question stringlengths 1 6.54k | choices listlengths 4 4 | answer stringclasses 4
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Hyperplastic aeriolitis with necrotizing aeriolitisis seen in? | [
"Wegner's granulomatosis",
"Benign hypeension",
"Buerger's disease",
"Malignant hypeension"
] | D | Hyperplastic aeriolosclerosis is more typical of severe hypeension. Vessels exhibit "onion skin" ."concentric, laminated thickening of aeriolar walls and luminal narrowing . The lamination consists of smooth muscle cells and thickened , re duplicated basement membrane . In malignant hypeension these changes are accompnied by fibrinoid deposits and vessels wall necrosis . Prominent in kidney Robbins 9th edition page no. 334 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most surgeries are performed in which stage of general anesthesia? | [
"1",
"2",
"3",
"4"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., 3 * Stage 3 of general anesthesia is known as the stage of surgical anesthesia as most of the surgeries are performed in this stage.Stages of anaesthesia* Guedel described four stages of ether anaesthesia dividing the Illrd stage into 4 planes.1. Stage 1 (Stage of analgesia): - It extends from beginning of anesthetic inhalation to the loss of consciousness.2. Stage 2 (Stage of delirium or excitement): - From the loss of consciousness to beginning of regular respiration. There is roving eye ball (maximum movement of eye). Pupil is partially dilated. Eye lash reflex is lost - First reflex to be lost. However eyelid reflex remains present.3. Stage 3 (stage of surgical anesthesia): - From beginning of regular respiration to cessation of spontaneous breathing. Most surgeries are done in this stage. It is divided into 4 planes:-A. Plane 1: - From beginning of regular respiration to cessation of eye movement. There is roving eye ball. Eye lid reflex is lost. This plane ends when eye ball become fixed. Pupil size is normal.B. Plane 2: - From cessation of eye movement to respiratory Paresis. Eye ball is fixed. There is loss of corneal reflex.Pupil starts dilating ( 1/2 dilated).C. Plane 3: - From respiratory paresis to respiratory paralysis. Pupil 3/4 dilated. Swallowing reflex and laryngeal reflexes are lost.D. Plane 4: - Intercostal paralysis, there is only abdominal respiration. Pupil is fully dilated. Carinal reflex (Cough reflex) is lost - Last reflex to be lost.* Lacrimation is present in plane II & III and absent in Plane III, IV.4. Stage 4 (stage of medullary paralysis): - There is respiratory arrest and apnea. Pupil is fully dilated 8c fixed. | train | med_mcqa | null |
What is the normal value of Arden index | [
"100-130",
"130-150",
"150-180",
"> 185"
] | D | Results of EOG are interpreted by finding the Arden ratio (light size ratio) : light peak (LP) Arden ratio =. ______________________________________x100 Minimum height of dark trough(DT) Normal- 185 or above Subnormal - between 185 &165 Abnormal - below 165 Reference : anatomy and physiology , Khurana 3rd edition page no 238 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Cyclic trends are seen in which of the following - | [
"Rabies",
"Measles",
"Cholera",
"Hepatitis"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
After vasectomy aspermia will become evident in: | [
"2 to 3 weeks",
"4 to 6 weeks",
"8 to 10 weeks",
"10 to 12 weeks"
] | D | 10 to 12 weeks | train | med_mcqa | null |
Allopurinol acts by - | [
"Inhibiting synthesis of uric acid",
"Inhibiting purine synthesis",
"Inhibiting pyrimidine synthesis",
"Inhibiting conversion of xanthine to hypoxanthine"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Inhibiting synthesis of uric acid Allopurinolo It is hypoxanthine analogueo It is a uric acid synthesis inhibitor.o It is a substrate as well as inhibitor of xanthine oxidase.o Allopurinol itself is a short acting (t 1/2 - 2 hours) competitive inhibitor of xanthine oxidase, but its major metabolite alloxanthine (oxypurine) is a long acting (t 1/2 - 24 hours) noncompetitive inhibitor - primarily responsible for uric acid synthesis inhibition.o During allopurinol therapy concentration of hypoxanthine and xanthine increases, while uric acid decreases - All three are excreted in urine.o Since xanthine and hypoxanthines are more soluble and have a higher renal clearance than uric acid, precipitation and crystallization in urine and tissues does not occur.o Allopurinol is the first choice drug in chronic gout. It can be used in both over producers and under excretors of uric acid.o It is also used in secondary hyperuricemia, to potentiate 6-mercaptopurine or azathioprine.o Hypersensitivity reaction (rashes, fever, malaise) is the most common adverse effect. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The normal range of serum osmolality (in mOsm/L): | [
"270 to 285",
"300 to 320",
"350 to 375",
"200 to 250"
] | A | Normal serum osmolality ranges from 270-285 mOsm/L while in neonates, serum values as low as 266 mOsm/kg . And normal urine osmolality ranges from 40-1400 mOsm/L. Ref: Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine, 16th Edition, Page 252; Handbook of Fluid, Electrolyte, and Acid-Base Imbalances By Joyce LeFever Kee, Betty J. Paulanka, Carolee Polek, 2009, Page 8. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Slow wave sleep associated with: | [
"Dreams",
"Cardiac arrhythmia",
"Penile intumescence",
"Delta activity"
] | D | D i.e. Delta activity | train | med_mcqa | null |
Following acute respiratory response to ascent to high altitude, there is normalization of blood pH.The mechanism is | [
"Increased erythropoiesis leads to increased buffering by haemoglobin",
"Increased excretion of HCO3– by the kidneys",
"Increased levels of 2, 3–DPG",
"Retention of bicarbonate by the kidneys"
] | B | Decrease in PaO2 stimulates the peripheral chemoreceptors at high altitudes. This triggers hyperventilation. Hyperventilation results in CO2 washout and respiratory alkalosis. This is compensated by increased excretion of bicarbonates by the kidney. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Nucleus pulposus is seen in | [
"Intervertebral disc",
"Medical meniscus",
"Brain",
"Vestibulo cochlear region"
] | A | (Intervertebral disc) (210-BDC-1 6th edition) (689-snell 9th edition)* The intervertebral disc is made up of a peripheral annulus fibrosus and a central nucleus pulposus* The physical characteristics permit them to serve as the shock absorbers* No discs are found between the first two cervical vertebrae or in the sacrum or coccyx* Laminae are connected by ligament flava* Spines are connected together by interspinous ligament and the ligamentous nuchae (represents the supra spinous ligament). The ligament gives origin to the splenius rhomboid and trapezius muscle* The intervertebral disces form about one quarter the length of the colomn* Discs are thickest in the lumber region* The most characteristic feature of the thoracic vertebrae is the body has costal facetsStructure of an intervertebral disc, (a) Superior view, (b) arrangement of laminae, and (c) vertical section | train | med_mcqa | null |
False about Hydrocyanic acid. | [
"Also called as muriatic acid",
"Sodium nitrite and amyl nitrite are used in treatment",
"Inhibits cytochrome oxidase",
"Delayed neurological sequel can develop in form of Parkinson's disease"
] | A | Hydrocyanic acid is not muriatic acid. Oil of vitriol - Sulphuric acid Muriatic acid - Hydrochloric acid Aqua fois - Nitric acid Carbolic acid - Phenol Salt of sorrel - oxalic acid | train | med_mcqa | null |
Bizygomatic width divided by 3.3 gives approximately | [
"a)\tMesio-distal width of lower anterior teeth",
"b)\tMesio-distal width of upper anterior teeth",
"c)\tMesio-distal width of upper teeth from molar to molar",
"d)\tMesio-distal width of lower teeth from molar to molar"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Vascular inflow occlusion of the liver is by ? | [
"Clamping the hepatic aery",
"Occluding the poal vein",
"Clamping the hepatic veins",
"The Pringle manoeuvre"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e., The Pringle manoeuvre Pringle manoeuvre - placing an atraumatic clamp across the foramen of Winslow. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 58-year-old man had a myocardial infarction 1 year ago, which was the first major illness in his life. He now wants to prevent another acute coronary event and is advised to begin a program of exercise and to change his diet. A reduction in the level of which of the following serum laboratory findings 1 year later would best indicate the success of his diet and exercise regimen? | [
"Calcium",
"Cholesterol",
"Glucose",
"Potassium"
