question stringlengths 1 6.54k | choices listlengths 4 4 | answer stringclasses 4
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Histological changes in lens induced uveitis include- | [
"Ghost cells",
"Giant cell reaction",
"Amyloid in the cornea",
"Vasculitis"
] | B | Lens induced uveities histological change include gaint cell reaction Ref khurana 6/e | train | med_mcqa | null |
Best graft for aoic dissection: | [
"Dacron",
"Autologous vein",
"Autologous aery",
"PTFE"
] | A | Best vascular graft for suprainguinal bypass: Dacron Best vascular graft for infrainguinal bypass: Saphenous vein Best vascular graft for aoa: Dacron | train | med_mcqa | null |
Schizophrenia results with ? | [
"Increased GABA",
"Decreased norepinephrine",
"Increased dopaminergic activity",
"Decreased dopaminergic activity"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Increased dopaminergic activity o Dopamine hypothesis is the most accepted hypothesis for schizophrenia. There is hyperactivity of dopaminergic system. This hypothesis is supported by: 1) Amphetamine and cocaine which release dopamine in central synapses induce schizophrenia like symptoms; and 2) Antipsychotic drugs control the schizophrenic symptoms by blockingdopamine (D2) receptors. However, the dipamine hypothesis has been questioned also as Homo vanillic acid (HVA the principal metabolite of dopamine) is not elevated and prolactin level is not decreased (Dopamine has inhibitory action on prolactin release).o Other neurotransmitters involved are : - Increased serotonin, Decreased GABA, variable change (Increased or decreased) glutamate, and increased norepinephrine. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The size of the film used for lateral cephalogram: | [
"8x10 inch",
"6x12 inch",
"1.5x7 inch",
"57x76 mm"
] | A | Size 0 – 22 x 35 - 1°dentition
Size 1 – 24 x 40 – Anterior
Size 2 – 31 x 41 – Adult
Note: Size 1 and 2 is used for transitional dentition
57 x 76 mm film – Occlusal view
8 x 10 inch – Lateral cephalograms, PNS view
6 x 12 inch – OPG
1.5 x 7 inch – TMJ + Lateral oblique view | train | med_mcqa | null |
"Snowflakes" cataract is seen | [
"Diabetes",
"Galectosemia",
"Trauma",
"Wilson's disease"
] | A | A. (Diabetes) (181 - Khurana 4th)True Diabetic Cataract - It is also called "snow- flake cataract" or "snow storm cataract". It is rare condition usually occurring in young adults due to osmotic overhydration of the lens. Initially a large number of fluid vaccoules appears underneath the anterior and posterior capsules. Which is soon following by appearance of bilateral "snow - flake white opacities in the cortex* Clasical diabetic cataract consists of snow flake cortical opacities occurring in young diabetics (166 - K)* Galectosaemic cataract - bilateral cataracts oil droplet central lens opacities*** Wilson's disease - "Sunflower cataracts"*** Dystrophia - myotonica - "Christmas tree" patternTreatment of advanced diabetic retinopathy include - Seal the tear and reattach the retina, vitrectomy, exophotocoagulation*** | train | med_mcqa | null |
At autopsy, the cyanide poisoning case will show the following features, except: | [
"Characteristic bitter lemon smell.",
"Congested organs.",
"The skin may be pinkish or cherry red in colour.",
"Erosion and haemorrhages in oesophagus and stomach"
] | A | A i.e. Characteristic bitter lemon smell Cyanide poisoning is associated with a characteristic smell of bitter almonds and not of bitter lemon | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which is true of typhoid? | [
"Male carriers though less are more dangerous",
"Female carriers are less common",
"Gall bladder usually not involved in carrier state",
"Tetracycline is the DOC for carriers"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 60 year old female presents to the clinic with complaints of involuntary passage of urine while coughing or during physical strain. Which of the following is the definitive treatment of choice in this patient? | [
"Exercise",
"Bladder neck repair",
"Colpo suspension",
"Ureter reimplantation"
] | B | Surgery is the definitive management of stress incontinence. It is a sling procedure with a piece of fascia attached to the rectus muscle or os pubis and surrounding the urethra at the bladder neck. | train | med_mcqa | null |
An appendicular fistula is least likely to heal if - | [
"The stump was sutured with vicryl",
"There is stenosis/narrowing of the sigmoid colon",
"Superadded infection",
"None"
] | B | Unrelieved obstruction of tube distal to fistula is a cause of persistence of fistula. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Contra indication for DRE | [
"Acute anal fissure",
"Pilonidal sinus",
"Polyps",
"All of the above"
] | A | Acute anal fissure is very painful, so DRE Is contraindicated. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The tooth that is commonly seen in an abnormal relation and contact with its adjacent teeth of the same arch is: | [
"Mandibular first premolar",
"Mandibular lateral incisor",
"Maxillary central incisor",
"Maxillary lateral incisor"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
G.T.T post 1 hour sugar for gestational diabetes is >__ mg%? | [
"140",
"150",
"180",
"200"
] | C | With OGTT using 100 gm glucose 1 hour value > 180 mg % 2 hour value > 155 mg% 3 hour value > 140 mg % | train | med_mcqa | null |
Diagnose the ocular pathology. | [
"Primary optic atrophy",
"Primary open angle glaucoma",
"Papilledema",
"Central retinal artery occlusion"
] | C | Ans. (c) PapilledemaOption a - should be a pale - white disc.Option b - POAG should present with loss of nasal neuro- retinal rim and Cupping (large cup, c/d ratio >0.5) along with vascular changes.Option d - CRAO - no occlusion can be seen, all arteries (thinner cross-section, red colour) and veins (thicker cross section, darker red color) are seen to be patientOption c - Papilledema - earliest sign is blurring of the disc margins, which is visible in the image. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Birth length of the baby doubles at | [
"6 months of age",
"1 year of age",
"2 years of age",
"4 years of age"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Incidence of ectopic pregnancy is highest with : | [
"O.C. pills",
"Copper T",
"Multiload IUCD",
"Progestase"
] | D | Progestase | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following hypnotic drugs facilitates the inhibitory actions of GABA but lacks anticonvulsant or muscle relaxing properties and has minimal effect on sleep architecture | [
"Buspirone",
"Diazepam",
"Phenobarbital",
"Zaleplon"
] | D | Zolpidem, zaleplon and zopiclone are agonists at BZD receptors.
These are hypnotic drugs that lack muscle relaxant and anticonvulsant actions.
