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The Iodine is transpoed into the thyroid gland by: | [
"Active transpo",
"Simple diffusion",
"Pinocytosis",
"Receptor-mediated endocytosis"
] | A | The active transpo system by which iodine is taken up by the thyroid gland is called the "iodide trap". Its effectiveness is sometimes assessed by thyroid: serum ratio (T/S) of iodine concentration. Normally, T/S ratio is about 30. The sodium-iodide sympoer (NIS) is located on the basal aspect of the follicular cell membrane. This sympoer uses Na+ gradient across the membrane to transpo 1 iodide along with 2 Na+ into the cytosol of the follicular cell. It is a secondary active transpo; Na+-K+-ATPase would be required to pump Na+ out of the cell and maintain the Na+ | train | med_mcqa | null |
Commonest cause of ureteric injury during surgical operation in: | [
"Abdominal",
"Prostectomy",
"Hysterectomy",
"Colectomy"
] | C | (Hysterectomy): Ref: 1312-LB, 2275-SB (1292-B & L 25th)Ureteric injury during operations* The most common cause of injury to the ureter is surgical trauma during hysterectomy or other pelvic surgery* Preoperative catheterization of the ureter makes them easier to identify during surgery* Injuries discovered at the time of surgery should be repaired immediatelyMethods for repairing a damaged ureter* If there is no loss of length - Spatulation and end to end anastomosis without tension* If there is little loss of length - Mobilise kidney, psoas hitch of bladder Boari operation* If there is marked loss of length - Transureterostomy- Interposition of isolated bowel loop or mobilized appendix- Nephrectomy* Injuries to the lower third of the ureter - procedure of choice is reimplantation in to the bladder combined with psoas - hitch procedure to minimize tension on the ureteral anastomosis* Midureteral injuries - can be managed with primary ureteroureterostomy, if there is not a significant loss of viable ureter between the proximal and distal sites of injury, other wise transureteroureterostomy is a good option.* Upper ureteral injuries: - are best managed by primary uretero ureterostomy. If there is extensive loss of the ureter, autotransplantation of the kidney and transposition of bowel to replace the ureter are potential surgical options. | train | med_mcqa | null |
True about Conn's syndrome | [
"TK+",
"Proximal myopathy",
"Ted plasma rennin activity",
"Edema"
] | B | Answer is B (Proximal myopathy): Conn syndrome is associated with hypokalenzia and muscle weakness (proximal myopathy) Patients with Conn's syndrome characteristically do not have edema, and Plasma rennin activity is typically low (decreased). | train | med_mcqa | null |
Diagnosis | [
"Congenital melanocytic nevus",
"Junctional",
"Nevus of Ito",
"Nevus of Ota"
] | D | The image is suggestive of "Nevus of Ota" which is a dermal melanocytic nevus seen in maxillary and ophthalmic nerve distribution.
It is usually unilateral and often associated with blue sclera and conjuctiva. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Hounsfield unit is zero for which of the following? | [
"Air",
"Water",
"Fat",
"Dense bone"
] | B | Hounsfield units are used to measure the X ray attenuation in CT scan. Depends on absorption/attenuation coefficient. Water is assigned a HU value of 0. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following management procedures of acute upper gastrointestinal bleed should possibly be avoided? | [
"Intravenous vasopressin",
"Intravenous beta-blockers",
"Endoscopic sclerotherapy",
"Balloon tamponade"
] | B | Ans. (b) Intravenous beta-blockersRef: Sabiston 20th Edition, Page 1142* Betablockers have no role in active variceal bleed.* They are used only in prevention of re-bleeding in Esophageal varices | train | med_mcqa | null |
All are true about Reye's Syndrome Except : | [
"Hepatic encephalopathy",
"Seen with ampicillin therapy",
"Fever and rash",
"Viral associated"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Calcium channel blocker with maximum effect on conduction in the heart is: | [
"Nifedipine.",
"Verapamil.",
"Diltiazem.",
"Phenylamine."
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
A tick borne fever, where organism attacks RBC's | [
"Typhus",
"Babesiosis",
"Dengue",
"Malaria"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
True about psychotic feature in depression -a) Found in severe depressionb) Found in moderate depressionc) Mood incongruent psychotic featured) Cyclothymiae) Dysthymia | [
"ac",
"bc",
"ad",
"b"
] | A | Psychotic depression (psychotic features in depression) occurs later in life (old age) and is associated with severe depression. Psychotic symptoms may be mood congruent (e.g. nihilistic delusion) or mood incongruent (e.g. delusion of control). | train | med_mcqa | null |
Supposititious child is: March 2013 (d, h) | [
"Illegitimate child",
"Fictitious child",
"Battered child",
"Posthumous child"
] | B | Ans. B i.e. Fictitious child Supposititious children are fraudulent offspring. These arose when an heir was required and so a suitable baby might be procured and passed off as genuine. | train | med_mcqa | null |
As per the Central Bih and Death Registration act, a bih should be registered within: | [
"7 days",
"10 days",
"14 days",
"21 days"
] | D | been changed as per "THE REGISTRATION OF BIHS AND DEATHS(AMENDMENT) BILL, 2012 A BILL fuher to amend the Registration of Bihs and Deaths Act, 1969" Ref: Park, 21st Edition, Page 779 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Post prandial utilization of glucose is done by which enzyme: | [
"Fructokinase",
"Glucokinase",
"Hexokinase",
"All of above"
] | B | Post prandial (fed state) utilization of glucose, it is done by Glucokinase enzyme. In other words, The main enzyme which works on glucose after a meal is glucokinase as glucose is present in abundance under this condition. Hexokinase due to its low Km and High affinity for glucose can work even if glucose concentration are low such as fasting condition. But glucokinase cannot work in fasting due to high Km for glucose. Hexokinase Glucokinase Phosphorylates all hexoses Phospharylates only glucose Present in all cells Present in liver and pancreas (GLUT-2) High affinity Low affinity less required more required active in fasting state active in fed state low km high km low Vmax high Vmax Feedback inhibition by glucose-6-phosphate Induced by Insulin | train | med_mcqa | null |
Absolute contraindication of IUCD is | [
"Endometriosis",
"Pelvic tuberculosis",
"Dysmenorrhea",
"Iron deficiency anemia"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Procoagulant factors produced by endothelial cells include | [
"Thrombomodulin",
"Prostacyclin",
"Von Willebrand factor",
"von Willebrand factor"
] | C | The three main components of hemostasis include endothelial cells, platelets, and the coagulation system. Endothelial cells exhibit both procoagulant and anticoagulant properties. Their procoagulant activities involve activation of the extrinsic coagulation cascade by their production of tissue factor (thromboplastin) and stimulation of platelet aggregation by their production of von Willebrand factor and platelet-activating factor. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Rx of dendritic ulcer –a) Acyclovirb) Ganciclovirc) Idoxuridine.d) vidarabinee) Trichophyton cains | [