] | B | Reduced cholesterol, particularly LDL cholesterol, with the same or increased HDL cholesterol level, indicates a reduced risk of atherosclerotic complications. Atherosclerosis is multifactorial, but a modification of diet (i.e., reduction in total dietary fat and cholesterol) with increased exercise is the best method of reducing risk for most individuals. Atheromatous plaques that have formed can be reduced, albeit over months to years, but plaque regression yield an outcome better than drug or surgical therapy. Glucose is a measure of control of diabetes mellitus. Potassium, calcium, and renin values can be altered with some forms of hypertension, one of several risk factors for atherosclerosis. | train | med_mcqa | null |
"Tracking" of blood pressure means: | [
"Pictorial representation of serial blood pressures of an individual",
"High blood pressures in children tend to perpetuate in adults",
"Controlling high BP with nifedipine",
"None of ther above"
] | B | If blood pressures of individuals are followed from early childhood to adult years, then it is seen that individuals with higher BPs initially tend to continue to have higher BPs as adults. This phenomenon is called tracking of blood pressures. Ref: Park 21st edition, page 346. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which hormone is secreted from stomach that control intake of food: | [
"Orexin",
"Insulin like growth hormone",
"Cholecystokinin",
"Ghrelin"
] | D | D i.e. Ghrelin - Ghrelin, is released by stomachs, especially during fasting and stimulates appetites (orexigenic). - CCK, Peptide YY/PYY (secreted from entire gitract but especially from ileum & colon), glucagon like peptide (secreted by intestines d/t presence of food) and insulin (produced in response to GLP) are gastrointestinal hormonal factors, which suppress feeding i.e. cause satiety (anorexigenic). Whereas, ghrelin another gastrointestinal hormone produced mainly by stomach is orexigenic (i.e. increase appetite). - Growth hormone (GH) also k/a somatotropic hormone or somatotropin exes much of its effects through intermediate substances called somatomedins secreted by liver (and to a much less extent, other tissues). Because many effects of somatomedins on growth are similar to those of insulin, therefore somatomedins are also called insulin like growth factors (IGFs). Out of 4 somatomedins isolated, the most impoant is somatomedin C (or IGF-1) and pygmies of Africa & Levi-Lorain dwarf have congenital inability to synthesize significant amount of IGF-1. - Orexin (hypocretin) producing neurons occur in hypothalamus. Orexins A and B increase feeding (appetite) whereas, brains from humans with narcolepsy have fewer orexin producing neurons in hypothalamus. - Cholecystokinin (CCK) is secreted by I cells of upper small intestine (jejunum) and decreases feeding (antiorexigenic / aorexigenic), inhibits gastric emptying, and stimulates secretion of pancreatic juice rich in enzymes, contraction of gall bladder, secretion of glucagon & insulin and small intestine & colonic motality. It is a gastrointestinal hormone synthesized & released mainly by oxyntic cells of stomach (Guyton) / P or D1 cells of fundus of stomach. It is also produced by the intestine & epsilon cells of pancreas in small amounts. Ghrelin acts to stimulate hunger (appetite)Q. So blood levels rise during fasting, peak just before eating and then fall rapidly after a meal (orexigenic). In this way, it is counter pa of hormone leptin, produced by adipose tissue, which induces satiation (i.e. is anti-orexigenic) when present at higher levels. - Ghrelin is also produced in arcuate nucleus of hypothalamus and has marked growth hormone stimulating activity i.e. it stimulates GH secretion from anterior pituitary gland by acting directly on receptors in pituitary. - G protein coupled ghrelin receptor formerly k/a growth hormone secretagogue (GHS) receptor is expressed in arcuate nucleus, lateral hypothalamus, vagal afferent cell bodies & vagal afferent endings through out gastrointestinal tract. - It has an impoant role in neurotrophy, paicularly in hippocampus and is essential for cognitive adaptation to changing environment and process of learning. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Pterygium of nail is seen in | [
"Lichen planus",
"Psoriasis",
"Tinea unguium",
"Alopecia areata"
] | A | Pterygium of nail Pterygium unguis results from a scarring involving the nail fold extending onto the matrix. "dorsal pterygium" where proximal nail fold fuses to matrix and later to nail bed "ventral pterygium" where a distal extension of the hyponychium attaches to the undersurface of the nail plate thereby obliterating the distal nail groove. Dorsal pterygium is classically seen in lichen planus. It may also be seen in burns, cicatricial pemphigoid, dyskeratosis congenital, graft versus host disease, radiodermatitis, and lupus erythematosus. ventral pterygium is seen in leprosy, neurofibromatosis, subungual exostosis, lupus erythematosus, and systemic sclerosis. IADVL Textbook of dermatology page 1075 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most common site of metastasis of Medullary carcinoma of thyroid: | [
"Liver",
"Lung",
"Kidney",
"Brain"
] | A | Sites of spread of medullary thyroid carcinoma include local lymph nodes in the neck, lymph nodes in the central portion of the chest (mediastinum), liver, lung, and bone.
Spread to other sites such as skin or brain occurs but is uncommon.
Most common site of metastasis of Medullary carcinoma of thyroid is liver. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Delayed hypersensitivity is due to - | [
"Neutrophils",
"Monocytes",
"Eosinophils",
"Lymphocytes"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Lymphocytes Cell mediated (Type IV) hypersensitivityo It is initiated by activated T-lymphocytes.o It includes:1. Delayed type hypersensitivity - mediated by CD-4 T cells.2. T-cell mediated cytotoxicity - mediated by CD8- T cells. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following are/is acceptable types of tooth preparations to receive composite resins as restorative materials? | [
"Conventional and bevelled conventional",
"Modified preparation where only the defect is removed",
"Box only or slot preparations",
"All of the above"
] | D | The design of the tooth preparation to receive a composite restoration may vary depending on several factors. Five designs of tooth preparations for composite restorations are presented here, and sometimes they willbe used in combination.
The designs include:
(1) conventional
(2) beveled conventional
(3) modified
(4) box-only
(5) slot preparation designs | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following are true regarding the anatomical relationships of the kidney and ureter, EXCEPT: | [
"Posterior relationships include the diaphragm, the psoas major and quadratus lumborum muscles",
"The upper pole of the kidney may be in contact with the pleura in the veebral coastal trigone",
"The ureter enters the hilus in front of the renal vein",
"In the female, the ureter passes through the uterosacral ... | C | The kidneys lie along the veebral column on the psoas major muscle. Posterior relationships include the diaphragm, the psoas major and quadratus lumborum muscles, and the branches of the lumbar plexus and the twelfth rib. The upper pole of the kidney may be in contact with the pleura in the veebral coastal trigone.The ureter, and the renal vessels and nerves enter the kidney at the hilus. The ureter lies behind the renal vessels. The ureter begins at the renal hilum and descends retroperitoneally, crossing the common iliac aery, running along the lateral wall of the pelvis, then turning medially to the bladder. In the female, the ureter passes through the uterosacral ligament and then the lateral cervical ligament before entering the bladder. The renal aeries arise from the aoa below the origin of the superior mesenteric aery. The right renal aery arises from the aoa, passes behind the inferior vena cava, and then enters the kidney at the hilum. Both renal aeries give off branches to suprarenal glands before entering the kidney. Ref: Moon D.A., Foreman K.B., Albeine K.H. (2011). Chapter 11. Posterior Abdominal Wall. In D.A. Moon, K.B. Foreman, K.H. Albeine (Eds), The Big Picture: Gross Anatomy. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following properties of dental materials is time dependant? | [
"Creep",
"Resilience",
"Elastic limit",
"Ultimate strength"
] | A | If metal is held at a temperature near its melting point and is subjected to constant applied stress, the resulting strain will increase over time. Creep is defined as the time-dependent plastic strain of a material under a static load or constant stress.
