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Most common cause of hereditary spherocytosis:
[ "Spectrin", "Glycophorin", "Ankyrin", "Band 4" ]
C
Most common cause of hereditary spherocytosis is ankyrin gene mutation. Ankyrin is the principal binding site for spectrin on the red cell membrane. Mutations of alpha-spectrin are associated with recessive forms of HS, whereas mutations of beta-spectrin occur in families with autosomal dominant forms of HS.
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Following is the advantage of anastrazole over tamoxifen in cases of breast carcinoma -
[ "Not a teratogen", "Causes more cardiomegaly", "Prevents estrogen production from extraovarian sources", "All of the above" ]
C
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Prevents estrogen production from extraovarian sources o Both the drugs anastrazole and tamoxifene are used in the medical management of patients with breast carcinoma. These patients mostly belong to old age group and the main source of estrogen is from peripheral conversion of androgen to estrogen using aromatase enzyme.o Tamoxifene antagonizes the action of estrogen on breast and so is used in breast carcinoma management, it does not have an effect on the peripheral conversion of androgen to estrogen.o Anastrazole on the other hand is an aromatase inhibitor and is responsible to block the peripheral conversion of androgen to estrogen; thus blocking the main source of estrogen in post menopausal older age group women. This is an advantage of using anastrazole over tamoxifene.Note:# Letrozole group of drugs (anastrazole) are highly teratogenic and should be avoided during pregnancy.# Cardiomyopathy is a serious side effect of tamoxifene.# Drug of choice for Her2/Neu +ve carcinoma breast is transtuzumab.
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Romana's sign is seen in infection due to:
[ "Trypanosoma cruzi", "Trypanosoma brucei", "Leishmania donovani", "Onchocerciasis" ]
A
Ans. a (Trypanosoma cruzi). (Ref. Harrison's medicine 16th ed. 1239)CHAGAS'DISEASE# Agent and Vector:- Trypanosoma cruzi (a protozoan) is transmitted through infected insect feces deposited near the bite of blood- sucking insects, especially "reduviid" or "kissing bugs"; and also perinatally, through transfusion, or through parenteral injection.# Incubation:- Incubation is 5-14 days for the initial lesion (if present). The acute stage lasts two-four months and the chronic stage may be life-long.# Acute stage - Signs and Symptoms- About 50% of patients develop either a nodular lesion or furuncle (chagoma) at the site of the bite.- Conjunctival contamination with the vector's feces results in unilateral painless palpebral and periorbital swelling (Romana's sign) and associated lymphadenopathy of nodes draining the lesion. Other symptoms include prolonged fever, tachycardia, fatigue, anemia, weakness, hepatosplenomegaly, lymphadenopathy, and myocarditis.- It lasts 4-8 weeks and in rare cases may include myocarditis or meningoencephalitis.- In severe cases temporary electrocardiogram changes are seen, especially first degree A/V block.# chronic stage - Signs and Symptoms- The parasites have an affinity for smooth, skeletal, and heart muscle; and the nervous system.- The heart is the most commonly effected organ, with manifestations including CHF (often right sided), rhythm disturbances, thromboembolism, and cardiomyopathy.- Megaesophagus may occur, with dysphagia, odynophagia, chest pain, cough, and regurgitation.# Rx:- Nifurtimox
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The principal polypeptide that increases food intake are the following except .
[ "Neuropeptides-Y", "Leptin", "Orexin -A", "B-Endorphins" ]
B
*All the above except leptin increases appetite . Leptin decreses appetite . <img src=" /> Image ref - Harrison internal medicine 20e p2839
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Which of the following is a poor prognostic factor in Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia (ALL) -
[ "Hyperdiploidy", "t (9;22); t (4; 11)", "2-8 years of age", "WBC count < 50,000" ]
B
The high risk indicators in ALL includes age below 1 year & above 10 year, male ,initial white cell count more than 50,000/mm^3, massive hepatomegaly & splenomegaly, prwsence of mediastinal mass & central nervous system leukaemia , mature Bcell as phenotype , hypodiploidy, t(9;22),t(4;11), t(8;14).Reference :Ghai essential pediatrics 8th edition pg no 601.
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True about metaplasia is
[ "Loss of polarity", "Nucleus is smaller in size", "It is a reversible change", "Immature cells" ]
C
Answer- C. It is a reversible changeMetaplasia is an adaptive change in which one adult (mature) cell type is replaced by another adult (mature) cell.It is reversible.There is no pleomorphism, and cell polarity as well as cell & nuclear size are not altered.
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RCH-II major strategies are all except -
[ "Essential obstetric care", "Emergency obstetric care", "Family Planning", "Strengthening referral system" ]
C
Family planning is not a component of RCH-II. REF. PARK'S TEXTBOOK OF PREVENTIVE AND SOCIAL MEDICAL 21ST EDITION. PAGE NO - 411
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Not a carcinogen for bladder cancer -
[ "Benzidine", "Isoprospyl alcohol", "Acrolein", "Phenacetin" ]
B
Ceain industrial chemicals have been linked with bladder cancer. Chemicals called aromatic amines, such as benzidine and beta-naphthylamine, which are sometimes used in the dye industry, can causebladder cancer. ... Cigarette smoking and workplace exposures can act together to cause bladder cancer. The most common risk factor is cigarette smoking, although smoking cigars and pipes can also raise the risk of developingbladder cancer. Smokers are 4 to 7 times more likely to develop bladder cancer than nonsmokers. Learn more about tobacco's link to cancer and how to quit smoking. Age.
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In the case of Hanging neck ligature marks are an example of
[ "Contusion", "Pressure abrasion", "Laceration", "Bruise" ]
B
Ligature mark is a type of pressure /imprinted/ contact/patterned abrasion. Some important facts:- Patterned abrasions are any impact or pressure abrasions which reproduce the pattern of the object causing it. Thus an impact abrasion may be a pattern abrasion if it reproduces the pattern of the object, e.g. a pattern of radiator grill (after hit by a car) is a type of impact abrasion and at the same time, it is a patterned abrasion as it is reproducing the pattern of radiator grill. Similarly, a pressure abrasion may be a patterned abrasion if it reproduces the pattern of the object, e.g. ligature mark in hanging or strangulation is a pressure abrasion and at the same time it is also a patterned abrasion.
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Not true about anterior cruciate ligament.
