question stringlengths 1 6.54k | choices listlengths 4 4 | answer stringclasses 4 values | rationale stringlengths 0 22.5k ⌀ | split stringclasses 1 value | dataset stringclasses 6 values | subject stringclasses 1 value |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
A boy is having diarrhoea. rhinorrhoea, sweating & lacrimation, What is the most probable diagnosis | [
"Cocaine withdrawal",
"Heroin withdrawal",
"Alcohol withdrawal",
"LSD withdrawal"
] | B | Heroin withdrawal Diagnostic criteria for Opioid Withdrawal A. Either of the following: 1) Cessation of (or reduction in) opioid use that has been heavy and prolonged (several weeks or longer) 2) Administration of an opioid antagonist after a period of opioid use. B. Three (or more) of the following, developing within minutes to several days after Criterion A: 1) Dysphoric mooddeg 2) Nausea or vomiting 3) Muscle aches 4) Lacrimation or rhinorrheadeg 5) Pupillary dilationdeg, piloerectiondeg, or sweating 6) Diarrhea 7) Yawningdeg 8) Fever 9) Insomniadeg C. The symptoms in Criterion B cause clinically significant distress or impairment in social, occupational, or other impoant areas of functioning. D. The symptoms are not due to a general medical condition and are not better accounted for by another mental disorder. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Biosynthesis of glucuronic acid requires the | [
"Oxidation of UDP glucose",
"Oxidation of glucose 6-phosphate",
"Oxidation of 6-phophoguconate",
"Oxidanation of glucose"
] | A | Glucuronic acid is a sugar acid derived from glucose, with its sixth carbon atom oxidized to a carboxylic acid. In living beings, this primary oxidation occurs with UDP-a-D-glucose (UDPG), not with the free sugar.Ref: DM Vasudevan, 7th edition, page no: 120 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which is characteristic of supragingival plaque and not of subgingival plaque in humans? | [
"Motile bacteria are predominant",
"Spirochetes are evident microscopically",
"Gram negative bacteria are predominant",
"Bacterial composition is altered by dietary sugar composition"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
A child developed diarrhoea after a tour with her parents. Suspected pathogen is Enterotoxigenic E.coli. Which among the following is TRUE about Enterotoxigenic E.coli? | [
"Not a common cause of travelers diarrhea",
"Commonly seen in acute watery diarrhea in infants",
"Causes diarrhea due to invasion of mucosa",
"Transmitted by feco-oral route and through fomites"
] | D | Enterotoxigenic E.coli It is the most impoant cause of traveler's diarrhea in visitors to developing countries. Transmission is by consumption of food and water contaminated by infected human or convalescent carriers. Uncooked foods such as salads or marinated meats and vegetables are associated with the greatest risk. ETEC produce diarrhea in infants, but not commonly. There is no invasion or inflammation. The bacteria remain on the surface, where the adenylate cyclase-stimulating action of the toxins creates the flow of water and electrolytes from the enterocyte into the intestinal lumen. The mucosa becomes hyperemic but is not injured in the process. Also know: ETEC diarrhea is caused by strains of E coli that produce LT and/or ST enterotoxins in the proximal small intestine. Adherence to surface microvilli mediated by the colonizing factor (CF) pili is essential for the efficient delivery of toxin to the target enterocytes. The genes encoding the ST, LT, and the CF pili are borne in plasmids. Ref: Ray C.G., Ryan K.J. (2010). Chapter 33. Enterobacteriaceae. In C.G. Ray, K.J. Ryan (Eds), Sherris Medical Microbiology, 5e. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Normal reticulocyte count in newborn is - | [
"0 - 1%",
"1 - 1.5%",
"3 - 6%",
"6 - 9 %"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., 3 - 6% Normal reticulocyte count in adults is 1 - 1.5% and in newborns is 3 - 6 % | train | med_mcqa | null |
All are relevant in compament syndrome, EXCEPT: | [
"Fasciotomy",
"Splitting of tight pop cast",
"Reexploration",
"Exercise"
] | D | Exercise may increase intracompamental pressure and muscle edema, so it is avoided in case of acute compament syndrome. Ref: Tachdjian's Pediatric Ohopedics 3/e, Page 2139-77, 2060; Rockwood and Green's Fracture in Children 6/e, Page 543-86; Apley's 8/e, Page 596-99, 563-64; Watson Jones : Fracture and Joint injuries 6/e, Page 591-609. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Protein requirement in adult male - | [
"0-5 gm/kg/day",
"1 gm/kg/day",
"1-5 gm/kg/day",
"2 gm/kg/day"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., I gm/kg/day Recommended protein allowancesGroupParticulars(g / kg / day)Man(60 kg)sedentaty workmoderate workheavy work1Woman(55 kg)sedentary workmoderate workheavy work1Infants0 to 3 months3 to 6 months6 to 9 months9 to 12 months1.161.161.691.69Children1 to 3 years4 to 6 years7 to 9 years1.31.121.18AdolescentsMales 10 to 12 years13 to 15 years16 to 18 yearsFemales10 to 12 years13 to 15 years16 to 18 years1.161.141.11 1.151.111.06 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Disc prolapse involving L4 nerve root typically presents with: (Repeat) | [
"Weakness of hip flexion",
"Absent ankle jerk",
"Weakness of hip extension",
"Absent knee jerk"
] | D | Ans: D (Absent ankle jerk) Ref: Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine, 18th ed.Explanation:Lumbosacral Radiculopathy--Neurologic Features (Sec Table 16}Neurologic ExaminationDeep Tendon ReflexesL4 Nerve Root (L3-4 disc): Patellar Reflex or Knee jerkSI Nerve Root (L5-SI disc): Achilles Reflex or Ankle jerkMotor ExamL4 Nerve Root (L3-4 disc): Ankle dorsiflexionL5 Nerve Root (L4-5 disc ): Great toe dorsiflexion (extensor haihicis longus)S1 Nerve Root (L5-S l disc): Ankle plantar flexion (gastrocnemius-soleus complex)Sensory ExamL4 Nerve Root (L3-4 disc): Medial malleolusL5 Nerve Root (L4-5 disc): Dorsal third metatarsophalangeal jointSI Nerve Root (L5-S1 disc): Lateral heelRadicular patterns by disc herniation typeCentral Disk herniationNerve root affected is ABOVE the discExample: Central L3 di.,c herniation causes findings above the L2-3 Nerve rootParacentral disk herniationNerve root affected is AT the discExample: Paracentral ' ' disc herniation causes findings at the L2-3 Nerve rootLateral disk herniationNerve root affected is BELOW the disc (foraminal effects) Table 16Examination FindingsLumbosacral Nerve RootsReflex AbsentSensoryMotorPain DistributionL2--Upper anterior thighPsoas (hip flexion)Anterior thighL3--Lower anterior thigh Anterior KneePsoas (hip flexion) Quadriceps (knee extension} Thigh adductionAnterior thigh, kneeL4Quadriceps (Knee reflex)Medial calfQuadriceps (knee extension) Thigh adduction Tibialis anterior (foot dorsiflexion)Knee medial calf Anterolateral thighL5 Dorsal surface- foot Lateral calfPeroneii (foot eversion) Tibialis anterior (foot dorsiflexion) Gluteus medius (hip Auction) Tne dorsiflexorsLateral calf dorsal foot, teral thigh,buttocksS1Gastrocnemius/soleus (Ankle reflex)Plantar surface-- foot Lateral aspect -footGastrocnemius/soleus (foot plantar flexion) Abductor hallucis (toe flexors) Gluteus maximus (hip extension)Bottom foot, posterior calf, posterior thigh, buttocksExample: Lateral L3 disc herniation causes findings at the L3-4 Nerve root | train | med_mcqa | null |
