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A common source of Staphylococcus in the hospital is | [
"IV fluids",
"Infected wounds",
"Hands of hospital personnel",
"Bed linen"
] | B | Staphylococci are the primary parasites of human beings and animals, colonizing the skin, skin glands and mucous membranes. The most common source of infection in human patients and carriers, animals and inanimate objects being less important. Patients with superficial infections and respiratory infection disseminate large numbers of staphylococci into the environment. About 10-30 percent of healthy persons carry staphylococci in the nose and about 10 percent in the perineum and also on the hair. The vaginal carriage is about 5-10 percent. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Ribnotching of 4-9th ribs with double bulging is seen in : | [
"Aoic aneurysm",
"Aoic dessection",
"Co-arctation of aoa",
"Diaphragmatic hernia"
] | C | Answer is C (Coarctation of Aoa) Rib notching and double bulge sign are characteristic radiological signs of coarcation of aoru Signs in coarctation of aoa Abnormal Aoic arch Commonest finding Site of narrowing may be seen as an identation. e Classic '3 signQ or double bulge sign' Q on left border of aoic shadow is formed by (above downwards) - prestenotic dilatation - coarctation itself (indentation) - poststenotic dilatation Inferior Rib notching Is a frequent sign in adults. It is not seen until late childhood. It is seen on the inferior margin of posterior halves of ribs from 3rd or 4th ribs downwards. Rib notching is due to enlargement of intercostal aeries which act as collateral vessels. These collateral vessels produce indentation, on the ribs at the above sites. | train | med_mcqa | null |
EhlerDanlos syndrome is due to defect in? | [
"Elastin",
"Collagen",
"Keratin",
"Laminin"
] | B | Ans. (b) CollagenRef: Robbin's 8th ed ch:3 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Cilioretinal A is a branch of | [
"Anterior ciliary aery",
"Long posterior ciliary aery",
"Cerebral retinal Aery",
"Choroidal aery"
] | D | The posterior ciliary aery (PCA) circulation is the main source of blood supply to the optic nerve head (ONH), and it also supplies the choroid up to the equator, the retinal pigment epithelium (RPE), the outer 130 mm of retina (and, when a cilioretinal aery is present, the entire thickness of the retina in that region), and the medial and lateral segments of the ciliary body and iris. That makes the PCA circulation the most impoant pa of the ocular and ONH circulation. Therefore, disturbances in the PCA circulation can result in a variety of ocular and ONH vascular disorders, causing varying degrees of visual loss. I have investigated various aspects of the PCA circulation in health and disease by anatomic, experimental, and clinical studies since 1955. The objective of this lecture is essentially to summarize the main findings of those studies. It is beyond its scope to review the extensive literature on the subject that has accumulated over recent years. <img src=" /> Ref - BD chaurasia 6e vol3 pg 212 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Deficiency of vit D will cause: | [
"Scurvy",
"Rickets",
"Phrynoderma",
"Beriberi"
] | B | Ans: b (Rickets) Ref: Hassion, 17th, ed, p. 2375Features of vitamin D deficiency:Rickets in children manifests in the latter half of first year or in the second year.Craniotabes is the ear liest manifestation of rickets.Anterior fontanel is large and its closure is delayed beyond 18 months.Bossing of frontal and parietal bones becomes evident after the age of 6 months.Costo chondral junction becomes prominent giving the appearance of a rosary (rachitic rosary).Sternum projects forwards- pigeon chest.Horizontal depression (Harrison's groove) is seen along the lower border of chest corresponding to the insertion of diaphragm.Eruption of primary teeth is delayed.Scoliosis, kyphosis or lordosis may occur.Epiphysis of long bones are widened and appear clinically as broadening of wrists around the age of 6 months. Anterior bowing of legs, knock knee and coxa vara are also seen.Abdomen become protuberant- pot belly.Radiological features:Early radiological features are observed at lower end of radius and ulna.A cup shaped depression is seen at the growing end of the bone(cupping & fraying of metaphysis)Epiphyseal plate is widenedThe earliest sign of healing rickets is a dense metaphyseal line.X- linked hypophosphatemia rickets (vitamin - D resistant) occurs due to reduced renal phosphate reabsorption.Calcium and vitamin D and PTH levels are normal, phosphate decreased, alkaline phosphate and osteocalcin increased.Vitamin D-Dependent RicketsVitamin D-dependent rickets exists in two forms that manifest with hypocalcaemia, hypophosphataemia, elevated PTH levels, and the skeletal abnormalities of rickets and osteomalacia.Tetany may be present in severe cases.Vitamin D-dependent rickets Type 1 is an autosomal recessive disease resulting from decreased lalpha - hydroxylase enzyme levels in the proximal tubule that catalyzes the hydroxylation and activation of 25(OH)D3 into l,25(OH),D3. It can be treated with physiologic replacement doses of l,25(OH)2D3. In contrast, vitamin D-dependent rickets type II is due to end-organ resistance to 1,25(OH ),D3 as a result of mutations in the vitamin D receptor.Some important vitamin deficiencies and manifestationsVitaminClinical featuresThiamineBeri beri: neuropathy, muscle weakness and wasting, cardiomegaly, oedema, ophthalmoplegia, confabulationRiboflavinMagenta tongue, angular stomatitis, seborrhoea, cheilosisNiacinPellagra: pigmented rash of sun-exposed areas, bright red tongue, diarrhoea, apathy, memory loss, disorientationVitamin B6Seborrhoea, glossitis convulsions, neuropathy, depression, confusion, microcytic anaemiaFolateMegaloblastic anaemia, atrophic glossitis, depression, increased homocysteineVitamin B12Megaloblastic anaemia, loss of vibratory and position sense, abnormal gait, dementia, impotence, loss of bladder and bowel control, increased homocysteine, increased methylmalonic acidVitamin CScurvy: petechiae, ecchymosis, coiled hairs, inflamed and bleeding gums, joint effusion, poor wound healing, fatigueVitamin AXerophthalmia, nightblindness, Bitot's spots, follicular hyperkeratosis, impaired embryonic development, immune dysfunctionVitamin DRickets: skeletal deformation, rachitic rosary, bowed legs, osteomalaciaVitamin EPeripheral neuropathy, spinocerebellar ataxia, skeletal muscle atrophy, retinopathyVitamin KElevated prothrombin time, bleeding | train | med_mcqa | null |
In a premature baby with convulsion after 2 days of birth, first investigation to be done is: | [
"Transcranial USG",
"MRI",
"Skull radiography",
"CT skull"
] | A | a. Transcranial USG(Ref: Nelson's 20/e p 2831-2856, Ghai 8/e p 557-561)Intracranial hemorrhage can be a common cause for seizures in a preterm neonate, which can be picked up easily on a transcranial USG through the open anterior fontanelle. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which antibiotic acts by inhibiting protein synthesis: | [
"Cefotetan",
"Doxycycline",
"Ciprofloxacin",
"Oxacillin"
] | B | Doxycycline is a tetracycline that act by inhibiting protein synthesis.
Cefotetan and oxacillin are β-lactam antibiotics that act by inhibiting cell wall synthesis.