[ "It begins just behind the anterior horn of lateral meniscus on tibia", "It is taut in extension", "It provides proprioceptive inputs to knee", "It is extra-synol" ]
A
* ACL begins just behind anterior horn of medial meniscus, not lateral meniscus Structures attached on upper end on tibia: (Mnemonic: MCL-LMC ) M- Anterior horn of medial meniscus C- Anterior cruciate ligament L- Anterior horn of lateral meniscus L- Posterior horn of lateral meniscus M- Posterior horn of medial meniscus C- Posterior cruciate ligament ACL PCL (stouter ligamentous structure) Intracapsular, extrasynol Intracapsular, extrasynol Major stabilizer of knee, stabilizes internal rotation and extension of tibia on femur. Limits forward gliding of tibia on femur hyperextension Contributes to lateral stability, limits anterolateral rotation of tibia on femur. Injured by occurrence of excessive movements which it limits. It limits backward glide of tibia on femur (posterior translation) and checks hyperextension only after the ACL is ruptured. PCL restricts External rotation Injured by high velocity trauma ('dash board impact') with posterior dislocation of tibia on a flexed knee Posterior cruciate ligament is active in all knee movements
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Skip lesions of colon with epitheloid granuloma are usually seen with -
[ "Crohn's disease", "Ulcerative colitis", "Intestinal TB", "Sarcoidosis" ]
A
null
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A middle aged patient presents with complaint of right hypochondrial pain. On plain chest x ray, elevated right hemidiaphragm is seen. All of the following are possible diagnosis except:
[ "Acute cholecystitis", "Subphrenic abscess", "Amebic liver abscess", "Pyogenic liver abscess" ]
A
Ans is 'a' i.e. Acute cholecystitis Also know. Level of right diaphragm on chest x ray: the dome of right diaphragm lies between 5 - 6'h ribs (anterior inferior ends of ribs). Left diaphragm lies 0.5 to 2.5 cm lower than the right dome of diaphragm.
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A 60 year old female is suffereing from renal failure and is on hemodialysis since last 8 years. She developed carpal tunnel syndrome. Which of the following will be associated? -
[ "AL", "AA", "ATTR", "Beta 2 microglobulin" ]
D
Reference :Robbins basic pathology 9th edition page no 158:Deposition of beta2 microglobulin amyloid in patients receivi g long term dialysis occurs most commonly in the carpal ligaments of the wrist resulting in compression of the median nerve leading to carpal tunnel syndrome
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What is an absolute indication for surgery in disc prolapse?
[ "Recurrent episodes of sciatica", "Pain not relieved by complete rest", "Cauda equina paralysis", "All the above" ]
C
Ans. C. Cauda equine paralysisAbsolute indications for disc prolapse surgery are:* Failed conservative management* Marked progressive weakness of muscles* Progressive neurological deficit* Cauda equina paralysisRelative indications are:* Recurrent episodes of incapacitating sciatica* Pain not relieved by complete rest from activities* Surgery is done to ensure that the pressure on the nerve root is relieved by removing the prolapsed disk.Note:* The most common cause of sciatica is IVDP.
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Not an Aberration of Normal Development and Involution (ANDI) NOT RELATED-GYN
[ "Fibroadenoma", "Duct ectasia", "Cyclical mastalgia", "Intraductal papilloma" ]
D
null
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Sacrospinous ligament is crossed by all, EXCEPT:
[ "Internal pudendalaretry", "Internal pudendal vein", "Nerve to obturatorinternus", "None of the above" ]
D
The ischial spine projects downwards and a little medially. The sacrospinous ligament is attached to its margins, separating the greater from the lesser sciatic foramen. The ligament is crossed posteriorly by the internal pudendal vessels and the nerve to obturatorinternusRef: Gray's anatomy 40th edition, Chapter 111
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site of action of vecuronium is
[ "Cerebrum", "Reticular formation", "Motor neuron", "Myoneural junction" ]
D
Vecuronium is the non-depolarising neuromuscular blocker, acts on nicotinic receptors(Nm) at myoneural junction.
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In a patient if administration of vasopressin does not increase the osmolality of urine, it indicates?
[ "ADH deficieny", "Renal hyposensitivity towards ADH", "SIADH", "Psychogenic polydipsia" ]
B
Renal hyposensitivity towards ADH REF: Harrison's 17th ed p. 274 If the osmolality of urine increases after administration of ADH - Nephrogenic DI (Renal hyposensitivity) If the osmolality of urine decreases after administration of ADH- Central DI
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True about penderd's syndrome ?
[ "Blindness", "Conductive deafness", "Sensorineural deafness", "All of the above" ]
C
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Sensorineural deafness Impoant features of Pendered syndrome: Congenital disorder Mutation in gene SLC 26 A4. Which codes for a protein called pendrin (helps in transpo of ions across membrane). Impaired activity of Pendrin is seen in inner ear and thyroid gland. Bilateral sensorineural hearing loss. Goiter. Sometimes hypothyroidism. Occasionally vestibular dysfunction. No specific treatment.
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Most common testicular tumor?
[ "Seminoma", "Teratoma", "Sertoli cell tumor", "Chorio-CA" ]
A
Ans. (a) SeminomaRef : Bailey & Love 26th ed. /1385* Seminoma is the most common germ cell tumor of the testis or, more rarely, the mediastinum or other extra- gonadal locations. It is a malignant neoplasm and is one of the most treatable and curable cancers, with a survival rate above 95% if discovered in early stages.
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Duration of MDR TB -
[ "8-12 months", "12-16 months", "16-24 months", "2-3 years" ]
D
<p> The total duration of treatment for MDR-TB is 24-27 months,depending on IP duration. Park&;s textbook of preventive and social medicine,K.Park,23rd edition,page no:191 <\p>
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Which of the following does not give sensory supply to the pinna:
[ "Auricotemporal Nerve", "Great Auricular Nerve", "Lesser Occipital Nerve", "Tympanic branch of Glossopharyngeal Nerve" ]
D
D i.e. Tympanic branch of glossopharyngeal nerveTympanic branch of glossopharyngeal (IX) nerve or Jacobson's nerve supplies the medial (inner) surface of tympanic membrane. It does not supply pinnaQ.Main nerves supplying the skin of auricle (pinna) are great auricular nerve (c2, CP and auriculo temporal nerve (V3)(2 with a small contribution from lesser occipital nerve, (C2), auricular branch of vagus (X) nerve or Arnold's nerve and facial nerve.The great auricular supplies the whole of the cranial (medial /back) surface of auricle (C2, with a little overlap from the lesser occipital at the top) and the posterior pa of lateral (front) surface (helix, anthelix, and lobule).The auriculo temporal nerve (br. of CNV3) supplies the upper pa of lateral surface , skin of auricle anterior to external acoustic meatus, tragus, crus & adjacent pa of helix and most of meatal skin.Auricular branch of vagus (Arnold's nerve) supplies skin on the concavity of concha & posterior pa of eminentia , posterior wall & floor of meatus and adjoining tympanic membrane.
