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Structures passing through the lateral part of superior orbital fissure are all except: | [
"Lacrimal nerve",
"Trochlear nerve",
"Oculomotor nerve",
"Frontal nerve"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Endophthalmitis involves inflammation of all of the following, Except - | [
"Sclera",
"Uvea",
"Retina",
"Vitreous"
] | A | Endophthalmitis is defined as an inflammation of the inner structures of the eyeball,ie., uveal tissue and retina assosiated with pouring of exudates in the vitreous cavity, anterior chamber and posterior chamber. Ref:A K Khurana 6th edition pg:170 | train | med_mcqa | null |
A patient is found to be positive only for Anti HBsAg. All other viral markers are negative.The likely diagnosis is : | [
"Vaccination",
"Chronic hepatitis B",
"Acute hepatitis B",
"Fulminant hepatitis B"
] | A | Answer is A (Vaccination) Isolated Anti-HBs Ag in serum is seen in immunization with HB.s Ag. Possible Causes of Isolated Anti-HBsAg Positivity in serum (Other markers negative) Immunization with HBsAg (after vaccination) Hepatitis B in the remote past (?) False-positive | train | med_mcqa | null |
Incubatory carrier seen in -a) Cholerab) Bubonic plaguec) Mumpsd) Measles e) Influenza | [
"ba",
"aec",
"cde",
"ce"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following biochemical reaction is involved in conversion of Histidine to histamine | [
"Decarboxylation",
"Carboxylation",
"Deamination",
"Oxidation"
] | A | Histidine to Histamine is Simple Decarboxylation step, requiring Vitamin B6 (PLP-Pyridoxal Phosphate) as coenzyme. Other examples of Simple Decarboxylation are: Tryptophan -Tryptamine Tyrosine -Tyramine DOPA -Dopamine Serine -Ethanolamine Cysteine-Beta Mercapto Ethanol Note: All these are mainly Amino Acids which undergo Decarboxylation to produce Amine Similarly, from Amino Acid, if Amino group is removed, Acid is formed. BUT Decarboxylation of Glutamate and Lysine does not form amine. Lysine - Cadaverine (a foul smelling diamine) Glutamate - GABA (Gamma Amino Butyric Acid) Fig.: Different factors required by Carboxylases and decarboxylases | train | med_mcqa | null |
Commonest type of seizure in newborn - | [
"Clonic",
"Tonic",
"Subtle",
"Myoclonic"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following statements about 'yaws' are true except - | [
"Caused by Treponema pertenue",
"Transmitted non venerally",
"Secondary yaws can involve bone",
"Late stages of yaws involve heart and nerves"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
TRUE about deep inguinal ring is: | [
"A defect in fascia transversalis",
"Lies an inch above the mid-inguinal point",
"Present medial to inferior epigastric aery",
"Commonest site of direct hernia"
] | A | Deep inguinal ring is present 1/2 inch (1.25cm) above the mid-inguinal point. The ring is present lateral (not medial) to Inferior epigastric aery (and vein). Indirect (not direct) inguinal hernia comes through the deep inguinal ring. The ring is created by the transversalis fascia, which invaginates to form a covering of the contents of the inguinal canal. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A lady while driving a car meet with an accident. She was admitted in an ICU for 6 months. After being discharged, she often gets up in night and feels terrified and has fear to sit in car again. The diagnosis is: | [
"Panne Attack",
"Phobia",
"Conversion Disorder",
"Conversion Disorder"
] | D | D i.e. Post traumatic stress disorder | train | med_mcqa | null |
The second costochondral joint is a | [
"Fibrous joint",
"Synol joint",
"Synchondrosis",
"Syndesmosis"
] | C | . | train | med_mcqa | null |
Hypokalemia causes: | [
"Increased amplitude of action potential",
"Hyperpolarisation",
"Resting membrane potential becomes less negative",
"Tetany"
] | B | Decreasing the external (hyponatremia) reduces the size of the AP but has little effect on RMP. Decrease in extracellular (hypocalcaemia) increases the excitability of nerve and muscle cells by increasing the permeability of sodium channels. <50% of normal cause spontaneous discharge in some peripheral nerves known as "tetany". An increase in extracellular (hypercalcemia) can stabilize the membrane by decreasing excitability If the extracellular level of K+ is increased (hyperkalemia), the resting potential moves closer to the threshold (depolarisation) for eliciting an action potential and the neuron becomes more excitable. If the extracellular level of K+ is decreased (hypokalemia), the membrane potential is reduced and the neuron is hyperpolarized. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All are true about Abnormal uterine bleeding except : | [
"Blood loss of less than 50 ml",
"Cycle duration is more than 35 days or less than 21 days",
"Bleeding period lasting 7 days or more",
"Irregular bleeding during a regular cycle"
] | A | Normal Menstrual Loss The upper limit of blood loss in a normal menstruation is considered as 80ml. Any bleeding above the specified normal limit is termed as abnormal uterine bleeding. Normal Menustration: Cycle interval-28days(21-35 days) Menustral flow- 4 to 5 days Menustral blood loss-35ml (20- 80ml) Common causes of AUB: 1.DUB 2.Infections 3.Endocrine Dysfunction 4.Pregnancy Complications 5.Hematological disorders 6.Neoplastic growth. Reference: Textbook of Gynaecology; Sheila balakrishnan; 2nd edition; Page 48 DC Dutta's Textbook of Gynecology; 7th edition ,page 152 | train | med_mcqa | null |
which of the following doesnot contribute to floor of 4th ventricle | [
"fascial nucleus",
"locus cerulens",
"vestibular chochlear nucleus",
"hypoglossal trigone"
] | A | Fouh Ventricle * Roof of the fouh ventricle -Formed by thin laminae of white matter. The lower has a median apeure (foramen of Magendie); cerebrospinal fluid escapes through this opening and lateral apeures into the subarachnoid space. Because these are the only communications between the ventricular and subarachnoid spaces, their blockage can produce one type of hydrocephalus. * The floor of the fouh ventricle, also known as rhomboid fossa, is formed by the dorsal surfaces of the pons and medulla oblongata. Fouh Ventricle and Cerebellum Posterior View ref : bd chaurasia | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is the most common 5081. functioning pancreatic islet cell tumour ? | [
"Gastrinoma",
"Glucagonoma",
"Insulinoma",
"Vipoma"
] | C | Gastroenteropancreatic NETs arise in organs that are derived embryologically from the gastrointestinal tract. Most commonly, they occur in the small bowel but they can also arise elsewhere in the bowel, pancreas, thymus and bronchi. The term 'carcinoid' is often used when referring to non-pancreatic gastroenteropancreatic NETs because, when initially described, they were thought to behave in an indolent fashion compared with conventional cancers. It is now recognised that there is a wide spectrum of malignant potential for all NETs; some are benign (most insulinomas and appendiceal carcinoid tumours), while others have an aggressive clinical course with widespread metastases (small-cell carcinoma of the lung). The majority of gastroenteropancreatic NETs behave in an intermediate manner, with relatively slow growth but a propensity to invade and metastasise to remote organs, especially the liver Ref Harrison 20th edition pg 517 | train | med_mcqa | null |
'Cafeteria approach' is related with which of the following? | [
"National Iodine Deficiency Disorder Programme",
"National Anemia Prophylaxis Programme",
"Reproductive and Child Health Programme",
"National Vector Borne Disease Control Programme"
] | C | Cafeteria approach is a component of GATHER approach for contraceptive counselling in Reproductive and Child Health Program. The method-mix in this programme includes five official methods -- female sterilisation, male sterilisation, intrauterine contraceptive device (IUCD), oral contraceptives, and condoms. GATHER approach for contraceptive counseling; Greet (the couple) Ask (their requirement of contraception) Tell (them about available methods suitable to their need) Help (them choose best method as per their requirement) Explain (use, side effects, failure) Return visit. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following EEG finding is charecteristic of absence seizures? | [
"Hypsarrythmia",
"1-2 Hz spike & wave",
"3 Hz spike & wave",
"Generalized polyspikes"
] | C | The electroencephalogram (EEG) of absence seizures shows a characteristic 3Hz spike-and-wave pattern during the seizures. The spells of seizures are characterized by brief loss of consciousness without loss of postural tone. It is associated with eye blinking or a slight head turning. Several hundred such spells occur daily, leading to impaired school performance and social interactions. These spells are characteristically inducible by hyperventilation. Ref: Clinical Neurology By Roger P. Simon, 7th Edition, Chapter 8 ; Adams and Victor's Principles of Neurology By Allan H. Ropper, 9th Edition, Chapter 16 | train | med_mcqa | null |
One side of kidney is normal, other side kidney is contracted kidney with scar, what is the most probable diagnosis: | [
"Chronic pyelonephritis",
"Polycystic kidney",
"Renal aery stenosis",
"Tuberculosis of kidney"
] | A | Chronic pyelonephritis REF: Chandrasoma Taylor 3rd/e p. 725, table (49.2), Textbook of Pathology by Datta page 567, Harrison's 15th ed p. 1590 Repeat from June 2010 (path) Differential Diagnosis of a Granular, contracted Kidney with scar is: Chronic Glomerulonephritis Chronic Pyelonephritis Benign Nephrosclerosis (Hypeension) CHRONIC PYELONEPHRITIS The surface has "Saddle shaped scars" (arrow) which corrospond to the parenchymal fibrosis and scarring of the pelvic lining. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The liver biopsy in acute hepatitis due to hepatitis B virus is likely to show all of the following, except - | [
"Ballooning change of hepatocytes",
"Ground glass hepatocytes",
"Focal or spotty necrosis",
"Acidophil bodies"
] | B | Ground glass hepatocytes are large hepatocytes containing surface antigen. Their cytoplasm is ground glass in appearance
These cells are seen in chronic hepatitis (not acute hepatitis)
Ground glass hepatocytes can be identified histochemically with orcein or aldehyde fuchsin stain.
