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Graves disease is an example of which type ...... immunologic response- | [
"Type I",
"Type II",
"Type III",
"Type IV"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Type II . Type II hypersensitivity may involve three different antibody -dependent mechanisms. I. Opsonization --> Complement and Fc receptor mediated phagocytosis. Transfusion reactions Autoimmune hemolytic anemia/agranulocytosis/ thrombocytopenia. Erythroblastosis fetalis. 2. Complement and Fc - receptor mediated inflammation Glomerulonephritis Vascular rejection 3. Antibody mediated cellular dysfunction Upregulation --> Graves disease Down regulation ______ > Myasthenia gravis Sometimes, antibody causes stimulation instead of damage for example in Grave's disease long acting thyroid stimulator (LATS), an antibody against some determinant on thyroid cells, stimulates excessive secretion of thyroid hormone. Such antibody mediated cell stimulation has also been called type V hypersensitivity. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 34-year-old male patient visits a physician with complaints of fatigue, weight loss, night sweats, and "swollen glands." The physician also observes that he has an oral yeast infection. Which of the following tests would most likely reveal the cause of his problems? | [
"A test for CD8 lymphocytes",
"A human T-lymphotropic virus type I (HTLV-I) test",
"An HIV ELISA test",
"A test for infectious mononucleosis"
] | C | A male patient with the presentation as outlined (fatigue, weight loss, and lymphadenopathy) must be tested for antibodies to HIV. While other antibody tests may be relevant after the primary diagnosis, they must be considered after HIV is ruled out. Ceainly, infectious mononucleosis is a possibility, but its occurrence in this age group is not as frequent as HIV. Patients are tested first by an ELISA screening test. If this test is positive (X2), then a confirmatory Western blot is performed. A Western blot separates the immune response into antibody production for specific components of the virus, that is, envelope, gag, and so foh. Reference: Ananthanarayan and Paniker&;s Textbook of Microbiology Tenth edition | train | med_mcqa | null |
Latent period of muscle twitch is 10 s, contraction period is 40 s and the relaxation time is 50 s. Tetanising frequency would be: | [
"25 Hz",
"50 Hz",
"75 Hz",
"100 Hz"
] | A | For tetanus to occur, stimulus must fall repeatedly in the contraction phase that will cause the accumulation of Ca++ in myoplasm leading to sustained contraction. Tetanising frequency = 1 / time of contraction phase = 1/40 = 25 Hz | train | med_mcqa | null |
Rate limiting step in cholinergic transmission ? | [
"Synthesis of acetylcholine from choline",
"Active uptake of choline in axons",
"Active uptake of acetylcholine by synaptic vesicle",
"Release of acetylcholine from synaptic vesicle"
] | B | Ans. is'b'i.e., Active uptake of choline in axonsAcetylcholine synthesis and releaseCholine is actively taken up by the axonal membrane by Na*; choline cotranspoer. (Rate limiting step). This step is blocked by Hemicholinium. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which out of these is the cause of menopause? | [
"Ovarian failure secondary to cessation of pituitary secretion of gonadotropins",
"Ovarian failure secondary to cessation of hypothalamic secretion of GnRH",
"Deranged hypothalamic-pituitary-ovarian axis functioning",
"Primary ovarian failure"
] | D | Menopause occurs due to Ovarian failure which occurs due to programmed apoptosis of ovarian follicles. Please note : The HPO axis remains intact even in older women and because of the integrity of this axis, there is an increase in FSH due to loss of inhibitory feedback of estrogens on pituitary. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Porencephaly is due to – | [
"Dandly walker syndrome",
"Cerebral infarction",
"Fetal alcohol syndrome",
"Trisomy 13"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Calculate the Alveolar ventillation per minute of a patient with respiratory rate 14/min, tidal vol. 500 ml with a vital capacity 7000 ml, : | [
"4900 ml",
"2000 ml",
"7700 ml",
"7000 ml"
] | A | A i.e. 4900 mlAlveolar ventilation (rest)4.2L/min.QTotal lung capacity4 - 6 lit.4Respiratory minute volume (rest)6 L/min.QMaximum voluntary ventilation125- 170 1/min.QTimed vital capacity - In 1 sec (FeVi)- In 3 sec83%Q97% QWork of quiet breathing0.5 kg - m/minQMaximum work of breathing1D kg- ml breath Alveolar ventilation = (TV - dead space volume) x RR = (500 -150 ml) x 14= 4900 mlNormally we consider dead space to be 150 ml. But also know that 'Dead space volume of a person is equal to twice his body weight i.e. a person weighing 70 kg has a dead space volume of 140 ml. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Voex vein invasion is a feature of | [
"Malignant melanoma",
"Retinoblastoma",
"Medulloepithelioma",
"Optic nerve glioma"
] | A | Malignant melanoma of choroid shows extraocular spread along the perivascular spaces of the voex veins or ciliary vessels. Extraocular extension also occurs due to progressive growth of the tumor that may burst through sclera, usually at the limbus Ref. Khurana page no.174 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Function of Kupffer cells in liver is | [
"Phagocytic",
"Lytic",
"Secretory",
"Excretory"
] | A | Kupffer cells (KC) constitute 80-90% of the tissue macrophages present in the body. They reside within the lumen of the liver sinusoids and are therefore constantly exposed to gut-derived bacteria, microbial debris, and bacterial endotoxins, known to activate macrophages & has got phagocytic action. Ref: Medical Physiology, Indu Khurana | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which end product of citric acid cycle is used in detoxification of ammonia in brain | [
"Oxaloacetate",
"Alphaketoglutarate",
"Succinate",
"Citrate"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Alpha-ketoglutarate : "Glutamine (amide of glutamic acid) provides a non-toxic storage and transport form of ammonia. The formation of glutamine occurs primarily in the muscles and liver but also is important in the nervous system, where It's the major mechanism for the removal of ammonia in the brain."Thus Glutamine is the sole form of transport of ammonia in brain*.Glutamine is an amide of glutamic acid which is formed from alpha- ketoglutarate. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Electrolyte abnormalties are caused by (PGI June 2009) | [
"KC1",
"0.9 NaCl",
"NaHCO3",
"A1 (OH)3"
] | D | Ans : D (Al (OH) E (Hydrochlor-thiazide) 0.9% Nad. KCI & j\aHC03 are used in the treatment of electrolyte disturbances."Hypokalemia is the most significant problem with use of thiazides(e.g., hydrochlorothiazide) & high ceiling diuretics therapy.lt can be prevented & treated by High dietary K+ intake, supplements of KCI (24-72mEq/day)or by concurrent use of K+ sparing diuretics"- KDT 6th 7566NaCI: Hypertonic saline & normal saline is used in the treatment of hyponatremia'' (H17th/279)NaHC03: It is used in the treatment of metabolic acidosis (HI 7th/290)Al(OH)3: Aluminium hydroxide gel is used as an antacid to neutralize gastric acid. It binds with phosphate in the intestine & prevents its absorption - hypophosphatemia occurs on regular use (KDT 6th/635) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Positive Romberg test with eyes closed detects defect in: | [
"Proprioceptive pathway",
"Cerebellum",
"Spinothalmic tract",
"Peripheral nerve"
] | A | Romberg Test: The patient is asked to stand with the feet closely approximated, first with his/her eyes open, and then closed. The test is 'positive' when the patient is able to stand with his/her feet together while his/her eyes are open, but sways or falls when they are closed. Any lesion along the proprioceptive pathway can result in a positive Romberg test. Proprioceptive pathway: Proprioception is the ability to sense the position of one's extremities without the aid of vision. The peripheral sense organs are located in the muscle, tendons, and joints. The first cell body is situated in the dorsal root ganglion, going without a synapse to the ipsilateral fasiculi cuneatus and gracilis (dorsal column) to the lower medulla where the synapse occurs. Following a decussation of the internal arcuate fibers, the impulses ascend in the medial lemniscus to the thalmus, terminating in the parietal lobe, posterior to those that convey touch. Conditions commonly causing a positive Romberg test: Posterior column dysfunction Sensory polyneuropathy Intracranial lesions | train | med_mcqa | null |
Carnoys solution is used in the treatment of: | [
"Odontogenic keratocyst",