These have negligible effect on REM sleep and do not affect sleep architecture. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Corneal layer which does not regenerate | [
"Bowman's layer",
"Stroma",
"Descemet's membrane",
"Epithelium"
] | A | The layers of cornea are -(anterior to posterior) Epithelium Bowman's membrane Substantia propria(corneal stroma) Pre- Descement's membrane(Dua's layer) Descement's membrane Endothelium Bowman's membrane consists of acellular mass of condensed collagen fibrils. It is not a true elastic membrane but simply considered superficial pa of stroma. It shows considerable resistance to infection. But once destroyed, it is unable to regenerate and, therefore, heals by scaring. Ref;A.K.Khurana;6 th Edition; Page no: 96 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Antenatal screening is done using the following `except : | [
"Cord blood",
"Amniotic fluid",
"Chorionic villi",
"Peripheral lymphocytes"
] | D | Peripheral lymphocytes | train | med_mcqa | null |
In carcinoma of lower lip secondaries are seen in | [
"Upper cervical LN",
"Axillary LN",
"Supraclavicular LN",
"Mediastinal LN"
] | A | Carcinoma Lip: Mostly, it is squamous cell carcinoma, often seen in males in the age group of 40-70 years. Lower lip is more often involved. Site of predilection is between the midline and commissure of the lip. Lesion is of exophytic or ulcerative type. Lymph node metastases develop late. Submental and submandibular nodes are the first to be involved; other deep cervical nodes may also get involved later. Treatment: It is surgical excision with adequate safety margin of healthy tissue and plastic repair of the defect. Lymph node metastases require block dissection. Radiotherapy also gives good results in early cases. Ref:- Dhingra; pg num:-226 | train | med_mcqa | null |
During ocular surgery, when eye surgeon touches the medial rectus, he asked to assistant to measure heart rate because of | [
"Occulocardiac reflex",
"Occulocephalic reflex",
"Occulovagal reflex",
"None"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is not a Contraindication of vaginal delivery after previous Caesarean? | [
"Previous Classical C/S",
"No History of Vaginal Delivery in the past",
"Breech presentation in previous pregnancy",
"Puerperial infection in previous pregnancy"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Disease under natural conditions transmitted from vertebrate animals to man is: | [
"Zoonoses",
"Exotic",
"Epizoonotic",
"Amphixenotic"
] | A | Ans: a (Zoonoses) Ref: Park, 19th ed, p. 88An infection or infectious disease transmissible under natural conditions from vertebrate animals to man is called a "Zoonoses", e.g., Rabies, plague, cysticercosis (Taenia solium), anthrax, brucellosis, salmonellosis, KFD, Lassa fever.The term "Zoonosis" has been further amplified as follows:AnthropozoonosesInfections transmitted to man from vertebrate animals, e.g., rabies, plague, anthrax, hydatid disease.ZooanthroponosesInfections transmitted from man to vertebrate animals e.g., human tuberculosis in cattle.AmphixenosisInfections maintained in both man and lower vertebrate animals that may be transmitted in either direction e.g., T. cruzi and S. japonicum.About other options:Exotic--Diseases which are imported into a country in which they do not occur otherwise e.g. rabies in UK, epidemic polyarthritis in visitors of Fizi, due to Ross River virus.Epizootic--an outbreak (epidemic) of disease in an animal population often with an implication that it may also affect human populations. Examples include anthrax, brucellosis, rabies, influenza. Rift valley fever, Q fever, Japanese encephalitis, equine encephalitis. The study of epizootic disease is known as epizootiology. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Aery supply to Koch's triangle is from: | [
"Right coronary aery",
"Left coronary aery",
"Left anterior descending aery",
"Aery from anterior aoic sinus"
] | A | Koch's triangle (and AV node) is supplied by right coronary aery in majority of population. Koch's triangle boundaries tendon of Todaro opening of coronary sinus at the base septal cusp of tricuspid valve (. atrio ventricular valve) AV node at apex | train | med_mcqa | null |
NOT a cause of varicose veins: March 2013 (f) | [
"Superficial venous thrombosis",
"Aeriovenous fistula",
"Deep venous thrombosis",
"Pregnancy"
] | A | Ans. A i.e. Superficial venous thrombosis Varicose veins Gold standard method of diagnosing VV: Duplex imaging Sclerosant used in VV: Ethanolamine oleate Test to demonstrate sapheno-femoral incompetence: Brodie-Trendelenburg test MC complication of stripping: Ecchymosis Cocket & Dodds's operation: Subfascial ligation | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following are characteristics of Rett syndrome EXCEPT | [
"Autistic behavior",
"Microcephaly",
"Peculiar wringing motion of the hands",
"Autosomal recessive inheritance"
] | D | The genetics of Rett syndrome has not yet been determined. Although it is thought to be a genetic syn-drome, no inheritance pattern and no enzymatic deficiency or other metabolic explanation has been established for Rett syndrome. The other characteristics (autistic behavior, microcephaly, peculiar wringing motion of the hand, dementia) are common in patients with this disorder. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Heavy chain disease with kapppa light chains in urine- | [
"Mu chain disease",
"Seligman disease",
"Franklin disease",
"Waldenstrom macroglobulinemia"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Mu chain disease o The heavy chain diseases are rare B cell proliferative disorders characterized by the production of a monoclonal (M) protein consisting of a portion of the immunoglobulin heavy chain without a bound light chain. The heavy chain in heavy chain disease is often incomplete or truncated and a sharp, localized peak may not be seen on the electrophoretic tracing of serum or urine.o Three types of heavy chain disease (HCD) are recognized, based upon the class of immunoglobulin heavy chain produced (eg, alpha, gamma, mu) by the malignant cell.o Alpha HCD is:# A form of mucosa associated lymphoid tissue (MALT) lymphoma that is also called immunoproliferative small intestinal disease (IPSID)# Mediterranean lymphoma or# Seligmann diseaseo Gamma HCD (Franklin's disease) is:# Typically associated with the presence of a systemic lymphoma# Often of mixed lymphoid-plasmacytic character.o Mu HCD has:# Clinical features resembling small lymphocytic lymphoma/chronic lymphocytic leukemia, often with distinctive vacuolated lymphocytes/plasma cells in the bone marrow.Pathophysiologyo The normal immunoglobulin molecule:# The immunoglobulin molecule is composed of two heavy and two light chains Joined by disulfide bonds. The normal heavy chain constant region (CH region) has a number of domains, of which CH1 is responsible for light chain binding. In the absence of an associated light chain, the CHI domain binds to heat shock protein 78 (heavy chain binding protein, BiP), and the heavy chain undergoes proteasomal degradation rather than secretion. As a result, normal heavy chains without light chains are not detected in the serum.o The abnormal heavy chain in HCD:# In the heavy chain diseases, noncontiguous deletions in the switch-CHl region prevent binding of the abnormal heavy chain to light chains as well as to heat shock protein 78, thereby avoiding proteasomal degradation. The heavy chains are then secreted into the plasma (or jejunal fluid in the case of alpha HCD) and, if small enough, may appear in the urine.Alpha HCDo Alpha HCD (also called immunoproliferative small intestinal disease (IPSID), Mediterranean lymphoma, Seligmann disease) is a form of MALT lymphoma, with the same histologic features of MALT type gastrointestinal lymphomas with marked plasma cell differentiation.o It is the most common form of HCD and occurs in patients from the Mediterranean region or Middle East, usually young males, and is often associated with relatively poor sanitation.o The gastrointestinal tract is involved in alpha HCD, resulting in abdominal pain, severe malabsorption with chronic diarrhea, steatorrhea, and loss of weight.o Growth retardation (in children), digital clubbing, and mesenteric lymphadenopathy may also be present.o Infiltration