Pathological features of acute viral hepatitis
1. Panlobular infiltration of mononuclear cells
This mononuclear infiltration primarily consists of → Lymphocytes, Plasma cells, Eosinophils Inflammatory infiltrate may spill over into the adjacent parenchyma to cause necrosis of periportal hepatocytes → interface hepatitis, can occur in both acute and chronic hepatitis.
2. Hepatic cell damage - It consists of
(a) Hepatic cell necrosis - The necrosis is usually focal or interzonal. Sometimes severe necrosis such as bridging or subacute hepatic necrosis occurs.
(b) Ballooning of cells - Damaged cells show diffuse swelling known as ballooning degeneration.
(c) Acidophilic degeneration of hepatocytes - In this single necrotic liver cell has coagulated pink cytoplasm and it shows pyknosis or karyolysis. These are called councilman bodies.
(d) Cell dropout
3. Hyperplasia of kupffer cells
4. Variable degree of cholestasis with brown pigmentation of hepatocytes.
5. Hepatic cell regeneration - It is indicated by increased mitotic figures, rosette or pseudoacinar formation and multi nucleated cells.
6. Lobular disarray → Loss of normal lobular architecture.
Note that these morphological lesions are similar in all types of viral hepatitis.
A few histological changes may be indicative of a particular type of virus.
1. In hepatitis C the histological lesion is characterized by -
The relative paucity of inflammation
A marked increase in activation of sinusoidal lining cells.
Presence of lymphoid aggregates
Presence of fat → Macrovesicular steatosis
Bile duct lesions.
2. In Hepatitis D → Macrovesicular steatosis occurs.
3. In Hepatitis E → Marked cholestasis occurs. | train | med_mcqa | null |
In langerhans cell hystiocytosis,the characteristic abnormality seen on microscopy is: | [
"Birbecks granules",
"Foamy macrophages",
"Giant cells",
"Plasma cells"
] | A | Langerhans cell histiocytosis is characterised by the presence of Birbeck granules in the cytoplasm.(ref Robbins 9th/622) | train | med_mcqa | null |
A female multipurpose worker should be able to detect all of the following EXCEPT: | [
"Mal-presentation",
"Renal disease",
"Anemia",
"Hydramnios"
] | B | Ans (b) Renal diseaseRef: K. Park 23rd ed. / 903, 19&h/754* Renal disease cannot be picked up by a health worker unless it is responsible for alteration of the urine grossly.* Please refer to above explanation | train | med_mcqa | null |
Ivermectin act by ? | [
"Inhibition of pyruvate ferridoxin oxidoreductase",
"Inhibition of Nicotinic Acetycholine receptor",
"Activation of Glutamate gated Chloride channels",
"Inhibition of heme polymerase"
] | C | Ivermectin : MOA :induce paralysis by activating Glutamate-gated Cl- channels foundonly in Inveebrates(Nematode nerve or muscle cells) and causes hyperpolarizationby increasing intracellular Chloride concentration, resulting in paralysis.It also binds with high affinity to GABA-gated and other ligand-gated Cl- channels in nematodes such as Ascaris . USES: It is drug of choice for Strongyloidiasis and Onchocerciasis. It is also useful for Ascariasis, Enterobiasis, Cutaneous Larva Migrans and Uncomplicated Scabies. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Longest phase of meiosis is: | [
"Prophase I",
"Prometaphase",
"Metaphase I",
"Anaphase I"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is not a risk factor for carcinoma of the esophagus? | [
"Chronic alcohol use",
"H. pylori infection",
"Chronic GERD",
"Plummer Vinson syndrome"
] | B | Barrett esophagus develops in patients with chronic GERD and represents columnar metaplasia of the esophageal squamous mucosa. Barrett esophagus is a risk factor for development of esophageal adenocarcinoma. Esophageal squamous cell carcinoma is associated with alcohol and tobacco use, povey, caustic esophageal injury, achalasia, tylosis, and Plummer-Vinson syndrome. Some serotypes of Helicobacter pylori are associated with decreased risk of esophageal adenocarcinoma. Helicobacter pylori infection can be a risk factor for development of MALT lymphoma in stomach. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All are ture about pseudopancreatic cyst of pancreas except : | [
"Common after acute pancreatitis",
"Presents as an abdominal mass",
"Serum amylase is increased",
"Most common site is in head of pancreas"
] | D | Answer is D (Mostly present in head of pancreas) Sho bowel syndrome (massive small bowel resection) is associated with Hypergastrinemia. Most common site for pseudopancreatic cyst is the body and tail ofpancreas - Harrison Pseudopancreatic cyst (called 'pseudo' because they do not have an epithelial lining) Etiology : Site : Diagnosis: Pancreatitis (90%) (most 85% are seen in body and tail - Serum amylase level is elevated common)Q 15% are seen in head - Sonography is the investigation of Trauma (10%)Q choiceQ Complications : Factors indicating possibility of hemorrhage - X-Ray : Pseudocysts may be localized, displacing some poion ofgitQ Pain due to expansion Increase in size Haemorrhage Localized brui over massQ Rupture Sudden decrease in Ilb or Abscess hematocritQ Management * Pseudocyst > 5cm diameter is an indications for drainageQ * Pseudocyst less than 5 cm in diameter and less than 6 weeks old should be observed e,as they tend to resolve spontaneously * Initial management : US/CT guided, single or repeated needle aspirations * Later : patients who do not respond to above modality are treated with surgical therapy preferred modality : Internal drainage of cyst by cystojejunostomy. Q | train | med_mcqa | null |
All are features of neonatal necrotizing enterocolitis except - | [
"Abdominal distension",
"Increased bowel sound",
"Metabolic acidosis",
"Pneumoperitoneum"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Increased bowel sound o Bowel sounds are diminished or absent. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Relationship of neurovascular bundle from above downward in intercostal space - | [
"Nerve -Artery - Vein",
"Artery - Nerve -Vein",
"Vein - Nerve - Artery",
"Vein -Artery - Nerve"
] | D | Ans. is'd' i.e., Vein - Artery - Nerveo All intercostal muscles are supplied by the intercostal nerves of the spaces in which they lie.o The neurovascular plane of thorax lies between internal intercostal and intercostalis initimi or innermost intercostal (transversus thoracis).o Neurovascular bundle lies in costal groove and the relationship from above downw ard is posterior intercostal vein and artery and intercostal nerve (VAN). | train | med_mcqa | null |
The function common to neutrophils, monocyte & macrophages is | [
"Immune response",
"Phagocytosis",
"Liberation of histamine",
"Destruction of old erythrocytes"
] | B | Neutrophils, monocyte & macrophages are the pa of phagocytosis not the pa of immunty. Cellular Components and Phagocytosis Therefore, phagocytes, present in the blood, lymphoid tissue, liver, spleen, lung, and other tissues, are the cells responsible for the uptake and removal of foreign antigen. Phagocytes include (1) monocytes and macrophages; (2) granulocytes, including neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils; and (3) dendritic cells. Histamine is released by mast cells . Destruction of old erythrocytes is by splenic tissue. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Hemopexin binds - | [
"Heme",
"Hemoglobin",
"Iron",
"Bilirubin"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Heme* Heme is a metal containing tetrapyrrole ring, linked by methylene or methenyl bridges.* It is a component of hemoglobin, myoglobin, cytochrome proteins* Major form of heme in our body is haemoglobin. In haemoglobin, the metal in the centre is Fe2+. It is surrounded by four pyrrole rings linked by methylene bridges* Heme is released into circulation from RBCs following oxidative stress in the form of hematin* Hematin has Fe3+ in the centre of tetrapyrrole rings.* This non protein bound hematin is cytotoxic as the iron in the centre can act as a Fenton's reagent generating free radicals* These free radicals cause lipid peroxidation of membranes of cells and organelles, protein and DNA damage. This induces apoptosis of cells* To avoid such oxidative damage caused by heme, proteins like hemopexin help.HEMOPEXIN* Hemopexin is a glycoprotein which exhibits the highest affinity for free heme* Hemopexin's function is to protect the cell and tissues from oxidstive damage cause by heme. Because hemopexin does not only bind to free heme but also facilitate the uptake of heme into liver by binding to specific receptors on hepatocytes. Hence hemopexin helps in recycling iron and the iron stores are maintained. Hemopexin is also found to cause an upregulation of heme oxygenase 1 enzyme, thereby they facilitate the conversion of heme into bilirubin and biliverdin. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The antidote of poisoning due to Arninanita muscaria is | [