Ciprofloxacin is a fluoroquinolone that acts by inhibiting DNA gyrase. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Temporomandibular joint is a? | [
"Plain joint",
"Condylar joint",
"Ball and Socket joint",
"Saddle shaped joint"
] | B | Condylar joint | train | med_mcqa | null |
Human immunoglobulin is given in all except | [
"Measles",
"Hepatitis B",
"Rabies",
"chickenpox"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Drug used in heparin overdose: | [
"Protamine sulfate",
"Phylloquinone",
"Ticlopidine",
"Clopidogrel"
] | A | Excessive anticoagulant action of heparin is treated by discontinuance of the drug. If bleeding occurs, administration of a specific antagonist such as protamine sulfate is indicated. Protamine is a highly basic, positively charged peptide that combines with negatively charged heparin as an ion pair to form a stable complex devoid of anticoagulant activity. For every 100 units of heparin remaining in the patient, 1 mg of protamine sulfate is given intravenously. Excess protamine must be avoided; it also has an anticoagulant effect. Ref: Zehnder J.L. (2012). Chapter 34. Drugs Used in Disorders of Coagulation. In B.G. Katzung, S.B. Masters, A.J. Trevor (Eds), Basic & Clinical Pharmacology, 12e. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The following are recognised signs any symptoms of raised intracranial tension in a 9 month old infant, except | [
"Bulging fontanelle",
"Diplopia",
"Papilloedema",
"Increase in head size"
] | C | Signs of raised intracranial tension - Headache,bulging anterior fontanelle,Diplopia , increased head size. Reference: GHAI Essential pediatrics, 8th edition | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following drugs can cause neurolepticmalignant syndrome except aEUR' | [
"Amantadine",
"Domperidone",
"Haloperidol",
"Metoclopramide"
] | B | Domperidone Neurolept malignant syndrome is a potentially life threatening idiosyncratic reaction to neuroleptic drugs. It causes :? Fever Muscular rigidity Altered mental status Autonomic dysfunction The underlying pathological abnormality is thought to be central D2 receptor blockade or dopamine depletion in the hypothalamus and nigrostriatal / spinal pathways. This leads to an elevated temperature set point, impairment of normal thermal homeostasis and extrapyramidally induced muscle regidity. Thus it is usually associated with potent neuroleptics such as haloperidol and fluphenazine, which block central D2 receptors but it has now been repoed to occur with all drugs that affect the central dopaminergic system (including dopamine agonists and levodopa). In these cases neurolept malignant syndrome is precipitated by rapid withdrawl of the dopaminergic agonists. Amantadine Amantadine is a dopamine agonist and its withdrawl precipitates neurolept malignant syndrome. N.M.S. is also associated with other drugs that have central D2 receptor antagonist activity e.g. Metoclopromide. Metoclopromide is a D2 blocker. Can cross the C.N.S. and cause neurolept malignant syndrome. Domperidone Like metoclopromide is a D2 blocker and is similar to metoclopromide in all respects, except that, Domeperidone does not cross C.N.S. and so it does not generally cause neurolept malignant syndrome. But rare cases of N.M.S. of have been repoed with Domeperidone, too. So all the drugs mentioned in the question can cause neurolept malignant syndrome. Some believe that answer should be Amantadine as it causes N.M.S due to drug withdrawl, we are not convinced. But, we are not sure of the answer. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Oral contraceptive pill of choice in a lactating woman is : | [
"Monophasic pill",
"Biphasic pill",
"Triphasic pill",
"Mino pill"
] | D | Mino pill | train | med_mcqa | null |
All the following malignancies are associated with HIV, except- | [
"Kaposi's Ca.",
"Non Hodgkin's lymphoma",
"Astrocytoma",
"Gastric adeno Ca."
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Astrocytoma Neoplastic disease in AIDS o Kaposi sarcoma (most common tumor) o Non Hodgkin lymphoma Immunoblastic lymphoma (most common lymphoma) Primary CNS lymphoma (associated with EBV) Burkitt's lymphoma Other less common neoplasm are Hodgkin's disease Leukemia Cervical Ca Brain tumor Testicular Ca Multiple myeloma Melanoma Lung Ca Anal Ca Oral Ca o Not sure about option | train | med_mcqa | null |
Major neurotranmistter released at end organ effectors of the sympathatic division of the autonomic nervous is: | [
"Adrenaline",
"Noradrenaline",
"Dopamine",
"Acetylcholine"
] | B | ref; KD Tripathi pharmacology 6th edition (page no;116) Katzung 10/e p76 Noradrenaline (NA); It acts as a transmitter at postganglionic sympathetic sites (except sweat glands, hair follicles and some vasodilator fibres) and in ceain areas of the brain. so noradrenaline is the Major neurotranmistter released at end organ effectors of the sympathatic division of the autonomic nervous Adrenaline (Adr); It is secreted by adrenal medulla and may have a transmitter role in the brain.Dopamine (DA); It is a major transmitter in basal ganglia, limbic system, CTZ, anterior pituitary, etc. and in a limited manner in the periphery. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following statements about Zenker's diveiculum are true Except: | [
"Acquired diveiculum",
"Lateral X-rays on Barium swallow are often diagnostic",
"False Diveiculum",
"Out pouching of the anterior pharyngeal wall, just above the cricopharyngeus muscle"
] | D | Ans is D i.e. Out pouching of the anterior pharyngeal wall, just above the cricopharyngeus muscle Zenker's diveiculum is out pouching of the posterior pharyngeal wall, where pharyngeal mucosa herniates through the Killian's dehiscence (the weak area between the upper oblique fibres and the lower horizontal fibres of the inferior constrictor muscle). Zenker's diveiculum is an acquired diveiculum and not a congenital diveiculum. It's a false diveiculum as it does not contain all the anatomic layers of the oesophageal wall. Barium swallows are diagnostic. Lateral views are essential as these are posterior outpouchings. | train | med_mcqa | null |
True about Rest is: | [
"Provides vertical support",
"Should always be located on properly prepared tooth surface",
"Rest are designated by the surface of the tooth prepared to receive them",
"All of the above"
] | D | Any component of a partial denture on a tooth surface, that provides vertical support is called rest.
Rests should always be located on properly prepared tooth surfaces.
The prepared surface of an abutment to receive the rest is called the rest seat.
Rests are designated by the surface of the tooth, prepared to receive them (occlusal rest, lingual rest, and incisal rest). | train | med_mcqa | null |
The primary role of chaperones is to help in: | [
"Protein synthesis.",
"Protein degradation",
"Protein denaturation",
"Protein folding."
] | D | Ans. D. Protein foldingChaperones -a. Are the protein that prevent faulty folding and unproductive interactions of other proteinsb. play a role in the assembly or proper folding of other proteins.c. ie. prevent wrong folding and allows folding, only in the correct direction.d. They help in the assembly of the tertiary and quantimetry structure of proteins.e. They are not part of the mature protein, and they have ATPase activity.Some properties of chaperone proteinsPresent in a wide range of species from bacteria to humans.a. Many are so called heat shock protein (Hsp)b. Some are inducible by conditions that cause unfolding of newly synthesized protein (eg. |temp., andc. various chemicals)d. They bind to predominantly hydrophobic regions of unfolded and aggregated proteins.e. They act in part as a quality control or, editing mechanism. For detecting mis folded or otherwise defective proteins.f. Most chaperons show associated ATPase activity, with ATP or ADP being involved in the protein-g. chaperone interactionh. Found in various cellular components such as, cytosol, mitochondria and the lumen of the endoplasmic reticulum. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Bed of tonsil is formed by ? | [
"Superior constrictor",
"Middle constrictor",
"Inferior constrictor",
"Platysma"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Superior constrictor Tonsillar bed is formed by the following : Pharyngobasilar fascia Buccopharyngeal fascia Glossopharyngeal nerve Superior constrictor muscle Styloglossus muscle | train | med_mcqa | null |
Prominent eosinophilic secretory granules are seen in the paneth cells of the intestinal crypts. What is secreted from the cells? | [
"Mucus",
"Antibacterial like lysozyme",
"Alkaline fluid",
"Acidic fluid"
] | B | Paneth cells (zymogen cells) are found only in the deeper pas of the intestinal crypts. They contain prominent eosinophilic secretory granules. On examination, they are seen to contain considerable rough endoplasmic reticulum (ER) with other organelles and some irregular microvilli. The cells are rich in zinc. They are known to produce lysozyme which destroys bacteria. They may also produce other enzymes. Ref: Inderbir Singh's Textbook of Human Histology, 5th Edition, Page 247 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Extradural haematoma is associated with what % of severe trauma - | [
"36%",
"10%",
"77%",
"96%"
] | B | "Epidural hematoma occur in upto 10% of severe head injury cases and are less often associated with underlying cortical damage than are subdural hematomas." - Harrison | train | med_mcqa | null |
A gardener comes with linear nodules on the hand for last one year , how will you treat the patient. | [
"Amphotericin B",
"Griseofulvin",
"Ampicillin",
"Iodine"
] | D | Diagnosis is Rose gardener disease/ Sporotrichosis commonly seen in farmers, gardeners, florists etc. It is caused by Sporothrix schenckii (Thermally dimorphic) Fungi Fungus may produce a series of inflamed nodules along the line of lymphatic drainage (i. e. linear lesions). Three types: C/F Rx 1. Cutaneous Nodules Itraconazole 2. Lymphatic (MC) Linear nodules with Satellite lesions Itraconazole >Saturated Solution of KI (SSKI) S/E: Thyroid problem 3. Systemic Upper lobe of lung Amphotericin B | train | med_mcqa | null |
Natural stiffening of muscles after death is known as ? | [
"Algor mois",
"Rigor mois",
"Postmoem lividity",
"Cadaveric spasm"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e. Rigor mois Rigor mois is natural stiffening after death as it occurs in all death.Cadeveric spasm does not occur in all deaths. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Atropine should never be staed when the patient is cyanosed due to danger of : | [
"Cerbral edema",
"Respiratory arrest",
"Ventricular fibrillation",
"None of the above"