"ac",
"a",
"abcde",
"bc"
] | C | Antivirals used for HSV keratitis are Acyclovir, Ganciclovir, Triflurothymidine, vidarabine, Idoxuridine. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is not true regarding trabeculoplasty? | [
"Argon laser is used",
"Effect comes in few weeks",
"Useful in inflammatory glaucoma",
"Transient rise in Intra ocular pressure can be seen as complication"
] | C | Trabeculoplasty is not useful in inflammatory glaucoma. Trabeculoplasty Procedure of choice for treatment of open angle glaucoma. Indications Open angle glaucoma Pseudoexfoliative glaucoma Pigmentary glaucoma Argon laser is used for argon laser trabeculoplasty. Complications Transient rise of intraocular pressure. Transient inflammation. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 42 year old female has palpable purpura with rash over buttocks, pain in abdomen, and arthropathy diagnosis is - | [
"Sweet syndrome",
"HSP",
"Purpura fulminans",
"Meningococcemia"
] | B | Typical HSP Henoch Schonlein Purpura (HSP) rash: | train | med_mcqa | null |
Phantom limb sensations are best described by | [
"Weber Fechner law",
"Power law",
"Bell-Magendie law",
"Law of projection"
] | D | Weber Fechner law - "Magnitude of sensation felt is proportionate to the log of the intensity of the stimulus"
Bell Magentic law - In the spinal cord - dorsal roots are sensory and ventral roots are motor
Law of projection - Describe phantom limb sensation | train | med_mcqa | null |
Elevated levels of somatostatin is a pathologic condition associated with which of the blood hormone levels. | [
"High prolactin (PRL)",
"High TSH",
"High cortisol",
"Low growth hormone (GH)"
] | D | Gut hormones (for a full listing, see Table I below)a. Gastrin from the gastric antrum and the duodenum stimulates gastric acid and pepsin secretion.b. Cholecystokinin from the duodenum and jejunum stimulates the contraction of the gallbladder and the secretion of pancreatic enzymes.c. Secretin from the duodenum and jejunum stimulates the secretion of bicarbonate by the pancreas.d. Ghrelin from the central nervous system, stomach, small intestine, and colon stimulates GH release under fasting conditions.e. Gastric inhibitory polypeptide (GIP) from the small bowel enhances insulin release and inhibits the secretion of gastric acid.f. Glucagon-like peptide 1 (GLP-1) from the neuroendocrine cells in the ileum, colon, and central nervous system enhances glucose disposal after meals by inhibiting glucagon secretion and stimulating insulin secretion. The actions of GIP and GLP-1 relevant to glucose control are summarized in Table II and Figure below.g. Vasoactive intestinal polypeptide from the pancreas relaxes smooth muscles and stimulates bicarbonate secretion by the pancreas.h. Somatostatin from the central nervous system, pancreatic d cells, and enteroendocrine d cells inhibits the secretion of insulin and glucagon from the pancreas; inhibits the release of gastrin, secretin, and GLP-1 from the gut; and reduces carbohydrate absorption from the gut lumen.Somatostatin, produced by the hypothalamus, inhibits growth hormone production and secretion by the anterior pituitary. Somatostatin will also reduce the secretion of TSH, insulin, and glucagon.Table I: Gastrointestinal-Derived Hormones That Affect Fuel Metabolism DirectlyHormonePrimary Cell/Tissue of OriginActionsSecretary Stimuli {and Inhibitors)AmylinPancreatic b cell, endocrine cells of stomach and small intestine1. Inhibits arginine-stimulated and postprandial glucagon secretion2. Inhibits insulin secretionCosecreted with insulin in response to oral nutrientsCalcitonin gene-related peptideEnteric neurons and enteroendocrine cells of the rectumInhibits insulin secretionOral glucose intake and gastric acid secretionGalaninNervous system, pituitary, neurons of gut, pancreas, thyroid, and adrenal glandInhibits the secretion of insulin, somatostatin, enteroglucagon, pancreatic polypeptide, and othersIntestinal distensionGastric inhibitory polypeptide/glucase-dependent Insulinatroprc polypeptide (GIP)Neuroendocrine K cells of duodenum and proximal jejunum1. Increases insulin release via an "incretin" effect2. Regulates glucose and lipid metabolismOral nutrient ingestion, especially long-chain fatty acidsGastrin-releasing peptide (GRP)Enteric nervous system and pancreasStimulates the release of cholecystokinin; GIP, gastrin, glucagon, GLP-I, GLP-2, and somatostatin GhrelinCentral nervous system, stomach, small intestine, and colonStimulates GH releaseFastingGlucagonPancreatic a cell, central nervous systemPrimary counterregulatory hormone that restores glucose levels in hypoglycemic state (increases glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis as well as protein-lipid flux in liver and muscle)Neural and humoral factors released in response tohypoglycemiaGlucagon-like peptide 1 (GLP-1)Enteroendocrine L cells in ileum, colon, and central nervous system1. Enhances glucose disposal after meals by inhibiting glucagon secretion and stimulating insulin secretion2. Acts through second messengers in b cells to increase the sensitivity of these cells to glucose (an incretin)1. Oral nutrient ingestion2. Vagus nerve3. GRP and GIP4. Somatostatin inhibits secretionGlucagon-like peptide 2 (GLP-2)Same as for GLP-1Stimulates intestinal hexose transportSame as GLP-1Neuropeptide YCentral and peripheral nervous system, pancreatic islet cellsInhibits glucose-stimulated insulin secretionOral nutrient ingestion and activation of sympathetic nervous systemNeurotensin (NT)Small intestine N cells (especially ileum), enteric nervous system, adrenal gland, pancreasIn brain, modulates dopamine neurotransmission and anterior pituitary secretions1. Luminal lipid nutrients2. GRP3. Somatostatin inhibits secretionPituitary adenylate cyclase-activating peptide (PACAP)Brain, lung, and enteric nervous systemStimulates insulin and catecholamine releaseActivation of central nervous systemSomatostatinCentral nervous system, pancreatic d cells, and enteroendocrine 5 cells1. Inhibits secretion of insulin, glucagon and PP (islets), and gastrin, secretin, GLP-1, and GLP-2 (in gut)2. Reduces carbohydrate absorption from gut lumen1. Luminal nutrients2. GLP-33. GIP4. PACAP5. VIP6. b-Adrenergic stimulationVasoactive intestinal peptide (VIP)Widely expressed in the central and peripheral nervous systemsMay regulate the release of Insulin and pancreatic glucagon1. Mechanical stimulation of gut2. Activation of central and peripheral nervous systemsTable II: Actions of GLP-1 and GIP Relevant to Glucose Control GLP-1GIPPancreasStimulates glucose-dependent insulin release++Increase insulin biosynthesis++Inhibits glucagon secretion+-Stimulates somatostatin secretion+-Induces b-cell proliferation++Inhibits p-cell apoptosis++Gastrointestinal tractInhibits gastric emptying+-Inhibits gastric acid secretion++Central nervous systemInhibits food and water intake+-Promotes satiety and weight loss+-Cardiovascular systemImproves cardiovascular function after ischemia+-Adipose tissueInsulin-like lipogenic actions-+Lipid storage-+ The actions of selected peptides on vital tissues involved in glucose homeostasis. Both GLP-1 and GIP increase insulin secretion and b-cell survival. GLP-1 has additional actions related to glucose metabolism. In contrast, gastrin and CCK do not acutely regulate plasma glucose levels, but appear to increase b-cell proliferation. CCK, cholecystokinin; GIP, gastric inhibitory polypeptide; GLP-1, glucagon-like peptide 1. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Treatment for unipolar depression is ? | [