"Physostigmine",
"Amyl nitrate",
"Methylene blue",
"Atropine"
] | D | D i.e. Atropine Amanita muscaria & Amanita phalloides are poisonous mushrooms with parasympathetic (Cholinergic) symptoms. So AtropineQ is used as antidote in severe cases; but avoided in mild case as it excerhates delirium. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Chlamydia can cause infeilty due to? | [
"Slaphingitis",
"Endometritis",
"Oophritis",
"Cervicitis"
] | A | Slaphingitis REF: Shaw 13th ed p. 209 Salphingitis due to chlamydia and gonnorrea are common causes of tubal block resulting in infeility | train | med_mcqa | null |
What treatment should not be required for the patient with grade II furcation involvement? | [
"Furcation plasty",
"Tunnel preparation",
"GTR",
"None"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Commonly used FNAC needle gauge - | [
"26-29",
"22-26",
"18-22",
"16-18"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Cholesterol is a (an) | [
"Ester",
"Phospholipid",
"Sterol",
"Lipoprotein"
] | C | Sterol
Cholesterol is the most important sterol. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Heart muscles act as a functional syncitium because: | [
"Striations",
"Gap junctions",
"Long action potential",
"It is voluntary"
] | B | Ans: b (Gap junctions) Ref: Ganong, 22nd ed, p. 78; Guyton, 11th ed, p. 103,104The gap junctions between adjacent cells provide low resistance bridges for the spread of excitation and function it as a functional syncitium even though no protoplasmic bridges are present between the cells.Histological features of cardiac muscle* Striated muscle with actin and myosin filaments.* The fibers branch and interdigitate.* Single nucleus present.* Intercalated disc present at the Z lines.* Gap junctions are present helping it to act as a functional syncytium.* Neural control depends on the pace maker. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Disadvantage of INH prophylaxis are all of the Following except | [
"Cannot prevent disease in infected person",
"Not effective",
"Costly",
"Risk of hepatitis"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following are true about case control study except ? | [
"Rapid and inexpensive",
"No risk to subjects",
"Risk factor can be identified",
"Less prone to bias"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Less prone to bias | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 3 year old male presents with a sudden onset of visual loss in the left eye. Ophthalmological examination reveals strabismus and white pupillary reflex. Fundus finding is shown below. What is your diagnosis? | [
"Retinoblastoma",
"Sickle cell retinopathy",
"Toxoplasmosis",
"Coats disease"
] | D | The clinical history along with fundus finding of telangiectatic vessels and hard exudates points towards a diagnosis of Coats disease. Coats diseaseIdiopathic non-hereditary, retinal telangiectasia.Age group-1st decade of life (average 5 years).Clinical features-Unilateral visual loss, strabismus, leukokoria.It is characterized by retinal angiomas and massive subretinal exudation from the angiomas. This exudation produces retinal detachment. Cataract and angle closure glaucoma may also occur in late stages. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Alpo syndrome is noted because of defect in what type of collagen | [
"Collagen type I",
"Collagen type IV",
"Collagen type III",
"Collagen type VII"
] | B | Alpo syndrome is caused by mutations in COL4A3, COL4A4, and COL4A5, three of six human genes involved in basement membrane (type IV) collagen biosynthesis. ... Basement membranes are thin, sheet-like structures that separate and suppo cells in many tissues. Ref ganong's review of medical physiology 25e p540 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Praziquantel is used for the treatment of | [
"Strongyloidiasis",
"Trichomoniasis",
"Schistosomiasis",
"Rhinosporidiosis"
] | C | Platyhelminthes (flukes & tapeworms) DOC for all the platyhelminths is praziquantel DOC for Fasciola hepatica (liver fluke) is triclabendazole DOC for dog tapeworm is albendazole DOC for trichomoniasis is metronidazole Surgery is done for rhinosporidiosis Nematodes DOC for nematodes is albendazole DOC for filaria is diethyl carbamazine DOC for strongyloidiasis & onchocerca volvulus is Ivermectin | train | med_mcqa | null |
Longest acting β–agonist is : | [
"Salbutamol",
"Terbutaline",
"Salmeterol",
"Theophylline"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
True about branchial anomaly | [
"Cysts are more common than sinuses",
"For sinuses surgery is not always indicated",
"Cysts present with dysphagia and hoarseness of voice",
"Most commonly due to 2nd branchial remnant"
] | D | repeated question. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Posterior interosseous nerve is injured in | [
"Posterior dislocation of elbow",
"Monteggia fracture dislocation",
"Reversed monteggia fracture dislocation",
"Supracondylar fracture of humerus"
] | B | B i.e. Montegia fracture dislocation Monteggia Fracture Dislocation Fractures between the proximal third of the ulna and the base of olecranonQ combined with an anterior dislocation of the proximal radio ulnar jointQ. - Definition by Monteggia 1814 Bado extended Monteggia's original description to include- any fracture of ulna with associated dislocation of the proximal radio - ulnar (rdio - capitellar) jointQ including trans olecranon fractures in which the proximal radio - ulnar joint remains intact. (New definition) Mn: "3 M" : Monteggia - Medial bone (ulna) fracture - Mountain (upper) radio - ulnar joint dislocation. Bado's Classification Type Direction of radial head dislocation Direction of apex of ulnar shaft fracture angulation I (most common)Q AnteriorQ AnteriorQ II Posterior Posterior III Lateral Lateral IV Anterior - Fracture of both radius & ulna - Radius is fractured in proximal third below the biceptal groove Treatment - The clue to successful treatment is to restore the length of the fractured ulna; only then can the dislocated joint be fully reduced & remain stable In adults it means an operationQ - Rigid anatomical fixation by plating (DCP/LCDCP) is the method of choiceQ. * Posterior interosseous nerve has been most commonly injured nerve in forearm fractures, paicularly in association with Monteggia fracture dislocationQ. | train | med_mcqa | null |
About O2 dissociation curve, true is | [
"Affinity of O2 with Hb decreases as Hb attaches to O2 in linear fashion",
"1 Hb attaches to 2 molecules of 2,3 DPG",
"O2 affinity will be equal in both HbF and HbA in the absence of 2, 3DPG",
"Carboxy Hb increases releases of O2 in blood (shift O2 dissociation curve to right)"
] | C | The affinity of Hb F for oxygen and carbon dioxide:The affinity of Hb F for oxygenThe affinity of Hb F for carbon dioxide1. Affinity for oxygen in case of HbF is more than that of HbA, i.e., it can take more oxygen than HbA at low oxygen pressure due to poor binding of 2,3 DPG by the gamma polypeptide chain.2. Because of this, movement of oxygen from maternal to fetal circulation is facilitated.3. One molecule of DPG is bound per hemoglobin tetramer, in its central cavity, in the T-form, when the space between the H-helices of the beta chains is just wide enough to accommodate it1. Carbon monoxide reversibly binds hemoglobin to one of the oxygen binding sites and conves the molecule into carboxyhemoglobin (CoHb). CoHb binds the three remaining sites to oxygen;2. However, the conformation of the molecule is such that it does not release the bound oxygen. The oxygen saturation of hemoglobin, therefore, remains normal, yet the oxygen cannot be off-loaded in peripheral tissues. For this reason, CoHb has the effect of shifting the oxygen dissociative curve to Left.3. Also, CO has 240 times more affinity for Hb than 02Refer: Textbook of Medical Biochemistry By S Ramakrishnan. Pg no: 102 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Property of the material, which describes the resistance to abrasion is: | [
"Hardness",
"Yield strength",
"Modulus of elasticity",
"None of the above"
] | A | HARDNESS
Except for comparing one material with another, this term is difficult to define. In mineralogy, the relative hardness of a substance is based on its ability to resist scratching. In metallurgy and most other disciplines, the concept that is most generally accepted is that of “resistance to indentation.” It is on the basis of this process that most modern hardness tests are designed.