Reference: PHILLIPS’ SCIENCE OF DENTAL MATERIALS, 12th ed page no 33 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Thyroid hormone acts through receptors present on | [
"Cell membrane",
"Cytoplasmic membrane",
"Nuclear membrane",
"DNA"
] | C | Thyroid hormoneEither of two hormones, thyroxine (T4) or triiodothyronine (T3, secreted by the follicles of the thyroid gland. They act on receptors in tissues throughout the body to increase the production of cellular proteins, the metabolic rate, and the activities of the sympathetic nervous system.Ref: Ganong&;s review of medical physiology; 24th edition; page no: 341 | train | med_mcqa | null |
"Lemon sign" & "Banana sign" are see in- | [
"Down syndrome",
"Spina bifida",
"Turner syndrome",
"Periventricular leukomalacia"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e. Spina bifida * Lemon and banana signs are ultrasonographic findings in a patient of neural tube defects (esp spina bifida).* The banana sign seen on axial imaging through the posterior fossa of fetus. It describes the way the cerebellum is wrapped tightly around the brain stem as a result of spinal cord tethering and downward migration of posterior fossa content. The cisterna magna gets obliterated and the shape of the cerebellum has the appearance of a banana. The sign persists into the second and third trimesters. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Hypersensitivity vasculitis affects - | [
"Post-capillary venules",
"Arterioles",
"Veins",
"Medium-sized arteries"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Non-essential amino acid : | [
"Tryptophan",
"Tyrosine",
"Arginine",
"Histidine"
] | B | Essential amino acids are those which can't be synthesised in the body and must be taken in the diet. Alanine can be synthesized from pyruvate by transamination in a single step. So, alanine is not a dietarily essential amino acid. Semi-essential amino acids: Those which can be synthesized in body but to some extent. | train | med_mcqa | null |
True for lithium:- | [
"Delayed absorption",
"Narrow therapeutic index",
"Protein bound",
"Can be given safely in renal dysfunction"
] | B | LITIHIUM* Well absorbed orally(peal level in 2- 3 hours)* Not protein bounded * Handled by kidney * Very narrow therapeutic index * Lithium concentration for optimizing therapy - 0.5 -0.8meq/l - bipolar disorder - 0.8 -1.2meq/l - acute mania - >1.5meq/dl -toxicity * S/E - fine tremors - CNS toxicity - coarse tremors ,ataxia , hyperflexion, mental confusion - >2meq/l -muscle twitching , drowsiness ,convulsions ,coma* Diabetes insipidus * Weight gain * C/I - pregnancy - congenital defect (Ebstein anomaly is associated with lithium exposure)* USE - bipolar disorders - Acute mania | train | med_mcqa | null |
In Wilm's tumor the following leads to emergence of resistance to chemotherapy: | [
"Nephrogenic rests",
"Monophasic morphology",
"Anaplasia",
"Capsular infiltration"
] | C | Wilm's tumor : 5% of tumors reveal anaplasia- Large, hyperchromatic, pleomorphic nuclei and abnormal mitoses . The presence of anaplasia correlates with underlying p53 mutation -Emergence of resistance to chemotherapy. | train | med_mcqa | null |
ICMR delhi and NIV pune has developed an ELISA kit for COVID 19 antibody detection test known as : | [
"Nishchay ELISA",
"Aarogya ELISA",
"Chhaya ELISA",
"Kavach ELISA"
] | D | Kavach ELISA Indigenous ELISA Developed by isolating virus from indian individual. Will be used for surveillance purpose. Sero-Surveillance to be undeaken in 24000 people in 69 districts of the country. Surveillance at household level. It's just a survillence kit , diagnosis will still be done by -PCR test. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which vaccine is not included in Mission Indradhanush? | [
"Tuberculosis",
"Measles",
"Meningococcal meningitis",
"Diphtheria"
] | C | The Ministry of Health and Family Welfare launched "Mission Indradhanush", depicting the seven colors of the rainbow, in December 2014, to fully immunize 90% of children who are either unvaccinated or paially vaccinated; those that have not been covered during the rounds of routine immunization for various reasons, by 2020 ( Target not pre-poned to 2018) 7 diseases covered: Tuberculosis Polio Hepatitis B Diphtheria Whooping cough Tetanus Measles Newly added (4) : JE vaccine MR Rotavirus IPV | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following are functions of Angiotensin II, EXCEPT: | [
"Vasodilation",
"Stimulation of thirst",
"Aldosterone secretion",
"Increased ADH secretion"
] | A | Angiotensin II causes vasoconstriction, not vasodilation. Angiotensin ll causes vasoconstriction by increasing the amount of Ca+ ions in the vascular smooth muscle cells. This rise in intracellular calcium complexes with calmodulin, which in turn activates myosin light chain kinase. which results in phosphorylating the light chain of myosin to stimulate cross bridge cycling which in turn causes vasoconstriction. Ref: Review of Medical Physiology By William F Ganong, 22nd Edition, Page 456; Textbook of Medical Physiology By Guyton and Hall, 10th Edition, Pages 201-203 | train | med_mcqa | null |
The selective MAO-B inhibitor out of the following is: | [
"Selegiline",
"Clorgyline",
"Moclebemide",
"Tranylcypromine"
] | A | -Selegiline and rasagiline Also called as Deprenyl Irreversible and selective MAO-B inhibitors Inhibits MAO-A at higher doses only It has neuroprotective and antiapoptotic effects Use: Oral dose is used in on- off phenomenon in Parkinsonism Transdermal patch is used for depression Incidence of cheese reaction is minimal Causes insomnia so used in morning and afternoon -Moclebemide is selective reversible MAO-A inhibitor for depression. Whereas clorgyline is irreversible MAO-A inhibitor -Tranylcypromine is a non-selective MAO inhibitor. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The position of DNA in which RNA polymerase binds and start transcription is called: | [
"Terminator",
"Anti-terminator",
"Operator",
"Promoter region"
] | D | Ans. D. Promoter regionThe binding of enzyme RNA polymerase to DNA is prerequisite for the beginning of transcription. The specific region on DNA where the enzyme binds is known as promoter region. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Skull of a male differs from that of a female by all of the following except - | [
"Capacity greater than 1500 c.c",
"Muscular markings over occiput are less marked",
"Orbits square",
"Frontal eminence small"
] | B | As a general rule, muscular markings are more prominent and marked on male skeleton.
Capacity of male skull is 1500-1550 cc.
Orbits of male’s are square and frontal eminences are small. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Active search for disease in an apparently healthy individual is | [
"Monitoring",
"Case finding",
"screening",
"Sentinel surveillance"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of Which is family of selectin., except - | [
"P selectin",
"L selectin",
"A selectin",
"E selectin"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., A selectin Leukocyte and endothelial adhesion moleculeso Leukocyte adhesion and transmigration are regulated largely by binding of complementary adhesion molecules on the leukocyte & endothelial surface, and by chemical mediators.o Cytokines affect these processes by modulating expression of adhesion molecules so that leukocytes can firmly adhere to endothelium.o There are four molecular families of adhesion receptorsSelectino Selectins function in cell to cell interaction i.e., adhesion of leukocytes to endothelium,o E-selectin (CD-62 E) is present on endothelial cells and it binds to sialyl-lewis, (a sialylated form of oligosaccharide on leukocytes).o Endothelial cell expression of E-selection is a hallmark of acute cytokine mediated inflammation,o P-selectin (CD-62 P) is present on endothelium and platelets and it bind to sialyl-Lewis on leukocytes.o L-selectin (CD-62 L) is present on leukocytes and it binds to mucin like glycoprotein GlyCAM-1 on endothelium.Immunoglobulin familyo Present on endotheliumo ICAM-1 (intracellular adhesion molecule-1) binds to b2.-integrins (VLA-4) of leukocytes,o Platelet endothelial cell adhesion molecule (PECAM or CD-31) is present on both endothelium and leukocytes. It is the major adhesive molecule for diapedisis.Integrinso Integrins promote cell-cell or cell-matrix interaction (in contrast to selectins that promote only cell-cell interaction) i.e., integrins helps in adhesion of leukocytes to endothelium and adhesion of leukocytes to extracellular matrix such as fibronectin. vitronectin, activated compliment,o Present on leukocyteso b1- integrins (VLA-4) bind to VCAM-1 ofendothelium.o b2 - integrins (LFA-1 and MAC-1) bind to ICAM-1 of endothelium.Mucin like glycoproteino These glycoproteins are present in the extracellular matrix and on cell surface,o Example is Heparan sulfate, that serves as ligand for the leukocyte adhesion molecule CD-44. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The ingredient of the fixing solution (fixer) of the X-ray is: | [
"Hydroquinone",
"Elon",
"Sodium bisulphate",
"Acetic acid"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
