question stringlengths 1 6.54k | choices listlengths 4 4 | answer stringclasses 4
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|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
Sinus not present at birth is - | [
"Ethmoid",
"Maxillary",
"Sphenoid",
"Frontal"
] | D | Development and grwoth of paransal sinuses | train | med_mcqa | null |
Function of PHC are - | [
"Referral services",
"Family planning & referral services",
"Basic laboratory services",
"All"
] | D | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Referral services; "b' i.e., Family planning & referral services; 'c' i.e., Basic laboratory services Function of PHC 1) Medical care 2) MCH including family planing 3) Safe water supply and basic sanitation 4) Prevention and control of locally endemic diseases 5) Collection and repoing of vital stastistics 6) Education about health 7) National Health programmes 8) Referral services 9) Training of health guides, health workers, local dais and health assistants 10) Basic laboratory services Following minor surgical procedure also done in PHC Vasectomy Tubectomy MTP and minor surgical procedure Pediatric care Specialist in surgery, medicine, obstetrics and gynaecology and paediatrics with X-ray and laboratory services are present in CHC. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following does not cross a blood brain barrier | [
"Pralidoxime",
"Obidoxime",
"Diacetylmonoxime",
"Physostigmine"
] | A | Ref-Katzung 11/e p121 Pralidoxime or 2-PAM, usually as the chloride or iodide salts, belongs to a family of compounds called oximes that bind to organophosphate-inactivated acetylcholinesterase. It is used to treat organophosphate poisoning in conjunction with atropine and diazepam | train | med_mcqa | null |
After endodontic treatment, the apical foramen is closed due to deposition of: | [
"Bone",
"Cementum.",
"GP.",
"Sealer."
] | B | Cementum is an ideal apical seal after obturation. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The largest trematode infecting man is - | [
"F.hepatica",
"F. buski",
"E. Granulosus",
"Clonorchis sinensis"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Best site for IOL implantation - | [
"Iris",
"Capsular bag",
"Anterior chamber",
"Sulcus"
] | B | In the capsular bag fixation of IOL is the most ideal method. In the ciliary sulcus fixation of IOL is done in the absence of intact capsular bag with adequate capsular suppo. Scleral fixation of IOL is done in the absence of capsular suppo. REF IMG : The above image shows a three piece implantation in the bag | train | med_mcqa | null |
Following statements are true for Fournier's gangrene except: | [
"It is a vascular disaster of infective origin",
"Sudden appearance of scrotal inflammation",
"Rapid onset of gangrene",
"Testes are never exposed"
] | D | Necrotising facilities (Syn Meleney's streptococcal gangrene, Fournier's gangrene). Necrotising facilities is a destructive invasive infection of skin, subcutaneous tissue and deep fascia, with relative sparing of muscle.Common sites are the genitalia, groins and lower abdomen. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most common clinical feature of toxoplasmosis in an immunocompetant adult? | [
"Encephalitis",
"Lymphladenopathy",
"Chorioretinitis",
"Glaucoma"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Lymphadenopathy Clinical manifestation of toxoplasmosis 1.Adults a) lmmunocompetant host Asymptomic in 90% of patients. M.C. clinical featur is cervical lymphadenopathy. Other less common manifestations are pneumonia, myocarditis, encephalitis. b) Immunocompromised host M.C. signs and symptoms are principally within CNS --> Encephalopathy, Men ingoencephalitis. 2. Children a) Congenital May present with hydrocephalus, microcephaly mental retardation, deafness, blindness, epilepsy. Intracerebral calcification may occur. b) Acquired Mostly asymptomatic C/Fs are chorioretinitis (most common), cataract, glaucoma. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Hospital waste product accounts – a) Paper 40%b) Plastic 10%c) Infectious waste 30%d) Rage 30%e) Glass 4% | [
"ab",
"ad",
"bc",
"be"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most common organism found in acute sinusitis: | [
"Streptococcus pneumoniae.",
"Hemophilus influenzae.",
"Moraxella catarrhalis",
"All of the above"
] | D | Pathophysiology of maxillary sinus:
Most common organisms found in acute sinusitis are streptococcus pneumonia, Hemophilus influenzae, Moraxella catarrhalis. In approx 8-10% cases of acute sinusitis, Bacteroid spp and staphylococcus aureus are causative organisms. Organisms that are commonly associated with chronic sinusitis are anaerobic bacteria, such as bacteroids spp, fusobacterium, Streptococci, Veilonella and corynebacterium spp. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Mallampati score is for: | [
"Inspection of oral cavity",
"Tracheostomy",
"Intubation",
"Assessing airway"
] | D | Ref. Oxford textbook of anesthesia. Page. 397
Modified Mallampati classification
Class 0: Ability to see any part of the epiglottis upon mouth opening and tongue protrusion
Class I: Soft palate, fauces, uvula, pillars visible
Class II:Soft palate, fauces, uvula visible
Class III: Soft palate, base of uvula visible
Class IV: Soft palate not visible at all
Test: The assessment is performed with the patient sitting up straight, mouth open and tongue maximally protruded, without speaking or saying “ahh. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Ligamentum teres is formed after: | [
"Obliteration of the umbilical vein",
"Obliteration of the ductus venous",
"Obliteration of the ductus arteriosus",
"Obliteration of the hypogastric artery"
] | A | Ans. is a, i.e. Obliteration of the umbilical veinVesselRemnantUmbilical arteryMedial umbilical ligamentLeft umbilical veinLigamentum teres of the liver | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 60-year-old patient came with 4 episodes of massive bleeding per rectum. On examination the abdomen is soft and there is no tenderness, with bowel sounds being normal. The most likely diagnosis is | [