True about carcinoma larynx - | [
"Glottis is most common site",
"Rarely presents with metastasis",
"Adenocarcinoma is commonest type",
"Responds to chemotherapy very well"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Contraception failure defined in terms of? | [
"Per woman years",
"Per 10 woman years",
"Per 100 hundred woman years",
"Per 1000 woman years"
] | C | ANSWER: (C) Per 100 hundred woman yearsREF: Park 20th edition page 439, Dutta 6th ed p, 532Repeat in December 2011EVALUATION OF CONTRACEPTIVE METHODS:Two methods that have been used to measure contraceptive efficacy are Pearl index and life table analysis.I. Pearl index:Pearl index is defined as number of failures per 100 women-years of exposure (HWY). Pearl index is usually based on a specific exposure (usually 1 year) and therefore fails to accurately compare methods at various durations of exposure. This limitation is overcome by using the method of life table analysis.Tills rate is given by formula:Failure rate per HWY =Total accidental pregnancies Total months of exposurex 1200II. Life-table analysis:This calculates the failure rate for each month of use. A cumulative failure rate can then compare methods for any specific length of exposure. | train | med_mcqa | null |
What is the pH of amniotic fluid? | [
"6.5-7",
"7.1-7.3",
"7.4-7.8",
"7.8-8.1"
] | B | Ans. B. 7.1-7.3Properties of amniotic fluid:a. pH:7.1-7.3b. Specific gravity: 1.010c. Osmolarity: 250mOsmol/l--a sign of fetal maturity. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A male was brought unconscious with external injuries. CT brain showed no midline shift, but basal cistern were compressed with multiple small hemorrhages. Diagnosis is: AIIMS 06 | [
"Cerebral contusion",
"Cerebral laceration",
"Multiple infarcts",
"Diffuse axonal injuries"
] | D | Ans. Diffuse axonal injuries | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following in not a feature of Mass ? Media education - | [
"Deals with local problems of the community",
"Easily understandable",
"Wide approach",
"More effective than individual or group method"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e., More effective than individual or group method o Mass media is employed for education of general public. it includes means like Television, Radio. Press. Films. Posters. Magazines, etc. Mass media are generally less effective in changing human behavior than 4ndividual or group methods because communication is one way. o They are, however, valuable because they Reach large numher of people with whom there is no contact. With growing popularity of mass media and is easy availability. mass media has staed taking care of local problems of the community as well It is easily understandable | train | med_mcqa | null |
The ideal treatment for hemothorax of blood loss greater than 500 ml/hour - | [
"Wait and watch",
"Needle aspiration",
"Intercostal tube",
"Open thoracotomy with ligation of vessel"
] | D | Answer is 'd' i.e. Open thoracotomy with ligation of vessel | train | med_mcqa | null |
Diuresis is seen in which phase of acute kidney injury | [
"Initiation",
"Maintenance phase",
"Recovery phase",
"Oliguric phase"
] | C | Recovery phase - due to Vigorous Diuresis large amount of water, sodium, and potassium Lost in urine. | train | med_mcqa | null |
In lingual splaying of guardsman fracture with ORIF, which is the clinical feature? | [
"Increased intercanthal distance",
"Increased interpupillary distance",
"Increased gonion gnathion distance",
"Increased interangular distance"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
The commonly injured carpal bone next to scaphoid is - | [
"Triquetrum",
"Trapezoid",
"Lunate",
"Capitate"
] | A | Most common carpal bones fractured → Scaphoid
Second most common carpal bone fractured → Triquetrum
Third most common carpal bone fractured → Lunate | train | med_mcqa | null |
Triple A syndrome includes all except | [
"Alacrymia",
"Addison disease",
"Achlorhydria",
"Achalasia"
] | C | Triple A syndrome is characterized by three specific features: achalasia, Addison disease, and alacrima (reduced or absent ability to secrete tears) It is a cause of primary adrenal insufficiency Ref Harrison internal medicine 20 e p2734t | train | med_mcqa | null |
Pipkin classification is used for which fractures? | [
"Acetabular fractures",
"Pelvis ring fractures",
"Femoral head fracture",
"Femoral shaft fracture"
] | C | Type V of Thompson and Epsetein classification of hip dislocation ,associated fracture of femoral head, is fuher classified according to PIPKIN&;S CLASSIFICATION. ref : maheswari 9th ed | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following cells are present in cerebellum, EXCEPT? | [
"Purkinje cells",
"Stellate cells",
"Pyramidal cells",
"Basket cells"
] | C | The pyramidal cells are seen in cerebral coex. The coex of the cerebellum consists of only three layers. They are, (1) an outer, molecular layer, (2) a middle, Purkinje layer, and (3) an inner, granular layer. The molecular layer has the least cellular density and consists of two types of neurons, stellate cells and basket cells. The stellate cells have relatively sho dendrites and basket cells have more extensive dendritic processes. Purkinje layer is relatively thin but consists of the densely packed cell bodies of the Purkinje cells. These cell bodies are the largest in the cerebellum and, with their unique dendritic trees, are probably the most distinctive cells in the entire CNS. Granular layer consists of the cell bodies of the very densely packed granular cells and Golgi type II cells. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Neonatal apnea is seen in all except | [
"Prematurity",
"Hyperglycemia",
"Hypoglycemia",
"Hypercalcemia"
] | B | Preterm infants, especially those under 28 weeks gestation are highly prone for apnea due to the poor development of mechanisms of respiratory control and have apnea of prematurity. Apnea soon after bih can occur due to bih asphyxia, maternal drug use, infections, metabolic causes and congenital anomalies. Reference: GHAI Essential pediatrics, 8th edition | train | med_mcqa | null |
All are a mechanism of defence except - | [
"Repression",
"Transference",
"Projection",
"Anticipation"
] | B | Defence mechanism
Narcissistic (Psychotic) :- Denial, disortion, projection.
Immature:- Blocking, introjection, passive-aggressive behavior, acting out, hypochondriasis, regression, schizoid fantasy, somatization.
Neurotic :- Controlling, Displacement, inhibition, externalization, intellectualization, isolation, rationalization, dissociation, reaction formation, repression, sexualization, conversion, undoing, inhibition.