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Uv radiation has which of the following effects on cell
[ "Prevents formation of pyrimidine dimers", "Stimulates formation of pyrimidine dimers", "Prevents formation of purine dimers", "All the above" ]
B
Ref Robbins 8/e p312, 9/e p314 The carcinogenicity of UV_B light is attributed to it's formation of pyrimidine dimmers in DNA.this type of DNA amage is repaired by the nucleotide extension repair pathway of DNA repair is illustrated by hight frequency of cancers in individuals with the hereditary disorder xeroderma pigmentosum
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Which of the following hormones is responsible for inhibiting lactation during pregnancy?
[ "Progesterone", "Human placental lactogen", "Oxytocin", "Prolactin" ]
A
Lactation is d/t Prolactin so it cannot inhibit lactation Progestrone: Maintain pregnancy & during pregnancy inhibits Lactation. Post delivery its effect is gone so doesn't inhibit Lactation. Oxytocin: has no role in lactation, its function is milk production.
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Important function of thick liner:
[ "Prevention of pulpal inflammation", "Inducing reparative dentin formation", "Both of the above", "None" ]
C
As the tooth preparation extends closer to the pulp, a thick liner or a base is used to augment dentin to the proper thickness range. Such a liner or base cannot harden by evaporation of solvent or water,  because it would not dry effectively.  Material used for this purpose hardens by a chemical reaction or is light-cured. In addition to thermal protection, liners are formulated to provide pulpal medication whenever possible. Two important aspects of pulpal medication are the relief of pulpal inflammation and facilitation of dentinal bridging for physiologic protection.  The materials (eugenol and calcium hydroxide) most commonly used to provide these two functions are not mutually compatible and cannot be used in the same formulation.
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Risk of amniotic fluid embolism is greatest in :
[ "First trimester of pregnancy", "Second trimester of pregnancy", "During labour", "In puerperal period" ]
C
During labour
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Florence test is used for -
[ "Blood", "Semen", "Urine", "Albumin" ]
B
null
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A patient present with acute anterior wall infarction and hyotension. Which will be the immediate treatment modality for this atient :
[ "Intra aoic balloon counter pulsation", "Anticoagulation", "Thrombolytic therapy", "Primary antioplasty" ]
D
Answer is a D (Primary angioplasty) Immediate coronary angiography and primary percutaneous intervention (angioplasty stenting) is the treatment of choice for patient of ST elevation MI presenting within the first 12 hours of MI. The question does not provide us with sufficient information to determine best strategy of management. Presuming all ourable factors, primary percutaneous intervention with angiography and angioplasty is the single best answer of choice. Treatment of ST elevation Acute MI : Thrombolysis vs PCI The current recommendation is to Treat with Reperfusion Therapy either primary percutaneous Coronary Intervention of Thrombolytic therapy. Immediate coronary angiography and primary PCI of the infarct related aery is shown to be superior to thrombolysis provided it is performed by experienced operators in high volume centres. Primary PCI is also the treatment of choice in patients with absolute and many relative contraindications to thrombolysis. In the subgroup of patients with Cardiogenic Shock Primary PCI is the preferred management. The patient in question has an acute anterior wall infarction along and is presenting with hypotension (? Cordiogenic shock). Angiography will primary PCI (Angiopathy) is the recommended /ideal immediate nodality of treatment.
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Pralidoxime is ineffective in case of which poisoning ? -
[ "Organophosphorous", "Carbaryl", "Both", "None" ]
B
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Carbaryl o Oximes are contraindicated in carbamates poisoning (carbaryl is a carbamate).
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Sialography is used to detect anomaly of:
[ "Salivary duct only", "Salivary gland", "Salivary gland & duct", "Salivary gland tumours" ]
C
null
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One of the following statement is unique about circumpulpal dentine
[ "Collagen fibers are oriented perpendicular to DEJ", "Vonkorff fibers are present", "Contain phosphophoryn", "Requires matrix vesicle for mineralization" ]
C
null
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Which of the following is associated with suicide risk?
[ "Noradrenaline", "Serotonin", "GABA", "Dopamine" ]
B
Ans. B SerotoninLow concentrations of 5-hydroxyindoleacetic acid (5-HIAA- metabolite of serotonin) in CSF associated with higher suicide risk
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Krause end bulbs are specialised receptors for
[ "Cold", "Pain", "Touch", "Heat" ]
A
null
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Tumour with perineural invasion:
[ "Adenocarcinoma", "Adenoid cystic Ca", "Basaal cell ca", "Squamous cell ca" ]
B
Ans is 'b' ie Adenocystic Ca
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Voluntary retrusion of mandible in closed mouth is done by which muscles?
[ "Anterior belly of digastric", "Posterior fibers of temporalis", "Posterior belly of digastric", "Deep fibers of masseter" ]
B
null
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Site where Neisseria Meningitidis bacteria harbour normally?
[ "Skin", "Genitals", "Nasopharynx", "Lower GIT" ]
C
Ref: Microbiology by Ananthanarayan and Paniker, 8th ed. pg. 224-25; K. Park 20th ed. pg. 150, 151* N. Meningococci are capsulated Gram negative diplococci* Reservoir for N. Meningitides-Human nasopharynx is only reservoir of meningococcus. (N. meningitidis)* Most important source- carriers are the most imp source, not clinical cases.* They are arranged in pairs with adjacent sides flattened--7 half moon shaped.* Transport medium--Stuart's medium.* Blood agar, chocolate agar and Muller-Hinton agar are the media commonly used for culturing meningococci.* Age group- 3 month-5 years* Serotype- total 13, out of which serotype A, B, C are most important# Serotype A- Epidemics# Serotype B- Both epidemic and local outbreaks# Serotype C- Local out breaks* Chemoprophylaxis has been suggested for close contacts.* Is DOC for prophylaxis.* Ceftriaxone > ciprofloxacin > Rifampicin
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All true about armoured endotracheal tube except
[ "These are tube with metal wire coil embedded in the wall of the tube shaft.", "It has radiopaque line like normal ETT", "It is bend resistant", "It has slightly thicker outer wall as compared to normal ETT" ]
B
Just likestandard ET tubes,armored or reinforced tubes have the typical left-facing bevel tip and Murphy eye. Their distinctive feature is ametal wire coilembedded in the wall of the tube shaft. The fact that these tubes contain a metal wire coil means there is no need for a radio-opaque line. Useful in head and neck surgeriesand when the patient is in a prone position.