"Ameloblastoma",
"Dentigerous cyst",
"Mucocele"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Branch of basilar artery include - | [
"Posterior inferior cerebellar artery",
"Posterior cerebral artery",
"Middle cerebral artery",
"Posterior communicating artery"
] | B | Branches of basilar artery are : pontine branches, anterior inferior cerebellar artery, superior cerebellar artery, labyrinthine artery, posterior cerebral artery, central branches, posterior choroidal artery and cortical branches. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Loud S1 in Mitral stenosis is seen in- | [
"Prolonged flow through mitral valve",
"1st degree hea block",
"Calcification of the valve",
"Immobilization of the valve"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Prolonged flow through mitral valve Siis louder in Mitral stenosis because AV flow is prolonged. The loud Si in mitral stenosis usually signifies that the mitral valve is pliable and that it remains open at the onset of isovolumetric contraction because of the elevated left atrial pressure. S1 can be soft even in the presence of mitral stenosis, when the anterior mitral leaflet is immobile and rigid due to calcification. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Amyloidosis of kidney may be seen in the following except - | [
"Enteric fever",
"Ulcerative colitis",
"Suppurative lung disease",
"Hansen's disease"
] | A | TEXT BOOK OF PATHOLOGY HARSH MOHAN 6THEDITION PG NO 86 Secondary/Reactive (AA) Systemic Amyloidosis The second form of systemic or generalised amyloidosis is reactive or inflammatory or secondary in which the fibril proteins contain AA amyloid. Secondary or reactive amyloidosis occurs typically as a complication of chronic infectious (e.g. tuberculosis, bronchiectasis, chronic osteomyelitis, chronic pyelonephritis, leprosy, chronic skin infections), non-infectious chronic inflammatory conditions associated with tissue destruction (e.g. autoimmune disorders such as rheumatoid ahritis, inflammatory bowel disease), some tumours (e.g. renal cell carcinoma, Hodgkin's disease) and in familial Mediterranean fever, an inherited disorder (discussed below). Secondary amyloidosis is typically distributed in solid abdominal viscera like the kidney, liver, spleen and adrenals. Secondary reactive amyloidosis is seen less frequently in developed countries due to containment of infections before they become chronic but this is the more common type of amyloidosis in underdeveloped and developing countries of the world. Secondary systemic amyloidosis can occur at any age including children. AA amyloid occurs spontaneously in some birds and animals; it can also be experimentally induced in animals. <\p> | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following are health policy indicators except | [
"Political commitment to health for all",
"Resource allocation",
"Disability prevalence",
"Community involvement"
] | C | Crucial factors for realization of goals of a National health policy A political commitment Financial implications. Administrative reforms Community paicipation Basic legislation Ref: Park 25th edition Pgno : 27 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Laryngoscopes are sterilized by ? | [
"Glutaraldehyde",
"Formalin",
"Betadine",
"Boiling"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Glutaraldehyde Laryngoscope should be cleaned before and after use with spirit. Disinfection can be done once a day by removing the bulb and immersing the blade in 2% cidex (glutaraldehyde) for 10 minutes. They should be sterilized once a week by immersing in cidex for 10 hours or by autoclaving. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Water intoxication occurs in all of the following except | [
"TURP syndrome",
"Enema for colonic wash",
"Gastric lavage",
"Heroin Abuse"
] | D | Answer- D. Heroin AbuseTransurethral Resection of Prostate (TURP) SyndromeEnemaGastric lavageSyndrome of Inappropriate ADH Secretion (SIADH)Ecstasy (MDMA) or Amphetamine useIntravenous Infusion of Hypotonic FluidsBeer PotomaniaPsychogenic PolydipsiaAttempt to Hide Drug Abuse | train | med_mcqa | null |
The test result of which investigation done, for a child with developmental delay is shown below? | [
"Multiplex Ligation-dependent probe Amplification",
"DNA microarray",
"Fluorescent in situ hybridisation",
"Chromosomal painting"
] | B | DNA microarray is used to identify thousands of different gene expressions at the same time- Recommended for unexplained intellectual disability. Fluorescent in situ hybridisation/Chromosomal painting- uses fluorescent probes for specific chromosome Multiplex Ligation-dependent probe Amplification- uses specific markers for specific region of chromosome | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most efficient orthodontic tooth movement is obtained by: | [
"Light continuous force",
"Large intermittent force",
"Light interrupted force",
"Heavy continuous force"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
What is the main feature of chemotaxis as observed in white blood cells? | [
"Increased random movement of neutrophils",
"Increased adhesiveness to intima",
"Increased phagocytosis",
"Unidirectional locomotion of neutrophils"
] | D | Chemotaxis is defined as unidirectional movement of leukocytes up a concentration gradient of chemotactic molecules. All granulocytes, monocytes and to a lesser extent lymphocytes respond to chemotactic stimuli with varying rates of speed. Chemoattractants are exogenous or endogenous in nature. Exogenous agents are bacterial products. Endogenous mediators are:Components of complement pathway C5aProducts of lipoxygenase pathway LTB4Cytokines paicularly those of chemokine familyRef: Robbins Pathologic Basis of Disease, 6th Edition, Page 61 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Following is/ are the causes of chronic cough with noncontributory chest radiograph? | [
"Asthma",
"Post nasal drip",
"GERD",
"All the above"
] | D | 90% of patients who have chronic cough and a normal or noncontributory chest radiograph belong to one of the following causes:i) Use of an angiotensin-conveing enzyme inhibitorii) Post-nasal drainageiii) Gastroesophageal reflux andiv) Asthma. | train | med_mcqa | null |
SARS most common in ? | [
"Coal miners",
"School kids",
"Pregnancy",
"Health care workers"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Health care workers Health care workers, especially those involved in procedures generating aerosols, accounted for 21 per cent of all cases. Maximum virus excretion from the respiratory tract occurs on about day 10 of illness and then declines. The efficiency of transmission appears to be greatest following exposure to severely ill patients or those experiencing rapid clinical deterioration, usually during the second week of illness. When symptomatic cases were isolated within 5 days of the onset of illness, few cases of secondary transmission occured. There was no evidence that patient transmits infection 10 days after fever has resolved. Children are rarely affected by SARS. To date, there have been two repoed cases of transmission from children to adults and no repo of transmission from child to child. Three separate epidemiological investigations have not found any evidence of SARS transmission in schools. Fuhermore, no evidence of SARS has been found in infants of mothers who were infected during pregnancy. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Misoprostol is contraindicated in - | [
"scarred uterus",
"Active cardiac disease",
"Bronchial asthma",
"All of the above"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e., All of the above o Misoprostol is a PGE1 analog. It is used for induction of labor.o Contraindications# Hypersensitivity to compound# Uterine scar# Active cardiac, pulmonary, renal or hepatic disease# Bronchial asthma | train | med_mcqa | null |
In Beta thalassemia, the most common gene mutation is? | [
"Intron 1 inversion",
"Intron 22",
"619 bp deletion",
"3.7 bp deletion"
] | A | The most common mutation causing a thalassemia is intron 1 inversion b thalassemia- AR, caused due to reduced synthesis of beta chain of hemoglobin. b thalassemias are the consequence of various point mutations on the globin gene clusters. Thalassemia mutations in India Mutations Frequency IVS1-5(G-C) 48% 619 bp deletion 18% IVS-1(G-T) 9% FR41/42(TCTT) 9% FR8/9 (+G) 5% Codonl5 (G-A) 5% Others 6% Total 100% | train | med_mcqa | null |
Posterior urethral valve is diagnosed on micturating cystometrogram by : | [
"Dilatation of posterior urethra",
"Bladder neck contracture",
"Vesico-Ureteric reflex",
"Bladder wall hypertrophy"
] | A | Micturating cystourethrogram findings :
Dilation of prostatic urethra.