"Diverticulitis",
"Carcinoma rectum",
"Hemorrhoids",
"Peptic ulcer disease"
] | A | (A) Diverticulitis # Diverticulitis, or inflammation of a diverticulum, is related to the retention of particulate material within the diverticular sac and the formation of a fecolith.> Consequently, the blood vessel is either compressed or eroded, leading to either perforation or bleeding | train | med_mcqa | null |
Bone, which usually does not have a medullary cavity: | [
"Fibula",
"Clavicle",
"Humerus",
"Ulna"
] | B | Clavicle is generally said to have no medullary cavity, but this is not always true Peculiarities of Clavicle:It has no medullary cavityIt is the first bone to ossify in the fetus (5th-6th week)It is the only long bone having 2 primary centers of ossification (others have only 1)It is the only long bone that ossifies in membrane and not in cailageIt is the only long bone lying horizontallyIt is the most common fractured long bone in the bodyIt is subcutaneous throughout | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the folloiwng are the features of Horner's syndrome except: | [
"Ptosis and Miosis in ipsilateral eye",
"Anhidrosis of ipsilateral face",
"Hetrochromia irides",
"Apparent exophthalmos"
] | D | Apparent exophthalmos | train | med_mcqa | null |
Feature of severe diarrhea | [
"Metabolic acidosis",
"Metabolic alkalosis",
"High anion gap",
"Increased anion gap"
] | A | Diarrhea can cause Non anion gap acidosis. Ref: Harrison&;s 19thE | train | med_mcqa | null |
The axillary nerve supplies | [
"Infraspinatus",
"Teres minor",
"Trapezius",
"Pectoralis major"
] | B | Teres minor is supplied by the posterior division of axillary nerve which is characterized by the presence of a pseudoganglion. Posterior division of axillary nerve also supplies the posterior pa of deltoid muscle. B D Chaurasia 7th edition Page no : 180 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most common genetic factor in Neisseria infection is | [
"Male gender",
"HLA b27",
"Complement deficiency",
"IgG deficiency"
] | C | Complement deficiencies are said to comprise between 1 and 10% of all primary immunodeficiencies. The genetic deficiency of early components of the classical pathway (C1q, C1r/s, C2, C4) tends to be linked with autoimmune diseases, whereas C5 to C9 deficiency may have enhanced susceptibility to meningococcal disease. Reference: Textbook of Microbiology; Anathanarayan and panicker's; 10th edition; Pg: 232 | train | med_mcqa | null |
According to NACO 2011, prevalence of HIV affected people? | [
"0.27",
"2.14",
"1.4-1.6",
"0.53"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following rib is known as floating rib? | [
"8",
"9",
"10",
"11"
] | D | Ans. D 11Ref: Netter's Clinical Anatomy, 3rd ed. pg. 89* The 11th and 12th ribs are floating ribs as they are free at their ends.* The 8th, 9th and 10th ribs are false ribs as they are joined to form cartilage of rib immediately above.* The first 7 pair of ribs are true ribs. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Killed vaccine is | [
"Hepatitis A",
"Measles",
"OPV",
"BCG"
] | A | Hepatitis vaccine-2 types Formaldehyde inactivated vaccine Live attenuated vaccine -administered as a single subcutaneous dose (refer pgno:212 park 23 rd edition) | train | med_mcqa | null |
false negative mantoux test is seen in A/E - | [
"Immunocompromised",
"Chicken pox",
"Malnourished",
"Measles"
] | B | All are correct answers Park Pg no:185 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following cell types are specific to a latent genital infection with HSV-2 ? (NOT RELATED) | [
"Trigeminal ganglia",
"Sacral ganglia",
"Vagal nerve ganglia",
"Neural sensory ganglia"
] | B | Latent infection by HSV-2 has been shown to occur primarily in the sacral ganglia, whereas HSV-1 latency has been demonstrated in trigeminal, superior cervical, and vagal nerve ganglia. Varicella-zoster virus remains latent in neural sensory ganglia. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Lynch syndrome is associated with cancers of the: | [
"Breast, colon, ovary",
"Breast, endometrium, ovary",
"Breast, colon, endometrium",
"Colon, endometrium, ovary"
] | D | Lynch syndrome is familial clustering of cancers at several sites:- Colorectum Endometrium Stomach Ovary Ureters Brain Small bowel | train | med_mcqa | null |
Fundoscopic features of papilledema include all the following except | [
"Ill-defined disc margin",
"Deep physiological cup",
"Absent venous pulsation",
"Bending of blood vessels"
] | B | B. i.e. Deep physiological cup Deep physiological cupQ on fundoscopy is seen in glucoma; where as in papilloedema, there is bluring of margins of optic disc (Pt sign) & reduction in size of physiological cup.Q | train | med_mcqa | null |
Dummer's classification is associated with | [
"Apical constriction",
"Apical foramen",
"Root canal Isthmus",
"No of canals"
] | A | Dummer’s classification of topography of apical constriction | train | med_mcqa | null |
The weakest point of the mandible where fracture occurs is | [
"Neck of the mandible",
"Angle of the mandible",
"Symphysis menti",
"Oblique ridge near mental foramen"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
SSPE is a complication of: | [
"Measles",
"Mumps",
"Rubella",
"Rabies"
] | A | SSPE (Sub sclerosing panencephalitis) is a late complication of measles (10 -15 yrs ) of infection. Measles - family - Paramyxoviridae. Characteristic features: Koplik spots | Present opposite lower second molar SAR- 85% (secondary attack rate) Infectivity period of measles: | 4 days before-Rash-5days after Isolation period of measles. | Prodromal stage features ------(upto)----- 3rd day of rash Incubation period of measles -10-14 days Fever - Koplik spot - Rash (Occur on 10th day) (12th day) (14th day) Note:- Measles is also known as Rubeola. Vaccine of measles is given by subcutaneous route & diluent used is distilled water. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Vasopressin is secreted by: | [
"Supraoptic nucleus",
"Preoptic nucleus",
"Paraventricular nucleus",
"Posterior nucleus"
] | A | ADH (vasopressin) is secreted by supraoptic nucleus.