Reference: PHILLIPS’ SCIENCE OF DENTAL MATERIALS, 12th ed page no 63 | train | med_mcqa | null |
True about Anopheles mosquito | [
"Breeds on actifictally collected water",
"Lawar doesn't have siphon tube",
"Also knows as tiger mosquito",
"Also know as nuisance mosquito"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Asteriolar dilators used in treatment of CHF include | [
"Hydralazine",
"Nifedipine",
"Prazosin",
"All the above"
] | D | Ref-KDT 6/e p540 Vasodilator therapy is useful adjunctive therapy in the management of both acute and chronic hea failure. Aeriolar dilators, such as hydralazine, increase cardiac output by decreasing the elevated peripheral vascular resistance that occurs in hea failure. Venodilators, such as nitrates, decrease ventricular filling pressures by redistributing blood so that more is pooled in peripheral veins. Vasodilators that produce both effects (nitro-prusside, prazosin, captopril, for example) are usually helpful in sho-term improvement of hemodynamics. Long-term treatment with nonparenteral vasodilators often reduces symptoms and increases exercise tolerance, although there is inconclusive evidence regarding the effects of these agents on moality. In acute myocardial infarction, intravenous vasodilators frequently improve cardiac performance. Evidence regarding their beneficial effects on infarct size and immediate moality is encouraging but inconclusive. There is little evidence that they prolong life in patients who survive cardiogenic shock and leave the hospital. Thus, vasodilators can improve hemodynamics and lessen symptoms, but more evidence is needed regarding their long-term effects on survival. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Choristoma is - | [
"Normal tissue in abnormal site",
"Normal tissue in excess at normal site",
"Abnormal tissue at any site",
"None of the above"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Single most effective drug used for prophylaxis of gestational trophobalstic diseases: | [
"Methotrexate",
"Cytosine arabinoside",
"L-Asparaginase",
"Procarbazine"
] | A | Ans: a (Methotrexate) Ref: Shaw, 13th ed, p. 258Most effective chemotherapeutic agent in GTD is folic acid inhibitor methotrexate. It interfers with nucleic acid formation and mitosis in maliganant cells and thereby arr ests the growth.Indication for methotrexate in H-mole(a) High level of HCG 4 weeks post evacuationSerum >20,000 IU/ltrUrine > 30,000 IU/24hrs(b) Persistent uterine haemorrhage(c) Progressively rising HCG level at any time post evacuation(d) Any detectable HCG level not showing tendency to extinction 4-6 months post evacuation.(e) Evidence of brain, renal, hepatic, GIT or pulmonary metastasis at any level of HCGSide effects1. Ulcerative stomatitis and gastric haemorrhage2. Skin reaction and alopecia3. Bone marrow depression -anaemia, leukopenia, agranulocytosis4. Hepatic and renal damageFolic acid rescue regime-Methotrexate and folinic acid administered on alternate days to reduce toxicityMAC regime is used for the treatment of choriocarcinoma.Commonly used regimes are:MAC regimeEMACO regimeMethotrexateActinomycinDChlorambucilEtoposideMethotrexateActinomycinDCyclophosphamideVincristine (oncovin)MMA regimeMethotrexateActinomycin DAdriamycin | train | med_mcqa | null |
Phosphaturia is seen in the following except | [
"Metabolic alkalosis",
"Lead, cadmium or uranium poisonings",
"Hypervitaminosis D",
"Hyperparathyriodism"
] | A | Metabolic alkalosis decrease serum phosphorus concentration.Hypophosphatemia secondary to phosphorus redistribution is commonly caused by respiratory alkalosis and refeeding of malnourished patients.Acute respiratory alkalosis and metabolic alkalosis decrease serum phosphorus concentration. The reduction is much greater in respiratory alkalosis than in metabolic alkalosis of comparable severity. During respiratory alkalosis, intracellular CO2decreases, causing intracellular pH to rise.This mechanism stimulates the glycolytic pathway, specifically phosphofructokinase, a key rate-limiting enzyme of glycolysis. Production of sugar phosphates is enhanced, which in turn induces intracellular phosphorus entry, thus decreasing serum phosphorus concentration.Alkalosis enhances phosphorus uptake by muscle. The kidney responds by increasing phosphate reabsorption, independent of serum phosphorus concentration and becomes refractory to the phosphaturic effect of PTH.Ref: DM Vasudevan, 7th edition, page no: 402, 403 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Tumor represented as T3N2M0 is: | [
"Stage1.",
"Stage 2",
"Stage 3",
"Stage 4"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 75-year-old woman with hypertension develops fatigue and dyspnea on exertion. Her blood pressure is 160/60 mm Hg and pulse 80/min. The second heart sound is diminished and there is an early diastolic murmur that radiates from the right sternal border to the apex. Your clinical diagnosis is aortic regurgitation.For the above patients, select the characteristic arterial pulse finding. | [
"pulsus tardus",
"pulsus paradoxus",
"hyperkinetic pulse",
"bisferiens pulse"
] | C | A hyperkinetic pulse occurs in the setting of an elevated stroke volume (anemia, fever, anxiety) or an abnormally rapid runoff from the arterial system (aortic regurgitation, patent ductus arteriosus, arteriovenous fistula). | train | med_mcqa | null |
In a case-control study, the cases were found to be consuming zarda pan more frequently than controls and the difference was statistically significant. It indicates: | [
"Zarda pan is the cause of the disease",
"The incidence of the disease was more in those consuming zarda pan",
"The disease can be cured if zarda pan is stopped",
"An association exists between zarda pan and disease"
] | D | Case-control study that looks backward in time from final disease outcome to potential cause.
In it, groups of affected individuals (cases) and unaffected individuals (controls) are compared to the extent of their exposure to some suspected risk factor.
Key points
In a case-control study, if the outcome was statistically significant, there is an association between cases and controls.