of the jejunal mucosa with plasmacytoid cells is the most frequent pathologic feature. The duodenum and ileum are less often affected.o The diagnosis depends upon the recognition of a monoclonal alpha heavy chain without an associated light chain in the serum, urine, intestinal secretions, or cells infiltrating the intestinal mucosa.o The serum protein electrophoretic pattern is normal in one-half of cases, and in the remainder an unimpressive broad band may appear in the alpha-2 or beta mobility regions.o The amount of alpha heavy chain in the urine is small.o In the absence of therapy, alpha HCD typically is progressive and fatal.o The usual treatment is with antibiotics such as tetracyclines and eradication of any concurrent infection (eg, parasites, viruses, Helicobacter pylori, Campylobacter jejuni).Gamma HCDo Typically present with systemic symptoms, lymphadenopathy, splenomegaly, and/or anemia, and occasionally with palatal and uvular swelling.o Median age of patients with gamma HCD is 60 to 70 years.o The clinical findings ranged from an asymptomatic state (eg, monoclonal gammopathy of undetermined significance, MGUS) to an aggressive lymphoproliferative process.o Autoimmune manifestations are seen in about one-third of patients (eg, idiopathic thrombocytopenia purpura, hemolytic anemia, vasculitis, systemic lupus erythematosus, rheumatoid arthritis).o Typically associated with a polymorphous infiltrate, including admixtures of lymphocytes, plasmacytoid lymphocytes, plasma cells, immunoblasts, and eosinophils.o Electrophoretic pattern often shows a broad-based band more suggestive of a polyclonal increase but the gamma chains are monoclonal.o Diagnosis is established by immunofixation, which shows that the abnormal protein consists only of gamma heavy chains without associated light chains.o The monoclonal gamma chains have significant deletions of amino acids, including the CH 1 domain of the constant region.o Treatment is indicated only for symptomatic patients.# Therapy has consisted of chemotherapy with varying combinations such as cyclophosphamide, vincristine, and prednisone (CVP), or cyclophosphamide, doxorubicin, vincristine, and prednisone (CHOP regimen) or, if the abnormal cells express CD20, the anti-CD20 antibody rituximab plus CHOP (R-CHOP).MuHCDo Mu HCD is the least common of the HCDs and is characterized by a monoclonal mu chain fragment in the serum. It has features resembling chronic lymphocyticleukemia/small lymphocytic lymphoma (eg, anemia, hepatosplenomegaly), although peripheral adenopathy is less common than in CLL. Osteolytic lesions or pathologic fractures have been reported in occasional patients.o Unlike alpha and gamma HCD, some patients with mu HCD have increased free light chain secretion (Bence Jones proteinuria), and may develop cast nephropathy or amyloidosis,o Common features include characteristic vacuolated plasma cells or lymphoid cells in the bone marrow and panhypogammaglobulinemia.o The serum protein electrophoretic pattern is usually normal except for hypogammaglobulinemia.o The course of mu HCD is variable, and survival ranges from a few months to many years.o Asymptomatic patients are observed without therapyo Symptomatic patients are treated similar to patients with chronic lymphocytic leukemia or non-Hodgkin lymphoma. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Under which level of prevention should sentinel surveillance be categorised | [
"Primordial prevention",
"Primary prevention",
"Secondary prevention",
"Teiary prevention"
] | C | Sentinel surveillance is a method for identifying the missing cases and thereby supplementing the notified cases. it estimates disease prevalence in the total population. Repoing biases are minimised. It detects missing cases; so it comes under secondary prevention. Ref : Park&;s Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine; 23rd edition - Pgno 40 | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 75-year-old man is bought to the hospital because of a syncopal episode. There was no incontinence or post-event confusion. On examination, his blood pressure is 140/80 mm Hg, pulse 72/min with no postural changes. His second heart sound is diminished and there is a systolic ejection murmur that radiates to the carotids. With the Valsalva maneuver, the murmur decreases in length and intensity.For the above patient with a systolic murmur, select the most likely diagnosis. | [
"aortic stenosis",
"hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy (HOCM)",
"mitral regurgitation (chronic)",
"tricuspid regurgitation"
] | A | With the Valsalva maneuver, most murmurs will decrease. The location and radiation of this patient's murmur suggests aortic stenosis. The exceptions are the murmurs of HOCM and mitral valve prolapse, which increase.After release of the Valsalva maneuver, right-sided murmurs tend to return to baseline more rapidly. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Polymerase chain reaction is used for - | [
"Cloning of DNA in vitro",
"Amplification of DNA in vitro",
"DNQA sequencing",
"Visualization of nucleic acid"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e.. Amplification of DNA in vitro o PCR is a method of enzymatic amplification of a target sequence of DNA.o It is sensitive, selective (specific) and extremely rapid means of amplifying any desired sequence of double stranded DNA, which can be as short as 50-100 base pairs (bp) and as long as 10 kbp.o In PCR, the DNA to be amplified is replicated by DNA polymerase of Thermus aquaticus (Taq).o Taq polymerase is used because it is thermostable, not denatured at a temperature upto 95degC (in PCR DNA is to be heated to 94deg-95deg C for separation of strands).o For amplifying a desired DNA sequence in DNA. we have to know short flanking sequences on either side of the target sequence so that complementary' primers can be prepared,o Primers are the synthetic oligonucleotides of 20-35 sequence, which have sequence complementary' to flanking sequence, i.e. sequence of flanking region of target DNA sequence,o Primers are amplified to produce desired sequence of DNA. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Fungus which cannot be cultured is: | [
"Pencillium",
"Aspergillus",
"Rhinosporodium",
"Sporothrix"
] | C | Rhinosporodium | train | med_mcqa | null |
The stapes is embryologically derived from the following pharyngeal arch ? | [
"1st arch",
"2nd arch",
"3rd arch",
"4th arch"
] | B | The second pharyngeal arch gives rise to Reiche cailage, which eventually forms:Manubrium of the malleusLong process of the incusStapes suprastructureTympanic poion of the stapes footplateThe vestibular poion of the stapes footplate derives from the otic capsule. Other structures which derived from the second pharyngeal arch mesoderm are:Facial nerveMuscles of facial expressionStapedius muscleThe upper poion of the hyoid boneStylohyoid ligament Ref: Brown K.D., Selesnick S.H. (2012). Chapter 48. Congenital Disorders of the Middle Ear. In A.K. Lalwani (Ed), CURRENT Diagnosis & Treatment in Otolaryngology--Head & Neck Surgery, 3e. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The chance that a health worker gets HIV from an accidental needle prick is - | [
"1%",
"10%",
"95%",
"100%"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., 1% Common modes of transmission of HIV and their relative riskTypes of exposureApproximate chance of infection per exposureI Sexual intercourse: anal, vaginal, oral01-10%II Blood and blood products. Factor VII etc. Blood transfusion> 90%III Tissue and organ donation, semen, cornea, bone marrow, kidney etc.50-90%IV Injections and injuries shared needles by drug addicts Injections with unsterile Needle-stick and other injuries in health staff? Surgical wounds0-5-10%V Mother to baby :TransplacentalAt birthAfter birthBreast milk30% | train | med_mcqa | null |
Horrok&;s apparatus determines Chloride which has to have a holding level of - | [
"0.1 mg\\/L",
"1 mg\\/L",
"0.01 mg\\/L",
"0.5 mg\\/L"
] | D | Roughly 2.5 grams of good quality bleaching powder would be required to disinfect 1,000 liters of water.This will give an approximate dose of 0.7 mg of applied chlorine per litre of water (refer pgno:718 park 23rd edition) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Investigation of choice to diagnose congenital malformations | [