Oxytocin is secreted by paraventricular nucleus. | train | med_mcqa | null |
What Is the best and most sensitive Investigation for hypothyroidism ? | [
"TSH levels",
"TRH levels",
"T3",
"T4"
] | A | The thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) assay is the most reliable test for diagnosing primary hypo- and hypehyroidismTSH secretion is pulsatile and follows a circadian rhythm. Major secretory pulses occur between 10 p.m. and 4 a.m., and the mean levels are approximately 1.3-1.4 mIU/L, with a lower limit of 0.3-0.5 mIU/L and an upper limit of 3.9-5.5 mIU/L (10)Changes in serum TSH levels can be attributed to its pulsatile and nocturnal secretion Currently, the normal reference range of serum TSH for adults is 0.4-4.5 mIU/L . Consistent studies confirm that serum TSH levels are age-dependent and that adult reference values do not correspond to those observed in pediatric patients; TSH levels continuously decrease from the neonatal period until the end of adolescence . Ref - pubmed.com | train | med_mcqa | null |
Poison having garlic smell: | [
"Arsenic",
"Cannabis",
"Alcohol",
"Hemlock"
] | A | Ans. (A). Arsenic(Ref: Review of Forensic Medicine and toxicology; Gautum Biswas; 2nd edition; Pg- 490)Garlic odour: Arsenic and aluminium phosphide.Poisons and SmellOrganophosphorus compoundsKeroseneQ (due to the addition of AROMAX)Arsenic, Aluminium phosphide/seleniumGarlicQCannabisBurnt ropeQSmell of carrotHemlock (conium maculatum)AlcoholFruity (due to congeners)CyanideBitter almondQHydrogen sulphide/ Mercaptans/ disulfiram/ N-acetyl cysteineRotten eggQChloral hydrate/ParaldehydeAcrid pearQ/AromaticNaphthaleneMoth ballSalicylateMentholZinc phosphideFishyShoe PolishNitrobenzene | train | med_mcqa | null |
Size of optic disc is | [
"0.5mm",
"1mm",
"1.5mm",
"2mm"
] | C | Optic disc.The optic disc or optic nerve head is the point of exit for ganglion cell axons leaving the eye. Because there are no rods or cones overlying the optic disc, it corresponds to a small blind spot in each eye. The ganglion cell axons form the optic nerve after they leave the eye. It is a pink coloured, well defined veically oval area with average dimension of 1.76 mm horizontally and 1.88 mm veically. It is placed 3.4 mm nasal to the fovea. Reference: A.K.Khurana; 6th edition; Page no:263 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following growth factor maintain the neurons by reducing apoptosis therefore the memory cells does not undergo apoptosis? | [
"Platelet derived growth factor",
"Nerve growth factor",
"Insulin like growth factor",
"Fibroblast growth factor"
] | B | The first neurotrophin to be characterized was nerve growth factor (NGF), a protein growth factor that is necessary for the growth and maintenance of sympathetic neurons and some sensory neurons. NGF is picked up by neurons and is transpoed in retrograde fashion from the endings of the neurons to their cell bodies. It is also present in the brain and appears to be responsible for the growth and maintenance of cholinergic neurons in the basal forebrain and the striatum. There is evidence that the maintenance of neurons by NGF is due to a reduction in apoptosis. Ref: Barrett K.E., Barman S.M., Boitano S., Brooks H.L. (2012). Chapter 4. Excitable Tissue: Nerve. In K.E. Barrett, S.M. Barman, S. Boitano, H.L. Brooks (Eds), Ganong's Review of Medical Physiology, 24e. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Continuous administration of GnRH- | [
"Stimulates hypothalamic--pituitary axis",
"Suppresses hypothalamic--pituitary axis",
"May suppresses or stimulate hypothalamic--pituitary axis",
"Has so no effect on hypothalamic--pituitary axis"
] | B | Ans. (b) Suppresses hypothalamic--pituitary axis(Ref: Ganong, 25th ed/p.327)Continuous (nonpulsatile) administration of GnRH inhibits the release of FSH and LH by the pituitary in both women and men | train | med_mcqa | null |
A pregnant mother at 32 weeks gestation presents in preterm labour. Therapy with antenatal steroids to induce lung maturity in the fetus may be given in all of the following conditions except : | [
"Prolonged rupture of membranes for more than 24 hours",
"Pregnancy induced hypeension",
"Diabetes mellitus",
"Chorioamnionitis"
] | D | Ans. Is d i.e. Chorioamnionitis "Coicosteroids can be given even in presence of maternal hypeension or diabetes mellitus, but should preferably be avoided if PROM is associated with definitive evidence of chorioamnionitis" "Steroid treatment is contraindicated in presence of ove infection." ... Fernando Arias 3/e, p 220 Steroid therapy in preterm labour : Steroids are recommended for all women in preterm labour before 36 weeks. Advantage : Steroids reduce the rate of respiratory distress syndrome and intraventricular hemorrhage in the newborn. The effect of treatment is maximal between 24 hours of the first dose and uptil 7 days. Earlier it was recommended to give repeated doses weekly till the patient delivers but this practice is associated with significant fetal and neonatal side effects like cerebral palsy and should be abandoned. Betamethasone is the steroid of choice and the recommendation is to give two doses of 12 mg intramuscularly 24 hours apa. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Intermediate filaments are used as: | [
"Tumor markers",
"Carbohydrates",
"Both",
"None"
] | A | Intermediate filaments are used as tumor markers Epithelial cells have:keratin Muscle cells: desnin Connective tissue:vimentin Glial cells:GFAP Nucleus:lamin Ref:Guyton and Hall textbook of medical physiology 12th edition,page number 8,9,14 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is a non–catecholamine sympathomimetic drug? | [
"Ephedrine",
"Dopamine",
"Isoproterenol",
"Dobutamine"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
39-year-old man feels a discomfo when moving his tongue, pharynx, and larynx. Physical examination indicates that muscles attached to styloid process are paralyzed. Which of the following groups of cranial nerves are damaged? | [
"Glossopharyngeal, trigeminal, and vagus nerves",
"Hypoglossal, vagus and facial nerves",
"Facial, glossopharyngeal, and hypoglossal nerves",
"Vagus, spinal accessory, and hypoglossal nerves"
] | C | Styloid process provides attachments for the stylohyoid, styloglossus, and stylopharyngeus muscles. Stylohyoid muscle is innervated by facial nerve, styloglossus muscle by hypoglossal nerve, and stylopharyngeus muscle by glossopharyngeal nerve. No other muscles are attached to the styloid process. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Brown atrophy occurs due to deposition of? | [
"Melanin",
"Hemosiderin",
"Hematin",
"Lipofuscin"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Lipofuscin o Deposition of lipofuscin in the heart is referred as brown atrophy. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most common cause of death in diphtheria is due to | [
"Airway compromise",
"Toxic cardiomyopathy",
"Sepsis",
"Descending polyneuropathy"
] | B | Answer- B. Toxic cardiomyopathyMost common cause of death in diphtheria cardiomyopathy | train | med_mcqa | null |