Mature :- Asceticism, suppression, altruism, sublimation, humor, anticipation. | train | med_mcqa | null |
"NO" is synthesized from | [
"Tryptophan",
"L - citrulline",
"Lysine",
"L - arginine"
] | D | NO (nitric oxide):- Also called asEndothelium derived Relaxing Factor synthesized fromArginineby enzymeNOS(Nitric oxide synthase) in the endothelial cells Nitric oxide relaxes the smooth muscles of blood vessels The vasodilator - nitroglycerin also enters smooth muscle cells, where its metabolism also leads to the formation of NO. Activates enzymeGuanyl cyclase, which conves GTP to cyclic GMP, which causes relaxation of smooth muscle cells | train | med_mcqa | null |
Axillary sheath is an extension of? | [
"Pre tracheal fascia",
"Prevertebral fascia",
"Carotid sheath",
"Investing layer of deep cervical fascia"
] | B | ANSWER: (B) Prevertebral fasciaREF: Gray's anatomy 40th ed ch: 28, 46The axillary sheath is a fibrous sheath that encloses the first portion of the axillary artery, together with the axillaryvein andthebrachial plexus. It is an extension of the prevertebral layer of the deep cervical fasciaDeep fascia in the neck is organized into an investing layer, prevertebral fascia, and pretracheal fascia. The carotid sheath is a non-membranous layer of fascia that is conventionally described as part of the deep cervical fascia. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Radiotherapy is most useful in: | [
"Seminoma",
"Melanoma",
"Osteosarcoma",
"Pancreatic carcinoma"
] | A | Ans. A. SeminomaSeminoma is a highly radiosensitive tumor and hence radiotherapy is commonly used for treatment.Radiosensitive and Radioresistant TumorsHighly radiosensitive tumors are* Lymphoma* Seminoma* Myeloma* Ewing's sarcoma* Wilms' tumorHighly radioresistant tumors are* Melanoma* Osteosarcoma* Pancreatic carcinoma* Hepatic carcinoma* Renal cell carcinoma | train | med_mcqa | null |
The ECG of a patient with an artificial pacemaker in the right ventricle shows - | [
"Right bundle branch block with narrow QRS complex",
"Right bundle branch block with broad QRS complex",
"Left bundle branch block with broad QRS complex",
"Left bundle branch block with narrow QRS complex"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Varicella zoster virus becomes latent in: | [
"Sacral ganglia",
"Trigeminal ganglia",
"Salivary glands",
"Anterior horn cells of spinal cord"
] | B | Ans. B. Trigeminal gangliaVaricella zoster virus becomes latent in ophthalmic branch of trigeminal ganglia and cause Herpes zoster on reactivation | train | med_mcqa | null |
Drug not acting on neuromuscular junction is : | [
"Baclofen",
"Carisoprodol",
"Haloperidol",
"All of the above"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
A fourteen year old boy is admitted with history of fever, icterus, conjunctival suffusion and haematuria for twenty days. Which of the following serological test can be of diagnostic utility - | [
"Widal test",
"Microscopic Agglutination Test",
"Paul Bunnell test",
"Weil felix reaction"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
LH surge occurs at | [
"At the time of ovulation",
"5-6 days before ovulation",
"24-36 hours before ovulation",
"24 - 72 hours after ovulation"
] | C | C. i.e. (24 - 36 hours before ovulation) (37-Shaw's 14th/64-Dutta 4th)* LH surge precedes ovulation by 24 to 36 hours (mean 30 hours) and minimum of 75 ng/ml is required for ovulation (37 - Shaw's 14th)* LH levels remains almost static throughout the cycle except at least 12 hours prior to vulation. When it attains its peak, called LH surge (64 - Dutta 4th)* The main function of LH is steroidogenic, but along with FSH. It is responsible for full maturation of the graffian follicle and oocyte and ovulation | train | med_mcqa | null |
Dose limiting toxicity of amphotericin B is: | [
"Infusion related reaction",
"Renal tubular acidosis",
"Myelosuppression",
"Hypotension"
] | B | Renal tubular acidosis is the dose limiting toxicity of amphotericin B. Amphotericin B can also cause: Infusion related reactions (not dose related) Hypokalemia Hypomagnesemia | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 30 yrs old gentleman after sustaining road traffic accident present in emergency with BP 100/60 mmHg, Pulse 120 min and C.T. shows splenic laceration at inferior border. after 2 units of blood transfusion, patients conditions are - BP 120/70 mmHg and pulse 84/min; the next line of management is - | [
"Laparotomy",
"Splenorrhaphy",
"Continue the conservative treatment and take subsequent measures on monitoring the pt.",
"Splenectomy"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which drug used for differentiating myasthenia gravis from cholinergic crisis? | [
"Edrophonium",
"Neostigmine",
"Atropine",
"Acetylcholine"
] | A | Ans. (A) Edrophonium(Ref: KDT 8th/e p120)Patients with myasthenia gravis may present in the emergency with muscle weakness. This could be because of the aggravation of their primary problem (myasthenic crisis) or due to the overdose of the drugs like neostigmine (cholinergic crisis). The etiology of the two conditions is important to understand because in myasthenic crisis, there is deficiency of acetylcholine whereas in cholinergic crisis, there is excess of acetylcholine.Edrophonium is an inhibitor of the enzyme acetylcholinestrase and thus, increases the concentration of acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction. The increased availability of ACh causes dramatic improvement in the symptoms of patients with myasthenic crisis.In contrast, the symptoms of patients with cholinergic crisis worsen with edrophonium (because it further increases ACh in cholinergic crisis). The drug, therefore, is useful to clinically differentiate the actual cause of muscle weakness in an emergency situation.The reason for preferring edrophonium over other inhibitors of acetylcholinesterase is its short duration of action. This may be desirable for patients presenting with cholinergic crisis as the worsening in their condition would be only for a short time. | train | med_mcqa | null |
What is the most common reason that psychotherapy for personality disorders is so difficult to carry out successfully? | [
"The traits are often ego-dystonic",
"The patients are usually too sick to use psychotherapy",
"These disorders respond better to medication than to psychotherapy",
"The patients often see the source of their problems in others, not themselves."