] | B | B i.e. Respiratory arrest | train | med_mcqa | null |
When sodium enters cells - | [
"There is spike in action potential",
"There is plateu in action potential",
"There is repolarization",
"There is hyperpolarization"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e.. There is spike in action potentialo Na+ influx causes spike potential (i.e. phase of rapid depolarization in AP).o Spike potential (phase of rapid depolarization of AP) is due to Na+ influx.o Action potentials in nonautomatic fibers (Atria, ventricles) and in automatic fibers (S A node, AV node) have different ionic mechanisms for their generation.Action potential in nonautomatic fibers, i.e.. Cardiac muscles (atria, ventricles)o Normal RMPin myocardial fibers is about -90 mV. The AP in myocardial fibers has 5 phases : 0, 1,2, 3,4.Phase 0 : - It is the phase of rapid depolarization and is due to opening offast sodium channels.Phase 1 : - It is the initial phase of rapid repolarization. It is due to closure offast Na+ channels.Phase 2 : - This is plateu phaseQ. It is due to opening of'voltage gated slow Ca+ channelsQ. also called calcium- sodium channelsQ which causes calcium influxQ.Phase 3 : - This phase of final repolarization is due to opening of K+ channels. The membrane potential comes back to resting membrane potential.Phase 4 : - It is the resting phase, i.e., the phase of resting membrane potential.Action potential in automatic fibers fSA node and AY node)o The resting membrane potential of nodal fibers is less, i.e., about -65 mV (as compared to myocardium : -90 mV). Further, Resting membrane potential, even during resting phase (phase 4), moves steadily towards the depolarization, without any stimulus from nerves, hormones etc. When depolarization reaches a threshold level, an action potential is fired. Thus, between two action potentials (between the end of one action potentials and begining of other) there is slow and gradual depolarization which is called pacemaker potential or prepotential. The functional significance of the unsteady RMP is that nodal tissues generates rhythmic impulse "spontaneously"o Beside unsteady RMP (unsteady phase 4) other differences of nodal action potential from myocardial (atrial orventricular) AP are:- (i) Rapid repolarization and the platea (phase 1 and 2) are absent; and (ii) the late rapiddepolarization is slow.o Ionic basis of AP in S A and AV node are as follows : - The prepotential or pacemaker potentialQ (i.e., slow depolarization) starts due opening of funny (F) channelsQ which produce funny current. These channels are called funny channels because (i) Unlike most other channels, these are activated by hyperpolarization, and (ii) They can pass both Na+ and K+ (However, the dominant effect is that of Na" influx). The later part of prepotential is due to opening of "T" type of calcium channelsQ (T stands for transient ) with calcium influx.When prepontial depolarizes the membrane upto threshold level, action potential develops. The action potential spike is largely due to opening of L type of calcium channels (L stands for long lasting) which causes Ca+2 influx.The repolarization is produced by opening of K+ channels which causes K+ efflux. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A preterm neonate with hyaline membrane disease needs to be treated with: | [
"Dexamethasone",
"Betamethasone",
"Hydrocortisone",
"Surfactant"
] | D | d. Surfactant(Ref: Nelson's 20/e p 854)Systemic or inhaled corticosteroids have been used, mainly in those infants with RDS, who continue to require respiratory support & in whom bronchopulmonary dysplasia (BPD) develops.Routine use of corticosteroids for the prevention or treatment of BPD is not recommended by the American Academy of Pediatrics. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The pressure-volume curve is shifted to the left in which of the following valvular condition? | [
"Mitral regurgitation",
"Aoic regurgitation",
"Mitral stenosis",
"Aoic stenosis"
] | D | n aoic stenosis, HTN and HOCM there is pressure overload causing concentric left ventricular hyperophy and shifts the diastolic pressure volume curve to left along its volume axis, so that at any diastolic volume ventricular diastolic pressure is abnormally elevated, although chamber stiffness may or may not be altered. Diastolic function of the left ventricle is assessed using a LV end diastolic pressure volume curve. A shift of the curve upward and to the left indicates diastolic dysfunction. In aoic /mitral regurgitation where there is volume overload the entire diastolic pressure volume curve shifts to right indicating increased chamber stiffness. Ref: Practical Cardiovascular Pathology, 2nd edition By Mary Sheppard page 143. Diastology: Clinical Approach to Diastolic Hea Failure By Allan L. Klein, Mario J. Garcia | train | med_mcqa | null |
Afferent sensation from the lower molar teeth is carried by: | [
"Facial nerve",
"Mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve",
"Maxillary division of the trigeminal nerve",
"Opthalmic branch of the trigeminal"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
S4 is not seen in- | [
"Ventricular aneurysm",
"Mitral regurgitation",
"Hyperophic cardiomyopathy",
"Hypeension"
] | A | A fouh hea sound is commonlyheard due to decreased ventricular compliance. It can sometimes heard immideatly before the first sound when atrial pressure is high or the ventricle is stiff in conditions like ventricular hyperophy. Ref Harrison 20th edition pg 1557 | train | med_mcqa | null |
What can be prevented by inhibiting aldose reductase in diabetes mellitus - | [
"Deafness",
"Diabetic nephropathy",
"Diabetic neuropathy",
"Diabetic cataract"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Diabetic cataract o When there is excessive glucose, e.g., in diabetes, it is converted to sorbitol by aldose reductose. Sorbitol is responsible for accumulates in the lens and causes diabetic cataract. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Ragarding Cytosolic Eukaryotic gene expression false is : | [
"Capping helps in attachment of mRNA to 40 S Ribosome",
"N formyl methionine tRNA will be the first t - RNA to come into action",
"EF2 shifts between GDP & GTP",
"Releasing factor releases the polypeptide chain from the P site."
] | B | B i.e. N formyl methionine t RNA will be first t RNA to come into action | train | med_mcqa | null |
Eugene Bleuler's four 'A' of schizophrenia are all EXCEPT | [
"Autism",
"Affect",
"Anhedonia",
"Association"
] | C | Ans. c (Anhedonia) (Ref: Psychiatry by Niraj Ahuja 5th/pg. 55)SCHIZOPHRENIA# It commonly begins in late adolescence, has an insidious (and less commonly acute) onset, and, classically, a poor outcome, progressing from social withdrawal and perceptual distortions to a state of chronic delusions and hallucinations.# Patients may present with positive symptoms (such as conceptual disorganization, delusions, or hallucinations) or negative symptoms (loss of function, anhedonia, decreased emotional expression, impaired concentration, and diminished social engagement) and must have at least two of these for a 1-month period and continuous signs for at least 6 months to meet formal diagnostic criteria.# "Negative" symptoms predominate in one-third of the schizophrenic population and are associated with a poor long- term outcome and a poor response to drug treatment.# Eugen Bleuler's fundamental symptoms of schizophrenia (4 A's)deg:- Ambivalence (marked inability to decide for or against)- Autism (Withdrawal into self)- Affect blunting (Disturbance of affect)- Association disturbances (loosening of association, thought disorder)# The four main subtypes of schizophrenia are catatonic, paranoid, disorganized, and residual.Catatonic-type:# Patients whose clinical presentation is dominated by profound changes in motor activity, negativism, and echolalia or echopraxia.- Paranoid-type:# Patients who have a prominent preoccupation with a specific delusional system and who otherwise do not qualify as having disorganized-type disease.- Disorganized-type:# Characterized by disorganized speech and behavior are accompanied by a superficial or silly affect.- Residual-type:# Negative symptomatology exists in the absence of delusions, hallucinations, or motor disturbance.# The term schizophreniform disorder describes patients who meet the symptom requirements but not the duration requirements for schizophrenia, and schizoaffective disorder is used for those who manifest symptoms of schizophrenia and independent periods of mood disturbance.Q | train | med_mcqa | null |
The efferent limb of the cremaster reflex is provided by | [
"Femoral branch of the genitofemoral",
"Genital branch of the genitofemoral nerve",
"Ilioinguinal nerve",
"Pudendal nerve"
] | B | - Cremastric reflex-
Afferent- Femoral branch of genitofemoral nerve
Efferent- Genital branch of genitofemoral nerve | train | med_mcqa | null |
Active agent of cannabis resemble which endogenous compound | [
"Endorphin",
"Endomorphins",
"Anandamine",
"Enkaphalin"
] | C | Anandamide is a neurotransmitter produced in the brain that binds to the THC receptors. It's been called the "bliss molecule," aptly named after ananda, the Sanskrit word for "joy, bliss, or happiness." It is considered an endocannabinoid -- a substance produced in the body that binds to cannabinoid receptors Ref: guyton and hall textbook of medical physiology 12 edition page number:699,700,701 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Falciparum ligament contains? | [
"Ligamentum venosus",
"Ligamentum teres",
"Linorenal ligament",
"None of the above"
] | B | Peritoneal ligamentsGastrosplenic ligament :- It extends from hilum of spleen to greater curvature of stomach. It contains sho gastric and left gastroepiploic vessels.Linorenal ligament :- It extends from hilum of spleen to anterior surface of left kidney. It contains splenic vessels and tail of pancreas. It develops from dorsal mesogastrium.Gastrophrenic ligament :- It connects the greater curvature of stomach to diaphragm. It develops from dorsal mesogastrium.Phrenicocolic ligament :- It connects left colic (splenic) flexure to diaphragm. It suppos the anterior border of spleen.Falciform ligament :- It demarcates the right and left lobes of liver. It contains ligamentum teres (remnant of left umblical vein) and paraumblical vein. It develops of ventral mesogastrium (ventral pa).Coronary ligaments :- It contains superior and inferior layers which connect liver to diaphragm, and encloses the triangular 'bare area of liver'.Triangular ligaments (a right and a left) :- These connect right and left lobes of liver to diaphragm. It develops from ventral mesogastrium. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Congenital lactic acidosis may occur d/t defect in | [
