question stringlengths 1 6.54k | choices listlengths 4 4 | answer stringclasses 4
values | rationale stringlengths 0 22.5k ⌀ | split stringclasses 1
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|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
Neuropathy is not see in- | [
"Tuberculosis",
"SLE",
"Polyarteritis nodosa",
"Sarcoidosis"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Soot in trachea is a sign of? | [
"Postmortem burns",
"Cyanide poisoning",
"Antemortem burns",
"CO poisoning"
] | B | Soot in external respiratory passages could be due to antemortem or postmortem burn. But if soot is seen deep in trachea, it is a sign of antemortem burn. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Hysteroscopy is used in all EXCEPT: | [
"Uterine synechiae",
"Abnormal vaginal bleeding",
"Infertility",
"Recurrent still birth and abortions"
] | D | Hysteroscopy is used undoubtedly in :
• Uterine synechiae i.e. Ashermann syndrome - Hysteroscopy is the gold standard technique for diagnosing uterine synechiae (Ashermann syndrome) as well as managing it.
• Abnormal vaginal bleeding hysteroscopy has nearly replaced standard D and C for the management of abnormal uterine bleeding as it allows for the direct visualization of any uterine abnormality as well as simultaneously it can treat them.
• In case of Infertility - “Endoscopic evaluation of the intrauterine cavity is the primary method for defining intrauterine abnormalities (leading to infertility)”.
• In case of recurrent abortions also hysteroscopy is useful
“Hysteroscopy forms an integral part of the procedures done to evaluate the cause of recurrent pregnancy loss.”
But hysteroscopy is not useful in recurrent still births. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The width of bracket most commonly used are: | [
"0.017 and 0.021",
"0.014 and 0.024",
"0.018 and 0.028",
"0.010 and 0.020"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Connector's height for ceramic fixed partial dentures is | [
"2 mm",
"4 mm",
"6 mm",
"8 mm"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Fatal dose morphine is: BHU 12 | [
"100 mg",
"200 mg",
"300 mg",
"500 mg"
] | B | Ans. 200 mg | train | med_mcqa | null |
A female is dead in the emergency depament due to burns after cooking gas explosion. Her parents gave evidence against her husband's family. Investigation in a case of Dowry death is done by? | [
"Magistrate",
"Panel",
"Supreme cou",
"Police"
] | A | Inquest should be conducted by a Magistrate or police officer not below the rank of deputy superintendent of police, and autopsy should be carried out by two doctors in case of dowry death, or if the age of the woman is less than 30 years, who dies in suspicious circumstances. Ref: The essentials of forensic medicine and toxicology by Narayan Reddy, 27th edition, Page 259. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Prolonged treatment with INH leads to a deficiency of? | [
"Pyridoxine",
"Thiamine",
"Pantothenic acid",
"Niacin"
] | A | Isoniazid can cause peripheral neuropathy due to deficiency of pyridoxine. | train | med_mcqa | null |
In non-competitive enzyme action: | [
"Vmaxis increased",
"Apparent km is increased",
"Apparent km is unchanged",
"Concentration of active enzyme moleculeis reduced."
] | C | Ans. C. Apparent km is unchangedNon-Competitive inhibition- The inhibitor and the substrate binds at different sites on the enzyme. It can bind either free enzyme or the ES complex, thereby preventing the reaction from occurring.In this inhibition Km value is Unchanged and Vmax decreases. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Alkaptonuria an inherited metabolic disorder is due to the deficiency of | [
"Homogentisate oxidase",
"Cystathionase",
"Pheylalanine hydroxylase",
"Tyrosine transaminase"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 32-year-old woman is confirmed as being 6 weeks pregnant. She feels well, and has no past medical history. This is her second pregnancy; the first pregnancy was uncomplicated and she delivered at term, but the baby was anemic due to beta-thalassemia. She is now worried that the current pregnancy may also be affected. Which of the following methods is most likely to establish an accurate prenatal diagnosis? | [
"fetal ultrasound at 12 weeks",
"cord blood electrophoresis",
"chorionic villus sampling",
"buccal mucosal cytology of both parents"
] | C | Chorionic villus sampling in the first trimester with deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA)-based diagnosis has a high degree of accuracy. Cord blood electrophoresis is suitable for screening high-risk infants at birth. | train | med_mcqa | null |
True about fovea centralis: | [
"Cones present",
"Visual acquity lowest",
"Optic nerve passes",
"Rods present"
] | A | Ans. Cones present | train | med_mcqa | null |
Cycle which is absent in humans is | [
"Menstrual cycle",
"Ovarian cycle",
"Hormonal cycle",
"Estrous cycle"
] | D | . | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 5 year old has burn on the surface of his body corresponding to the size of his palm. The percentage of burns is? | [
"1%",
"5%",
"10%",
"9%"
] | A | Reff: The snopsis of forensic medicine& Toxicology 28th edition pg: 165 Palmar surface of patient's hand is about 1% of body surface area. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which one of the following drugs exacerbate reflux esophagitis? | [
"Cisapride",
"Chlorpropamide",
"Theophylline",
"Metoclopramide"
] | C | . | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 62-year-old woman presents with fever, cough, sputum production, and pleuritic chest pain. CXR reveals a right middle lobe infiltrate, and she is started on antibiotics for the treatment of pneumonia. Her sputum Gram stain is positive for S. pneumoniae. Which of the following immunologic mechanisms is the most specific host defense against pneumococcal infection? | [
"intact splenic function",
"intact complement function",
"IgG antibody directed against capsular antigens",
"alveolar macrophages"
] | C | The most specific immunologic defense is directed at capsular antigens and is serotype specific. Antibodies are not naturally occurring, but are the result of prior colonization, infection, or vaccination. Intact spleen, complement and macrophage function is important in clearance of pneumococci from sterile areas, but specific immunoglobulin G (IgG) antibody coating of a pneumococcal polysaccharide capsule is essential for macrophages to ingest and kill the bacteria. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 20 year old patient presented with early pregnancy for Medical termination of Pregnancy (MTP) in day care facility. What will be the anaesthetic induction agent of choice ? | [
"Thiopentone",
"Ketamine",
"Propofol",
"Diazepam"
] | C | Propofol is considered the anaesthesia of choice for day care surgery (out patient surgery) as induction is smooth & pleasant and recovery is rapid. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Sensory nerve supply of pinna is: | [
"Mandibular nerve",
"Maxillary nerve",
"Facial nerve",
"Abducent nerve"
] | A | Auriculotemporal nerve, a branch of mandibular nerve (V3) supplies the external acoustic meatus, external surface of auricle above this, skin of temporal region and TM joint. | train | med_mcqa | null |
28 year old pregnant female came to you with complaints of brownish pigmentation on the bridge of nose and cheek. She noticed it after returning from her vacation at beach. There is no pain or itching at the affected site. What is your most likely diagnosis? | [
"Chloasma",
"Photodermatitis",
"SLE",
"Acne rosacea"
] | A | This patient is pregnant and has noted the pigmentation after a period of exposure to the sun during her vacation, both these factors act as triggers for the development of chloasma. It is symmetrically seen on cheeks, nose, forehead and chin. Chemical peeling using glycolic acid and trichloroacetic acid is an impoant method of treatment. Medical treatment can be done using topical hydroquinone or azelaic acid. Ref: Illustrated Synopsis of Dermatology and Sexually Transmitted Diseases By Neena Khanna 2ND edn page 135. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 65-year-old obese man (body mass index =32 kg/m2) presents with a 2-year history of difficulty walking. Physical examination reveals chronic ulcers in the lower extremities. Funduscopic examination reveals proliferative retinopathy. Thickening of small vessel basement membranes in the patient is most likely related to abnormalities in which of the following cellular and biochemical processes? | [
"Amyloidosis",
"Collagenous fibrosis",
"Glycosylation",
"Immunoglobulin deposition"