"USG",
"HSG",
"MRI",
"CT"
] | C | MRI is the investigation of choice to diagnose congenital malformaiton. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Immune complex depostion is - | [
"Type I HS",
"Type II HS",
"Type III HS",
"Type IV HS"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Type III hypersensitivity | train | med_mcqa | null |
Glass blowers cataract is caused due to- | [
"Wilson's Disease",
"Myotonic Dystrophy",
"Infrared radiation",
"Congenital Rubella"
] | C | Glassblower's cataracts is formed by many years or decades of exposure to infrared radiation while working in the occupation lf glass blowing, or working close to hot or molten metals such with metal foundry workers or blacksmiths. Ref: Geddes, LA; Roeder, RA (2006). Handbook of Electrical Hazards and Accidents (2nd ed.). lawyers&Judges Publishing Company.p.465. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All are components of charcot's triad, EXCEPT: | [
"Obstructive jaundice",
"High grade fever with chills and rigor",
"Right upper quadrant pain",
"Hypotension"
] | D | MUST KNOW: Charcot's triad of jaundice, abdominal pain, and fever is present in about 70% of patients with ascending cholangitis and biliary sepsis. It is managed initially with fluid resuscitation and intravenous antibiotics. Biliary drainage should be established at the earliest, typically by ERCP. ALSO KNOW: Charcot's triad + shock and confusion is Reynolds's pentad in biliary sepsis. It is associated with high moality rate and should prompt an urgent intervention to restore biliary drainage. Ref: Harrison, Edition-18, Page-2418. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following method is not used to demonstrate old or faint tatoos? | [
"Magnifying lens",
"UV rays",
"Infrared photography",
"Laser"
] | D | Laser is used to demonstrate old or faint tatoos . | train | med_mcqa | null |
Nerve supply of Tibialis anterior is: | [
"Tibial nerve",
"Deep peroneal nerve",
"Femoral nerve",
"Sural nerve"
] | B | Ans. B. Deep peroneal nerveAll the muscles of the anterior compartment of leg are supplied by Deep peroneal nerve. The muscles of the anterior compartment of leg are Tibialis anterior, Extensor digitorum longus, Extensor hallucis longus & peroneus tertius. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Bhore committee adviced:(1997) | [
"Integration of health services",
"100% immunization",
"Eradication of poverty",
"Minimum needs programme"
] | A | Ans: aRef: Park, 17th ed, p. 636 & 18,h ed, p. 671 | train | med_mcqa | null |
All are true about hepatopulmonary syndrome except | [
"Frequency in ESLDbis between 8-29%",
"Characterized by hypoxemia and anatomical shunting of blood",
"Only established treatment at present is OLT",
"A preoperative oxygen tension of <30mmHg alone is a predictor of disease"
] | D | Severity in Hepatopulmonary syndrome depends upon liver disease, oxygenation defect and pulmonary vascular dilation Ref: Shackelford 7th edition Pg no : 1606-1608 | train | med_mcqa | null |
The most common complication of Sub-valvular Aortic Stenosis is - | [
"Aortic Regurgitation",
"Mitral Regurgitation",
"Tricuspid Regurgitation",
"Pulmonary Regurgitation"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Aortic Regurgitation o Aortic regurgitation is the most common complication of subaortic stenosis.o Note that Aortic regurgitation is not a congenital anomaly associated with subvalvular aortic stenosis.# Aortic regurgitation is a complication of subvalvular# The aortic regurgitation appears to be due to thick fibrous tissue on the left ventricular swface of the valve leaflets. The fibrosis is caused by the repetitive trauma from a jet of blood through the stenosis or by the proliferation of the fbroelastic membrane itself. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Unlocking of knee to allow flexion ? | [
"Popliteus",
"Vastus medialis",
"Gastronemeus",
"Biceps femoris"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Popliteus Locking and Unlocking of knee jointLocking is a mechanism that allows the knee to remain in the position of full extension as in standing without much muscular effo.Locking occurs as a result of medial rotation of the femur during the last stage of extension.The anteroposterior diameter of the lateral femoral condyle is less than that of the medial condyle.As a result, when the lateral condylar aicular surface is fully 'used up' by extension, pa of the medial condylar surface remains unused.At this stage the lateral condyle rotates backwards, i.e. medial rotation of the femur occurs, so that the remaining pa of the media condylar surface is also 'taken up'.This movement locks the knee joint.Locking is aided by the oblique pull of ligaments during the last stages of extension.When the knee is locked, it is completely rigid and all ligaments of the joint are taut.Locking is produced by continued action of the same muscles that produce extension, i.e. the quadriceps femoris, especially the vastus medialis pa.The locked knee joint can be flexed only after it is unlocked by a reversal of the medial rotation, i.e. by lateral rotation of the femur. Unlocking is brought about by the action of the popliteus muscle. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The most radiosensitive cells are | [
"Bone-marrow cells",
"Muscle cells",
"Nerve cells",
"Breast glandular cells"
] | A | The most sensitive cells are those that are undifferentiated, well nourished, dividing quickly and highly active metabolically. Amongst the body cells, the most sensitive are spermatogonia and erythroblasts, epidermal stem cells, gastrointestinal stem cells. The least sensitive are nerve cells and muscle fibres.Very sensitive cells are also oocytes and lymphocytes, although they are resting cells and do not meet the criteria described above. The reasons for their sensitivity are not clear.Reference: Eric J Hall Textbook of Radiobiology for Radiologist; 5th edition | train | med_mcqa | null |
In a patient with compensated liver cirrhosis presented with history of variceal bleed. The treatment of choice in this patient is | [
"Propanalol",
"Liver transplantation",
"TIPS(Transjugular intra hepatic poal shunt)",
"Endoscopic sclerotherapy"
] | D | Management of variceal bleeding In addition to pharmacologic therapy endoscopy should be carried out as soon as possible If varices are found they are treated with either endoscopic ligation or sclerotherapy EVL is the treatment of choice for variceal bleeding Endoscopic scleropathy Variceal bleeding suspected based on history ABC's and resuscitation Sta vasopressin or octreotide infusion Variceal bleeding confirmed on EGD Endoscopic band ligation (or scleropathy) If bleeding stopped - Vasopressin/octreotide for 3-5 days. Complete 7 days of antibiotics. Repeat endoscopic banding every 10-14 days until eliminated If bleeding didn't stop - Balloon tampon ade consider TIPS or surgical shunt if TIPS fails or not vavilable Ref: Sabiston 20th edition Pgno : 1444 | train | med_mcqa | null |
The most common type of pelvis associated with Direct occipitoposterior position is : | [
"Gynaecoid",
"Platypelloid",
"Anthropoid",
"Android"
] | C | Anthropoid | train | med_mcqa | null |
Anatomic characteristics of the spleen include: | [
"Blood supply to the spleen includes branches from the left renal aery",
"The spleen is wholly contained within the lesser sac",
"The spleen lies in the retroperitoneal space",
"The splenic aery is a terminal branch of the celiac trunk"
] | D | The aerial supply to the spleen is derived from the splenic aery, which arises within the hepatic aery as the terminal branches of the celiac trunk. The spleen is located with in the dorsal mesentery of the stomach protruding in pa into the omental bursa. The blood vessels enter the spleen in the splenic pedicle, the mesenteric attachment to the wall of the omental bursa, which contains the blood vessels to the spleen. The splenic aery, after it divides into two terminal branches, gives rise to the sho gastric aeries and the left gastroepiploic aery. Ref: Moon D.A., Foreman K.B., Albeine K.H. (2011). Chapter 9. Foregut. In D.A. Moon, K.B. Foreman, K.H. Albeine (Eds), The Big Picture: Gross Anatomy. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following statement is true about Bacteroides | [
