question stringlengths 1 6.54k | choices listlengths 4 4 | answer stringclasses 4 values | rationale stringlengths 0 22.5k ⌀ | split stringclasses 1 value | dataset stringclasses 6 values | subject stringclasses 1 value |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
The use of pit and fissure sealant is contraindicated in | [
"Arrested caries",
"Recalcitrant caries",
"Remedial caries",
"Rampant caries"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
If the prevalence of a disease in a population increases, the predictive value of a positive test - | [
"Decreases",
"Increases",
"Remains constant",
"Becomes compromised"
] | B | Effect of prevalence on positive predictive value -
As prevalence of disease increases in a population, PPV of screening test increases.
It is easy to understand, if the number of patients increases in a population the probability of a positive test will also increases.
See following examples | train | med_mcqa | null |
Kiesselbach's plexus is plexus made up of? | [
"Arteries",
"Veins",
"Nerves",
"Connective tissue"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Arteries * Kiesselbach's plexus is formed by anastomosis of four arteries:-# Anterior ethmoidal artery,# Septal branch of superior labial artery,# Septal branch of sphenopalatine artery and# Greater palatine artery. | train | med_mcqa | null |
MC cause of neonatal moality: March 2013 (b, h) | [
"Bih injuries",
"Infection",
"Prematurity",
"Diarrhea"
] | C | Ans. C i.e. Prematurity Preterm bih is the most common cause of perinatal moality, causing almost 30 percent of neonatal deaths. Infant respiratory distress syndrome, in turn, is the leading cause of death in preterm infants, affecting about 1% of newborn infants. Bih defects cause about 21 percent of neonatal death. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is not sexually transmitted | [
"Lymphogranuloma",
"Genital herpes",
"Bacterial vaginosis",
"Syphilis"
] | C | Bacterial vaginosis is not sexually transmitted disease. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which egg does not float in a saturated solution of saline? | [
"Ankylostoma eggs",
"Trichuris eggs",
"Unfertilized eggs of ascaris",
"Fertilized eggs of ascaris"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Cowden syndrome is commonly associated with | [
"Renal cell carcinoma",
"Thymic Carcinoid",
"Cerebellar haemangioblastoma",
"Hamartoma"
] | D | (D) Hamartoma # Cowden syndrome (also known as "Cowden's disease," and "Multiple hamartoma syndrome") is a rare autosomal dominant inherited disorder characterized by multiple tumor-like growths called hamartomas and an increased risk of certain forms of cancer.> Stauffer syndrome - paraneoplastic, non-metastatic liver disease is a sign of Renal cell carcinoma.> Thymic carcinomas are, for the most part, of epithelial origin, although a few other unusual cell types can be found. All these lesions are very uncommon, and several are rare. They include some with low malignant potential (eg, well-differentiated squamous cell carcinoma, basaloid carcinoma, mucoepidermoid carcinoma) and those with features of a more aggressive malignancy (E.g., Sarcomatoid carcinoma, clear cell carcinoma, neuroendocrine carcinoma, lymphoepitheliomalike tumors, anaplastic undifferentiated tumors). | train | med_mcqa | null |
Test to diagnose thiamine deficiency - | [
"RBC transketolase",
"FIGLU excretion",
"Methyl-malunic acid in urine",
"Histidine load test"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., RBC transketolase o Thiamine diphosphate is also the coenzume for transketolase, in the pentose phosphate pathway. Therefore, thiamine nutritional status is best assessed by erythrocyte (preferred) or whole blood transketolase activity. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Atavism is the resemblance of characteristics to: | [
"Mother",
"Father",
"Grandparents",
"Neighbours"
] | C | Ans: c (Grandparents) 2011Ref: Reddy, 29th ed, Pg. 356Atavism is the tendency to revert to ancestral type such as traits reappearing which had disappeared generations before.Atavisms can occur in several ways. One way is when genes for previously existing phenotypical features are preserved in DNA, and these become expressed through a mutation that either knock out the overriding genes for the new traits or make the old traits override the new one. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is least likely associated with vascular injury - | [
"Fracture supracondylar femur",
"Fracture supracondylar humerus",
"Fracture shaft of femur",
"Fracture shaft humerus"
] | D | The fractures most often associated with damage to a major aery are those around the knee and elbow, and those of the humeral and femoral shafts. The aery may be cut, torn, compressed or contused, (a) (b) either by the initial injury or subsequently by jagged bone fragments. Even if its outward appearance is normal, the intima may be detached and the vessel blocked by thrombus, or a segment of aery may be in spasm. The effects vary from transient diminution of blood flow to profound ischaemia, tissue death and peripheral gangrene. Supracondylar fracture of humerus is associated with injury to brachial aery and Supracondylar fracture of femur is associated with injury to femoral aery. REF:Apley's system of ohopaedics-9th edn- pg no 713. | train | med_mcqa | null |
True about Glomus- jugulare tumour -
a) Most common in male
b) Arises from non- chromaffin cells
c) Lymph node metastasis seen
d) Multicentric
e) Fluctuating tinnitus and conductive type of hearing loss seen | [
"acde",
"abc",
"bde",
"bcde"
] | C | Glomus tumor is more common in females.