Soben Peter
Essentials of preventive and community dentistry
4th edition | train | med_mcqa | null |
C5a act as a/an? | [
"Opsonin",
"Chemotactic agent",
"MAC",
"Vasodilator"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Chemotactic agent * C5a is a powerful chemotactic agent.* C3b, C3bi act as opsonin and enhance phagocytosis.* C5-9 Called membrane attack complex (MAC). It forms channel in the lipid membrane and causes cell lysis (including bacteria).* C5 is the point where both classical (antibody dependent) and alternative (antibody independent) pathways converge. Thus C5 forms the final common terminal pathway. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following statements about Cefepime is true | [
"It is a 4th generation cephalosporin",
"Once a day dosing is given",
"It is not active against pseudomonas",
"It is a prodrug"
] | A | Refer Goodman Gilman 12th/1498 Cefepime is 4th generation cephalosporin with good activity against pseudomonas. It is given 8-12 hourly | train | med_mcqa | null |
Treatment for stage T3N1 of carcinoma maxilla is - | [
"Radiation therapy only",
"Chemotherapy only",
"Surgery and radiation",
"Chemotherapy and radiation"
] | C | Maxillary carcinoma is of two types
Squamous cell carcinoma — (MC. type of carcinoma)
Adenocarcinoma
T/T of maxillary carcinoma
Squamous cell carcinoma → Combination of Surgery and radiotherapy gives better res is than either alone.
Radiotherapy can be given before or after surgery (The t/t is same in every stage of maxillary carcinoma)
Adenocarcinoma → Radiotherapy is ineffective, so only surgery is done. | train | med_mcqa | null |
General fertility rate: | [
"Average number of children born to a women in her reproductive life span",
"Annual number of live births per 1000 married women during reproductive age",
"Total number of girl child born to a female",
"Total number of boy child born to a female"
] | B | Ans. (b) Annual number of live births per 1000 married women during reproductive ageRef: Park's 21sted. /451* General fertility rate is the annual number of live births per 1000 married women of child bearing age (15-49 years).* Total fertility rate average number of children born to a women in her reproductive life span.* Gross reproduction rate is total number of girl children born to a female. It is half of the TFR.* Net reproduction rate is total number of girl children born to a female, taking into account their mortality. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Extension for prevention is directly related to: | [
"Removal of unsupported enamel on proximal surface of Class III cavity",
"Depth of the axial wall of a class III cavity preparation",
"Elimination of all carious dentin beyond average depth of pulpal wall",
"The outline form of the cavity preparation"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following factors of balanced occlusion is given by the patient? | [
"Condylar guidance",
"Incisal guidance",
"Inclination of the cusps",
"Orientation of the occlusal plane"
] | A | Condylar guidance
Definition: The mechanical form located in the upper posterior region of an articulator that controls movement of its mobile member (GPT8).
Condylar guide inclination: The angle formed by the inclination of a condylar guide control surface of an articulator and a specified reference plane (GPT8).
This is the mandibular guidance generated by the condyles traversing the contours of the glenoid fossa.
It is duplicated in the articulator. The extent of duplication depends on the articulator’s capability, whether it is semi-adjustable or fully adjustable.
Protrusive condylar guidance is obtained using protrusive records,while the lateral condylar guidance is obtained using Hanau’s formula or lateral records
It is designated as an inclination or angle – condylar guidance angle or inclination – and is expressed in degrees.
This is the only factor that is obtained from the patient and is not under the dentist’s control.
A shallow condylar guidance will cause less posterior tooth separation in protrusion and requires teeth with shorter cusps and flatter fossa to achieve balanced occlusion, than a steep guidance.
Key Concept:
Out of the five factors of balanced occlusion, only condylar guidance is recorded from the patient by the means of protrusive records. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Cyclosporine in nephrotic syndrome acts by - | [
"Inhibiting calcineurin",
"Inhibition of GMPD",
"Acts as an alkylating agent",
"Antibiotic"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Inhibiting calcineurin Stroid dependent nephrotic syndromeo The treatment options for steroid resistant nephrotic syndrome are:i) Calcineurin inhibitors (cyclosporine, Tacrolimus)ii) IV or oral cyclophosphamideiii) Levamisoliv) Mycophenolatev) Pulse corticosteroido All above immunosuppressants are used along with corticosteriods (Prednisolone or methylprednisolone).o Cyclosporine and cyclophosphamide are most commonly used.o Despite these options, there is lack of consensus on first line appropriate therapy for steroid resistant nephrotic syndrome. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Vande Matram Scheme is included in- | [
"RCH",
"ICDS",
"IMCI",
"NRHS"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., RCH o New initiatives in RCH are : i) Training of PHC doctors in life saving anaesthetic skills for emergency obstetric care a FRUS ii) Setting up blood storage centres at FRUS. iil) Janani suraksha yojna iv) Vandernataram scheme v) Safe aboion services vi) Integrated management of childhood illnesses. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Intranuclear and intracytoplasmic inclusion bodies are seen in: September 2012 | [
"Pox virus",
"Rabies virus",
"Measles virus",
"Herpes virus"
] | C | Ans. C i.e. Measles virus Inclusion bodies They are nuclear or cytoplasmic aggregates of stainable substances, usually proteins. They typically represent sites of viral multiplication in a bacterium or a eukaryotic cell and usually consist of viral capsid proteins. Examples of viral inclusion bodies in animals are: Intracytoplasmic eosinophilic? - Negri bodies in rabies Guarnieri bodies in Small pox - Henderson-Peterson bodies in Molluscum contagiosum Intranuclear acidophilic? - Cowdry type A in HSV and Varicella zoster virus and Torres bodies in Yellow fever - Cowdry type B in Polio Intranuclear basophilic? - Cowdry type B in Adenovirus - "owl eyes" in CMV Both intranuclear and intracytoplasmic? - Wahin finkeldey bodies in Measles | train | med_mcqa | null |
Primary ossification centre of all bones of lower limb forms by | [
"8 weeks",
"10 weeks",
"12 weeks",
"14 weeks"
] | C | Primary ossification centre of all bones of lower limb forms by 12 weeks | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is the best next step in breast feeding infant with jaundice | [
"Sta phototherapy",
"Exchange transfusion",
"Switch to cow milk",
"Increase feeding to 15-20minutes every 2hours"
] | D | Breast milk jaundice can last for 3-12 weeks after bih, but as long as the baby is feeding well and bilirubin levels are monitored, it rarely leads to serious complications. Breast milk jaundice must also be differentiated from breastfeeding jaundice, which is jaundice resulting from an insufficient intake of milk. Reference: GHAI Essential pediatrics, 8th edition | train | med_mcqa | null |
Priviledged communication among the following are all except? | [
"In cou of law when asked by judge",
"Information on communicable diseases",
"In cases of suspected crime",
"Bus driver suffering from hepatitis A"
] | A | Ans. is d i.e., Bus driver suffering from hepatitis A Professional secrecy and Privileged communication Professional secrecy is an implied ethical and legal obligation (or contract), that the doctor will not divulge any thing he comes to know concerning patient during the course of his professional work. Doctor is liable to damages for its breech. However, it is justified in ceain circumstances, to disclose information to proper authority, and this is known as privileged communication. It is defined as a communication made by doctor to a proper authority that has corresponding legal, social, and moral duties to protect the public. Privileged communication is made in ceain circumstances where the doctor is justified in disclosing information about his patient. Such communication is regarded as privileged and is an exception to the general rule of professional secrecy between doctor and patient. Example are:? 1) In cou of law : When asked by judge. 2) As compulsor duty : Every doctor has to give details of bih, death and communicable disease. 3) As a social duty : If health of a patient can cause danger to society, e.g. :- Railway engine driver being colour blind. Bus driver being epileptic, drug addict or hypeensive. Pilot having refractive errors. Hotel waitor suffering from TB or being typhoid carrier. Swimming pool user suffering from STD (e.g. syphilis) or infectious disease. Person suffering from STD or HIV infection likely to marry. Cases of food poisoining. Water pollution. 4)In cases of suspected crime. 5) In self interest, both in civil and criminal suits by patient. 6) When a servant is sent by master. 7) In negligent suits when doctor is employed by opposite pay to cross-examine patient who filed the suit. 8) In insurance repos, he can repo any disease found. But he should not answer queries of insurance company or solicitor without the patient consent. 9) In the interest of patient : If patient is not taking proper care, details can be communicated to the relatives. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Ewing's sarcoma is associated with | [
