question stringlengths 1 6.54k | choices listlengths 4 4 | answer stringclasses 4 values | rationale stringlengths 0 22.5k ⌀ | split stringclasses 1 value | dataset stringclasses 6 values | subject stringclasses 1 value |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
Beta-blockers are used in all of the following except: March 2005 | [
"Essential tremors",
"AV block",
"Angina pectoris",
"Migraine prophylaxis"
] | B | Ans. B: AV Block Indications for beta blockers include: Angina pectoris Atrial fibrillation Cardiac arrhythmia Congestive hea failure Essential tremor Glaucoma Hypeension Migraine prophylaxis Mitral valve prolapse Myocardial infarction Phaeochromocytoma, in conjunction with alpha-blocker Symptomatic control (tachycardia, tremor) in anxiety and hypehyroidism Dissecting aneurysm Hyperophic obstructive cardiomyopathy Propranolol is contraindicated in paial and complete hea block: arrest may occur. Drugs used for AV block are: Atropine Sympathomimetics (Adrenaline, isoprenaline) | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 45-year-old man presents with weakness and wasting of the muscles of his right hand for 8 months. Physical examination shows fasciculations of the hand. The patient's speech is impaired, and 6 years later, he dies of respiratory insufficiency. Autopsy shows atrophy of ventral roots in the spinal cord. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? | [
"Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis",
"Gerstman Straussler-Scheinker disease",
"Huntington disease",
"Multiple infarct dementia"
] | A | ALS is a degenerative disease of motor neurons of the brain and spinal cord that results in progressive weakness and wasting of the extremities and eventually impairment of respiratory muscles. The disease affects motor neurons in three locations: (1) the anterior horn cells of the spinal cord; (2) the motor nuclei of the brainstem, particularly the hypoglossal nuclei; and (3) the upper motor neurons of the cerebral cortex. The injury to the motor neurons leads to the degeneration of their axons, visualized in striking alterations of the lateral pyramidal pathways in the spinal cord. The defining histologic change in ALS is a loss of large motor neurons accompanied by mild gliosis. ALS begins as weakness and wasting of the muscles of the hand, often accompanied by painful cramps of the muscles of the arm. The other choices do not affect the motor neurons of the spinal cord.Diagnosis: Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis | train | med_mcqa | null |
Mycoplasma are intrinsically resistant to: | [
"Aminoglycosides",
"Macrolides",
"Cephalosporins",
"Tetracyclines"
] | C | Mycoplasma are a class of Cell-wall free bacteria. The lack of a cell wall in mycoplasmas makes them intrinsically resistant to beta-lactams and to all antimicrobials which target the cell wall. Mycoplasma are susceptible to agents that interfere with protein synthesis, such as tetracyclines, macrolides and aminoglycosides and to the fluoroquinolones that act by inhibiting topoisomerases. Tetracyclines are the drug of choice for mycoplasma infections. Antibiotic resistance of Macrolides: Innate antibiotic resistance is defined as resistance that is found in all members of a group of bacteria. For mycoplasmas, two kinds of innate or intrinsic resistance have to be considered, one related to the class Mollicutes, and one related to the different mycoplasma and ureaplasma species. These differences in innate antibiotic susceptibility have been used to isolate mycoplasmas. Resistance related to class molecules Resistance to Macrolide-Lincosamide-Streptogramin-Ketolide (MLSK) group The lack of cell wall makes all the members of the class Mollicutes intrinsically resistant to Beta-lactams and to all antimicrobials such as glycopeptides and fosfomycin, which target the cell wall. In addition, mycoplasmas are also resistant to polymyxins, sulphonamides, trimethoprim, nalidixic acid and rifampin Resistance to the macrolide-lincosamide-streptogramin-Ketolide (MLSK) group differs between species. Mycoplasma pneumonia and M.genitalium are naturally susceptible to all MLSK antibiotics, except these two species. Ureaplasma spp. are susceptible to macrolides and ketolides. Ref: Ananthanarayana and Paniker 9th edition Pgno: 387 | train | med_mcqa | null |
The following parasitic infections predispose to malignancies -a) Paragonimus westermaniib) Guinea worm infectionc) Clonorchiasisd) Schistosomiasis | [
"ab",
"cd",
"bd",
"ac"
] | B | The following two parasites have definitive etiological association with malignancies:
• Clonorchis sinensis: cholangiocarcinoma
• Opisthorchis viverrini: cholangiocarcinoma
• Schistosoma haematobium : squamous cell cancer of urinary bladder
• Schistosoma japonicum: colorectal cancer | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following parotid malignancy shows perineural spread: | [
"Pleomorphic adenoma",
"Adenoid cystic carcinoma",
"Warthin's tumor",
"Ductal papilloma"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Aerial PO2 is decreased in hypoxia due to | [
"Cyanide poisoning",
"CO poisoning",
"COPD",
"Shock"
] | C | COPD presents with Hypoxic Hypoxia. Hypoxic hypoxia is the most common form of hypoxia seen clinically. The diseases that cause it can be roughly divided into those in which the gas exchange apparatus fails, those such as congenital hea disease in which large amounts of blood are shunted from the venous to the aerial side of the circulation, and those in which the respiratory pump fails. Lung failure occurs when conditions such as pulmonary fibrosis produce alveolar-capillary block, or there is ventilation-perfusion imbalance. Pump failure can be due to fatigue of the respiratory muscles in conditions in which the work of breathing is increased or to a variety of mechanical defects such as pneumothorax or bronchial obstruction that limit ventilation. It can also be caused by abnormalities of the neural mechanisms that control ventilation, such as depression of the respiratory neurons in the medulla by morphine and other drugs.Ref: Ganong review of medical physiology 23rd edition Page no: 620 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is a Phase I reaction in Xenobiotics? | [
"Hvdroxylation",
"Methylation",
"Conjugation",
"Acetylation"
] | A | Ref: Basic and clinical Pharmacology by Bel ram Katzung, 12th edition Pp-56,57,60Explanation:Phase I reactions are Oxidation, reduction andhydrolysisThis includes CYP dependent oxidation, dealklation, deamination, desulfation, dechlorination.CYP independent oxidations like Flav in monooxygenase. amine oxidases, dehydrogenationsReduction includes azo reductions, nitroredu- ctionsHydrolysis includes ester and amidePhase II reactions are Conjugation (glucuronida- tion, glycine,glutathione), methylation Sulfation and acetylation | train | med_mcqa | null |
In prenatal diagnostic technique Act 1994 which one of the following is not a ground for carrying out prenatal test? | [
"Pregnant women above 35 years of age",
"History of two or more spontaneous aboion or fetal loss.",
"When fetal hea rate is 160 per min at fifth and 120 per min at ninth month.",
"History of exposure to potentially teratogenic drugs."
] | C | C i.e. When fetal hea rate is 160/ min at 5th & 120/min at 9th month | train | med_mcqa | null |
Brown-sequardsyndrome | [
"Pain loss in the opposite side of lesion",
"Fine touch lost in opposite side of lesion",
"UMN paralysis in opposite side of lesion",
"LMN paralysis in opposite side of lesion"
] | A | Sites of damage in Brown-Sequard Syndrome:Ascending sensory pathway: Dorsal-column pathway, Ventrolateral spinothalamic tract.Descending motor pathways: Coicospinal tract.Effects:Ipsilateral loss of discriminative touch, vibration, and proprioception below the level of lesion - (due to lesion of fasciculus cuneatus and gracilis)Controlateral loss of temp. and pain, 2-3 segments below the level of lesion - (due to loss of ventrolateral spinothalamic tract)Weakness and spasticity of ceain muscle groups on same side of the body - (due to loss of coicospinal tract) (i.e., LMN paralysis on same side)Ref: Ganong&;s 23rd Edition pg: 177 | train | med_mcqa | null |
In classical radical dissection of neck (Crile), which structure is NOT removed: September 2004 | [
"Cervical group of lymph nodes",
"Sternocleidomastoid muscle",
"Internal jugular vein",
"None of the above"
] | D | Ans. D i.e. None of the above | train | med_mcqa | null |
In the following periodontal surgeries the one that is
performed first: | [
"Infrabony pocket therapy",
"Gingivectomy",
"Apically displaced flap",
"Gingivoplasty"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
True statements(s) about posterior urethral valves in neonate –a) Bilateral hydronephrosis may be presentb) Creatinine & urea levels remain normalc) Enlarge & widen prostatic urethrad) More common in girls | [
"a",
"ac",
"ad",
"b"
] | B | Posterior urethral valves are the most common obstructive urethral lesion in newborn and infant males and the most common cause of end-stage renal disease in boys.
