question stringlengths 1 6.54k | choices listlengths 4 4 | answer stringclasses 4 values | rationale stringlengths 0 22.5k ⌀ | split stringclasses 1 value | dataset stringclasses 6 values | subject stringclasses 1 value |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
The current treatment of choice for a large antrochoanal polyp in a 30-year-old man is: | [
"Intranasal polypectomy",
"Caldwell-Luc operation",
"FESS (Functional Endoscopic Sinus Surgery)",
"Lateral rhinotomy and excision"
] | C | Current treatment of choice of antrochoanal polyp is endoscopic sinus surgery which has superceded other modes of polyp removal in all age groups. In this procedure all polyps are removed under endoscopic control especially from the key area of the osteomeatal complex. This procedure helps to preserve the normal function of the sinuses. FESS can be done under local anesthesia although general anesthesia is preferred Caldwell-Luc operation is avoided these days. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is the drug of choice for absence seizure- | [
"Phenytoin",
"Valproate",
"Carbamazepine",
"Phenobarbitone"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Valproate o The first line druss for absence seizures includes Valproic acid and Ethosuxamide.Selection of antiepileptic DrugsGeneralized-onsetTonic-clonicFocalTypicalAbsenceAtypical Absence, Myoclonic AtonicFirst lineValproic acidLamotrigineTopiramateLamotrigineCarbamazepineOxcarbazepinePhenytoinLevetiracetamValproic acid EthosuximideValproic acidLamotrigineTopiramateAlternativesZonisamidePhenytoinCarbamazepineOxcarbazepinePhenobarbitalPrimdoneFelbamateTopiramateZonisamideValproic acidTiagabineGabapentinLacosamidePhenobarbitalPrimidoneFelbamateLamotrigineClonazepamClonazepamFelbamate | train | med_mcqa | null |
High Reid index is indicative of the disease of- | [
"Pulmonary tuberculosis",
"Bronchial asthma",
"Chronic bronchitis",
"Emphysema"
] | C | Reid's index is a ratio between the thicknss of the submucosal mucus secreting glands and the thickness between the epithelium and cailage that covers the bronchi. Normal Reid's index is less than 0.4, the thickness of the wall is always more than double the thickness of the glands it contains. Chronic smoking causes submucosal gland hyperophy and hyperplasia, leading to a Reid's index of >0.5 indicating chronic bronchitis. Chronic bronchitis can be defined as a chronic productive cough lasting more than 3weeks. have a higher predisposition to develop chronic bronchitis. In chronic bronchitis, Reid's index is increased. Ref Davidson edition23rd pg 574 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which is the most significant finding in cardiotocography for detection of fetal hypoxia? | [
"Late deceleration",
"Variable deceleration",
"Sinusoidal deceleration",
"Early deceleration"
] | A | Late decelerations are smooth falls in the FHR beginning after the contractions has staed and ending after the contractions has ended. They are associated with fetal hypoxemia and potential for perinatal morbidity and moality. Ref:Williams Obs 23e pg 420. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The doctrine of resipsa loquitur means - | [
"Common knowledge",
"Medical maloccurance",
"Fact speaks for itself",
"Oral evidence"
] | C | Ans-C Doctrine of res ipsa loquituro It means "the thing or fact speaks for itself".o In a case of professional negligence of a physician, the patient need not prove negligence.o It is applied when the following conditions are fulfilled :That is the absence of negligence the injury would not have occurred ordinarily.That the doctor had exclusive control over the injury-producing instrument or treatment.That the patient was not guilty of contributory negligence. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A child presents with hepatomegaly and bilateral lenticular opacities. Which of the following enzyme deficiency will NOT cause such features? | [
"Galactose-1 -phosphate uridyl transferase",
"UDP-galactose-4-epimerase",
"Galactokinase",
"Lactase"
] | D | Inability to metabolize galactose occurs in the galactosemias, which may be caused by inherited defects of galactokinase, uridyl transferase, or 4-epimerase, though deficiency of uridyl transferase is best known. Galactose is a substrate for aldose reductase, forming galactitol, which accumulates in the lens of the eye, causing cataract. Ultimately, liver failure and mental deterioration result. Ref: Bender D.A., Mayes P.A. (2011). Chapter 21. The Pentose Phosphate Pathway & Other Pathways of Hexose Metabolism. In D.A. Bender, K.M. Botham, P.A. Weil, P.J. Kennelly, R.K. Murray, V.W. Rodwell (Eds), Harper's Illustrated Biochemistry, 29e. | train | med_mcqa | null |
For which malignancy, intensity Modulated Radiotherapy (IMRT) is the most suitable - | [
"Lung",
"Prostate",
"Leukemias",
"Stomach"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Prostate Currently Intensity modulated radiotherapy is being used to treat cancers of:ProstateHead & NeckBreastThyroidLungGynecologic cancersLiverBrainLymphomasSarcomasIntensity modulated radiation therapy (IMRT) is an advanced mode of high precision radiotherapy that utilizes computer controlled X-ray accelerators to deliver precise radiation doses to a malignant tumour or specific areas within the tumour:The radiation dose is designed to conform to the three dimensional (3-D) shape of the tumour by modulating or controlling the intensity of the radiation beam to focus a higher radiation dose to the tumour while minimizing exposure to surrounding tissues.Note: IMRT can be used to treat lung cancers, but there are several technical reasons to delay the widespread use of IMRT for lung Ca at this time. | train | med_mcqa | null |
PUVA therapy is used in all except: March 2010 | [
"Psoriasis",
"Melasma",
"Albinism",
"Vitiligo"
] | B | Ans. B: Melasma Treatment is currently not very satisfactory for vitiligo. Topical steroid cream. A potent anti-inflammatory coisone cream may reverse the process if applied to the affected areas for a few weeks in their early stages. Calcineurin inhibitors such as topical pimecrolimus and tacrolimus have recently been shown to be safe and effective, and is especially useful on the face and neck where strong steroid creams may cause skin thinning. Narrowband UVB phototherapy is helpful in many patients, paicularly in combination with calcineurin inhibitors, and perhaps with calcipotriol cream (usually used in psoriasis). PUVA. This form of light treatment requires the patient to take a psoralen medicine and then be exposed to ultraviolet light (UVA). Gradual but paial repigmentation may results. Hands and feet respond poorly, faces and trunks do better. When the treatment is stopped, some of the pigment disappears again. PUVA takes less than five minutes twice weekly, and is continued for up to two years. PUVA is unsuitable for children or very fair skinned people. The pigment loss should have been present for less than 5 years. Surgical treatment: Melanocytes transfer Blister grafting | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following milestones develops and differentiates early in a term newborn? | [