"CD-56",
"CD-38",
"CD-117",
"CD-139"
] | A | (A) CD-56 # Tumor cells in Ewing's sarcoma show diffuse membrane positivity for CD-56. Tumor cells are also positive for neuron-specific enolase.# Ewing's sarcoma (or Endothelial sarcoma of bone):> It is a highly malignant tumour, occurring between the age of 10-20 years.> Multicentric in origin.> Cytogenetic abnormalities associated with Ewing's sarcoma is the reciprocal translocation of the long arm of chromosomes 11 and 22> It arise in the diaphysis of long bone> Subperiosteal bone formation> Histopathologically -- Pseudo rosette formation.> The tumour grow fast and metastasises through the blood stream to the lungs and to other bones.# Clinical Features -- Pain, swelling and Fever, so it may be confused with osteomyelitis> X-Ray show - Onion peel appearance> Treatment - Highly radio sensitive tumour, so Radiotherapy is highly effective for control of the local tumour and chemotherapy for control of the metastasis. | train | med_mcqa | null |
True positive is indicated by- | [
"Sensitivity",
"Specificity",
"Predictive value",
"Validity"
] | A | Ref :Parks 23rd edition pg 139 Sensitivity = TP / (TP + FN) Sensitivity is defined as the ability of a test to identify correctly all those who have the disease, that is "true positive". | train | med_mcqa | null |
Runt's disease is associated with | [
"Acute rejection",
"Hyperacute rejection",
"GVHD",
"Chronic rejection"
] | C | GVHD Robbins, 7 edition, Page 222 * Runt's disease: is a pathological condition in which cells from the transplanted tissue of a donor initiate an immunologic attack on the cells and tissue of the recipient Complications of small bowel transplantation: * Most of the moality after bowel transplantation is due to sepsis and multiorgan failure. * The risk of infection after small bowel transplantation is heightened by the additional requirements for immunosuppression in order to control graft rejection. * This accounts for the relatively high incidence of Lymphoproliferative disease (around 10%) observed in patients who have undergone small bowel transplantation. * Because of the large amount of donor lymphoid tissue transplanted Graft- Versus-Host Disease (GVHD) may occasionally be an added complication | train | med_mcqa | null |
A serum - Ascitic Albumin gradient less than 1.1g/dL can be due to all the following except | [
"Cirrhosis",
"Budd - chiari syndrome",
"Congestive cardiac failure",
"Nephrotic syndrome"
] | D | SAAG < 1.1g/dL
Biliary leak
Nephrotic syndrome
Pancreatitis
Tuberculosis
Peritoneal carcinomatosis. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which is most likely complication of lUD? | [
"Hypofibrinogenemia",
"Sterility",
"Cervical tear",
"None of the above"
] | A | The most common complication seen in intrauterine fetal death is hypo fibro gene mia due to consumption coagulopathy. It occurs due to release of thromboplastin from dead fetus and placenta into maternal circulation. (DC Dutta TB of obstetrics 8th edtn pg 378) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Carcinoid tumor develops from | [
"Enterochromaffin cells",
"Neuroectoderm",
"J cells",
"Goblet cells"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Contraindications for medical method (mifepristone misoprostol) of first trimester MTP? | [
"Patient with hemoglobin of 7 gm%",
"Suspected ectopic pregnancy",
"Glaucoma",
"All of the above"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e., All of the aboveContraindications (due to medical reasons) for medical method of aboion:Smoking > 35 yearsHemoglobin < 8 g%Ectopic pregnancy/ adnexal massCoagulopathyChronic adrenal failureUncontrolled hypeension ( BP>160/100mmHg)CVDSevere renal, hepatic or respiratory diseasesGlaucomaUncontrolled seizureAllergy or intolerance to mifepristone /misoprostol or other prostaglandinsLack of access to 24 hours emergency services | train | med_mcqa | null |
Last organ to be affected in putrefaction-a) Prostateb) Uterusc) Kidneyd) Thyroid | [
"ab",
"ac",
"bd",
"cd"
] | A | Last soft tissue affected in male → Prostate
Last soft tissue affected in female → Uterus
Overall, last tissue affected (both in male & female) →3 Bone | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following statement is TRUE about endemic typhus? | [
"Is caused by R. rickettsii",
"Is transmitted by the bite of fleas",
"Has no mammalian reservoir",
"Is caused by Coxiella burnetii"
] | B | Endemic typhus: Caused by Rickettsia typhi (ubiquitous). Humans usually acquire the infection in an urban or suburban setting when bitten by an infected flea, which releases infected feces while sucking blood. Laboratory diagnosis of rickettsial diseases is based on serologic analysis rather than isolation of the organism. Although rickettsiae can be grown in cell culture or embryonated eggs, this is a hazardous procedure that is not available in the standard clinical laboratory. Clinical Findings: Gradual onset of malaise, cough, fever, and headache Maculopapular rash concentrated on trunk with rapid fading Severe disease with mental confusion and signs of hepatic, cardiac, renal, and pulmonary involvement may develop. Treatment: Antibiotic treatment is most effective with doxycycline, 100 mg twice daily orally Note: Rocky Mountain spotted fever is caused by Rickettsia rickettsii, and Q fever is caused by Coxiella burnetii. Ref: Levinson W. (2012). Chapter 26. Rickettsiae. In W. Levinson (Ed), Review of Medical Microbiology & Immunology, 12e. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which is an independent bone? | [
"Superior turbinate",
"Middle turbinate",
"Inferior turbinate",
"All"
] | C | Nasal turbinates are functionally impoant structures that extend from the lateral nasal walls to nasal cavities. The middle, superior and, in some cases, supreme turbinates are pa of the ethmoid bone, while the inferior turbinates are a pair of independent bones. Lateral nasal wall anomalies are generally incidentally detected asymptomatic lesions. The most common variation of the lateral nasal wall are pneumatizations of turbinates. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Thump print sign in the abdominal radiograph indicates which of the following conditions? | [
"Ischemic colitis",
"Crohn's disease",
"Pseudomembranous colitis",
"All the above"
] | D | The thump print sign is seen in Inflamatory bowel disease (Ulcerative colitis, Crohns), infectious colitis (amoebic, pseudomembranous), ischaemic bowel disease and diveiculitis. The sign is a result of haustral mucosal thickening in most of the cases. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Meig's syndrome is associated with: | [
"Teratoma",
"Brenner tumor",
"Theca cell tumor",
"Fibroma"
] | D | Ans. is d, i.e. FibromaRef: Comprehensive Gynecology by Arthur L Herbst 2nd/ed, p533; Jeffcoate 7th/ed, p543Meig's syndrome:* Ascites and right sided hydrothorax in association with fibroma of ovary is called as Meig's syndrome.* It can also be seen in Brenner's tumor and Granulosa cell tumor where it is called as Pseudomeig's syndrome.* True meig's syndrome is rare, occurring in <5 per cent of fibromas.* Hydrothorax can be bilateral also.* Ascites is caused by transudation of fluid from the ovarian fibroma. Hydrothorax develops secondary to flow of ascitic fluid into the pleural space via lymphatics of the diaphragm.* Ascites occurs (in 50% cases) when tumor size is >6cms.* Tumors producing Meig's syndrome manifest in the late childbearing period i.e., 30-40 years.* Both ascites and hydrothorax resolve spontaneously after removal of the tumor.Criteria for diagnosis of Meig's syndrome:* Tumor must be ovarian, solid and benign.* Both hydrothorax and ascites must be present.* Removal of the tumor must result in their spontaneous and permanent cure.Pseudomeig syndrome:* Can be seen in association with either benign or malignant tumor.* Hydrothorax could be a manifestation of pulmonary metastasis.* Syndrome can result from overstimulation of the ovaries with gonadotropins but, in such cases, the peritoneal exudate is more likely to be caused by an electrolyte imbalance rather than by ovarian tumor. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Following disaster green colour of triage used for which patients | [
"Ambulatory",
"Medium priority",
"High priority",
"Dead"
] | A | TRIAGE:- * The principle of first come first served is not followed in mass emergencies * Triage consists of rapidly classifying the injured on the basis of severity of their injuries and the likelihood of their survival with prompt medical intervention Four color code system:- * Red -high priority * Yellow - medium priority * Green - ambulatory patients * Black - dead or moribund patients Ref:- K Park, 24th ed; pg num:- 833 | train | med_mcqa | null |
A patient comes with sudden respiratory distress, on examination, bilateral basal crepts are present over chest suggestive of pulmonary edema with normal alveolar wedge pressure. The likely cause is | [