] | D | Personality disorders are ego syntonic so the patients are usually unaware of their maladaptive traits and would in fact deny having problems and blame others. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Conn's syndrome is associated with all the following, except: | [
"Hypeension",
"Hypokalemia",
"Muscle weakness",
"Metabolic acidosis"
] | D | Conn's syndrome is associated with metabolic alkalosis, not with metabolic acidosis. Conn's syndrome refers to primary hyperaldosteronism due to an adrenal adenoma. Increased aldosterone secretion results in hypokalemia from increased excretion of potassium and metabolic alkalosis due to increased hydrogen ion secretion. Ref: Harrisons Internal Medicine, 18th Edition, Pages 2949-2951 ; Hypeension By Joseph Cheriyan, Page 148 ; Mosby's Handbook Of Diseases By Rae Langford, 3rd Edition, Page 28 | train | med_mcqa | null |
True about implanon: | [
"Releases > 67 ug/day of drug",
"Prevent STD",
"Life span is 3 Years",
"Contains LNG"
] | C | Ans. c. Life span is 3 Years Implanon is a single rod subdermal implant with 68 mg of the progestin etonogestrel (ENG), and an ethylene vinyl acetate copolymer cover.It can be used as contraception for 3 years and then replaced at the same site or opposite arm. It is placed in the medial surface of the upper arm 6 to 8 cm from the elbow in the biceps groove within 5 days of onset of menses.Prolonged and frequent bleeding is the most common adverse effect. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A patient presents with a solitary pulmonary nodule (SPN) on X-ray. The best investigation to come to a diagnosis would be - | [
"MRI",
"CT scan",
"USG",
"Image guided biopsy"
] | B | CT scan is the idol method to come to diagnosis of SPN | train | med_mcqa | null |
Acute radiation hepatic damage is most marked between - | [
"1-7 days",
"7-21 days",
"21-40 days",
"40-100 days"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e., 40-100 days o Acute radiation damage normally affects rapidly proliferating tissue : - i) Hematopoietic tissue Latent period 2-3 weeks. ii) Epithelium of GIT --> Latent period 3-5 days. iii) Lymphoid tissue o Acute radiation damage also affects the CNS Latent period 15 minutes to 3 hours. o Hepatic radiation damage is not acute, it is subacute and appears within 90 days. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Spinal cord and nerve roots are supplied by - | [
"Anterior spinal artery",
"Posterior spinal artery",
"Ascending cervical artery",
"All of the above"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e., All of the above | train | med_mcqa | null |
Selective alpha 2 agoinst used in glaucoma - | [
"Timolol",
"Epinephrine",
"Dipivefrine",
"Brimonidine"
] | D | Brimonidine (0.2% : 2 times/day). It is a selective alpha-2-adrenergic agonist and lowers IOP by decreasing aqueous production. Because of increased allergic reactions and tachyphylaxis rates it is not considered the drug of first choice in POAG. It is used as second drug of choice and also for combination therapy with other drugs Ref.AK Khurana 4th edition page no 223 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Commonest complication of extra capsular interochanteric fracture of neck of femur is: | [
"Non union",
"Ischemic necrosis",
"Malunion",
"Pulmonary complications"
] | C | C i.e. Malunion | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 60 year old male presented with acute chest pain of 4 hours duration. Electrocardiographic examination revealed new Q wave with ST segment depression. He succumed to his illness within 24 hours of admission. The hea revealed presence of a transmural haemorrhagic area over the septum and anterior wall of the left ventricle. Light microscopic examination is most likely to reveal: | [
"Edema in between normal myofibres",
"Necrotic myofibres with presence of neutrophils",
"Coagulative necrosis of the myocytes with presence of granulation tissue",
"Infiltration by histiocytes with haemosiderin laden macrophages"
] | B | Patient had a myocardial infarction, histology of the cardiac muscle fibres done at 24 hours after an MI shows necrotic myofibres with presence of neutrophils. Ref: Robbins Pathology, 6th Edition, Page 558 | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 17-year-old boy presented with TLC of 138 x 109/ L with 80% blasts on the peripheral smear. Chest X-ray demonstrated a large mediastinal mass. Immunophenotyping of this patient's blasts would most likely demonstrate - | [
"No surface antigens (null phenotype)",
"An immature T cell phenotype (Tdt/D34/CD7 positive)",
"Myeloid markers, such as CD13, CD33 and CD15",
"B cell markers, such as CD19, CD20 and CD22"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following can be found in ocular muscles - | [
"Trichinella",
"Ascaris",
"Entrobius",
"None"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Trichinella Trichinella spiraliso It is a parasite of pig. Man is an incidental hosto Infective form is encysted 1st stage larva which is transmitted by eating uncooked porko Larva penetrates intestine and migrates to muscles where it undergoes encystation.o Most commonly involved muscles are extraocular muscles followed by biceps and muscles of jaw and necko Most infections are asymptomatic.o Clinical manifestations may be:-i) Abdominal - Diarrhea or constipation, abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting.ii) Hypersensitivity reaction - Fever with eosinophilia, periorbital and facial edema, hemorrhages in the subconjunctiva, retina and nail beds (splinter hemorrhages).iii) Rarely - Myocarditis with heart failure, encephalitis, pneumonitis.iv) Symptoms due to encystment of larva in muscles - Myositis with myalgia, weaknesso Bachman intradermal test is used for Trichinella.Educational pointo The muscles most often invaded by. Trichinella are highly vascularized muscles , such as eye muscles tongue, deltoid, pectoral, intercostal, diaphragm and gastrocnemius. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Onion skin spleen is seen in - | [
"ITP",
"Thalassemia",
"SLE",
"Scleroderma"
] | C | In spleen the central peniciliary arteries show thickening and perivascular fibrosis, producing so called Onion Skin lesions. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A pregnant women, previous LSCS presents with hematuria. What is the likely diagnosis? | [
"Eclampsia",
"Obstructed labour",
"Ureteral injury",
"Cystitis"
] | B | In obstructed labour the bladder becomes an abdominal organ and due to compression of urethra between the presenting pa and symphysis pubis, the patient fails to empty the bladder. The transverse depression at the junction of the superior border of the bladder and the distended lower segment is often confused with the Bandl's ring. The bladder wall gets traumatized which may lead to blood stained urine, a common finding in obstructed labour. Ref: D.C.Dutta 6th Ed Page 405. | train | med_mcqa | null |
What is the most common surgical complication following whipple procedure? | [
"Disruption of pancreatic anastomosis",
"Biliary peritonitis",
"Disruption of gastric anastomosis",
"GI bleeding"
] | C | If disease mainly involves head of the pancreas, then pancreatico-duodenectomy can be done--Whipple's procedure.Whipple's operation is done by removing tumour with head and neck of pancreas, C loop of duodenum, 40% distal stomach, 10 cm proximal jejunum, lower end of the common bile duct, gallbladder, peripancreatic, pericholedochal, paraduodenal and perihepatic nodes. Continuity is maintained by choledochojejunostomy, pancreaticojejunostomy and gastrojejunostomy. Few advocate pancreaticogastrostomy into posterior wall of the stomach. Moality in Whipple's operation is 2-8%. Original Whipple's operation (1935) was two staged procedure- initial by pass and a second stage resection with closure of pancreatic stump. In 1941, Trimble performed one stage pancreaticojejunostomy. Complications are delayed gastric emptying (19%); pancreatic fistula (14%); infection (intraabdominal abscess, wound infection, cholangitis, pancreatitis, pneumonia); bile leak. Moality is 3%. ref:SRB&;S manual of surgery,ed 3,pg no 635 | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 20 years old girl presented with low-grade fever, malaise, night sweats, weight loss, arthralgia and fatigue for 1 month. On examination peripheral pulses are weak in upper extrimities and bruit is present on carotid and subclavian artery. On investigating the child there was dilatation of proximal aorta. Most likely diagnosis is? | [