"Motor function",
"Social function",
"Cognition",
"Speech"
] | A | During early infancy, the motor system undergoes a variety of differentiations as visual, auditory, and tactile motor mechanisms. In the normal infant, these emerging motor differentiations follow a time schedule prescribed by the maturation of neural connections. The absence of these reflexes in the first few months of life and conversely their persistence beyond this time indicate a defect in cerebral development. Ref: Ropper A.H., Samuels M.A. (2009). Chapter 28. Normal Development and Detions in Development of the Nervous System. In A.H. Ropper, M.A. Samuels (Eds), Adams and Victor's Principles of Neurology, 9e. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Dose of acyclovir in a patient suffering from herpes genitalis is : | [
"200 mg, three times a day for 5 days",
"200 mg, five times a day for 5-7 days",
"600 mg, five times a day for 5 days",
"800 mg, five times a day for 7 days"
] | B | Herpes labialis by HSV-I - T/t acyclovir 200mg 5 T/D 5-7 days or Herpes genitalis by HSV-II Acyclovir 200 mg, five times a day for 5-7 days OR Acyclovir 400mg TDS 5-7 days Herpes zoster- DOC acyclovir 800mg 5 T/D * 7days Chicken pox(varicella zoster)- DOC-Acyclovir 800mg 4T/D 7 days If patient immunocompromised- IV. Acyclovir Incase of acyclovir resistance- foscainet Recurrent (i.e. >6 episodes 1yr) h.labialis -prophylactic Therapy Acyclovir 400mg BD 6 Months | train | med_mcqa | null |
In base metal alloys, corrosion resistance occurs due to | [
"Passivity",
"High fusion temperature",
"High molecular weight",
"Co-efficient of thermal expansion"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Pine - tree bladder is a sign of | [
"Pelvic abscess",
"Neurogenic bladder",
"Bilharziasis",
"Intro peritoneal bladder rupture"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Asher man n syndrome is secondary to - | [
"Tuberculosis",
"Endometrial carcinoma",
"Endometriosis",
"Submucosal fibroid"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Tuberculosis Asherman's syndrome (AS) or Fritsch syndromeo It is a condition characterized by adhesions and/or fibrosis of the endometrium most often associated with dilation and curettage of the intrauterine cavity:o Intrauterine adhesions can also form after infection with tuberculosis or schistosomiasis,o The adhesions may cause amenorrhea (lack of menstrual periods). repeated miscarriages, and infertility:o Pain during menstruation and ovulation is also sometimes experiencedo The history of a pregnancy event followed by a D&C leading to secondary amenorrhea or hypomenorrhea is typicalo Hysteroscopy is ihe gold standard for diagnosis.o Imaging by sonohysterography or hysterosalpingography will reveal the extent of the scar formation.o Treatment involves surgery to cut and remove the adhesions or scar tissue (adhesiolysis). This can usually be done with hysteroscopy:o Progesterone challenge test is negative.Sites of genital TB% involvementTubes90-100%Uterus50-60%Ovaries20-30%Vagina & vulva1-2%o Menstrual problems occurring in TB patients:-Hypomenorrhea/Amenorrhea due to Asherman s syndrome.Polym enorrhea/Menorrhagia | train | med_mcqa | null |
A person who laughs one minute and cries the next without any clear stimulus is said to have | [
"Incongruent affect",
"Euphoria",
"Labile affect",
"Split personality"
] | C | Affect is the subjective and immediate experience of emotion attached to ideas or mental representations of objects. Affect has outward manifestations that can be classified as restricted, blunted, flattened, broad, labile, appropriate, or inappropriate. Labile affect is affective expression characterized by rapid and abrupt changes, unrelated to external stimuli. incongruent affect is seen in schizophrenia where the patient's thought and emotion are not connected split personality is a common name for dissosiative personality disorder Reference: Kaplan & Sadock's Comprehensive Textbook of Psychiatry, Volume 3, 10th Edition, Pg.4558, 4591. Kaplan & Sadock's synopsis Psychiatry, 11th Edition, Pg.308 | train | med_mcqa | null |
The following tumours of skin are radiosensitive, except: | [
"Cutaneous lymphoma",
"Basal cell carcinoma",
"Malignant melanoma",
"Squamous cell carcinoma"
] | C | Ans. Malignant melanoma | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following Vitamin deficiency is seen in sho bowel syndrome ? | [
"Vitamin K",
"Vitamin B 12",
"Vitamin A",
"Vitamin D"
] | B | Sho-bowel syndrome is a disorder clinically defined by malabsorption, diarrhea, steatorrhea, fluid and electrolyte disturbances, and malnutrition. Any disease, traumatic injury, vascular accident, or other pathology that leaves less than 200 cm of ble small bowel or results in a loss of 50% or more of the small intestine places the patient at risk for developing sho-bowel syndrome. Ileal resection severely decreases the capacity to absorb water and electrolytes. In addition, the terminal ileum is the site of absorption of bile salts and vitamin B-12. So those will be deficient in such patients. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The rapid decrease in tensile strength and increase in ductility of a wrought metal is seen in which stage of annealing? | [
"Recovery stage",
"Recrystallisation stage",
"Grain growth stage",
"All of the above"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Consumer Protection Act was passed in | [
"1977",
"1986",
"1993",
"1998"
] | B | Ref: 25th Ed K.Park's Textbook Of Preventive and Social Medicine | train | med_mcqa | null |
Calculate alveolar ventilation per minute of a patient with respiratory rate of 12/min, tidal volume is 500ml. | [
"6 L / min",
"4.8 L / min",
"4.2 L / min",
"4 L / min"
] | C | Alveolar Ventilation
= (Tidal volume - Dead space) X Respiratory rate
= (500 - 150) X 12
= 350 X 12
= 4.2 L / min | train | med_mcqa | null |
Leydig cells secrete- | [
"Inhibin",
"MIS",
"Testosterone",
"Androgen binding protein"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Testosterone Thyroido Thyroxine (T4) & Triiodothyronine (T3) by follicular cells,o Calcitonin by parafollicular cells.Parathyroido Parathormone (PTH)Pancreaso Insulin & amylin by b-cells (B - cells),o Glucagon by a-cells (A - cells),o Somatostatin by d-cells (D - cells),o pancreatic polypeptide by F - cells.Gonadso Testis* Androgens (testosterone & others) by Leydig cells.* ABP, inhibin activin and MIS by sertoli cells,o Ovary* Estrogen by granulosa cells.* Progesterone by theca cells.* Inhibin is secreted by granulosa cells and corpus luteum.* Activin is secreted by granulosa cells.* Relaxin is secreted by granulosa cells.Hypothalamuso Oxytocin by paraventricular nucleus,o ADH by supraoptic nucleus.o GHRH, CRH, TRH, GnRH and prolactin inhibiting hormone. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Energy currency of the cell is | [
"Nucleotide diphosphate",
"Nucleotide triphosphate",
"Deoxynucleotide diphosphate",
"Nuceotide monophosphate"