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Lichenburg flower is a classical finding in which of the following:
[ "Lightening stroke", "Electrical injuries", "Joule burn", "Scald burn" ]
A
Ans. (a) Lightening strokeRef: The Essentials ofFSM by K.S. Narayan Reddy 31st ed./310-311* LIGHTENING STROKE: It is an electrical discharge from the cloud to the earth.* Classical finding: FILLIGREE BURN/ LITCHENBURG' S FLOWERS: superficial, irregular, thin resembling the branches of a tree also known as arborescent burn.* Most common site is shoulder flanks. (Cause is staining of tissues with Hb along the path of current.)
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Which of the following will produce decreased EEG ACTIVITIES?
[ "hypothermia", "early hypoxia", "ketamine", "nitrous oxide" ]
A
Decreased EEG Increased EEG All inhalational and intravenous anaesthetics Ketamine hypoxia N2O hypercapnia Early hypoxia Hypothermia Early hypothermia Hypotension Early hypercapnia Early hypotension
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Morphological stages of tooth development are explained based on:
[ "Shape of enamel organ", "Shape of tooth germ", "Functions of enamel organ", "Shape of dental papilla" ]
A
Morphological stages of tooth development, i.e. bud, cap and bell stage are named after the shape of enamel organ.
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Corneal transparency is maintained by:
[ "Bowman's membrane", "Endothelium", "Keratocytes", "Descemet's membrane" ]
B
The primary mechanism controlling stromal hydration is a function of the corneal endothelium which actively pumps out theelectrolytes and water flows out passively. Endothelium consists of a single layer of flat polygonal (mainly hexagonal) epithelial cells (misnamed as endothelium) which on slit-lamp biomicroscopy appear as a mosaic.
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All of the following are seen in active chronic hepatitis except-
[ "IgM against core antigen", "Total core antibody", "HbeAg", "HbsAg" ]
A
null
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The critical angle of cornea-air interface is
[ "36 degree", "46 degree", "56 degree", "66 degree" ]
B
Critical angle refers to the angle of incidence in the denser medium, corresponding to which angle of refraction in the rare medium is 90deg. At the tear-air interface, the critical angle is approximately 46deg. Made use of in construction of gonio lenses where this interface is changed and as a result critical angle becomes larger allowing for the reflected light to escape the eye and get reflected on the gonio mirrors which helps the examiner visualize the angle of the eye
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Unlike other GI secretions, salivary secretion is controlled almost exclusively by the nervous system and is significantly inhibited by
[ "Atropine", "Pilocarpine", "Cime dine", "Aspirin" ]
A
.
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Secondary caries is least likely seen with:
[ "Silicate cement", "Zinc phosphate", "Polycarboxylate", "GIC" ]
A
null
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Drug used for absence seizure?
[ "Lamotrigine", "Carbamazepine", "Phenytoin", "Vigabatrine" ]
A
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Lamotrigine
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Intracellular receptors are found in
[ "Insulin", "Glucagon", "Coicosteriods", "Growth hormone" ]
C
Receptors for steroid and thyroid hormones are located inside target cells , in the cytoplasm or nucleus , function as ligand dependent transcription factors ....Being lipids, steroid hormones enter the cell by simple diffusion across plasma membrane whereas thyroid hormones enter by facilitated diffusion. Ref guyton and hall textbook of medical physiology 12/e p887-888
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Association of PSC with all except
[ "Ulcerative colitis", "Idiopathic thrombocytopenia purpura", "Sarcoidosis", "Retro peritoneal fibrosis" ]
B
Disease association with PSC Chronic ulcerative colitis Crohn's disease Autoimmune hepatitis Chronic pancreatitis Hypereosinophilia Riedel's thyroiditis Celiac disease Auto immune hemolytic anemia Sicca syndrome Sarcoidosis Glomerulonephritis Retro peritoneal fibrosis Systemic sclerosis Smoking is protective in : PSC & UC PSC and cholangiocarcinoma is more common in males PVC is more common in females Colectomy has no effect in the course of PSC Ref : Sabiston 20th edition Pgno : 1508-1509
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In "poverty lines" the expenditure required for a daily calorie intake of in rural areas –
[ "2200", "2400", "2100", "2300" ]
B
Wealth index The "wealth index" is a composite measure of the cumulative living standard of a household. The wealth index is calculated using easy-to-collect data on a household's ownership of selected assets, such as televisions and bicycles, materials used for housing construction, and types of water access and sanitation facilities. Information on the wealth index is based on data collected in the household questionnaire. After collecting data, various statistical procedures are used to create break points that define wealth quintiles as:- Lowest (first) quintile Second quintile Third quintile Fourth quintile Highest quintile The distribution of the population across wealth quintiles show large variation across states : - Delhi has maximum population in highest wealth quintile (70% of population). Jharkhand has maximum population in lowest wealth quintile (49.6% of population). Social class and health The national family health survey - III (2005-06) conducted in India shows the glaring differences in infant mortality rate among the household belonging to various wealth index brackets → Infant mortality rate by wealth index in India (2005-06)
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Localised idiopathic fibrosis following except?
[ "Riedel's struma", "Hyperophic scar", "Sclerosing cholangitis", "Panniculitis" ]
B
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Hyperophic scar
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Congenital hyper coagulability states are all of the following except
[ "Protein C deficiency", "Protein S deficiency", "Anti phospholipids antibody syndrome", "MTHFR gene mutation" ]
C
Ref Robbins 8/e p123 ,9/e p123
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Not true about cefepime is :
[ "4th generation cephalosporin", "Useful in hospital acquired infection", "Inhibits transpeptidase", "Given twice daily orally" ]
D
null
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Coombs positive hemolytic anemia is associated with
[ "TTP", "PAN", "SLE", "HUS" ]
C
Amongst the collagen vascular diseases, SLE is most frequently associated with Coomb's positive hemolytic anemia. PAN can also cause Coomb's positive hemolytic anemia, but it is very rare.