They are partially obstructive and thus lead to variable degrees of back pressure damage to the urinary bladder and upper urinary tract. Dilation and obstruction of the prostatic urethra are always present. Spontaneous urinary ascites from the kidneys is often seen in neonates. This clear when the obstruction is relieved.
About one-third of children with posterior urethral valves are now diagnosed by prenatal ultrasound. Another one-third are diagnosed in the first year of life, with the remaining third presenting later.
Clinical manifestations consist of difficult voiding, a weak urinary stream, and a midline lower abdominal mass that represents a distended bladder.
In some cases, the kidneys are palpable and the child may have signs and symptoms of uremia and acidosis. Urinary incontinence and urinary tract infection may occur.
Laboratory findings include elevated serum urea nitrogen and creatinine and evidence of urinary infection.
Ultrasound shows evidence of bladder thickening and trabeculation, hydroureter, and hydronephrosis. Demonstration of urethral valves on a voiding cystourethrogram establishes the diagnosis, as does endoscopic identification of valves. Up to 70% of children with valves may have vesicoureteral reflux.
Treatment
Consists of the destruction of the valves by endoscopic
In a premature infant with a small urethra prohibiting transurethral resection, a temporary cutaneous vesicostomy may be required to provide drainage and improve impaired kidney function. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A lady with 10-12 weeks pregnancy develops acute retention of urine. The likely cause is: | [
"Retroverted uterus",
"Urinary tract infection",
"Prolapse uterus",
"Fibroid"
] | A | Ans. is a, i.e. Retroverted uterusRef. Dutta Obs. 7/e, p 311, 312, Jeffcotes Gynae Combination 7/e, p 493Well friends amongst the options given UTI and prolapse of uterus- cause increased frequency of urination and not retention.So we are left with 2 options - fibroid and irritability uterus.Intrauterine fibroid commonly causes bladder irritability due to its weight leading to diurnal frequency.Retroverted uterus: It is common during pregnancy and can lead to retention between 12 and 16 weeks. It is the best answer. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Post is not required in all of the following conditions except: | [
"If adequate retention of core can be achieved by natural undercuts of crown",
"If there are horizontal cracks in the coronal portion of the teeth",
"When tooth is subjected to excursive occlusal stresses, that is, when there is presence of lateral stresses of bruxism or heavy incisal guidance",
"None"
] | D | Conditions where post should not be given:
Any sign of endodontic failures are evident, i.e. tooth exhibits:
Poor apical seal and poor quality obturation
Active inflammation
Presence of fistula or sinus
Tender on percussion
If adequate retention of core can be achieved by natural undercuts of crown.
If there are horizontal cracks in the coronal portion of the teeth.
When tooth is subjected to excursive occlusal stresses, that is, when there is presence of lateral stresses of bruxism or heavy incisal guidance. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following virus is shed in stool - | [
"Herpangina",
"Influenza",
"Varicella",
"Small pox"
] | A | Herpangina is caused by the coxsackievirus, it shed in feces. Virus isolated from the lesion, stool may be made by inoculation into suckling mouse REF<\p> MICROBIOLOGY ANANTHA NARAYANAN NINTH EDITION PAGE..492 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Deformity with decreased carrying angle is: | [
"Cubitus varus",
"Mannus varus",
"Cubitus valgus",
"Mannus valgus"
] | A | Cubitus varus: decreased carrying angle Opposite condition of Cubitus varus is Cubitus valgus. Cubitus valgus: increased carrying angle. Other high yield points to be remembered: mannus is term used for denoting wrist joint mannus varus -ulnar detion of hand at wrist joint mannus valgus-radial detion of the hand at wrist joint | train | med_mcqa | null |
The relative risk of 1 indicates that | [
"There is no cause effect relationship",
"Effect may be due to type 1 error",
"Strong correlation",
"Effect may be due to type 2 error"
] | A | Relative risk is the ratio of the incidence of the disease (or death) among exposed and the incidence among non-exposed. A relative risk of 1 means the incidence in exposed and non-exposed is same. So there is no relation between disease and cause (exposure). Park, pg: 79 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Regarding cochlear implant, which of the following is true: | [
"Not contraindicated in cochlear malformation",
"Contraindicated in < 5 yrs",
"Indicated in mild to moderate hearing loss",
"Implanted through oval window"
] | A | Not contraindicated in cochlear malformation Cochlear malformation is a surgical challenge but not a contraindication for cochlear implantation. Specially designed electrodes are available to facilitate implantation - Current Diagnosis and Treatment in Otolaryngology Cochlear ossification is also no bar for implant Cochlear implant is an aificial means that allows the transmission of acoustic information through the central auditory pathway direct electric stimulation of auditory nerve fibers. General criteria for cochler implant candidacy B/L severe to profound sensorineural hearing loss. (Option 'c' is false) Little or no benefit from hearing aids. No medical contraindication for surgery. Cochlea & auditory nerve should be present Realistic expectation Good family and social suppo Adequate cognitive. function to be able to use the disease. Candidates are defined as pre-lingual or post-lingual depending on whether they were deafened before or after the acquisition of speech & language. In children with pre-lingual deafness (at bih or in early child hood) implantation at an early age ensures better results and children can be implanted at 12 months of age. (Option `b' is false)Post lingual patients with shoer duration of deafness have better outcome. In cochlear implant surgery the electrode array is placed within the scala tympani of the cochlea. There are two techniques to approach cochlea. - The facial recess approach in which cochleostomy is performed antero-inferior to the round window membrane (option `d' is false) - The pericanal technique in which cochleostomy is performed either by endaural or post-aural approach for e.g. Veria and suprameatal recess approach. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following are diagnostic criteria of allergic Fungal sinusitis except: | [
"Areas of High Attuenuation on CT scan",
"Orbital invasion",
"Allergic eosinophilic mucin",
"Type 1 Hypersensitivity"
] | B | Allergic fugal sinusitis is a non invasive form of fungal sinusitis as such orbital invasion is not its feature. Ref Pattern's Allergic Disease 6/e,p 778. | train | med_mcqa | null |
When the economic benefits of any programme are compared with the cost of the programme, it is called as | [
"Cost benefit analysis",
"Cost effective analysis",
"Cost accounting",
"Input Output analysis"
] | A | Cost-benefit analysis, in which benefits are compared to cost of the program. The benefits are expressed in monetary termsThe main drawback with this technique is that benefits in the health field, as a result of a paicular programme, cannot always be expressed in monetary terms.Park 23e pg:871 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Activation of which of the following hormone's receptors produces E.Coli induced diarrhoea? | [
"Ghrelin",
"Guanylin",
"VIP",
"Somatostatin"
] | B | Guanylin is a gastrointestinal polypeptide that binds to guanylyl cyclase. It is secreted by cells of the intestinal mucosa. Stimulation of guanylyl cyclase increases the concentration of intracellular cyclic 3',5'-guanosine monophosphate (cGMP), and this in turn causes increased secretion of Cl- into the intestinal lumen. The heat-stable enterotoxin of ceain diarrhea-producing strains of Escherichia coli has a structure very similar to guanylin and activates guanylin receptors in the intestine. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Earliest of fetal hea can be detected at: | [
"6-6.5 weeks",
"6.5-7 weeks",
"7.1-7.5 weeks",
"8 weeks"
] | A | When the question says - Cardiac activity is earliest detected at it means it's about TVS (Transvaginal sonography),which is seen at 6 weeks. Ref: Callen 4e pg 119,120. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which statement is true interpretation of the laws of normal child development? | [