The following drug is used recently in Alcohol dependence patients | [
"Tiagabine",
"Naltrexone",
"Gabapentin",
"Lamotrigine"
] | B | (B) Naltrexone # Rehabilitation of Alcoholics> While the mainstay of alcoholic rehabilitation involves counseling, education, and cognitive approaches, several medications might be useful.> The first is the opioid-antagonist drug Naltrexone, 50 to 150 mg/d, which has been reported in several small-scale, short-term studies to decrease the probability of a return to drinking and to shorten periods of relapse.> However, at least one longer-term large-scale trial questioned the superiority of naltrexone to placebo, and more studies are required before the cost-effectiveness of this approach can be established.> A second medication, acamprosate (Campral), 2 g/d, has been tested in >5000 patients in Europe, with results that appear similar to those reported for naltrexone.> Several long-term trials of naltrexone and acamprosate, used individually and in combination, are in progress, and early results are promising.> A third medication, which has historically been used in the treatment of alcoholism, is the ALDH inhibitor disulfiram.> In doses of 250 mg/d this drug produces an unpleasant (and potentially dangerous) reaction in the presence of alcohol, a phenomenon related to rapidly rising blood levels of the first metabolite of alcohol, acetaldehyde. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Contraindications for medical method (mifepristone + misoprostol) of first trimester MTP- | [
"Patient with hemoglobin of 7 gm%",
"Suspected ectopic pregnancy",
"Glaucoma",
"All of the above"
] | D | Ans. D. All of the above* Contraindications (due to medical reasons) for medical method of abortion:a. Smoking>35 yearsb. Hemoglobin <8g%c. Confirmed/suspected ectopic pregnancy/undiagnosed adnexal massd. Coagulopathy or patient on anticoagulant therapye. Chronic adrenal failure or current use of systemic corticosteroidsf. Uncontrolled hypertension with BP>160/100mmHgg. Certain cardio-vascular diseasesh. Severe renal, hepatic or respiratory diseasesi. Glaucomaj. Uncontrolled seizure disorderk. Allergy or intolerance to mifepristone /misoprostol or other prostaglandinsl. Lack of access to 24 hours' emergency services. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A rickshaw is run over legs of a child making markings of tyre on the legs. Which type of injury is this? | [
"Patterned abrasion",
"Imprint abrasion",
"Pressure bruise",
"Split lacerations"
] | A | Patterned abrasion. Patterning of abrasions The patterning of abrasions is clearer than that of bruises because abrasions frequently take a fairly detailed impression of the shape of the object causing them and, once inflicted, do not extend or gravitate; therefore, they indicate precisely the area of application of force. An abrasion (or a graze) is a superficial injury involving only the outer layers of the skin and not penetrating the full thickness of the epidermis. Patterned Abrasions: Patterned abrasions occur when the force is applied at or around right angle to the surface of skin. The classical example of this is seen in traffic accidents when tyre of a motor car passes over the skin leaving the pattern when the skin has been squeezed into the grooves of the rubber tread. Pressure Abrasions (Imprint Abrasions): When the impact is veical to the skin surface, the epidermis gets crushed and pressure type of abrasions result and the imprint of the impacting object may be produced. These may be seen in manual strangulation (abrasions produced by fingernails) and in hanging, where the weave of the ligature material may be reproduced. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Saw tooth retepegs are seen in | [
"Lichen planus",
"Leukoplakia",
"Pamphigus vulgaris",
"Psoriasis"
] | A | Histology of Lichen planus: | train | med_mcqa | null |
Proximal walls in a class I tooth preparation for amalgam should | [
"Converge occlusally",
"Diverge occlusally",
"Remain straight",
"Rounded"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following tracts is seen in the posterior column of spinal cord? | [
"Lateral spinothalamic tract",
"Fasciculus gracilis",
"Coicospinal tract",
"Posterior spinocerebellar"
] | B | Posterior column of spinal cord contains: Fasciculus cuneatus ( carries upper body sensations) & Fasciculus gracilis ( carries lower body sensations) tracts Responsible for vibration sense, two-point discrimination and conscious proprioception. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Platelet function can be assessed by | [
"Prothrombin time",
"Fibrinogen degradation products",
"Clotting time",
"Bleeding time"
] | D | Bleeding time is the time taken for bleeding to stop (time for platelet plug to form)
Bleeding time is a test of platelet function. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Bitter almond odour is percieved in poisoning with ? | [
"Cobalt",
"Arsenic",
"Cyanide",
"Lead"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Cyanide Odors associated with poisonings Garlik like : Phosphorus, arsenic, zinc phosphide, aluminium phosphide (celphos), arsine gas, tellurium, parathion, malathion, arsenic. Rotten eggs : Hydrogen sulphide, mercaptans, disulphiram. Fishy or musty : Zinc phosphide. Bitter almonds : Cyanide, HCN Acrid : Paraldehyde, chloral hydrate. Burnt rope : Cannabis. Kerosene like : Kerosene and organophosphates. Phenolic smell : Carbolic acid. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The caudate lobe of liver corresponds to which segment of Counaud's classification | [
"Segment I",
"Segment II",
"Segment III",
"Segment IV"
] | A | Caudate lobe is segment I Quadrate lobe is segment IVa The caudate lobe (segment I) is the dorsal poion of the liver and embraces the IVC. It lies posterior to the left poal triad inferiorly and left and middle hepatic vein superiorly. Caudate lobe is unique in sense that it receives blood supply from both the right & left poal pedicles. bile ducts drain into both right & left hepatic ducts. its venous drainage is directly into the vena cava Ref : Schwaz 9/e p1095 | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following maintain the stability of ankle joint except: | [
"Cruciate ligament",
"Shape of the bones",
"Tendons of muscle which cross the joint",
"Collateral ligament"
] | A | Cruciate ligament Cruciate ligaments are found in the knee and not ankle. Cruciate ligaments are pairs of ligaments arranged like a letter X. They are the anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) and the posterior cruciate ligament (PCL). They maintain anteroposterior stability of the knee joint. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A drug lacking vasodilatory properties that is effective in angina is: | [
"Isosorbide dinitrate",
"Metoprolol",
"Nifedipine",
"Verapamil"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
The dose of betamethasone in prenatal to prevent respiratory distress syndrome is - | [
"6 mg",
"12 mg every 24 hours",
"6 mg every 12 hours",
"4 mg sta"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., 12 mg every 24 hours | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is x-linked recessive ? | [
"G-6-PD deficiency",
"Neurofibromatosis",
"Thalassemia",
"Alkaptonuria"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., G-6-PD deficiency X-linked Recessive disorders Musculoskeletal Hematological Immune Metabolic Nervous o Duchene muscular dystrophy o Hemophilia A& B o Agammaglobulinemia o Diabetes insipidus o Fragile-X-syndrome o Chronic granulomatus o G-6-PD deficiency o Wiskott-Aldrich synd. o Lesch Nyhan o Colour blindness disease syndrome X-linked dominant disorders o Vitamine D resistant rickets o Familial hypophosphatemia | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 50-year-old woman undergoes a neurologic exam that indicates loss of pain and temperature sensitivity, vibratory sense, and proprioception in the left side of the body. These symptoms could be explained by: | [
"A tumour on the right medial lemniscal pathway in spinal cord",
"A tumour on the left medial lemniscal pathway in spinal cord",
"A tumour affecting the right postcentral gyrus",
"A large tumour in the right ventrolateral spinal cord"
] | C | Loss of pain and temperature indicate lesion in Spinothalamic pathway. Loss of touch, vibration, and proprioception points towards lesion of Dorsal column (Medial lemniscus) pathway. Since dorsal column crosses in medulla while spinothalamic tract crosses in spinal cord, destruction of right postcentral gyrus will result in loss of pain, temperature, vibration, touch, proprioception on left side of the leg. Option A: Right sided lesion in dorsal column will result in loss of touch, vibration, and proprioception on the right side only, below the level of lesion. Pain and temperature sense should remain intact. Option B: Left medial lemniscus pathway lesion will result in loss of touch, vibration, and proprioception on the left side only, below the level of lesion. Pain and temperature sense should remain intact. Option D: Tumour in right ventrolateral spinal cord will affect ventrolateral tract that will result in loss of pain and temperature sensation on the left side below level of lesion. But proprioception and vibration will remain intact. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Radioactivity acts on which phase of cell cycle: March 2010 | [