Clamshell technique is required for: | [
"llio-cortico graft",
"llio-cancellous graft",
"Posterior iliac graft",
"Anterior iliac graft"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Abesent bile duct is seen in - | [
"Alagille syndrome",
"Crigler Najjar Syndrome",
"Gilbert's Syndrome",
"Primary Sclerosing Cholangitis"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Alagille syndrome Alagille Syndromeo Autosomal dominant diseaseo JAG 1 and NOTCH 2 mutationo Affects the liver and Hearta. Livero Biliary atresiao Autoimmune hepatitiso Jaundiceo Liver cirrhosisb Hearto Pulmonary stenosiso Tetralogy of Falloto VSDo Overriding aortac. Othero Other presentations of Alagille's syndrome include an unusual butterfly shape of one or more of the bones of the spinal column (visible on an x-ray), certain eye defects (such as posterior embryotoxon), and narrowed pulmonary arteries that can contribute to increased pressure on the right heart valves. Many people with Alagille syndrome have similar facial features, including a broad, prominent forehead, deep-set eyes, and a small pointed chin. | train | med_mcqa | null |
This eyes sign is most likely seen in which condition: | [
"Medial medullary syndrome",
"Lateral medullary syndrome",
"Optic chiasma lesion",
"Benedict syndrome"
] | B | Ans. B. Lateral medullary syndromea. Above image shows Ptosis of right eye.b. This shows paralysis of IIIrd Nervec. Lateral Medullary syndrome (Wallenberg Syndrome) is a neurologic disorder due to ischemia of lateral part of Medulla d/t involvement of Posterior inferior cerebellar artery (PICA)d. It is characterized by ipsilateral loss of pain & temperature from face & contralateral loss from body.e. Ipsilateral Horner's Syndrome (Ptosis, Miosis, Anhidrosis) | train | med_mcqa | null |
The drug not used in acute asthma is : | [
"Salbutamol",
"Ipratropium",
"Montelukast",
"Hydrocortisone"
] | C | Only bronchodilator drugs are useful for the treatment of an acute attack of asthma. Main drugs are:
Beta 2 agonists e.g. salbutamol, terbutaline
Anticholinergics e.g. ipratropium, tiotropium
Methylxanthines e.g. theophylline
Other drugs used for asthma (like mast cell stabilizers, leukotriene receptor antagonists and lipoxygenase inhibitors) are indicated only for prophylaxis. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The drug prednisolone is known to be a powerful anti- inflammatory agent. This is true due to the action of the drug on which of the following enzymes? | [
"Cyclo oxygenase",
"Lipoxygenase",
"Phospholipase A",
"Phosphodiesterase"
] | C | -Steroids inhibit phospholipase A2 enzyme by causing induction of proteins called Annexins. -Phospholipase A2 is involved in formation of PG (Prostaglandin) and LT(leukotriene) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Goodpasture's syndrome is characterised by : | [
"Necrotising haemorrhagic interstitial pneumonitis",
". Alveolitis",
"Patchy consolidation",
"Pulmonary oedema"
] | A | Necrotising haemorrhagic interstitial pneumonitis Goodpasture's syndrome is an uncommon autoimmune disease. It shows presence of circulating autoantibiodies against non collagenous domain at a-3 chain of collagen IV. These antibodies initiate inflammatory distruction at basement membrane in glomeruli & lung alveoli, giving rise to RPGN & necrotising haemorrhagic interstitial pneumonitis. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Oesophageal atresia may occur as a pa of VACTERAL group of anomalies. What does `TE' stand for? | [
"Tetralogy of Fallot",
"Thoracic empyema",
"Tracheo-oesophageal fistula",
"Talipes equinovarus"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Tracheo-oesophageal fistulaVACTERL association is a disorder that affects many body systems. VACTERL stands for :V:Veebral defectsA:Anal atresiaC:Cardiac defectsTE:Tracheo-Esophageal fistulaR:Renal anomalies,L:Limb abnormalities.People diagnosed withVACTERL association typically have at least three of these characteristic features. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Number of Milk teeth are | [
"8",
"16",
"20",
"32"
] | C | 20 (Deciduous teeth) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Mysthenia gravis is which type of hypersensitivity | [
"Type I",
"Type II",
"Type III",
"Type IV"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 73-year-old woman is admitted to the hospital with a mild UGI hemorrhage that stopped spontaneously. She did not require transfusion. She had ingested large amounts of aspirin in the past 4 months to relieve the pain caused by severe rheumatoid arthritis. Endoscopy confirms the presence of a duodenal ulcer. A biopsy is done. What is the next step in the management of a duodenal ulcer associated with a positive biopsy for H. pylori? | [
"H2 blockers",
"Bipolar electrocautery of the ulcer",
"Triple therapy",
"Photocoagulation"
] | C | Since the patient is stable, she does not require any therapeutic endoscopic or surgical procedures. Triple therapy (a PPI and two antibiotics) should be initiated to eradicate the H. pylori organism. She should also be educated about the association of aspirin and NSAIDs with peptic ulcer disease. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A postspinal headache is due to - | [
"Injury to spinal cord",
"CSF leak from dura",
"Meningitis",
"Raised intracranial pressure"
] | B | Ans: B | train | med_mcqa | null |
First case in an epidemic is called | [
"Index case",
"Primary case",
"First case",
"None of the above"
] | B | .the first case in an epidemic is called primary case.and the first case that comes to the notice of a clinician is called index case. ref:park&;s textbook,ed 22,pg no 34 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most common malignancy in renal transplant patient- | [
"Kaposi sarcoma",
"Lung sarcoma",
"Non hodgkin lymphoma",
"Hodgkin lymphoma"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Many drugs are used as rescue therapy for preventing the adverse effects of anticancer drugs. Folinic acid is used in:- | [
"Methotrexate toxicity",
"Cisplatin toxicity",
"Doxorubicin toxicity",
"Cyclophosphamide toxicity"
] | A | DHF | DHF reductase<-------- inhibited by METHOTREXATE THF/FOLINILACID/LEVCOVORIN Thereforeto treat MTX toxicity FOLINIC ACID/LEVCOVORIN is used. B: Cisplatin Vomiting d/tcisplatin :ONDANSETRON Nephrotoxicity :AMIFOSTINE C: cardiotoxicity d/t doxorubicin : DEXRAZOXANE D: hemorrhagic cystitis d/t cyclophosphamide : MESNA | train | med_mcqa | null |
Causative toxin for endemic ascites is | [
"Ergot",
"Aflatoxin",
"Pyrrolizidine",
"Beta-oxylamino-alanine"
] | C | It was noticed in the Kusmi block of Sarguja district of Madhya Pradesh during the years 1973 and 1976. There was an outbreak of rapidly progressing ascites and jaundice among the tribals. Moality rate was 40%. Investigation by the National Institute of Nutrition concluded that this outbreak was due to intake of Millet seeds contaminated with Crotalaria seeds which form their main diet. Crotalaria occured as a weed in areas of millet (Panicum miliare) cultivation. Crotalaria seeds contain pyrrolizidine alkaloids which are hepatotoxic. The methods suggested for preventing this were deweeding of farmlands and seiveing of millet seeds before use, as Crotalaria seeds were much smaller Ref : internet | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis? | [