"Pvruvate decarboxylase",
"PDH complex",
"Transketolase",
"a-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase"
] | B | B i.e. PDH complex | train | med_mcqa | null |
Frequency of Braxton Hicks contraction is - | [
"One every 2 minutes",
"One every 5 minutes",
"One every 15 minutes",
"None of the above"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., One every 15 minutesBraxton - Hicks contractionsUterine contractions in pregnancy has been named after Braxton - Hicks who first described this entity.These contractions are irregular, infrequent, spasmodic and painless without any effect on dilatation of cervix.Patient is not conscious about the contractions.The intensity varies between 5 and 25 mmHg.The number increases during the last week or two, when the uterus may contract as often as every 10 to 20 minutes. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The serological marker of acute Hepatitis B infection is - | [
"HBsAg + HBeAg",
"HBsAg-Core antibody",
"HBsAg",
"HBeAg"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., HBsAg+Core antibody In acute hepatitis following serological markers are present:HBsAgIgM anti HBc Ag (in recent infection) or IgG anti HBc Ag (in remote infection).HBe Ag (with high infectivity) or Anti HBe Ag (with low infectivity). HBsAgAnti HBs AgHBe AgAnti HBe AgAnti HBc AgAcute HBV (high infecti vity)+ + IgMAcute HBV (low infecti vity)+ +IgMChronic HBV (high infectivity)+ + IgGChronic HBV (low infectivity)+ +IgGRecovery' + +IgGImmunized + | train | med_mcqa | null |
Action of dopamine in 1-2 mcg/kg/min dose is | [
"Vasoconstriction",
"Increases renal blood flow",
"Increases cardiac contractility",
"Increases blood pressure"
] | B | Ans. (B) Increases renal blood flow(Ref: Goodman Gilman 12th/e p355; KDT 8th/e p146)Dopamine has dose dependent actionsLow dose (1-2 mcg/kg/min): It stimulates only D1 receptors leading to renal vasodilation and thus increase in renal blood flow.Medium dose (2-10 mcg/kg/min): It stimulates both D1 and beta 1 receptors means it will lead to inotropic action also.High dose (>10 mcg/kg/min): It stimulates Dl, beta 1 and alpha 1 receptors resulting in additional vasoconstriction. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most common complication of myelography is | [
"Allergic reaction",
"Headache",
"Focal neurological deficit",
"A rachanoi di tis"
] | B | B i.e. Headache | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following does not help in the prevention of reflux esophagitis? | [
"Long intraabdominal esophagus",
"Increased intraabdominal pressure",
"Right crus of diaphragm",
"Increased intrathoracic pressure"
] | D | The principal barrier to reflux is the lower esophageal sphincter. LES comprises the lower 4 cm of esophagus, where resting pressure within the lumen normally exceeds the intragastric pressure. This high intraluminal pressure at LES prevents the GE reflux. The LES is a physiological entity rather than any anatomical structure. Factors contribute to the high intraluminal pressure of LES: Intrinsic musculature of distal esophagus: these muscles differ from those in the other area of the esophagus in that they are in a state of tonic contraction. They normally relax with initiation of the a swallow and then return to a state of tonic contraction. Sling fibres of cardia Crura of the diaphragm Intra Abdominal pressure: the intra abdominal pressure compresses the abdominal segment of the esophagus and is probably the most impoant factor in preventing the reflux. The gastroesophageal angle: the oblique entry of the esophagus has a valvular effect, in that it closes the esophagus when gastric fundus distends. Folds of the mucosa at the cardia : helps in closing the LES when intragastric pressure arises. Intrathoracic pressure has no role in preventing reflux as it is too low ranging from -5 to + 5mm of Hg Ref: Sabiston 18/e, Page 1108 ; Essential of Surgery By Sunil Chumber 1/e, Page 7 ; Textbook of Surgery By S. Das 3/e, Page 790 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Carpal fusion is seen in? | [
"Apert's syndrome",
"Rheumatoid arthritis",
"Post-traumatic cases",
"All of the above"
] | D | Ans DThe most commonly involved bones are the lunate and triquetrum. Multiple carpal coalitions are often associated with other anomalies including Apert syndrome, Ellis-van Creveld syndrome, Holt-Oram syndrome, Turner's syndrome. Acquired intercarpal fusion can either be a consequence of an inflammatory arthropathy (e.g. rheumatoid arthritis, psoriatic arthritis, reactive arthritis) or injury, or due to surgical arthrodesis. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A patient made a self-diagnosis of athlete&;s foot (tinea pedis) and began using a product adveised on television. The condition improved but did not clear and then the patient showed himself to a Dermatologist. A skin was sent to the laboratory for culture, including culture for fungi. The fungal culture yielded a slow growing colony, which produced a few small microconidia. This is consistent with isolation of a dermatophyte of the genera | [
"Trichophyton",
"Microsporum",
"Epidermophyton",
"Trichosporon"
] | A | Athletes foot - caused by Trichophyton rubrum and epidermophyton floccosum. Genus trichophyton - microconidia. Genus Microsporum and epidermophyton - macroconidia. Reference: Textbook of Microbiology; Baveja; 4th edition . | train | med_mcqa | null |
Hyperglycemia occurs after what % of beta cell mass is destroyed: | [
"20%",
"40%",
"60%",
"80%"
] | D | * Type 1 diabetes mellitus is characterized by an inability to produce insulin endogenously. * Based on a series of histopathology studies, it is commonly stated that the onset of clinical symptoms corresponds to an 80-95% reduction in beta cell mass | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is the most common urethral injury? | [
"Rupture of bulbar urethra",
"Rupture of penile urethra",
"Rupture of prostatic urethra",
"Rupture of membranous urethra"
] | A | Rupture of the bulbar urethra There is a history of a blow to the perineum, usually due to a fall astride injury. The bulbar urethra is crushed upwards onto the pubic bone, typically with significant bruising. Extravasation of urine is common if the urine is not diveed and the extravasated urine is confined in front of the mid-perineal point by the attachment of Colles' fascia to the triangular ligament and by the attachment of Scarpa's fascia just below the inguinal ligament. The external spermatic fascia stops it getting into the inguinal canals. Extravasated urine collects in the scrotum and penis and beneath the deep layer of superficial fascia in the abdominal wall. CLINICAL FEATURES The signs of a ruptured bulbar urethra are perineal bruising and haematoma, typically with a butterfly distribution. There is usually bleeding from the urethral meatus and retention of urine is also typically present. MANAGEMENT If the diagnosis is suspected, the patient should be treated with appropriate analgesia and antibiotics should be administered. He should be discouraged from passing urine. A full bladder should be drained with a catheter placed by percutaneous suprapubic puncture using a Seldinger technique . This reduces urinary extravasation and allows investigations to establish the extent of the urethral injury. Diagnosis is made by urethrography using water-soluble contrast. If there is significant extravasation, then the perineal collection should be drained. The suprapubic catheter should remain in situ while the bruising and extravasation settle down and a stricture will typically develop at the site of the injury. The optimal treatment is delayed anastomotic urethroplasty after the swelling and bruising have settled down (typically 8-12 weeks later), with excision of the traumatised section and spatulated end-to-end reanastomosis of the urethra. Ref: Bailey and love 27th edition Pgno : 1479 | train | med_mcqa | null |
A child with 3 years age presents with weakness with Hb level <5 gm/100 ml. History of joint swelling and bleeding spot were present. What would be causative organism? | [
"Hook worm",
"Round worm",
"Whip worm",
"Pin worm"
] | A | Signs and Symptoms Most children with hookworm infections have no signs or symptoms. However, especially when the infection is long term, it can cause iron deficiency and anemia (low red blood cells) because of bleeding from the bowel wall where the worm is attached. Other symptoms include mild diarrhea and stomach cramps. An itchy, red skin rash (ground itch) can appear on the feet where the larvae entered the body. Lung inflammation with cough, wheezing, and fever rarely occur while the larvae migrate through the lungs. Several weeks after exposure to this hookworm, a loss of appetite and weight loss may occur. Chronic infections can lead to poor nutrition. Reference: GHAI Essential pediatrics, 8th edition | train | med_mcqa | null |
Sarcoma botryoids is a type of | [
"Rhabdomyoma",
"Rhabdomyosarcoma",
"Lymphangioma",
"Leiomyoma"
] | B | Sarcoma botryoides or botryoid sarcoma or botryoid rhabdomyosarcoma is a subtype of embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma, that can be observed in the walls of hollow, mucosa-lined structures such as the nasopharynx, common bile duct, urinary bladder of infants and young children or the vagina in females, typically younger than age 8. The name comes from the gross appearance of "grape bunches". Ref:- https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Sarcoma_botryoides | train | med_mcqa | null |
Thrombo-angitis Obliterans involves? | [
"Arteries",
"Veins",
"Nerves",
"All of above"
] | D | Ans. (d) All of aboveRef: Bailey & Love 26th ed. 1899-900* Buerger's disease is an inflammation of the arteries, veins, and nerves in the legs, principally, leading to restricted blood flow. Left untreated, Buerger's disease can lead to gangrene of the affected areas. Buerger's disease is also known as thrombo-angitis obliterans.* Early symptoms include decrease in the blood supply (arterial ischemia) and superficial (near the skin surface) phlebitis. The main symptom is pain in the affected areas. Inflammation occurs in small and medium-sized arteries and veins near the surface of the limb. The pulse in arteries of the feet is weak or undetectable. The lack of blood flow can lead to gangrene. A cold sensitivity in the hands, similar to that seen in Raynaud's disease, can develop. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The concentration of constituents in saliva depends on: | [
"Nature of stimulus.",
"Duration of the stimulus.",
"Rate of flow.",
"Differential gland contribution."