Glomus tumor is also referred to as chemodectomy or nonchromaffin paraganglion.
Glomus tumor is a benign tumor, therefore lymph node metastats is not present.
Multicentric tumors are found in 3-10% of sporadic cases and in 25-50% of familial cases.
Fluctuating (Pulsatile) tinnitus and conductive hearing loss are the earliest symptoms of glomus tumor. | train | med_mcqa | null |
NFHS - 3 is conducted during | [
"1995",
"2000",
"2005",
"2010"
] | C | National family health survey-3 conducted in India during 2005-2006 provides detailed information of feility trends Reference: Park&;s textbook of preventive and social medicine; 23rd edition | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which anatomic landmark demarcates upper gastrointestinal bleeding from lower gastrointestinal bleeding? | [
"IIeocecal valve",
"Ligament of Treitz",
"Papilla of Vater",
"Pylorus"
] | B | The ligament of Treitz, or the peritoneal ligament, which separates the third (retroperitoneal) poion of the duodenum from the fouh (peritoneal) poion of the duodenum, traditionally demarcates upper GI bleeding from lower GI bleeding. Bleeding proximal to this landmark tends to produce melena or black tarry stools. Bleeding distal to this landmark tends to produce hematochezia or red blood per rectum.The ileocecal valve separates the terminal ileum from the cecum.The papilla of Vater is where the pancreatic duct and common bile duct empty into the duodenum.The pylorus is the sphincter separating the stomach from the duodenum. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Erythrocyte transketolase activity is seen in which vitamin ? | [
"Riboflavin",
"Thiamine",
"Folic acid",
"Niacine"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Thiamine Thiamine (Vitamin B1Thiamine is also called aneurine. Thiamine has a central role in energy-yielding metabolism and especially the metabolism of carbohydrates. The active from of thiamine is thiamine pyrophosphate (TTP) also called thiamine diphosphate (TDP).Thiamine diphosphate (TDP) or TPP is the coenzyme for three multienzyme complexes that catalyze oxidative decarboxylation :Pyruvate dehydrogenase in carbohydrate metabolism, which catalyzes the conversion of pyruvate to acetyl CoA.a-Ketoglutarate dehydrogenase in citric acid cycle, which catalyzes the conversion of a-ketoglutarate to succinyl CoA. Branched-chain keto acid dehydrogenase which catalyzes the oxidative decarboxylation of branched chain keto amino acids, i.e. leucine, isoleucine and valine.Thiamine diphosphate is also the coenzume for transketolase, in the pentose phosphate pathway. Therefore, thiamine nutritional status is best assessed by erythrocyte (preferred) or whole blood transketolase activity. Deficiency of thiamine causes :BeriberiWernicke 's encephalopathy, with korsakoff psychosisLactic acidosis | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which is NOT a 2nd generation antihistaminic? | [
"Loratidine",
"Acrivastatine",
"Cyclizine",
"Terfenidine"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 24 year old unmarried woman has multiple nodular, cystic, pustular and comadonic lesions on face, upper back and shoulders for 2 years. The drug of choice for her treatment would be – | [
"Acitretin",
"Isotretinoin",
"Doxycycline",
"Azithromycin"
] | B | The DOC for nodulocystic acne is oral isotretinoin (13-Cis Retinoic acid)
Indications of isotretinoin → Severe acne (>25 lesions), Nodulocystic lesions, Large nodular lesions, Moderate acne not responding to oral antibiotics (Recalcitrant acne). | train | med_mcqa | null |
Circulus aeriosus iridis major is formed by the anastomosis of | [
"Long posterior ciliary aeries with sho posterior ciliary aeries",
"Long posterior ciliary aeries with anterior conjunctival aeries",
"Long posterior ciliary aeries with anterior ciliary aeries",
"Anterior ciliary aeries with sho posterior ciliary aeries"