Transverse linear filling defect corresponding to the valves. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Muirs and Barclays formula is for: AFMC 11 | [
"Colloid resuscitation in burns",
"Polytrauma fluid resuscitation",
"Crystalloid in trauma",
"Dextran in burns"
] | A | Ans. Colloid resuscitation in burns | train | med_mcqa | null |
Keratometry is done to assess: March 2012 | [
"Corneal sensation",
"Corneal endothelium",
"Corneal thickness",
"Curvature of cornea"
] | D | Ans: D i.e. Curvature of cornea Instruments & their uses Corneal sensitivity may be tested by touching it in various places with a wisp of cotton wool twisted to a fine point & comparing the effect with that on the other, normal cornea The corneal endothelium can be examined cursorily by the specular examination technique on the slit lamp. Corneal thickness can be measured by an optical pachymeter on a slit lamp or an ultrasonic pachymeter A keratometer (ophthalmometer) measures the curvature of the anterior surface of the cornea at 2 points about 1.25 mm on either side of its centre. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Neurological testing of a patient reveals no cutaneous sensation on the tip of the index finger. Such a finding would indicate injury to some poion of which nerve? | [
"Axillary",
"Median",
"Musculocutaneous",
"Radial"
] | B | The median nerve provides cutaneous innervation to the skin of the radial half of the palm and palmar side of the lateral 3 1/2 digits. It also supplies the tips of these fingers and the nail beds on the dorsal side of the hand. So, cutaneous sensation at the tip of the index finger is supplied by the median nerve. The radial nerve supplies cutaneous innervation to the skin of the radial half of the dorsum of the hand and the dorsal side of the lateral 3 1/2 digits, stopping at the nail bed. This nerve is not innervating the tip of the finger. The ulnar nerve supplies the skin of the medial side of the wrist and hand (on both the dorsal and palmar sides of the hand), as well as the skin of the medial 1 1/2 digits. The axillary nerve supplies some cutaneous sensation in the upper arm, and the musculocutaneous nerve supplies cutaneous sensation to the anterolateral forearm through the lateral antebrachial cutaneous nerve. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following are not included under 10 chemicals of major public health concern by WHO: | [
"Arsenic",
"Asbestos",
"Dioxin",
"Radium"
] | D | Many chemicals can, when properly used, significantly contribute to the improvement of our quality of life, health and well-being. But other chemicals are highly hazardous and can negatively affect our health and environment when improperly managed.10 chemicals or groups of chemicals of major public health concern are: Air pollution Arsenic Asbestos Benzene Cadmium Dioxin and dioxin-like substances Inadequate or excess fluoride Lead Mercury Highly hazardous pesticides Ref : | train | med_mcqa | null |
A nurse has been found to be seropositive for both HbsAg and HbeAg. She is suffering from:(AIIMS November 2014, May 2013) | [
"Acute infectious hepatitis B",
"Concurrent hepatitis B and hepatitis E infection",
"Chronic hepatitis B infection",
"Past history of hepatitis infection"
] | A | Ans. a. Acute infectious hepatitis B (Ref: Harrison 19/e, 2005, 18/e p2550)Patients who are seropositive for both HbsAg and HbeAg are suffering from acute infectious hepatitis B. (AllMS May 2013 Repeat) HBs AgAnti-Hbs AbAnti-Hbc AbHBe AgAnti-Hbe AbHBV DNAAcute Hepatitis B (early)+--+-+Acute Hepatitis B (high infectivity)+-IgM+-+/-Acute Hepatitis B (recovery)++IgG-+-Chronic Hepatitis B, high replication+-IgG+-+Chronic Hepatitis B, low replication+-IgG-+-Chronic Hepatitis B, pre-core mutant+-IgG-++Chronic Hepatitis B, inactive carrier+-IgG +/-Low level +Chronic Hepatitis B, reactivation+-IgM+-+Hepatitis B Vaccine-+---- | train | med_mcqa | null |
Stellate shaped granuloma is seen in? | [
"Sarcoidosis",
"Cat scratch",
"Crohn's disease",
"Tuberculosis"
] | B | Necrotising noncaseating granulomas are present in cat Scratch disease caused by Bartonella Henselae. The granulomas show stellate microabscess surrounded by palisading histiocytes. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A patient has extremely enlarged palatine tonsils. You suggest surgical removal of the tonsils, but you do explain that there is a small risk of the surgery, which may result in which of the following? | [
"Loss in the ability to taste salt in the anterior two-thirds of the tongue",
"Loss in the ability to protrude her tongue, thus limiting her ability to lick an ice cream cone",
"Weakness in the ability to open her mouth fully when eating an apple due to damage to the innervation to the lateral pterygoid... | D | The palatine tonsil sits in the lateral wall of the oropharynx in the palatine arch posterior to the palatoglossus muscle and anterior to the palatopharyngeus muscle. In the bed of the palatine tonsil runs the glossopharyngeal CN (IX) that carries afferent information back to the brain regarding both general sensation and the special sense of taste from the posterior one-third of the tongue. The glossopharyngeal nerve is at risk for being cut during tonsillectomy. The ability to taste in the anterior two-thirds of the tongue is not at risk because that information is carried by the lingual nerve, below the tongue. The ability to protrude your tongue is provided by innervation from the hypoglossal nerve, which innervates all the intrinsic tongue muscles and lies below the tongue and is not a risk. Neither the ability to open your jaw wide nor to move your jaw from side to side is controlled by the mandibular division of the trigeminal CN (V), which does not course near the palatine arch and would not be at risk. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Mesosomes in bacteria are functional unit for ? | [
"Lipid storage",
"Protein synthesis",
"Respiratory enzymes",
"None"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Respiratory enzymes Mesosomes (chondroids) . Mesosomes are formed by invagination of plasma membrane into the cytoplasm. . They are more prominent in gram positive bacteria. . They are the principle sites of respiratory enzymes in bacteria and are analogous to mitochondria of eukaryotes. . They coordinate nuclear and cytoplasmic division during binary fission. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following drug causes osteonecrosis by giving IV route? | [
"Zolendronate",
"Dalteparin",
"Calcitriol",
"Zidovudine"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Zolendronate o Bisphosphonates (e.g. zolindronate) can cause osteonecrosis ofjaw. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Tumours arising from all of thefollowing structures can induce papilloedema except: | [
"Medulla oblongata",
"Cerebrum",
"Olfactory groove",
"Orbital surface of frontal lobe"
] | A | Ans. Medulla oblongata | train | med_mcqa | null |
A boy fell down from a tree and has fracture of neck of humerus. He cannot raise his arm because of the involvement of: | [
"Axillary nerve",
"Supraspinatus nerve",
"Musculocutaneus nerve",
"Radial nerve"
] | A | A i.e. Axillary nerve Axillary Nerve (C5C6) Motor supply - Deltoid (causing shoulder abduction) Q - Teres minorQ (laterally rotate the arm & stabilizes the shoulder joint) Sensory supply Skin over lower half of deltoid by upper lateral cutaneous nerve of armQ | train | med_mcqa | null |
Scalds are produced by - | [
"Dry heat",
"Moist heat",
"Severe burns",
"All"
] | B | Dry heat (e.g. flame) → Simple burns (or burns).