"Narcotic overdose",
"Congestive hea failure",
"Myocardial infarction",
"Cardiogenic shock"
] | A | Answer is A (Narcotic overdose): Pulmonary edema with normal pulmonary capillary wedge pressure suggests a diagnosis of ARDS or non cardiogenic pulmonary edema. Narcotic overdose is the only non cardiogenic cause for pulmonary edema (ARDS) amongst the options provided and hence the answer here. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Downward rotation, medial rotation and extortion of eye ball is facilitated by: | [
"Superior rectus",
"Inferior rectus",
"Levator palpebrae superioris",
"Medial rectus"
] | B | Actions of Individual Muscles
Levator palpabrae superioris
Elevation of upper eyelid
Superior rectus
Upward rotation, medial rotation and intortion
Inferior rectus
Downward rotation, medial rotation and extortion
Medial rectus
Medial rotation
Lateral rectus
Lateral rotation
Superior oblique
Downward rotation, lateral rotation and intortion
Inferior oblique
Upward rotation, and extortion | train | med_mcqa | null |
Intravenous resuscitation is needed for any child with burn greater than: | [
"10% total body surface area",
"20% total body surface area",
"25% total body surface area",
"35% total body surface area"
] | A | - In children with burns over 10% total body surface area and adults with burns over 15% total body surface area, consider the need for intravenous fluid resuscitation. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A patient with hoarseness of voice was found to be having pachydermia laryngis. All of the following are true except: | [
"It is a hyperkeratotic lesion present within the anterior two-third of the vocal cords",
"It is not premalignant lesion",
"Diagnosis is made by biopsy",
"On microscopy it shows acanthosis and hyperkeratosis"
] | A | Pachydermia laryngis is a hyperkeratotic lesion involving posterior part of larynx. It is not premalignant. Biopsy is essential to exclude tuberculosis and cancer. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Maximum congestion is seen in - | [
"Choking",
"Hanging",
"Strangulation",
"Drowning"
] | C | In strangulation, all internal viscera are deeply congested and there is marked congestion of face. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following murmurs may be heard in patients with aoic regurgitation except: | [
"High-pitched decrescendo diastolic murmur.",
"Soft, low pitched mid distolic rumbling murmur.",
"Mid-systolic ejection flow murmur",
"Pansystolic murmur"
] | D | Answer is D (Pansystolic murmur) | train | med_mcqa | null |
False about Cytarabine is | [
"It is very short acting",
"It is given as continous IV infusion",
"It can lead to cerebellar toxicity",
"It is a purine analogue"
] | D | Cytarabine is a Pyrimidine analogue.
Other Pyrimidine analogues are 5-flurouracil, Capecitabine, Gemcitabine & Azacitidine. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 68-year-old woman with a history of left ventricular congestive heart failure has had decreased visual acuity for the past 5 years. She has no ocular pain. Her intraocular pressure is normal. Findings on funduscopic examination include arteriolar narrowing, flame-shaped hemorrhages, cotton-wool spots, and hard, waxy exudates. Which of the following underlying diseases is she most likely to have? | [
"Advanced atherosclerosis",
"Cerebral edema",
"Diabetes mellitus",
"Hypertension"
] | D | Hypertensive retinopathy results from long-standing hypertension, with progressive changes that begin with generalized narrowing of the arterioles and proceed to the changes seen in this case. The pressure load from systemic hypertension causes hypertrophy and failure of the left side of the heart. Arteriosclerotic retinopathy causes vascular changes, including arteriovenous nicking and hyaline arteriolosclerosis with "copper wire" and "silver wire" arterioles. Cerebral edema may result in papilledema. Various findings are associated with diabetic retinopathy, including capillary microaneurysms, cotton-wool spots, arteriolar hyalinization, and more severe changes of proliferative retinopathy with neovascularization. Retinitis pigmentosa describes a variety of abnormalities that arise as an inherited condition that may begin later in life (but usually earlier) and produce a waxy pallor of the optic disc. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is a killed vaccine - | [
"Hepatitis B",
"Measles",
"Yellow fever",
"Japenese encephalitis"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Simple Mastectomy includes removal of: September 2005 & 2006 | [
"Only breast",
"Breast and axillary nodes",
"Breast+axillaries nodes+pectoralis major muscle",
"Breast+axillaries nodes+pectoralis major muscle+ pectoralis minor muscle"
] | A | Ans. A: Only breast These common surgical procedures for carcinoma breast include: Radical (Halsted) mastectomy is rarely used, and then only in cases where cancer cells have invaded the chest wall and the tumor is very large. The breast, pectoralis major and pectoralis minor muscles under the breast, and all of the lymph nodes are removed. This produces a large scar and severe disability to the arm nearest the removed breast. Modified radical (Patey) mastectomy is the most common form of mastectomy. It leaves the pectoralis major muscle intact. The breast and associated structures are removed en bloc and the excised mass is composed of: - The whole breast - A large poion of skin, the centre of which overlies the tumour but which always include the nipple - All of the fat, fascia and lymph nodes of the axilla - The pectoralis minor muscle is either divided or retracted to gain access to the upper two-thirds of the axilla. The axillary vein and the nerves to serratus anterior and latissimus dorsi (the thoraco-dorsal trunk) should be preserved. Simple, sometimes called total, mastectomy has been the treatment of choice in the late 1980s and 1990s. Generally, only the breast is removed; though, sometimes, one or two lymph nodes may be removed as well. Two other surgical procedures are variations on the simple mastectomy. The skin-sparing mastectomy is a new surgical procedure in which the surgeon makes an incision, sometimes called a keyhole incision, around the areola. The tumor and all breast tissue are removed, but the incision is smaller and scarring is minimal. - The subcutaneous mastectomy, or nipple-sparing mastectomy, preserves the skin and the nipple over the breast. Paial mastectomy is used to remove the tumor, the lining over the chest muscle underneath the tumor, and a good poion of breast tissue, but not the entire breast. This is a good treatment choice for early stage cancers. Lumpectomy just removes the tumor and a small amount of tissue surrounding it. Some lymph nodes may be removed as well. This procedure is gaining acceptance among surgeons and patients alike. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Vitamin E deficiency is associated with | [
"Ataxia",
"Cholestasis",
"Hyperkeratosis",
"Pseudotumour cerebri"
] | A | Vitamin E deficiency causes axonal degeneration of the large myelinated axons results in posterior column & spino cerebellar symptoms | train | med_mcqa | null |
True about Crescent fracture is: | [
"Anteroposterior instability with rotational stability",
"Diastasis of pubis with pubic rami fracture",
"Antero-posterior compression is the mechanism of injury",
"Fracture of the iliac bone with sacroiliac disruption"
] | D | D. i.e. Fracture of iliac bone with disruption of sacroiliac joint Cresent Fracture, is a type II lateral compression injury that is veically stable (d/ t maintainence of pa of posterior SI ligament, sacrotuberous and sacrospinous ligaments) but rotationally unstable (d/t veical disruption of iliac wing). The fracture extends from posterior iliac crest, passing through iliac wing (just behind gluteal pillar), and may then exit in greater sciatic notch or more commonly may enter the sacroiliac (S I) joint - which is then disrupted inferiorly pretending of as fracture dislocation of SI joint complex. The injury leaves a crescent shaped poion of iliac wing attached to the superior aspect of the sacrum, held in place by stout SI ligament. Lateral compression I are the most common pelvic ring disruption injuries. The fracture often passes through sacral foramina (outlet view) or causing buckling of anterior sacral coex only (best seen on CT or inlet view). These are veically stable and rotationally unstable (to some degree). Lateral compression III occurs when lateral (internally rotating) force compressing one side of ring continues and opens up (externally rotates) the hemipelvis of other side. An internal rotation vector causing sacral or iliac wing compression fracture on one side becomes an external rotation vector on opposite hemipelvis manifesting as paial or complete disruption of SI joint; thus leading to wind swept pelvis appearance. These are rotationally as well as veically unstable (d/t ligamentous injury). | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 40-year-old woman with hypertension comes to the physician because of excessive thirst, excessive urination, constipation, and a depressed mood. Her medications include hydrochlorothiazide. Laboratory studies show a serum calcium level of 11.0 mg/dL.