] | C | Increased deposition and glycosylation of basement membrane proteins contribute to the pathogenesis of diabetic microvascular disease. Thus, control of blood glucose remains the major means by which the development of microvascular diabetic complications can be minimized. The other choices do not preferentially accumulate in small vessels affected by diabetes.Diagnosis: Diabetic microvascular disease | train | med_mcqa | null |
Left medial sector contains segment | [
"III, IV",
"II, III",
"I, II",
"I, IV"
] | A | Left medial sector contains segment III and IV Left lateral sector contains only one segment II Ref: Sabiston 20th edition Pgno : 1421-1422 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most commonly used graft for repair of aoa is | [
"Autologous vein",
"Autologous aery",
"Dacron",
"PTFE"
] | C | Dacron graft A Dacron graft is made out of a man-made (synthetic) polyester material. It is used to replace natural body tissues. Most Dacron grafts are in the shape of a tube to replace or repair blood vessels. A Dacron graft can be used as a stent to repair an aery, blood vessel, or other hollow structure in your body (such as the tube that carries urine) to hold it open. The graft causes very few reactions. It has no harmful chemicals and is easy for our bodies to tolerate. When it is used in blood vessels, our bodies grow a new lining to the graft over time that is like our natural blood vessel linings. Imrovements to Dacron grafts have reduced the risk of graft infection, but infections can still occur. | train | med_mcqa | null |
After Renal transplantaton, which drug is given:a) Cyclophosphamideb) Corticosteroidsc) Interferond) Cyclosporine | [
"c",
"d",
"ab",
"bd"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Ujjwala is for - | [
"Child abuse",
"Child trafficking",
"Child labour",
"None"
] | B | Ujjawala ,a comprehensive scheme to combact trafficking was launched in infia by the Ministry of Women and Child Development.REF.PARK'S TEXTBOOK OF PREVENTIVE AND SOCIAL MEDICINE.Editon-21.Page no.-542 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Characteristic radiological finding in sarcoidosis- | [
"Parenchymal disease",
"Unilateral hilar lymphadenopathy",
"Bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy",
"Miliary shadow"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy "The characteristic radiologicalfinding in patients with pulmonary sarcoidosis is bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy ". | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is used in the treatment of well differentiated thyroid carcinoma | [
"I131",
"99m Tc",
"32p",
"MIBG"
] | A | Iodine scintigraphy with I 123 and I 131 is used to evaluate the functional status of the gland. Advantages of scanning with I 123 include a low dose of radiation and sho half-life. I 123 is a good choice for evaluating suspected lingual thyroids or substernal goiters. I 131 has a longer half-life and emits higher levels of b-radiation. I 131 is optimal for imaging thyroid carcinoma and is the screening modality of choice for the evaluation of distant metastasis. RAI (I 131 ) has several paicular purposes in the treatment of DTC after thyroidectomy, including Ablation of remnant thyroid tissue to facilitate detection of later disease recurrence by imaging and Tg assay, Adjuvant therapy with the intention of targeting occult metastatic disease, and Primary treatment of known persistent disease Technetium 99m peechnetate (99mTc) is taken up rapidly by the normal activity of follicular cells. 99mTc has a sho half-life and low radiation dose. Its rapid absorption allows quick evaluation of increased uptake ("hot") or hypofunctioning ("cold") areas of the thyroid . Malignancy is present in 15% to 20% of cold nodules and in less than 5% of hot nodules. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Complication of total parenternal nutrition is - | [
"CHF",
"Hvpochloremia",
"Metabolic acidosis",
"Leukopenia"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e.. Metabolic acidosis Complications of Parenteral NutritionMechanical complicationsMechanical complications may occur during central line placement. These include pneumothorax, brachial plexus injury, subclavian or carotid artery puncture, hemothorax, and chylothorax etc. Thrombosis or pulmonary embolism may occur secondary to central venous catheter use.Infectious complicationsSepsis occurs secondary to contamination of the central venous catheterMetabolic complicationsMetabolic complications can be divided into Early or nutrient related and Late or related to long term administration. Early complications include, among others, hyperglycemia, refeeding syndrome, and lipid metabolism abnormalities. Complications associated with long-term PN infusion include steatosis, cholestasis, and metabolic bone disease.Hyperglycemia-is the most common metabolic complication associated with PN administration.Hypoglycemia- Abrupt discontinuation of TPN can produce rebound hypoglycemia in patients with limited oral intake.HyperlipidemiaRefeeding syndrome -Refeeding syndrome is defined as severe electrolyte and fluid shifts that may result from refeeding after severe weight loss (protein-calorie malnutrition).In starvation, energy is derived principally from fat metabolism. TPN results in a shift from fat to glucose as the predominant fuel, and rapid anabolism increases the production of phosphorylated intermediates of glycolysis. These intermediates trap phosphate, producing profound hypophosphatemia. Hypophosphatemia is the hallmark of the refeeding syndromeand has been reported in patients being repleted both parenterally and enteral ly.Hypokalemia and hypomagnesemia also occur.The lack of phosphate and potassium lead to a relative ATP deficiency, resulting in the insidious onset of respiratory failure and reduced cardiac stroke volume. The refeeding syndrome can be life threatening if not promptly treated.Because of these risks, the rate ofTPN administration in a severly malnourished patient should be slowly increased over several days.Hepatobiliary complications -Hepatic dysfunction is a common manifestation of long-term parenteral nutrition support. It includes elevated serum transaminases and alkaline phosphatase. Steatosis, steatohepatitis, lipidosis, chloestasis, fibrosis and cirrhosis can occur. Although these abnormalities are usually benign and transient, more serious and progressive disease can develop in a small subset of patients, usually after 16 weeks of PN.Biliary complications include acalculous cholecystitis, gallbladder sludge, and cholelithiasis.Metabolic Bone disease - Including osteomalacia or osteopenia may be seen with long-term TPN. Complications of Total Parentral NutritionCatheter RelatedMetabolic complicationo Infection (Systemic sepsis, infective endocarditis)o Azotemiao Injuries due to cathetero Essential fatty acid def.* Hydrothorax, hemothorax, pneumothoraxo Fluid overload* Cardiac tamponadeo Metabolic bone ds.* Injuries to arteries & veinso Liver dysfunction* Injuries to thoracic duct, nerveso Glucose imbalance (Hyperglycemia, hypoglycemia)o Thrombotic complicationo Trace elements & vitamin deficiencyo Air embolism, catheter embolismo Electrolyte abnormalities * Hypernatremia, hyponatremia * Hyperkalemia, hypokalemia * Hyperphosphatemia, hypophosphatemia * Hypermagnesemia, hypomagnesemia * Hypercalcemia, hypocalcemia * High serum zinc, low serum zinc * High serum copper, low serum copper * Hyperchloremic metabolic acidosis | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is a true statement about smooth muscle ? | [
"Have multiple nuclei",
"Have striations",
"Sarcomeres are absent",
"There are cross bridges formed in the smooth muscle during contraction"
] | C | Smooth muscle cells Lack sarcomeres. Instead, actin filaments are arranged obliquely in the cytoplasm. Some filaments have their plus ends anchored at points in the plasma membrane termed dense plaques, whereas other filaments have plus ends anchored in dense bodies in the cytosol. Option 1: Skeletal (not smooth) muscles have multiple nuclei in the sarcoplasm, just beneath the sarcolemma. Option 2: Striations are present in skeletal & cardiac muscles (not smooth muscles). Striations appear due to regular arrangement of myofilaments in sarcomeres. Option 4: Unlike skeletal muscle, there are no cross bridges formed in the smooth muscle during contraction but instead it has a regulatory protein molecule called calmodulin. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Osteomeatal complex (OMC) connects- | [
"Nasal cavity with maxillary sinus",
"Nasal cavity with sphenoid sinus",
"The two nasal cavities",
"Ethmoidal sinus with ethmoidal bulla"
] | A | The osteomeatal complex is a narrow anatomical region consisting of:-
Multiple bony structures (middle turbinate, uncinate process, Bulla ethmoidalis).