Moist heat → Scalde. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Stem cells are taken from all except - | [
"Liver",
"Bone marrow",
"Blood",
"Adipose tissue"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Livero There are three accessible sources of adult stem cells in humans :Bone marrow, which requires extraction by harvesting, that is, drilling into bone (typically the femur or iliac crest),Adipose tissue, which requires extraction by liposuction, andBlood, which requires extraction through pheresis, wherein blood is drawn from the donor (similar to a blood donation), passed through a machine that extracts the stem cells and returns other poions of the blood to the donor.Stem cells can also be taken from umbilical cord blood just after bih | train | med_mcqa | null |
Keratomalacia is seen in which of the following infections- | [
"Chicken pox",
"Mumps",
"Diarrhoea",
"Measles"
] | D | All cases of severe measles and all cases of measles in ares of high fatality rates should be treated with vitamin A , as many children may develop acute deficiency of vitamin A, which may lead to keratomalacia and blindness from corneal scarring. Reference : Park&;s Textbook of preventive and social medicine, 24th edition.Pg no. 158 | train | med_mcqa | null |
All are the cause of Atrophic Rhinitis except | [
"Klebsiella ozanae",
"Progesteron deficiency",
"Vitamin A deficiency",
"Auto - Immune"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
GLUT3 is seen in | [
"Liver",
"Neurons",
"Pancreas",
"Spleen"
] | B | GLUT 3 is a protein channal for facilitated diffusion of glucose it is seen in neurons | train | med_mcqa | null |
In Rh incompatibility, the prognosis depends on : | [
"Serum bilirubin",
"Coomb's test",
"Blood smear",
"Serum albumin"
] | A | Serum bilirubin | train | med_mcqa | null |
Acrodermatitis enterohepatica occurs due to? | [
"Copper deficiency",
"Zinc deficiency",
"Iron deficiency",
"Folic acid deficiency"
] | B | Ans. B. Zinc deficiency* AE is characterized by abnormalities in zinc absorption due to defect in intestinal zinc transporter which leads to zinc deficiency.* It is a rare autosomal recessive (AR) disorder which classically present during infancy on weaning from breast milk to formula or cereal which have lower zinc bioavailability than breast milk.* Classical features of AE include: (Mnemonic- "DEAL")* Diarrhea, Depression* Eczematous erosive dermatitis* Alopecia (non scarring), Apathetic look* Lethargy, irritability, whining and crying. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which organismal infection is highly virulent and may cause corneal ulcer perforation within 48 hours? | [
"Herpes simplex",
"Pseudomonas",
"Staphylococci",
"Aspergillus"
] | B | Ans. b. Pseudomonas (Ref: Khurana 5/e p96)Pseudomonas infection is highly virulent and may cause corneal ulcer perforation within 48 hours.Pseudomonas KeratitisPseudomonas aeruginosa is the MC gram-negative organism isolated from corneal ulcers and is a frequent cause of contact lens-associated keratitisQ.Source of Infection:These aerobic bacilli are found in moist environmentsQFrequently contaminate inadequately chlorinated swimming pools and hot tubs, ventilators, nebulizer and vaporizer solutions, and ophthalmic solution bottlesQ.Pathophysiology:The organism readily adheres to damaged epithelium, and stromal invasion is rapidQ.Pseudomonas keratitis tends to progress rapidly if inadequately treated.Most commonly, the organism produces destructive enzymes such as protease, lipase, elastase, and exotoxin, which results in necrotic, lipase, elastase, and exotoxin, which results in necrotic, soupy ulceration.The ulcer often extends peripherally and deeply within hours and can rapidly involve the entire cornea.Ring ulcers can develop, and the corneal epithelium peripheral to the primary ulcer typically develops a diffuse gray, ground-glass appearance.The corneal stroma appears to dissolve into a greenish yellow mucous discharge that fluoresces under ultraviolet (but not under cobalt blue) light.The suppurative ulcer frequently thins to a discemetocele that perforatesQ.The ulcer is often associated with a marked anterior chamber reaction and hypopyon formation.Extensive keratitis can extend to the limbus and produce an infectious sclertis. | train | med_mcqa | null |
In ICDS the requirement in pregnant females is: | [
"300 cal, 15 gm protein",
"300 cal. 25 gm protein",
"500 cal, 15 gm protein",
"500 cal, 25 gm protein"
] | D | Community Nutrition Programmes: 1. Special nutrition programme * Beneficiaries: children below 6 years of age, pregnant, nursing mothers. * Area: urban slums, tribal areas and backward rural area. * Supplementation: a.300 Kcal, 10-12 gm protein per child per day. b.500 Kcal, 25 gm protein to mothers. c.Provided for 300 days. It is merged with ICDS. ICDS Scheme (Integrated child development services scheme) i.Supplementary nutrition ii.Vitamin A prophylaxis iii.IFA tablet distribution Beneficiaries: children below 6 years, adolescent girls 11-18 years, pregnant and lactating mothers. *One Anganwadi worker for 1000 population ALSO KNOW: Balwadi Nutrition Programme: Beneficiaries: children 3-6 years. Supplementation: 300 kcal & 10 gm protein. Mid-day meal programme: i.Meal supplies 1/3rd of total energy and 1/2 of protein. ii.Low cost/ easy to cook at school iii.Locally available food to be used. iv.Change of menu. Mid-day meal scheme (National Programme of Nutritional Suppo to Primary Education) a.Launched as centrally sponsored scheme on 15 August 1995 and revised in 2004. b.Objective is universalization of primary education. c.Originally covers children in class 1 to V d.Free supply of 100 g of food grain per student per day e.300 kcal and 8-12 gm protein f.Single dish meal like broken wheat pulao, upma, leafy khichdi and dhal vegetable bhat. g.Cereal pulse combination. Ratio ranging from 3:1 to 5:1. h.Iodized salt to be used. Ref : Park's Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine; 18th edition; Page-482 | train | med_mcqa | null |
All are seen in hemobilia except | [
"Shock",
"Colicky pain",
"Melena",
"Jaundice"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most common site of rupture of the globe | [
"Limbus",
"Equator",
"Sclera",
"Near pupil"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Not a feature of NPCB- | [
"Reduce backlog of cataract surgery",
"Strengthening of RIO",
"Increase community awareness",
"Reach out approach"
] | D | Reach in approach and not reach out approach is used in NPCB NATIONAL PROGRAM FOR CONTROL OF BLINDNESS * 100 % centrally funded scheme * Rapid Survey on Avoidable Blindness in 2006-07 showed reduction in prevalence of blindness from 1.1% (2001-02) to 1% (2006-07). * Target: 0.3% by 2020. Main causes of blindness- * Cataract (62.6%) > Refractive Error (19.70%) >Glaucoma (5.80%), Revised Strategies * Outreach activities o Shifted from eye camp approaches to fixed facilities surgical based approaches e.g. Reach In Programme o Making more comprehensive catering others cause of blindness (refractive errors and low vision, childhood blindness, corneal blindness, glaucoma, diabetic retinopathy) * Services in rural/tribal and other difficult areas-Infrastructures development and appointing contractual ophthalmic manpower * Strengthening Public Private Panership | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following antibodies is positive in Primary Biliary cholangitis (PBC) | [
"Anti - nuclear antibody",
"Anti - mitochondrial antibody",
"Anti - smooth muscle antibodies",
"CANCA and PANCA"
] | B | Anti mitochondrial antibodies are a signature autoantibody of PBC and are detected in sera of 95% patients. | train | med_mcqa | null |
False positive fistula test is associated with | [
"Perilymph fistula",
"Malignant sclerosis",
"Congenital syphilis",
"Cholesteatoma"