"Fluoxetine",
"Sealine",
"Citaloprom",
"All of the above"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e., All of the above All the given drugs are SSRI antidepressants. Antidepressants Typical a. Tricyclic antidepressants NA + 5HT reuptake inhibitors:- Imipramine, Trimipramine, Amitriptyline, Clomipramine. Predominantly NA reuptake inhibitors:- Desipramine, Noriptyline, Amoxapine, Reboxetine. b. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors:- Fluoxetine, Paroxetine, Sealine, Citalopram, Scitalopram. B. Atypical :- Trazodone, Mianserine, Mitrazapine, Venalafaxin, Duloxetine, Tianeptine, Amineptine, Bupropion. C. MAO inhibitors :- Tranylcypramine, Meclobemide, Clorgyline | train | med_mcqa | null |
A young man with blurring of vision in right eye, followed by left eye after 3 months, Showing disc hyperemia, edema, circumpapillary telangiectasia with normal pupillary response with centrocecal scotoma on perimetery, the cause is | [
"Optic atrophy",
"Optic neuritis",
"Toxic optic neuropathy",
"Leber's optic neuropathy"
] | D | Disc hyperemia, periperillary telangiectasia clearly s/o leber's optic neuropathy. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 32 year old man is Stable 1 year Post - kidney transplant . Which of the following Complications of Transplantation is the most likely cause of death | [
"Atherosclerosis",
"Opportunistic infection",
"Lymphoma",
"Persistent hyperparathyroidism"
] | A | m/c Cause of death is Cardiovascular. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Drugs which cause fetal renal anomalies are : a) Enalapril b) Frusemide c) Angiotensin receptor blocker d) Amlodipine e) Phenytoin | [
"b",
"ac",
"cd",
"bd"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Enzyme papain is used? | [
"To decrease intestinal gas produced during digestive process",
"As Anti helminthic",
"To treat Herpes zoster",
"To treat infected wounds in nucleus pulposus"
] | A | ANSWER: (A) To decrease intestinal gas produced during digestive processREF: KDT 6th ed page 649, Katzung 12th ed pagePapain It is a proteolytic enzyme obtained from raw papaya. It is used as digestant. Its efficacy after oral ingestion is doubtful | train | med_mcqa | null |
Skull base fracture is associated with all of the following except: | [
"Racoon eyes",
"Hemiparesis",
"CSF Rhino-otorrhea",
"Battle sign"
] | B | Anterior cranial fossa fracture Middle cranial fossa fracture Posterior cranial fossa fracture MC type of skull base fracture Caused by fracture of cribriform plate Clinical features: Subconjunctival hematoma CSF rhinorrhea Epistaxis Anosmia Periorbital hematoma or "Raccoon eyes" Carotico cavernous fistula Frontal lobe contusion Caused by fracture of petrous pa of temporal bone. Clinical features: CSF otorrhea Paradoxical rhinorrhea Hemotympanum Battle sign: Bruising or ecchymosis behind ear Ossicular disruption VII & VIII cranial nerve palsies Temporal lobe contusion Caused by fracture of occipital bone. Clinical features Visual disturbances VI cranial nerve injury Jugular foramen syndrome (Vernet syndrome): paresis of IX, X, XI cranial nerves Basilar aery injury Occipital contusion | train | med_mcqa | null |
For which of the following sampling, a Design effect is used? | [
"Simple random sampling",
"Systematic random sampling",
"Cluster random sampling",
"Stratified random sampling"
] | C | DESIGN EFFECT
Definition: Adjustment used in few study/sampling designs to allow for design structure, especially to allow for correlations among cluster of observations
Uses:
– Cluster randomised trials
– Cluster random sampling
– Multistage sampling
– Health facility cluster survey | train | med_mcqa | null |
Gancyclovir is used intravitreallyfor treatment of- | [
"Influenza",
"Rhinovirus",
"HZV",
"CMV retinitis"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e,, CMV retinitis o Some drugs which are used intravitrealfy areBevacizumab : inhibits VEGF action; used in metastatic colorectal cancer; off label use as intravitreous injection to slow progression of neovascular macular degeneration.Foscarnet: CMV retinitis.Gattcyclovir : CMV retinitis.Ranibizumab : slow macular degeneration.Pegaptanib : neovascular age related macular degeneration. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Splenomegaly may be a feature of:March 2013 | [
"Megaloblastic anemia",
"Sickle cell anemia",
"Thalassemia",
"G6PD deficiency"
] | B | Ans. B i.e. Sickle cell anemiaSplenomegalySplenomegaly refers strictly to spleen enlargement, and is distinct from hyperspineism , which connotes overactive function by a spleen of any size.Splenomegaly and hypersplenism should not be confused. Each may be found separately, or they may coexist.Clinically if a spleen is palpable, it means it is enlarged as it has to undergo enlargement by at least two folds to become palpable. However, the tip of the spleen may be palpable in a newborn baby up to 3 months of ageEarly sickle cell anemia may present with splenomegaly | train | med_mcqa | null |
Group of lymph node involved in breast carcinoma are all of the following except: March 2005 | [
"Supraclavicular",
"Pretracheal",
"Axillary",
"Internal mammary"
] | B | Ans. B: Pretracheal Lymphatic metastasis occurs primarily to the axillary and the internal mammary lymph nodes. Tumours in the posterior one-third of the breast are more likely to drain into the internal mammary lymph nodes. Involvement of supraclavicular nodes and any of the contralateral lymph nodes represent advance disease. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Direct endothelial injury to the venules, capillaries and arterioles, as a mechanism of increased vascular permeability in inflammatory process is | [
"Immediate transient response",
"Immediate sustained response",
"Endothelial cell retraction",
"None of the above"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
The active ingredient present in Tartar control tooth paste is: | [
"Pyrophosphate",
"Metaphosphate",
"Carboxy methyl",
"Bi-carbonate"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Bennett's fracture is fracture dislocation of base of metacarpal : | [
"4th",
"3rd",
"2nd",
"1st"
] | D | Benett's fracture is an intra - articular fracture dislocation of the palmar base of first metacarpal bone of the thumb with either subluxation or dislocation of first carpometacarpal joint, i.e. trapezometacarpal joint. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The parameters of sensitivity and specificity are used for assessing- | [
"Criterion validity",
"Construct validity",
"Discriminant validity",
"Content validity"