] | C | Anterior ciliary aeries: These are derived from the muscular branches of ophthalmic aery. These aeries pass anteriorly in the episclera, give branches to sclera, limbus and conjunctiva; and ultimately pierce the sclera near the limbus to enter the ciliary muscle; where they anastomose with the two long posterior ciliary aeries to form the circulus aeriosus major, near the root of iris. Reference :- A K KHURANA; pg num:-136 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Fibrosis is due to - | [
"TGF-β",
"TNF -α",
"IL-7",
"IL-10"
] | A | Growth factors and cytokines involved in regeneration and wound healing | train | med_mcqa | null |
Superior cerebellar peduncle contains mainly which tract ? | [
"Tectocerebellar",
"Olivocerebellar",
"Vestibulo cerebellar",
"Reticulo cerebellar"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., TectocerebellarSuperior cerebellar peduncle This is the major output of the brain and connects to the midbrain, the cerebellothalamic tract (to the thalamus), and the cerebellorubral tract (to the red nucleus). It receives afferents from the locus coeruleus, and ventral spinocerebellar tract.Middle cerebellar peduncle This is the largest peduncle and connects the cerebellum to the pons. It connects the contralateral pontine nucleus to the cerebellar coex and also carries the input from the contralateral cerebral coex. It is composed of three fasciculi including the superior, inferior and deep.Inferior cerebellar peduncleThis connects the spinal cord and medulla to the cerebellum. The posterior spinocerebellar tract receives proprioceptive information from the body. The cuneocerebellar tract receives proprioceptive input from the upper limb and neck. The trigeminocerebellar tract sends proprioceptive input from the face. The juxtarestiform is an efferent system here. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Odds ratio is related to? | [
"Relative risk",
"Incidence",
"Prevalance",
"Attributable risk"
] | A | .<p>odd&;s ratio is a measure of the strength of the association between risk factor and outcome.it is closely related to relative risk.odd&;s ratio is being investigated based on three assumptions mainly ,the disease being investigated must be rare,the cases must be represntative of those with disease and the controls must be representatives of those without disease.</p><p>ref;park&;s textbook of preventive and social medicine,22 nd edition,pg no 70</p> | train | med_mcqa | null |
DISC prolapse is common at all site except ? | [
"L4 - L5",
"L5 - S1",
"C6 - C7",
"T3 - T4"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e., T3 - T4 Herniation of interveebral disc is a common cause of combined back pain and sciatica (Pain in back with radiation to lower limb). Prolapsed interveebral disc is often precipitated by injury, but it may also occur in the absence of any remembered injury. The disc between Lc and Sp and between L4 and L5 are those most often affected (80%). Lower cervical region (C's - C6 and C6_7) is affected in 19-20%. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Combination clasp consists of | [
"Wrought retentive and reciprocal",
"Cast retentive and reciprocal",
"Wrought retentive and cast reciprocal",
"Cast retentive and wrought reciprocal"
] | C | Another strategy to reduce the effect of the Class I lever in distal extension situations is to use a flexible component in the "resistance arm, " which is the strategy employed in the combination clasp. The combination clasp consists of a wrought wire retentive clasp arm and a cast reciprocal clasp arm. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most common intraocular tumour of childhood is: | [
"Malignant Melanoma",
"Retinoblastoma",
"Haemangioma",
"Rhabdomyoma"