"Polyarteritis nodosa",
"Temporal arteritis",
"Takayasu's arteritis",
"Kawasaki's disease"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Takayasu's arteritis Points in favour of diagnosis are:* 20 years old girl (more common in Adolescent girls and young women)* Systemic symptoms (low-grade fever, malaise, night sweats, weight loss, arthralgia and fatigue)* Weak peripheral pulses in upper extrimities* Bruit is present on carotid and subclavian artery* Dilatation of proximal aorta* Takayasu arteritis has been explained | train | med_mcqa | null |
Priapism is seen in | [
"Rat poisoning",
"Arsenic poisoning",
"Sildenafil poisoning",
"Cantharide poisoning"
] | D | The Spanish fly (Cantharis vesicatoria, blister beetle) is 2 x 0.6 cm in dimensions. Active principle: Cantharidin.Action: It is locally irritant and nephrotoxic agent Priapism in males and aboion in pregnant females may occur. The patient becomes prostrated with convulsions, and coma preceding death. TreatmentGastric lavage, demulcents (but not fat) and symptomatic treatment. Ref: Krishnan vij Textbook of Forensic Medicine ; 5th ed; Page no: 486 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Sleep waves in the hippocampal area are | [
"Delta",
"Theta",
"Beta",
"Alpha"
] | B | Sleep waves and brain areas
- Alpha rhythm- Parietal and occipital lobe
- Beta rhythm- Frontal lobe
- Theta rhythm- Hippocampus (Mammals other than human), Cortex (Human) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Bezold's abscess is located deep to: | [
"Infratemporal region",
"Submandibular region",
"Sternomastoid muscle",
"Diagastric triangle"
] | C | Bezold's abscess is an abscess deep to the sternocleidomastoid muscle where pus from mastoiditis erodes through the coex of the mastoid pa of the temporal bone, medial to the attachment of sternocleidomastoid, extends into the infratemporal fossa, and deep to the investing layer of the deep cervical fascia. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All are methods of sterilization except - | [
"Ionizing radiation",
"Ethylene oxide",
"Formaldehyde",
"Chlorhexidne"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Chlorhexidne Sterilizationo The process by which an article surface or medium is freed of all living microorganisms either in the vegetative or spore state - Complete absence of microorganism.Disinfectiono Destruction or removal of all pathogenic organisms capable of giving rise to infection - reduction in the microorganisms to such a level which is deemed no longer harmful to health.o Various methods of sterilization and disinfection areMethods|||SterilizationDisinfection1) Heat1) Heat2) Ionizing radiations# b (electron) irradiation# g (photon) irradiation2) U.V. radiation3) Gases4) Filtration3) Filtration5) Chemicals4) Sterilant gases# Ethylene oxide# Formaldehyde# Alcohols# Chlorhexidine# Glutaraldehyde5) Sterilant liquids# Glutaraldehyde# Hypochlorites# Iodine# Phenolic compounds | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 20-year-old female presents for an infertility workup. She has never had a menstrual period. She is short with a broad chest, webbed neck, and low-set ears. It is demonstrated that she has an abnormal karyotype.Which one of the following best describes the cause of this genetic abnormality? | [
"Trisomy",
"Monosomy",
"Trinucleotide repeat",
"Translocation"
] | B | This patient has Turner syndrome or 45 XO. She is missing a second sex (X) chromosome. She would not have a Barr body and would be infertile. She is phenotypically female. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Treatment of choice for angiofibroma - | [
"Surgery",
"Radiotherapy",
"Both",
"Chemotherapy"
] | A | "In nearly every other circumstance, however, surgery is the treatment of choice".
—Logan Turner | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is a phytosterol? | [
"Sitosterol",
"Cholesterol",
"Ergosterol",
"Calcitriol"
] | A | Sterols are molecules with the cyclopentano-perhydro-phenanthrene (CPP) nucleus Sitosterol Plant (phyto) sterol Ergosterol Fungal (myco) sterol Cholesterol Animal (zoo) sterol Plant sterols (sitosterol) | absorption of cholesterol Sitosterolemia Autosomal recessive disorder Defects in either ABCG5 or ABCG8 | Plant sterol levels Xanthomas Atherosclerosis | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following structure passes through the opening in the diaphragm lying opposite to the T10 veebrae? | [
"Aoa",
"Azygous vein",
"Esophagus",
"Inferior vena cava"
] | C | Opening present in the diaphragm opposite to the T10 veebra is the esophageal opening. It transmits the esophagus along with other structures such as vagal trunk, oesophageal branches of left gastric aery, and accompanying veins and lymphatics. Aoic opening in the diaphragm lies opposite to T12 veebrae. It transmits aoa with azygous vein to the right and thoracic duct leading up from the cisterna chyli between them.Vena caval foramen lies opposite to T8 veebrae. It transmits the inferior vena cava along with the right phrenic nerve. | train | med_mcqa | null |
In DUB, there is: | [
"Increased estrogen",
"Decreased receptors of progesterone",
"Decreased receptors of estrogen",
"Pituitary imbalance of hormones"
] | A | Ans. is a, i.e. Increased estrogenRef: Shaw 15th/ed, p301DUB is mainly anovulatory:Bleeding occurs due to the hypertrophy and hyperplasia of the endometrium induced by a high titer of estrogen in the circulating blood is absence of progesterone.This is the reason why initially due to lack of progesterone patients complain of amenorrhea and later on, due to excessive estrogen they complain of excessive bleeding. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Delayed wound healing is seen in all EXCEPT:March 2013 (a, e, f) | [
"Malignancy",
"Diabetes",
"Hypeension",
"Infection"
] | C | Ans. C i.e. HypeensionWounds & tissue repairHealing by primary/ 1st intention:- Closed wounds,- Edges approximated- e.g. clean skin incision closed with suturesFactors delaying wound healing:- Vitamin C deficiency,- Presence of vitamin E (inhibitory role),- Deficiency of trace metals (zinc, copper etc.),- Absence of oxygen (reduced perfusion),- Anemia,- Infection etc. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Normal hilar shadow in X-ray chest is produced by all except | [
"Pulmonary aery",
"Bronchus",
"Lower lobe viens",
"Upper lobe veins"
] | C | C i.e. Lower lobe veins The lower lobe pulmonary veins do not cross the hila in their course to the left atrium and therefore do not contribute to the hilar shadow. The hila is formed by? Pulmonary aeries & their main branches (most imp.)Q Upper lobe pulmonary veins Q Major bronchi (contribute little) Lymph nodes (usually not seen) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most common cause of Per Rectal Bleeding in Infant ? | [
"Anal fissure",
"Rectal polyp",
"Intussusception",
"Hypeension"
] | A | Anal fissures: These small tears are the most common cause of rectal bleeding in children. They can hapen when passing a large or hard stool, which stretches the lining of the anus until it tears, or when frequent diarrhea irritates the lining . Reference : page 126 Ghai Essential Pediatrics 8th edition | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 24-year-old man presents in septic shock from an empyema. He is febrile to 103degF, tachycardic in the 120s, and hypotensive to the 90s. His oxygen saturation is 98% on 2-L oxygen. His white blood cell count is 25,000/mL and creatinine is 0.8 mg/dL. His blood pressure does not respond to fluid administration despite a CVP of 15. Which of the following therapies is indicated in managing this patient? | [