"Meningococcal meningitis",
"Subarachnoid haemorrhage",
"Cryptococcal meningitis",
"Tuberculous meningitis"
] | D | Tuberculous meningitis (TBM) is the most common form of central nervous system tuberculosis (TB) and has very high morbidity and moality. TBM is typically a subacute disease with symptoms that may persist for weeks before diagnosis. Ref Harrison20th edition pg 2345 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following increase the speed of induction with an inhalational agent? | [
"Opiate premedication",
"Increased alveolar ventilation",
"Increased cardiac output",
"Reduced FIO2"
] | B | Inhalational anesthetics are used for the induction and maintenance of general anesthesia as well as sedation The most common inhalational anesthetics are sevoflurane, desflurane, and nitrous oxide. Of these, sevoflurane is the most common because of its rapid onset of action and the fact that patients recover quickly from it. Inhalational anesthetics cause respiratory depression, a decrease in aerial blood pressure and cerebral metabolic demand, and an increase in cerebral blood flow. While side effects differ based on the substance (e.g., halothane can cause hepatotoxicity), the most common side effect is nausea. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is seen in Marasmus and not in Kwashiorkar | [
"Voracious appetite",
"Fatty change in liver",
"Hypoalbuminemia",
"Edema"
] | A | Marasmic children may show voracious appetite.Edema,hypoalbuminemia and hepatomegaly are features of kwashiorkor. Ref : Ghai essential pediatrics 6th edition. Page 104 & 105 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Best marker for drug induced lupus is - | [
"Anti histone antibodies",
"Anti ds DNA",
"ANA",
"Anti smith Ab"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Serious, adverse behavioral reactions, including hostility, aggression, and suicidal thoughts and behaviors are associated with which of the following drugs? | [
"Pregabalin",
"Topiramate",
"Levetiracetam",
"Lamotrigine"
] | C | Levetiracetam is a pyrrolidine, and is FDA-approved for adjunctive therapy for myoclonic, focal-onset, and generalized onset tonic-clonic seizures in adults and children as young as 4 years old. Its s/e includes: Somnolence, anxiety, confusion, imbalance, double vision, dizziness, GI distress or nausea, and weight gain. Adverse behavioral reactions, including hostility, aggression,and suicidal thoughts and behaviors, independent of clinical history of psychiatric disorder are also seen. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Baby born to mother suffering from AIDS, all are true except | [
"Failure to thrive",
"Have infections",
"50% chances to have AIDS",
"All are true"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
If the head of the femur is dislocated postero-medially, compression of which nerve is likely to be a result? | [
"Femoral",
"Lumbosacral trunk",
"Obturator",
"Sciatic"
] | D | The sciatic nerve is closely related to the posterior hip joint, which makes this nerve very vulnerable in cases where the femur is dislocated postero-medially. If the sciatic nerve was completely paralyzed, the compaments innervated by its two branches: the common fibular and tibial nerves, would lose function. This would mean that the hamstrings and all the muscles of below the knee would lose their innervation. (Luckily, complete paralysis of the sciatic nerve is very rare). The hip joint is very stable, so it is difficult to dislocate the femur. Most dislocations occur when the hip is flexed and the thigh is adducted. In flexion, the joint capsule is lax, and the femoral head tends to dislocate posteriorly when forces drive the femur posteriorly. This means that the sciatic nerve will be very vulnerable when the femur is dislocated!The other nerves listed in the question are not closely related to the hip joint. The femoral nerve innervates the quadriceps and is on the anterior of the thigh. The lumbosacral trunk is located in the pelvis. The obturator nerve innervates the adductor compament, and is on the anteromedial side of the thigh. Although the superior gluteal nerve innervates muscles near the hip socket (gluteus medius, minimus, and tensor fasciae latae), it would not be damaged by a dislocated hip. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Cytogenic abnormality in synol sarcoma is: | [
"t(x;18)",
"t(x;21)",
"t(11;14)",
"t(11;22)"
] | A | Tumor Cytogenetic abnormality Gene fusion Ewing sarcoma family tumors Extraskeletal myxoid chondrosarcoma Desmoplastic small round-cell tumor Clear-cell sarcoma t(11;22)(q24;q12) t(21;22)(q22;q12) t(9;22)(q22;q12) t(11;22)(p13;q12) t(12;22)(q13;q12) EWS-FLI1 EWS-ERG EWS-CHN EWS-WT1 EWS-ATF1 Synol sarcoma t(x;18)(p11;q11) SS18-SSX1 SS18-SSX2 SS18-SSX4 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is a Tocolytic agent? | [
"Prazocin",
"Ritodrine",
"Yohimbine",
"Propranolol"
] | B | ANSWER: (B) RitodrineREF: Danforth's Obstetrics and Gynecology 10th Edition page 175-178,http://en.wikipedia.org/ wiki/TocolyticIndirect repeat from June 2008See APPENDIX-64 for "TOCOLYTIC AGENTS" APPENDIX - 64Tocolytic Agents:DrugMechanismDescriptionContraindicationsTerbutalineb2-agonistIs often the drug given first, especially if there is only low risk of preterm birthCardiac arrhythmiasRitodrineb2-agonistThe only FDA approved tocolyticPoorly controlled thyroid disease and diabetesFenoterolb2-agonist diabetesSalbutamolb2-agonist diabetesNifedipineCCBsIs one of the most commonly used tocolytic agentsCardiac disease. It should not be used concomitantly with magnesium sulphateAtosibanoxytocinantagonist IndomethacinNSAIDs late pregnancy (ductus arteriosus), significant renal or hepatic impairmentSulindacNSAIDs Coagulation disorders or thrombocytopenia, non-steroidal antiinflammatory drug (NSAID)-sensitive asthma, other sensitivity to NSAIDsIV Magnesium sulfatemyosin light chain inhibitorShown to be ineffective. Has been recommended for women at high risk. However, meta-analyses have failed to support it as a tocolytic agentmyasthenia gravisEthyl alcohol?Shown to be ineffective. Was frequently prescribed as a tocolytic in the mid-20th century, but later double-blind studies found it was not effective | train | med_mcqa | null |
In liver ammonia is formed from which amino acid ? | [
"Glycine",
"Glutamine",
"Isoleucine",