"The sequence and time of attainment of milestones may vary among individual children",
"Development always proceeds in a cephalocaudal sequence",
"Presence of primitive reflexes is essential for attaining voluntary actions",
"All of the above"
] | D | All the four statements are correct. The attainment of milestones varies from one child to another. It differs amongst the brothers and sisters. This is because of different rate of myelination and development of the nervous system amongst different children. Development always proceeds in a cephalocaudal sequence. In the beginning there is head control. After this the child sits up and walking occurs after this. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All are true about Diagnosis of hemolytic anemia except- | [
"Elevated unconjugated bilirubin in the blood",
"Low LDH in the blood",
"Haptoglobin levels are decreased",
"Direct cooms test is positive"
] | B | Lab evaluation of hemolysis Tets for increased red cell breakdown serum unconjugated bilirubin is increased urine urobilinogen raised Faecal stercobilinogen raised Serum haptoglobin(alpha globulin binding protein)reduced or absent Plasma LDH raised. Evidenceof intravascular hemolysis Tests for increased red cell production Reticulocytosis Routine blood film B.M shows erythroid hyperplasia X ray bone shows expansion of marrow space Tests of damage to red cells Abnormal morphological appearance of red cell in blood routine Osmotic fragility increased or decreased Coobs antiglobulin test for AIHA Electrophoresis Estimation of HbA2 Estimation of HbF Test for sickling Screening for G6PD deficiency Ref: Harsh Mohan textbook of pathology, 7th edition.Pg no.287 Ref Robbins 9/e pg 416 | train | med_mcqa | null |
The number of live bihs per 1000 women in the reproductive age group in a year refers to: March 2012 | [
"Gross reproduction rate",
"Total feility rate",
"Net reproduction rate",
"General feility rate"
] | D | Ans: D i.e. General feility rate Some impoant rates GRR is number of daughters who would be born to a woman completing her reproductive life at current age specific feility rates TFR is average number of children a woman would bear in her reproductive life span. NRR measures the number of daughters a woman would have in her lifetime if she experiences prevailing age specific feility and moality rates. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Isoelectric point of a protein is located by which method? | [
"Isoelectric pointing",
"Isoelectric cardiac failure",
"Ion exchange",
"pH"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e.,Isoelectric cardiac failure Isoelectric focusing is a procedure used to determine the isoelectric point (pI) of a protein.A pH gradient is established by allowing a mixture of low molecular weight organic acids and bases to distribute themselves in an electric field generated across the gel.When a protein mixture is applied, each protein migrates until it reaches the pH that matches its pI.Proteins with different isoelectric points are thus distributed differently throughout the gel. | train | med_mcqa | null |
X-ray appearance of osteosarcoma are all except- | [
"Periosteal reaction",
"Codman's triangle",
"Soap-bubble",
"Sunray appearance"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
False about Borderline personality disorder? | [
"Self image",
"Impulsivity",
"Self mutilation behavior",
"Attention seeking behavior"
] | D | Ans is 'd' i.e. Attention seeking behavior Borderline personality disorder* The central feature of borderline personality disorder is a pervasive pattern of unstable and intense interpersonal relationship, self perception and mood.* The patient make recurrent suicidal threats and gesture and a small proportion of patients carry out the act or self mutilation like cutting or burning.* The patients have difficulty in controlling their anger and impulsitivity.* There is uncertainty about personal identity.About other options* Violation of the rules - Antisocial (Dissocial) personality disorder* Grandiose - Narcissistic personality disorder* Attention seeking behavior - Histrionic personality disorder | train | med_mcqa | null |
All viruses can be cultured in | [
"Chemically defined media as that used for bacteria",
"Living systems only",
"Agar culture",
"Non living systems also"
] | B | Viruses can be cultivated in living systems only. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following are indications for using RU 486, EXCEPT: | [
"Post-coital contraception",
"Cervical ripening",
"Induction of labour",
"MTP"
] | C | Misoprostol (PGE1) and dinoprostone (PGE2) are two forms of prostaglandins are commonly used for cervical ripening before induction at term. RU-486 or mifepristone is an anti-progestin. It acts primarily as a competitive receptor antagonist for both progesterone receptors. Indications for its usage are, Termination of pregnancy Emergency contraception Prevention of conception Induction of labor For treatment of uterine leiomyomas, endometriosis, meningiomas, and breast cancer. Ref: Levin E.R., Hammes S.R. (2011). Chapter 40. Estrogens and Progestins. In L.L. Brunton, B.A. Chabner, B.C. Knollmann (Eds), Goodman & Gilman's The Pharmacological Basis of Therapeutics, 12e. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Maximum safe dose of lignocaine for spinal anesthesia is | [
"5-15 mg",
"25-100 mg",
"100-200 mg",
"150-300 mg"
] | B | 25-100 mg | train | med_mcqa | null |
In which of the following conditions are the Aschoff bodies observed? | [
"Acute myelogenous leukemia",
"Pheochromocytoma",
"Osteopetrosis",
"Rheumatic fever"
] | D | Aschoff bodies are the classic lesions observed in rheumatic fever. They are areas of focal necrosis surrounded by a dense inflammatory infiltration and may be observed in heart tissues. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Aschoff's nodules are seen in : | [
"Subacute bacterial endocarditis",
"Libman-sacks endocarditis",
"Rheumatic carditis",
"Nonbacterial thrombotic endocarditis"
] | C | Answer is C (Rheumatic carditis) Aschoff bodies are characteristic focal inflammatory lesions of acute rheumatic fever found in any of the three layers of the hea. "AschoffN body is pathognomic of Rheumatic fever" - Robbins Aschoff bodies: Aschoff bodies are focal inflammatory lesions seen during acute rheumatic fever During acute RF, Aschoff bodies may be found in any of the three layers of the hea - pericardium, myocardium and endocardium. Aschoffs body is pathognomic of Rheumatic fever | train | med_mcqa | null |
Vertical measure in mm from granular cell layer to the deepest part of tumour used in Melanoma for prognosis is | [
"Breslow s method",
"Clarks s method",
"Thomas method",
"Ashpit s method"
] | A | Breslow s thickness less than 1.7mm carries favorable prognosis. | train | med_mcqa | null |
who introduced camhor for patients for production of seizures for management of mental illness | [
"adler",
"medunna",
"freud",
"cerletti"
] | B | HISTORY * Medunna ====IM injection of camphor to induce seizures * Ugo cerletti and lucio bini==== ECT in a catatonic patient INDICATIONS * DEPRESSION SUICIDAL IDEAS-------------- first choice * CATATONIC SCHIZOPHRENIA * SCHIZOPHRENIA * MANIA * ELECTRODE PLACEMENT * Most commonly used=== bi fronto temporal * More cognitive side effects==bi fronto temporal * Less cognitive side effect======bi frontal * SIDE EFFECTS * RETROGRADE AMNESIA * BODY ACHE * MEDICATIONS USED IN THE PROCEDURE * ANAESTHETIC======Thiopentone / ethosuximide * MUSCLE RELAXANT====Succynyl choline CURARE IN PSEUDOCHOLINEESTERASE DEFICIENCY * ANTICHOLINERGIC=====Atropine CONTRA INDICATIONS * NO ABSOLUTE Contra indication * RELATIVE -----------------Brain tumour / arrythmia Ref. kaplon and sadock, synopsis of psyhiatry, 11 th edition, pg no. 1065 | train | med_mcqa | null |
According to Chandler’s index water containing 200-250 eggs should be considered as | [
"Safe",
"Mild pollution",
"Dangerous",
"Public health problem"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Short chain fatty acid produced by bacteria are maximally absorbed in: | [
"Duodenum",
"Colon",
"Ileum",
"Jejunum"
] | B | Increasing attention is being focused on short-chain fatty acids (SCFAs) that are produced in the colon and absorbed from it. SCFAs are 2–5 carbon weak acids that have an average normal concentration of about 80 mmol/L in the lumen. About 60% of this total is acetate, 25% propionate, and 15% butyrate. They are formed by the action of colonic bacteria on complex carbohydrates, resistant starches and other components of the dietary fiber, that is, the material that escapes digestion in the upper gastrointestinal tract and enters the colon.