"Intubation",
"Recombinant human activated protein C",
"Epinephrine",
"Norepinephrine"
] | D | ) Early goal-directed therapy should be employed for patients with septic shock or severe sepsis. The tenets of resuscitation include intubation if hypoxic, fluid resuscitation to a central venous pressure target of 8 to 12 mm Hg if not intubated and infusion of vasopressors to maintain a mean aerial pressure of 65 mm Hg. Norepinephrine and dopamine are the vasopressors of choice; epinephrine vasoconstricts peripherally as well as increases cardiac contractility and is not a first-line agent for septic shock. Inotropes such as dobutamine have been used if oxygen delivery is low, but should not be used to push delivery to supranormal levels. Fuhermore, cultures should be drawn immediately and empiric antibiotics initiated; if there is a surgical source of sepsis, then operative intervention for source control should be promptly performed after initial resuscitative effos. Recombinant-activated protein C is indicated in patients with severe sepsis with a predicted high risk of moality (ie, older age, increased severity of disease); this patient does not have evidence of end-organ dysfunction such as acute renal or respiratory failure at this time. The use of coicosteroids for septic shock is controversial, but should only be considered in the setting of shock nonresponsive to fluids and vasopressors. Miller&;s anaesthesia 9th edition page no 786 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Radius of action of toxins in the bacterial plaque is | [
"Less than 2.5 mm",
"Greater than 3.5 mm",
"Less than 1.5 mm",
"1.5 - 2.5 mm"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Physiological dead space in lung is | [
"Zone 1",
"Zone 2",
"Zone 3",
"Zone 4"
] | A | A i.e. Zone 1 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Ulcer on penis which bleeds on touch, is feature that best in which of the following - | [
"Donovanosis",
"Syphilis",
"Herpes genitalis",
"LGV"
] | A | Donovanosis is caused by Klebsiella granulomatis. There is a single ( sometimes multiple) asymptomatic ulcer . Floor is made of beefy , exuberant granulation tissues which bleeds easily on manipulation. From illustrated synopsis of dermatology and sexually transmitted diseases neena khanna 5th edition page no 329 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Isocitrate dehydrogenase is linked to | [
"NAD",
"FAD",
"NADP",
"FMN"
] | A | There are three isoenzymes of isocitrate dehydrogenase. One, which uses NAD+, is found only in mitochondria. The other two use NADP+ and are found in mitochondria and the cytosol. Respiratory-chain-linked oxidation of isocitrate occurs through the NAD+-dependent enzyme. Reference: Harper; 30th edition; Page no: 163 | train | med_mcqa | null |
pO2 decreases in all except | [
"COPD",
"CHF",
"Bronchiectasis",
"Interstitial fibrosing alveolitis"
] | D | Fibrosing alveolitis is a disease of unknown cause mainly involving the gas-exchanging poions of the lungs. It may occur in isolation and be called cryptogenic or idiopathic, in which case the clinical manifestations are mainly respiratory, or it may be associated with other disorders, such as rheumatoid ahritis. The histopathologic abnormalities of the pulmonary tissue are identical in either instance. Other names used for the disease have included usual interstitial pneumonia, desquamative interstitial pneumonia and the Hamman-Rich syndrome; these terms may describe different stages of the same pathologic process. Many authors in Noh America and those in the United Kingdom our the term fibrosing alveolitis when describing chronic interstitial pneumonias. There may be accompanying nonspecific Immunologic abnormalities, which may denote that fibrosing alveolitis is pa of the wide spectrum of diseases known as connective tissue disorders. Recently immune complexes have been found in the lung parenchyma; they probably result in the granulocyte destruction and reticuloendothelial proliferation seen in the acute phase of the disease. There are no specific diagnostic tests for the disease apa from lung biopsy, which can be performed at the time of thoracotomy or transbronchially, with the use of a flexible fibreoptic bronchoscope. Lavaged cells from the alveoli have also been obtained the bronchoscope; in persons with fibrosing alveolitis a high propoion of these cells are neutrophils, and after coicosteroid treatment the propoion decreases. The progress of the disease can be followed by examination of these washings as well as by lung scanning with gallium-67 citrate. Newer methods of treatment using combinations of coicosteroids and immunosuppressant drugs are being evaluated and are initially proving to be successful. Ref Davidson 23rd edition pg 616 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Left cardiac border bulge can be seen in all, except – | [
"Enlarged azygous vein",
"Left appendicular overgrowth",
"Coronary artery aneurysm",
"Pericardial defect"
] | A | Left cardiac border is slightly concave. Bulging (convexity) of left heart border is produced by : (1) Left atrial appendage enlargement; (2) Left ventricular enlargement; (3) Right ventricular enlargement; (4) Left anterior descending coronary artery aneurysm; (5) Left sided pericardial defect. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Prevalence is a: September 2007 | [
"Rate",
"Ratio",
"Propoion",
"Percentage"
] | C | Ans. C: Propoion | train | med_mcqa | null |
Many times the most important step that can be taken to reduce morbidity and mortality from common medical conditions such as diabetes and cardiovascular disease is to focus on lifestyle and/or risk factor modification. A 45-year-old, healthy nonsmoking woman with a normal BMI (24) has been found on two occasions to have a blood pressure of 145/95. She has no family history of premature coronary artery disease. For this patient, choose the most important step to take next. | [
"Urge the patient to quit smoking and discuss the various available medications to assist in the process.",
"Recommend an exercise program such as brisk walking for at least 30 minutes per day and a low salt, Dietary Approaches to Stop Hypertension (DASH) diet.",
"Prescribe a low-cholesterol diet and statin dru... | B | The first patient can now be diagnosed with hypertension. Given the fact that she is still stage 1, lifestyle modification can safely be attempted before beginning a medication. She should be instructed in a 2.4-g sodium diet, daily aerobic exercise, and a restriction in alcohol intake to no more than one serving per day. If the patient does not respond to lifestyle interventions, then starting with monotherapy such as chlorthalidone at low dose would be a good option. Chlorthalidone is a thiazide diuretic that has a longer half-life (24-72 hours vs 7-12 hours for HCTZ). | train | med_mcqa | null |
Trauma and injury severity score includes:- | [
"GCS+BP +RR",
"S +ISS + age + Mechanism of injury",
"S +ISS + GCS",
"S +GCS + BP"
] | B | Trauma and injury severity score includes S +ISS + age + Mechanism of injury. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Specific test for ketohexoses | [
"Selivanoff's test",
"Osazone test",
"Molisch test",
"None of these"
] | A | Selivanoff's test: this is a specific test for ketohexoses. Concentrated hydrochloric acid dehydrates ketohexoses to form furfural derivatives which condense with resorcinol to give a cherry red complex. Ref: https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Seliwanoff's_test | train | med_mcqa | null |
Leading cause of hyperkalemia is? | [
"Redistribution of potassium",
"Reduced excretion kidney",
"Adrenal neurohormonal surge",
"Drugs"
] | B | Kidney diseases are leading cause of Hyperkalemia | train | med_mcqa | null |
"Chagas Disease" is caused by: | [
"Trypanosoma",
"Brucella",
"Trichenella",
"Baonella"
] | A | Trypanosoma | train | med_mcqa | null |
Intermediate health agencies excluding WHO are - | [
"UNICEF",
"FAO",
"UNESCO",
"ILO"