] | C | Other important factors affecting the composition of saliva are flow rate, differential gland contribution, circadian rhythm, duration of stimulus, nature of stimulus and diet.
The concentration of constituents in saliva depends only on the rate of flow and not on the nature of stimulus. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Malarial parasite was discovered by- | [
"Ronald ross",
"Paul muller",
"Laveran",
"Pampania"
] | C | Discovery of the Malaria Parasite (1880) Charles Louis Alphonse Laveran, a French army surgeon stationed in Constantine, Algeria, was the first to notice parasites in the blood of a patient suffering from malaria.
This occurred on the 6th of November 1880. For his discovery, Laveran was awarded the Nobel Prize in 1907. | train | med_mcqa | null |
What is the wavelength of UV rays used in Woods lamp? | [
"360 nM",
"460 nM",
"660 nM",
"760 nM"
] | A | Ans. A. 360nMA Wood's lamp generates 360-nm ultraviolet (or "black") light produced by a mercury vapor source passed through a nickel oxide filter that can be used to aid the evaluation of certain skin disorders. | train | med_mcqa | null |
DOC for Psoriatic ahropathy? | [
"Methotrexate",
"5FU",
"PUVA",
"Steroid"
] | A | Methotrexate is DOC for Psoriatic ahropathy Psoriatic erythroderma Methotrexate is contraindicated in pregnancy and children. DOC for: Psoriatic ahritis- Methotrexate Erythrodermic psoriasis- Methotrexate Pustular psoriasis- Acitretin > Methotrexate Impetigo herpetiformis- Systemic steroids> cyclosporine | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most commonly used blinding technique in epidemiological studies - | [
"Single blinding",
"Double blinding",
"Triple blinding",
"None of the above"
] | B | Ans. is 'b>c' i.e., Double blinding > Triple blinding Blindingo The blinding is used to prevent outcomes from being influenced by the bias. Blinding is a basic tool to prevent concious as well subconcious bias in the study.o To blind a person involved in the study (subject, investigator or observer) is to prevent them from knowing certain information about the study.TypeMethodMinimizesSingle blindingDouble blindingStudy subjects are not aware of the treatment they are receivingStudy subjects as well as investigator are not aware of the treatment study subjects are receivingSubject biasSubject bias +Investigator biasTriple blindingStudy subjects, investigator as well as analyzer are not aware of the treatment study subjects are receivingSubject bias +Investigator bias + Analyzer biasComing back to questiono Most commonly used blinding is double blinding, i.e. most of the epidemiological studies are started as double blinded. But more aften than not it becomes triple blinded as more than two people in the study are blinded - for example the statician (analyzer) performing the analysis is often blinded in addition to doctor (investigator) and patient (study subject). | train | med_mcqa | null |
Injection of hypeonic saline in which region of hypothalamus produces intense thirst: | [
"Posterior region",
"Paraventricular",
"Preoptic",
"Supraoptic"
] | C | C i.e. Preoptic | train | med_mcqa | null |
All the following are characteristic of Turner Syndrome EXCEPT | [
"Webbing of Neck",
"Cubitus valgus",
"Umbilical Hernia",
"Coarctation of Aoa"
] | C | Turner syndrome include Significant growth retardation, leading to abnormally sho stature (below the third percentile); swelling of the nape of the neck due to distended lymphatic channels (in infancy) that is seen as webbing of the neck in older children; low posterior hairline; cubitus valgus (an increase in the carrying angle of the arms); shieldlike chest with widely spaced nipples; high-arched palate; lymphedema of the hands and feet; a variety of congenital malformations such as horseshoe kidney, bicuspid aoic valve, and coarctation of the aoa. Cardiovascular abnormalities are the most common cause of death in childhood. In adolescence, affected girls fail to develop normal secondary sex characteristics; the genitalia remain infantile, breast development is minimal, little pubic hair appears. Most patients have primary amenorrhea, transformation of the ovaries into white streaks of fibrous stroma devoid of follicles. The mental status is normal Umbilical hernia is not a complication of Turner's syndrome (Robbins Basic Pathology,9th edition,pg no. 240) | train | med_mcqa | null |
GLUT responsible for secretion of insulin from beta cells of pancreas - | [
"1",
"2",
"3",
"4"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., 2 o Glucose enters the B celts of pancreatic islets via GLUT2 transporter and this stimulate the release of insulin, FunctionMajor sites of expressionSecondary active transport(Na+-glucose cotransport) o SGLT1Absorption of glucoseSmall intestine, renal tubuleso SGLT 2QAbsorption of glucoseRenal tubules QFacilitated diffusionoGLUT1Basal glucose uptakePlacenta, Blood-brain barrier, brain. RBC,Kidney, colono GLUT 2 B-cell glucose sensor Q,Transport out of intestinal and renal epithelial cellsB cells of islets, liver, epithelial cells of small intestine & Kidneyo GLUT 3Basal glucose uptakeBrain, Placenta, Kidneyo GLLT4 QInsulin-stimulating glucose uptake QSkeletal and cardiac muscle Q,Adipose tissueo GLUT 5 QFructose transport QJejunum, spermo GLUT6NonePseudogeneoGLUT7G-6-P transporter in ERLiver | train | med_mcqa | null |
A patient present with vomiting he had eaten rice 6 hour before. The most probable cause is: | [
"Bacillus cereus",
"Staph. aureus",
"Cl. difficle",
"All"
] | A | Ans. (a) Bacillus cereus This is a characteristic presentation of B.cereus food poisoning (emetic type). Bacillus cereus food poisoning Produces two type of food poisoning: a. Emetic type:- It is associated with contaminated frid rice; the organism is common in uncooked rice, and its heat-resistant spores survive boiling. It is mediated by staphylococcal type of enterotoxin. b. Diarrheal type:- Mediated by enterotoxin resembling E. coli. IP of diarrheal type is more in comparison to emetic type Diagnosis: The presence of B cereus in patient's stool is not sufficient to make a diagnosis of B cereus disease, since the bacteria may be seen in normal stool specimens; a concentration of 105 bacteria or more per gram of food is considered diagnostic. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A young male met with A, the patient is dyspnoea on auscultation breath sounds are absent on right side and has hypotension. What is immediate next step? | [
"Urgent IV fluid administration",
"Intubate the patient",
"Chest X-ray",
"Needle inseion in 5th intercostal space"
] | D | Clinical history is suggestive of diagnosis of Tension Pneumothorax Conscious + Speaking Single words Dyspnoea Tachypnea Low BP Absent breath sound on one side Management: Clinical dx with dire emergency: T/t should be never delayed for radiological confirmation. Hence, CXR is not performed. T/t of choice: Intercoastal Chest Tube inseion - 5th ICS (Triangle of Safety) in anterior axillary lines | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following statements about Paneth cells are true, EXCEPT: | [
"Rich in Zinc",
"Contain Lysozyme",
"Foamy appearance",
"Rich in Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum"
] | C | Paneth cells are granulated secretory epithelial cells present in the crypt base of small intestinal epithelium. It contains lysozyme, is rich in zinc and rough endoplasmic reticulum. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Stain not used for lipid | [
"Oil red 0",
"Congo red",
"Sudan III",
"Sudan black"
] | B | Congo red Congo red is not used in lipid staining. It is used in the staining of antyloid protein STAINING FOR LIPIDS Non polar lipids Examples Stain used * Unconjugated lipids Fatty acids Oil red 0, Sudan black, Sudan III & IV Cholesterol Filipin * Esters Cholesteryl esters Schultz Monodi and Tri-glycerides Calcium lipase * Polar lipids - Phospholipids - Glycerol bases Phosphatidylcholine Nile blue sulfate Phosphatidylserine Nile blue sulfate Phosphatidylethanol amine Plasmal reaction - Sphingosine-base Sphingomyelins Ferric hematoxylin - Glycolipids Cerebrosides PAS Sulfatides Acetone/Toluidine blue Gangliosides PAS | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is high energy phosphate bond (produce ATP on hydrolysis)a) F-6-phosphateb) Creatine phosphatec) Carbamoyl phosphated) Glucose-1 -phosphatee) Glucose-6-phosphate | [
"bc",
"c",
"ac",
"ad"
] | A | High energy compounds are:-
Phosphate compounds:- Nucleotides (ATP, GTP, UTP, UDP-glucose), creatinine phosphate, arginine phosphate, 1, 3-bisphosphoglycerate, phosphoenolpyruvate, inorganic pyrophosphate, carbamoyl phosphate, aminoacyl adenylate (aminoacyl AMP).