Reference: Ganong’s Review of Medical Physiology T W E N T Y - F I F T H E D I T I O N page no 483 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Circulus iridis major is seen at | [
"Ciliary body",
"Pupillary margin",
"Collarette",
"Root of iris"
] | D | Anterior ciliary aeries join with 2 long posterior ciliary aeries at root of iris | train | med_mcqa | null |
Drug which may lead to hemolysis in a child with G6PD deficiency is - | [
"Penicillin",
"Primaquine",
"Ceftriaxone",
"Erythromycin"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Primaquine | train | med_mcqa | null |
When the height and taper of the preparation are same, which of the following provides better resistance | [
"Large diameter molar",
"Small diameter molar",
"Large diameter premolar",
"Small diameter premolar"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Caldwell lac view (occipito-frontal) can visualise -a) Sphenoid sinusb) Nasal bone c) Maxillary boned) Ethmoide) Frontal sinus | [
"bce",
"abd",
"abcd",
"bcde"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Couinaud Segment IX of liver belongs to: | [
"Left anatomical lobe",
"Left surgical lobe",
"Right surgical lobe",
"Right functional lobe"
] | B | Left surgical lobe * Couinaud Segment IX is a pa of caudate lobe (I) of the left surgical liver. * Left surgical liver contains segment number I, II, III & IV. * Left Anatomical lobe lies to the left of falciform ligament and contains only segment number III & IV. * Right surgical (functional) lobe contains segment no V, VI, VII & VIII. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 16 year old student reported for the evaluation of multiple hypopigmented macules on the trunk and limbs.All of the following tests are useful in making a diagnosis of leprosy, except – | [
"Sensation testing",
"Lepromin test",
"Slit smears",
"Skin biopsy"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is not true about tryptophan? | [
"Involved in niacin synthesis",
"Involved in serotonin synthesis",
"Involved in melatonin synthesis",
"It is a non essential amino acid."
] | D | Tryptophan is an essential aminoacid. It is used in the synthesis of Melatonin, serotonin and niacin. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Fetichism is: | [
"Desire of being identified with the opposite sex",
"Sexual intercourse with dead bodies",
"Use of objects of sexual gratification",
"Sexual gratification by suffering of pain"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Use of objects of sexual gratification * Fetishism : A fetish is an abnormal stimulus or object of sexual desire. Fetishism means the use of such objects of sexual gratification leading to orgasm. For exmaple underclothing, brassiere, petticoat, stocking, shoes, etc.Necrophilia:* In this condition, there is a desire for sexual intercourse with dead bodies.* It is said to have sadomasochistic foundation and that decomposition, foul smell, and coldness act as stimulants.* Sexual perversions -These are persistently indulged sexual acts in which complete satisfaction is sought and obtained without sexual intercourse. These includea) Sadism: Sexual gratification is obtained or increased from acts of physical cruelty or infliction of pain on ones partner. It is seen more commonly in men. To obtain sexual gratification, the sadist may bite, beat, whip, produce cuts on the victim, etc.b) Lust murder: In extremes of sadism, murder serves as a stimulus for the sexual act and becomes the equivalent of coitus, the act being accompanied by erection, ejaculation, and orgasm.c) Necrophagia: (Necros =corpse; phagia = to eat): This is extreme degree of sadism in which the person after mutilating the body, sucks or licks the wounds, bites the skin, drinks blood, and eats the flesh of his victim to derive sexual pleasure.d) Masochism: Sexual gratification is obtained or increased by the suffering of pain. Masochists get pleasure from being beaten, abused, tortured, humiliated, enslaved, degraded, or dominated by their sexual partner.e) Necrophilia: In this condition, there is a desire for sexual intercourse with dead bodies. It is said to have sadomasochistic foundation and that decomposition, foul smell and coldness act as stimulants.f) Fetishism: A fetish is an abnormal stimulus or object of sexual desire. Fetishism means the use of such objects of sexual gratification leading to orgasm, eg underclothing, brassiere, petticoat, stocking, shoes, etc.g) Transvestism = Eonism: A transvestite (trans = opposite, vista = clothing) is a person whose whole personality is dominated by the desire of being identified with the opposite sex. His dress, manner, occupational interest, and associations are all designed to increase his feeling of being a woman. There is no hormonal disturbance or genital abnormality.h) Masturbation = Onanism = Ipsation is the deliberate self-stimulation that effects sexual arousal. In males, it is done by moving the penis against a bed or other object. In females, finges are gently and rhythmically moved over clitoris or labia minora or steady pressure is applied over these parts with several fingers or whole hands (it is an offence when done in public).i) Exhibitionism (Sec 294IPC): It is a willful and intentional exposure of the genitalia in a public place while in the presence of others to obtain sexual pleasure. May or may not be associated with masturbation (punishment = 3 months + fine).j) Voyeurism = Scoptophilia = Peeping tom: Sexual gratification is obtained by looking at the sexual organs of other persons, watching the act of sexual intercourse, or witnessing undressing by a woman.k) Frotteurism: Sexual satisfaction is obtained by rubbing against persons in crowd. If they attempt intercourse, they have a premature ejaculation or they are impotent. It is an uncommon perversion and rarely occurs alone.l) Undinism: In this, the sexual pleasure is often obtained by witnessing the act of urination by someone of the same or opposite sex.m) Indecent assault (Sec 354 IPC) is any offence committed on a female with the intention or knowledge to outrage her modesty. Usually, the act involves the sexual part of either or is sexually favored. In such assaults, a man may try to kiss a woman, press or fondle with her breasts, touch or expose the genitalia or thighs, try to put a finger in her vagina, play with vulva.# A medical practitioner can be accused of indecent assault if he examines a female patient by stripping her clothes without her consent or even with her consent in the absence of a female attendant.# Such assaults are punishable under Sec 354 IPC, upto 2 years imprisonment and/or fine.n) Uranism: General term for perversion of the sexual instinct.o) Satyriasis: Incessant sexual desire.p) Priapism: Painful penile erection in absence of sexual desire. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The shoest diameter of fetal skull is : | [
"Sub occipito frontal",
"Sub mentobregmatic",
"Mento veical",
"Submentoveical"
] | B | Sub mentobregmatic | train | med_mcqa | null |
To allow space for the dentures, most tuberosity reduction require | [
"Only soft fibrous tissue removal",
"Large part of bone to be removed",
"No reduction, since Large tuberosities are more retentive",
"Removal of bone always"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which is the most abundant RNA molecule | [
"r RNA",
"t RNA",
"m RNA",
"mi RNA"
] | A | r RNA (80%)
t RNA (15%)
m RNA (5%)
mi RNA (<1%) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Civatte bodies are found in - | [
"Lichen Planus",
"Psoriasis",
"Dermatophytosis",
"Vitiligo"
] | A | In Lichen's planus, anucleate necrotic basal cells may become incorporated into the inflamed papillary dermis, where they are referred to as colloid bodies or civatte bodies. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Hb A2 concentration in thalassemia trait is – | [
"1",
"1–2.5",
"2.5–3.5",
">3.5"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Treatment of choice for annular pancreas is - | [
"Division of pancreas",
"Duodeno-duodenostomy",
"Duodeno-jejunostomy",
"Roux-en-Y loop"
] | B | Ans B Reference Sabiston Textbook of Surgery. 20th edition. Annular pancreas results from aberrant migration of the ventral pancreas bud which leads to circumferential or near-circumferential pancreas tissue surrounding the second portion of the duodenum This abnormality may be associated with other congenital defects, including Down syndrome, malrotation, intestinal atresia, and cardiac malformations If symptoms of obstruction occur surgical bypass through duodenojejunostomy is performed Axial image from an abdominal CT scan showing the annulus encircling the duodenum (arrow). Courtesy- | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following statements is not true regarding DOBUTAMINE? | [
"Agonist of D1 and D2 receptors",
"Derivative of dopamine",
"Selective beta-agonistic action",
"Reduced chances of arrhythmia than adrenaline"