] | A | UNICEF (United Nations International Children&;s Emergency Fund)is one of the specialized agencies of the United Nations .It was established in 1946 by the United Nations General Assembly to deal with rehabilitation of children in war ravaged countries. The headquaers of the UNICEF is at United Nations,Newyork (refer pgno:922 park 23 rd edition) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Radioprotective drug is – | [
"Paclitaxem",
"Vincristine",
"Amifostine",
"Etoposide"
] | C | Amifostine (WR - 2721) is one of today's most widely studied radioprotector. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Composite resins in comparison to acrylic have: | [
"Low compressive strength",
"High abrasive resistance",
"High water absorption",
"High polymerization shrinkage"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Zidovudine and didanosine used in HAA act by: | [
"Inhibitory effects on viral",
"DNA Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibition",
"Inhibit the synthesis of gp41",
"Protease inhibition"
] | B | Understanding the biology of HIV infection and availability of several potent drugs belonging to different classes has mandated &;highly active antiretroviral therapy&; (HAA) with combination of 3 or more drugs whenever indicated. Monotherapy is contraindicated. Zidovudine :It is a thymidine analogue (azidothymidine, AZT), the prototype NI. After phosphorylation in the host cell-zidovudine triphosphate selectively inhibits viral reverse transcriptase (RNA-dependent DNA polymerase) in preference to cellular DNA polymerase. Didanosine (ddl): It is a purine nucleoside analogue which after intracellular conversion to didanosine triphosphate competes with ATP for incorporation in viral DNA, inhibits HIV reverse transcriptase and terminates proviral DNA. Antiretroviral activity of didanosine is equivalent to AZT ESSENTIALS OF MEDICAL PHARMACOLOGY K.D.TRIPATHI SIXTH EDITION PAGE NO:770,771 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Definitive surgery is a pa of which stage of damage control surgery? | [
"I",
"II",
"III",
"IV"
] | D | Answer- D. IVFollowing major injury, protracted surgery in the physiologically unstable patient with the 'deadly triad' - the combination of hypothermia, acidosis and coagulopathy'Damage control' or 'damage limitation surgery' is a concept that originated from naval architecture, whereby a ship was designed to have areas sealed off in the case of damage, to limit flooding.Stages-Patient selectionControl of haemorrhage and control of contaminationResuscitation continued in the intensive care unitDefinitive surgeryAbdominal closure | train | med_mcqa | null |
Mucous glands are absent in | [
"Cervix",
"Esophagus",
"Vagina",
"Duodenum"
] | C | INDERBIR SINGH&;S TEXTBOOK OF HUMAN HISTOLOGY-PAGE NO:359 Vagina Mucous membrane The epithelium rests on dense connective tissue that is highly vascular,many veins being present .the tissue is rich in elastic fibres.no glands are seen in the mucosa,the vaginal surface being kept moist by the secretions if glands in the cervix of the uterus | train | med_mcqa | null |
You are shown a posteroanterior (PA) and lateral chest radiograph of a 75-year-old woman. What is the MOST likely diagnosis? | [
"Atrial septal defect",
"Chronic pulmonary embolism",
"Pulmonary venous hypeension",
"Cor pulmonale"
] | D | The radiograph shows marked enlargement of the central pulmonary aeries with abrupt tapering, or pruning. This finding is consistent with pulmonary aerial hypeension. Although patients with atrial septal defect can develop pulmonary aerial hypeension, in this case, the lungs are markedly hyperinflated consistent with emphysema. In addition, the central pulmonary aeries are typically more markedly enlarged in patients with Eisenmenger physiology. Although chronic pulmonary emboli can result in pulmonary aerial hypeension, the lung volume would not be affected. The hyperinflation of the lungs in this case represents emphysema as the cause of the pulmonary aerial hypeension. Pulmonary venous hypeension occurs when the left ventricle is unable to pump the volume of blood that it receives. This results in elevated left atrial pressures and pulmonary venous hypeension. On chest radiographs, the findings of pulmonary venous hypeension include cephalization of the vasculature and enlargement of the vessels, interstitial and alveolar edema - findings that are not present in this case. The radiograph shows marked enlargement of the central pulmonary aeries with abrupt tapering, or pruning, consistent with pulmonary aerial hypeension. In addition, there is marked hyperinflation of the lung with diminished lung markings, consistent with emphysema. In severe cases of emphysema, there is obliteration of the capillary bed. If the volume of affected lung is large enough, pulmonary aerial hypeension will occur. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Single gene disorder which does not follow Mendelian inheritance - | [
"Sickle cell anemia",
"Down syndrome",
"Fragile X-syndrome",
"Retinoblastoma"
] | C | Transmission of certain single-gene disorders does not follow classical Mendelian principles.
This group of the disorder can be classified into the following categories -
Diseases caused by triplet - repeat mutation, e.g. fragile - X syndrome, Huntington disease, & others.
Disorders caused by a mutation in mitochondrial genes, e.g. labour hereditary optic neuropathy.
A disorder associated with genomic imprinting.
Disorders associated with gonadal mosaicism. | train | med_mcqa | null |
About ureter true is | [
"5 cm long",
"25 cm long",
"35 cm long",
"Totally retroperitoneal"
] | B | Abdominal ureter. The ureter is roughly 25-30 cm long in adults and courses down the retroperitoneum in an S curve. At the proximal end of the ureter is the renal pelvis; at the distal end is the bladder. The ureter begins at the level of the renal aery and vein posterior to these structures . Ref - BDC 6e vol2 pg 318 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Leprosy does not involve – | [
"CNS",
"Testis",
"Skin",
"Cornea"
] | A | Lepra bacilli grows better in cooler places, therefore warmer areas of skin and internal organs are spared. Such areas are axilla, groin, scalp, nzidline back, ovaries, lung and CNS. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Ehlers Danlos syndrome is? | [
"Autosomal Dominant",
"Autosornal recessive",
"X-Linked Dominant",
"X-Linked recessive"
] | A | Ehler-Danlos syndrome is classified into 8 types and more than 5 types show autosomal dominant transmission. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Total cardiac output doesn't change during | [
"Sleep",
"From supine to standing position",
"Exercise",
"Arrhythmias"
] | A | Sleep does not effect cardiac output. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is not included in major Jone's criteria - | [
"Pancarditis",
"Chorea",
"Arthritis",
"Elevated ESR"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Elevated E.S.R. * The jones criteria for rheumatic fever:Major criteriaMinor criteria* Carditis0Clinical* Migratory polyarthritis0* Fever0* Sydenham's chorea0* Arthralgia0* Subcutaneous nodules0Laboratory* Erythema marginatum0Elevated acute phase reactants0Prolonged PR intervalPLUS Supporting evidence of a recent group A Streptococcal infection (e.g.positive throat culture or rapidantigen detection test; and or elevated or increasing streptococcal antibody test).To fulfill jones criteria either two major criteria or one major and two minor criteria plus evidence of antecedent streptococcal infection is required. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Platelet aggregation is inhibited by all except : | [
"Aspirin",
"Clopidogrel",
"Thromboxane A2",
"Eptifibatide"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
The cones in the eye are | [
"Not responsible for colour vision",
"More sensitive to light than the rod",
"Associated with higher visual acuity than the rods",
"Dependent on Vitamin-A for their function"