Sulfur compounds :- CoA derivatives (acetyl CoA, succinyl CoA, fatty acyl CoA, HMG CoA), S-adenosyl methionine (SAM), adenosine phosphosulfate. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Daily additional requirement of protein in lactation is- | [
"25 gm",
"15 gm",
"35 gm",
"50 gm"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e. 25 gm The additional requirement of protein is : pregnancy -15 gm Lactation - 25 gm | train | med_mcqa | null |
Following is transmitted as autosomal dominant disorder ? | [
"Albinism",
"Sickle cell anemia",
"Hereditary spherocytosis",
"Glycogen storage disease"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Hereditary spherocytosis | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is used for medical adrenalectomy?- | [
"Mitotane",
"Methotrexate",
"Doxorubicin",
"5-Fluorouracil"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Feature of addison's disease include all of the following except: | [
"Asthenia",
"Hyperpigmentation",
"Hypeension",
"Abdominal pain"
] | C | Answer is C (Hypeension): Addison's disease is associated with hypotension & not hypeension. 'Aerial hypotension with postural accentuation is frequent and blood pressure may be in the range of 80/50 mmHg or less' - Harrison 16th/2142 Addison's disease: Review Addison's disease or primary adrenocoical deficiency is characterized by primary inability of adrenals to elaborate sufficient quantities of adrenal coical hormones | train | med_mcqa | null |
ANCA is found in all except | [
"Wegener's granulomatosis",
"Churg-Strauss syndrome",
"Microscopic Polyangitis",
"Bacterial Vasculitis"
] | D | (D) Bacterial vasculitis # ANTI-NEUTROPHIL CYTOPLASMIC ANTIBODIES (ANCA) are antibodies directed against certain proteins in cytoplasm of neutrophils. It is of two types:(i) Cytoplasmic (c) ANCA: Refers antibodies against proteinase-3 in azurophilic granules. It is found in - weger's granulomatosis(ii) Perinuclear (p) ANCA: Refers antibodies against myeloperoxidase (major target), elastase, cathepsin G, Lactoferin, Lysozyme.# ANCA is found in: PAN, Microscopic polyangitis, Churg-Strauss syndrome, Crescentic GN, Good-pasture's syndrome Non vascular causes like rheumatic and non-rheumatic autoimmune diseases, IBD, drugs, endocarditis, bacterial infections in patient of cystic fibrosis, primary sclerosing cholangitis etc.> There are three primary diseases that are consistently associated with ANCA: Wegener's granulomatosis, microscopic polyangiitis, and glomerulonephritis. The antibodies are assumed to be involved in the generation and/or progression of lesions and clinical signs.> Classically, c-ANCA is associated with Wegener's granulomatosis; p-ANCA is associated with microscopic polyangiitis arid focal necrotizing and crescentic glomerulonephritis. However, in recent years ANCA targeted against other autoantigens have been identified.> Patients with a number of other diseases, such as ulcerative colitis and Ankylosing spondylitis, will commonly have ANCA as well.> However in these cases there is no associated vasculitis, and the ANCA are thought to be incidental or epiphenomena rather than part of the disease itself.> Churg-Strauss syndrome is associated with p-ANCA directed against MPO. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Facial nerve does not supply which structure of theface: | [
"Auricular muscle",
"Posterior belly of diagastric muscle",
"Parotid gland",
"Submandibular gland"
] | C | Parotid gland | train | med_mcqa | null |
Purkinje cells of cerebellum are connected to | [
"Basket cells",
"Stellate cells",
"Deep cerebellar nuclei",
"All of the above"
] | D | Purkinje cells are flask-shaped cells in the molecular layer of cerebellum. The entire output of the cerebellar coex is through axons of the Purkinje cells.Basket cells, stellate cells, granule cells and intracerebellar nuclei except flocculonodular lobe synapses with Purkinje cells.(Ref: vishram Singh textbook of clinical neuroanatomy second edition pg 115) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Delirium is seen in - | [
"Alcohol",
"Opium",
"Barbiturate",
"Cocaine"
] | A | Ans. is 'a* i.e., AlcoholImportant causes of deliriumTrauma : - Head injury, subdural hematomaInfection : - Septicemia, pneumonia, endocarditis.Metabolic: - Hypoxia, hypercapnia, uremia, CHF, Hepatic failure, porphyria, metabolic acidosis or alkalosis, water &. electrolyte imbalance.Endocrine : - Hypo- or hyperpituitarism, Hypo- or Hyperthyroidism, Hypo- or hyperparathyroidism, hypo- or hyperadrenalism.Drug intoxication : - Alcohol, barbiturates, TCA, anticholinergics, anticonvulsants.Drug withdrawal: - Alcohol (delirium tremens), sedatives, hypnotics.Nutritional deficiency: - Vitamin (Thiamine, pyridoxine, Niacin, B12, Folic acid), Protein,Other : - Post-operative, seizures, sleep deprivation. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A children presents with recurrent upper respiratory tract infection with mouth breathing and impairment of hearing. Treatment is | [
"Tonsillectomy",
"Grommet insertion",
"Adenoidectomy + Grommet insertion",
"Tympanoplasty"
] | C | (Adenoidectomy + Grommet insertion) (228- Dhingra 4th)* Recurrent URTI + mouth breathing and impairment of hearing reflects - diagnosis is ADENOIDSClinical featuresAetiology - Physiological enlargement* Recurrent attack of rhinitis, sinusitis or chronic tonsillitis* URTI** Nasal symptoms Aural Symptoms General Symptoms* Nasal obstruction is the commonest symptoms. This leads to mouth breathing*** Nasal discharge* Sinusitis - chronic maxillary sinusitis* Epistaxis* Voice change - toneless(i) Tubal obstruction 1/t conductive hearing loss**(ii) Recurrent attacks of Acute otitis media(iii) CSOM(iv) Serous otitis media**(1) Adenoid facies(2) Pulmonary hypertension and cor pulmonale* Adenoidectomy + Grommet insertion is treatment of choice | train | med_mcqa | null |
Human is dead end host for? | [
"Malaria",
"Typhoid",
"Bubonic plague",
"Filaria"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Bubonic plague A dead end host is an infected person from which infectious agents are not transmitted to other susceptible host or from which a parasite cannot escape to continue its life cycle. The diseases in which human acts as dead end host, i.e., dead and disease : ? Japanies encephalitis Trichinosis Bubonic plaque Echynococcosis (hydatid disease) Tetanus | train | med_mcqa | null |
True about carbuncle is all except | [
"Infective gangrene of skin and subcutaneous tissue",
"Nape of neck is common site",
"Cribriform rash is seen",
"Pseudomonas aeruginosa is common causative"
] | D | Staphylococcus aureus is main cause of carbuncle. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Multidrug therapy is given for | [
"Syphilis",
"Leprosy",
"Herpetiformis",
"Icthyosis Vulgaris"
] | B | B i.e. Leprosy | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following marked structure is Caudate nucleus? | [
"A",
"B",
"C",
"D"
] | B | Labeling of image: A - Cingulate gyrus B - Caudate nucleus C - Sub thalamic nuclei D - Internal capsule E - Fornix Note: In Huntington disease, there is massive loss of neurons in the head of the caudate resulting in hydrocephalus ex vacuo. The caudate and the putamen together forms the striatum, pa of the basal nuclei. The globus pallidus and subthalamic nucleus are also basal nuclei | train | med_mcqa | null |
Nucleic acids absorb UV light maximally at the wavelength of | [