] | C | False positive fistula test seen in: Congenital syphilis - Stapes footplate is hypermobile Meniere's disease - fibrous bands connecting uricular macula to Stapes footplate. Ref : Dhingra 7e pg 43. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Extradural hemorrhage test is- | [
"NCCT",
"USG",
"Dopplar US",
"X-ray pelvis"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., NCCT * A CT Scan is the best investigation to diagnose suspect intracranial bleedsEpidural hematomaAcute subdural hematomaChronic subdural hematomaContusion/ Parenchymal HemorrhageSubarachnoid hemorrhageRadiologic featuresAcute bulging epidural clot bounded by cranial sutures; lenticular in shapeAcute blood rimming broad region of cerebral convexity, crescentic shape.Hyper -or isodense, unilateral or bilateral, crescentic shapeMultiple, confluent regions of edema intermixed with focal, acute bloodAcute blood lining cortex in subarachnoid space | train | med_mcqa | null |
Acute graft rejection occurs within | [
"3 hours",
"3 days",
"3 months",
"3 years"
] | C | Answer- C. 3 monthsAcute rejection - It occurs 5 days to 3 months after transplantation.Both cell-mediated (cellular) rejection and humoral (antibody mediated) rejection are involved. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following are true about solar uicaria EXCEPT: | [
"Common in females between age group 20-40 yrs.",
"Lesions subsides spontaneously on avoiding exposure within 24 hours",
"Some cases may develop severe uicaria/bronchospasm.",
"Almost all cases are idiopathic"
] | A | Common in females between age group 20-40 yrs. REF: Bolognia text bookmof dermatology, 2nd edition, vol 2 p. 1343 Solar uicaria Common in females in 4th or 5th decade Most cases are idiopathic Uicarial and erythema occur on sun exposed areas and subside within 24 hrs Some cases may develop serious bronchospasm or anaphylaxis | train | med_mcqa | null |
VLDL is formed in ? | [
"Intestine",
"Liver",
"From chylomicrons",
"Blood"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Liver | train | med_mcqa | null |
Degeneration of periodontal tissue without inflammation is called | [
"Periodontosis",
"Periodontitis",
"Pericorinitis",
"Desquamative gingivitis"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Blood flow in the vessels supplying the subendocardial poion of left ventricle occurs during:September 2009 | [
"Systole",
"Diastole",
"Throughout the cycle",
"Diastole and mid half of systole"
] | B | Ans. B: DiastoleThe pressure inside the left ventricle is slightly higher than in the aoa during systole and hence blood flow in the vessels supplying the subendocardial poion of left ventricle occurs during diastole. On the other hand, the pressure difference between the right ventricle and aoa and the differential between the aoa and the right atria are somewhat greater during systole than during diastole so blood flow in these pas of the hea is not appreciably reduced during systole. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Person wakes up with pain, paresthesia, tingling of the arms. He had slept with arm below the head. Which fibres are involved? | [
"Type A fibres",
"Type B",
"Type C (pain)",
"Type C (postganglionic)"
] | A | Pressure on a nerve cause loss of conduction in large diameter motor, touch and pressure ie type A fibre while pain fibre c remains intact. Ref: Ganong&;s review of medical physiology; 23rd edition; pg:89. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Hepatitis B can be transmitted through all of the following, except | [
"Semen",
"Blood",
"Breast milk",
"Fecal-oral (stool)"
] | D | Answer is D (Fecal-oral route) Transmission of Viral Hepatitis: Feature HAV HBV HCV HDV HEV Transmission Fecal-oral +++ - - +++ Percutaneous Unusual +++ +++ +++ - Perinatal - +++ +- + ? Sexual +- ++ + ++ -- | train | med_mcqa | null |
Macrophages containing large quantities of undigested and paial digested bacteria in intestine are seen in - | [
"Whipple's disease",
"Amyloidosis",
"lmmunoapproliferative small instetinal disease",
"Vibro cholerae infection"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Whipple's DiseaseThe hallmark of Whipple's disease is a small intestinal mucosa laden with distended macrophages in the lamina propria- the macrophages contain periodic acid-schiff (PAS) positive granules and rod shaped bacilli by electron microscopy.Three forms of Malabsorption Syndromes are often asked and the basic understanding of these is able to exclude a large number of questions. Whipple's DiseaseMalabsorption syndrome with systemic features with infectious etiologyEtioloevGram negative actinomycete Tropheryma whippeliiBiopsy DiagnosticLamina Propria is infiltrate with macrophages containing PAS positive glycoproteins and rod shaped baciliDilated lymphaticsClinical featuresFeatures of malasorption+ Array of systemic featuresTropical Sprue Malabsorption syndromeof infectious etiology without systemic featuresEtiologyCaused by some strainsof E.coliBiopsyAbnormal but Not DiagnosticShoened, thickened villi increased crypt depth infiltration by mononuclear cellsClinical featuresFeatures of malabsorptionCoeliac Disease Malabsorption syndrome of non infectious etiology without systemic featuresEtiologyCaused by intolerance to gliadin' gluten a protein found in wheat rye, barley.BiopsyAbnormal/Characteristic but Not DiagnosticBlunting and flattening of mucosal surface with villi either absent or broad and sho- Crypts are elongated- Dense infiltration of inflamma tory cells in lamina propria inflammatory.Clinical features Features of malabsorption Systemic features of whipple's diseaseo Polyahralgia o Psychiatric complaints --) Dementia o Ophthalmologic complaints o Lymphadenopathy o Hyperpigmentation | train | med_mcqa | null |
Non invasive test for H.pylori -a) Rapid urease testb) Urease breath testc) Stool antigen assayd) Stomach aspiration culturee) Biopsy | [
"a",
"c",
"bc",
"ad"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Muir toyre syndrome shows | [
"Sebaceous keratomas",
"Lisch nodules",
"Intestinal polyp",
"Hyperelastic joints"
] | A | Muir-Torre syndrome is a rare hereditary, autosomal dominant cancer syndrome that is thought to be a subtype of HNPCC. Individuals are prone to develop cancers of the colon, genitourinary tract, and skin lesions, such as keratoacanthomas and sebaceous tumors. Ref Davidson 23rd edition pg 1244 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is the first strategy in the management of chronic obstructive lung disease in a smoker? | [
"Aminophylline",
"Anticholinergics",
"Cessation of smoking",
"Oral steroids"
] | C | Smokers with COPD are at high risk for development of lung cancer, which can be identified on a chest CT scan. In advanced COPD, CT scans can help determine the possible value of surgical therapy.
The two main goals of therapy are to provide symptomatic relief (reduce respiratory symptoms, improve exercise tolerance, improve health status) and reduce future risk (prevent disease progression, prevent and treat exacerbations and reduce mortality).
Only three interventions—smoking cessation, oxygen therapy in chronically hypoxemic patients, and lung volume reduction surgery (LVRS) in selected patients with emphysema—have been demonstrated to improve survival of patients with COPD. There is suggestive, but not definitive evidence that the use of inhaled corticosteroids(ICS) and muscarinic antagonists may reduce the mortality rate.
Smoking Cessation: It has been shown that middle-aged smokers who were able to successfully stop smoking, experienced a significant improvement in the rate of decline in pulmonary function, often returning to annual changes similar to that of non-smoking patients. In addition, smoking cessation improves survival. Thus, all patients with COPD should be strongly urged to quit smoking and educated about the benefits of quitting.