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A broad flat pelvis is characteristic of :
[ "Gynaecoid type", "Android type", "Anthropoid type", "Platypelloid type" ]
D
Platypelloid type
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Generally in majority of children, the sequence of eruption of permanent teeth in mandible is
[ "1-6-2-3-5-4-7-8", "6-1-2-4-5-3-7-8", "6-1-2-3-4-5-7-8", "6-1-2-4-3-5-7-8" ]
C
null
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Which of the following present similar to unruptured ectopic pregnancy
[ "Follicular cyst of ovary", "Corpus luteum cyst", "Polycystic ovary disease", "Ovarian torsion" ]
B
Halban's classical traid: Delay in normal period followed by spotting Unilateral pelvic pain  Small Tender adnexal mass. This triad is similar to that seen in classic ectopic pregnancy.
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The muscles of scapula which function as retractors are given below, EXCEPT?
[ "Trapezius", "Rhomboid major", "Rhomboid minor", "Levator scapulae" ]
D
Three muscles make up of retractors of the scapula. They are, Rhomboid majorRhomboid minor (The rhomboid muscles attach to the spinous processes of C7-T5 and the medial border of the scapula, resulting in scapular retraction)Middle fibers of trapeziuscourse horizontally from the lower nuchal ligament and thoracic veebrae to the scapula, causing scapular retraction. These muscles primarily tug the shoulder blade back toward the veebral column. The levator scapula muscle is located deep to the trapezius muscle and superior to the rhomboids causing elevation and downward rotation of the scapula.
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The earliest response of pulpitis is:
[ "Cyst formation", "Calcification", "Hyalinization", "Formation of dental granuloma" ]
C
null
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In OCD treatment is based on:
[ "Serotonergic receptor", "Dopaminergic receptor", "NA receptor receptor", "Glutamate receptor" ]
A
A. i.e. Serotonin receptor
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Which of the following types of cancers is Human Papilloma Virus (HPV) most commonly associated with?
[ "Prostate", "Anogenital", "Oral", "Lung" ]
B
HPV is most commonly associated with anogenital carcinomas, which includes cervical carcinomas. Ceain human malignancies are associated with viruses. Burkitt's lymphoma (Epstein-Barr virus) Hepatocellular carcinoma (hepatitis viruses) Cervical cancer T cell leukemia (retroviruses) Mechanism of Cancer in HPV: HPV proteins E6 and E7 bind and inactivate cellular tumor suppressors p53 and pRB, respectively. Viruses are not sufficient for cancer development, but constitute one alteration in the multistep process of cancer progression. Ref: Morin P.J., Trent J.M., Collins F.S., Vogelstein B. (2012). Chapter 83. Cancer Genetics. In D.L. Longo, A.S. Fauci, D.L. Kasper, S.L. Hauser, J.L. Jameson, J. Loscalzo (Eds), Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine, 18e.
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The most impoant physiological factor which maintains CSF pressure is:
[ "Rate of CSF formation", "Rate of CSF absorption", "Blood flow to the brain", "Venous pressure" ]
B
B i.e. Rate of CSF absorption
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Dinitrophenol causes:
[ "Inhibition of ATP synthase", "Inhibition of electron transport", "Uncoupling of oxidation and phosphorylation", "Accumulation of ATP" ]
C
Ans. C. Uncoupling of oxidation and phosphorylationDinitrophenol uncouples oxidation and phosphorylation in the respiratory chain. The hydrogen ions reenter the mitochondrial matrix without ATP synthesis. The energy is released as heat.
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Leprosy bacillus is cultured by using:-
[ "Bordet Gengou medium", "LJ medium", "Loeffler's serum slope", "None of the above" ]
D
Leprosy: Oldest disease known. Caused by Mycobacterium leprae. Mode of transmission: Air droplets, skin contact, transplacental, breast feeding, insect bite, tattoo, corneal/organ transplantation. Mycobacterium leprae has no aificial culture media. Leprae bacilli are cultured by: Foot pad of mice. 9-banded armadillo. Other options: Bordet gengou medium: Bordetella Peussis. LJ medium: Mycobacterium Tuberculosis. Loeffler's serum slope: Corynebacterium Diphtheria.
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Size of dust particles reaching alveoli
[ "<5 microns", "5-10 microns", ">15 microns", "10-15 microns" ]
A
Airborne transmission: Droplet nuclei Dried residue of droplets Tiny particles 1-10 microns e.g. TB, influenza, chickenpox, measles, Q fever. Particles in 1-5 micron range are liable to be easily drawn into the alveoli of the lungs and may be retained there. Dust Larger droplets expelled. Settle down in form part of dust. Streptococci, pathogenic bacteria, viruses, fungal spores and skin squamae - found in the dust of hospital wards. Coccidiodomycosis is spread through airborne transmission of fungal spores. Streptococcal and staphylococcal infection, pneumonia. TB. Q fever, psittacosis
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Characteristic of alcoholic liver is -a) Perivenular fibrosisb) Mallory hyalinec) Spotty necrosisd) Zonal necrosis
[ "ab", "abc", "acd", "bcd" ]
B
The hallmark of alcoholic hepatitis is hepatocyte injury characterized by - Balloning degeneration Spotty necrosis Polymorphonuclear infiltrate Fibrosis in perivenular and perisinusoidal space of disse.
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Parathyroid gland was implanted into forearm muscle. What is the type of transplantation?
[ "Ohotopic", "Heterotopic", "Auxiliary", "None" ]
B
The transfer of living organs or tissue from one pa of the body to another or from one individual to another is known as heterotopic transplantation. It is also known as piggy back transplant.
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Tuberculosis lymphadenitis of the cervical lymphnodes is also called:
[ "Pott's disease", "Lupus vulgaris", "Scrofula", "Ghon's focus" ]
C
null
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A young female presented with halo's abdominal pain and amnesia she is likely to be suffering from
[ "Conversion disorder", "Dissociative disorder", "Depresonalization disorder", "Mania" ]
B
B i.e. Dissociative disorderAmnesia is seen in dissociative disorders and Conversion disorder presents with anesthesia (sensory dysfunction) voluntary motor dysfunction or hysterical fits.Q.Autonomic system is characteristically not involved in conversion disorderQDisorder PresentationDissociative disorder****AmnesiaQFugueQ (wandering away from home)Trance & Possession disorderGanser syndrome (hysterical Pseudodementia)QConversion disorder*Hysterical fits - usually occur in safe place & infront of people - never occur during sleep - injury, incontinence & tongue bite usually absent *Motor symptoms - paralysis - abnormal movements - gait disturbance (Atasia abasia) *Sensory symptoms - blindness but walks well & does not injure himself - tubular vision, deafness - Glove stocking anesthesia Loss of all sensation Abrupt boundary Not according to dermatomes - Hemianesthesia i.e. Loss of vibration sense maintains a strict midline seperation inspite of fact that vibrationcan be perceived on other side through bone conduction.