"It is gram positive bacilli",
"It is strictly aerobic",
"It may cause peritonitis",
"Presence in stool culture indicates need for treatment"
] | C | It is a Gram-negative strictly anaerobic bacilli and is a common inhabitant of the intestinal tract. They may cause peritonitis. Reference: Textbook of Microbiology; Anathanarayan and paniker's; 10th edition; Page no: 264 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following drugs should not be used in a setting of severe hypeension in elderly on empirical basis | [
"Enalapril",
"Amlodipine",
"Chlohiazide",
"Prazosin"
] | D | Postsynaptic, selective a-adrenoreceptor antagonists lower blood pressure by decreasing peripheral vascular resistance. They are effective antihypeensive agents used either as monotherapy or in combination with other agents. However, in clinical trials of hypeensive patients, alpha blockade has not been shown to reduce cardiovascular morbidity and moality or to provide as much protection against CHF as other classes of antihypeensive agents. These agents are also effectivein treating lower urinary tract symptoms in men with prostatic hyperophy. Nonselective a-adrenoreceptor antagonists bind to postsynaptic and presynaptic receptors and are used primarily for the management of patients with pheochromocytoma. ref:harrison&;s principles of internal medicine,ed 18,pg no 4279 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is not a second messenger | [
"c-AMP",
"IP3",
"Guanylyl cyclase",
"Diacylglycerol (DAG"
] | C | Ans. c. Guanylyl cyclase | train | med_mcqa | null |
The type of synechiae in iris bombe is | [
"Ring",
"Total",
"Goniform",
"Filiform"
] | A | A. i.e. Ring | train | med_mcqa | null |
Vomer ala and sphenoidal rostrum junction is: | [
"Syndesmosis",
"Synostosis",
"Schindylesis",
"Gomphosis"
] | C | Spheno-vomerine joint is a schindylesis suture at the roof of the nasal cavity. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Inquest is conducted by magistrate in case of - | [
"Police firing",
"Traffic accident",
"Railway accident",
"Rape"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
SI unit of Absorption is: | [
"Sv",
"Curie",
"Becquerel",
"Gy"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
True about Trotters triad -a) Conductive deafnessb) Involvement of CN VIc) Involvement of CN Xd) Palatal paralysise) Associated with nasopharyngeal angiofibroma | [
"acd",
"ad",
"bc",
"bde"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Kisselbach's plexus is situated in- | [
"Anteroinferior part of nasal septum",
"Woodruffs area",
"Near superior turbinate",
"Posterior nasal cavity"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Anteroinferior part of nasal septum Little's area:-o Situated in the anterior inferior part of nasal septum, just above the vestibule.Four arteries supply this area:o Anterior ethmoidal artery.o Septal branch of superior labial artery (Branch of facial A)o Septal branch of sphenopalatine artery (Branch of maxillary A)o Greater palatine artery (Branch of maxillary A).o These arteries anastomose to form a vascular plexus called ''Kiesselbach's plexus". | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 60-year-old male presented to the emergency with breathlessness, facial swelling and dilated veins on the chest wall. The most common cause is: | [
"Thymoma",
"Cervical rib",
"Hodgkin's lymphoma",
"Superior vena caval obstruction"
] | D | Superior vena caval syndrome:symptomssignsswelling around neck and face especially around eyesdyspneacoughhoarseness, headache, tongue swelling, nasal congestion, epistaxis, haemoptysis, dysphagia, pain, dizziness, syncopedilated neck veinsincreased number of collateral veins over the anterior chest wallcyanosisoedema of face, arms, and chestproptosis, glossal & laryngeal oedema and obtundation in severe casesSymptoms are aggravated by bending forwards and lying downLung cancer is the commonest cause of SVC obstruction(ref: Harrison's 18/e p2266, 17/e p1730) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Rate limiting step in facilitated diffusion? | [
"Availability of contranspo",
"Conformational change in transpoer",
"Synthesis of carrier protein",
"Polarization of solute"
] | B | Ans. is'b'i.e., Conformational change in transpoer(Ref: Essentials of membrane Biophysics p. 25I).The relative slowness of the rate constant for conformational change reorienting the Solute-unoccupied transpoer (Step-4) makes it the rate-limiting step in the process of facilitated diffusion. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following condition is associated with QRS duration greater than 0.16 seconds ? | [
"Bundle branch block",
"Sick sinus syndrome",
"Mobitz type 1 hea block",
"Mobitz type 2 hea block"
] | A | Normal QRS duration: 0.06 - 0.1 seconds RAISED QRS DURATION IS SEEN IN: *Ventricular tachycardia (Assume any wide QRS-complex tachycardia is VT until proven otherwise) *Right bundle branch blocks (up to 0.14 sec) *Right bundle branch blocks with VT (> 0.14 sec) *Left bundle branch blocks (up to 0.16) *Left bundle branch blocks with VT(> 0.16) *Intraventricular block (as seen in Hyperkalemia, quinidine, procainamide) *Implanted ventricular pacemaker | train | med_mcqa | null |
Weber's syndrome occurs due to lesions in the | [
"Pons",
"Midbrain",
"Medulla oblongata",
"Cerebellum"
] | B | Weber's syndrome (superior alternating hemiplegia) is a form of stroke characterized by the presence of an ipsilateral oculomotor nerve palsy and contralateral hemiparesis or hemiplegia. It is caused by midbrain infarction as a result of occlusion of the paramedian branches of the posterior cerebral aery or of basilar bifurcation perforating aeries. Ref: guyton and hall textbook of medical physiology 12 edition page number: 761,762763 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Thumb sign on CT head is seen in? | [
"Chordoma",
"Metastasis",
"Glioblastoma multiforme",
"Astrocytoma"
] | A | Thumb sign on CT head is seen in Chordoma. Sella Chordoma Presents with bony clivus erosion and local invasion. Calcification also occurs On FNAC- mucinous material obtained | train | med_mcqa | null |
Characteristic feature of early congenital syphilis is – | [
"Microcephaly",
"Saddle nose",
"Interstitial keratitis with saber shin",
"Vesicular rash with bulla over palms and soles"
] | D | Vesicle and bullae are seen in early congenital syphilis. Interstitial keratitis and saddle nose are seen in late congenital syphilis. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Patient presents to casualty with sudden onset LMN facial palsy on right side and inability to abduct right eye. There is left sided hemiparesis. Whats your diagnosis? | [
"Fovilles syndrome",
"Milard gubler syndrome",
"Ramsay hunt syndrome",
"Tolosa hunt syndrome"
] | B | Triad of ipsilateral 6th nerve palsy, ipsilateral 7th nerve palsy and contralateral hemiparesis constitutes milard gubler syndrome. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Hyoid bone fracture most common occurs in ? | [
"Manual strangulation",
"Hanging",
"Smothering",
"Traumatic asphyxia"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Manual strangulation As manual strangulation (throttling) is among the most violent form of asphyxia, hyoid fracture and other injury to neck structures is more common. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Coincidental malignancy in the upper respiratory tract with inveed papillomas seen in | [
"0.10%",
"2%",
"4%",
"5%"
] | C | Coincidental malignancy in the upper respiratory tract with inveed papilloma is seen in 4%Malignant transformation of the tumor itself is seen in 8% | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 52 year old male with a history of hea disease presents with sudden painless loss of vision in one eye. Examination reveals cherry red spot. Diagnosis is: | [
"Central retinal vein occlusion",
"Central retinal aery occlusion",
"Diabetic retinopathy",
"Acute ischemic optic neuritis"
] | B | Central retinal aery occlusion: It occurs due to obstruction at the level of lamina cribrosa. Causes sudden painless loss of vision. Retina becomes white due to oedema & a cherry red spot is seen at the fovea. Aerioles become narrow & blood column within the retinal vessels is segmented. Resuscitation time of the human retina following retinal ischemia is 11/2 hours. Ref: Review of Ophthalmology by A.K. Khurana, 5th Edition, Page 113 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Commonest histoloical finding in Benign Hypeension is: | [