Air spaces (frontal recess, ethmoidal infundibulum, middle meatus)
Ostia of anterior ethmoidal, maxillary and frontal sinuses → , therefore, connects these sinuses to nasal cavity. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Red keratin precipitates are seen in - | [
"Granulomatous uveits",
"Hemorrhagic uveitis",
"Old healed uveitis",
"Acute anterior uveitis"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Hemorrhagic uveitisKeratic precipitates (KPs)o KPs are proteinaceous cellular deposits occurring at the back of cornea (corneal endothelial deposits). Keratic precipitates are formed by the aggregation of polymorphonuclear cells, lymphocytes, and epithelioid cells. In the setting of uveitis, the microscopic appearance of KP may yield important diagnostic clues for the identification of the underlying inflammatory disorderMutton fat KP:- Large, yellowish KPs, are characteristic of granulomatous uveitis. These are composed of epithelioid cells and macrophages. They are large, thick fluffy, lardaceous KPs, having a greasy or waxy appearance.Small or medium KPs (granular KPs):- These are composed of lymphocytes and are characteristic of non-granulomatous uveitis. These are small, round and whitish precipitatesRed KPs:- Composed of RBCs and inflammatory cells. These are seen in hemorrhagic uveitis.Old KPs:- In healed uveitis. The above described KPs shrink, fade, become pigmented and irregular in shape with crenate margins. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The following is not an immunomodulator | [
"Tacrolimus",
"Cyclosporin",
"Cylcoserin",
"Sirolimus"
] | C | Cycloserine is an antibiotic. Remaining all are immune-modulators which are calcineurin inhibitors.Ref: Katzung 13th ed Pg 1135 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Vertical compaction of warm gutta-percha technique
was given by? | [
"Grossman",
"Ingle",
"Schilder",
"Cohen"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
True about prion protein diseases is all, except ? | [
"Myoclonus is seen in 10% of the patients",
"Caused by infectious protein",
"Brain biopsy is diagnostic",
"Commonly manifests as dementia"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Myoclonus is seen in 10% of patients | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following drugs can cause torsedes points | [
"Quinidine",
"Lignocaine",
"Esmolol",
"Flecainide"
] | A | Torsedes'de point is a polymorphic ventricular tachycardia that is usually caused due to blockade of delayed rectifier potassium channels in the hea It manifest in ECG as QTc prolongation Drugs having cardiac potassium channel blocking activity can cause this Arrythymia. These include : Class 1a anti Arrythymics:quinidine,procainamide( Sodium and potassium channel blocker) Class 3 anti arrhythmia:bretylium,sotalol. Other drugs like terfenadine ,cisapride Refer katzung 10e 224, KDT 6/e 510 | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 32-year-old female, asymptomatic, not requiring blood transfusion, presents with Hb 13.0 gm/dl. Her HbE levels are 95%, Hb A2 1.5%. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis - | [
"Hereditary persistence of fetal hemoglobin",
"Beta homozygous thalassemia",
"Thalassemia intermedia",
"Beta heterozygous thalassemia"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Mosquitoes whose larvae lie horizontal on water and thus rest parallel to surface of water | [
"Anopheles",
"Aedes",
"Culex",
"Mansonides"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 15-year-old female presented to the emergency depament with history of recurrent epistaxis, hematuria and hematochezia. There was a history of profuse bleeding from the umbilicus stump at bih. Previous investigations revealed normal prothrombin time, activated paial thromboplastin time, thrombin time and fibrinogen levels. Her platelet counts as well as platelet function tests were normal but urea clot lysis test was positive. Which one of the following clotting factor is most likely to be deficient- | [
"Factor X",
"Factor XI",
"Factor XII",
"Factor XIII"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e. Factor XIII o Individuals with a positive bleeding history, paicularly with features such as delayed bleeding, umbilical stump bleeding or miscarriages and in whom the initial panel of screening test is negative, should be tested for Factor XIII deficiency. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following disease show fibrinoid necrosis? | [
"Tuberculosis",
"Vasculitis",
"Abscess",
"Pancreatitis"
] | B | Fibrinoid necrosis is a special form of necrosis usually seen in immune reactions involving blood vessels. This pattern of necrosis typically occurs when complexes of antigens and anti- bodies are deposited in the walls of aeries. Deposits of these "immune complexes," together with fibrin that has leaked out of vessels, result in a bright pink and amorphous appearance in H&E stains, called "fibrinoid" (fibrin-like) by pathologists | train | med_mcqa | null |
Drug used in the treatment of resistant gonorrhoea is : | [
"Penicillin",
"Cotrimoxazole",
"Spectinomycin",
"Erythromycin"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
What is true about ulcerative colitis | [
"Involves rectum and then whole colon backwards",
"Involves only colon",
"Skip lesions seen",
"Ileum not involved"
] | A | Classically, ulcerative colitis begins in the rectum, and in continuity extends upwards into the sigmoid colon, descending colon, transverse colon, and sometimes may involve the entire colon. The colonic contents may rarely backflow into the terminal ileum in continuity, causing 'back-wash ileitis' in about 10% of cases. Grossly, the characteristic feature is the continuous involvement of the rectum and colon without any uninvolved skip areas compared to Crohn's disease. TEXTBOOK OF PATHOLOGY 6TH EDITION HARSH MOHAN PAGE NO:567,568 IMAGE REF: GENERAL AND SYSTEMIC PATHOLOGY RAMDAS 2ND EDITION, PAGE 509 | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 32 year old pregnant woman presents with 36 week pregnancy with complaints of pain abdomen and decreased fetal movements. Upon examination PR= 96/min, BP = 156/100 mm Hg, FHR = 128 bpm. On per-vaginum examination there is altered blood seen and cervix is soft 1 cm dilated. What is the preferred management? | [
"Tocolytics",
"Induce labour",
"Immediate LSCS",
"Wait and watch"
] | B | This appears to be a case of abruption with a normal fetal hea rate. The patient should be induced to expedite delivery with a strict watch over maternal vitals and fetal hea rate | train | med_mcqa | null |
The last tributary of the azygos vein is | [
"Right superior intercostal vein",
"Hemi-azygos vein",
"Right bronchial vein",
"Accessory azygos vein"
] | C | Right bronchial vein near the terminal end of azygos vein. BD CHAURASIA'S HUMAN ANATOMY VOLUME 1. 6TH Edition. page no-224 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Lyre sign is seen in- | [
"Meningioma",
"Acoustic neuroma",
"Sagittal sinus thrombosis",
"Carotid body tumor"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Carotid body tumor * Lyre sign refers to splaying of the internal and external carotid artery at the bifurcation of the common carotid artery caused by carotid body tumor. Classically described on angiography it is also visible on CT angiography. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Nicotine replacement therapy is available in all forms EXCEPT | [
"Chewing gum",
"Lozenges",
"Patch",
"Tablets"
] | D | Tablets REF: Harrison 17'h ed chapter 390 Effective pharmacologic interventions for tobacco addiction (i) First-line therapies Nicotine gum Nicotine patch Nicotine nasal inhaler Nicotine oral inhaler Nicotine lozenge Bupropion Varenicline (ii) Second-line therapies Clonidine | train | med_mcqa | null |
An open wound contracts by | [