"G1",
"G2",
"M",
"S"
] | B | Ans. B: G2 Most radiosensitive stage of cell cycle: G2M G2 G1 Most radioresistant phase: End of S phase | train | med_mcqa | null |
"Window period" in HIV is defined as - | [
"Period between onset of infection and clinically detectable level of antibodies",
"Period between infection and appearance of symptoms",
"Time between HIV positivity to AIDS",
"CD4 count <200"
] | A | Window period is a period between entry of virus to appearance of detectable Ab in serum Ref Harrison 20th edition pg 857 | train | med_mcqa | null |
To make a positive identification with the help of a partial fingerprint, the points of similarity should be at least - | [
"10",
"12",
"16",
"20"
] | C | For this different textbooks have given a different number:-
Parikh → 16 characteristics
Reddy →10 - 12 finer characteristics
Seth and Simpson → 16 - 20 characteristics
16 is given in more number of textbooks, so the answer is 16. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A boy attempts suicide. The boy dies due to the complications in the hospital. Doctor should: | [
"Inform police",
"Not required as it is a case of suicide",
"Repo to magistrate",
"Handover the body to the legal guardian"
] | A | In case of suicide, there is no need to inform the police if the person is alive. If the person dies due to complications, we should inform the police. | train | med_mcqa | null |
B-Carotene, precursor of vitamin A, is oxidatively cleaved by: | [
"b-Carotene dioxygenase",
"Oxygenase",
"Hydroxylase",
"Transferase"
] | A | Ans. A. b-Carotene dioxygenaseCarotene is cleaved by b-carotene dioxygenase of intestinal cells to release 2 moles of retinal which is reduced to retinol. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The comparison of moality rates between two countries requires the application of direct standardization. Which if the following parameters makes it necessary to have standardization? | [
"Numerators",
"Denominators",
"Causes of death",
"Age distributions"
] | D | Moality rates between two countries are not comparable because these populations have different Age compositions. The difference in age between two sets of population (two countries) does not allow the moality rates of the two populations to be compared. Direct standardization is used to remove the difference in age distribution thus allowing the comparison of moality rates. Ref: Park's Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine 19th Edition; Pages 54 - 55. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Low maternal serum 25-hydroxyvitamin D is associated with all of the following pregnancy and neonatal outcomes, EXCEPT: | [
"Gestational Diabetis",
"Pre-eclampsia",
"Caesarian Section",
"Smal for Gestational Age Neonate"
] | C | Vitamin D insufficiency is associated with an increased risk of gestational diabetes, pre-eclampsia, and small for gestational age infants. Pregnant women with low 25-OHD levels had an increased risk of bacterial vaginosis and lower bih weight infants, but not delivery by caesarean section. Note: This is an impoant new question. Ref: Association between maternal serum 25-hydroxyvitamin D level and pregnancy and neonatal outcomes: systematic review and meta-analysis of observational studies, BMJ 2013; 346, Published 26 March 2013. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Chargaff's rule state that, in DNA ? | [
"Purines to pyrimidines ratio is 2",
"A+T=G+C",
"Purines = Pyrimidines",
"All of the above"
] | C | [Ref : Harper 291h/e p. 344 & 28thie p. 302; Essentials of biochemistry p. 915[Chargaff's rule states that in DNA of all species quantities of ourines is the same as that of pyrimidines, i.e. A+G = T+C. In A + Gother words, ratio of purines to pyrimidines is one, i.e. T c - 1This is because one member of a base pair in a DNA must always be a purine and the other a pyrimidine.This base pairing restriction explains that in a double stranded DNA molecule, the content of adenine equals that of thymine(A=T) and the content of guanine equals that of cylosine (G=C). Therefore = 7 or AC = TG | train | med_mcqa | null |
Japanese encephalitis vaccine in the routine schedule is as follows | [
"First dose at 9-12 months followed by booster at 16-24 months",
"Single dose vaccine",
"Three doses 1 month apart followed by a booster if needed",
"Three doses with the second dose 1 month and 3rd dose 6 months after the first dose"
] | A | Ans- A | train | med_mcqa | null |
Periodicity is a characteristic feature in which sinus infection? | [
"Maxillary sinus infection",
"Frontal sinus infection",
"Sphenoid sinus infection",
"Ethmoid sinus infection"
] | B | A frontal headache is usually severe and localized over affected sinus. It shows characteristic periodicity, ie. comes upon waking, gradually increases and reaches its peak by about midday and then stas subsiding. It is also called " an office headache" because of its presence during the office hours. (Ref: Textbook of Diseases of ENT, PL Dhingra, 7th edition, pg no. 214) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Severe pain in eye with loss of vision can be a manifestation of: March 2013 (h) | [
"Acute angle closure glaucoma",
"Open angle glaucoma",
"Vitreous hemorrhage",
"Retinal detachment"
] | A | Ans. A i.e. Acute angle closure glaucoma | train | med_mcqa | null |
The nerve mediating pain of External hemorrhoids is: | [
"Hypogastric nerve",
"Inferior rectal nerve",
"Pelvic splanchnic nerve",
"Sympathetic plexus"
] | B | -External hemorrhoids --> present below pectinate line , painful bleeding is present --> pain carried by Inferior Rectal Nerve (branch of pudendal nerve). -Internal haemorrhoids --> present above pectinate line --> painless bleeding is its feature. | train | med_mcqa | null |
HIV RNA by PCR can detect as low as: | [
"30 copies viral RNA/ml of blood",
"40 copies viral RNA/ml of blood",
"50 copies of viral RNA/ml of blood",
"60 copies of viral RNA/ml of blood"
] | B | HIV RNA by PCR can detect as low as40 copies viral RNA/ml of blood | train | med_mcqa | null |
Coffee bean sign is seen in- | [
"Sigmoid volvulus",
"Hepatocellular carcinoma",
"Gall stones",
"Paralytic ileus"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Sigmoid volvulus o 18 Fluorodeoxyglucoseis a radiopharmaceutical used in medical imaging modality positron emission tomography (PET).o Following are the tracers used in Positron emission tomography:18 Fluorodeoxyglucose - Poorly differentiated neuroendocrine tumorsCarbon labeled 5 HTP - Carcinoid111 In octreotide, 68 GaOctreotide, 64 Cu TETA Octreotide - Neuroendocrine tumors11C metomidaie - Adrenocortical tumors18 FDG PET - differentiate between benign and malignant adrenocortical tumors. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All muscles of the palate are supplied by pharyngeal plexus, EXCEPT? | [
"Tensor veli palatine",
"Palatoglossus",
"Palatopharyngeus",
"None of the above"
] | A | With the exception of tensor veli palatini, which is supplied by the motor branch of the mandibular division of the trigeminal through the nerve to medial pterygoid, the muscles are supplied by the cranial pa of the accessory nerve the pharyngeal plexus. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Northern Blot is used for: | [
"RNA",
"DNA",
"Protein",
"c DNA"
] | A | Ref: Harpers Illustrated biochemistry, 28th ed, ch. 39,pp-393.Explanation:Northern Blot:Similar to the Southern Blot, but used to probe RNA.Can be used to determine mRNA size, e.g., detect differences in the promoter and terminator sites, etc.Can be used to determine if a particular gene is expressed, and if so, how much, in which tissue type, and when is it expressed in the life cycle | train | med_mcqa | null |
Influenza virus causes new epidemic by (3-5 yrs)- | [
"Antigenic drift",
"Antigenic shift",
"Cycle trends",
"Mosaicsm"
] | A | The influenza A virus is unique among the viruses because it is frequently subject to antigenic variation, both major and minor . When there is a sudden complete or major change , it is called a shift, and when the antigenic change is gradual over a period of time , it is called a drift . Antigenic shift results from genetic recombination . Antigenic drift involves point mutation . Ref:PARK&;S TEXTBOOK OF PREVENTIVE AND SOCIAL MEDICINE , 23rd edition , Page :154 | train | med_mcqa | null |
In the following conditions, hone mass is reduced except: (Repeat) | [
"Osteoporosis",
"Osteomalacia",
"Hyperparathyroidism",
"Osteopetrosis"