] | C | (C) Associated with higher visual acuity than the rods > The rods and cones, which are next to the choroid, synapse with bipolar cells, and the bipolar cells synapse with ganglion cells. The axons of the ganglion cells converge and leave the eye as the optic nerve.> Horizontal cells connect receptor cells to the other receptor cells in the outer plexiform layer.> Amacrine cells connect ganglion cells to one another in the inner plexiform layer.> They have no axons, and their processes make both pre- and postsynaptic connections with neighboring neural elements. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Basement membrane collagen is | [
"IV",
"II",
"V",
"VI"
] | A | (IV): (170 Harsh mohan 6th edition)Basement membrane are PAS positive amorphous structures that lies underneath epithelia of different organs and endothelial cells, they consist of collagen type IVand laminin** | train | med_mcqa | null |
An outbreak of diarrhea occurred among elderly patients in an assisted care facility, which had been repeatedly cited by the public health department for poor hygiene practices. The agent that caused the infections had a star-like morphology in electron micrographs. EIA tests for several agents of viral gastroenteritis were negative. Which virus was most likely responsible for this outbreak? | [
"Adenovirus 40/41",
"Astrovirus",
"HAV",
"Norovirus"
] | B | A number of viruses that cause gastroenteritis have been recognized. The table in the answer to question 160 summarizes the characteristics of these viruses. Astrovirus (b) has been demonstrated by EM in stools of young children and elderly nursing home residents during outbreaks of diarrhea. EIA tests are available to detect adenovirus 40/41 (a), Norovirus (d), and Rotavirus (e), so these cannot be the causative agents. HAV (c) does not cause gastroenteritis. See the table in the answer to question 114 for additional information. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which cancer is most commonly associated with increased estrogen levels? | [
"Cervix",
"Ovarian",
"Breast",
"GTN"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Breast Important risk factors for breast cancer1) Increased age8) High fat diet2) Female sex9) High socioeconomic status3) Western countries10) Irradiation4) Early menarche11) Hormone replacement therapy5) Late menopause12) Family history positive6) Obesity13) Somatic mutation in p53 gene (in 40% cases)7) Nulliparity * Most of these factors are related to increased exposure of estrogen to breast.* Breast feeding is protective against breast cancer. Thus women who avoid breast cancer are at increased risk to develop breast cancer. Oral contraceptives and smoking do not appear to increase the risk of breast cancer.* 3 most important cancer associated with estrogen are breast, endometrium and uterine.Note - There is also an increased risk of ovarian cancer with long term large dose estrogen therapy, but much less common as compared to breast cancer. | train | med_mcqa | null |
During active labor, cervical dilatation per hour in primigravida is: March 2013 | [
"1 cm/hour",
"1.5 cm/hour",
"1.7 cm/hour",
"2 cm/hour"
] | A | Ans. A i.e. 1 cm/ hour Dilatation of the cervix at the rate of 1 cm/hour in primigravidae and 1.5 cm/hour in multigravidae beyond 3 cm dilatation (active phase of labor) is considered satisfactory | train | med_mcqa | null |
Liquefactive necrosis is typically seen in | [
"Ischemic necrosis of the heart",
"Ischemic necrosis of the brain",
"Ischemic necrosis of the intestine",
"Tuberculosis"
] | B | Ans. (b) Ischemic necrosis of the brain | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 7-year-old boy falls off his bicycle while riding down the street at 5 km/hr. The skin of his right calf and right arm scrape along the pavement, and the top layer of the epidermis is removed. Which of the following terms best describes this injury? | [
"Abrasion",
"Burn",
"Contusion",
"Incision"
] | A | A scraping injury produces an abrasion but does not break through the skin. A burn injury causes coagulative necrosis without mechanical disruption. A contusion is a bruise with extravasation of blood into soft tissues. Lacerations break the skin or other organs in an irregular pattern. An incised wound is made with a sharp instrument such as a knife, leaving clean edges. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Dental caries is caused by | [
"Streptococcus pyogenes",
"Streptococcus mutans",
"Enterococcus",
"Hemophilus Influenzae"
] | B | Streptococcus mutans is an alpha Hemolytic streptococcus which is a pa of the normal flora of the oral cavity. This gram-positive coccus is commonly found in the mouth from where it can spread to cause dental caries or endocarditis in individuals with risk factors(dental extraction in individuals with damaged hea valves). The bacteria has a polysaccharide coat that allows it to stick to teeth and also to the damaged hea valves. It produces acid from sugar in saliva and this promotes erosion of tooth enamel. Reference: Textbook of Microbiology; Anathanarayan and panicker's; 10th edition; Page no: 221 | train | med_mcqa | null |
During pregnancy, GFR | [
"Increases",
"Decreases",
"Remains Unchanged",
"Increases only in multiple gestations"
] | A | GFR increases by 50% as filtering capacity of kidney increases due to - a) Decrease oncotic pressure due to hemodilution b) Increased renal blood flow by 80% in 2nd trimester and 50% in 3rd trimester. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which is involved in transpo of long chain acyl-CoA in mitochondria? | [
"Ornithine",
"Xanthine",
"Carnitine",
"Albumin"
] | C | In humans carnitine is synthesized from protein-derived trimethyllysine in liver, brain and kidney.Muscles take up carnitine from the blood in an exchange-diffusion process with endogenous deoxycarnitine, the immediate precursor of carnitine.Besides catalysing the transpo of long-chain acyl groups in mitochondria, carnitine is necessary for the expo of intramitochondrially produced sho-chain acyl residues and for the trapping and the elimination of unphysiological compounds (benzoic, pivalic, valproic acids etc.). | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is not an appropriate material for composite hand instruments: | [
"Teflon",
"Teflon coated material.",
"Stainless steel.",
"Non metallic."
] | C | Stainless steel instruments should not be used because the composite will stick to the instrument. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Interferons in chronic hepatitis B given in - | [
"Early onset",
"HBV replication",
"Normal ALT",
"All the above"
] | B | Hepatitis B may cause an acute viral hepatitis; however, acute infection is often asymptomatic, paicularly when acquired at bih. Many individuals with chronic hepatitis B are also asymptomatic. The risk of progression to chronic liver disease depends on the source and timing of infection . Veical transmission from mother to child in the perinatal period is the most common cause of infection worldwide and carries the highest risk of ongoing chronic infection. In this setting, adaptive immune responses to HBV may be absent initially, with apparent immunological tolerance. Several mechanisms contribute towards this: Firstly, the introduction of antigen in the neonatal period is tolerogenic. Secondly, the presentation of such antigen within the liver, as described above, promotes tolerance; this is paicularly evident in the absence of a significant innate or inflammatory response. Finally, very high loads of antigen may lead to so-called 'exhaustion' of cellular immune responses. The state of tolerance is not permanent, however, and may be reversed as a result of therapy, or through spontaneous changes in innate responses, such as interferon alpha (IFN-a) and NK cells, accompanied by host-mediated immunopathology Ref Davidson edition23rd pg872 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most common position of appendix is | [
"Pre ilial",
"Post ilial",
"Pelvic",
"Retro caecal"
] | D | The tip of the appendix can have a variable position within the abdominal cavity : retro-caecal (65-70%) pelvic (25-30%) pre- or post-ileal (5%) Ref - BDC 6e vol2 pg269 | train | med_mcqa | null |
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