"Stretching of surrounding tissues",
"Epithelial growth",
"Skin grafting",
"Fibroblast proliferation"
] | D | Direct quote: "Perhaps the feature that most clearly differentiates primary from secondary wound healing is the phenomenon of wound contraction. The initial steps of contraction involve the formation of a network of acting containing fibroblasts at the edge of the wound. Permanent wound contraction requires the action of myofibroblasts. Contraction of these cells at the wound site decrease the gap between the dermal edges of the wound". Also, Know Classification of wound healing By primary intention Wound edges opposed. Normal healing, Minimal scar By secondary intention Wound left open. Heals by granulation wound contraction and epithelialization. Increased inflammation of proliferation Poor scar By teiary intention (also called delayed primary intention) Wound initially left open. Edges later opposed when healing conditions orable. Ref: Robbin's Pathology, 9th edn. Pg. 113, Bailey Love's, 25th edn. Pg. 25, Summary Box 3.2. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most common degenerative change in fibroid seen in post menopausal women is | [
"Hyaline degeneration",
"Cystic degeneration",
"Red degeneration",
"Calcareous degeneration"
] | B | Cystic degeneration is most common in post menopausal females. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 27-year-old man is seen with a history of chronic sinus and pulmonary infections. He works as a salesperson in a retail outlet and denies any specific occupational exposure. He lives with his wife of 4 years and has no children. Family and travel history is noncontributory. On examination, he is in no acute distress. Lung exam reveals crackles in both lower lung zones and extremities show no clubbing. CXR is shown below.The most likely diagnosis is | [
"IgA deficiency",
"Kaagener syndrome",
"Aspiration pneumonia",
"Cystic fibrosis"
] | B | This x-ray shows a bilateral lower zone hazy density with small cystic-appearing shadows. There is dextrocardia with situs inversus totalis, i.e., a right aoic arch, the stomach bubble on the right side, and the left diaphragm higher than the right. The chest x-ray shows dextrocardia and bilateral bronchiectasis as seen in immotile cilia syndrome. Kaagener syndrome is the immotile cilia syndrome with situs inversus totalis.This is an autosomal recessive disease characterized by structural and functional abnormalities of the cilia resulting in impaired mucus clearance, recurrent infection, chronic sinobronchial infections, and infeility. Frontal sinuses are often absent or hypoplastic. Chronic mucus impaction and infections lead to bronchiectasis. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The best approach to prevent cholera epidemic in a community is | [
"Mass chemoprophylaxis with tetracycline",
"Vaccination of all individuals",
"Health education",
"Safe water and sanitation"
] | C | • Pattenkoffer advocated for improving local sanitary conditions as ‘the best way to prevent or stop cholera epidemics.’
• Robert Koch believed that quarantine and disinfection can only prevent cholera. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Induced fit hypothesis was proposed by | [
"Koshland",
"Niemann",
"Krisch",
"Marfan"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 2 year old child has a Mantoux test reading of 12 mm × 12 mm after 48 hours. In this case : | [
"Anti – TB drugs should be started even if x–ray chest and haemogram are normal",
"Treatment should be started only if x–ray chest and haemogram are suggestive",
"One should wait till overt sign of TB appear",
"No treatment is required"
] | A | Positive tuberculine test in 2 yrs. old child confirms T.B. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Child having perianal pruritus with following eggs is due to: | [
"E. vermicularis",
"Ascaris",
"Ankylostoma duodenale",
"S. stercoralis"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., E. Vermicularis(Ref: Harrison, 19th/e, p. 1416)* Most pinworm infections are asymptomatic, the others name of Enterobius vermicularis are Pinworm, threadworm, seatworm.* Perianal pruritis is the cardinal symptom. The itching is worse at night and disturbes sleep.* Heavy infections can cause abdominal pain and weight loss.* NIH swab is used for diagnosis. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is not a feature of Syndenham's chorea? | [
"Hypotonia",
"Unintelligible speech",
"Emotional lability",
"Seizures"
] | D | Sydenham chorea (SC) is a neurological disorder of childhood resulting from infection Group A beta-hemolytic streptococcus (GABHS), the bacterium that causes rheumatic fever. SC is characterized by rapid, irregular, and aimless involuntary movements of the arms and legs, trunk, and facial muscles. Sydenham's chorea is characterized by the abrupt onset (sometimes within a few hours) of neurologic symptoms, classically chorea, usually affecting all four limbs. Other neurologic symptoms include behavior change, dysahria, gait disturbance, loss of fine and gross motor control with resultant deterioration of handwriting, headache, slowed cognition, facial grimacing, fidgetiness and hypotonia. Also, there may be tongue fasciculations ("bag of worms") and a "milk sign", which is a relapsing grip demonstrated by alternate increases and decreases in tension, as if hand milking. Non-neurologic manifestations of acute rheumatic fever are carditis, ahritis, erythema marginatum, and subcutaneous nodules. The PANDAS (pediatric autoimmune neuropsychiatric disorders associated with streptococcal infections) syndrome is similar, but is not characterized by Sydenham's motor dysfunction. PANDAS presents with tics and/or a psychological component (e.g., OCD) and occurs much earlier, days to weeks after GABHS infection rather than 6-9 months later. It may be confused with other conditions such as lupus and Tourette syndrome. Movements cease during sleep, and the disease usually resolves after several months. Unlike in Huntington's disease, which is generally of adult onset and associated with an unremitting autosomal dominant movement disorder and dementia, neuroimaging in Sydenham's chorea is normal and other family members are unaffected. Other disorders that may be accompanied by chorea include abetalipoproteinemia, ataxia-telangiectasia, biotin-thiamine-responsive basal ganglia disease, Fahr disease, familial dyskinesia-facial myokymia (Bird-Raskind syndrome) due to an ADCY5 gene mutation, glutaric aciduria, Lesch-Nyhan syndrome, mitochondrial disorders, Wilson disease, hypehyroidism, lupus erythematosus, pregnancy (chorea gravidarum), and side effects of ceain anticonvulsants or psychotropic agent Ref Davidson 23rd edition pg 1025 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Pre-exposure prophylaxis for Rabies is given on | [
"Days 0, 3, 7, 14, 28, 90",
"Days 0, 3, 7, 28, 90",
"Days 0, 3",
"Days 0, 7, 28"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Lt ureter is related to: | [
"Quadratus Lumborm",
"Lt gonadal vessels",
"Superior mesenteric vein",
"All"
] | B | . B. i.e. Lt. gonadal vessels | train | med_mcqa | null |
True about hemochromatosis is - | [
"Iron deficiency anemia is caused",
"Kayser Fleischer ring is seen in eyes",
"DM and slate grey discolouration of skin",
"Autosomal dominant is the most common form"