"260nm",
"280 nm",
"410 nm",
"320 nm"
] | A | Nucleic acids absorb UV light maximally at the wavelength of 260 nm 260/280 ratio of pure DNA/RNA is in the range of 1.8 to 2. Amino acids absorb U.V light (not visible light)- colorless. Aromatic amino acids absorb U.V light at 250-290 nm (maximum absorption is at 280nm) because of conjugated double bonds. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 55-year-old hypeensive female presented with left sided weakness along with left sided homonymous hemianopsia. The symptoms have developed slowly over the past few years. MRI BRAIN The lesion affects a structure which causes weakness. Which nuclei are most closely related to this structure: - Red nucleus Dentate nucleus Substantia nigra Superior olivary nucleus | [
"1 and 2",
"1 and 3",
"1, 2 and 3",
"All of the above"
] | B | This is a case of optic tract lesion causing homonymous hemianopia. MRI image shows optic tract lesion on right side going and involving the crus cerebri which is leading to the left sided weakness. The crus cerebri is closely related to the red nucleus and the substantia nigra at the level of mid brain. Dentate nucleus is present in the cerebellum. Superior olivary nucleus is present at the level of medulla. SECTION OF MID BRAIN AT THE LEVEL OF THE INFERIOR COLLICULUS NOTICE THE CLOSE RELATION OF THE OPTIC TRACT WITH THE CRUS CEREBRI | train | med_mcqa | null |
Corpus luteum in pregnancy is maintained by which hormone | [
"Progesterone",
"Oestrogen",
"LH",
"FSH"
] | C | In mammals, an endocrine gland that develops in the ovary at the site of the Graafian follicle after rupture of the follicle wall and discharge of the ovum (ovulation); it consists of altered follicular (so-called lutein) cells. If pregnancy does not follow ovulation, the corpus luteum degenerates within one or two weeks (periodic, or menstrual, corpus luteum); if, however, the ovum is feilized and pregnancy begins, the corpus luteum grows very rapidly (corpus luteum of pregnancy) and is retained throughout the greater pa of pregnancy, secreting the hormone progesterone, which is necessary for the maintenance and development of the pregnancy.Ref: Ganong&;s review of medical physiology; 24th edition; page no:-401 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Transpo of glucose from the lumen to the mucosal cell is dependent on the diffusion of | [
"K+",
"HCO3",
"Na+",
"Proteins"
] | C | Glucose and galactose are absorbed by a sodium-dependent process. They are carried by the same transpo protein (SGLT 1)The SGLT 1 transpoer is coupled to the Na+-K+ pump, allowing glucose and galactose to be transpoed against their concentration gradients.Harper 30th edition Pg:538 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following imaging modality is most sensitive to detect early renal tuberculosis – | [
"Intravenous urography",
"Ultrasound",
"Computed tomography",
"Magnetic resonance imaging"
] | A | Essentially, early findings are best detected on IVP while USG and CT are useful for late or chronic changes. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Rorschach inkblot test is : | [
"Projective",
"Subjective",
"Both",
"None"
] | A | A i.e. Projection | train | med_mcqa | null |
Blunt trauma abdomen maximum injury is to : | [
"Proximal ileum",
"Proximal jejunum",
"Midilium",
"All"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e. Proximal jejunum | train | med_mcqa | null |
Maximum amount of flouride is absorbed by: | [
"Enamel",
"Dentin",
"Cementum",
"Pulp"
] | C | Enamel 2200 – 3300 ppm
Dentin 200 – 300 ppm
Cementum 4400 ppm
Pulp is 100 – 650 ppm | train | med_mcqa | null |
In iron deficiency anemia, which of the following are seen in peripheral blood smear? | [
"|TIBC, |Ferritin",
"|TIBC, |Ferritin",
"|TIBC, |Ferritin",
"|TIBC, |Ferritin"
] | B | |TIBC, |Ferritin "A low serum iron & Ferritin with an elevated total iron binding capacity (TIBC) are diagnostic of iron deficiency." Iron deficiency anemia: * Iron deficiency is the single most prevalent deficiency state in the world. * An adult male absorbs & loses about l mg of iron from a diet containing 10-20 mg of iron daily. * During child bearing years, an adult female loses an average of 2 mg of iron daily & must absorb a similar quantity of iron in order to maintain equilibrium. * Growing children must obtain approx. 0.5 mg more iron daily. Plummer Vinson syndrome: * Is one of the manifestations of iron deficiency anemia. * It was described under the term "Hysterical Dysphagia" * This condition predisposes to development of carcinoma in the upper alimentary canal. * It is thought that the depletion of iron dependent oxidative enzymes may produce myasthenic changes in the muscles involved in swallowing mechanism, atrophy of the esophageal mucosa, & formation of webs as mucosal complications. Clinical manifestations: * Plummer Vinson syndrome occurs chiefly in females of 4th -5th decade of life. * Presenting symptoms of anemia & the syndrome are cracks, or fissures at the corner of the mouth (angular chielitis), a lemon tinted pallor of the skin. * A smooth, red painful tongue with atrophy of Filliform & later fungiform papillae. * There is dysphagia limited to solid foods, resulting from an esophageal stricture or web. * Koilonychia (spoon shaped fingernails) or nails that are brittle & break easily have been repoed in many patients. * Splenomegaly has also been repoed in 20-30% patients. Treatment: It responds well to iron therapy & a high protein diet. | train | med_mcqa | null |
It is true that sarcoma - a) Are malignant tumours of mesenchyme origin b) Usualy spread by vascular invasion c) Metastasise frequently to regional lymph node d) Are only loosely invasive | [
"ab",
"bc",
"cd",
"ac"
] | A | Pathways of metastasis
Distant metastasis of cancers may occur through one of three pathways.
1. Direct seeding of body cavities or surface
It occurs when a malignant neoplasm penetrates into a natural open field.
Most common cavity involved is peritoneal cavity, but other cavities may also be involved, e.g., pleural, pericardial, joint space, subarachnoid.
Such seeding is particularly characteristic of carcinomas arising in the ovaries.
Sometimes mucus secreting tumor of appendix (or less commonly ovary) fill the peritoneal cavity with a gelatinous neoplastic mass referred to as pseudomyxoma peritonei.
2. Lymphatic spread
This is the most common method of metastasis for carcinomas.
Sarcoma may also use this route.
As tumors do not have lymphatics, this type of spread takes place through the lymphatic vessels located at the tumor margins.
The pattern of lymph node involvement follows the natural routes of lymphatic drainage.
The first node in a regional lymphatics that receives lymph flow from the primary tumor is called sentinel lymphnode.
Some times local lymph nodes may be bypassed because of venous lymphatic anastomosis skip metastasis.
3. Hematogenous spread
It is typical of sarcomas but is also seen in carcinomas.
Veins are more commonly involved than arteries because veins have thinner walls that can be penetrated readily, in contrast arteries have thicker walls.
With venous invasion, the tumor cells in blood follow the venous flow draining the site of neoplasm.
So, liver and lung are the most frequent organs involved in hematogenous spread because all portal area drainage flows to the liver and all caval blood flows to the lung.