] | D | Ans: D (Osteopetrosis) Ref : Apley's System of Orthopaedics ami Fractures, 9th edition, pg. 131-136, 167Explanation:Almost half the bone volume is mineral matter - mainly calcium and phosphate in the form of crystalline hydroxyapatite which is laid down in osteoid at the calcification front.In mature bone the proportions of calcium and phosphate are constant and the molecule is firmly bound to collagen.It is important to appreciate that in life 'demineralization' of bone occurs only by- resorption of the entire matrix.OsteoblastsThese cells are concerned w ith bone formation and osteoclast activation.They are derived from mesenchymal precursors in the bone marrow and the deep layer of the periosteum.Differentiation is controlled by a number of interacting growth factors, including bone morphogenetic proteins.They are responsible for the production of type I collagen as well as the non-collagenous bone proteins and for the mineralization of bone matrix.OsteoclastsThese are large mu hi nucleated cells and are the principal mediators of bone resorption.They develop from mononuclear precursors in the haemopoietic marrow' (the same lineage as macrophages) under the influence of local osteoblastic stromal cells that generate an essential osteoclast differentiating factor - receptor activator of nuclear faetor-KfS ligand (RANKL ) - w'hich binds with a specific receptor site (RANK) on the osteoclast precursors.OsteoporosisIt is characterized by an abnormally low bone mass, normal mineral to matrix ratio and defects in bone structure, a combination which renders the bone unusually fragile and at greater than normal risk of fracture in a person of that age, sex and race.In X-rays characteristic signs of osteoporosis are loss of trabecular definition, thinning of the cortices and insufficiency fractures.Compression fractures of the vertebral bodies, wedging at multiple levels or biconcave distortion of the vertebral end-plates due to bulging of intact intervertebral discs are typical of severe pos tmenopau sal osteoporos i s.OsteomalaciaIt is a manifestation of Vitamin D deficiency in adults.There is inadequate mineralisation of hone.It is characterized by a decreased ratio of hone mineral to matrix. Thus there is a decrease in bone mineral mass.HyperparathyroidismIt is characterized by a general loss of bone substance.In severe cases, osteoclastic hyperactivity produces subperiosteal erosions, endosteal cavitation and replacement of the marrow spaces by vascular granulations and fibrous tissue (osteitis fibrosa cystica).Haemorrhage and giant-cell reaction within the fibrous stroma may give rise to brownish, tumour-like masses, whose liquefaction leads to fluid-filled cysts.OsteopetrosisIt is characterized by sclerosis and thickening of the bones which appear with increased radiographic density.This is the result of an imbalance between bone formation and bone resorption: in the most common form, osteopetrosis, there is failed bone resorption due to a defect in osteoclast production and/or function.As a result of this bone mass is increased in this condition.This does not translate into increased strength but causes increased brittleness and susceptibility to pathological fractures.This condition is also called marble bones disease or Albers-Schonberg Disease. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following method is sensitive for easy assessment of hormonal activity? | [
"Chromatography",
"ELISA",
"Radio-immunoassay",
"Cytochemistry assay"
] | B | It is cost effective and does not employ radio active isotopes. It is the basic principle for measuring the concentration of a hormone. Ref: guyton and hall textbook of medical physiology 12 edition page number: 535,536,537 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Commonest complication of CSOM is | [
"Subperiosteal abscess",
"Mastoiditis",
"Brain abscess",
"Meningitis"
] | C | 50% of brain abscesses in adults and 25% in children are otogenic in origin. In adults, an abscess usually follows CSOM with cholesteatoma. (Ref: Textbook of diseases of ENT, PL Dhingra, 7th edition, pg no. 90) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which is not secreted by stomach? | [
"Lipase",
"Pepsinogens",
"HCI",
"None"
] | D | Gastric lipase is an acidic lipase secreted by the gastric chief cells in the fundic mucosa in the stomach. It is a weak fat-splitting enzyme. Pepsinogen is secreted by the chief cells of main gastric glands which are found in the body & fundus of stomach. It is a proteolytic enzyme. HCl is secreted by the parietal cells of main gastric glands found in body & fundus of stomach. It paicipates in the breakdown of protein, provides an optimal pH for action of pepsin & hinders the growth of pathogenic bacteria. Ref: Medical Physiology, Indu Khurana | train | med_mcqa | null |
Use of Morphine should be avoided in all of the following patients Except | [
"IHD",
"Bronchial asthma",
"Elderly male",
"Biliary colic"
] | A | Contraindications for morphine 1. Use of pure agonists with weak paial agonists: When a weak paial agonist such as pentazocine is given to a patient also receiving a full agonist (eg, morphine), there is a risk of diminishing analgesia or even inducing a state of withdrawal; combining full agonist with paial agonist opioids should be avoided.2. Use in patients with head injuries: risk of elevated intracranial pressure3. Use during pregnancy: In pregnant women who are chronically using opioids, the fetus may become physically dependent in utero and manifest withdrawal symptoms in the early postpaum period. 4. Use in patients with impaired pulmonary function: In patients with borderline respiratory reserve, the depressant propeies of the opioid analgesics may lead to acute respiratory failure. 5. Use in patients with impaired hepatic or renal function: Because morphine is primarily metabolized in the liver, their use in patients in a prehepatic coma may be questioned. Half-life is prolonged in patients with impaired renal function.6. Use in patients with endocrine disease: Patients with adrenal insufficiency (Addison's disease) and those with hypothyroidism (myxedema) may have prolonged and exaggerated responses to opioids. Reference: Katzung Pharmacology; 13th edition; Chapter 31; Opioid Analgesics & Antagonists | train | med_mcqa | null |
In hemophilia, which of the following is raised:September 2007 | [
"BT",
"CT",
"PT",
"aPTT"
] | D | Ans. D: aPTTHemophilia A is a recessive X-linked genetic disorder involving a lack of functional clotting Factor VIII and represents 80% of haemophilia cases.Hemophilia B is a recessive X-linked genetic disorder involving a lack of functional clotting Factor IX. It comprises approximately 20% of haemophilia cases.Haemophilia C is an autosomal genetic disorder (i.e. not X-linked) involving a lack of functional clotting Factor XI. Haemophilia C is not completely recessive: heterozygous individuals also show increased bleedingProlonged APTT may indicate:Use of heparin (or contamination of the sample)Antiphospholipid antibody (especially lupus anticoagulant, which paradoxically increases propensity to thrombosis)Coagulation factor deficiency (e.g. hemophilia)Shoening of the PTT has little clinical relevance.Normal PTT times require the presence of the following coagulation factors: I, II, III, IV, V, VI, VIII, IX, X, XI, and XII. Notably, deficiencies in factors VII or XIII will not be detected with the PTT test. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A girl child with verrucous lesions at an age of 2 weeks later on developed linear bands of hyperkeratotic papules and nodules followed by whorled pigmentation. Her mother had history of in utero child death and hypopigmented atrophic linear lesions. The diagnosis is | [
"Neurofibromatosis",
"Xeroderma pirmentosa",
"Tuberous sclerosis",
"Incontinentia pigmenti"
] | D | D. i.e. Incontinentia pigmenti | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 45-year-old patient presents with conductive hearing loss, facial pain in temporoparietal and the lower jaw area, and immobile soft palate on the right side. The probable diagnosis is: | [
"Sluder's neuralgia",
"Costen's syndrome",
"Trotter's syndrome",
"Wallenberg's syndrome"
] | C | Trotter's syndrome or triad which is due to nasopharyngeal carcinoma consists of:(i). Conductive hearing loss due to eustachian tube obstruction.(ii). Ipsilateral immobility of palate.(iii). Neuralgic pain in distribution of mandibular division (V3 ) due to spread of growth laterally through sinus of Morgagni to involve (V3 ). Costen syndrome consists of ear pain, blocked ear and tinnitus. It is due to abnormality of TM joint caused by defective bite.Sluder's neuralgia is due to neuralgia of sphenopalatine ganglion (V2 ) causing pain in the lower half of face but there is, in addition, congestion of nose, watering of eyes and rhinorrhoea.Wallenberg's syndrome due to thrombosis of posterior-inferior cerebellar artery leading to ischaemia of lateral pail of medulla. It causes:Vertigo- Vestibular nucleusAnaesthesia of ipsilateral side of face- Nucleus and descending tract of CN VParalysis of palate, pharynx and larynx- Nucleus ambiguousHorner's syndrome- Preganglionic sympathetic fibresContra lateral anaesthesia of the body- Crossed lateral spinothalamic tract | train | med_mcqa | null |
The enzyme glucosyl transferase secreted by Streptococcus mutans synthesizes glucans from | [
"Glucose",
"Fructose",
"Sucrose",
"Lactose"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Culture media for transpo of stools in suspected case of shigellosis - | [
"Deoxycholate medium",
"Blood agar",