] | B | Cellular energy can be stored in high-energy phosphate compounds, including adenosine triphosphate (ATP). This ubiquitous molecule is the energy storehouse of the body. On hydrolysis to adenosine diphosphate (ADP), it liberates energy directly to such processes as muscle contraction, active transpo, and the synthesis of many chemical compounds. Loss of another phosphate to form adenosine monophosphate (AMP) releases more energy.(REF: GANONG'S REVIEW OF MEDICAL PHYSIOLOGY -23rd EDITION. Page No-8) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Hawkin sign denotes? | [
"Retained vascularity",
"Non union",
"Decrease vascularity",
"Avascular necrosis"
] | A | Ans. (a) Retained vascularityRef:Rockwood and wilkins' Fractures in children p 1020y Lovell and winter's pediatric orthopaedics vol-l, 6/e,p 1512) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Gas stored in liquid form is: | [
"Carbon dioxide",
"Nitrous oxide",
"Cyclopropane",
"Oxygen"
] | B | Nitrous oxide | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following cause hypothyroidism except | [
"PAS",
"Captopril",
"Lithium",
"Amiodarone"
] | B | Lithium inhibits thyroid hormone release. Amiodarone inhibits peripheral conversion of T4 to T3 and also interfere with thyroid hormone action. PAS inhibit thyroglobulin iodination and coupling reaction. lithium also interfers with thyroid function and cause hypothyroidism mostly REF.Essential of medical pharmacology K D TRIPATHI 6 Edition, Page No - 249 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Dystrophic calcification occur in all except -( | [
"Rheumatic hea disease",
"Lymph node",
"Normal kidney",
"Aneurysm"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Normal kidney | train | med_mcqa | null |
Stem cells are located in which of the following location in the body? | [
"Retina",
"Endometrium",
"Intestine",
"Choana"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Intestine o Stem cells are located in sites called niches. These include :Epidermal stem cells located in the bulge area of the hair follicle serve as a stem cells for the hair follicle and the epidermis.Intestinal stem cells are located at the base of a colon crypt, above Paneth cells.Liver stem cells (commonly known as OVAL cells) are located in the canals of Hering, structures that connect bile ductules with parenchymal hepatocytes.Corneal stem cells are located in the limbus region, between the conjunctiva and the corneaThe bone marrow contains hematopoietic stem cells as well as stromal cells capable of differentiation into various lineages. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Chronic liver disease is caused by - | [
"Hepatitis B",
"Hepatitis A",
"Hepatitis C",
"Hepatitis E"
] | A | HBV causes chronic liver disease or cirrhosis REF:MICROBIOLOGY ANANTHA NARAYANAN NINTH EDITION PAGE.542 | train | med_mcqa | null |
The simplest alloy is a | [
"Solid solution",
"Eutectic alloy",
"Peritectic alloy",
"Ternary alloy"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
The following term is used to describe the impact of school based health education programmes on parents. | [
"Side effect",
"Secondary effect",
"Ripple effect",
"String effect"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 35-year-old woman presents with amenorrhea and weight loss despite increased appetite. The history and physical examination reveal exophthalmos, fine resting tremor, tachycardia, and warm, moist skin. Laboratory tests for thyroid function would be expected to yield a decreased value for which of the following? | [
"Free T4",
"Radioactive iodine uptake",
"T3 resin uptake",
"Thyroid stimulating hormone"
] | D | - Given clinical features suggests the diagnosis of hypehyroidism - Laboratory findings depicted in graves disease are: Decreased TSH levels Increased serum T3, free T4 levels Increased T3 resin upake Increased saturation of TBG Increased radioactive iodine uptake | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following pockets offers best chance for bone regeneration: | [
"Suprabony pocket",
"One - wall infrabony pocket",
"Two - wall infrabony pocket",
"Three - wall infrabony pocket"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which technique can be employed to establish communication with a 5 year old hysterical child? | [
"Audio analgesia",
"Aversive conditioning",
"Implosion therapy",
"Multisensory communication"
] | B | The behavior modification method of aversive conditioning is also known as hand-over-mouth exercise (HOME). Its purpose is to gain the attention of a highly oppositional child so that communication can be established and cooperation obtained for a safe course of treatment. The technique fits the rules of learning theory: maladaptive acts (screaming, kicking) are linked to restraint (hand over mouth), and cooperative behavior is related to removal of the restriction and the use of positive reinforcement (praise). It is important to stress that aversive conditioning should not be used routinely but as a method of last resort, usually with children from three to six years of age who have appropriate communicative abilities. | train | med_mcqa | null |
36 year G2 P1 comes for antenatal visit at 10 weeks gestation. Her first child was female with ambiguous genitalia at birth, died at 6 months of age due to metabolic problem. Since this is her precious pregnancy, How would you counsel regarding risk of having child with ambiguous genitalia | [
"No risk of having affected child in subsequent pregnancies",
"Double the risk of having affected child",
"Baby will have one in four chance of having same disability",
"This pregnancy is unaffected, but future pregnancies carry high risk"
] | C | This case scenario is suggestive of congenital adrenal hyperplasia. This is autosomal recessive disorder.
So, if any couple has had one affected child, subsequent baby has 1 in 4 chance of having similar disability. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following statements is true | [
"Chronic myeloid leukemia occurs beyond 50 years of age",
"Hairy cell leukemia in less than 50 years has a good prognosis",
"Acute lymphoid leukemia in less than 1 year has a poor prognosis",
"Chronic lymphocytic leukemia occurs in less than 50 years of age"
] | C | There are 4 main types of leukemia, based on whether they are acute or chronic, and myeloid or lymphocytic: Acute myeloid (or myelogenous) leukemia(AML) Chronic myeloid (or myelogenous) leukemia(CML) Acute lymphocytic (or lymphoblastic) leukemia (ALL) Chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Free water clearance by the kidney is increased by which of the following? | [
"Diabetes insipidus",
"Renal failure",
"Diuretic therapy",
"Diabetes mellitus"
] | A | Free water clearance is the amount of water excreted in excess of that required to make the urine isotonic to plasma. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Gonadotropin levels decline to prepubertal levels by age | [
"6 month to 1 year of age",
"1 year to 2 years of age",
"2 years to 3 years of age",
"3 years to 4 years of age."