] | C | (C) (DM and slate gray discoloration of the skin) (42, 627 Harsh Mohan 6th) (629 Robbins Basic pathology 9th)HemochromatosisTRIAD:1) Pigmentary liver cirrhosis.2) Diabetes mellitus (Pancreatic damage)3) Skin Pigmentation]BRONZE DIABETES* The most common form is an autosomal recessive disease of adult onset caused by a mutation in the HFE gene.A) Idiopathic or hereditary hemochromatosis:* There is a defect in the regulation of intestinal absorption of dietary iron, leading to net iron accumulation of 0.5 to 1.0 g/year.* Hepcidin, produced by the liver, form a web of iron, metabolic control networks that are only recently become elucidated.* Deposits sites - liver, pancreas, spleen, heart and endocrine glands *** Manifests typically after 20 gm of storage iron has accumulated.B) Secondary or acquired hemochromatosis:* Multiple blood transfusion.* Ineffective erythropoiesis (as in G thalassemia and myelodysplastic syndrome).* Increased iron intake.The occurrence of hepatocellular carcinoma is a late complication of hemochromatosis - induced cirrhosis.* K.F. Ring (produced by the alloy of copper in the eye seen in Chalcosis - deposited in Descemet's membrane of the cornea. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is false about Coronaviruses? | [
"These viruses have club-shaped peplomers on their surface",
"SARS spreads mainly by inhalation",
"SARS virus is highly mutable",
"It doesn't spread through coughing, sneezing or direct contact"
] | D | Corona virus spreads through coughing, sneezing and close personal contact such as touching mouth, nose Coronaviruses are a group of spherical or pleomorphic enveloped RNA viruses having club or petal shaped peplomers. Coronaviruses are named for the crown-like spikes on their surface. Coronaviruses cause cold, severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS) and Middle eastern respiratory syndrome (MERS). They spread by inhalation of the virus present in droplets or aerosols of respiratory secretions of the patients. The virus is highly mutable and so vaccine prophylaxis is difficult. Basic protective measures against the new coronavirus: (SARS CoV 2) Wash your hands frequently for atleast 20 seconds. Maintain social distancing- Maintain at least 1 metre distance e distance between yourself and anyone who is coughing or sneezing Avoid touching eyes, nose and mouth Practice respiratory hygiene- cover your mouth and nose with your bent elbow or tissue when you cough or sneeze, then dispose of the used tissue immediately. If you have fever, cough and difficulty breathing, seek medical care early Stay informed and follow advice given by your healthcare provider Reference: Ananthanarayan and Paniker&;s Textbook of Microbiology Tenth edition | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following binds to viral envelope glycoprotein preventing the conformational changes required for the fusion of viral and cellular membranes? | [
"Abacavir",
"Indinavir",
"Enfuviide",
"Oseltamivir"
] | C | Enfuviide is a fusion inhibitor useful in the treatment of HIV infections. It acts by binding to HIV-I envelope transmembrane glycoprotein (gp41) which is involved in fusion of viral and cellular membranes. Abacavir is a NI Indinavir is a protease inhibitor Oseltamivir is a neuramindase inhibitor. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most common cause of Asherman's svndrome- | [
"Dilatation & curettage",
"Tubercular endometritis",
"Amenorrhea",
"Oligomenorrhea"
] | A | Ans. is "a' i.e.. Dilatation & curettage o It is a condition characterized by adhesions and/or fibrosis of the endometrium most often associated with dilation and curettage of the intrauterine cavity.o The history of a pregnancy event followed by a D&C leading to secondary' amenorrhea or hvpomenorrhea is typical, | train | med_mcqa | null |
The triad of general anaesthesia includes | [
"Unconsciousness, analgesia and muscle relaxation",
"Anxiolysis, analgesia and unconsciousness",
"Muscle relaxation, sedation and analgesia",
"Dissociation, analgesia and muscle relaxation"
] | A | The triad of general anesthesia : Unconsciousness (narcosis) analgesia muscle relaxation The pentad of anesthesia: Loss of consciousness loss of reflex response amnesia muscle relaxation analgesia Ref: Miller's anesthesia 8th edition Ref: Morgan & Mikhail's clinical anesthesiology 6e | train | med_mcqa | null |
Drugs used in chronic hea failure all except | [
"Isosorbide nitrate",
"Lisinopril",
"Spironolactone",
"Losaan"
] | A | Ref: R Alagappan - Manual of Practical Medicine 4th Edition.pg no:166 Aldosterone antagonist (spironolactone, eplerenone) These medicines prevent your body from producing too much of the hormone aldosterone that can damage your hea. Common side effects of aldosterone antagonists: Changes in kidney function Hydralazine and nitrates (Apresoline, Nitrobid, Imdur, Isordil) Hydralazine and nitrates are often used together to treat hea failure. They dilate blood vessels so it's easier for your hea to receive and pump blood. Common side effects of hydralazine and nitrates: Dizziness Headache Digoxin (Lanoxin) This medicine slows hea rate and might improve the pumping ability of your hea. You'll get a blood test to make sure the dose you're taking is right for you. Common side effects of digoxin: Nausea Poor appetite Diuretics: furosemide (Lasix), bumetanide (Bumex), torsemide (Demadex), metolazone (Zaroxolyn) These medicines are called water pills because they remove excess fluid from the body to help you breathe easier and feel better. If you take a diuretic once a day, take it in the morning. If you take it twice a day, try to take the second dose no later than 4 p.m. to lessen the urge of going to the bathroom during the night. If you take metolazone plus another diuretic, take metolazone first, about 30 minutes before the other diuretic. ACE inhibitors (lisinopril, captopril) Angiotensin conveing enzyme (ACE) inhibitors reduce the amount of hea-damaging hormones your body produces. They also dilate blood vessels and lower blood pressure to lessen the workload of your hea. Common side effects of ACE inhibitors: Dizziness Changes in kidney function Beta blockers (carvedilol, metoprolol, bisoprilol) These medicines lower hea rate and blood pressure, and protect your hea from ceain substances that can damage your hea. Beta blockers are often staed at a very low dose and then are increased until a dose is reached that works best. Ref Davidson 23rd edition pg 467 | train | med_mcqa | null |
The restoration of body function is known as - | [
"Vocational rehabilitation",
"Medical rehabilitation",
"Social rehabilitation",
"None of these"
] | B | Types of rehabilitation
Medical rehabilitation → Restoration of function.
Vocational rehabilitation → Restoration of the capacity to earn a livelihood.
Social rehabilitation → Restoration of family and social relation.
Psychological rehabilitation → Restoration of personal dignity and confidence. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Urticarial lesions are best described as – | [
"Nonpruritic",
"Bullous",
"Evanescent",
"Macular"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Treatment of choice for recurrent thyrotoxicosis after surgery is:- | [
"Fuher surgery",
"Radioiodine followed by surgery",
"Radioiodine",
"Observation & follow-up"
] | C | In toxic goiter, the thyroid gland will be hyperactive and hence shows increased radioactive Iodine uptake 2 types of treatment option available for these patients Surgery Radioactive Iodine ablation Surgery is the preferred option But if surgery is C/I or even after surgery there is recurrence - then Radioactive iodine ablation is preferred. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Posterior cutaneous nerve of thigh supplies skin overlying: | [
"Medial aspect of thigh",
"Posteroinferior aspect of buttock",
"Scrotum",
"All"
] | D | A i.e. Medial aspect of thigh; B i.e. Posteroinferior aspect of buttock; C i.e. Scrotum | train | med_mcqa | null |
Regarding fovea, which of the following statements is true –a) Has the lowest threshold for lightb) Contains only conesc) Contains only rodsd) Maximum visual acuitye) Is located at apex of optic nerve | [
"acd",
"bcd",
"abc",
"abd"
] | D | Fovea centralis contains only cones; therefore, has maximum visual acuity and lowest threshold for light.