] | A | - validity refers to what extent the test accurately measures which it purpos to measure. - it has two components ; sensitivity specificity. Reference : Park's textbook of preventive and social medicine, 23rd edition, pg no:138 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Characteristic feature of carcinoma fallopian tube: | [
"Watery discharge P/V",
"Hemorrhage",
"Pain",
"Sepsis"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
In a patient with Cardiac output 5 litre/min and body surface area 1.7 square metre, what will be the cardiac index? | [
"3 l/min/sq. m",
"4 l/min/sq. m",
"5 l/min/sq. m",
"2.5 l/min/sq. m"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Crew cut appearance on X ray skull is seen in: | [
"Thalassemia",
"Megaloblastic anemia",
"Autoimmune hemolytic anemia",
"Ultrasonography"
] | A | Ans. A. ThalassemiaCrew cut appearance in thalassemia occurs due to expansion of the marrow on account of extra-medullary hemapoiesis.The widened diploic spaces on X-ray skull lateral view appear as Crew cut or hair on end appearance. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Treatment of choice of thoracic actinomycosis is: | [
"Amphotericin B",
"Cotrimoxazole",
"Penicillin",
"Itraconazole"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' Penicillin Actinomycosis occur at different sites such as oro cervicofacial, thoracic, abdominal and pelvic.The drug of choice for all types of actinomycosis is penicillin. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Abnormalities of copper metabolism are implicated in the pathogenesis of all the following except | [
"Wilson's disease",
"Menkes Kinky-hair syndrome",
"Indian childhood cirrhosis",
"Keshan disease"
] | D | Deficiency of selenium and molybdenum has resulted in Keshan disease. Ref: Page 131 & 132, Ghai essential pediatrics; 6th edition | train | med_mcqa | null |
Meconium ileus is a manifestation of - | [
"Hirschprungs disease",
"Achalasia cardia",
"Fibrocystic disease of pancrease",
"Coeliac disease"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most common tumor in tuberous sclerosis in females: | [
"Rhabdomyosarcoma",
"Angiomyolipoma",
"Pulmonary lymphangiomyositosis",
"Optic glioma"
] | B | Ans: (b) AngiomyolipomaRobbins Pathology, 9th editionTumours in tuberous sclerosisRenal angiomyolipomas develop in as many as 80% of people with tuberous sclerosis by the age of 10 years.Lymphangioleiomyomatosis is present in as many as 40% of adult women with tuberous sclerosis. Though the incidence is more common in women than in men, since the question also has angiomyolipoma I personally prefer to go for renal angiomyolipomas.If the question comes in future without angiomyolipomas - go for Lymphangioleiomyomatosis - since the overall incidence of it is 1-4% (WHO) and in women it is close to 40% (WHO).Diagnostic criteria for tuberous sclerosisMajor features*. >3 hypomelanotic macules > 5 mm in diameter*. >3 angiofibromas or fibrous cephalic plaque*. >2 ungual fibromas*. Shagreen patch*. Multiple retinal hamartomas*. Cortical dysplasias (including tubers and cerebral white matter radial migration lines)*. Subependymal nodules*. Subependymal giant cell astrocytoma*. Cardiac rhabdomyoma*. Lymphangioleiomyomatosis*. > 2 angiomyolipomasMinor featuresConfetti skin lesions*. >4 dental enamel pits*. >2 intraora! fibromas, Retinal achromic patch, Multiple renal cysts, Non-renal hamartomasDefinitive diagnosis; 2 major features or 1 major feature with >2 minor featuresPossible diagnosis: 1 major feature or 2 minor features | train | med_mcqa | null |
Multipleround to oval erythematous patches with fine central scale distributed along the skin tension lines on the trunk is highly suggestive of? | [
"Tinea versicolor",
"Pityriasis rosea",
"Lichen planus",
"Seborrheic dermatitis"
] | B | . | train | med_mcqa | null |
100% Oxygen is not effective in: March 2005 | [
"Pulmonary edema",
"MI",
"Tetralogy of fallot",
"COPD"
] | C | Ans. C: Tetralogy of fallot | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following agents is most commonly associated with carcinoma cervix: | [
"HPV 16",
"HPV 18",
"HPV 33",
"HPV 35"
] | A | Human Papilloma Virus (HPV) 16 is the most common cause of invasive squamous cervical cancer (followed by HPV 18). Squamous cell carcinoma is the most common cause of cervical cancer worldwide. Ref: COGDT, 10th Edition, Pages 834, 835; William's Gynaecology, 1st Edition, Page 619; Human Cancer Viruses : Principles of Transformation and Pathogenesis By John nicholas, 2008, Page 4; The Encyclopedia of Sexually Transmitted Diseases By Jennifer Shoquist, Diane Stafford, Page 59. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Negri bodies are mainly found in ? | [
"Brain stem",
"Coical neurons",
"Hippocampus",
"Spinal cord"
] | C | Negril bodies are abundant un cerebellum&hippocampud REF:<\p> ANATHANARAYANAN MICROBIOLOGY NINTH EDITION PAGE.531 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Inhalation agent incompatable with sodaline | [
"Isoflurane",
"Trichloro Ethylene",
"Methoxy flurane",
"Enflurane"
] | B | B i.e. Trichloro ethylene Sodalime with trilene forms phosgene (neurotoxic) gas.Q So this combination is contraindicated. Sodalime is a mixture of 94% (Ca(OH)2 + 5% NaOH as catalyst + 1% KOHQ; with granule size of 4-8 meshQ. It should not be used with : The drier the sodalime, the more likely it will degrade & absorb volatile anesthetics. It produces compound A with sevofluraneQ (clinically significant) and carbon monoxide with desflurane, isoflurane & enflurane (clinically insignificant). However, desflurae can be broken down to CO by dry barium hydroxide lime to such an extent that it is capable of causing clinically significant CO poisoning. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following core material resists condensation pressure well enough? | [
"Resin modified GIC",
"Admixed amalgam",
"Ceramic",
"Composite"
] | B | Core with admixed amalgam can be build without post retained through chamber retention (that is amalcore).
In 1980, Nayyar and Walton described the amalcore, or coronal-radicular or admixed amalgam restoration. This technique advocates the removal of gutta-percha (2.0–3.0 mm) from the coronal third of the obturated root canals followed by core buildup into this space along with the pulp chamber space. These intraradicular extensions of the core material act as effective retentive aids. The coronal-radicular build-up has proved to be a predictable and cost-effective restorative modality for posterior endodontically treated teeth. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is not a major criteria in NADA's criteria- | [
"Diastolic murmur",
"Abnormal ECG",
"Cyanosis",
"Congestive cardiac failure"
] | B | Nadas criteria: --> Predicts the presence of congenital hea disease --> MAJOR CRITERIA: Systolic murmur Grade-3 or more Any grade diastolic murmur cyanosis congestive cardiac failure --> MINOR CRITERIA: Systolic murmur Grade-1 or 2 Abnormal second hea sound (S2) Abnormal ECG Abnormal X-ray Abnormal B.P --> Presence of 1 major / 2 minor criteria --> Essential for indicating the presence of hea disease. | train | med_mcqa | null |
True about Psammoma bodies are all except - | [
"Seen in meningioma",
"Concentric wrhorled appearance",
"Contains Calcium deposits",