] | B | Gonadotropin levels gradually decline to reach prepubertal levels by age 1 to 2 years. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the substances are present in dense granules of platelets, EXCEPT: | [
"Serotonin",
"vWF",
"Calcium",
"ATP"
] | B | vWF is released by alpha granules of platelets. Dense granules of platelets: contain the non-protein substances that are secreted in response to platelet activation, including serotonin, ADP, ATP, calcium and polyphosphate.Alpha granules of platelet: contain fibrinogen, fibronectin, vWF, PDGF, EGF, TGF Beta, platelet factor 4, thromboglobulin, albumin, immunoglobulins, antibacterial proteins and a complement inhibitor. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Not a Radiological sign of Ulcerative colius | [
"Raspberry appearance",
"Toxic megacolon",
"Lead Pipe appearance",
"Pseudopolyps"
] | A | Raspberry / rose thorm appearance is seen in crohn's disease. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The minimal concentration of oxygen that should be used with Nitrous oxide analgesia is: | [
"10%",
"20%",
"30%",
"40%"
] | B | Nitrous oxide is a weak anaesthetic and while some patients can be brought to an unconscious level by mixture of Nitrous oxide and Oxygen containing at least 20% Oxygen. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 42 year old man is preoccupied with his health being not in good shape. He feared that his irregular bowel functions mean he has cancer. Now he is preoccupied about having a serious heart disease, despite his physician's assurance that he has no heart disease. What is his most likely diagnosis? | [
"Pain disorder",
"Hypochondriasis",
"Delusional disorder",
"Somatization disorder"
] | B | Ans. B. Hypochondriasis* Hypochondriasis is characterized by fear of developing or having a serious disease, based on the patient's distorted interpretation of normal physical sensations or signs.* The patient continues worrying even though physical exams and diagnostic tests fail to reveal any pathological process.* The fears do not have the absolute certainty of delusions.* Hypochondriasis can develop in every age group, but onset is most common between 20 and 30 years of age.* Both genders are equally represented, and there are no differences in prevalence based on social, educational, or marital status. The disorder tends to have a chronic, relapsing course. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which one of the following is the treatment of choice for Kawasaki's disease ? | [
"Cyclosporine",
"Dapsone",
"Intravenous immunoglobulin",
"Methotrexate"
] | C | Kawasaki disease is a vasculitis that mostly involves the coronary vessels. It presents as an acute systemic disorder, usually affecting children under 5 years. It occurs mainly in Japan and other Asian countries, such as China and Korea, but other ethnic groups may also be affected. Presentation is with fever, generalised rash, including palms and soles, inflamed oral mucosa and conjunctival congestion resembling a viral exanthema. The cause is unknown but it is thought to be an abnormal immune response to an infectious trigger. Cardiovascular complications include coronary aeritis, leading to myocardial infarction, transient coronary dilatation, myocarditis, pericarditis, peripheral vascular insufficiency and gangrene. Treatment is with aspirin (5 mg/kg daily for 14 days) and IV Ig (400 mg/kg daily for 4 days) . Ref Davidsons 23e p1041 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Following constitute dietary fibres except : | [
"Pectin",
"Cellulose",
"Hemicellulose",
"Riboflavin"
] | D | D i.e. Riboflavin | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 65-year-old male is brought to the outpatient clinic with one year illness characterized by marked forgetfulness, visual hallucinations, suspiciousness, personality decline, poor self care and progressive deterioration in his condition. His Mini Mental Status Examination (MMSE) score 21. His most likely diagnosis is: | [
"Dementia",
"Schizophrenia",
"Mania",
"Depression"
] | A | Old age with history suggestive of a progressive impairment in memory, presence of behavioral and psychological symptoms (hallucinations, suspiciousness), poor self care and personality decline and a MMSE score <24, are all suggestive of dementia. DEMENTIA It is the progressive impairment of cognitive functions , in absence of disturbance of consciousness Symptoms- Cognitive impairments: 4As: Amnesia, Aphasia, Apraxia, Agnosia Behavioral & Psychological symptoms:Personality changes,Delusions and Hallucinations , Anxiety ,Depressive symptoms. Focal Neurological Deficit- Usually seen in vascular dementia | train | med_mcqa | null |
For how long does the thyroxine is stored in the thyroid follicle? | [
"2-3 weeks",
"2-3 days",
"2-3 months",
"2-3 years"
] | C | After synthesis of the thyroid hormones, each thyroglobulin molecule contains up to 30 thyroxine molecules and a few triiodothyronine molecules. In this form, the thyroid hormones are stored in the follicles in an amount sufficient to supply the body with its normal requirements of thyroid hormones for 2 to 3 months. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 26-year old primigravida with severe rheumatic heart disease (mitral stenosis with mitral regurgitation) is in early labour. The obstetrician wants to try a normal labour. Which of the following is the ideal intervention for labour analgesia? | [
"Parenteral opioids",
"Neuraxial analgesia",
"Inhalational analgesia",
"Spinal anaesthesia"
] | B | Ans. is Neuraxial analgesia Pain and anxiety during labour and delivery provoke catecholamine surge resulting in tachycardia, hypertension increased cardiac output and increased systemic vascular resistance.This may prove to be catastrophic for patients with heart disease who may develop ischemia or heart failure.* This can be prevented by providing adequate labour analgesia.Earlier spinal neuraxial blockade was used for this purpose.It was believed that sympathetic neuraxial blockade will provide adequate analgesia. However, sympathetic blockade caused by standard neuraxial techniques can produce dramatic cardiovascular changes with decrease in cardiac output secondary to a reduction in preload following sympathetic blockade.Standard spinal blockade is considered a cardiovascular risk due to the sympathetic blockade that decreases cardiac preload by causing arteriolar dilatation. Arteriolar dilatation will reduce systemic vascular resistance and may cause reflex tachycardia.Standard spinal block may produce following changes: -Low systemic vascular resistance can reverse the pressure gradient across a left to right intracardiac shunt, leading to catastrophic decrease in pulmonary blood flow.These changes are usually more severe with a single shot spinal anaesthesia compared with central neuraxial blockade. However, in the last few years, neuraxial blockade has benefitted from important technical and pharmacological improvements that allow it to be tailored to the patients' needs and obstetric course.Safe neuraxial techniques avoid standard techniques with fixed doses and instead should tailor the anaesthetic to the patient.Single shot spinal anaesthesia is not recommended for the cardiac pregnant patient, in contrast a well-controlled epidural or spinal anaesthesia is beneficial even for the most severe