"Nutrient broth",
"Buffered glycerol saline"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Buffered glycorol salineStreptococcus pyogenes Pike's mediumNeisseriaStua's medium, Amies mediumFor stool specimenBuffered glycerol saline, Carly-Blair, Stua mediumSalmonella, ShigellaSach's buffered glycerol salineV choleraeVR medium, Cary-Blair medium, Autoclaved sea waterBordetellaModified Stua's, Mischulow's charcol agar | train | med_mcqa | null |
Test done for mycobacterium tuberculosis by whole blood is : | [
"BACTEC",
"IGRA",
"GeneXpe",
"Culture"
] | B | IGRA is interferon gamma release assay .In this test,we target up with the aificial intake of mycobacterium like ESAT-6,CFP-10,TB-7.7, by adding the sample blood(sensitized ) having T-cells which release interferon gamma and its activity can be measured. It is highly specific and there are no positive results. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The pathognomonic feature of classic alpo syndrome is: | [
"Lenticonus and hematuria",
"Hematuria and sensorineural hearing loss",
"Sensorineural hearing loss and lenticonus",
"Hematuria and hyperextensibility of joints"
] | A | The diagnosis of classic alpo syndrome is based on X-linked inheritance of hematuria, sensorineural hearing loss, and lenticonus. The lenticonus together with hematuria is pathognomonic of classic Alpo syndrome. Reference: Harrisons Principles of Internal Medicine, 18th Edition, Pages 3213-14 | train | med_mcqa | null |
The most predictive and dangerous side effect of propranolol that makes it to be avoided in known patient of COPD is induction of : | [
"Respiratory failure",
"Acute asthmatic attack",
"Glaucoma",
"Pleural effusion"
] | B | Answer is B (Acute Asthmatic Attack) " Propanalol worsens chronic obstructive lung disease. It can precipitate life threatening attack of Bronchial Asthma as it increases Bronchial resistance by Blocking 2 receptors" - KDT Drugs most commonly associated with the induction of acute episodes of Asthma Aspirin g Beta adrenergic blockers Q Colouring agents such as tarazine Sultiting agents. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following trigger onset of labour? | [
"ACTH in mother",
"ACTH in fetus",
"Prostaglandin",
"Oxytocin"
] | B | Fetal ACTH acts on fetal adrenal gland causing release of DHEA and DHEA sulphate which are used by the placenta along with the other enzymes like Sulfatase ,Aromatase, 3 B hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase, 17 B hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase -Conveing into Estriol and Estardiol that help in triggering the labour. Ref: Williams Obs 24e pg 108-109. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Storage temperature for vaccine is- | [
"- 4degC to 0degC",
"0degC to 4degC",
"+ 2degC to 8degC",
"+ 4degC to 12degC"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., +2degC to 8degC o Usual temperature is + 2 to +8degC. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Drug of choice for diphyllobothrium latum is | [
"Mebendazole",
"Albendazole",
"Praziquantel",
"Pyrantel pamoate"
] | C | Praziquantel is the drug of choice for Diphyllobothrium latum. It is rapidly taken up by susceptible worms and act by causing leakage of intracellular calcium from the membranes producing contracture and paralysis of the worms. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following statements about 'Late expanding phase' of emographic cycle is true - | [
"Birth rate is lower than death rate",
"Death rate begins to decline while birth rate remains unchanged",
"Death rate declines more than birth rate",
"High death rate and high birth rate"
] | C | Late expanding phase of demographic cycle (third stage) is characterized by a decline in death rate which is greater than the decline in birth rate. | train | med_mcqa | null |
If only one terminal aldehyde group of glucose is oxidized, the product is - | [
"Glucuronic acid",
"Gluconic acid",
"Gluchosaccharic acid",
"Gluconalactone"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Gluconic acid Oxidation of sugaro When aldose sugars are oxidized they may form three different sugar acid, depending upon oxidation of aldehyde group (at C-l) or terminal alcohol group (at C-6).i) Aldonic acid:- Oxidation of an aldose with hypobromous acid (HOBr) oxidises only aldehyde group and convert it to carboxyl group to form aldonic acid. For example, glucose is oxidized to gluconic acid.ii) Saccharic acid:- Oxidation of aldoses with nitric acid convert both aldehyde and terminal primary alcohol groups to carboxyl group, formic saccharic acid. For example, glucose is oxidize to glucosaccharic acid.iii) Uronic acid:- When an aldose is oxidized in such a way that the terminal primary alcohol is converted is to carboxyl without oxidation of aldehyde group, a uronic acid is produce. For example, glucose is oxidized to glucuronic acid. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most sensitive parameter in monitoring iodine deficiency control programme is: | [
"Goitre",
"Urine T3.T4",
"Growth retardation",
"Neonatal hypothyroidism"
] | D | Ans: D (Neonatal hypothyroidism) Ref: Park's Preventive and Social Medicine, 22nd edition. Pg 579Explanation:Iodine level in salt at consumption level 15 ppm.Iodine level in salt at production level 30 ppmIodine oil injection will provide protection for 4 years.Sensitive indicator for consumption of appropriate level of iodine is urine level of iodine.Any area is said to be endemic to IDD. if prevalence of goiter is >10% among general population or >5% among school going children or median iodine excretion is <100mg/I.RD.A- 150 m gram.Most sensitive parameter in monitoring iodine deficiency control programme is - Neonatal hypothyroidism. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Lamina Cribrosa is absent in | [
"Macular hole",
"Coloboma of Optic disc",
"Optic atrophy",
"Morning glory syndrome"
] | D | Morning glory syndrome is a birth defect of optic nerve that resembles flower known as morning glory. | train | med_mcqa | null |
What is the volume of reservoir bag used in neonatal resuscitation | [
"240 ml",
"500 ml",
"750 ml",
"1000 ml"
] | A | The volume of reservoir bag used in neonatal resuscitation is 250 mlThe volume of reservoir bag used in resuscitation of infants is 500 ml** almost all of the manufacturers are using bag sizes between 240 mL and 320 mL for infants and 500 mL for children | train | med_mcqa | null |
A female patient was treated with antibiotics for chlamydia induced UTI, suddenly presents again with itching/pruritus, vaginal discharge, burning micturition. Which drug should be given? | [
"Ceftriaxone",
"Azithromycin",
"Moxifloxacin",
"Amphotericin B"
] | B | Ref: Goodman & Gillman 13th ed. P 1017* The patient in the given case has chlamydia induced UTI. The agent that can be preferred for management of such condition is fluroquinolones (FQ).* Books state: "FQs are more efficacious than trimethoprim- sulfamethoxazole or oral B-Lactams". Moxifloxacin doesn't accumulate in urine and hence NOT approved for treatment of UTI.* Fluoroquinolones lack activity for Treponema pallidum but have activity in vitro against Chlamydia trachomatis and Haemophilus ducreyi.* This patient later presented with symptoms of sexually transmitted infection, for which the best option is Azithromycin, single dose is effective.* Book states: "For chlamydial urethritis/cervicitis, a 7-day course of ofloxacin or levofloxacin is an alternative to a 7-day treatment with doxycycline or a single dose of azithromycin; other available quinolones are NOT effective in these condition" | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following are helpful for elimination of Filariasis, except - | [
"Microfilaris do not multiply in vectors",
"They multiply in humans",
"Larvae are deposited on skin surface where they can't survive",
"NOne"
] | C | - Man is the definitive host and mosquito the intermediate host in Bancroftian and Brugian filariasis. - humans acquire infection by the bite of mosquito which contain the infective third stage larva. - Adults live in the lymphatic system of host. - The female worms in humans may give bih to as many as 50,000 microfilaria per day.No multiplication in the mosquito. - the extrinsic incubation period is 10-14 days . Reference : Park's textbook of preventive and social medicine, 23rd edition pg no:271 <\p> | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following statements about Androgen Insensitivity Syndrome are true except: | [
"Patients have an XY genotype",
"Pubic hair are abundant",
"Short vagina may be present",
"Ovaries are absent"
] | B | Ans. is b, i.e. Pubic hair are abundantIn these patients testis are intra-abdominal which can present in the form of bilateral inguinal hernia and since the entire testosterone is converted to estrogen hence these patients are tall. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most common bacteria causing diarrhea in children | [
"Enterotoxigenic E.coli",
"Enteroinvasive E.coli",
"Enterohemorrhagic E.coli",
"Enteropathogenic E.coli"