Reference: Harrison’s P R I N C I P L E S O F I N T E R N A L M E D I C I N E 20th edition page no 1995, 1996 | train | med_mcqa | null |
True about Ig gene rearrangement & Ig diversity | [
"Somatic mutations theory",
"One loop and two loop joining theory",
"DNA rearrangement",
"Appropriate class switching"
] | A | The somatic mutation theory of carcinogenesis has been the dominant force driving cancer research during the 20th century. In brief, it proposes that successive DNA mutations in a single cell cause cancer (monoclonality). This theory places carcinogenesis at the cellular and subcellular hierarchical levels of biological complexity. Its basic premises are that (1) cancer is a defect of the control of cell proliferation and (2) the default state of metazoan cells is quiescence. These two premises have recently been contradicted by evidence. Suppoers of the theory have dealt with these lacks of fit by incorporating ad hoc explanations similar to the use of epicycles in pre-Copernican astronomy. We propose the adoption of an alternative theory, the tissue organization field theory of carcinogenesis and neoplasia. Its basic premises are that (1) proliferation is the default state of all cells and (2) carcinogenesis and neoplasia are defects of tissue architecture. Carcinogens would act initially by disrupting the normal interactions that take place among cells in the parenchyma and stroma of an organ (the equivalent of the "morphogenetic fields" of developing organisms). Stroma appears as the primary target of carcinogens. Carcinogenesis and neoplasia occur entirely through emergent (supracellular) phenomena. Neoplastic cells may be reprogrammed to behave like "normal" cells within normal tissues. We argue that it is necessary to abandon the somatic mutation theory. Researchers will then become free to adopt alternative reliable premises to build a theory that explains carcinogenesis as another outcome, aberrant as it may be, of biological organization. | train | med_mcqa | null |
ElekS Gel test is used in:( | [
"Influenza",
"Diphtheria",
"Brucellosis",
"Cholera"
] | B | Diphtheria | train | med_mcqa | null |
Deletion of short arm of 5th chromosome is___ syndrome | [
"Edward",
"Patau",
"Cri-Du-Chat",
"Down's"
] | C | Ans. c (Cri du chat) (Ref. Harrison's Internal medicine 17th edition, p. 412; Robbin's pathology 7th edition, p. 177)Cri-du-chat syndrome: Congenital microdeletion of short arm of chromosome 5 (46, XX or XY, 5p-). Findings: microcephaly, moderate to severe intellectual disability, high-pitched crying/mewing, epicanthal folds, cardiac abnormalities (VSD).Location of diseases on chromosomesDiseasesDeletionWolf-hirschorn syndrome4p-Cridu chat5p-DiGeorge syndrome22q-Cat-cry syndrome22p-Miller-Dieker17p-a-thalassemia16p -Angelman Syndrome15q - (angel ... maternal Mama)Prader-Willi Syndrome15q - (paternal .... P .... Papa)Retinoblastoma13q 14 -Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome11 pl5 -WAGAR11 pl3 -Down's syndromeTrisomy 21PatauTrisomy 13Edwards syndromeTrisomy 18Educational Points:22q 11 deletion associated with high incidence of schizophrenia (Harrison's 17th edition, p. 2075; Robbins, 178)TrisomyCardinal featuresTrisomy 13 (Patau syndrome)# Auricular deformities# Microcephaly# Arrhinencephaly# Inner ear anomalies# Ocular anomalies# Hypertelorism# Cleft lip and palate# VSD# Simian creaseTrisomy 18 (Edward syndrome)# Auricular deformities# Inner ear anomalies# Ptosis of eyelids# Micrognathia# Flexion deformities# Mental retardationTrisomy 21 (Down's syndrome)# Auricular deformities# Hypertelorism# Epicanthal fold# Protruding tongue# High arched palate# Inner ear anomalies# Cardiovascular defects# Mental retardation | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most unstable leprosy is ? | [
"BB",
"BL",
"BT",
"TT"
] | A | Ans. is'a'i.e., BBStable forms of leprosy -> polar forms of leprosy, i.e., Tuberculoid leprosy (TT) and lepromatous leprosy (LL).Unstable forms of leprosy -+ Borderline forms of leprosy, i.e., Borderline tuberculoid (BT), borderline (BB) and Borderline lepromatous (BL). BB is the most unstable form. | train | med_mcqa | null |
An example of unilateral fixed space maintainer is: | [
"Crown and loop space maintainer",
"Nance palatal arch",
"Lingual arch space maintainer",
"Transpalatal arch"
] | A | All other options are bilateral space maintainers. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which among the following is the smallest diameter of true pelvis? | [
"Interspinous diameter",
"Diagonal conjugate",
"True conjugate",
"Inteuberous diameter"
] | A | Interspinous or bispinous diameter is the distance between the tip of the two ischial spines. It measures 10.5 cm. Diagonal conjugate is the distance between the lower border of symphysis pubis to the midpoint on the sacral promontory. It measures 12 cm. True conjugate or anatomical conjugate or conjugate vera is the distance between the midpoint of the sacral promontory to the inner margin of the upper border of symphysis pubis. It measures 11 cm. Inteuberous diameter is the distance between the inner borders of ischial tuberosities. It measures 11 cm. Ref: Textbook of Obstetrics by D C Dutta, 6th edition, Page 91. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Contributory negligence is related with: DNB 08 | [
"Eggshell skull rule",
"Master-servant rule",
"Avoidable consequence rule",
"Common knowledge rule"
] | C | Ans. Avoidable consequence rule | train | med_mcqa | null |
Alternative for SMR - | [
"Tympanoplasty",
"Septoplasty",
"Caldwell Luc operation",
"Turboplasty"
] | B | Septoplasty
Septoplasty is a conservative approach to septal surgery; as much of the septal framework as possible is retained.
Muco-perichondrial/periosteal flap is generally raised only on one side.
This operation has almost replaced the SMR operation.
It can be done in adults as well as in children (in contrast to SMR, which is done only after 17 years). | train | med_mcqa | null |
Localization of an object is done by | [
"Paralleling technique",
"Bisecting angle technique",
"Tube shift technique",
"Occlusal technique"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Toxic epidermal necrolysis (TEN) involves body surface area - | [
"< 10%",
"10-20%",
"20-30%",
"> 30%"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e., > 30% | train | med_mcqa | null |
The lung tumour responding best to radiotherapy? | [
"Small cell anaplastic",
"Squamous cell CA",
"Adeno CA",
"All respond equally well"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Small cell anaplastic | train | med_mcqa | null |
An IQ under 24 would be classified as what kind of level of intelligence | [
"imbecile",
"borderline",
"moron",
"idiot"
] | D | level of intelligence Idiot - 0 - 24 imbecile - 25 - 49 moron - 50 - 69 borderline - 70 - 79 low normal - 80 - 89 normal - 90 - 109 superior - 110 - 119 very superior - 120 - 139 near genius - 140 and over ref; (page no;735) 25th edition of PARK's textbook of Preventive and Social medicine | train | med_mcqa | null |
Crescent forming Glomerulunephritis is | [
"Acute GN",
"Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis",
"Membranous glomerulonephritis",
"Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis"
] | B | Refer Robbins page no 9/e 912kidneys are enlarged and pale, often with petechial hemor- rhages on the coical surfaces. Depending on the underlying cause, the glomeruli often show focal and segmental necrosis, and variably show diffuse or focal endothelial proliferation, and mesangial proliferation. Segmental glomerular necrosis adja- cent to glomerular segments uninvolved by inflammatory or proliferative changes is the feature most typical of pauci- immune RPGN. The histologic picture, however, is dominated by distinctive crescents (Fig. 20-10). Crescents are formed by proliferation of parietal cells and by migration of monocytes and macrophages into the urinary space. Neutrophils and lym- phocytes may be present. The crescents may obliterate the urinary space and compress the glomerular tuft. Fibrin strands are frequently prominent between the cellular layers in the crescents; | train | med_mcqa | null |
The following are features of polycythemia rubra vera, except - | [
"Increased red cell mass",
"Low aerial oxygen saturation",
"Presence of JAK2 mutation",
"Splenomegaly"
] | B | <p>In PV, the major pathogenetic mechanism is a tyrosine kinase JAK2 mutation which removes the autoinhibitory control & activates the kinases.</p><p>Due to erythrocytosis, red cell mass will be increased .Splenomegaly produces abdominal fullness.But in PV, oxygen saturation will be high.</p><p>Reference :Harsh mohan textbook of pathology sixth edition pg no 359.</p> | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is not an oxidoreductase? | [
"Catalase",
"Glucokinase",
"Alcohol dehydrogenase",
"Peroxidase"