cardiac disease.If a rapid decrease in preload and afterload are likely to compromise cardiac status then local anaesthetic is eliminated from the intrathecal portion of the spinal epidural (CSE) and only intrathecal opioid is administered.In these patients the epidural should be dosed slowly with local anaesthetic to maintain stable hemodynamics and adequate uteroplacental blood flow.The technique carries the risk of potential delay in the discovery of poorly placed epidural catheter after a combined spinal epidural (CSE): however, epidural catheters placed during a CSE are less likely to fail.If neuraxial analgesia is not an option for a high-risk cardiac patient, then the advisability of vaginal delivery may need to be considered.Although patient controlled analgesia (PCA) via intravascular opioid infusion with remifantil or fentanyl is performed in many patients, this may not be good alternative for the cardiac patient.Pain control is typically suboptimal leading to increased catecholamine release. Furthermore to achieve, even moderately effective analgesia, the dose of opioid required could suppress ventilation. The resultant carbon di-oxide retention can cause respiratory acidosis, further catecholamine release and increase pulmonary hypertension leading to arrhythmias, ischemia, or heart, failure.Mitral stenosisThe main goal of anaesthetic technique is to avoid "tachycardia" as the time required for left ventricular diastolic filling is prolonged.Segmental epidural anaesthesia is recommended early during labour, avoiding significant decrease in systemic vascular resistance with reflex tachycardia.Cesarean section is also managed with segmental epidural anaesthesia.Phenylephrine is the vasopressor of choice.Patients with prominent symptoms are at significant risk in peripartum period and should receive peripheral and pulmonary artery catheter monitoring continued for a minimum of 24 hour after delivery since tolerance to postpartum fluid shifts may be poor.Mitral regurgitationMitral insufficiency as well as mitral value prolapsed are well tolerated by the pregnant patient since a decrease in SVR will reduce the regurgitant flow.Atrial arrhythmias and risk of embolism from atrial thrombi are important complications.Pain will automatically increase systemic vascular resistance and adequate labour analgesia should minimize peripheral vasoconstriction and thus avoid an increase in left ventricular after load associated with labour pain.Additional sympathetic blockade further decreases systemic vascular resistance.Neuraxial techniques are indicated for labour, vaginal delivery and cesarean section. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Maldigestion of protein and fat is manifested in chronic pancreatitis only if the damage of pancreatic tissue exceeds? | [
"30%",
"50%",
"90%",
"75%"
] | C | There is a very large reservoir of pancreatic exocrine function. > 90% of the pancreas must be damaged before maldigestion of fat and protein is manifested. Reference: Harrisons Principles of Internal Medicine, 18th Edition, Page 2629 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Isthmus of thyroid gland corresponds to which tracheal rings? | [
"2-Jan",
"4-Feb",
"5-Apr",
"6-May"
] | B | The thyroid gland lies against veebrae C5,C6,C7 and T1 embracing the upper pa of the trachea Each lobe extends from the middle of thyroid cailage to the fouh of fifth tracheal ring The isthmus extends from second to the fouh tracheal ring. Ref BDC volume3,6th edition pg 140 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Superantigens causes - | [
"Polyclonal activation of T-cells",
"Stimulation of B cells",
"Enhancement of phagocytosis",
"Activation of complement"
] | A | Superantigens are a class of antigens that cause non-specific activation of T-cells resulting in polyclonal T cell activation and massive cytokine release. Superantigens bind first to the MHC Class II and then coordinate to the variable alpha or beta chain of T-cell Receptors . Ref: Ananthanarayan & Panikers textbook of microbiology 9th edition pg:90 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is not seen in acute hepatitis B infection | [
"HBsAg",
"HBeAg",
"IgM Anti HBsAg",
"IgG Anti HBsAg"
] | D | Ans: d (IgG anti HBsAg) Ref:Ananathanarayan, 7th ed, p. 557IgG anti HBsAg is not a marker of acute Hep B infection, it is a marker of chronic Hep B infectionHBsAg (Hep B surface antigen) -It is a protein which is a part of viral envelope.HBcAg(Hep B core antigen)-It is a protein which makes up the capsid or core part.It is found in liver not in blood.HBeAg(Hep B e antigen)-It is a part of HBcAg which can be found in the blood and indicates infectivity.Schematic diagram of hepatitis B virusThis is one of the most important topics in entrance examination, so it is necessary to understand completely the serological patterns in HB V infection.Important points First virological marker detectable isHBsAgEarliest antibody marker in bloodIgM Anti HBcDiagnostic marker of acute Hep B infectionIgM Anti HBcMarker of infectivityHBeAgMarkers of replicative phase HBeAg -> Qualitative markerHBV DNA -> Quantitative markerAnti HBsAg without anti HBcVaccinatedAnti HBsAg with IgG anti HBcRecovery from infection | train | med_mcqa | null |
Mallory's hyaline is seen in | [
"Hepatitis C infection",
"Amoebic liver abscess",
"Indian childhood cirrhosis",
"Autoimmune hepatitis"
] | C | Mallory bodies are also found in ceain other conditions such as: primary biliary cirrhosis, Indian childhood cirrhosis, cholestatic syndromes, Wilson's disease, intestinal bypass surgery, focal nodular hyperplasia and hepatocellular carcinoma. TEXTBOOK OF PATHOLOGY 6TH EDITION HARSH MOHAN PAGE NO :622 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Extradural hemorrhage is seen as: | [
"Hyperdense biconvex",
"Hypodense biconcave",
"Hyperdense biconcave",
"Hypodense biconvex"
] | A | Ans. (a) Hyperdense biconvexRef: Harrison's 17th ed. Ch 364* Extradural hemorrhage: Bleeding occurs between skull and duramatter. Bleeding occurs due to the rupture ofMiddle meningeal artery. Lucid Interval (Consciousness between two periods of unconsciousness) exists.* In NCCT it shows hyperdensity bleeding, bi-convex or flame shaped bleed.* Treatment: Burr hole surgery.* Subdural hemorrhage: Occurs due to rupture of Cortical bridging veins. In NCCT it shows concavo- convex or sickle shaped bleed. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Genes contributing to schizophrenia are all except | [
"5q",
"1q",
"6q",
"8q"
] | D | Defects in genes like 1q,5q,6p,6q,8p,10p,13q,15q,22q are associated with schizophrenia and psychosis Ref: Essentials of postgraduate psychiatry By JN Vyas 1st ed Pg 386 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Secretory basket cells are located | [
"Inside secretory acini",
"Surrounding the intercalated duct",
"Between secretory cells and the basal lamina",
"Surrounding the striated duct"
] | C | Secretory basket cells are found in salivary gland acini and are also called myoepithelial cells. The name implies that they are epithelial cells with muscle-like contractile propeies. They are found between secretory cells and the basal lamina and exe pressure on the secretory cells to release their secretions. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Preterm babies: | [
"Bom before 37 weeks of gestations",