Option d is absurd as there is no apex in the optic nerve. It is orbital apex where the optic nerve enters the eye socket. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Contraindications for Medical aboions are all except: | [
"Age more than 35 years",
"Hemoglobin less than 8 gm%",
"Undiagnosed adnexal mass",
"Uncontrolled seizure disorder"
] | A | Age is no contraindication for medical aboion. Contraindications for medical aboions; Hemoglobin less than 8 gm% Undiagnosed adnexal mass Uncontrolled seizure disorder Uncontrolled coagulation disorders etc | train | med_mcqa | null |
Amoxycillin is better than ampicillin due to : | [
"Better bioavailability if taken with food",
"Lesser bioavailability if taken with food",
"Incidence of diarrhea is higher",
"More active against Shigella and H. influenza"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 23-yeard-old college student has asympt-omatic and hyperpigmented macules on both palms for three weeks. The most appropriate diagnostic test is: | [
"Veneral Diseases research Laboratory (VDRL) test",
"Skin biopsy",
"Serum coigol levels",
"Assay for arsenic in skin, hair & nails"
] | A | A i.e. Veneral Disease Laboratory (VDRL) Estimation of coisol levels are not indicated as only skin lesions without other symptoms is disouring adrenal pathology. Assay of arsenic is not required as arsenic poisoining will always present with systemic symptoms. Skin biopsy is not indicated as only presentation is hyperpigrnented macules. So the answer is straight forward - As secondary syphilis usually presents with B/L symmetrical So the answer is straight forward - As secondary syphilis usually presents with B/L symmetrical | train | med_mcqa | null |
Arrange the following stages of family cycle in chronological sequence: | [
"Formation, Extension, Complete extension, Dissolution, Contraction, Complete contraction",
"Formation, Extension, Contraction, Complete extension, Complete contraction, Dissolution",
"Formation, Contraction, Complete contraction, Extension, Complete extension, Dissolution",
"Formation, Extension, Complete ex... | D | A normal family cycle is conceived as having 6 phases in the following chronological order: Description Beginning of phase End of phase I Formation Marriage Bih of 1st child II Extension Bih of 1st child Bih of last child III Complete extension Bih of last child 1st child leaves home IV Contraction 1st child leaves home Last child leaves home V Completed contraction Last child leaves home 1st spouse dies VI Dissolution 1st spouse dies Death of survivor (extinction) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Duty assigned to village health guide: March 2013 (b) | [
"Manage simple ailments",
"Registration of bih",
"Conduct delivery",
"Immunization"
] | A | Ans. A i.e. Manage simple ailments VHGs should be competent enough to carry out some specific functions in areas such as communicable diseases, environmental sanitation and personal hygiene, MCH care, immunization, family planning, nutrition, registration of vital events, treatment of minor ailments first aid during emergency and mental health. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 32 year old male is a known hypeensive and is being planned for cholecystectomy. Which of the following anaesthetic agents is contraindicated in this person? | [
"Propofol",
"Ketamine",
"Midazolam",
"Etomidate"
] | B | Essentials of medical pharmacology, seventh edition, page no=384 Answer is option2, ketamine Ketamine is dangerous for hypeensives, in ischaemic hea disease(increases cardiac output), in congestive hea failure and in those with raised intracranial pressure(ketamine increases cerebral blood flow and oxygen consumption, but is good for hypovoleimic patients. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Child admitted with meningitis. Examination reveals gram negative diplococci. History of previous similar infection is present with same organism. Which of the following should be suspected? | [
"Complement deficiency",
"Immunoglobulin deficiency",
"T cell",
"8 cell"
] | A | Ans: A (Complement deficiency) Ref: Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine, 17th edition, 2008, Chapter 136, pg: 911 and Nelson Textbook of Pediatrics, 19th editionExplanation:Defects in Complement SystemHost DefectDisease or Therapy Associated With DefectCommon Etioiogic Agent of InfectionC3* Congenital liver disease* SLE* Nephrotic syndrome* S. aureus* S. pneumoniae* Pseudomonas spp* Proteus spc.C5* Congenital* Neisseria spp.* Gram-negative rodsC6,C7,C8* Congenital,* SLE* Neisseria meningitidis* N. qonorrhoeaeAlternativepathway* Sickie cell disease* S. pneumonia* Salmonella spp. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Tentative cut is a feature of - | [
"Fall from the height",
"Homicidal assault",
"Accidental injury",
"Suicidal attempt"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following are used for calculation of fluid replacement in burns | [
"Parkland regime",
"Muir and Burclay regime",
"Evan's formula",
"All the above"
] | D | Parkland regime : It is commonly used . 4ml/%burn/kg body weight / 24 hours . Maximum percentage considered is 50%. volume is given in first year hours, rest given in 16 hours. Muir and Burclay regime : For colloid after 12-24 hours %burns x kg body weight /2 = 1 ration Three rations given in 12 hours . Two rations in second 12 hours . One ration in third 12 hours . Evan's formula : In first 24 hours : Normal saline 1ml/kg/%burns Colloids 1ml/kg/%burns 5% dextrose in water , 2000 ml in adult . In second 24 hours : Half of the volume used in first 24 hours . Ref - Srb's manual of surgery 5/e p133 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Two point discrimination test exhibits maximum sensitivity in? | [
"Shin",
"Toes",
"Finger pads",
"Soles"
] | C | Ans. (c) Finger padsRef: De Jong neurological examination, 7h ed/542* Two-point discrimination is the ability to discern that two nearby objects touching the skin are truly two distinct points, not one. It is often tested with two sharp points during a neurological examination and is assumed to reflect how finely innervated an area of skin is.* The maximum sensitivity for this test is in lips and finger tips which can be remembered as the most sensitive areas in the body. | train | med_mcqa | null |
In Zellweger syndrome, which of the following is absent? | [
"ER",
"Golgi apparatus",
"Mitochondria",
"Peroxisomes"
] | D | Zellweger syndrome is a rare disease characterized by the absence of functional peroxisomes. the long chain fatty acids (C26-C36) are not oxidized. They accumulate in tissues, paicularly in brain, liver and kidney. Hence the disorder is also known as cerebrohepatorenal syndrome. This condition is apparent at bih and is characterized by profound neurologic impairment, victims often dying within a year. Two closely related conditions are neonatal adrenoleukodystrophy and infantile Refsum disease. Zellweger syndrome and these two conditions represent a spectrum of overlapping features, with Zellweger syndrome being the most severe (many proteins affected) and infantile Refsum disease the least severe | train | med_mcqa | null |
The main advantage of composites over unfilled direct
filling resin is their: | [
"Higher solubility in saliva",
"Lower modulous of elasticity",
"esthetic excellence",
"Lower thermal co-efficient of expansion"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Primordial germ cells originate in the | [
"Gonads at the 4th week of embryonic develpment",
"Epiblast at 2nd week of embryonic development",
"Gonads at 2nd month of embryonic development",
"Yolk sac at 4th week of embryonic development"
] | B | Primordial germ cells originate in the epiblast Primordial germ cells (PGCs), also known as primitive sex cells originate in the epiblast at the caudal end of the primitive streak. PGCs are the precursors of gametes in both genders. PGCs arise in the epiblast during the 2nd week of development. They pass through the primitive streak during gastrulation and reach the wall of the yolk sac. They migrate from the yolk sac at the 4th week and reach the developing gonads by the end of the 5th week. Ref: Gray&;s Anatomy 41st edition Pgno: 184 | train | med_mcqa | null |
False about erythema nodosum? | [
"Considered a hypersensitivity reaction",
"Is a lobular panniculitis",
"Overlying skin is red, smooth and shiny",
"Can be seen in TB"