"Proline"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Glutamine Transpo of ammoniaAmmonia is produced in most of the tissues. However, it should be transpoed to liver as urea cycle (formation of urea) occurs only in liver. Since free ammonia is highly toxic, it is never transpoed in free form in blood.Two mechanisms are available for transpo of ammonia from the peripheral tissues to the liver :1) In the form of glutamineIn many tissues like liver, kidney and brain, ammonia combines with glutamate to yield glutamine, by the action of glutamine synthase. The brain is a rich source of glutamine synthase and it predominantly detoxifies ammonia by this routeGlutamine is a nontoxic major transpo form of ammonia. The glutamine is transpoed by blood to liver where deamination (removal of amino group) of glutamine takes place. Glutaminase cleaves glutamine to yield glutamate and free ammonia ammonium ion). "[he ammonia is conveed by liver to urea.Formation and secretion ammonia by renal tubular cells maintain acid base balance. Ammonia is formed from glutamine by glutaminase. Excretion of ammonia increases in metabolic acidosis and decreases in metabolic alkalosis. 2) In the form of alanineAlanine transpos ammonia from muscles to liver through glucose-alanine cycle'.In muscle, glutamate is formed from ammonia and a-ketoglutarate by reversal of the glutamate dehydrogenase reaction. L-glutamate then transfers its a-amino group to pyruvate by transmination reaction to form alanine.Alanine is transpoed to liver. In liver alanine is conveed to pyruvate and glutamate by transamination reaction. Glutamate undergoes oxidative deamination to release free ammonia, which is conveed to urea. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Energy production enzymes are located in: | [
"Rough endoplasmic reticulum",
"Ribosomes",
"Golgi apparatus",
"Mitochondria"
] | D | Ans. (d) Mitochondria(Ref: Ganong, 25th ed/p.36)Mitochondria is involved in the synthesis of energy-rich compound ATP by oxidative phosphorylationAlso called as "powerhouse of the cell" | train | med_mcqa | null |
Yawning is a feature of: | [
"Alcohol withdrawl",
"Cocaine withdrawl",
"Cannabis withdrawl",
"Opoid withdrawl"
] | D | Opoid withdrawl | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 58 year old woman, who had backache and recurrent chest Infections for 6 months, develops sudden weakness of the legs and urinary retention. Her investigations show a hemoglobin of 7.3 gm/ dl, serum calcium 12.6 mg/dl, phosphate-2.5 mg/ dl, alkaline phosphatase-1OOu/l, serum albumln- 3 gm/di, globulin - 7.1 gm/dl and urea - 178 mg/d. What is the most likely diagnosis - | [
"Lung cancer",
"Disseminated tuberculosis",
"Multiple myeloma",
"Osteoporosis"
] | C | Diagnosis is Multiple myeloma : * Patient is having backpain and hypercalcemia because in multiple myeloma the malignant plasma cells produce cytokines, which stimulate osteoclasts and result in net bone reabsorption. The resulting lytic lesion causes bone pain, fractures and hypercalcemia. * Patient is having recurrent infection, due to pancytopenia * Anemia is a feature of multiple myeloma * In Multiple myeloma globulin level increases, here there is increased level of globulin and Albumin/Globulin ratio is decreased. Reference : Davidson, 23rd Edition, page no : 967. | train | med_mcqa | null |
CongenitalA-V fistulas in the thigh will be associated with all except - | [
"Increased cardiac output",
"Increased skin temperature",
"Gigantism of limb",
"Superficial venous engorgement"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Increased skin temperature | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following anaesthetic agent causes bone marrow supression? | [
"Halothane",
"Ketamine",
"Nitrous Oxide",
"Isoflurane"
] | C | Nitrous oxide may cause bone marrow supression by interfering with the production of factors necessary for DNA synthesis. Nitrous oxide has few adverse effects, it is a mild cardiac depressant and pulmonary vasoconstrictor and is relatively contraindicated in patients with pulmonary hypeension. It cause diffusional hypoxia. It inhibits folate metabolism and is contraindicated in pregnancy. It promote expansion of internal gas-filled structures, and is avoided in patients with pneumothorax, pneumocephalus, and vascular air embolism. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Na/K pump which enzyme is used | [
"ATPase",
"GTPase",
"Acetyl CoA",
"NADPH"
] | A | Example of ATPases is sodium-potassium adenosine triphosphatase (Na, K ATPase), which is also known as the Na, K pump. Na, K ATPase catalyzes the hydrolysis of ATP to adenosine diphosphate (ADP).(REF.GANONG'S REVIEW OF MEDICAL PHYSIOLOGY -23rd EDITION.Page No-46,47) | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 10 year old boy is having hypeension. There is no other significant history and urine analysis is cause for his hypeension ? | [
"Chronic glomerulonephritis",
"Polycystic kidney disease",
"Reflux nephropathy",
"Renal Parenchymal disease"
] | B | All these renal disease leads to hypeension. But except in polycystic kidney disease, all other will show characteristics urine findings. Polycystic kidney disease is usually asymptotic. Hypeension devolops about 10 to 20 years of age. Reference: GHAI Essential pediatrics, 8th edition | train | med_mcqa | null |
Embgryological development of the human vertebra is from - | [
"Somite",
"Endoderm",
"Ectoderm",
"None"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
First fibres to be blocked in spinal anaesthesia is: | [
"Sympathetic preganglionic",
"Afferent motor nerves",
"Sensory fibres",
"Different motor nerves"
] | A | Sympathetic preganglionic | train | med_mcqa | null |
What is true of vitamin D resistant rickets? | [
"X linked recessive",
"No End organ resistance to 1, 25 (OH)2 D3",
"Defect in proximal tubular reabsorption",
"Hyperphosphatemia and high 1, 25 (OH)2 D3"
] | C | ANSWER: (C) Defect in proximal tubular reabsorptionREF: Nelson's 18th ed page 2720Familial Hypophosphatemia: (Vitamin D-Resistant Rickets, X-Linked Hypophosphatemia)The most commonly encounterednon-nutritional form of rickets is familial hypophosphatemia. The usual mode of inheritance is X-linked dominantPathogenic mechanisms involve defects in the proximal tubular reabsorption of phosphate and in the conversion of 25(OH)D to l,25(OH)2 D, The latter defect is evidenced by 1owt- normal serum l,25(OH)2 D levels despite hypophosphatemia and by the finding that further phosphate depletion of subjects with familial hypophosphatemia does not stimulate 1,25 (OH)2 D synthesis as it does in normal subjectsPatients have a normal or slightly reduced serum calcium level, a moderately^ reduced serum phosphate level, elevated alkaline phosphatase activity, and no evidence of secondary hyperparathyroidism. Urinary phosphate excretion Is large, despite hypophosphatemia, indicating a defect in renal tubular phosphate | train | med_mcqa | null |
All are true about blood coagulation except? | [
"Intrinsic pathway can be activated in vitro.",
"Extrinsic pathway is activated by contact of plasma with negatively charged surfaces.",
"Calcium is very important for coagulation.",
"Factor X is a part of both intrinsic and extrinsic pathway."
] | D | • Ataxia telangiectasiais an autosomal recessive condition.
• Patients have increased sensitivity to x-ray-induced chromosome abnormalities.