Arterial spread may occur when tumor cells pass through the pulmonary capillary beds or pulmonary A-V shunts or when pulmonary metastasis give rise to additional tumor emboli. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Pharmacovigilance is used for- | [
"To monitor drug toxicity",
"To monitor unauthorized drug manufacture",
"Monitoring of students",
"Check costs"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., To monitor drug toxicity Pharmacovigilanceo Pharmacovigilance is the science and activities relating to detection, assessment, understanding and prevention of adverse effects or any other drug related problem. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Colour of teeth stained by tetracycline appear _______ under UV light | [
"Red",
"Green",
"Yellow",
"Brown"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
If the cemental overgrowth improves the functional quality of cementum, known as: | [
"Cemental hypertrophy",
"Cemental hypoplasia",
"Cemental hyperplasia",
"None"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Pulsus alternans occurs in | [
"Constrictive pericarditis",
"Viral myocarditis",
"Hypokalemia",
"MI"
] | D | Ans. Answer is D (MI) Pulsus alternans indicates severe impairment in LV function and may be seen in conditions causing severe LV dysfunction such as Myocardial Infarction Pulsus Alternans Pulsus alterans is charachterized by regular alteration of the pressure pulse amplitude despite a regular rhythm It is defined by beat to beat variation of the pulse amplitude but with a single peak and independent of the respiratory cycle. In pulsus bigeminus there is also a regular beat to beat variation but it is caused by a premature ventricular contraction that follows each regular beat. Pulsus alterans is charachteristically seen in Left ventricular failure and conditions causes LVF ( including MI) Causes of Pulsus Alternans 1. In patients with Hea Disease Left ventricular Failure and conditions causing LVF Presence of pulsus alterans usually indicates severe impairment of LV function. 2. In patients without Hea Diesease During or following paroxysmal tachycardia For several beats following a premature beat | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which among the following is the most common cause of stroke associated with moality? | [
"Embolic",
"Thrombotic",
"Hemorrhagic",
"Absess"
] | A | Strokes are classified as either hemorrhagic or ischemic. Acute ischemic stroke refers to stroke caused by thrombosis or embolism and is more common than hemorrhagic stroke. Cardiogenic emboli are a common source of recurrent stroke. They may account for up to 20% of acute strokes and have been repoed to have the highest 1- month moality. Thrombotic strokes are caused by in situ occlusions on atherosclerotic lesions in the carotid, veebrobasilar, and cerebral aeries, typically proximal to major branches. Embolus from the hea is a usual cause of stroke in people with hea disease. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Primary hyperoxaluria is caused by defective metabolism of: | [
"Alanine",
"Arginine",
"Glycine",
"All of the above"
] | C | In nonketotic hyperglycinemia, a rare inborn error of glycine degradation presently known only in Finland, glycine accumulates in all body tissues including the central nervous system. The defect in primary hyperoxaluria is the failure to catabolize glyoxylate formed by the deamination of glycine. Subsequent oxidation of glyoxylate to oxalate results in urolithiasis, nephrocalcinosis, and early moality from renal failure or hypeension. Glycinuria results from a defect in renal tubular reabsorption. Ref: Harper 28th edition, chapter 29. | train | med_mcqa | null |
What is the shown abnormality in shape is called? | [
"Megalodontia",
"Globodontia",
"Acrodontia",
"None of the above"
] | B | Globodontia can be seen in primary and permanent dentition.
Canine and molars becomes larger, but no effect on incisors. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All are true about vitamin E except | [
"Act as antioxidant",
"Prevent lipd peroxidation of cell membrane",
"Water soluble vitamin",
"Chemically tocopheral"
] | C | The E vitamins consist of eight naturally occurring tocopherols, of which a-tocopherol is the most active (Figure 28.28). The primary function of vitamin E is as an antioxidant in prevention of the nonenzymic oxidation of cell components, for example, polyunsaturated fatty acids, by molecular oxygen and free radicals. A. Distribution and requirements of vitamin E Vegetable oils are rich sources of vitamin E, whereas liver and eggs contain moderate.Deficiency of vitamin E Vitamin E deficiency is almost entirely restricted to premature infants. When observed in adults, it is usually associated with defective lipid absorption or transpo. The signs of human vitamin E deficiency include sensitivity of erythrocytes to peroxide and the appearance of abnormal cellular membranes. Ref: Lippincott, 5th edition, page no: 391 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Comment on the first differential diagnosis of the CXR of a 50-year-old patient with cough for 2 weeks. | [
"Round pneumonia",
"Lung abscess",
"Asbestosis coin lesion",
"Pulmonary hamaoma"
] | A | Given X ray suggests diagnosis of round pneumonia- caused by Pneumococcus Lung abscess - air fluid level with pus settling at the bottom Asbestosis coin lesion - present with occupational history. Pulmonary Hamaoma - popcorn appearance on CXR | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is an example of feedforward mechanism? | [
"Increase blood pressure during supine posture",
"Salivation on smelling food",
"Shivering on exposure to cold environment",
"None of the above"
] | C | Ans. (c) Shivering on exposure to cold environmentRef: Ganongs Review of Medical Physiology 25th Ed; Page No- 249* Thermoreceptors are located within the body (central Thermoreceptors) as well as in the skin surface (peripheral thermoreceptor).* Thermoreceptors within body function as conventional feedback sensor. If the CORE body temperature drops back to 37degC set point.* In contrast, thermoreceptors in the skin function as feed-forward sensor. How? Decreases in environmental temperature are rapidly sensed by skin thermoreceptors, and compensatory thermoregulatory responses are initiated before there is any appreciable fall in CORE body temperature.* Other example of feed-forward system:# Increased Heart rate and respiratory rate even before the start of exercise due to psychic stimulation.# Some rapid movement of body parts occurs so rapidly that there is not enough time for feedback control (slow). Thus brain controls these movements by feed-forward system.Extra MileThermoreceptorsReceptorsNerve fibers typeDetectsCool receptorsAdSkin cooling (<25degC)Warm receptorsCSkin warming (>35degC)Heat nociceptorsAdHot temperature (>45degC)Cold nociceptorsCCold temperature (<5degC) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Masseter is supplied by nerve | [
"Mandibular",
"Facial",
"Glossopharyngeal",
"Hypoglossal"
] | A | The mandibular nerve The mandibular nerve leaves the inferior margin of the trigeminal ganglion & leaves the skull through the foramen ovale. The motor root of the trigeminal nerve also passes through the foramen ovale & unites with the sensory component of the mandibular nerve (V3) outside the skull. Thus, the V3 is the only division of the trigeminal nerve that contains a motor component. Outside the Skull- The motor fiber innervates the four muscles of mastication. | Temporalis, masseter, medial pterygoids, lateral pterygoids As well as - Tensor tympani muscle, tensor veli palatini muscle, the anterior belly of digastric & the mylohyoid muscle. Sensory pa of V3:- receives sensory fibers from. -The skin of lower face, cheek, lower lip, anterior pa of external ear, pa of external acoustic meatus & temporal region etc. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A child with parasymphysis fracture with no mobility and does not involve teeth is managed by | [
"Circum-manidbular wiring with cap splint",
"IMF",
"Diet restriction and observation for 2-3 weeks",
"Open reduction"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
In which the following head and neck cancers, is lymph node metastasis least common | [
"Tongue",
"Buccal mucosa",
"Hard palate",
"Lower alveolus"
] | C | LN metastasis is most common in : CA tongue >Floor of mouth > Lower alvealus >Buccal mucosa > Upper Alveolus > Hard palate > lip Ref: Bailey and love 27th edition Pgno : 764-765, | train | med_mcqa | null |
Global removal of disease agent refers to | [
"Disease control",
"Disease elimination",
"Disease eradication",
"Prevent disease"
] | C | Disease control : Is decrease in incidence of disease, so that it is no more public health problem.
Disease elimination : Complete reduction in incidence of disease in defined geographical area, but organism persists.
Disease Eradication : Global removal of organism. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which is not true regarding Zona pellucida ? | [
"Surrounds morula",
"Acellular",
"Acetylcholine is the barrier",
"Surrounds the ovum"
] | C | he zona pellucida (ZP) is a specialized extracellular matrix surrounding the developing oocyte (egg, ovum) within each follicle within the ovary. This thick matrix is thought to be formed by secretions from the oocyte and the follicle granulosa cells and in human oocytes consists of four types of zona pellucida glycoproteins ZP1, ZP2, ZP3and ZP4 which have different roles in feilization. The zona pellucid has many different roles including in oocyte development, protection during growth and transpo, feilization , spermatozoa binding, preventing polyspermy , blastocyst development, and preventing premature implantation . REF - pubmed.com | train | med_mcqa | null |
During a routine screening mammography, a 62-year-old teacher is informed that she has changes on her mammography, and she should consult her physician. She can be reassured that the findings that indicate a benign condition are which of the following? | [
"Discrete, stellate mass",
"Fine, clustered calcifications",
"Coarse calcifications",
"Solid, clearly defined mass with irregular edges"
] | C | Coarse calicfications are usually benign. Fine, clustered califications are often milignant and require biopsy. Solid tumors of the breast, especially those that have increased in size or have changed in appearance, are suspicious for carcinoma and require biopsy. | train | med_mcqa | null |
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