] | B | Erythema nodosum (EN) is a cutaneous reactive septal panniculitis with no vasculitis. Causes: Drugs like OCPs, sulphonamides and Penicillin. Infections - Gp A b haemolytic Streptococcus infection, Brucella, Toxoplasmosis, CMV, E.coli etc. Tuberculosis Sarcoidosis Crohn's disease> Ulcerative colitis SLE, RA, Reiter's Syndrome Sweet Syndrome Pregnancy Malignancy Disease Description Group Affected/Epidemiologic Factors Clinical Syndrome Erythema nodosum (septal panniculitis) - Large, violaceous, nonulcerative, subcutaneous nodules; - exquisitely tender; - usually on lower legs but also on upper extremities. - self limiting following drug withdrawal and usually resolves within 2-4 weeks More common in females 15-30 years old Ahralgias (50%); features vary with associated condition | train | med_mcqa | null |
A patient was on DVT prophylaxis. All of the following has perforations which connect Superficial veins to the deep veins except | [
"Ankle",
"Below inguinal ligament",
"Mid calf",
"Lower thigh"
] | B | With this option, this could be the only possible answer as sho saphenous vein is a tributary of polite all vein which is formed by union of anterior and posterior tibial veins. Ref: Gray's 38e/p38-1597 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Recurrent Neisseria infections are not predisposed by- | [
"Early complement component deficiency",
"Late complement component deficiency",
"Factor D deficiency",
"Properdin deficiency"
] | A | Option 1, 2, 3, 4 Inherited or acquired deficiency of C5-8 (late components) components greatly enhances susceptibility to Neisseria bacteremia and other infections. Deficiency of C3 leads to severe recurrent pyogenic sinusitis and respiratory infections. Deficiency of Properdin and factor D (Alternative pathway Deficiency) lead to Neisserial infection and pyogenic infections. Early complement component (C1, C2, C3, C4) deficiency: SLE, glomerulonephritis and pyogenic infections. | train | med_mcqa | null |
True about Fovea is | [
"Contains only rods",
"Contains only cones",
"Situated above optic disc",
"Contains both rodes & cons"
] | B | Ans: b (Contains only cones)Ref: Ganong, 21rd edi., Pg. 152Fovea contains only cones. Cones play a very important role in color vision and rods in nightvision (dim light) Cones are the visual receptors which imparts to the eye, the ability for color visionThere are 3 types of cone pigments: -Cyanolabe -Erythrolabe -Chlorolabe The other visual receptor -rods is mainly for night vision.The pigment present in rods is rhodopsin.Dark adaptationIt is the adjustment of visual mechanism from bright light vision to dim light vision (i.e. switching from cone vision to rod vision)Visual areas in brainPrimary visual cortex area - 17Visual association area - 18,19Frontal eye field - 8Note: Lateral geniculate body is concerned with vision.Medial geniculate body is concerned with hearing.(Remember- L for light and M for music) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Itchy polygonal violaceous papules seen in - | [
"Psoriasis",
"Pemphigus",
"Lichen planus",
"Pityriasis rosea"
] | C | LICHEN PLANUS:- Inflammatory T cell mediated auto immune disorder affecting skin, hair,nails and mucous membranes.Four Ps- purple , polygonal and pruritic papule.Classic lesion- small polygonal shaped, and red/ violet, flat topped papule. Surface is slightly shiny/ transparent,and a network of fine,white lines called 'Wickhams striae' or small grey white puncta is also seen. Intense itching seen. Koebner phenomenon seen. IADVL textbook of dermatology, page 1070 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Allantoin is the end product of metabolism of - | [
"Glycogen",
"Purine",
"Pyrimidine",
"Histidine"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' Le., Purine o In non-primate mammals, end product of purine metabolism is allantoin due to presence of enzyme uricase. Uricase convenes uric acid to allantoin.o Humans lack the enzyme uricase. Therefore, end product of purine catabolism in humans is uric acid. | train | med_mcqa | null |
What is ligated in Pomeroy method - | [
"Spermatic cord",
"Fallopian tubes",
"Uterine artery",
"Umbilical cord"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Fallopian tubes o Pomeroy's method is a method of doing tubal ligation (female sterilization)o The other procedures for female sterilization are :# Irving method# Madlener procedure# Kroener procedure# Uchida technique | train | med_mcqa | null |
Cricothyroid muscle is supplied by which nerve? | [
"Recurrent laryngeal nerve",
"Internal laryngeal nerve",
"External laryngeal nerve",
"Glossopharyngeal nerve"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., External laryngeal nerve Nerve supply of larynx* The main cranial nerve innervating the larynx is the vagus nerve via its branches; superior laryngeal nerve (SLN) and recurrent laryngeal nerve (RLN).Sensory supply of larynx* Above the level of vocal cords, larynx is supplied by internal laryngeal nerve, a branch of superior laryngeal nerve.* Below the vocal cord, larynx is supplied by recurrent laryngeal nerve.Motor supply of larynx* All the intrinsic muscles of larynx are supplied by recurrent laryngeal nerve except for cricothyroid muscle.* Cricothyroid is supplied by external laryngeal nerve, a branch of superior laryngeal nerve. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A young girl presented with swelling of right thigh, with history of trauma 2 months back. Now she presents with swelling at mid-shaft of femur & low grade fever. ESR is mildly raised. X-ray shows a laminated periosteal reaction. Next line of investigation would be - | [
"MRI",
"Biopsy",
"Bone scan",
"Blood count & CRP"
] | A | OSTEOSARCOMA : Classification * PRIMARY or SECONDARY * PRIMARY OSTEOSARCOMAS (15 - 25 yrs) Conventional /classic osteosarcoma (high grade, intra medullar y) Low-grade intramedullary osteosarcoma Paraosteal osteosarcoma Periosteal osteosarcoma High-grade surface osteosarcoma Telangiectatic osteosarcoma, and Small cell osteosarcoma. * SECONDARY OSTEOSARCOMAS * Osteosarcoma occurring at the site of another disease process. * more common in >50 years of age most commonly a/w premalignant condition like - Paget disease - Previous radiation treatment - endochondromatosis - Fibrous dysplasia - Osteochondromas - Osteogenesis imperfecta Clinical Presentation * Pain- progressive pain paicularly with activity. * Swelling - Palpable mass in the region of metaphysis. - skin over the swelling shiny with prominent veins. - swelling may be warm & tender. * Decreased range of motion of the involved joint. * Lymphadenopathy - unusual focal & regional lymph node involvement. * Respiratory finding - late stage with lung metastasis. * Fever & night sweats are rare. Treatment Radioloical staging Biopsy to confirm diagnosis Preo perat ivhemotherapy Repeat radiological staging (access chemo response, finalize surgical treatmeni Ian) Surgical resecting with wide margin Reconstruction using one of many techniques Post op chemo based on preop response ref : maheswari 9th ed | train | med_mcqa | null |
First hea sound occurs during the period of: | [
"Isovolumetric relaxation",
"Isotonic relaxation",
"Isovolumetric contraction",
"Isotonic contraction"
] | C | First hea sound is a low, slightly prolonged lub caused by vibrations set up by the sudden closure of mitral or tricuspid valves at the sta or ventricular systole and it occurs during the period of Isovolumetric contraction. Ref: Medical Physiology: Principles for Clinical Medicine, 3rd Ed, Page 247 By Rodney Rhoades, David R. Bell, Ph.D | train | med_mcqa | null |
The annual Conversion rate to dementia in patients with mild congnitive impairment is | [
"10%",
"20%",
"30%",
"40%"
] | A | The term mild cognitive impairment (MCI) has been used to describe the transition between normal cognition and Alzheimer dementia. Mild cognitive impairment is recognized as an impoant public health problem as a dementia risk. Annual conversion rates often range from 10% to 15% in clinic samples. Ref Harrison20th edition pg 2765 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Eisenmenger complex is common in adult in – | [
"VSD",
"ASD",
"PDA",
"Cushion defect"
] | A | Eisenmenger syndrome
There are two different terms : -
Eisenmenger syndrome Refers to patients with a ventricular septal defect in which blood is shunted from right to left as a result of the development of pulmonary vascular resistance. This physiologic abnormality can also occur with ASP, atrioventricular septal defect, PDA or any other communication between aorta and pulmonary artery.