"Bom before 38 weeks of gestations",
"Bom before 39 weeks of gestations",
"Bom before 40 weeks of gestations"
] | A | (Born before 37 weeks of gestations): Ref: (460-Park 20th)1. Preterm babies - babies bom too early before 37 weeks of gestations (259 days)2. Small for date (SFD) babies - bom at term or preterm. They weight less than the 10th percentile for the gestational age.3. Term: babies bom from 37 completed weeks to less than 42 completed weeks (259 to 293 days) of gestations4. Post term: - Babies bom at 42 completed weeks or anytime thereafter (294 days and over) of gestation | train | med_mcqa | null |
Postmoem finding in CO poisoning is:UP 09; PGI 10 | [
"Cherry red hypostasis",
"Intense cyanosis",
"Excessive salivation",
"Pin-point pupil"
] | A | Ans. Cherry red hypostasis | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 22-year-old man presented to his family physician with a laceration of the fibrous sheets or bands that cover his body under the skin and invest the muscles. Which of the following structures would most likely be injured? | [
"Tendon",
"Fascia",
"Synol tendon sheath",
"Aponeurosis"
] | B | - The fascia is a fibrous sheet or band that covers the body under the skin and invests the muscles. -Tendons connect muscles to bones or cailage, -Aponeuroses serve as the means of origin or inseion of a flat muscle, - Synol tendon sheaths are tubular sacs filled with synol fluid that wrap around the tendons. | train | med_mcqa | null |
In which of the following situations it is preferable not to inse IUCD : | [
"Post - menstrual",
"Emergency postcoital",
"Six weeks after delivery",
"Immediately following mid - trimester aboion"
] | D | Immediately following mid - trimester aboion | train | med_mcqa | null |
Xylocaine strength used in dentistry is | [
"2%",
"5%",
"8%",
"10% c"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
The scalpel blade most commonly used for oral surgical procedures is: | [
"No: 22",
"No: 12",
"No: 11",
"No: 15"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Cereal protein is deficient in which amino acid ? | [
"Leucine",
"Lysine",
"Phenylalanine",
"Tryptophan"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Lysine Supplementary action of proteins Cereals are deficient in essential amino acid Lysine & threonine. Pulses are deficient in essential amino acid Methionine. So if cereals are eaten with pulses, their proteins complement each other & provide a more balanced and complete protein intake. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A female patient presented with a firm mass of 2 x 2 cms in the upper outer quadrant of the breast. She gives a family history of ovarian carcinoma. The investigation that needs to be done to assess for mutation is : | [
"p53",
"BRCA-2",
"Her 2/Neu gene",
"C-myc gene"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' BRCA 2 "In women with hereditary breast - ovarian cancer, two susceptibility loci have been identified:BRCA -1 - located on chromosome 17 andBRCA - 2 - located on chromosome 13" - Harrison, 15/e, p620 | train | med_mcqa | null |
True about breastfeeding is | [
"Best for both preterm and term",
"50% energy from protein",
"Should be avoided for a day after caesarian section",
"Predispose to necrotising enterocolitis"
] | A | Breast milk contains all the nutrients a baby needs for normal growth and development. The protein content is low. The immunological superiority of breast milk protects from infections.Within 4 hrs breastfeeding initiated in C-section and within 1 Hr in normal delivery.Ref: Page 151; Ghai Essential Pediatrics; 8th edition | train | med_mcqa | null |
Daily water requirement in child weighing 30 kgs, height 123 m and BSA of 1 m2 is- | [
"1300 m1",
"1700 ml",
"2000 ml",
"2500 ml"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., 1700 ml Fluid requirment in a child o It depends on the weight of a child :- Weight Water requirments < 10 kg o 100 ml/kg/day 10-20 kg o 100 ml / kg / day for first 10 kg (i.e. 1000 ml) + 50 ml / kg / d for every kg above 10 kg. >20 kg o 100 ml/kg/day for first 10 kg (i.e. 1000 ml) + 50 ml / kg / d for next 10 kg (i.e. 500 ml) + 20 ml / kg / d for every kg above 20 kg. o The child in question has weight of 30 kg. o So, fluid requirment will be :- i) 1000 ml for first 10 kg Plus ii) 500 ml for 10-20 kg Plus iii) 200 ml (20 x 10) for 20-30 kg o Total requirment will be 1700 ml. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Enzyme raised in myopathies is | [
"CPK",
"SGOT",
"SGPT",
"AST"
] | A | Ans. a (CPK), (Ref. Harrison, Principles of Medicine, 18th/Chapter 246.)# CPK is raised in many myopathies and in AMI. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A most common cause of anterior uveitis associated with arthritis – | [
"Ankylosing spondylitis",
"Rheumatoid arthritis",
"Syphilis",
"Tuberculosis"
] | A | Anterior uveitis is most commonly idiopathic or autoimmune and the most common cause is age-dependent:-
Child → JRA is the most common cause
Young adult s → HLB-27 associated uveitis (Ankylosing spondylitis is the most common cause)
Older adults → Idiopathic anterior uveitis is most common.
Overall most common cause → Idiopathic. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Candida albicans causes all of the following except | [
"Endocarditis",
"Mycetoma",
"Meningitis",
"Oral thrush"
] | B | Mycetoma is caused by actinomycetes and eumycetes like Madurella mycetoma, M grisea. Candida causes mucocutaneous lesion (oral thrush, vulvovaginitis, balanitis, conjunctivitis, keratitis), skin and nail infection, systemic candidiasis ( UTI, intestinal and pulmonary candidiasis, endocarditis and meningitis) Ref: Textbook of Microbiology, Ananthanarayan and Paniker; 9th edition . | train | med_mcqa | null |
Amotivational syndrome is seen with - | [
"Cannabis",
"Cocaine",
"LSD",
"None"
] | A | chronic cannabis poisoning causes amotivational syndrome -loss of age appropriate behaviors -lethargy -lack of interest in day to day activities REF;THE SYNOPSIS OF FORENSIC MEDICINE:KS NARAYANA REDDY;28th EDITION;PAGE NO 347 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following variables is measured on the ordinal scale | [
"Type of anemia",
"Severity of anemia",
"Hemoglobin level",
"Serum ferritin level"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Back pressure porosity can be avoided by: | [
"Using asbestos liners",
"Placing the sprue at least one quarter inch away from the end of casting ring",
"Preventing rapid heating of the investment in burnout oven",
"Using a short and wide sprue"
] | B | Backpressure porosity
This is caused by inadequate venting of the mold. Air is trapped in the mold and is unable to escape. The sprue pattern length should be adjusted so that there is not more than 1/4" thickness of the investment between the bottom of the casting ring and the wax pattern. When the molten metal enters the mold, the air inside is pushed out through the porous investment at the bottom. If the bulk of the investment is too great, the escape of air becomes difficult causing increased pressure in the mold. The gold will then solidify before the mold is completely filled resulting in a porous casting with rounded short margins.
Avoided by:
Using adequate casting force.
Use investment of adequate porosity.
Place pattern not more than 6 to 8 mm away from the end of the ring.
Providing vents in large castings.