• Characterized by an ataxic-dyskinetic syndrome beginning in early childhood, caused by neuronal degeneration predominantly in the cerebellum, the subsequent development of telangiectasias in the conjunctiva and skin, and immunodeficiency.
• The nuclei of cells in many organs (e.g., Schwann cells in dorsal root ganglia and peripheral nerves, endothelial cells as well as pituicytes) show a bizarre enlargement of the cell nucleus and are referred to as amphicytes.
• The lymph nodes, thymus, and gonads are hypoplastic.
• Clinical features include recurrent sinopulmonary infections and unsteadiness in walking.
• Increased risk of development of lymphoid malignant disease (T-cell leukemia and lymphoma)
All other options are autosomal dominant conditions. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Acanthocytosis on peripheral smear is a feature of: | [
"Uremia",
"Thalassemia trait",
"Abetalipoproteinemia",
"Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria"
] | C | Acanthocytosis: are abnormal blood cells normally not seen in circulation. They are also known as spur cells have less numerous spicules terminated by bulbs. With prominent neurological signs With deficit in lipoproteins Abetalipoproteinemia Hypolipoprotinemia HARP syndrome Witout deficit in lipoproteins Chorea acanthocytosis Mcleod syndrome Mitochondrial Cytopathies Secondary neurological signs due to a primary systemic disease Liver cirrhosis Anorexia nervosa Myxedema Psoriasis Eales disease Ref: Neuroacanthocytosis Syndromes, edited by Adrian Danek, Page 16 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Obsolete method for testing tubal patency is : | [
"Hystero salpingogram",
"Chromo salpingogram",
"Rubin's test",
"None of the above"
] | C | Rubin's test | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which structure is present in intersegmental area of lungs | [
"Bronchial artery",
"Bronchial vein",
"Pulmonary artery",
"Pulmonary vein"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Procalcitonin is used as marker of | [
"Cardiac dysfunction in acute coronary syndrome",
"Menstrual perodicity",
"Pituitary function",
"Sepsis"
] | D | ref Harrison 18/e p3419 Procalcitonin is an acute phase reactant which is now useful for being a marker of sepsis Procalcitonin (PCT) is a biomarker that exhibits greater specificity than other proinflammatory markers (eg, cytokines) in identifying patients with sepsis and can beused in the diagnosis of bacterial infections | train | med_mcqa | null |
PANDAS are associated with which of the following infection? | [
"Pseudomonas",
"Streptococcus",
"Staphylococcus",
"Neisseria"
] | B | PANDAS is sho for Pediatric Autoimmune Neuropsychiatric Disorders Associated with Streptococcal Infections. A child may be diagnosed with PANDAS when: Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD), tic disorder, or both suddenly appear following a streptococcal (strep) infection, such as strep throat or scarlet fever. Reference: GHAI Essential pediatrics, 8th edition | train | med_mcqa | null |
Free-floating persistent anxiety and Excessive worry are characteristic features of | [
"Generalised anxiety disorder",
"Obsessive compulsive disorder",
"Schizotypal disorder",
"Panic disorder"
] | A | Generalized anxiety disorder (GAD)'Excessive worry' (generalized free-floating persistent anxiety) and feelings of apprehension about everyday events/problems, with symptoms of muscle and psychic tension, causing significant distress/functional impairment. obsessive compulsive disorder is a type of neurosis that is assosiated with obsessions and compulsions that is charecterised by repeated, recurrent, irrelevant, intrusive thought assosiated with motor acts schizotypal disorder is a type of personality which is assosiated with odd and eccentric behaviour, recently schizotypal is also mentioned a s atype of schizophrenia Reference: Oxford Textbook of Psychiatry; 3rd edition; Chapter 9; Anxiety and stress-related disorders | train | med_mcqa | null |
Palatal edema is significant for:- | [
"Alpha heavy chain diseas",
"Gamma heavy chain disease",
"Mu heavy chain diseas",
"Beta heavy chain disease"
] | B | Palatal edema is seen in patient having involvement of oropharyngeal lymphoid tissue called Waldeyer ring. Palatal edema is a most distinctive symptom of franklin diseases (gamma heavy chain disease) Franklin disease: very rare B cell lymph plasma cell proliferated disorder which may be associated with autoimmune disease like RA. Subtype of gama heavy chain involve is gama 1. This disease can be manage with the help of anticancer drug Rituximab (Anti CD 20 Antibody) Most common Heavy chain disease is Alpha Heavy chain disease. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The following host tissue responses can be seen in acute infection, except? | [
"Exudation",
"Vasodilation",
"Margination",
"Granuloma formation"
] | D | Ans. (d) Granuloma formationRef: Robbiris pathology 9th ed. 197* Granuloma formation is characteristic of chronic granulomatous inflammation and is not seen in acute inflammation.* Vasodilation, increase in permeability, exudation, margination, rolling etc. are seen in acute inflammation. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Pure red cell aplasia is associated with: | [
"Thymoma",
"Renal cell carcinoma",
"Hepatocellular carcinoma",
"Prostate carcinoma"
] | A | -Pure red cell aplasia is a primary marrow disorder in which only erythroid progenitors are suppressed. -In severe cases, red cell progenitors are completely absent from the marrow. -It may occur in association with neoplasms, paicularly thymoma and large granular lymphocytic leukemia; drug exposures; autoimmune disorders & parvovirus infection. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which muscle is a pure elevator of the jaw? | [
"Buccinator muscle",
"Geniohyoid muscle",
"Lateral pterygoid muscle",
"Medial pterygoid muscle"
] | D | The medial pterygoid muscle, which originates on the medial side of the lateral pterygoid plate, and the masseter muscle, which originates from the zygomatic arch, pass medially and laterally to the ramus of the mandible to form a sling about the angle of the mandible. These muscles are powerful elevators of the jaw. The muscle bundles of the anterior portion of the temporalis muscle run nearly vertically into the coronoid process of the mandible, acting as a jaw elevator. The lateral pterygoid muscles run from the lateral side of the pterygoid plate and from the infratemporal fossa to the head of the mandible and the articular disk of the temporomandibular joint. Contraction of the lateral pterygoid muscles bilaterally protrudes the jaw. Unilateral contraction swings the jaw toward the opposite side. The submental muscles, assisted by gravity, are the primary depressors of the jaw. These include the geniohyoid and mylohyoid muscles as well as the anterior belly of the digastric muscle, all of which function in conjunction with the infrahyoid strap muscles. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Human development index includes A/E ? | [
"Crude death rate",
"Education",
"Life expectancy at bih",