] | A | Ans. a (Agonist of D, and D2 receptors) (Ref. KDT Pharmacology, 6th/l26; Table 9.2)Sympathomimetics EffectApplicationDirect sympathomimetics Epinephrineb>aAnaphylaxis, open angle glaucoma, asthma, hypotension; a effects predominate at high dosesNorepinephrinea1>a2>b1Hypotension (but | renal perfusion)IsoproterenolbElectrophysiologic evaluation of tachyarrhythmias.Can worsen ischaemia.DopamineD1 = D2>b>aUnstable bradycardia, heart failure, shock; inotropic and chronotropic a effects predominate at high dosesDobutamineB1>P2-aHeart failure (inotropic > chronotropic), cardiac stress testingPhenylephrine Hypotension (vasoconstrictor), ocular procedures (mydriatic), rhinitis (decongestant)Albuterol, salmeterol, terbutalineb1>b2Albuterol for acute asthma; salmeterol for longterm asthma or COPD control; terbutaline to reduce premature uterine contractionsIndirect sympathomimetics AmphetamineIndirect general agonist, reuptake inhibitor, also releases stored catecholaminesNarcolepsy, obesity, attention deficit disorderEphedrineIndirect general agonist, releases stored catecholaminesNasal decongestion, urinary incontinence, hypotensionCocaineIndirect general agonist, reuptake inhibitorCauses vasoconstriction and local anesthesia; never give b-blockers if cocaine intoxication is suspected (can lead to unopposed al activation and extreme hypertension)DOPAMINE (DA)# It is a dopamine (D1 and D2) as well as adrenergic a and b1 (but not b2) agonist. The D1 receptors in renal and mesenteric blood vessels are the most sensitive: i.v. infusion of low dose of DA dilates these vessels (by raising intracellular cAMP) increasing g.f.r. and Na+ excretion.# Moderately high doses produce a positive inotropic (b1 action + that due to NA release), but little chronotropic effect on heart. Vasoconstriction (a, action) occurs only when large doses are infused.# At doses normally employed, it raises cardiac output and systolic BP with little effect on diastolic BP.# It has practically no effect on nonvascular a and b receptors; does not penetrate blood-brain barrier - no CNS effects.# Dopamine is used in patients of cardiogenic or septic shock and severe CHF wherein it increases BP and urine outflow.# It is administered by i.v. infusion (0.2-1 mg/min) which is regulated by monitoring BP and rate of urine formation.DOBUTAMINE# A derivative of dopamine, but not a D1 or D2 receptor agonist.# Relatively selective b1 agonist.# Though it acts on both a and b adrenergic receptors, the only prominent action of clinically employed doses (2.5-10 mg/ kg/ min i.v. infusion) is increase in force of cardiac contraction and output.# Causes no significant change in heart rate, peripheral resistance and BP.# Used as an inotropic agent in:- pump failure accompanying myocardial infarction,- cardiac surgery, and- for short-term management of severe congestive heart failure.# It is less arrhythmogenic than adrenaline.Also know:wFeaturesb1b2b31.LocatiodnHeart, JG cells in kidneyBronchi, blood vessels, uterus, g.i.t., urinary tract, eyeAdipose tissue2.Selective agonistDobutamineSalbutamol, terbutalineBRL 373443.Selective antagonistMetoprolol, AtenololICI 118551a-methyl propranololCGP 20712A (also b1)ICI 118551 (also b2)4.Potency of NA as agonistStrongWeakStrong | train | med_mcqa | null |
Superficial muscles of perineum - | [
"Ischio Cavernosus",
"Bulbo Cavernosus",
"Levator ani",
"Ischio-Coccygeus"
] | A | Muscles in superficial perineal space.
- Ischiocavernosus
- Bulbospongiosus
- Superficial transverse perinei | train | med_mcqa | null |
Baon's fracture is ? | [
"Fracture distal end humerus",
"Extra-aicular fracture distal end radius",
"Intra-aicular fracture distal end radius",
"Intra-aicular fracture distal end radius with carpal bone subluxation"
] | A | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Intra-aicular fracture distal end radius with carpal bone subluxation Baon's fracture Baon's fracture is an intra-aicular fracture of distal radius with subluxation of carpals. When carpals subluxation occurs anteriorly (volar), it is called volar Baon's fracture. It is the commonest type. When carpals subluxate posteriorly (Dorsal), it is called Dorsal Baon's fracture. The Baon's fracture is difficult to manage by conservative methods : reduction is often imperfect and tends to be unstable, so that redisplacement often occurs. Therefore, often internal fixation by small buttress plating is recommended. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Fetus most radiosensitive at? | [
"8-15 weeks",
"10-15 weeks",
"15-20weeks",
">20 week"
] | A | Ans. (a) 8-15 weeksRef.: Radiation Injury Prevention and Mitigation in Human by Kedar N. Prasad p-62 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Transverse carpal ligament is ? | [
"Flexor retinaculum of hand",
"Extensor retinaculum of hand",
"Radial collateral ligament",
"Intercarpal ligament"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Flexor retinaculum of hand Transverse Carpal Ligament: It is also called flexor retinaculum or anterior annular ligament. It is a fibrous band on the palmar side of the hand near the wrist. It arches over the carpal bones of the hands, covering them and forming the carpal tunnel. | train | med_mcqa | null |
While lying supine in bed eating, a child aspirates a peanut. Which of the following bronchopulmonary segments would this foreign object most likely enter? | [
"Apical segment of the left upper lobe",
"Apical segment of the right upper lobe",
"Medial segment of the right middle lobe",
"Superior segment of the right lower lobe"
] | D | Foreign body Later symptoms are caused by airway obstruction, inflammation or trauma induced by the foreign body and would depend on the site of its lodgement. (a) Laryngeal foreign body. A large foreign body may totally obstruct the airway leading to sudden death unless resuscitative measures are taken urgently. A paially obstructive foreign body will cause discomfo or pain in the throat, hoarseness of voice, croupy cough, aphonia, dyspnoea, wheezing and haemoptysis. (b) Tracheal foreign body. A sharp foreign body will only produce cough and haemoptysis. A loose foreign body like seed may move up and down the trachea between the carina and the undersurface of vocal cords causing "audible slap" and "palpatory thud." Asthmatoid wheeze may also be present. It is best heard at patient's open mouth. (c) Bronchial foreign body. Most foreign bodies enter the right bronchus because it is wider and more in line with the tracheal lumen. A foreign body may totally obstruct a lobar or segmental bronchus causing atelectasis or it may produce a check valve obstruction, allowing only ingress of air but, not the egress, thus leading to obstructive emphysema. Emphysematous bulla may rupture causing spontaneous pneumothorax. A foreign body may also shift from one side to the other causing change in the physical signs. A retained foreign body in the lung may later give rise to pneumonitis, bronchiectasis or lung abscess. Ref : ENT textbook by Dhingra 6th edition Pgno : 321 | train | med_mcqa | null |
<img alt="" src=" />MIC-2 is a marker of | [
"Ewing's sarcoma",
"Osteosarcoma",
"Dermatofibrous protruberns",
"Alveolar cell sarcoma"
] | A | Study repos on the specific expression of the MIC2 gene, a pseudoautosomal gene located on the sho arms of the X and Y chromosomes, on Ewing&;s sarcoma (ES) and peripheral primitive neuroectodermal tumor (pPNET) cells. The gene product, a cell membrane protein, is recognized by the newly established monoclonal antibody (MoAb) HBA-71 and the previously described MoAb 12E7 and RFB-1. Fuhermore, the reaction pattern of the MIC2 antibodies, especially HBA-71, with normal tissues and a great number of benign and malignant tumors (70 different tumors, 199 tumor samples), as well as the correlation between the specific chromosomal aberrations. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A patient tested positive of MTB on sputum CBNAAT. He did not come again to PHC in spite of multiple reminders. He now presents with non-massive hemoptysis and is alarmed. What is the next best step for this patient? | [
"Urgent coagulation studies",
"Perform CT scan chest",
"Schedule a flexible fibreoptic biopsy",
"Urgent rigid bronchoscopy and prophylactic balloon tamponade"
] | B | Massive Hemoptysis - urgent rigid bronchoscopy and prophylactic balloon tamponade Non massive Hemoptysis - CT chest | train | med_mcqa | null |
Eleven years after undergoing right modified radical mastectomy, a 61-year-old woman develops raised red and purple nodules over the right arm. What is the most likely diagnosis? | [
"Lymphangitis",
"Lymphedema",
"Lymphangiosarcoma",
"Hyperkeratosis"
] | C | Lymphangiosarcoma is a rare complication of long-standing lymphedema, most frequently described in a patient who has previously undergone radical mastectomy (Stewart-Treves syndrome). It usually presents as blue, red, or purple nodules with satellite lesions. Early metastasis, mainly to the lung, may develop if it is not recognized early and widely excised. Lymphedema is a complication of radical mastectomy and presents as diffuse swelling and nonpitting edema of the limb. Lymphangitis and hyperkeratosis are complications of lymphedema. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Highest transmission of hepatitis B from mother to fetus occurs if the mother is infected during which phase of the pregnancy? | [
"Ist trimester",
"IInd trimester",
"IIIrd trimester",
"At the time of implantation"
] | C | Highest transmission of hepatitis B from mother to fetus occurs if the mother is infected during 3rd trimester (90%). Transmission is high from those mothers who are seropositive to hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg) and HbeAg. Risk of transmission is only 10% in first trimester. Hepatitis B virus is transmitted by parenteral route, sexual contact, veical transmission and also through breast milk. Neonatal transmission mainly occur at or around the time of bih through mixing of maternal blood and genital secretions. It can be diagnosed by the detection of HBsAg and HBeAg and antibody to hepatitis B core antigen (HBcAg). They are at high risk of developing chronic active hepatitis, cirrhosis and hepatocellular carcinoma. Ref: Textbook of Obstetrics By D. C Dutta, 6th Edition, Page 291-2 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Blocking of the internal air passage by external pressure over neck & chest is | [