Which of the following underlying disorders is most likely? | [
"Medullary carcinoma of the thyroid",
"Multiple myeloma",
"Parathyroid adenoma",
"Porphyria"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Advantage of minimum mercury technique or Eames technique is all except | [
"High strength",
"Sets quickly",
"Needs no squeezing of excess mercury",
"Greater plasticity and adapts well to cavity walls"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Standard site for primary bone graft -a) Pelvisb) Greater trochanterc) Medial malleolusd) Lateral melleoluse) Fibula | [
"a",
"b",
"ab",
"ae"
] | D | Standard site for primary cancellous bone graft → Iliac crest of pelvis.
Standard site for primary cortical bone graft → fibula. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is non cultiviable invivo | [
"Mycobacterium avium",
"HIV",
"Mycoplasma pneumoniae",
"Hepatitis-C virus"
] | D | i.e. (Hepatitis C- Virus) : (432-35-Ananthanarayan 8th )Explanation : Some viruses are not culturable in vitro due to ack of susceptible cell lines, e.g. certain blood- borne (e.g. Hepatitis C virus, HCV) and water -borne (e.g. Norwalk virus) viruses.MYCOPLASMAMycoplasma - smallest free living organism known are prokaryotes that are bounded only by a plasma membrane* Their lack of a cell wall is associated with cellular pleomorphism and resistance to cell wall active antimicrobial agents such as penicilline and cephalosporins (beta lactams, vancomycin, Bacitracin)* The 'organism ' small genome limits biosynthesis and explains the difficulties encountered with in vitro cultivation (1068-H17th)* Myeo, pneumoniae can be grown on artificial media, but the process is exacting, requires special media and takes more than 2 weeks. Thus mycoplasma cultures do not provide any timely information* Mycoplasma are bounded by a triple layered unit membrane that contains s sterol therefore when mycoplasma are grown in culture media, the media required for the growth of the organsm should be rich in sterol (This is provided by adding 20% horse or human serum) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Normal nasofrontal angle is | [
"105-110 degrees",
"110-115 degrees",
"115-130 degrees",
"1390-190 degrees"
] | C | Nasofrontal angle is 115-130 degreesNasolabial angle is 95-105 degrees for females, 90-95 degrees for males | train | med_mcqa | null |
Retinitis pigmentosa is associated with all except | [
"Usher syndrome",
"Kornzweig syndrome",
"Kearns-Sayre syndrome",
"Marfan syndrome"
] | D | Marfan syndrome Marfan syndrome is characterised by Skeletal changes - Long extremities, arachnodactly (spider fingers) Ectopia lentis - Dislocation of lenses upwards & temporally Aoic aneurysm Systemic conditions associated with retinitis pigmentosa (RP)- a.Laurence-Moon-Biedl syndrome - most commonly associated & characterised by RP, obesity, hypogonadism, polydactyly & mental defect. b. Usher's syndrome: RP & labyrinthine deafness c.Bussen-Kornzweig disease (Abetalipoproteinemia) : RP, fat malabsorption, spinocerebellar degeneration, and acanthocytosis d.Kearns-Sayer syndrome: Mitochondria] myopathy characterised by external ophthalmoplegia, lid ptosis, cardiac conduction block & mild RP. e.Cockayne's syndrome: RP, progressive infantile deafness, dwarfism, mental retardation, nystagmus & ataxia. f.Refsum's syndrome: RP, peripheral neuropathy cerebellar ataxia. g.Hallgren's syndrome: RP, vestibulo-cerebellar ataxia, congenital deafness & mental deficiency | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 32 yr. old female is suffering from watery diarrhoea, hyponatremia and hypokalemia. Later it was diagnosed as cholera. The mechanism of action of heat labile toxin of Vibrio cholerae is | [
"Increased CAMP",
"Increased CGMP",
"Inhibiting the release of ACH from nerves",
"Inhibiting protein synthesis by inactivating EF 2"
] | A | Enterotoxin -heat labile or cholera toxin acts by increasing CAMP which causes hypersecretion of water and electrolytes Ref: Textbook of Microbiology Baveja 5th ed Pg 279 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Acute hemorrhagic conjunctivitis is seen in infection of | [
"Enterovirus type 70",
"Staphylococci",
"Pneumococcus",
"Hemophilus"
] | A | ACUTE HAEMORRHAGIC CONJUNCTIVITIS It is an acute inflammation of conjunctiva characterized by multiple conjunctival hemorrhages, conjunctival hyperemia, and mild follicular hyperplasia. Etiology: The disease is caused by picornaviruses (enterovirus type 70) which are RNA viruses of small(pico) size. The disease is very contagious and is transmitted by direct hand-to-eye contact. Clinical picture: The disease has occurred in an epidemic form in the Far East, Africa, and England and hence the name 'epidemic hemorrhagic conjunctivitis (EHC)' has been suggested. An incubation period of EHC is very sho (1-2days). Symptoms include pain, redness, watering, mild photophobia, transient blurring of vision and lid swelling. Signs of EHC are conjunctival congestion, chemosis, multiple hemorrhages in bulbar conjunctiva, mild follicular hyperplasia, lid edema and pre-auricular lymphadenopathy. Corneal involvement may occur in the form of fine epithelial keratitis. Treatment: *EHC is very infectious and poses major potential problems of cross-infection. Therefore, prophylactic measures are very impoant. *No specific effective curative treatment is known. *However, broad-spectrum antibiotic eye drops may be used to prevent secondary bacterial infections. Usually, the disease has a self-limiting course of 5-7 days. Acute hemorrhagic conjunctivitis is primarily caused by enterovirus 70 and a variant of coxsackievirus A24; however, other enteroviruses, including echoviruses 7 and 11, coxsackieviruses B1 and B2, and several adenoviruses can also cause acute hemorrhagic conjunctivitis, sporadic conjunctivitis and keratoconjunctivitis Ref- Khurana; 4th edition; Pg. No. 69 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Neurotransmitter playing major pa in the pathogenesis of Alzheimer's disease ? | [
"Serotonine",
"Norepinephrine",
"Acetylcholine",
"Dopamine"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Acetylcholine Neurotransmitters in Alzheimer's disease Acetylcholine has a major role in memory functions and deficiency in cholinergic functioning is associatedwith memory disturbances paicularly sho term memory. In Alzheimer's disease there loss of cells in the nucleus basalis of meyernet results in marked reduction in choline acetyltransferase (CHAT), an enzymeinvolved in the synthesis of acetylcholine --> Decreased Acetylcholine. The other impoant neurotransmitter involved is norepinephrine --> There is decrease in nor-epinephrine containing neurons in the locus ceruleus. Two other neuroactive peptides have been implicated in AD --> Somatostatin and coicotropin, both of which have decreased concentration. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The most successful materials for soft liner applications have been | [
"Impression plaster",
"Silicone rubbers",
"Waxes",
"Irreversible hydrocolloids"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is a non-modifiable risk factor for CHD - | [
"Diabetes",
"Smoking",
"Hypertension",
"Old age"
] | D | Ans. is 6d' i.e., Old age o Old age is a non-modiflable risk factor for atherosclerosis and coronary heart disease (CHD).o Other three (given in question) are modifiable risk factors.Risk factors for atherosclerosis and coronary heart diseaseModifiableo Hyperlipidemiao Diabeteso Trans-unsaturated fat intakeo Hypertensiono Alcoholo Chlamydia pneumonaeo Cigarette smokingo Lipoprotein (a)o CMVo Physical inactivity Nonmodifiableo Old ageo Obesityo Stress (type 'A' personality)o Male gendero Postmenopausalo Homocysteineo Family historyo Prothrombotic factors | train | med_mcqa | null |
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