Eisenmenger complex Consists of pulmonary hypertension with a VSI providing the right to left shunt.
Eisenmenger physiology is defined by an absolute elevation in pulmonary arterial resistance to greater than 12 wood units or by a ratio of pulmonary to systemic vascular resistance of 1.0.
The pulmonary hypertension is the result of : -
a Early in the course it is due to markdely increased pulmonary blood flow —> Hyperkinetic pulmonary hypertension. This form of pulmonary hypertension decreases with the administration of pulmonary vasodilators or oxygen.
Li With the development of Eisenmenger syndrome pulmonary hypertension is due to pulmonary vascular obstructive disease, i.e., obstructive changes in the pulmonary vessels. This type of pulmonary hypertension only minimally responsive to pulmonary vasodilators or oxygen. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Alpha chain of HCG is identical to all except ? | [
"LH",
"TSH",
"FSH",
"ACTH"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e., ACTH Human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG) HCG is a placental hormone. It is synthesized by the syncytiotrophoblasitc cells of the placental villi It is a glycoprotein It is a dimer and has two dissimilar subunits a Subunits b Subunits But only the b subunit of HCG is typically measured as a tumour marker because of specificity of the b subunit The b subunit of HCG has unique sequences that are not shared with other human glycoprotein hormones. It is detected by radioimmunoassay using antibodies to the b chain. HCG is not used as tumour marker because a unit of the FSH, LH and TSH are identical So there can be cross reactivity between a subunits of these hormone. That is why in case of testicular tumours the patients also undergo simultaneous assay of LH to be ceain that the marker detected is b HCG. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Chest X-ray, most common view is - | [
"AP",
"PA",
"RAO",
"LAO"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., PA o Posteroanterior view of the chest is most commonly used view for chest X-ray."The best view of the chest is the postero-anterior view with the patient standing and lung fully expanded"--Toriano | train | med_mcqa | null |
Features of pyloric stenosis : | [
"Hypokalemic alkalosis",
"Peristalsis right to left",
"Commonly caused by carcinoma stomach",
"Retention vomiting present"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e. hypokalemic alkalosis Gastric peristalsis is seen passing from left to right across the upper abdomen. Retention vomiting means vomiting due to any mechanical obstruction occurring usually hours after ingestion of a meal. In hyperophic pyloric stenosis the vomiting usually occurs 10 to 30 min. after the feed (Though in neglected undiagnosed cases the stomach becomes dilated and the vomiting becomes regurgitant in type occurring only once or twice every 24 hrs) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most common side effect of mifepristone- | [
"Fever",
"Diarrhea",
"Headache",
"Rash"
] | B | Ans-B i.e., Diarrhoea Mifepristone (RU 486)o It is a 19 nor steroid with potent anti progestational and significant antiglucocorticoid and antiandrogenactivity.o It is used in termination of pregnancy, cervical ripening, postcoital contraceptive, once a month contraceptive in induction of labour and to treat Cushing's syndrome.o Commonly reported side effects include vaginal bleedingCrampingNausea,VomitingDiarrheaDizzinessBack painTiredness.o Less common but severe side effects include:Allergic reactionsLow blood pressureLoss of consciousness, infections after abortionRuptured ectopic pregnancyShortness of breathRapid heartbeat (tachycardia)Hematometra (collection of blood in the uterus). | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following organism is catalase positive, coagulase positive, non-motile, facultative anaerobe and do not form spores? | [
"Streptococcus viridians",
"Pneumococcus",
"Staphylococcus aureus",
"Pseudomonas aeruginosa"
] | C | The staphylococci are gram-positive spherical cells, usually arranged in grapelike irregular clusters. They are nonmotile and do not form spores.The staphylococci produce catalase, which differentiates them from the streptococci. Staph.aureus is coagulase positive, which differentiates it from the other speciesReference: Jawetz, Melnick, & Adelberg's Medical Microbiology; 27th edition; Chapter 13; The Staphylococci | train | med_mcqa | null |
The success of a free gingival graft procedure depends upon which of the following | [
"The graft being immobilized at the recipient site",
"The donor tissue being as thick as possible and containing periosteum",
"A thick blood clot remaining between the recipient and donor tissue",
"Periosteal fenestration being present"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 60 year old male presents with a 2 day history of a severe left ear ache with a burning sensation in the ear and loss of taste. There is left sided weakness of both upper and lower facial muscles. Facial sensation is normal. A few vesicles are seen in the pharynx. What is the most likely diagnosis? | [
"Bell's palsy",
"Acoustic neuroma",
"Diphtheria",
"Ramsay Hunt syndrome"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
A mother comes with her 3 year old female child with complain of that child is not eating anything. Her weight is 11 kg (50thpercentile) and height is 88 cm (75lh percentile). What should be done next? | [
"Vitamin rich tonic to be given",
"Forceful eating",
"Nothing should be done actively and assure the patients",
"Complete investigation for UTI"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' Nothing should be done actively and assure the parents (Ref. : Parks, 16/e, p373, Ghai 6/e, p 5, Nelson 17/e, p 40-43)WHO prototype growth chart has 2 reference curves.The upper reference curve represents the median (50th percentile) for boys (slightly higher than that for girls).The lower reference curve the 3rd percentile for girls (slightly lower than that for boys).Thus the chart can be used for both sexes.The space between 2 growth curves has been called the road to health*.If the child is growing normally, its growth line will be above the 3rd percentile and will run parallel to the road to health curves.The girls in the question falls between these 2 reference curves that means that she is growing normally. Therefore she does not require anything. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Least Neonatal mortality rate is seen in - | [
"Delhi",
"Tamil Nadu",
"Karnataka",
"Maharashtra"
] | B | Ans. is 'b? i.e., Tamil Nadu o Overall, least neonatal mortality is recorded in Kerala. However, among the given options Tamilnadu has minimum neonatal mortal tiy.Neonatal mortality rates and percentage share of neonatal deathsto infant deaths by residence. India and major states, 2012India and major statesNeonatal mortality ratePercentage of neonatal deaths to infant deaths TotalRuralUrbanTotalRuralUrbanIndiaAndhra PradeshAssamBiharChhattisgarhDelhiGujaratHaryanaHimachal PradeshJammu & KashmirJharkhandKarnatakaKeralaMadhya PradeshMaharashtraOdishaPunjabRajasthanTamil NaduUttar PradeshWest Bengal29272928311628282630272373918391735153722333331293225333127323029842224116391840231612101228141720151912123231227181811211668[?]565[?]452 164[?]067[?]464[?]972[?]766[?]372[?]277[?]272[?]473[?]058[?]469[?]271[?]374[?]460[?]471[?]071[?]369[?]867[?]670[?]471[?]853[?]566066[?]770-173-267[?]772[?]778-575[?]581[?]563[?]870[?]073[?]074[?]853-772[?]876[?]671[?]968[?]756[?]840[?]630[?]335[?]072[?]463[?]371[?]060[?]960[?]866[?]744[?]448[?]234[?]462[?]366[?]869[?]275[?]658[?]261[?]554[?]062[?]1 | train | med_mcqa | null |
True about SAF | [
"Are self adjusting files",
"Confirms to 3D root canal anatomy",
"Classified in group 4 of ISO classification",
"All of the above"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
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