Manapallil 3rd P:370 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Pleomorphic adenomas arising from the minor salivary glands can be treated with | [
"Local excision with 2mm margin",
"Local excision with 5mm margin",
"Radiotherapy",
"Chemotherapy"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most common presentation of adult rhinosporidiosis is- | [
"Halitosis",
"Pain",
"Anosmia",
"Polypoidal mass"
] | D | Rhinosporidiosis presents as soft leafy polypoidal mass. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Diagnosis of Hodgkin's disease is confirmed by | [
"CT scan",
"Bone marrow biopsy",
"Lymph node biopsy",
"Lymphangiography"
] | C | Ref : Bailey & Love 25/e p945 | train | med_mcqa | null |
In a case of Plasmodium falciparum malaria, the peripheral blood smear does not demonstrate trophozoites and schizonts. The reason for this is: | [
"Apoptosis of red cells because of hemozoin pigments",
"Lysis of red cells with malarial parasite",
"Infested cells are trapped in the spleen",
"Infested red blood cells stick to the capillaries"
] | D | -Plasmodium falciparum is associated with infected red cells expressing PfEMP (Plasmodium falciparum erythrocyte membrane protein) leading to their attachment to the endothelial cells. -This leads to sequestration of infected red cells in the capillaries. -That's the reason for the non-appearance of trophozoites and schizonts in the peripheral blood smear. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The commonest gastric polyp is ? | [
"Hyperplastic polyp",
"Inflammatory polyp",
"Adenomatous polyp",
"Pa of familial polyposis"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Hyperplastic polyp | train | med_mcqa | null |
Atonic post paum hemorrhage occurs in all except : | [
"Multiple pregnancy",
"Hydramnios",
"Erythroblastosis fetalis",
"Prolonged labour"
] | C | Erythroblastosis fetalis | train | med_mcqa | null |
In neonatal Resuscitation what is the dose of adrenaline used | [
"Intramuscular 1-3 ml/kg of 1:1,000 adrenaline",
"Intramuscular 1-3 ml / kg of 1: 10,000 adrenaline",
"Intravenous 0.1-0.3ml / kg of 1:10,000 adrenaline",
"Intravenous 0.1- 0.3 ml/kg of 1:10,000 adrenaline"
] | D | Epinephrine is used if heart rate < 60/min even after 30 seconds of effective PPV and 60 seconds of chest compression. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Paralysisof 3rd, 4th, 6th nerves with involvement of ophthalmic division of 5th nerve, localizes the lesion to- | [
"Cavernous sinus",
"Apex of orbit",
"Brainstem",
"Base of skull"
] | A | Ipsilateral ophthalmoplegia causing diplopia occur due to 3rd, 4th & 6th cranial nerves. 6th nerve passes through cavernous sinus and others are related to the lateral wall of cavernous sinuses. Ref :ak khurana 6th edition pg no 410 REF IMG | train | med_mcqa | null |
Causes of raised J.V.P. with hypotension are allexcept | [
">Cardiac tamponade",
">Right ventricular M.I.",
">Hea failure",
">2nd degree A.V. block"
] | D | 2nd degree A.V. block Differential diagnosis of increased venous pressure with hypotension Cardiac tamponade Constrictive pericarditis Right ventricular wall M.I. Restrictive cardiornyopathy Right hea failure | train | med_mcqa | null |
Disorders associated with vitiligo EXCEPT? | [
"Androgenic Alopecia",
"Hypothyroidism",
"Addison's disease",
"Diabetes mellitus"
] | A | DISORDERS ASSOCIATED WITH VITILIGO Thyroid disease: Hypehyroidism Hypothyroidism Pernicious anemia Addison's disease Diabetes mellitus Hypoparathyroidism Myasthenia gravis Alopecia areata Morphoea and lichen sclerosis | train | med_mcqa | null |
Cellular swelling with blebs and myelin Figures are the changes seen in | [
"Reversible cell injury",
"Irreversible cell injury",
"Metaplasia",
"Anaplasia"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which one of the following was the major outcome of the famous Eah summit in Rio de Janeiro in 1992 - | [
"Setting up of bio-safery standards",
"Global strategy for control of pandemics",
"Framework convention on climate change",
"Framework on strategies for sustainable development"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Framework convention on climate change | train | med_mcqa | null |
Hemorrhagic fttvr is caused by: | [
"West-Mile fever",
"Sandfly fever",
"Ebola virus",
"All of the above"
] | C | Ans. c. Ebola virus | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following antilipidemic drug is a sterol absorption inhibitor? | [
"Gemfibrozil",
"Simvastatin",
"Nicotinic acid",
"Ezetimibe"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Ezetimibe Classification of antihyperlipidemic drugs* HMG CoA reductase inhibitorsStatins: Lovastatin, Simvstatin, Pravastatin, Atorvastatin, Rosuvastatin* Bile acid sequestrantsResins: Colestipol, Cholestyramine* LPL activator/PPAR a activatorClofibrate, gemfibrozil, fenofibrate.* Sterol absorption inhibitorEzetimibe* Lipolysis and TG synthesis inhibitorNicotinic acid | train | med_mcqa | null |
Theophylline therapeutic blood ranges | [
"0-5",
"10-May",
"15-May",
"20-May"
] | D | (5-20) (221-KDT6th)* Therapeutic ranges 5-20 as shown in above figure* Theophylline has a narrow margin of safety. Dose dependent toxicity starts from upper part of therapeutic concentration | train | med_mcqa | null |
Magenstrasse refers to - | [
"Signs of magnesium poisoning",
"Marks of violence in case of poisoning",
"Route of acidic poisons in stomach",
"None of the above"
] | C | magenstrasse- a groove in the stomach along the lesser curvature that is the route food and liquids tend to take in moving toward the pylorus and that is a frequent site of peptic ulcer formation Ref: Taber's Medical dictionary. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Following are predispositions to Alzheimer\'s disease except - | [
"Down's syndrome",
"Head trauma",
"Smoking",
"Low education group"
] | C | Risk factors for Alzheimer's disease:- Old age, female sex, positive family history, head trauma, low educational status, depression, metabolic (diabetes, hypercholesterolemia, elevated homocysteine), hypertension, CVA (stroke), Heavy metals (mercury, aluminium), genetic factors, down's syndrome. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Ulcus serpens is caused by: | [
"Pneumococcus",
"Pseudomonas",
"Gonococcus",
"All of the above"
] | A | Ans. Pneumococcus | train | med_mcqa | null |
Colonic metastases are related with: | [
"Preoperative CEA level",
"Depth of invasion",
"Size of tumor",
"Circumferential involvement"
] | B | Ans. (b) Depth of invasionRef: Schwartz 9th edition, Page 1046; Shackelford 7th edition, Page 2133* Colonic metastasis to liver is related to -- depth of invasion (T stage)* CRC prognosis depends on the stage of the disease (Especially in stage on the lymph node status)* Tumor size and duration has no effect on prognosis. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A patient of RHD developed infective endocarditis after dental extraction. Most likely organism causing this is : | [