"Gagging",
"Choking",
"Smothering",
"Wedging"
] | D | Cause Condition Occlusion of the internal airways by external pressure over neck Strangulation/hanging Blockage of the external orifices Smothering Blockage of the internal airways at nasopharynx Gagging Blockage of the internal airways at larynx Choking Occlusion of mouth and nose, and blockage of the internal airways by external pressure Overlaying Restriction of chest movement due to external mechanical fixation Traumatic asphyxia Occlusion of the internal airways by external pressure Wedging | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which one of the following is a relatively selective α2 adrenergic blocker with short duration of action ? | [
"Prazosin",
"Yohimbine",
"Terazosin",
"Doxazosin"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which is false of Horse shoe Kidney -a) Spider like appearance in IVPb) Ureteral Obstruction is commonc) Lower calyx is reversedd) Heminephrectomy improves function | [
"b",
"c",
"ac",
"ad"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
FAST USG focuses on all of the following areas except- | [
"Splenic",
"Hepatic",
"Pleura",
"Pelvic"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Pleura FAST stands for Focused Abdominal Sonar for Traymao technique whereby USG is used to assess the presence of blood, either in the abdominal cavity or in the pericardium.o It is a non- invasive bed - side test,o It focuses only on four areas:PericardiumSpleenHepaticPelvic | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is the causative agent of a variety of cutaneous warts (plantar, common, and flat) and is associated with cervical neoplasia? | [
"Human papillomavirus",
"West Nile virus",
"Tick-borne encephalitis virus",
"Polyomavirus"
] | A | Human papillomaviruses (HPV) are the causative agents of cutaneous warts as well as proliferative squamous lesions of mucosal surfaces. Although most infections by human papillomavirus are benign, some undergo malignant transformation into in situ and invasive squamous cell carcinoma. Both HPV and polyomavirus have icosahedral capsids and DNA genomes. JC virus, a polyomavirus, was first isolated from the diseased brain of a patient with Hodgkin's lymphoma who was dying of progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy (PML). This demyelinating disease occurs usually in immunosuppressed persons and is the result of oligodendrocyte infection by JC virus. JC virus has also been isolated from the urine of patients suffering from demyelinating disease. Cryotherapy and laser treatment are the most popular therapies for warts, although surgery may be indicated in some cases. At the present time, there is no effective antiviral therapy for treatment of infection with polyomavirus or HPV West Nile virus is an arbovirus. While prevalent in Europe, Africa, and the Middle East, it was not seen in the United States until the summer of 1999. It is transmitted by mosquitoes and birds, especially crows; these animals are a reservoir. WNV causes a rather mild encephalitis in humans, the exception being older patients or those who may be immunocompromised. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Number of roots in maxillary 2nd molar is | [
"2",
"3",
"4",
"5"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
All are contents of the Femoral traingle except | [
"Femoral nerve",
"Femoral vein",
"Superficial inguinal lymphatics",
"Nerve to pectineus"
] | C | Femoral triangle : Lateral - Saorius Medial - Adductor longus Base - Inguinal ligament Contents - Femoral nerve, Femoral aery, Femoral vein,deep inguinal lymphatics, nerve to pectineus. Ref : Gray's Anatomy The Anatomical Basics of Clinical Practice 41 e pg 1362. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Drug of choice for tetanus: | [
"Metronidazole",
"Penicillin",
"Erythromycin",
"Clindamycin"
] | A | Ans. (a) MetronidasoleMust know points for tetanus (8th day illness presenting with lock jaw)* Penicillin G was considered the drug of choice, but some now consider metronidazole to be superior in this setting. Tetracycline is an alternative for patients who are allergic to penicillin or metronidazoleTetanus immunoglobulin is used to1. Prevent tetanus and to treat patients with circulating tetanus toxin and provides passive immunity.2. Treat all patients with active tetanus, in combination with other supportive and therapeutic treatments. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Spores are disinfected by? | [
"Ethylene oxide",
"Beta Propiolactone",
"Formaldehyde",
"Hexachlorophene"
] | C | Formaldehyde is markedly bactericidal and sporicidal and has lethal effect on viruses. It is used to preserve anatomical specimens, and for destroying anthrax spores in hair and wool. Formaldehyde vapor, an effective environmental decontaminant under conditions of high humidity, is sometimes used to decontaminate laboratory rooms that have been accidentally and extensively contaminated with pathogenic bacteria, including those such as the anthrax bacillus that form resistant spores. Ethylene oxide sterilization is used for heat-labile materials. Ref: Ray C.G., Ryan K.J. (2010). Chapter 3. Sterilization, Disinfection, and Infection Control. In C.G. Ray, K.J. Ryan (Eds), Sherris Medical Microbiology, 5e | train | med_mcqa | null |
Rare complication of measles - | [
"Diarrhoea",
"Pneumonia",
"Otitis media",
"SSPE"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e., SSPE o Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE) is a rare complication of measles, which develops many years after the initial infection - PSM Park 19th/e p. 128o The most common complications are: measles- associated diarrhea, pneumonia and otitis media -PSM Park 19th/e-128Complications of MeaslesRespiratory tractCNSGastrointestinalOthers (rare)o Laiyngitiso Croupo Bronchitiso Otitis media (M.C.)o Pneumoniao Encephalitiso Transverse myelitiso SSPEo Gastroenteritiso Hepatitis]o Appendicitiso Ileocolitiso Mesentric adenitiso Myocarditiso Glomerulonephritiso Thrombocytopenic purpurao Exacerbation of preexisting T.B. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following movements is restricted in Perthe's disease - | [
"Adduction & external rotation",
"Abduction & external rotation",
"Adduction & internal rotation",
"Abduction & internal rotation"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Abduction & internal rotationClinical features of Perthes diseaseo Perthes disease is common in male of age group 5-10 years.o Pain in the hip, often radiating to knee,o Limp (antalgic limp)o Limitation of movement:-Abduction, internal rotation and extension are limited, therefore there is adduction, external rotation, and flexion deformity,o Shortening of limb.o Positive trendelenburg test.o During the disease process, bone age is 1-3 years lower than the normal. After healing, bone age returns to normal. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which cells of the mononuclear phagocyte system are presnt in liver ? | [
"Kupffer cells",
"Merkel cells",
"Gittle cells",
"Berger cells"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Kupffer cells | train | med_mcqa | null |
Differential media is ? | [
"Nutrient agar",
"Chocolate agar",
"MacConkey's agar",
"Tetrathionate broth"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., MacConkey's agar Differential media A medium has substances which bring out different characteristics of bacteria and thus helping to distinguish between them. Example - MacConkey's medium. Remember MacConkey's medium acts both as indicator and differential media. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Following surgery a patient develops oliguria. You believe the oliguria is due to hypovolemia, but you seek corroborative data before increasing intravenous fluids. Which of the following values suppos the diagnosis of hypovolemia? | [
"Urine sodium of 28 mEq/L",
"Urine chloride of 15 mEq/L",
"Fractional excretion of sodium less than 1",
"Urine/serum creatinine ratio of 20"
] | C | A fractional excretion of sodium (FENa) is calculated as (urine sodium x serum creatinine) / (serum sodium x urinary creatinine) x 100. A FENa less than 1% suppos a prerenal etiology for the patient's oliguria. When oliguria occurs postoperatively, it is impoant to differentiate between low output caused by the physiologic response to intravascular hypovolemia and that caused by acute tubular necrosis. A FENa of less than 1% in an oliguric setting indicates aggressive sodium reclamation in the tubules. Values above this suggest a tubular injury such that Na cannot be appropriately reclaimed. In the setting of postoperative hypovolemia, all findings would reflect the kidney's effos to retain volume: the urine sodium would be below 20 mEq/L, the urine chloride would not be helpful except in the metabolically alkalotic patient, the urine osmolality would be over 500 mOsm/kg, the urine/serum creatinine ratio would be above 20, and the blood urea nitrogen (BUN)/creatinine ratio would be above 20. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A New born weighing 1000g is born at gestational age of 30 weeks with respiratory distress after 2–3 hours of birth. What are the diagnostic possibilities – | [
"Diaphragmatic hernia",
"HMD",
"Pulmonary hemorrhage",
"All of these"
] | D | Pulmonar causes of neonatal res irator distress
Respiratory distress syndrome (hyaline membrane disease)
Meconium aspiration syndrome
Pneumonia
Transient tachypnea of newborn
Persistent pulmonary hypertension
Congenital malformation —> TEF, Diaphragmatic hernia, lobar emphysema, pulmonary hypoplasia.