"Proliferative endaeritis",
"Necrotizing aeriolitis",
"Hyaline aeriosclerosis",
"Cystic Medial Necrosis"
] | C | Answer is C (Hyaline Aeriosclerosis) : The charachteristic histological finding in Benign Hypeension is Hyaline aeriosclerosis Benign Nephrosclerosis This term is used to describe the changes in kidney associated with associated with benign phase of hypeension malignant or accelerated hypeension Kidney size is either normalQ or may be moderately reducedQ Grain leather appearanceQThe coical surface has a fine even granularity Kidney size is variableQ May be smaller in size() (when superimposed on benign nephrosclerosis) or Larger in size (enlarged)Q than normal (patients who develop malignant hypeension in pure form) Flea bitten appearanceQ: The coical surface may show multiple small peticheal haemorrhagesQ from rupture of aerioles or glomerular capillaries. Microscopic (Vascular Changes & Parenchymal Changes) Hyaline AeriosclerosisQ Narrowing of the lumens of aerioles and small aeries caused by thickenning and hyalnization of the walls Fibroelastic HyperplasiaQ: in the intima (intimal thickenningQ, duplication of elastic lamina and hyperophy of the 'media' Parenchymal changes (due to ischaemic) Variable degree of Atrophy of parenchyma due to ischaemia Microscopic (Vascular Changes & Parenchymal Changes) Fibrinoid necrosis of aeriolesQ (Necrotizing aeriolitisQ The vessel wall shows fibrinoid necrosis. Represents an acute event and necrosis is usually not accompanied by intense inflammation Hyperplastic intimal sclerosisQ Onion -- SkinningQ Concentric laminae of proliferated smooth muscle cells, collagen and basement membrane (producing intimal thickenning) Parenchymal changes (due to ischaemia) Variable degree of atrophy ofparanchyma due to ischaemia. Infarction necrosis distal to abnormal vessels may be seen | train | med_mcqa | null |
Periodic Acid Schiff stain shows block positivity in: | [
"Myeloblasts",
"Lymphoblasts",
"Monoblasts",
"Megakaryoblasts"
] | B | Lymphoblasts | train | med_mcqa | null |
Maximum refractive power is due to the | [
"Anterior surface of lens",
"Posterior surface of lens",
"Anterior surface of cornea",
"Posterior surface of cornea"
] | C | Ans. Anterior surface of cornea | train | med_mcqa | null |
Active ingredient of marking nut is - | [
"Semecarpol",
"Crotin",
"Abrin",
"None"
] | A | Marking Nut Botanical name: Semicarpus anacardium Common name: Marking nut, bhilawa, biba Toxic Principle * Semecarpol * Bhilawanol REF;THE SYNOPSIS OF FORENSIC MEDICINE:KS NARAYANA REDDY;28th EDITION;PAGE NO317 | train | med_mcqa | null |
True regarding pathway shown in Figure | [
"Glucose shunted through this pathway",
"Monophosphates only as intermediates",
"Direct oxidative pathway of glucose metabolism",
"All of the above"
] | D | All of the above (Pathway shown: PPP/HMP shunt pathway) | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 25 year old man presented with fever, cough, expectoration and breathlessness of 2 months duration. Contrast enchanced computed tomography of the chest showed bilateral upper lobe fibrotic lesions and mediastinum had enlarged necrotic nodes with peripheral rim enhancement. Which one of the following is the most probable diagnosis?Sarcoidosis | [
"Sarcoidosis",
"Tuberculosis",
"Lymphoma",
"Silicosis"
] | B | B i.e. Tuberculosis Expectoration is a common manifestation in tuberculosis. It is usually not associated with sarcoidosis, silicosis & lymphoma. B/L Upper lobe fibrosis makes lymphoma unlikely. It may be seen in other conditions and m.c. in tuberculosis. Diagnosis of silicosis is based on relevant occupational history (10-12 years exposure is usually necessary). Radiological features of | train | med_mcqa | null |
True regarding breath holding spells are all EXCEPT: | [
"Antiepileptic treatment is necessary",
"Atropine is sometimes used",
"Attacks of cyanosis can occur",
"Occurs between 6 months to 5 years age"
] | A | BREATH HOLDING SPELLS: --> Behavioral problem, usually affects boys b/w 6 months - 3 yrs of age. Results from immaturity of ANS. --> Triggers: Injury, anger, frustration --> Sequence of events is typical: Child first has long cry --> then, holds his breath --> turns blue & limp --> may be followed by tonic & few clonic movements. --> 2 types PALLID- caused by reflex vagal bradycardia & asystole CYANOTIC - due to prolonged expiration, apnea, intrapulmonary shunting of blood --> Treatment: Parental Reassurance; Treatment of co-existing Iron deficiency anemia Anti-epileptics are usually not indicated for its treatment. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Test shown in the video is for which structure & its nerve supply: | [
"Infraspinatus C6,C7",
"Subscapularis C5,C6",
"Supraspinatus C5,C6",
"Teres minor C6,C7"
] | C | Test shown in the video is for Supraspinatus (C5,C6) Empty can test: This tests the strength of Supraspinatus . The patient is asked to raise his /her arms to a position of 90-degree abduction,30 degrees of forward flexion and internal rotation(thumbs pointing to the floor, as if emptying an imaginary can) The examiner stands behind the patient and applies downward pressure on both arms, with the patient resisting this force. The result is positive if the affected side is weaker than the unaffected side-tear of the supraspinatus tendon. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following does not cause hemorrhagic conjunctivitis | [
"Adenovirus",
"Coxsackie-24",
"Enterovirus-70",
"Papilloma virus"
] | D | D. i.e. Papilloma virus | train | med_mcqa | null |
A patient with sore throat has a positive Paul Bunnell test. The causative organism is- | [
"EBV",
"Herpesvirus",
"Adenovirus",
"CMV"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Speckled pattern is seen in - | [
"Anti Sm antibody",
"Anti ds DNA antibody",
"Anti histone antibody",
"Anti chromatin antibody"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Anti Sm antibody o The most commonly used method to detect antinuclear antibodies is indirect immunofluorescence. o The pattern of nuclear fluorescence suggests the type of antibody present in patient's serum. o Four basic patterns are recognized :? 1. Homogenous or diffuse nuclear chromatin staining ----> Reflects antihistone and antichromatin antibodies. 2. Rim or peripheral staining Anti ds DNA antibody. 3. Speckled pattern --> Most common pattern on immunofluorescence. Reflects the presence of non DNA nuclear contents --> anti Sm, anti - Ro, anti-La, anti SS-A, and anti SS-B antibodies. 4. Nucleolar pattern --> Nucleolar RNA. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Mechanism of action of vancomycin is: | [
"Cell wall synthesis inhibition",
"Protein synthesis inhibition",
"Increase in membrane permeability",
"Inhibition of folic acid metabolism"
] | A | Vancomycin is a transglycosylase inhibitor, used in treatment of MRSA. Other cell wall inhibitors include:Fosphomycin , beta lactams, bacitracin, cycloserin, vancomycin. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A middle aged female is having essential blepharospasm and is planned to be treated with Botulinum toxin. Which of the following is not true? | [
"Need repeat injections",
"Diplopia may occur",
"Type C is most effective",
"Response rate is over 95%"
] | C | Type C is most effective The initial treatment of choice in essential blepharospasm is Botulinum toxin type A. Among seven available form (A, B, C, D, E, F & G), only type A is used clinically and is most effective form. Botulinum toxin - Chemodenervation: * Type A is used * Block neuromuscular junctions (Cholinergic) * Onset 24-72 Hrs * Duration 3 months, hence need repeat injections * Dose: 1.25-5 unit/injection site. Usually given at 4 initial sites. * Response rate is 95-98%. * Adverse effects: Ptosis, Epiphora, Keratitis, dy eyes, diplopia | train | med_mcqa | null |
When pulp cannot be extirpated in narrow canals, which of the following can be used | [
"Obtundant",
"Astringent",
"Haemostatic",
"Mummifying agent"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Mala-N is a.... | [
"POP pill",
"Mini pill",