"GDP"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Crude death rate Human development index (HDI) o HDI is a composite index combining indicators representing three dimensions - i) Longevity (life expectancy at bih) ii) Knowledge (Adult literacy rate and mean years of schooling, i.e. Gross enrolement ratio) iii) Income (real GDP per capita in purchasing power parity in US dollars) o The HDI is an index used to rank countries by level of human development. o According to HDI countries are divided - i) Developed countries (High HDI 0.8) USA, Canada, Norway Developing countries (medium HDI -4 0.5 - 0.79) -4 India iii) Underdeveloped countries (Low HDI -4 0.5) Seiera, Ethopia Following information has been added in 22"/e of Park o Components of human development index have changed. Now it includes expected years of schooling (instead of adult literacy rate) and GNI per capita (instead of GDP per capita). | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 20yr old P1L1 with RhD negative pregnancy had a spontaneous vaginal delivery. Her baby is RhD positive. Anti D Ig should be administered within | [
"72 hours",
"7 days",
"10 days",
"30 days"
] | A | * For successful immunoprohylaxis anti D Ig should be given as soon as possible after the sensitizing event but always within 72hours * If not given within 72hours, effo should still be made to give anti D Ig, as a dose given within 9 to 10 dose will offer some protection * Women who is already sensitized should not be given anti D Ig Reference: Greentop guidelines no 22 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Recalcitrant acne is treated by: | [
"Oral erythromycin",
"Oral tetracycline",
"Retinoids",
"Steroids"
] | C | The European S3 guidelines recommend isotretinoin for the treatment of severe recalcitrant acne or moderate acne that has failed to respond to conventional antibiotic therapies. Retinoids - Isotretinoin : D.O.C for severe / gd 4 / nodulocystic acne/ acne conglobata. Dose 0.5 - 1 mg / kg body weight to be given till cumulative dose of 120-150mg/kg body weight. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Number of Hepatic segments in Liver | [
"4",
"6",
"8",
"10"
] | C | The Couinaud classification of liver anatomy divides the liver into eight functionally independent segments.Each segment has its own vascular inflow, outflow and biliary drainage.In the centre of each segment, there is a branch of the poal vein, hepatic aery and bile duct.Reference: Chaurasia Volume II; 7th edition; Page no: 336 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Direct Coombs test is positive for: | [
"IgA",
"IgE",
"IgM",
"IgG"
] | D | Autoimmune hemolytic anaemia in which the red cell injury is brought about by auto-antibodies reacting with antigens present on red cell membrane.
Antiglobulin test (direct Coombs’ test) is employed to detect the antibody on red cell surface.
Key Point:
DAT (Direct Antiglobulin Test) testing typically involves the use of a polyspecific reagent consisting of IgG and complement C3.
Mohan H. Textbook of pathology. Jaypee Brothers Medical Publishers; 2015. Edition 7. Page 60 | train | med_mcqa | null |
How will you check the quantitative assessment of liver function - | [
"Degree of Transaminases",
"Degree of Alkaline phosphatase",
"Galactose metabolism",
"All the above"
] | C | The determination of the galactose elimination capacity with the method according to Tygstrup is the only test which detects the "functional hepatocyte mass" and thus constitutes a quantitative test for the metabolic function of the liver. In this determination of the maximum hepatic elimination capacity, differences with bilirubin, hemolysis and hyperlipidemia do not occur; reliable results are also obtained in disorders of hepatic secretion. Side-effects from the test substance galactose are not to be expected. It is also possible to determine galactose without difficulty in capillary blood. The i.v. galactose test permits an estimation of the degree of severity of liver diseases and can also be recommended for routine use in the investigation of specific hepatological questions. Ref Davidson edition23rd pg853 | train | med_mcqa | null |
False statement for Pyrexia of unknown origin: | [
"Cause unknown despite more than 3 days of hospitalization",
"Cause unknown even after 3 OPD visits",
"Fever persisting after 1 month of regular treatment",
"Usually, fever more than 38.3 degree Celsius"
] | C | Ans. C: Fever persisting after 1 month of regular treatment PUO was defined by Petersdorf and Beeson in 1961 as 1) temperatures of more than 38.3 degree C/ 101 degree F on several occasions; 2) a duration of fever of more than 3 weeks; 3) failure to reach a diagnosis despite 1 week of inpatient investigation The new definition is broader, stipulating 3 outpatient visits or 3 days on the hospital without elucidation of a cause or 1 week of intelligent and invasive ambulatory investigation | train | med_mcqa | null |
In transection between hypothalamus and anterior pituitary, the production of which hormone remains unaffected? | [
"Testosterone",
"Oxytocin",
"Thyroxine",
"Cortisol"
] | B | (B) Oxytocin # Oxytocin is a posterior pituitary hprmone and rest are hormones regulated by releasing hormones of hypothalamus and thence anterior pituitary therefore transection btw hypothalamus and anterior pituitary does not effect the production of posterior pituitary hormone oxytocin. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Gout can be precipitated by: | [
"Calcium channel blockers",
"Omeprazole",
"Thiazide diuretics",
"Digitalis"
] | C | Answer is C (Thiazide Diuretics): Hyperuricemic Syndromes: Pathophysiology and Therapy (Karger Medical and Scientific Publishers, 2005)/ 9 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which is a branch of internal iliac artery - | [
"Inferior epigastric artery",
"Femoral artery",
"Renal artery",
"Uterine artery"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Uterine artery o Branches of anterior division of internal iliac artery are : (i) Superior vesical, (ii) Middle rectal, (iii) Inferior vesical (in males), (iv) Internal pudendal, (v) Vaginal (in females), (vi) Uterine (in females), (vii) Obturator, and (viii) Inferior gluteal.o Branches of posterior division are : (i) Iliolumbar, (ii) Lateral sacral, and (iii) Superior gluteal. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Commonest cause of carcinoma endometrium is: | [
"Unopposed estrogen",
"Multiple sex paner",
"Early marriage",
"Early menarche"
] | A | Unopposed estrogen | train | med_mcqa | null |
The ideal colloidal solution is: | [
"Dextran",
"Plasma",
"Albumin",
"Hydroxyethyl starch"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Upper class score in Kuppuswamy Socio-economic status scale is: | [
"10-May",
"15-Nov",
"16-25",
"26-29"
] | D | Socioeconomic classes under Modified Kuppuswamy Scale Socioeconomic class Total score Upper 26-29 Upper middle 16-25 Lower middle 11-15 Upper lower 05-10 lower 01-04 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Waist Hip Ratio in men that indicate obesity | [
"> 0.85",
"> 0.95",
"> 1",
"> 1.5"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
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