Upper airway obustruction --> choanal atresia, vocal cord palasy, lingual thyroid.
Pulmonary hemorrhage
Coming back to question -
The newborn baby in this question is preterm neonate (born before 37 weeks).
Diaphragmatic hernia may occur in term or preterm infants and may present as respiratory distress soon after birth.
Hyaline membrane disease (HMD) is a disease of preterm neonates and present as respiratory distress during first 6 hours of life.
Bronchopulmonary dysplasia (BPD) occurs most commonly in neonate of HMD who have been treated with oxygen and positive pressure ventilation ---> Instead of showing improvement on 3rd-4th day, some infants of HMD develop an increased need of oxygen and ventilatory support. So, BPD is not a differential diagnosis of respiratory distress at 2-3 hours after birth. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Type of Growth Charts used by Anganwadi workers (ICDS) for growth monitoring | [
"NCHS",
"IAP",
"MRGS",
"CDC"
] | A | • In NRHM and ICDS, Government of India has adopted WHO Child Growth Standards 2006 (also known as MGRS ‘Multicentre Growth Reference Study’ Standards)
– Normal zone
– Below -2 SD: Malnutrition
– Below -3 SD: Severe Malnutrition | train | med_mcqa | null |
For optimum utilization of health services in a hospital, Bed turnover interval should always be | [
"Slightly positive",
"Largely positive",
"Slightly negative",
"Largely negative"
] | A | Ans. (a) Slightly positive* Bed turn over interval: Amount of time beds at hospital are unoccupied until next patients' admission following a patients' discharge- Negative values: Indicate over 100% occupancy, scarcity of beds, over-utilization of services- Positive values: Indicate vacant beds, underutilization of services due to defective admission process or poor quality medical care- Slight positive values: Indicate optimum utilization of services | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following organisms is most commonly associated with breast abscess? | [
"Staphylococcus Aureus",
"Pseudomonas",
"Propionobacterium Acnes",
"Staphylococcus Epidermidis"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Staphylococcus Aureus o Staphylocccus Aureus is the most common organism associated with Mastitis and Breast Abscess.o Staphylococcus epidermidis is part of normal skin flora, but is not a common cause of mastitis. Pseudomonas is a more common pathogen of the respiratory or urinary tract. Propionobacterium acnes is the bacteria most commonly associated with acne. | train | med_mcqa | null |
In case of deaths due to asphyxia, the pa which should be dissected last is - | [
"Neck",
"Thorax",
"Abdomen",
"Skull"
] | A | Abdominal and thoraxic organs are removed followed by brain and blood is drained out. The neck structures are dissected layer by layer to see the changes clearly in asphyxia. Dr. Narayana Reddys Synopsis of Forensic Medicine & Toxicology 27 th edition pg. 163. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Pseudohermaphroditism in a female child is most commonly due to- | [
"21-hydroxylase deficiency",
"17-hydroxylase deficiency",
"11-hydroxylase deficiency",
"3-hydroxylase deficiency"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' Le., 21-hydroxylase deficiency Classic 21-hydroxylase deficiency is the most common cause of Ambiguous genitalia in a new born. Virilization is usually apparent at bih in females Le Pseudohermaphroditism of a female child | train | med_mcqa | null |
In the majority of situations, the first deciduous tooth to erupt is the: | [
"Mandibular central incisor",
"Mandibular first molar",
"Maxillary central incisor",
"Maxillary second molar"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Investigation of choice for gall stone – | [
"X–ray",
"USG",
"Cholecystography",
"CAT Scan"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Biomedical concept of health is based on : | [
"Germ theory of disease",
"Absence of pain",
"Social and psychological factors",
"Equilibrium between man and environment"
] | A | BIOMEDICAL CONCEPT OF HEALTH: Health is being &;Free from disease&; Based on &;Germ theory of disease&; Limitation of concept : Minimal role of environmental, social, psychological and cultural determinants of health Ref: Park 25th edition Pgno : 13 | train | med_mcqa | null |
In case of vesicoureteric reflux which will be inv. of choice | [
"Micturating cystourethrogram",
"IVP",
"Cystography",
"Radionucletide study"
] | A | Ans is 'a' ie MCU "Two techniques are commonly used to detect VUR. The radiocontrast MCU is most commonly used since in addition to showing VUR it provides excellent anatomical details. Isotope radionuclide cystography is more sensitive for detccting VUR , and causes less radiation exposure than the former but provides less anatomical details. Follow-up screening of pts. diagnosed to have reflux (on radiocantrast study) may be done by radionuclide cystography, which is also useful for screening siblings for reflux." | train | med_mcqa | null |
Saccadicc eye movement is controlled by: | [
"Parietal lobe",
"Prefrontal lobe",
"Temporal lobe",
"Frontal coex"
] | D | Ans: d. Frontal coexNormally saccadic movements are voluntary but can be aroused by peripheral visual or auditory stimuli by stimulation of frontal eye fields(area 8).Thus these movements are programmed in the frontal coex.The bilateral frontal eye fields in this pa of the coex are concerned with the control of saccades, and an area just anterior to these fields is concerned with vergence and the near response. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Major contribution in the formation of nasal septum is by all except ? | [
"Septal cailage",
"Vomer",
"Ethmoid",
"Nasal bone"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Nasal bone The medial wall, or nasal septum, is formed (from anteiror to posterior) by : (1) the septal cailage (destroyed in a dried skull) (2) the perpendicular plate of the ethmoid bone, and (3) the vomer . It is usually deted to one side. The vomer contributes to the inferior poion of the nasal septum; the perpendicular plate of the ethmoid bone contributes to the superior poion. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most Common delusion of Schizophrenia includes | [
"Persecution",
"Grandiose",
"Reference",
"Nihilistic"
] | A | (A) Persecution # DELUSIONS are misguided beliefs that have no basis in reality, and people with schizophrenia often suffer from delusions as a symptom of their disease. Their disorganized thinking and impaired ability to interpret new information often lead them to false perceptions. People with schizophrenia often have delusions that fit certain common categories.> Persecutory delusions are the most common type of delusions experienced by people with schizophrenia. These types of delusions are based on suspicions of being targeted by someone or something. People with these types of delusions mistakenly believe that they are being followed, harmed, poisoned or tormented. Delusions of persecution are suggestive of the paranoid type of schizophrenia.> Referential: Referential delusions are another common type of delusion reported by people with schizophrenia. People with referential delusions believe that gestures and words of others are specifically directed at them. They become convinced that they are the focus of song lyrics, books or comments made by someone on television.> Grandiose: Delusions of grandeur are based on the affected person's mistaken idea that he is someone of extreme importance. People with this type of delusions may believe they are a popular celebrity or a powerful political figure. Since they believe they are well-known or famous, it is disturbing to them when others do not recognize or acknowledge them as such.> Religious: Religious delusions center around misguided ideas about one's relationship with God. People with schizophrenia with this type of delusion may believe they have a special relationship with God or that God has given them special powers. They may profess an ability to speak directly to God or a responsibility to carry out God's plans. In some cases, these individuals may actually believe that they are God.