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Vaccine administered by following route is
[ "Typhoral live", "H1n1 killed", "H1n1 live", "Yellow fever live" ]
C
Hlnl live (Intranasal route)
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Not a radiological finding of Hemophilic arthropathy
[ "Patellar squaring", "Subchondral cyst", "Shortening of intercondylar notch of knee", "Epiphyseal Overgrowth" ]
C
Knee intercondylar notch widening is seen in Hemophilia.
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Anti hypertensive causing impotence-a) ACEb) Propranololc) Atenolold) Nifedipin
[ "abc", "bcd", "ac", "bd" ]
B
null
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The highest incidence of Gestational Tropho-blastic Disease is in:
[ "Australia", "Asia", "North America", "Western Europe" ]
B
“Incidence of gestational trophoblastic disease varies widely with figures as high as 1 in 120 in some areas of Asia and South America, compared to 1 in 1200 in the united states.” Devita 7/e, p 1360
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A young adult presented with diminished vision. On examination he has anterior uveitis, vitritis, focal necrotizing granuloma, macular spot. What is the most probable diagnosis?
[ "Proteus syndrome", "White dot syndrome", "Multifocal choroiditis", "Ocular toxoplasmosis" ]
D
Focal necrotizing granuloma in this question suggests that it may be a case of ocular toxoplasmosis.
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Y-chromosomes is
[ "Metacentric", "Sub-metacentric", "Acrocentric", "Longer than the X-chromosome" ]
C
Acrocentric chromosome: A chromosome in which the centromere is located quite near one end of the chromosome.Humans normally have five pairs of acrocentric chromosomes. <a href=" syndrome</a> is caused by an extra acrocentric chromosome (chromosome21).
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Which of the following conditions is associated with microcytic hypochromic anemia
[ "Sickle cell anemia", "Thalassemia", "Fanconi's anemia", "Hereditary spherocytosis" ]
B
Ref Harrison 19 th ed pg 637 Hypochromia and microcytosis characterize all forms of b thal- assemia because of the reduced amounts of hemoglobin tetramers . In heterozygotes (b thalassemia trait), this is the only abnormality seen. Anemia is minimal. In more severe homozygous states, unbalanced a- and b-globin accumulation causes accumulation of highly insoluble unpaired a chains. They form toxic inclusion bod- ies that kill developing erythroblasts in the marrow. Few of the pro- erythroblasts beginning erythroid maturation survive. The surviving RBCs bear a burden of inclusion bodies that are detected in the spleen, shoening the RBC life span and producing severe hemolytic anemia
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Most common presenting feature of adult hypopituitarism is
[ "Hypothyroidism", "Hypogonadism", "Addison’s disease", "Hyperprolactinemia" ]
B
In adults decreased pituitary function is first shown by hypogonadism.
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A 20-year-old female comes to the physician because she has never had a perioD. She has no medical problems, has never had surgery, and takes no medications. Examination shows that she is a tall female with long extremities. She has normal size breasts, although the areolas are pale. She has little axillary hair. Pelvic examination is significant for scant pubic hair and a sho, blind- ended vaginal pouch. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
[ "No intervention is necessary", "Bilateral gonadectomy", "Unilateral gonadectomy", "Bilateral mastectomy" ]
B
This patient has the findings that are most consistent with androgen insensitivity syndrome (formerly called testicular feminization syndrome). This syndrome results from genetic defects leading to abnormal androgen receptor function. Patients with androgen insensitivity syndrome are genotypically males (46, XY) but phenotypically females-with breasts and no external male genitaliA. The reason that breasts develop is that estrogens, which are expressed at pubey and which also result from peripheral conversion of androgens, act upon the breast tissues unopposed by androgens because of the androgen receptor defect. This unopposed estrogen leads to breast growth and the resultant breasts are normal sized, although they have undeveloped nipples and pale areolae. There are no internal female organs, because mullerian-inhibiting substance is present during development. There are no external male organs because of the androgen receptor defect. Testicles do exist, but they are intra- abdominal. The gonads have a high rate of malignant degeneration in patients with androgen insensitivity syndrome and therefore, after pubey, they should be removed bilateral gonadectomy. It is impoant to wait until after pubey so that full development can take place. To state that no intervention is necessary (Choice A)is incorrect. If the gonads are not removed from a patient with androgen insensitivity syndrome there is a significant risk that the patient will develop a gonadal malignancy. To perform a unilateral gonadectomy (Choice C) is incorrect. To leave one of the gonads in would still run the risk of malignant degeneration in that gonad. Once pubey has taken place, therefore, both gonads should be removed.