"Combined pill",
"Once a month pill"
] | C | Ans: c (Combined pill) Ref: Park, 19th ed, p. 398; Shaw, 12th ed, p. 177Combined pill:These pills usually contain a mixture of synthetic estrogen, (ethinyl estradiol, or mestranol), and orally active progesterone.Mala N contains 20-30ig of ethinyl estradiol, and 1 mg of nor ethisterone.Mala D contains20-30ig of ethinyl estradiol, and 0.5 mg of d-norgestrel.Mala N is supplied free of cost through all PHCs and Urban Family Welfare Centres.The pill is given orally for 21 consecutive days, beginning on the 5th day of cycle followed by a break of 7 days during which menstruation occurs.POP pills-- progesterone only pill (mini pill, micro pill) - It contains only progesterone which is given in small doses throughout the cycle. They could be prescribed to older women with cardiovascular risks, where estrogen is conu aindicated, also in young women with risk of neoplasia.Once-a-month (long acting pill) - Combination of long acting estrogen with a progesterone. But the results are disappointing.Post coital contraception:Post coital (morning after) contraception is recommended within 72 hours of an unprotected intercourse.Two methods available are:a) IUDb) HormonalMode of action of oral pills-prevents ovulation. POP renders cervical mucous mucus thick and scanty and thereby inhibiting sperm penetration. They also inhibit tubal motility and delay the transport of sperm and ovum to the uterine cavity.Side effects:1. Breast tenderness2. Weight gain3. Headache and migraine4. Bleeding disturbances5. Mondial vaginitis6. Nausea, vomiting7. Alteration of lipid metabolism-decrease HDL8. Carcinogenesis -it is seen that there is increased risk of cervical cancer with increasing duration of OCP use.9. Thrombo embolic disorder, pulmonary embolism, cerebral thrombosis.Contra indications:a) Absolute-cancer of breast and genitals, liver disease, previous or present history of thrombo embolism, cardiac abnormalities, congenital hyperlipidemia, undiagnosed abnormal uterine bleeding.b) Sspecial problems requiring medical surveillance-age over 40 years, smoking and age over 35 years, mild hypertension, chronic renal disease, epilepsy,migraine, diabetes mellitus, first 6 months of lactation, gall bladder disease, acid amenorrheoa.Beneficial effects:Protects against benign breast disease, ovarian cysts, iron deficiency anaemia, pelvic inflammatory disease, ovarian cancer and ectopic pregnancy.Male pill--made of Gossypol; a derivative of cotton seed oil. It is effective in producing azoospermia | train | med_mcqa | null |
In deltoid paralysis, which nerve is involved -a) Circumflex Nb) Musculocutaneous Nc) Axillary Nd) Radial N | [
"ab",
"ac",
"ad",
"bc"
] | B | Other name of axillary nerve is circumflex nerve. | train | med_mcqa | null |
What is the test being done & what sign is it used to demonstrate? | [
"Scraping test, Auspitz sign",
"Grattage test, Koebner's phenomenon",
"Scrapping test, Koebner's phenomenon",
"Grattage test, Auspitz sign"
] | D | Auspitz sign is characterized by:- a) Micaceous silvery white scales b) Burkley membrane c) Pin point bleeding This is seen in psoriasis & demonstrated by grattage test. Auspitz sign is presence of pinpoint bleeding at the base of a plaque after scale is forcibly removed in patients with psoriasis. The successive removal of psoriatic scales usually reveals an underlying smooth, glossy, red membrane (membrane of Burkley) with small bleeding points where the thin suprapapillary epithelium is turn off. The red membrane is known as Burkley's membrane. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most common cranial nerve involved in CSOM is - | [
"V",
"VII",
"IX",
"XI"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., VII Complications of otitis mediaa. Extracranial complicationsb. Intracranial complicationso Mastoiditiso Petrositis/Gradenigo syndromeo Facial paralysiso Labyrinthitiso Osteomyelitis of temporal boneo Septicaemia or pyaemiao Meningitiso Extradural abscesso Subdural abscesso Otogenic Brain Abscesso Lateral sinus thrombophlebitiso Otitic hydrocephalus | train | med_mcqa | null |
All are true about Diabetes mellitus except - | [
"DKA is commoner in type II",
"HHS is primarily seen in individuals with 2 DM",
"Serum sodium in DKA is 125-135 nmol/L",
"Serum bicarbonate in DKA is<15 meq/L"
] | A | DKA is more common in type 1 diabetes . People with type 1 diabetes are at risk for ketoacidosis, since their bodies don't make any insulin Ref - Harrisons internal medicine 20e | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following does not act by decreasing Aqueous Formation ? | [
"Timolol",
"Bimatoprost",
"Brimonidine",
"Dorzolamide"
] | B | Prostaglandin analogues act by incerasing uveoscleral outflow. | train | med_mcqa | null |
When extravasated urine passes from the superficial perineal space into the anterior abdominal wall, it is found immediately deep to which layer of the anterior abdominal walls | [
"Scarpa's fascia",
"External oblique muscle",
"Internal oblique muscle",
"Transversus abdominis muscle"
] | A | The superficial perineal space is bound by Colle's fascia, the fibrous poion of the superficial fascia. This layer of fascia is continuous with Scarpa&;s fascia, the fibrous poion of the superficial fascia of the anterior abdominal wall. Therefore, urine that is deep to Colle's fascia will remain deep to Scarpa&;s fascia. The urine will spread in the plane between Scarpa&;s fascia and the external oblique layer. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Secondary syphilis is characterized by the following except - | [
"Occurs 6-8 weeks after development of chancre",
"Painful and itchy maculopapular lesions",
"Constitutional features are present",
"Meningitis, hepatitis, glomerulonephritis and uveitis may occur"
] | B | The protean manifestations of the secondary stage usually include mucocutaneous lesions and generalized nontender lymphadenopathy. The skin rash consists of macular, papular, papulosquamous, and occasionally pustular syphilides; often more than one form is present simultaneously. The eruption may be very subtle, and 25% of patients with a discernible rash may be unaware that they have dermatologic manifestations. Involvement of the hair follicles may result in patchy alopecia of the scalp hair, eyebrows, or beard in up to 5% of cases. Constitutional symptoms that may accompany or precede secondary syphilis include sore throat (15-30%), fever (5-8%), weight loss (2-20%), malaise (25%), anorexia (2-10%), headache (10%), and meningismus (5%). Acute meningitis occurs in only 1-2% of cases. Less common complications of secondary syphilis include hepatitis, nephropathy, gastrointestinal involvement (hyperophic gastritis, patchy proctitis, or a rectosigmoid mass), ahritis, and periostitis. (Harrison's Principles of internal medicine, 20th edition, page 1382) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Liver biopsy in malaria will have | [
"Microabscesses",
"Kupffer cell hyperplasia",
"Piecemeal necrosis",
"Non Caseating granuloma"
] | B | Ans. b. Kupffer cell hyperplasiaCLASSIFICATION OF PARASITIC DISEASE OF THE LIVER AND BILIARY TRACT BY PATHOLOGIC PROCESSPathologic processDiseasesLiver disease Granulomatous hepatitisCapillariasisFascioliasisSchistosomiasisStrongyloidiasisToxocariasisPortal fibrosisSchistosomiasisHepatic abscess or necrosisAmebiasisToxoplasmosisCystic liver diseaseEchinococcosisPeliosis hepatisBacillary angiomatosisReticuloendothelial diseaseKupffer cell infection or hyperplasiaBabesiosisMalariaToxoplasmosisVisceral leishmaniasisBiliary tract diseaseCholangitisClonorchiasis/opisthorchiasisFascioliasisBiliary hyperplasisAscariasisClonorchiasisCryptosporidiosisFascioliasisCholangiocarcinomaClonorchiasis/opisthorchiasis | train | med_mcqa | null |
Normal QRS duration at 1 year of age is | [
"0.03-0.07 seconds",
"0.04-0.08 seconds",
"0.04-0.09 seconds",
"0.06-0.09 seconds"
] | B | Normal QRS duration at various age groups Age group QRS duration in seconds 0-6 months 0.03-0.07 (0.05) 1-5 yr 0.04-0.08 (0.06) 10-15 yr 0.04-0.09 (0.07) >15 yr 0.06-0.09 (0.08) Reference: Essential Paediatrics; O.P. Ghai; Page no: 459 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Fascia of Waldeyer's is seen in? | [
"Between prostate and rectum",
"Between rectum and sacrum",