"Seen in teratoma"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Seen in teratoma o Psammoma bodies represent a process of dystrophic calcification. Thev are concentric laminated calcified spheres,o Single necrotic cells may constitute seed crystals that become encrusted by the mineral deposits. The progressive acquisition of outer layers may create lamellated configurations, called psammoma bodies because of their resemblance to grains of sand.Psammoma bodies are seen in :-o Papillary carcinoma of thyroid,o Renal cell carcinoma,o Serous cystadenoma of ovary.o Meningiomao Malignant mesotheliomao Somatostatinomao Prolactinomao Endometrial papillary serous cystadenocarcinoma. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following best denotes classical complement pathway activation in immune inflammatory condition? | [
"C2, C4 and C3 decreased",
"C2 and C4 normal, C3 is decreased",
"C3 normal and C2, C4 decreased",
"C2, C4, C3 all are elevated"
] | A | In the classic pathway, antigen-antibody complexes activate C1 to form a protease, which cleaves C2 and C4 to form a C4b,2b complex. The latter is C3 convease, which cleaves C3 molecules into two fragments, C3a and C3b. Because the immune complex activation involves the classical components, C4, C2, and C3, their serum concentration decreases. Ref: Levinson W. (2012). Chapter 63. Complement. In W. Levinson (Ed), Review of Medical Microbiology & Immunology, 12e. | train | med_mcqa | null |
What is the ideal treatment for a 55 yr female with Simple Hyperplasia of endometrium with Atypia? | [
"Simple hysterectomy",
"Medroxy progesterone Acetate (MPA)",
"Levonorgesterol (LNG)",
"IUCD"
] | A | Among all the given options for the patient in the clinical scenario, the best treatment option would be simple hysterectomy. There are chances of about 60-70% for simple hyperplasia of endometrium with Atypia to progress into endometrial cancer. While abdominal hysterectomy with or without oophrectomy is preferred in elderly, medical management is used in younger patients who would not prefer hysterectomy. Ref: Shaws textbook of Gynaecology 13 edition, page 395 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which complex of ETC is not associated with liberation of energy | [
"Complex I",
"Complex II",
"Complex III",
"Complex IV"
] | B | Components of ETCProsthetic group Features Complex I NADH dehydrogenase / NADH Co-Q reductase / NADH Ubiquinone FMN , FeSEnergy - 12 Kcal/molTo pump 4 protons out of mitochondria into inter membranous spaceComplex IISuccinate dehydrogenase / Succinate Q reductaseFAD , FeSNot a proton pump as energy is liberated Coenzyme Q / Ubiquinone Q Non protein member of ETC For transferring to complex III it accepts hydrogen atoms from 1.FMNH2 produced in complex I2.FADH2 produced in complex II3.FADH2 produced in beta oxidation by acyl CoA dehydrogenase & glycerol 3 phosphate dehydrogenase Complex IIICytochrome bC1 complex / Ubiquinone cytochrome C oxidoreductase / Cytochrome reductase FeS , Heme Energy - 10 Kcal/molTo pump 4 protons out of mitochondria into inter membranous spaceCytochrome C Soluble carrier protein of intermembranous space Complex IV Cytochrome C oxidase / Cytochrome oxidase 2 Heme , 2 Copper ions of CuA , CuBTo pump 2 protons out of mitochondria into inter membranous spaceHarper's illustrated Biochemistry , 30th ed , page 131 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Screening method for medullary carcinoma thyroid is : | [
"Serum calcitonin",
"S. calcium",
"S. alkaline phosphate",
"S. acid phosphatase"
] | A | Answer is A (Serum Calcitonin): Medullary Carcinoma Thyroid are tumors of para-follicular 'C' cells derived from the neural crest, & are not derived from the cells of thyroid follicles. Since these pars follicular 'C' cells secrete CalcitoninQ, high level of serum Calcitonin (> 0.08 zsg/m1) are found. These levels fall after resection, & will rise again if the tumor recurs, making it the ideal candidate for screening tests. Also note :These cancers are associated with HypocalcemiaQ because calcitonin counteracts parathormnone. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A girl at 16 years of age presents with primary amenorrhea. On examination breast development is normal , axillary and pubic hair are present. Vaginal examination reveals an absent vaginal opening. Ultrasound suggests normal ovaries with absent uterus. Most probable diagnosis is? | [
"Androgen insensitivity syndrome",
"MRKH (Mayer Rokitansky Kuster Hauser Syndrome)",
"Turners syndrome",
"Pure gonadal dysgenesis"
] | B | MRKH Androgen insensitivity syndrome Genotype XX XY Gonad Ovaries Testes Breast development Normal Normal Pubic and axillary hair Normal Absent (insensitivity to testosterone) Vagina Shallow and blind Shallow and blind Uterus Absent Absent Vulva Normal Normal Sr Androgen levels 20-80 ng/dl 200-800 ng/dl TURNERS IS XO - Near normal female phenotype and streak ovaries. This is the most common type of gonadal dysgenesis. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Regarding Fanconi anemia, the wrong statement is: | [
"Autosomal dominant",
"Bone marrow show pancytopenia",
"Usually aplastic anemia",
"It is due to defective DNA repair"
] | A | Fanconi's anemia is an autosomal recessive disease Characterized:- Progressive pancytopenia Increased risk of malignancy (solid tumors and AML) Congenital developmental anomalies like sho stature, cafe au lait spots, abnormalities affecting thumb, radius and genitourinary tract. Fanconi's anemia is associated with BRCA gene. | train | med_mcqa | null |
LANCEFIELD grouping of streptococci is done using- | [
"M protein",
"Group C peptidoglycan",
"Group C Carbo hydrate antigen",
"Staining properties"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
The most potent drug to reduce the plasma low density lipoprotein cholesterol level is | [
"Plant sterols",
"Fibrates",
"Anion exchange resins",
"Statins"
] | D | Refer kDT 6/e p 614 The Most Common Cholesterol Meds: Statins These are usually the first type ofdrug that doctors prescribe to lower LDL. They also lower triglycerides, which are another type of blood fat, and mildly raise your "good" (HDL)cholesterol. Statins include: Atorvastatin (Lipitor | train | med_mcqa | null |
Leukoreduced blood products have lower WBC&;s than normal by what fold | [
"1 log reduction",
"2 log reduction",
"3 log reduction",
"4 log reduction"
] | C | Leukoreduction is the removal of white blood cells (or leukocytes) from the bloodor blood components supplied for blood transfusion. After the removal of the leukocytes, the blood product is said to be leukoreduced. Reference: GHAI Essential pediatrics, 8th edition | train | med_mcqa | null |
The maximum life of the deciduous pulp including both prenatal and postnatal times of development
and the period of regression is approximately | [
"8.3 years",
"9.6 years",
"10.6 years",
"12.6 years"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Arterial supply of the duodenum is by - | [
"Superior mesenteric artery",
"Celiac artery",
"Inferior mesenteric artery",
"Both superior mesenteric & celiac arteries"
] | D | Upper part of duodenum (up to opening of bile duct) is derived from foregut and therefore is supplied by Coeliac trunk.