] | D | - Enteropathogenic E.coli : these have been associated mainly with diarrhea in infants and infants. - It do not produce any toxin nor are they invasive. Reference : Anathanarayan & paniker&;s 9th edition, pg no:281 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Transplacental transfer of antibodies from immunized mother to her newborn is | [
"Natural active immunity",
"Natural passive immunity",
"Acquired active immunity",
"Acquired passive immunity"
] | B | Ans. b (Natural passive immunity). (Ref. Textbook of Microbiology by Anantanarayan 6th/72)# Natural active immunity results from either clinical or inapparent infection by a parasite.# A person who has recovered from attack of chickenpox or of measles develops natural active immunity (lifelong).# Artificial active immunity is by vaccines.# Artificial passive immunity is immune horse serum administration# Transplacental transfer of antibodies from immunized mother to her newborn is natural passive immunity. | train | med_mcqa | null |
What is the name of disease transmitted by this vector? | [
"Filaria",
"Leishmaniasis",
"Yellow fever",
"Malaria"
] | B | Ans. b. Leishmaniasis (Ref: Park 23/e p775, 304. 22/e p 716-721)The given image is of sand fly (hairy body and erect wing). Sandfly is the primary vector of leishmaniasis and pappataci fever. MosquitoSandflySize4-5 mm2.5 mmColorBlackYellowish brownEggs laid100-25040-60Flight range2-3 km200 yardsLife span2-3 weeks2 weeksSandfly (Phlebotamus)Sandfly is the primary vectors of leishmaniasis & pappataci feverQ.Viruses carried by sandflies: Chandipura virus (cousin of rabies virus)SpeciesActs as vector forPhlebotamus argentipesKala-AzarQPhlebotamus papatasiiSandfly feverQPhlebotamus sergentiOriental SoreQDescription of SandflyAdults* Adults are about 1.5-3.0 mm long and yellowish in color, with conspicuous black eyes, hairy bodies, wings, & legsQ.* The oval lanceolate wings are carried erect on the humped thorax.* Males possess long prominent genital terminalia known as claspers. Females have a pair of anal recti.Distribution* Found in the warm countriesBites* Only female sandfly can bite in the dwelling at night. * It takes shelter during day in holes & crevices in wall, in dark room & store room, etc.Breeding* Mostly species are nocturnal in habit.Feeding* Mostly species are nocturnal in habit.Dispersal* Range of flight is 200 yard from their breeding places.Life Span* Average life of sandfly is about 2 weeks.Body of sandfly consists of three partsHeadThoraxAbdomen* Head bear a pair of long & hairy antenna.* Palpi & proboscis & one pair of prominent black eyes are present.* Thorax bears a pair of wings & three pair of legs.* Wings are upright in shape & hairy.* Second longitudinal vein is branched twice.* Legs are long & slender and out of proportion to size of body.* Abdomen has ten segments & is covered with hairs.* In the female, tip of abdomen is rounded while in male claspers are attached to last abdominal segment.Lifecycle of sandflyEggLarvaPupaAdult* Female lays eggs in the damp dark places in the cattle sheds & poultry.* Number: 40-60* Colour: brownish* Length: 0.4 mm* Eggs hatch in 1-2 weeks.* Larva is maggot like structure, having large head, thorax, abdomen & two long bristle on last abdominal segment.* Larva feed on decaying organic matter & become a pupa in about 2 weeks.* Pupa is found in cracks & cervices in* the wall.* Pupa stage lasts for about 1 week.* Average life* span of a sandfly is 2 weeks.Control Measures:Sandflies are easily controlled because they do not move long distance from their breeding places.Insecticide: Lindane has been proved effective.Sanitation: Removal of shrubs & vegetation, filling of cracks & crevices in the wall & floor and distance of cattle sheds & poultry from human habitations.Visceral Leishmaniasis (VL)It is a systemic protozoan disease that is transmitted by phlebotominc sandfliesQ.Vector: Female phelebotomine sandfliesQIncubation period: 2-6 monthsLeishmaniasisTypesCausative agentVisceral* Leishmania donovaniQCutaneous* Leishmania tropicaQMucocutaneous* Leishmania braziliensisQEpidemiology:Poor & neglected populations in East Africa & Indian subcontinent are particularly affected.Lifecycle:Promastigote of form of L.donovani is transmitted into the skin by female phlebotomine sandliesQ.Once transmitted, the parasites are internalized by dendritic cells & macrophages in the dermis where they lose their flagella, transforming into the amastigote fromQ.Amastigotes multiply, destroy the host cell & infect other phagocytic cells.Amastigotes disseminate through lymphatic & vascular systems, eventually infiltrating hone marrow, liver & spleenQ.Clinical features:Symptoms & signs of persistent systemic infection: Fever, fatigue, weakness, anorexia & weight lossParasitic invasion of blood & reticuloendothelial system: Enlarged lymph nodes & hepatosplenomegalyQFever (intermittent) is usually associated with rigor & chillsQFatigue & weakness are worsened by anaemia, which is by the persistent inflammatory state, Hypersplenism(the peripheral destruction of erythrocytes in the enlarged spleen) and sometimes by bleeding.Hyperpigmentation, which probably led to the name kala-azar (black fever in hindi), has only- been described in VL patients from the Indian subcontinent, but today this symptom is uncommonQ.Diagnosis:Gold standard for diagnosis: Demonstration of amastigotes in smears of tissue aspirates is the gold standard for the diagnosis of VLQ.Sensitivity of splenic smears is >95%, whereas smears of bone marrow (60-85%) and lymph node aspirates (50%) are less sensitive.A rapid immunochromatographic test based on detection of antibodies to a recombinant antigen(rK39) consisting of 39 amino acids conserved in kinesin region of L. infantum is used worldwide.Test requires only a drop of fingerprick blood or serum & result can be read within 15 min.Except in East Africa (w'here both its sensitivity and its specificity are lower), sensitivity of the rK39 rapid diagnostic test (RdT) in immunocompetent individuals is ~98% and its specificity is 90%Q.In Sudan, an RdT based on a new synthetic polyprotein, rK28. was more sensitive (96.8%) & specific (96.2%) than rK39-based RdTsQ.Treatment:First-line treatment for VL: Pentavalent antimonials sodium stibogluconate & meglumine antimoniateQAntimonials are toxic drugs with frequent adverse side effects, including cardiac arrhythmia & acute pancreatitisQ.Miltefosine, which was initially developed as an anticancer drug is the first effective oral drug for VLQ. | train | med_mcqa | null |
confidence limits can be calculated using - | [
"Mean and range",
"Mean and standard error",
"Median and range",
"Median and standard detion"
] | D | - the area of either side of mean in normal distribution curve gives the confidence limit. - confidence limit is calculated from mean and standard detion. - 95 percent confidence limits is 2 standard detion added and subtracted from the mean. Reference : Park's textbook of preventive and social medicine, 23rd edition, pg no:849 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Drug contraindicated in uterine fibroid: | [
"Danazol",
"Estrogen",
"Mifepristone",
"GnRH analogue"
] | B | Ans. B Estrogen Ref.: Shaws 15th ed. 1359; Williams Gynecology Ch: 9 * Leiomyomas are benign smooth muscle neoplasms that typically originate from the myometrium. They are often referred to as uterine myomas, and are incorrectly called fibroids because the considerable amount of collagen contained in many of them creates a fibrous consistency. Estrogen has a hormonal role in the patho-physiology of formation of fibroids. * Drugs used to decrease the size of the fibroid: # GnRH analogue (Buserelin, Nafarelin, Goserelin, Triptorelin, Leuprorelin acetate) # GnRH antagonist: Cetrirelix, Ganirelix # Mifepristone (anti-progesterone) # Danazol | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is involved in tumor metastasis cascade - | [
"Fibronectin",
"E-Cadherin",
"Type IV collagenase",
"Tyrosine kinase"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Differentiating features b/w neurosis and psychosis : | [
"Insight is preserved",
"Lack of insight",
"Personality and behavior preserved",
"None"
] | B | B i.e. Lack of insight | train | med_mcqa | null |
A neonate develops spastic contractions on the second postpaum day. Laboratory studies show hypocalcemia. MRI studies demonstrate aplasia of the thymus and parathyroid glands. What is the appropriate diagnosis? | [
"Adenosine deaminase deficiency",
"Common variable immunodeficiency",
"DiGeorge syndrome",
"Transient hypogammaglobulinemia of infancy"
] | C | DiGeorge syndrome Chromosomal defect (22q11 deletion) that results in developmental anomalies of the branchial (pharyngeal) pouches and organs that develop from these embryonic structures (thymus, parathyroids, and aoic arch). These children present with tetany (caused by hypoparathyroidism) and deficiency of cellular immunity. They also have characteristic facial features ("angry look"). In the absence of a thymus, T-cell maturation is interrupted at the pre-T stage. DiGeorge syndrome has been corrected by transplanting thymic tissue. Diagnosis: DiGeorge syndrome | train | med_mcqa | null |
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