"Between rectum and pouch of douglas",
"Between bladder and vas"
] | B | ANSWER: (B) Between rectum and sacrumREF: BDC 4th edition vol 2 page 380Indirect repeat from December 2011Repeat (**): Twice repeated beforeSUPPORTS OF RECTUM:1. Rectovesical fascia of Denonviller's: Extends from rectum behind to the seminal vesicles and prostate in front.2. Fascia of waldeyer: Attaches lower part of rectal ampulla to sacrum, it is the condensation of pelvic fascia and contains superior rectal vessels and lymphatics3. Pelvic floor and levator ani4. Lateral ligament of rectum5. Pelvic peritoneum | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 22 weeks pregnant lady having exposure to rubella; what will be the management: | [
"MMR vaccine should be given instantly",
"MMR vaccine should be given in 3rd trimester",
"Continue the pregnancy",
"MMR vaccine should be given during labor"
] | C | Rubella is one of the most complete teratogens and sequelae of fetal infection are worst during organogenesis (1st Trimester), Pregnant women with rubella infection and a rash in first 1 weeks leads to fetal congenital infection in up to 90% cases Defects are rare after 20 weeks Rubella vaccination should be avoided 1 month before or during pregnancy bcoz the vaccine contains attenuated live virus. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following are drugs for ATT except ? | [
"Kanamycin",
"Cycloserine",
"5-flucytosine",
"Ofloxacin"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., 5-flucytosine Antitubercular drugs o First line --> Isoniazid, rifampin, ethambutol, streptomycin, pyrazinamide. o Second line --> Thiacetazone, PAS, ethionamide, cycloserine, kanamycin, amikacin, capreomycin, ciprofloxacin, ofloxacin, clarithromycin, Azithromycin, rifabutin. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Skeletal Muscle relaxant of choice in Liver and Hepatic Failure is: | [
"Gallamine",
"Thiopentone",
"Atracurium",
"Lignocaine"
] | C | Atracurium | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following antiretrol drugs does not cause peripheral neuropathy | [
"Lamivudine",
"Stavudine",
"Didanosine",
"Zalcitabine"
] | A | Lamivudine E-Emtricitabine and Lamivudine are safest NIs these are not assoscated with peripheral neuropathy or pancreatitis Refer KDT 6/e p771, 772 | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 35 year old primigravida presents to your OPD for a regular antenatal checkup in 3rd trimester. She is upset because of spidery veins appearing on her face,upper chest, and arms. What will you do next ? | [
"Do LFT's to rule out any liver disease",
"Refer her to a dermatologist",
"Refer her to a vascular surgeon to have the veins removed",
"Reassurance is enough"
] | D | Spider angiomasare collections of tiny dilated blood vessels that usually radiate from a central point and resemble the legs of aspider. The appearance of these blood vessels is a normal occurrence with pregnancy and usually resolve spontaneously after delivery It occurs due to hormonal changes, i.e. hyperestrogenemia which occurs during pregnancy* Reassurance is enough and they don't require any medical intervention. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most common skin manifestation of radiotherapy: | [
"Erythema",
"Atopy",
"Hyperpigmentation",
"Dermatitis"
] | A | Ans. Erythema | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following event occurs during the ovulation phase ? | [
"Increase in inhibin A level",
"FSH induce steroidogenesis in granulosa cells in secretory phase",
"Activin increases",
"Stimulation of the arrested meiotic division of the ovum"
] | D | The activins and inhibins are glycoproteins that belong to the transforming growth factor -b superfamily. They are secreted from granulose cells. FSH induces steroidogenesis (estradiol production) in granulosa cells in the preovulatory phase (follicular phase). Stimulation of the arrested meiotic division of the ovum occurs at ovulation, till then the oocyte is resting in the prophase of the first meiotic division. This is the reason why the 1st polar body is released along with ovulation. (The second polar body is released after feilisation). Inhibin B has shown increased levels in mid-follicular phase, has a periovular peak, and then declines in luteal phase. Inhibin A is low in follicular phase, reaches a small peak in mid-follicular phase, and increases to reach a peak in luteal phase. Just like inhibin, which is a inhibitory co-molecule of FSH, Activin is also a co-molecule of FSH and is increased when action of FSH is required. i.e. action of FSH is activin mediated. Hence, activin will be highest when the FSH action is maximum in the early follicular phase | train | med_mcqa | null |
Flapping tremors occurs in all EXCEPT: | [
"Uremic encephalopathy",
"Parkinsonism",
"Hepatic encephalopathy",
"CO 2 poisoning"
] | B | ANSWER: (B) ParkinsonismREF: Harrison's 18th ed various chaptersAsterixis (also called the flapping tremor, or liver flap) or wing beating tremorTremor is of 2-3 second cycleSeen in uremic, hepatic, metabolic encephalopathyC02 retentionAlcohol intoxicationSome Important tremors:Intention tremor: cerebellar dysfunctionResting tremor or pin rolling tremor: parkinsonismEssential tremor (sometimes called benign essential tremor) is the most common type of tremorOrthostatic tremor is characterized by fast {>12 Hz) rhythmic muscle contractions that occur in the legs and trunk immediately after standing seen along with essential tremorPhysiologic tremor occurs in every normal individual and has no clinical significance. It is rarely visible and may be heightened by strong emotion (such as anxiety or fear), physical exhaustion, hypoglycemia, hyperthyroidism, heavy metal poisoning, stimulants, alcohol withdrawal or fever. | train | med_mcqa | null |
An 18 year old patient presents with acute abdominal pain, vomiting and on clinical examination loin tenderness is present. History of pyrexia is absent. The diagnosis is | [
"Acute testicular torsion",
"Acute appendicitis",
"Acute pyelonephritis",
"Acute diverticulitis"
] | A | (A) Acute testicular torsion# TESTICULAR TORSION Usually presents with sudden, severe, testicular pain (in groin and lower abdomen) and tenderness. There is often associated nausea and vomiting. Testis may be higher than its normal position. Mild pyrexia and redness of overlying area may be found. Presentation of acute appendicitis includes abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, and fever. Appendix becomes more swollen and inflamed, it begins to irritate the adjoining abdominal wall. Leads to the localization of the pain to the right lower quadrant. Classic migration of pain may not be seen in children under three years. Pain can be elicited through signs and can be severe. Signs include localized findings in the right iliac fossa. Abdominal wall becomes very sensitive to gentle pressure (palpation). There is severe pain on sudden release of deep pressure in the lower abdomen (rebound tenderness). If appendix is retrocecal (localized behind the cecum), even deep pressure in the right lower quadrant may fail to elicit tenderness (silent appendix). This is because the cecum, distended with gas, protects the inflamed appendix from pressure. Similarly, if the appendix lies entirely within the pelvis, there is usually complete absence of abdominal rigidity. Digital rectal examination elicits tenderness in the rectovesical pouch. Coughing causes point tenderness in this area (McBurney's point).> Acute pyelonephritis develop rapidly over a few hours or a day & it can cause high fever, pain on passing urine, and abdominal pain that radiates along the flank towards the back. There is often associated vomiting.> Chronic pyelonephritis causes persistent flank or abdominal pain, signs of infection (fever, unintentional weight loss, malaise, decreased appetite), lower urinary tract symptoms and blood in the urine.> Diverticulitis symptoms may include: Tenderness, cramps, or pain in the abdomen (usually in the lower left side but may occur on the right) that is sometimes worse with movement. Fever and chills. Bloated feeling, abdominal swelling, or gas. Diarrhea or constipation. Nausea and sometimes vomiting. Loss of appetite. | train | med_mcqa | null |
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