Lower part of duodenum (below the opening of bile duct) is derived from midgut and is supplied by superior mesenteric artery. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 32-year-old man presents for rountine evaluation. He has no symptoms but has noticed some new "nodules" on his legs. Physical examination reveals lumps on his Achillis tendon, yellow lesions around his eyes, and pigmentation of his iris. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? | [
"familial hyperlipidemia",
"diabetes",
"myxedema",
"chronic renal disease"
] | A | (a) Source: (Fuster, pp. 236-237)Early atherosclerosis with tendon xanthomas, xanthelasma, and arcus senilis are characteristics of familial hypercholesterolemia. The disorder is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Pulmonary thromboembolism on V-Q scan is suggested by: | [
"Ventilation defect with normal perfusion",
"Perfusion defect with normal ventilation",
"Perfusion defect with ventilation defect",
"Normal perfusion and ventilation"
] | B | Ans. Perfusion defect with normal ventilation | train | med_mcqa | null |
Craniotabes is seen in following except? | [
"Rickets",
"Syphilis",
"Osteogenesis imperfecta",
"Thalassemia"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Thalassemia Craniotabes is seen in o Rickets o Hydrocephalus o Osteogenesis imperfecta o Syphilis | train | med_mcqa | null |
Initial drug of choice in a child with status epilepticus: | [
"Lorazepam",
"Phenobarbitone",
"Valproate",
"Phenytoin"
] | A | a. Lorazepam(Ref: Nelson's 20/e p 2831-2856, Ghai 8/e p 557-561)Initial drug given in Status epilepticus in a child is a short acting Benzodiazepine like Lorazepam or Midazolam, to abort the seizures | train | med_mcqa | null |
All are components of behaviour sciences except – | [
"Political Science",
"Anthropology",
"Sociology",
"Psychology"
] | A | The term behavioral sciences include the : -
Sociology
Social psychology
Social anthropology. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Choose the appropriate lettered structure in this computed tomography scan of the male perineum and pelvis. Which structure secretes fluid containing fructose, which allows for forensic determination of rape? | [
"A",
"B",
"C",
"D"
] | B | (b) The seminal vesicle is a lobulated glandular structure and produces the alkaline constituent of the seminal fluid, which contains fructose and choline. Fructose, which is nutritive to spermatozoa, also allows forensic determination of rape, whereas choline crystals are the preferred basis for the determination of the presence of semen. | train | med_mcqa | null |
duration criteria for anorexia nervosa is | [
"5 months",
"3 months",
"2 months",
"4 months"
] | B | Anorexia nervosa Anorexia nervosa is a eating disorder where the patient has decreased weight and altered body image and persistent desire to maintain thinness * Gender==== more common in females * Age=======adolescence * Comorbidity=== depression and social phobia * Duration====3 months * Criteria= * Intense fear of becoming fat * Restriction of food intake * Restricting type * Binge eating and purging type * Amenorrhea is not needed for diagnosis, previously amenorrhea is considered as a diagnostic criteria for diagnosis, in recent DSM 5 amenorrhea is considered for a diagnosis * Association= * OCD and depression * Decreased interest in sex * Complication * 7-14% moality * ECG changes * Hypokalemic alkalosis because of induced vomiting * Gastric dilation * Drugs * Cypro hepatidine * SSRI * Management * Admit in severe cases * Prevent vomiting by making restroom inaccessible for 2 hours after food intake * Avoid laxatives * Small frequent meals * Avoid refeeding syndrome Ref. kaplon and sadock, synopsis of psychiatry, 11 th edition, pg no. 509 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most specific enzyme for mi is: | [
"Cpk-MM",
"Cpk-MB",
"Cpk-BB",
"LDH"
] | B | Ans: bRef: Harrison, 16thed, p. 1450 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following drugs acts by increasing bone formation & inhibiting bone resorption | [
"Denosumab",
"Zoledronate",
"Strontium ranelate",
"Calcitonin"
] | C | Strontium ranelate resembles calcium and incorporated into bone matrix and promotes bone formation. But osteoclasts can't remove it and thus inhibits bone resorption as well. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Base of the hea is formed by ? | [
"Right atrium",
"Right ventricle",
"Left atrium",
"Left ventricle"
] | C | Ans. is `c > a' i.e., Left atrium > Right atrium | train | med_mcqa | null |
All are true about dermatitis herpetformis except | [
"More common in young adult",
"Intense pruritus",
"Deposist of IgG at the epidermodermal lesion",
"None"
] | C | C. i.e. Deposition of IgG at the epidermodermal lesion | train | med_mcqa | null |
Programmed cell death is seen in? | [
"Cytolysis",
"Apoptosis",
"Necrosis",
"Proptosis"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Apoptosis o Programmed cell death is apoptosiso Apoptosis is pathway of cell death that is induced by a tightly regulated intracellular program in which cell destined to die activate enzymes that degrade the cell's own nuclear DNA, and nuclear & cytoplasmic proteins. Apoptosis generally involves single cells in contrast to necrosis that usually involve a group of cells. Apoptosis may be of two types -a) Physiological (most of the time) - Programmed cell death.b) Pathological - Unprogrammed cell death. | train | med_mcqa | null |
When will you do emergency endotracheal intubation? | [
"GCS<7",
"Tension pneumothorax",
"Cardiac tamponade",
"Bleeding gastric ulcer"
] | A | Ans.(a) GCS<7Ref: Ezri T and Warters RD, Chapter 15: Indications for tracheal intubation p. 371-8 * In a case of head trauma if GCS is 8 or less - a definitive airway may be required. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Triad of hemobilia includes all, EXCEPT - | [
"Pain",
"Fever",
"G.I. bleeding",
"Jaundice"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 55 years old female patient is presenting with excessive menstrual blood loss and fecal blood loss. The diagnosis is | [
"Gardner syndrome",
"Turcot's syndrome",
"Lynch syndrome",
"None of the above"
] | C | Answer- C. Lynch syndromeLynch syndrome is characterized by colorectal, endometrium and ovarian carcinomas.Hereditary non-polyposis colorectal cancer (HNPCC) syndromeIt is also known as Lynch syndrome. It is characterized by increased incidence of colorectal cancer and extraintestinal cancers (ovary and endometrium).There is mutation in MSH2 and MLH1 genes required for DNA repair. This causes mictosatellite instability.Colon cancer in these patients affect ascending (right) colon. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Reese-Ellsworth classification is used for? | [
"Rhabdomyosarcoma",
"Retinoblastoma",
"Optic nerve sheath tumor",
"Meningioma"
] | B | ANSWER: (B) RetinoblastomaREF: Decision Making in Radiation Oncology, Volume 2 by Jiade J. Lu page 1041Repeat from June 2008Reese-Ellsworth classification of Retinoblastoma:TypeDescriptionGroup I"Very favourable"ASolitary tumor, less than 4 dd in size, at or posterior to the equatorBMultiple tumors, none over 4 dd in size, all at or posterior to the equatorGroup II"Favourable"ASolitary tumor, 4-10 dd in size, at or posterior to the equatorBMultiple tumors, 4-10 dd in size, all posterior to the equatorGroup III"Doubtful"AAny lesion anterior to the equatorBSolitary tumors larger than 10 dd posterior to the equatorGroup IV"Unfavorable"AMultiple tumors, some larger than 10 ddBAny lesion extending to the ora serrataGroup V"Very unfavourable"AMassive tumors involving over half the retinaBVitreous seeding*dd= disc diameter (approximately 1.5 mm) | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following are used in the treatment of postmenopausal osteoporosis except:- | [
"Calcitonin",
"Vitamin D",
"Glucocoicoid",
"Bisphosphonates"
] | C | Glucocoicoids can cause osteoporosis on long term use. DRUGS FOR OSTEOPOROSIS DRUGS Inhibits resorption Stimulates formation Both actions Bisphosphonates Donesumab Cinacalcet Calcitonin Estrogen SERMs Gallium nitrate Teriparatide Calcium Calcitriol Fluoride Strontium renelate | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which type of vaccine is MMR? | [