"Streptococcus viridans",
"Streptococcus Pneumoneae",
"Streptococcus Pyogenes",
"Staphylococcus aureus"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' ie Streptococcus viridans Viridans streptococci consists of multiple species of alpha hemolytic streptococciVarious species of viridans streptococciS. salivariusS. mitisS. sanguisS.mutans are a part of normal flora of mouth. They can cause bacteremia through minor trauma such as while eating, tooth, brushing and flossing.This bacteremia is thought to be the cause of Endocarditis in these patients.Some frequently asked questions about etiology of endocarditis Most common cause of Acute Bacterial Endocarditis (Native valve) - S.aureus* Most common cause of Early prosthetic valve Endocarditis (< 2 months) - Coagulase negativeStaphylococci* Most common cause of prosthetic valve endocarditis (> 12 months) - Streptococci * (includes viridans, S.bovis, other non-group A) Most common cause of endocarditis in l.V drug abusers - Staphylococcus aureus* | train | med_mcqa | null |
The molecule marked by blue question mark can be all of the following EXCEPT | [
"Pyruvate",
"Lactate",
"Alanine",
"Glycerol"
] | D | The picture shown in the question can be of Cori cycle or glucose-alanine cycle which releases lactate and alanine respectively. Pyruvate is second intermediate in those cycles. (Look at treasure for Cori's pathway) But glycerol is released from adipocytes. So, it could not be the one marked by red question mark in the image shown in the question. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Jit equilibrium the concentrations of Cl- inside and outside a cell are 8 mmol/L and 120 mmol/L, respectively. The equilibrium potential for Cl- at 37degC is calculated to be: | [
"+4.07 mV",
"-4.07 mV",
"+71.7 mV",
"-71.7 mV"
] | D | Ans. D. -71.7mVBy substituting in the Nernst equationEi-Eo=61/-1xlog10120/8=-61x1.176=-71.7mV inside the cell.Note that for Cl-, the value for z (valence) is -1 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Defect seen in Di George syndrome: September 2009 | [
"Humoral immunity",
"Cell mediated immunity",
"Thymic hyperplasia",
"Autoimmune hemolytic anaemia"
] | B | Ans. B: Cell mediated immunity DiGeorge anomaly (DGA) is a congenital immunodeficiency characterized by abnormal facies; congenital hea defects; hypoparathyroidism with hypocalcemia; cognitive, behavioral, and psychiatric problems; and increased susceptibility to infections. Pathological hallmarks include conotruncal abnormalities and absence or hypoplasia of thymus and parathyroid glands. Thymic hypoplasia or aplasia leading to defective T-cell function (cell mediated immunity) is the hallmark of DiGeorge anomaly Microdeletion of chromosome 22 accounts for more than 90% of cases of DiGeorge anomaly. Deletions of chromosome 22q11.2 are found in the vast majority of patients with DiGeorge anomaly | train | med_mcqa | null |
38-year-old man Babbu, a chronic alcoholic, presents with pain in the abdomen. On examination, his liver is enlarged and serum α-fetoprotein is elevated. The most likely diagnosis is - | [
"Hepatocellular carcinoma",
"Liver cell hyperplasia",
"Hepatic adenoma",
"Hepatitis"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
All are true regarding hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy, except- | [
"Systolic dysfunction",
"Concentric hypertrophy",
"Diastolic dysfunction",
"Double apical impulse"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is the most radiosensitive ovarian tumors : | [
"Dysgerminoma",
"Dermoid cyst",
"Serous cystadenoma",
"Endodermal sinus tumour"
] | A | Ans. is a i.e. Dysgerminoma Dysgerminoma is most radiosensitive tumour not only of ovary but of whole body. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Malaria affects all the following organs except - | [
"Brain",
"Heart",
"Liver",
"Spleen"
] | B | The major organs that are directly involved due to parasitic infestations are → Spleen, Liver, Brain.
The organs which are involved secondarily → Heart (Hypoxic lesions), Lung (Pulmonary edema) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Boiled cabbage or rancid butter smelling urine is seen in Phenylketonuria | [
"Tyrosinemia",
"Isovaleric Acidaemia",
"Multiple carboxylase deficiency",
"Phenylketonuria"
] | A | REF: Lippincott book of biochemistry 6th ed. Tyrosinaemia is an error of metabolism, inherited, in which the body cannot effectively break down the amino acid tyrosine, found in most animal and plant proteins. It is an autosomal recessive, which means two copies of an abnormal gene must be present in order for this to develop. There are three types of tyrosinemia, each with distinctive symptoms and caused by the deficiency of a different enzyme. One of the symptoms of Tyrodinaemia type 1 is an odor like cabbage or rancid butter. | train | med_mcqa | null |
True statement regarding first order kinetics is | [
"Date of elimination is independent of Plasma concentration",
"Rate of elimination is propoional to plasma concentration per unit time",
"Half-Life increases with those",
"Clearance decreases with those"
] | B | Ref-KDT 7/e p30-31 In first order kinetics the rate of elimination is propoional to plasma concentration of the drug . Clearance in half life for constant in first order kinetics | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most common cause of unilateral parotid swelling in a 27 yr old male is: | [
"Wahins tumor",
"Pleomorphic adenoma",
"Adenocarcinoma",
"Haemangioma"
] | B | They are the commonest tumors of the parotid gland & account for 60% of tumors in the Parotid. Ref: Robbin's Basic Pathology, 5th Edition, Page 750; Bailey and Love's Sho Practice of Surgery, 22nd Edition, Page 475 and 23rd Edition, Page 659; CSDT, 11th Edition, Page 294. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Sphincter urethrae is present in- | [
"Prostatic urethra",
"Spongy urethra",
"Membranous urethra",
"Penile urethra"
] | C | Urethra
- Length
o Male- 20 cms
o Female- 4 cms
- Shortest part of the male urethra- Membranous part
- The longest part of the male urethra- Penile urethra
- Location of sphincter urethrae- Membranous part
- Prostatic urethra
o Widest part
o Most dilatable part
o Concave anteriorly.
o Route- downwards & forwards. Exit prostate slightly anterior to its apex.
o Crescentic on the cross section
o Structures on the posterior wall
§ Urethral crest
§ Colliculus seminalis (verumontanum)
§ Opening of ejaculatory ducts
§ Prostatic sinuses with the opening of prostate glands
o Lymphatics
§ Membranous part- Internal iliac nodes
§ Prostatic part- Internal iliac nodes
§Penile urethra- Deep inguinal nodes. | train | med_mcqa | null |
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