] | B | Glucokinase is an enzyme that facilitates phosphorylation of glucose to glucose-6-phosphate. Glucokinase occurs in cells in the liver and pancreas of humans and most other veebrates. In each of these organs, it plays an impoant role in the regulation of carbohydrate metabolism by acting as a glucose sensor, triggering shifts in metabolism or cell function in response to rising or falling levels of glucose, such as occur after a meal or when fasting. Mutations of the gene for this enzyme can cause unusual forms of diabetes or hypoglycemia.Glucokinase (GK) is a hexokinase isozyme, related homologously to at least three other hexokinases. All of the hexokinases can mediate phosphorylation of glucose to glucose-6-phosphate (G6P), which is the first step of both glycogen synthesis and glycolysis. However, glucokinase is coded by a separate gene and its distinctive kinetic propeies allow it to serve a different set of functions. Glucokinase has a lower affinity for glucose than the other hexokinases do, and its activity is localized to a few cell types, leaving the other three hexokinases as more impoant preparers of glucose for glycolysis and glycogen synthesis for most tissues and organs. Because of this reduced affinity, the activity of glucokinase, under usual physiological conditions, varies substantially according to the concentration of glucose. | train | med_mcqa | null |
True about cystic duct stump stone are A/E | [
"Stone cause of postop pain",
"Re-cholecystectomy is the definite treatment of choice",
"ERCP is the investigation of choice to diagnose",
"Basket extraction is the Mx of choice"
] | B | .Relative Contraindications of cholecystectomy includes, * End stage cirrhosis, ascites or poal hypeension. * Cholangitis: Cholecystectomy should be done after the control of cholangitis. * CBD stones: Here, initially ERCP and stone extraction is done from CBD, then laparoscopic cholecystectomy is done.Complications can be * CBD injury * Bile leak * Haemorrhage * Postoperative jaundice * Subphrenic and other intra-abdominal abscess * Septicaemia When problem arises, one .should be ready to conve into open cholecystectomy. Conversion rate to open cholecystectomy is 2-10%. It is indicated when there is uncontrolled bleeding, dense adhesions, suspected CBD injury, when anatomy is indistinct. When required one should not be hesitant to do conversion. ref:SRB&;s manual of surgery,ed 3,pg no 1141 | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 45-year-old woman has pain in her fingers on exposure to cold, arthralgias, and difficulty swallowing solid food. She has a few telangiectasias over the chest but no erythema of the face or extensor surfaces. There is slight thickening of the skin over the hands, arms, and torso. What is the best diagnostic workup? | [
"Rheumatoid factor and anti-CCP antibodies",
"Antinuclear, anti-Scl-70, and anticentromere antibodies",
"Creatine kinase (CK) and antisynthetase antibodies (such as anti-Jo-1)",
"BUN and creatinine"
] | B | The symptoms of Raynaud phenomenon, arthralgia, and dysphagia point toward the diagnosis of scleroderma. Scleroderma, or systemic sclerosis, is characterized by a systemic vasculopathy of small-and medium-sized vessels, excessive collagen deposition in tissues, and an abnormal immune system It is an uncommon multisystem disease affecting women more often than men. There are two variants of scleroderma-a limited type (previously known as CREST syndrome) and a more severe, diffuse disease. Antinuclear antibodies are almost universal. Anti-Scl-70 (also known as anti-topoisomerase-1) antibody occurs in only 30% of patients with diffuse disease, but a positive test is highly specific. Anti-centromere antibodies are more often positive in limited disease. Rheumatoid factor is nonspecific and present in 20% of patients with scleroderma. Elevated CK and anti-Jo-1 antibodies are expected in an inflammatory myositis such as polymyositis. Skin thickening similar to scleroderma can be seen in nephrogenic systemic fibrosis (NSF), a progressive condition that occurs in patients with stage 5 chronic kidney disease, but NSF almost always follows gadolinium administration for an MR scan. Reproduction of Raynaud phenomena is nonspecific and is not recommended as an office test. | train | med_mcqa | null |
"Pellagra" like skin lesion occurs with: | [
"Systemic Mastocytosis",
"Bronchial carcinoid",
"Colorectal villous adenoma",
"Medullary thyroid carcinoma"
] | B | Carcinoid tumors produce the vasoactive substance, Serotonin.A pellagra-like syndrome is probably caused by diversion of large amounts of tryptophan from the synthesis of Vitamin B3 niacin, which is needed for NAD production, to the synthesis of serotonin and other 5-hydroxyindoles(ref:Harper's 27/e p458) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Alpha -1 antitrypsin deficiency occurs in | [
"Emphysema",
"Bronchiectasis",
"Empyema",
"Brochogenic carcinoma"
] | A | Emphysema:*Irreversible enlargement of airspaces distal to terminal bronchioles accompanied by destruction of their walls.*Types: Centriacinar (Common), panacinar, paraseptal and irregular.*Panacinar emphysema is associated with a1-antitrypsin deficiency, which is an inhibitor of proteases secreted by neutrophils during inflammation. *In a1-antitrypsin deficiency individuals, any stimulus (like smoking) that increases neutrophils in the lung causes an uninhibited destruction of lungs by proteases causing emphysema.Ref: Robbins 8/e p684 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Bence Jones proteins are best described as- | [
"u chains",
"g chains",
"Kappa & Lambda chains",
"Fibrin split products"
] | C | Bence Jones protein is a monoclonal globulin protein or immunoglobulin light chain found in the urine, with a molecular weight of 22-24 kDa. Detection of Bence Jones protein may be suggestive of multiple myeloma or Waldenstrom's macroglobulinemia. Bence jones proteins are light chains of immunoglobulins so may occur as Lambda or Kappa forms, but in any patient the chain is either Kappa or Lambda, never both. Fibrin split products are seen in a case of thrombolysis or DVT. m and U are the types of heavy chain. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is not a feature of rosacea? | [
"Flushing",
"Telangiectasia",
"Mucosal ulcerations",
"Rhinophyma"
] | C | Rosacea is a chronic disease affecting fair skinned middle aged adults characterised by flushing and telangiectasia in early stage, papules and pustules in inflammatory stage, papules and induction and rhinophyma in chronic stage. Ref: Rook textbook of Dermatology, 8th edition, Page : 43.1-3 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Supraomohyoid neck dissection includes removal of: | [
"Level I - IV Lymph nodes",
"Level II - V Lymph nodes",
"Level I - III Lymph nodes",
"Level II - IV Lymph nodes"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Snake that causes paralysis with convulsions: NEET 14 | [
"Vipers",
"Sea snakes",
"Cobra",
"Krait"
] | C | Ans. Cobra | train | med_mcqa | null |
Wood lamp is used to diagnose – | [
"Psoriasis",
"Tinea versicolor",
"Pityriasis rosae",
"Erysipelas"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following drug is metabolized through Glycination | [
"Benzodiazepines",
"Atzanavir",
"Ifosfamide",
"Nicotinic acid"
] | D | Benzadiazepines → Glucorinidation
Atzanavir → Glucorinidation
Ifosfamide → Glutathionation
Nicotinic acid → Glycination
(Hint: NICotinic acid - glyCINation). | train | med_mcqa | null |
Helicobacter pylori infection is associated with all of the following conditions , except | [
"Peptic ulcer",
"Gastric adenocarcinoma",
"B cell lymphoma",
"Burkitt's lymphoma"
] | D | Ref Robbins 7/e p814 , Robbins 8/e p315-316,9/e p329 H. pylori gastritis typically affects the antrum and is associ- ated with increased gastric acid production. The induced mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue (MALT) can transform into lymphoma. Peptic ulcer disease can be caused by H. pylori chronic gastritis and the resultant hyperchlorhydria or NSAID use. Ulcers can develop in the stomach or duodenum and usually heal after suppression of gastric acid production and, if present, eradication of the H. pylori. H. pylori: Chronic gastritis, most commonly due to H. pylori infection, promotes the development and progres- sion of cancers that may be induced by diverse genetic alterations (Chapter 5). As is the case with many forms of chronic inflammation, H. pylori-induced chronic gastritis is associated with increased production of proinflamma- tory proteins, such as interleukin-1b (IL-1b) and tumor necrosis factor (TNF). It is therefore not surprising that polymorphisms associated with enhanced production of these cytokines confer increased risk of chronic gastritis- associated intestinal-type gastric cancer in those with co- existing H. pylori infection. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Auto antibody specific for SLE - | [