"Live attenuated",
"Killed",
"Toxoid",
"Subunit"
] | A | ANSWER: (A) Live attenuatedREF: APPENDIX-46 below for "TYPES OF VACCINE"Live vaccines can me memorized as "BOMBEY-VT"; BCG, OPV (sabin), MMR (mumps, measles & rubella), Bubonic plague, epidemic typhus, yellow'- fever (17D), vaccinia,Oral Typhoid vaccine (Ty21a) APPENDIX - 46Types of VaccineTypeContentExamplesKilled vaccineskilled, but previously virulent, microorganisms that have been destroyed with chemicals or heat.Avian Flu vaccine; developed by Reverse Genetics techniques. Reverse genetics' is an approach to discovering the function of a gene by analyzing the phenotypic effects of specific gene sequences obtained by DNA sequencing. This investigative process proceeds in the opposite direction of so- called forward genetic screens of classical genetics. Simply put, while forward genetics seeks to find the genetic basis of a phenotype or trait, reverse genetics seeks to find what phenotypes arise as a result of particular genes. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 26 year old male presented with 4 day history of pain in the right sided lower abdomen with frequent vomiting. Patients GC is fair and clinically a tender lump was felt in the right iliac fossa. Most appropriate management for this case would be: March 2010 | [
"Exploratory laparaotomy",
"Immediate appendicectomy",
"Ochsre:-Sherren regiman",
"Externai drainage"
] | C | Ans. C: Ochsner-Sherren regiman Appendicular mass: On the 3rd day (rarely sooner) after the commencement of an attack, a tender mass can frequently be felt in the Right Iliac Fossa (RIF) beneath some rigidity of the overlying musculature, the other quadrants of the abdomen being free from rigidity or tenderness. The mass, which at this time is not yet an appendix abscess, and may never become one, is composed mainly of the: Perforated appendix Edematous caecum + poions of the small intestine Greater omentum In its midst is a perforated or otherwise inflamed vermiform appendix. By the 4th or 5th day the mass becomes more circumscribed. As the rigidity passes off its periphery can be defined clearly. Subsequently (5th - 10th day) the swelling either becomes larger, and an appendix abscess results, or it becomes small, and subsides slowly as the inflammation resolves. Ochsner-Sherren regimen: Analgesics Bed rest Antibiotics | train | med_mcqa | null |
Causes of status epilepticus in a child – | [
"Hypernatremia",
"Hyponatremia",
"Hyperkalemia",
"Hypokalemia"
] | B | Causes of status epilepticus in children
Idiopathic
Congenital/Developmental neurological abnormalities
Meningitis, Encephalitis
Head trauma
Drug intoxication
Hypoglycemia
Hyponatremia
Pyridoxin deficiency | train | med_mcqa | null |
Negative montoux test is when induration is - | [
"<5mm",
"<10mm",
"<15 mm",
"<20 mm"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., < 5 mm MethodIntradermal injection of PPD on flexor aspect of forearm|Examined at 48-72 hours||||Induration > 10 mmInduration < 5 mmInduration 6-9 mm|||PositiveNegativeEquivocal|Repeat tuberculin test (two step testing) | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 30-year-old patient presented with history of jaundice for 10 days. His liver function tests showed bilirubin of 10 mg/dl, SGOT/SGPT 1100/1450, serum alkaline phosphatase 240 IU. He was positive for HbsAg. What should be the confirmatory test to establish acute hepatitis infection? | [
"IgM anti-HBc antibody",
"HbeAg",
"HBV DNA by CPR",
"Anti-HBc antibody"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
A patient with Lefort-II, Lefort-III and nasoethmoidal fracture with intermaxillary fixation done is best intubated by: | [
"Nasal",
"Oral",
"Submental",
"All of the above"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Greatest stimulator for ADH secretion: | [
"Hyperosmolarity",
"Hyponatremia",
"Hypotension",
"Hypovolemia"
] | A | A i.e. Hyperosmolarity | train | med_mcqa | null |
If a patient with several hyperglycemia is given IV insulin, which of the following can occur? | [
"Hypokalemia",
"Hyperkalemia",
"Hyponatremia",
"Hypernatremia"
] | A | Answer is A (Hypokalemia): Insulin causes IC to enter cells with a resultant lowering of extracellular IC+ concentration (Hypokalemia) Relation of Insulin to Potassium (Ganong 22nd/338) Insulin causes IC to enter cells with a resultant lowering of the extracellular K+ concentration (Hypokalemia) Infusion of insulin and glucose significantly lower the plasma IC level in normal individual (Hypokalemia) Infusion of insulin and glucose is very effective for the temporary relief of hyperkalemia The reason for intracellular migration of IC is still unceain. However increase the activity of Na+ - K+ ATPase in cell membranes so that more IC is pumped into cells. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Keisselbach's plexus is present at ? | [
"Medial wall of nasopharynx",
"Lateral wall of nasal cavity",
"Anteroinferior pa of nasal septum",
"Posterior pa of the nasal cavity"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Anteroinferior pa of nasal septum | train | med_mcqa | null |
The cytoprotective agent used for the prevention of xerostomia in patients undergoing head and neck radiotherapy is | [
"Valacyclovir",
"Amifostine",
"Glycopyrrolate",
"Naproxen"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Prolactin secretion increased by all EXCEPT | [
"Dopamine",
"Sleep",
"Pregnancy",
"Stress"
] | A | Dopamine REF: Harrison's 17 edition chapter 333 Table 333-8"Dopamine is the primary neuroendocrine inhibitor of the secretion of prolactin from the anterior pituitary gland and hence causes hypoprolactinemia not hyperprolacinnemia"ETIOLOGY OF HYPERPROLACTINEMIAPhysiologicHypothalamic-PituitarySystemicDrug-inducedhypersecretionpituitary stalkdamagehypersecretiondisordershypersecretionPregnancyTumorsProlactinomaChronic renalPhenothiazines,LactationChest wallCraniopharyngiomaSuprasellar pituitaryAcromegalyfailureHypothyroidismchlorpromazine,perphenazinestimulationmass extension CirrhosisHaloperidolSleepMeningioma PseudocyesisMetoclopramideStressDysgerminoma Epileptic seizuresMethyldopa Metastases Reserpine Empty sella Opiates Lymphocytichypophysitis Cimetidine,ranitidine Adenoma with stalkcompression Amitriptyline,Amoxapine Granulomas Fluoxetine Rathke's cyst Verapamil IrradiationTraumaPituitary stalksection Estrogens,Antiandrogen,TRH Suprasellar surgery | train | med_mcqa | null |
A neonate has recurrent attacks of abdominal pain, restless irritability and diaphoresis on feeding. Cardiac auscultation reveals a nonspecific murmur. He is believed to be at risk for M.I. Likely diagnosis here is: | [
"ASD",
"VSD",
"TOF",
"Anomalous coronary aery"
] | D | Normally coronary aery arise from the aoic root, but in this condition it arise from the pulmonary aery. In this case oxygen supply to myocardium is compromised due to delivery of deoxygenated blood and low perfusion pressures. Soon after bih (Neonate) as the pulmonary aerial pressure falls, perfusion pressure to the left coronary aery becomes inadequate. Myocardial infarction and fibrosis may result. Ref: Kliegman, Behrman, Jenson, Stanton (2008), Chapter 432.2, "Anomalous Origin of the Coronary Aeries", In the book, "NELSON TEXTBOOK OF PEDIATRICS", Volume 2, 18th Edition, New Delhi, Pages 1930-31 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which one of the following transmitter is not a protein/ glycopeptide/polypeptide? | [
"Serotonin",
"Dynorphin",
"Substance-P",
"Met-enkephalin"