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Parasite causing biliary tract obstruction -
[ "Ascaris", "Trichinella", "Taenia solium", "All of the above" ]
A
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Ascaris * Infection of the biliary tract by adult helminths or their ova produces a chronic recurrent pyogenic cholangitis with or without multiple hepatic abscesses, ductal stones or biliary obstruction. The most commonly involved organisms are -# Clonorchis sinensis# lntrabiliary rupture of hydatid cysts of Echinococcus sp.# Intraductal migration of adult Ascaris lumbricoides.# Opisthorchis viverrini or O. felineus# Fasciola hepatica
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Most important features in cushing syndrome is
[ "Centripetal obesity", "Hypertension", "Menorrhagia", "Polyurea" ]
A
(Centripetal obesity) (1050- CMDT-10, 2252-2255-H17th)CUSHING SYNDROME (HYPERCORTISOLISM)ESSENTIALS OF DIAGNOSIS* Central obesity, with a plethoric "moon face" "buffalo hump" supraclavicular fat pad, protuberant abdomen, thin extremities, muscle wasting, thin, skin, purple striae, Hirsutism* Psychological changes - frank psychosis* Olegomenorrhagia or amenorrhea (or impotence in male)* Osteoporosis, hypertension, poor wound healing, polyurea, renal calculi, glaucoma* Hyperglycemia, glycosuria, leukocytosis, lymphocytopenia hypokalemia* Elevated serum cortisol and urinary free cortisol, Lack of normal suppression by dexamethasone*** Hypertension is seen in cushing syndrome because of sodium and water retension so it is sustained hypertension (Not episodic)***Interestingly, hypercortisolism without cushing syndrome can occur in - severe depression, anorexia nervosa, alcoholism and familial cortisol resistance, familial lipodystrophy type I patients receiving anti retroviral therapy for HIV-I infection* Earliest manifestation of cushing's syndrome is - Loss of diurmal variation*** Cushing's disease is associated with increased ACTH and increased cortisol* Conn's syndrome is most commonly associated with cortical adenoma*** NELSON SYNDROME - is a disorder characterized by rapid growth of ACTH secreting pituitary adenoma following bilateral adrenalectomy** (which was performed for cushing disease)* Most common cause of Cushing's syndrome is iatrogenic administration of steroids**Frequency of sign & symptoms of cushing syndrome* Typical habitus (centripetal obesity)97%* Personality changes66%* Increased body weight94%* Ecchymosis65%* Fatigability and weakness87%* Proximal myopathy **62%* Hypertension (BP > 150/90)82%* Edema62%* Hirsutism80%* Polyurea polydipsia23%* Amenorrhea77%* Hypertrophy of clitoris19%* Broad violaceous cutaneous striae67%
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Chloride shift is due to
[ "Generationof HCO3 in RBC's", "Metabolism of glucoses in RBC's", "Formation of O2-Hb complex in RBC's", "Release of K in RBC's" ]
A
Chloride shift (also known as the Hamburger phenomenon or lineas phenomenon, named after Haog Jakob Hamburger) is a process which occurs in a cardiovascular system and refers to the exchange of bicarbonate (HCO3-) and chloride (Cl-) across the membrane of red blood cells (RBCs Ref: guyton and hall textbook of medical physiology 12 edition page number:360,361,362
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In the critical path method, illness is the maximum if the causal factors affect a paicular period of life. The vulnerable period is -
[ "Shoest", "Longest", "Cheapest", "Costliest" ]
B
-Critical path method : the longest path of the network. - if any activity along the critical path is delayed, the whole project will be delayed. Reference : Park's textbook of preventive and social medicine, 23rd edition, pg no:872 <\p>
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Zones of operation theatre includes all except:
[ "Septic zone", "clean zone", "Protective zone", "Sterile zone" ]
A
Ans: a-septic zone...Protective Zone: Areas included in this zone are:ReceptionWaiting areaTrolley bayChanging roomClean Zone: Areas included in this zone are:Pre-op roomRecovery roomPlaster roomStaff roomStoreSterile Zone: Areas included in this zone are:Operating SuiteScrub RoomAnesthesia Induction RoomSet up RoomDisposal Zone: Areas included in this zone are:Diy UtilityDisposal corridor
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In Protein Energy Malnutrition which of the following immunoglobulin is reduced most?
[ "IgG", "IgM", "IgA", "IgE" ]
C
Most common immunoglobulin reduced in Protein Energy Malnutriton is IgA which is involved in mucosal immunity. Low levels of IgA increases the susceptibility of infections in children with PEM.
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Epstein-Barr virus causes all the following EXCEPT:
[ "Burkitt's lymphoma", "Nasopharyngeal carcinoma", "Carcinoma cervix", "Infectious mononucleosis" ]
C
Ans. c (Carcinoma cervix). (Ref. Harrison, 17th/Table 105-4; Microbiology by Anantanaray an, 6th/448). Infectious AgentLymphoid Malignancy1.Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)Burkitt's lymphomaPost-organ transplant lymphomaPrimary CNS diffuse large B cell lymphomaHodgkin's diseaseExtranodal NK/T cell lymphoma, nasal type2.HTLV-IAdult T cell leukemia/lymphoma3.HIVDiffuse large B cell lymphomaBurkitt's lymphoma4.Hepatitis C virusLymphoplasmacytic lymphoma5.Helicobacter pyloriGastric MALT lymphoma6.Human herpesvirus 8Primary effusion lymphomaMulticentric Castleman's diseaseEducational point:# Carcinoma cervix is supposed to be caused by HPV 16, 18, 31, 33.
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Radio labelled DNA was allowed to replicate twice in a non-radioactive environment. Which of the following is true?
[ "All the strands will have radioactivity", "Half of the DNA will have no radioactivity", "No strands will have radioactivity", "Three-fourth of the DNA replicated will have radioactivity" ]
B
Ans. B. Half of the DNA will have no radioactivity(Ref: Harper 31/e page 363)Semiconservative Nature of DNA Replication proved by Meselson and Stahl states that half of the parent strand is conserved during replication in the daughter strand.After one replication all the DNA will have radioactivity.After two replication half of the DNA will have radioactivity.
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Bleeding spots seen on removal of scales in psoriasis is called as:
[ "Auspitz sign", "Punctuate hemorrhage", "Nikolyski's sign", "Darriersign" ]
A
A. (Auspita sign) On removal of scales bleeding spot is called auspitz sign Punctate haemorrahage is also found in psoriasis - Neena Khanna 3rd/ 40PsoriasisAuspitz sign a characterstic finding of plaque psoriasis in which removal of scales leads to pinpoint bleedingCharacteristically presents with silvery mica scaleTypical lesions are erythematious (salmon pink/red), raised, scaly, well demarcated plaques on extensor aspect of trunk&limbs preferentially; the knees, elbows & scalp areespecially affected, although the mucosa seem to be spared.Micro-munro abscess: collection of polymorphs in stratum corneumGrattage Test- on scratching scales appearKoebner's/ Isomorphic phenomenon Psoriasis appears at the site of minor injury such as scratch or graze. It is characterstic of psoriasis , but is also seen in Lichen planus , & discoid lupus erythematosus Wornoff Ring- White hypopigmented halo around erythematous plaque Candle grease sign & BurkleyJs membraneLiching is very uncommonAlopecia, Mucosal involvement & CNS involvement is not seen.Psoriatic arthropathy is uncommon (5%) ; and involves distal interphalyngeal joint, a characteristic features which differentiates it from rheumatoid arthritisIn In nails* Onycholysis (seperation of nail plate from naibed)* Thimble-pitting of nail plate* Brown black discoloration
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True about measles is/are a) Incubation period (I.P.) is 10-12 days b) Confunctivitis common c) Rash starts on abdomen d) Koplik spots are seen on fundus examination
[ "ab", "bc", "cd", "bd" ]
A
null
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Enzyme-deficient in Alkaptonuria
[ "Phenylalanine hydroxylase", "Cystathionine synthase", "Homogentisic acid oxidase", "Tyrosinase" ]
C
.
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Most common trisomy among following is -
[ "18", "21", "13", "5" ]
B
The most common abnormalities of chromosome number are 'trisomies' -Nelson The most frequent and best known trisomy in humans is trisomy 21 or Down's syndrome - Nelson
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What is the most common cause of perinatal moality in twins ?
