones. Examination of fundus in this condition shows pigmentary changes typically perivascular and resembling bone corpuscles, attenuation of retinal aerioles and pale and waxy optic disc. Visual field changes includes annular or ring shaped scotoma and finally a tubular vision. Electroretinogram initially shows decreased scotopic response later followed by a decreased photopic response. Ref: Comprehensive Ophthalmology By A K Khurana, 4th Edition, Page 269 | train | med_mcqa | null |
A pt. comes with rectal carcinoma situated 6 cm above dentate line with no nodal metastasis T/t of choice will be - | [
"Ant resection -",
"APR",
"Radiotherapy",
"Hartman's procedure"
] | A | Here in this patient adequate margin is available for a colorectal anastomosis, so a LAR procedure can be done. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A disease has 3 time more incidence in females as compared to males, with same prevalence in both males and females. TRUE statement is - AIIMS 99 | [
"Increase fatality in women",
"More survival in women",
"Better prognosis in men",
"Less fatality in man"
] | A | ref: Park&;s 23rd edition pg 61 Here, incidence in females is 3times that of males. So, we expect such an increase in prevalence of that same disease in females. But, it is given, prevalence in males and females are the same. This means that the affected females donot survive as much as the affected males. This shows that disease has increased fatality in females. note: Prognosis depends on prevalence. As prevaleance is same, prognosis is also same in both. Incidence reflects the causal factors | train | med_mcqa | null |
Calcium channel blocker with maximum effect on conduction in heart is: | [
"Phenylamine",
"Nifedipine",
"Diltiazem",
"Verapamil"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which is the most common side effect of inhaled beclomethasone dipropionate: | [
"Oropharyngeal candidiasis",
"Pneumonia",
"Atrophic rhinitis",
"Pituitary adrenal suppression"
] | A | Most of the side effects of steroids are mainly hoarseness, oropharyngeal candidiasis, decreased growth in children with adrenal suppression.
• The plausible explanation is that since these drugs are inhaled, they avoid the first pass metabolism that orally administered steroids undergo and hence have a preponderance to cause the usual manifestations of steroid toxicity. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Eisenmenger syndrome is characterized by all except - | [
"Return of left ventricle & right ventricle to normal size",
"Pulmonary veins not distended",
"Pruning of peripheral pulmonary aeries",
"Dilatation of central pulmonary aeries"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Return of left ventricle and right ventricle to normal size Eisenmenger syndrome is associated with severe pulmonary aerial hypeension and right ventricular hyperophy. The right ventricular size will ceainly not return to normal once eisenminger syndrome develops. Chest X-ray in Eisenmenger syndrome o Dilated and prominent central aeries. o Rapid tapering (pruning) of the peripheral pulmonary vasculature. o The hilar (central) area suggests pulmonary plethora whereas the peripheral lung fields suggest pulmonary oligemia. Clinical manifestations of Eisenmenger syndrome o Symptoms ---> Cyanosis (Differential cynosis in PDA), fatigue, effo intolerance and dyspnea. o Physical examination Cyanosis and clubbing Parasternal impulse (more in ASD) Palpable P2 Wide and fixed splitting of S, in ASD Pulmonary regurgitation murmur. Normal splitting of S2 in PDA Ejection systolic murmur (pulmonic). Single S2 or paradoxical splitting in VSD ECG Right ventricular hyperophy with right axis detion. 'P' pulmonale. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most common cause of upper GI bleed | [
"Gastric cancer",
"Oesophageal varices",
"Duodenal ulcers",
"Gastric ulcers"
] | C | Answer- C. Duodenal ulcersCauses ofupper GI bleeding (in descending order)Peptic ulcer - Duodenal ulcer - gastric ulcerOesophageal varicesGastritis erosionsMallory-Weiss tearsUncommon causes - Gastric carcinoma, esophagitis, pancreatits. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Black color in triage is | [
"High priority",
"Transfer",
"Death",
"Low priority"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Based on Epidemiological studies, which of the following has been found to be most protective against Carcinoma Colon : | [
"High fiber diet",
"Low fat diet",
"Low selenium diet",
"Low protein diet"
] | A | Answer is A (High fiber diet): Epidemiologic, case control and animal studies suggest that dietary fibers are protective against the development of colon cancer Fat is primarily related as a 'promoting' agent such that high fat in diet is believed to promote carcinogenesis. Low Fat has not been shown to have a 'protective' role in carcinogenesis although it may reduce the incidence of colonic carcinoma indirectly by reducing a 'promoting effect'. Low selenium is 'possibly related' as a promoting agent Low Protein has not been mentioned in relation to carcinogenesis in the colon. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Onodi cells are seen in? | [
"Sphenoid sinus",
"Maxillary sinus",
"Anterior ethmoidal sinus",
"Posterior ethmoidal sinus"
] | D | Ethmoidal sinuses are divided into two groups :A) Anterior groupi) Anterior ethmoidal air cellsAnterior ethmoidal air cells drain into- either the ethmoidal infundibulum or the frontonasal duct. Some air cells may invade the orbital floor. These are known as the Haller' cells.ii) Middle ethmoidal air cellsAlso known as bullar sinuses. The middle ethmoidal air cells drain- into the middle meatus by one or more orifices on or above the ethmoidal bulla.B) Posterior groupPosterior ethmoidal air cells usually drain- into the superior meatus. The posterior group lies very close to the optic canal and optic nerve. The Onodi cell is usually regarded as the most posterior ethmoid cell that pneumatizes lateral and superior to the sphenoid sinus and is intimately associated with the optic nerve. | train | med_mcqa | null |
In an infrabony pocket the junctional epithelium lies | [
"Apical to the root apices",
"Apical to the crest of the alveolar bone",
"Coronal to the crest of the alveolar bone",
"At the level of the alveolar bone"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
MC site of genital TB: March 2013 | [
"Lungs",
"Fallopian tubes",
"Uterus",
"Ovary"
] | B | Ans. B i.e. Fallopian tubes | train | med_mcqa | null |
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