] | A | (A) Serotonin # Serotonin (5-hydroxytryptamine, or 5-HT) is a monoamine neurotransmitter synthesized in serotonergic neurons in CNS & enterochromaffin cells in the gastrointestinal tract of animals including humans.> Dynorphin is a class of peptides produced by many different populations of neurons, which has some opiate-like activity.> It is thus classed as an endogenous opioid peptide.> Dynorphin functions primarily as a kappa opioid receptor agonist, meaning that it acts mainly at kappa opioid receptors.> Substance Pis a neuropeptide: a short-chain polypeptide that functions as a neurotransmitter and as a neuromodulator. It belongs to the tachykinin neuropeptide family.> Enkephalin is a pentapeptide ending with either leucine ("leu") or methionine ("met"). Both are products of the proenkephalin gene. Met-enkephalin is Tyr-Gly-Gly-Phe-Met. Leu-enkephalin has Tyr-Gly-Gly-Phe-Leu. Enkephalins play many roles in regulating pain. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Drug resistance transmitting factor present in bacteria | [
"Plasmid",
"Chromosome",
"Introns",
"Centromere"
] | A | Ref KDT 6/e p671 Plasmids contain extra chromosomal DNA that help in transforming the gene responsible for multiple drug resistance among bacteria These are therefore involved in horizontal transfer not resistance | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 56-year-old man attends having knocked his finger while working in the garage. He repos having had a small lump on his finger for some months and, since knocking his finger, this has been leaking, as shown below. What is the single most likely diagnosis? | [
"Keratoacanthoma",
"Myxoid cyst",
"Pyogenic granuloma",
"Sebaceous cyst"
] | B | Myxoid cysts Ganglions of the distal interphalangeal joint. They grow slowly and often cause grooving of the nail as they grow. They are benign but can become painful. Treatment is by aspiration of the thick jelly inside or injection with steroid, or surgical excision if they recur. A keratoacanthoma has a plug of keratin in the center. Pyogenic granuloma usually grows rapidly at the site of trauma. Sebaceous cysts are not typically seen on digits. | train | med_mcqa | null |
T - 10 Protocol' for treatment of osteosarcoma includes all of the following, EXCEPT: | [
"High Dose Methotrexate",
"Bleomycin, Cyclophosphamide, Doxorubicin (BCD)",
"Vincristine",
"Etoposide"
] | C | Both Etoposide and Vincristine is not included in the 'T-10' protocol for osteosarcoma. Since etoposide is included in modified protocol for treatment of osteosarcoma. Vincristine is the best answer. Ref: Principles and Practice of Pediatric Oncology, 5th Edition, Page 1102; Sma Study Series Ohopedics By Narender Rohilla, Page 155 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is not a component of Jones criteria for diagnosing acute rheumatic fever? | [
"Pancarditis",
"Migratory polyhritis",
"Erythema nodosum",
"Sydenham chorea"
] | C | Major criteria (Jones criteria for Acute Rheumatic fever) Carditis Clinical and/or subclinical Ahritis Polyahritis only Monoahritis or polyahritis or polyahralgia in moderate to high-risk populations Chorea Erythema marginatum Subcutaneous nodules There is a latent period of ~3 weeks (1-5 weeks) between the precipitating group A streptococcal infection and the appearance of the clinical features of ARF. The exceptions are chorea and indolent carditis, which may follow prolonged latent periods lasting up to 6 months. Syndenham's Chorea - commonly occurs in the absence of other manifestations, follows a prolonged latent period after group A streptococcal infection, and is found mainly in females. ARF almost always affects the large joints--most commonly the knees, ankles, hips, and elbows--and is asymmetric Subcutaneous nodules occur as painless, small (0.5-2 cm), mobile lumps beneath the skin overlying bony prominences (extensor surfaces). | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following drugs results in the production of orange coloured urine ? | [
"Rifampicin",
"Isoniazid",
"Pyrazinamide",
"Ethambutol"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Compression of which of the following structure result in pseudoclaudication? | [
"Femoral aery",
"Femoral nerve",
"Cauda Equina",
"Popliteal aery"
] | C | Pseudoclaudication is the classic symptom of lumbar spinal stenosis. It can occur either due to any activity or position involving extension of the lumbar spine termed as postural cauda equina claudication or after exercise termed as ischemic cauda equina claudication. Pseudoclaudication refers to a cramp-like pain felt in the muscles that is brought on by walking and is relieved by standing still. It is not present on taking the first step and the distance walked is called the claudication distance. The pain of claudication is most commonly felt in the calf, but can affect the thigh or buttock. Ref: Bailey and Love's Sho Practice of Surgery, 24th Edition, Page 920; Clinical Neurology of the Older Adult By Joseph I. Sirven, 2nd Edition, Page 508. | train | med_mcqa | null |
GFR of stage 3 chronic kidney disease is | [
"40ml/min/1.73m2",
"60ml/min/1.73m2",
"25ml/min/1.73m2",
"None of the above"
] | A | Stages of CKD :
Stage
Description
GFR (ml/min/1.73m2)
1
Kidney damage with normal or increased GFR
>90
2
Kidney damage with mild decrease in GFR
60-89
3
Moderate decrease in GFR
30-59
4
severe decrease in GFR
5-29
5
Kidney failure
<15 or an dialysis | train | med_mcqa | null |
Gluconeogenesis occurs in all except ? | [
"Liver",
"Kidney",
"Gut",
"Muscle"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e., MuscleGluconeogenesis occurs mainly in the liver and to a lesser extent in renal coex.Some gluconeogenesis can also occur in small intestine, but it is not significant.Some of the reactions of gluconeogenesis occurs in the mitochondria but most occur in cytosol.Gluconeogenesis cannot occur in muscles.Glucose-6-phosphatase is absent in muscles therefore, glucose-6-phosphate cannot be degraded to free glucose in muscles. Moreover, glucose-6-phosphate cannot diffuse out of the muscles. Therefore, muscle cannot provide glucose to maintain blood glucose level. Rather, muscle glycogen acts as a source of energy; the glucose-6phosphate enters the glycolysis to produce energy. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Plasma volume is measured by | [
"Inulin",
"Evans blue",
"Mannitol",
"D2O"
] | B | Plasma volume is measured using dyes like Evans blue that bind specifically to plasma proteins. It will not diffuse into the interstitium. (REF: TEXTBOOK OF MEDICAL PHYSIOLOGY GEETHA N 2 EDITION, PAGE NO - 62) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is the most reliable bacteriological indicator of water pollution: September 2010, March 2012, March 2013 (a, b, f) | [
"Fecal streptococci",
"Salmonella typhi",
"Escherichia coli",
"Clostridium tetani"
] | C | Ans. C: Escherichia coli Coliforms: Gram-negative, non spore-forming, oxidase-negative, rod-shaped facultative anaerobic bacteria that ferment lactose to acid and gas within 24-48h at 36+-2degC. Not specific indicators of fecal pollution. Thermotolerant coliforms: Coliforms that produce acid and gas from lactose at 44.5+-0.2degC within 24+-2h, also known as fecal coliforms due to their role as fecal indicators. Escherichia coli (E. coli): Thermophilic coliforms that produce indole from tryptophan. Most appropriate group of coliforms to indicate fecal pollution from warm-blooded animals. Fecal streptococci (FS): Gram-positive, catalase-negative cocci from selective media (e.g. azide dextrose broth or m Enterococcus agar) that grow on bile aesculin agar and at 45degC, belonging to the genera Enterococcus and Streptococcus possessing the Lancefield group D antigen. Enterococci: All fecal streptococci that grow at pH 9.6, 10deg and 45degC and in 6.5% NaC1. Nearly all are members of the genus Enterococcus, and also fulfil the following criteria: resistance to 60degC for 30 min and ability to reduce 0.1% methylene blue. The enterococci are a subset of fecal streptococci that grow under the conditions outlined above. Sulphite-reducing clostridia (SRC): Gram-positive, spore-forming, non-motile, strictly anaerobic rods that reduce sulphite to H2S. Clostridium perfringens: As for SRC, but also ferment lactose, sucrose and inositol with the production of gas, produce a stormy clot fermentation with milk, reduce nitrate, hydrolyse gelatin and produce lecithinase and acid phosphatase. | train | med_mcqa | null |
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