"ds DNA",
"Anti RO",
"Anti-topoisomerase",
"Antihistone"
] | A | (A) (ds DNA) (127-Robbin's 9th)Selected autoantibodies associated with presumed autoimmune diseaseAutoantibiody (Specificity)Major Disease Association (s)Likely Role(s) in DiseaseAnti-ds DNA (Double-stranded DNASLE*Formation of immune complexesAnti-Sm (ribonuclear core protein, Sm antigen)SLE* Formation of immune complexesAnti-RNP UI (ribonuclear protine )SLE, mixed connective tissue diseaseFormation of immune complexesAnti-SS-A (Ro), anti-SS-B (LA) (ribunucleoproteins)Sjorgen syndrome, SLERole in Sjogren syndrome not knownAnti-Sci-70 (DNA topoisomerase 1)Systemic sclerosisUnknownAnti-histones (histone proteins)SLE (Drug Induced)Formation of immune complexesAnti-centromere (centromere proteins)Limited scieroderma, systemic sclerosisUnknownAntiphospholipid (phospholipid- protien complexes involved in blood coagulation)Antiphospholipid syndrome, SLEThrombotic episodesAnti-Jol (Histidyl tRNA ligase)Inflammatory myopathiesUnknownAnti-mitochondrialPrimary biliary cirrhosisUnknownAnti-eTg (transglutaminase)Dermatitis herpetiformisUnknownAnti-neutrophil cytoplasmic antibody (ANCA) (proteins in neutrophil cytoplasm)Various vasculitidesFormation of immune complexNeutrophil degranulationAnti-smooth muscleChronic autoimmune hepatitisUnknownEach antibody specificity is detected in 30% to 90% of patients with a particular disease. Asterisks indicate high correlation between the antibody the antibody specificity and the disease.* SLE is characterized by bewildering array of autoantibodies, particularly antinuclear antibody.* Best screening test for SLE is demonstration of antinuclear antibody.* ANCA antibody with peripheral rim distribution is seen in - Anti double stranded DNA.* Libman-sach-endocarditis is seen in SLE.* c-ANCA is typical of Wegner's granulomatosis.* p-ANCA is found in most cases of microscopic polyangitis and Chrug-Strauss syndrome.* Perinuclear localization (P-ANCA) where in most of the autoantibodies are specific for myelo-peroxidase (MPO).According to the WHO six patterns of mutually merging renal lesions are seen in lupus nephritis1. Minimal lesion2. Mesengial lupus nephritis3. Focal segmental LN4. Diffuse proliferative LN5. Membranous LN6. Sclerosing LN"Shrinking Lung Syndrome" seen in SLE. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Obstruction of inferior vena cava presents as | [
"Paraumbilical dilatation",
"Thoracoepigastric dilatation",
"Esophageal varices",
"Hemorrhoids"
] | B | Inferior vena cava syndrome is a result of obstruction of the inferior vena cava. It can be caused by invasion or compression by a pathological process or by thrombosis in the vein itself. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Organism responsible for toxicity due to Chinese fried rice: | [
"Staph. Aureus",
"B. Cereus",
"Salmonella",
"Shigella"
] | B | Ref: Microbiology by Ananthanarayan and Paniker, 8th ed. pg. 247, 654The common source of B. cereus is fried rice.Bacterial Food PoisoningIncubation period, organismSymptomsCommon sources1-6 HStaphylococcus aureusNausea, vomiting, diarrheaHam, poultry, potato or egg salad, mayonnaise, cream pastriesBacillus cereusNausea, vomiting, diarrheaFried rice8-16 HClostridium perfringensAbdominal cramps, diarrhea (vomiting rare)Beef, poultry, legumes, graviesB. cereusAbdominal cramps, diarrhea (vomiting rare)Meats, vegetables, dried beans, cereals> 16 HVibrio choleraeWatery diarrheaShellfishEnterotoxigenic Escherichia coliWatery diarrheaSalads, cheese, meats, waterEnterohemorrhagic E. coliBloody diarrheaGround beef, roast beef, salami, raw milk, raw vegetables, apple juiceSalmonella spp.Inflammatory diarrheaBeef, poultry, eggs, dairy productsCampylobacter jejuniInflammatory diarrheaPoultry, raw milkShigella sppDysenteryPotato or egg salad, lettuce, raw vegetablesVibrio parahaemolyticusDysenteryMollusks, crustaceans | train | med_mcqa | null |
Stage 1 cutaneous T cell lymphoma treatment is ? | [
"PUVA",
"Biological response modifiers",
"Systemic chemotherapy",
"Extracorporial photopheresis"
] | A | Ans is 'a' i.e., PUVA | train | med_mcqa | null |
Drug contraindicated in glaucoma patient suffering from bronchial asthma: | [
"Timolol",
"Betaxolol",
"Acetazolamide",
"Latanoprost"
] | A | Ans. (a) TimololRef. KDT 6th ed./144LATANOPROSTMOA: Increase of aqueous humor outflowSide effects: Red eye and ocular irritation, increased iris pigmentation, and excessive hair growth of eye lashes.* Timolol is a prototype of ocular b blockers. It is a non selective beta blocker (blocks b1+b2) and has no anesthetic or intrinsic sympathomimetic activity.* Timlols ocular hypotesive action (20-35% fall in I.O.T.) is smooth and well sustained.* Lungs have b2 receptor, and if they are blocked in case of asthmatic patient, the condition worsens. Therefore non selective beta blockers are always avoided in case of asthmatic patients.* Betaxolol is a b1 selective blocker, offering the advantage of less bronchopulmonary and probably less cardiac, central and metabolic side effects.* Betaxolol is less effective in lowering IOT than timolol, because ocular beta receptors are predominantly of b2 subtype.* Acetazolamide is a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor which reduces the aqueous formation by limiting generation of bicarbonate ion in ciliary epithelium.* Latanoprost is a prostaglandin analogue. It is a PGF2a analogue which act by increasing uveoscleral outflow. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All are infraclavicular branches of brachial plexus except? | [
"Ulnar nerve",
"Long thoracic nerve",
"Axillary nerve",
"Thoracodorsal nerve"
] | B | The long thoracic nerve arises from the root stage of the brachial plexus. They are present behind the scalenus anterior and scalenus medius in the neck. The ulnar nerve is a branch of the medial cord. The thoracodorsal and axillary nerve are branches of the posterior cord. The cords of the brachial plexus are formed in the cervicoaxillary canal and hence are infraclavicular in position Reference: Clinical Anatomy for students, a problem-solving approach, Neeta v Kulkarni, 2nd edition, page no.98, 99 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Vertical crest in fundus of the internal auditary canal is k/a: | [
"Bill's bar",
"Ponticulus",
"Cog",
"Falciform crest"
] | A | Ans is 'a' i.e. Bill's Bar The internal acoustic canal is divided by transverse crest (or falciform crest) into a superior and inferior Part. The superior part is divided by vertical crest or Bill's bar into anterior and posterior parts. Antero-superior part transmits-facial nerve and nervus intermediusPostero-superior part transmits-superior vestibular nerveInferior part transmits-- cochlear nerve lying antero- inferiorly - inferior vestibular nerve postero-inferiorly Bill's bar is used as a surgical landmark for facial nerve identification during Tran's labyrinthine surgery. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Plazomicin was approved by FDA recently for | [
"I",
"UTI",
"Cl difficale",
"Chicken pox"
] | B | it is ia new or nect generation aminoglycoside i.e neo glycoside, bactericidal in nature ,inhibiting the protein syunthesis, acting on both gram negetive and positive bacteria. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Indicator used in autoclave is ? | [
"Clostridium tetani",
"Bacillus stereothermophilus",
"Bacillus pumilis",
"Bacillus subtilis Var Niger"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Bacillus stereothermophilus Biological indicators . Biological indicators are standardised preparations of microorganisms used to assess the effectiveness of a sterilization process. . They usually consist of a population of bacterial spores placed on an ine carrier, for example a strip of filter paper, a glass slide or a plastic tube. . Most commonly, spores of Bacillus stereothermophilus (Geobacillus stearothermophilus) are used. Spores of Bacillus subtilis and Bacillus pumilis are alse used. . For various methods of sterilization following biological indicators are used :- Type of Sterilization Spore used Moist heat (autoclave) Bacillus stearothermophilus Dry heat (hot air oven) Bacillius subtilis Ionizing radiation Bacillus pumilis Gas sterilization (ethylene oxide) Bacillus subtilis Plasma sterilization Bacillus stearothemophilus | train | med_mcqa | null |
drug of choice in familial hyperkalemic periodic paralysis ? | [
"acetazolamide",
"rolofyline",
"bumetinide",
"torasamide"
] | A | Hypokalemic Periodic Paralysis acetazolamides * Acute paralysis : Oral KCI (0.2-0.4 mmol/kg) every 30 min * Muscle strength and ECG should be monitored * IV therapy rarely required (e.g., when swallowing problems or vomiting is present) * Avoid potassium in dextrose solution * Mannitol is the preferred vehicle for IV potassium ref : kd tripathi 8th ed | train | med_mcqa | null |
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