> Somatic: Somatic delusions involve a preoccupation with one's body. These delusions commonly consist of erroneous beliefs that they are suffering from a physical condition, such as a tumor. However, the perceived source of the physical malady is usually bizarre, such as having a foreign substance in one's body.> Control: Delusions of control involve the belief that one's thoughts and actions have been taken over by some outside force. People with schizophrenia with delusions of control believe that their thoughts have been involuntarily taken from their mind. Therefore, they are convinced that the thoughts in their mind are not their own. Delusions of control may also include the belief that their bodies are being manipulated to perform certain actions.# SUBTYPES OF SCHIZOPHRENIA: With the publication of DSM-5, the APA removed all sub-classifications of schizophrenia. The five sub-classifications included in DSM-IV-TR were:> Paranoid type: Delusions or auditory hallucinations are present, but thought disorder, disorganized behavior, or affective flattening are not. Delusions are persecutory and/or grandiose, but in addition to these, other themes such as jealousy, religiosily. or somatization may also be present.> Disorganized type: Named hebephrenic schizophrenia in the ICD. Where thought disorder and flat affect are present together.> Catatonic type: The subject may be almost immobile or exhibit agitated, purposeless movement. Symptoms can include catatonic stupor and waxy flexibility.> Undifferentiated type: Psychotic symptoms are present but the criteria for paranoid, disorganized, or catatonic types have not been met.> Residual type: Where positive symptoms are present at a low intensity only.> ICD-10 defines two additional subtypes: Post-schizophrenic depression: A depressive episode arising in the aftermath of a schizophrenic illness where some low level schizophrenic symptoms may still be present. Simple schizophrenia: Insidious and progressive development of prominent negative symptoms with no history of psychotic episodes.> Latent schizophrenia, schizophrenic reaction, pseudoneurotic schizophrenia, pseudopsychopathic schizophrenia, "symptom- depleted" schizophrenia are in the Russian version of the ICD-10. | train | med_mcqa | null |
B/L ronchi are seen in -a) Pulmonary edemab) Pulmonary emobolismc) Bronchiectasisd) Pulmonary AV fistula | [
"a",
"ac",
"ad",
"b"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Erythema infectiosum (fifth disease), a self-limited disease of children, is caused by | [
"Measles",
"Parvovirus",
"Rubella",
"Human herpesvirus type 6"
] | B | Parvovirus B19 causes the common disease erythema infectiosum, characterized by a "slapped cheek" rash. Called fifth disease, it is the fifth childhood rash disease; the other four are measles, rubella, scarlet fever, and roseola. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Choose the appropriate lettered structure in this computed tomography scan of the male perineum and pelvis. A stab wound immediately superior to the pubic symphysis on the anterior pelvic wall would most likely injure which visceral organ first? | [
"A",
"B",
"C",
"D"
] | C | (c) The bladder is situated in the anterior part of the pelvic cavity. Thus, a stab wound superior to the pubic symphysis would injure the bladder. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All are the contents of deep perineal pouch except: | [
"Bulbourethral glands",
"Internal urethral sphincter",
"Dorsal nerve of penis",
"Bulb of penis"
] | D | D i.e. Bulb of penis | train | med_mcqa | null |
Greenish colour in a contussion is due to - | [
"Hemosiderin",
"Haemotoidin",
"Bilirubin",
"Biliverdin"
] | B | Green color is due to Haemotoidin. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Commonest cuase of urethral stricture in a young person is - | [
"Trauma",
"Gonococcal",
"Syphilis",
"Tuberculosis"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Trauma Post gonococcal stricture is less common since the introduction of effective antibiotic | train | med_mcqa | null |
A premature baby weighing 1.5 kg, born with emergency C.S. at 32 weeks, now develops respiratory distress with grunting. The best management would be: | [
"C-pap",
"Mechanical ventilation",
"Moist oxygen through headbox",
"Surfactant therapy plus mechanical ventilation"
] | D | Premature infants with respiratory distress syndrome present with progressively worsening retractions, tachypnea, and oxygen requirements because their lungs are too immature to synthesize surfactant. This disease has a characteristic radiographic pattern that includes "ground glass" opacities in the lung parenchyma and prominent air bronchograms. Initial therapy for respiratory distress syndrome involves using CPAP to stent open the airways, thereby reducing the collapse of the alveoli and limiting fuher damage. For intubated infants with respiratory distress syndrome, the second intervention involves surfactant administration through the ET tube. This procedure can result in rapid changes in pulmonary compliance. Ref: Wood K.S., Gordon P.V. (2011). Chapter 4. Neonatal and Pediatric Transpo. In J.E. Tintinalli, J.S. Stapczynski, D.M. Cline, O.J. Ma, R.K. Cydulka, G.D. Meckler (Eds), Tintinalli's Emergency Medicine: A Comprehensive Study Guide, 7e. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Hide and die syndrome is seen in ? | [
"Hypothermia",
"Hypehermia",
"Lightening injuries",
"Electrocution"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Hypothermia Paradoxical undressing and hide and die syndrome are the symptoms which are apparent in the terminal stages of hypothermia. A) Paradoxical undressing This typically occurs during moderate to severe hypothermia, as the person becomes disoriented, confused, and combative. They may begin discarding their clothing, which, in turn, increases the rate of heat loss. B) Terminal burrowing/ Hide and Die syndrome An apparent self-protective behaviour known as terminal burrowing, or hide-and-die syndrome, occurs in the final stages of hypothermia. The afflicted will enter small, enclosed spaces, such as underneath beds or behind wardrobes. It is often associated with paradoxical undressing. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Potassium iodide is contraindicated in all of the following conditions, EXCEPT: | [
"Dermatitis herpetiformis",
"Iodine hypersensitivity",
"Hypocomplementemic vasculitis",
"Pregnant women"
] | D | Persons with dermatitis herpetiformis and hypocomplementemic vasculitis are at increased risk for sensitivity from Potassium Iodide. It is a contraindication in both the conditions. Known iodine allergy is a contraindication. Caution: Iodine may be used in pregnant women, infants, and children, but safety has not been clearly established. Hence, not a contraindication. Ref: Rowley F. (2012). Chapter 196. Iodide (Potassium Iodide, KI). In K.R. Olson (Ed), Poisoning & Drug Overdose, 6e. | train | med_mcqa | null |
After bih Ductus Venosus anatomically closes by | [
"10 to 96 hours",
"< 1week",
"2 to 3 weeks",
"> 4 weeks"
] | C | The ductus venosus constricts by 10 to 96 hours after bih and is anatomically closed by 2 to 3 weeks, resulting in the formation of the ligamentum venosum.Reference: William&;s Obstetrics; 24th edition; Chapter 7; Embryogenesis and Fetal Morphological Development | train | med_mcqa | null |
Perineal hematoma after trauma is due to? | [
"Rupture of membranous urethra",
"Rupture of bulbar urethra",
"Pelvic organ blunt trauma",
"Rupture of bladder"
] | B | ANSWER: (B) Rupture of bulbar urethraREE: Sabiston Textbook of Surgery, 18th ed chapter 77Bulbar urethral injuryMembranous urethral injuryMore commonLess commonDue to direct blow to perineumBlunt trauma to pelvis and fractureRetention of urine seenRetention of urine seenBlood at urethral meatusBlood at urethral meatusPerineal hematomaPelvic hematomaSuperficial extravasation of urine into superficial perineal pouch and then passes into scrotum, penis and anterior abdominal wallDeep extravasation of urine into perivesical space | train | med_mcqa | null |
Anterior horn of lateral ventricle is closed anteriorly by | [
"Thalamus",
"Corpus callosum",
"Lamina terminalis",
"Septum pellucidum"
] | B | Anterior horn of lateral ventricle is closed anteriorly by Genu and Rostrum of corpus callosum | train | med_mcqa | null |
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