[ "Single fetal demise", "Twin to twin transfusion syndrome", "Prematurity", "Intra uterine growth restriction" ]
C
Perinatal moality in multifetal pregnancyis raised mainly because of prematurity. It is extremely high in monoamniotic monozygotic twins due to cord entanglement. Incidence of twins in India - 1 in 80 Increasing incidence of twins in India because of drugs like clomiphene and gonadotrophins Most common lie in twins at term is longitudnal Twin peak sign on ultrasound is seen in dichorionic twins
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A lady has very unstable relation with her husband, always threatening to suicide infact she one time eat some poison, then diagnosis is -
[ "Borderline personality disorder", "Depression", "Avoident personality disorder", "None" ]
A
null
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Flowing wax appearance on anterior borders of veebrae is seen in-
[ "Ankylosing spondylitis", "DISH", "Psoriatic ahropathy", "Rheumatoid ahritis" ]
B
Calcification of Anterior longitudinal ligament- DISH; Diffuse Idiopathic skeletal hyper osteosis Calcification of posterior longitudinal ligament -OPLL: Ossified posterior longitudinal ligament - JAPAN: Disease Ossification / calcification of interosseous membrane - FLUOROSIS
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RNA is present in ?
[ "Cytoplasm", "Nucleus", "Ribosome", "All of the above" ]
D
Ans. is `d' i.e., All of the above mRNA is synthesized from DNA by the process of transcription in the nucleus. After formation mRNA transpo out of the nucleus into cytoplasm. t-RNA is also synthesized in nucleus and is transpoed to cytoplasm. Protein synthesis (translation) occurs in ribosomes, and requires both mRNA and tRNA. rRNA is present in ribosomes. rRNA is synthesized in nucleolus Thus, RNA can be found in - Nucleus Cytoplasm Ribosome Nucleolus
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Plummer Vinson syndrome is characterized by all EXCEPT(764 H18
[ "Glossitis", "Oesophageal webs", "Megaloblastic anemia", "Oesophageal dysphagia" ]
C
(Megaloblastic anemia): (764- H18th edition)Plummer - Vinson or Pateron - Kelly syndrome - Presence of an esophageal web in association with glossitis and iron deficiency anemia congenital hyperkeratosis and pitting of the palms and soles (ie tylosis Palmaris et plantaris) have each been linked with squamous cell oesophageal cancer
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Disruption of the hypothalamic-pituitary portal system will lead to:
[ "High circulating levels of PRL, low levels of LH and FSH, and ovarian atrophy", "Enhanced follicular development as a result of increased circulating levels of PRL", "Ovulation, followed by increased circulating levels of progesterone", "A reduction of ovarian inhibin levels, followed by increased circulatin...
A
Ans. A. High circulating levels of PRL, low levels of LH and FSH, and ovarian atrophyDisruption of the hypothalamic-pituitary portal system leads to a lack of dopamine and GnRH reaching the pituitary. Because dopamine inhibits PRL secretion, PRL levels will increase. In addition, the lack of GnRH will lead to reduced secretion of LH and FSH, reduced ovarian function, and eventual ovarian atrophy. PRL will have no effect on the ovary or inhibit ovarian follicle development. Disruption of the hypothalamic-pituitary axis will lead to reduced follicular development, lack of ovulation, and low circulating progesterone. Inhibin levels will decrease, but FSH will not increase because there is no GnRH reaching the pituitary from the disrupted axis. Excessive ovarian androgen usually occurs in the presence of excessive LH secretion or an androgen tumor in the ovary. LH secretion is reduced by the lack of GnRH
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Harakiri wound is self inflicted injury to
[ "Neck and chest", "Wrist and chest", "Neck and wrist", "Abdomen" ]
D
(D) Abdomen # Harakiri was originally a means of suicide.> Stab wounds and incised wounds in the abdomen, virtually equivalent to harakiri.> Sudden evisceration of internal organs cause sudden decrease of intra abdominal pressure and cardiac return producing sudden cardiac collapse.
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Which of the following enzyme is deficient in Niemann pick disease?
[ "Sphingomyelinase", "Hexosaminidase-A", "Aryl sulfatase", "Galactosidase-A" ]
A
Niemann-Pick disease (NPD) is a lipid storage disorder that results from the deficiency of a lysosomal enzyme, acid sphingomyelinase. The enzymatic defect results in pathologic accumulation of sphingomyelin (which is a ceramide phospholipid) and other lipids in the monocyte-macrophage system. Systemic involvement includes progressive lung disease, hepatosplenomegaly, sho stature, and pancytopenia. Ref: Clinical Studies in Medical Biochemistry Edited By Robe H. Glew, Miriam D. Rosenthal, 2006, Page 192; Lehninger Principles of Biochemistry, 4th Edition, Page 356
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All of the following passes through lesser sciatic foramen, except ?
[ "Pudendal nerve", "Internal pudendal vessels", "Nerve to obturator internus", "Inferior gluteal vessels" ]
D
The lesser sciatic foramen is formed by the lesser sciatic notch of the pelvic bone, the ischial, the sacrospinous ligament and the sacrotuberous ligament. It transmits the following structures: The tendon of the Obturator internus Internal pudendal vessels Pudendal nerve Nerve to the obturator internus
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Intra-epidermal intercellular deposition of IgG is associated with -
[ "Pemphigus", "Bullous pemphigoid", "Dermatitis herpetiformis", "Henoch schonlein purpura" ]
A
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Pemphigus Immunofluorescence in dermatologyDiseaseIgGIgMIgAC3FibrinIF patternAntigenPemphigus vulgaris++ ++ Intercellular- between epidermal cells.Network patternDesmoglein 3IgA pemphigus ++ Do Paraneoplastic pemphigus++++ DoDesmoplakinBullous pemphigoid++ ++ Linear deposits along BMZBP230 BPI80Epidermolysis bullosa acquisita++ ++ DoCollagen 7Dermatitis herpetiformis +++ Granular papillary tip deposits along BMZEpidermal transglutaminaseSLE++++ ++ Granular deposits along BMZ Lichen planus++++++Ovoid bodies with ragged fibrin band along BMZ Bullous SLE+++ Linear BMZ depositsCollagen 7Porphyria++\ +Perivascular and BMZ deposits Amyloid+++++-H- Globular deposits in tips of apillary dermis BMZ-Basement membrane zone
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Neuroblastoma originates from –
[ "Adrenals", "Mediastinum", "Neck", "All of these" ]
D
The common sites of neuroblastoma are : - Adrenal (most common)       Pelvis Cervical area (Neck)    Posterior mediastinum   Paravertebral retroperitoneum
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