] | B | Ans: b (Retinoblastoma) Ref: AK Khurana, 4th ed, p. 280 * Retinoblastoma is the most common intraocular tumour occurring in 1 in 20000 live births * Arises from the neurosensory layer of retinalneuroectodermal) * Sporadic 94% Familial 6% * Bilateral 30-40% Unilateral 60-70% *Heritable 40% (All familial + l/3rd of sporadic) Nonheritable 60% - Rb gene is a tumour suppressor gene on Ch 13 long arm. Loss or inactivation of both the normal allele lead to Rb. - Histopathology: - Flexner wintersteiner rosettes (highly specific) - Homer wright rosettes - Pseudorosettes - Necrosis & calcification C/F:- 1. Leukocoria (Amaurotic cats eye reflex)- M.C. manifestation 2. Squint(2nd MC) 3. Secondary glaucoma 4. Nystagmus Inv: A. On Ophthalmoscopy 2 appearances 1. Endophytic retinoblastoma with calcification- Cottage cheese appearance 2. Exophytic Rb with appearance of exudative retinal detachment B. USG C. CT Scan Both detects calcification D. MRI - to study optic nerve & sellar & parasellar regions of brain Treatment: Small tumours (<4 mm diameter < 2 mm thickness) 1. Laser photocoagulation 2. cryotherapy (anterior to equator) 3. transpupillary thermotherapy Medium sized tumours (< 12 mm dia < 6 mm thickness) 1. Brachyterapy using episcleral plaque applicator 2. Chemoreduction - agents vincristine, carboplatin & etoposide Large tumours 1. Enucleation 2. Chemoreduction Extracranial ext. -- external beam radiotherapy Recurrent/ metastasis-- chemotherapy Prognosis: Reese Elsworth system Indications of enucleation 1. No chance of preserving useful vision 2. Tumour involving half of globe 3. Optic nerve involvement 4. Glaucoma or AC involvement 5. Gross vitreous seedings | train | med_mcqa | null |
Category II treatment - | [
"2HRZES",
"1 HRZE",
"5 HRE",
"All"
] | D | Previously treated or category 2 includes combination of all the above drugs | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which is true about Type-2 muscle fibres? | [
"Increased myoglobin",
"It is slower, oxidative and red",
"Increased Isoenzyme ATPase activity",
"Glycolytic capacity moderate"
] | C | Type II muscle fibres are seen in fast muscles. My globin content is low and hence called white muscles. It has increased isoenzyme activity(REF: TEXTBOOK OF MEDICAL PHYSIOLOGY GEETHA N 2 EDITION, PAGE NO - 44) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Fever is due to: | [
"Interleukin-1",
"Interleukin-2",
"Interleukin-3",
"Interleukin-4"
] | A | Interleukin-1 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Zafirlukast acts by blocking the action of : | [
"Prostacyclin",
"Platelet activating factor",
"Leukotriene B4",
"Leukotriene C4/D4"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Red brown colour postmoem staining seen in: | [
"Cyanide",
"Phosphorus",
"Carbon-monoxide",
"Aniline"
] | D | D i.e. Aniline | train | med_mcqa | null |
NOT an aryl phosphate: Al 07; TN 10 | [
"Parathion",
"Malathion",
"Follidol",
"Tik-20"
] | B | Ans. Malathion | train | med_mcqa | null |
Tardy ulnar nerve palsy - | [
"Early onset",
"Late onset",
"Caused by shoulder dislocation",
"None"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Late onsetTardy ulnar nerve palsyo Tardy ulnar nerve palsy as a late complication of the lateral condylar physis is well known, especially after the development of cubitus valgus from malunion or nonunion. Due to cubitus valgus there is chronic stretching of ulnar nerve. However, you should keep in mind that, cubitus valgus is not the only cause of tardy ulnar nerve palsy. There are many other causes.o Tardy means occuring late, i.e.. late onset ulnar nerve palsy.o Causes of tardy ulnar nerve palsy are : -i) Malunited lateral condyle humerus fracture (cubitus valgus)ii) Displaced medial epicondyle humerus fractureiii) Cubitus varus deformity (due to supracondylar fracture humerus)iv) Elbow dislocationContusions of ulnar nerveShallow ulnar grooveHypoplasia of humeral trochleaJoint deformity after prolonged arthritis of elbowClinical featureso Weakness of grip, tingling numbness of little finger,o Positive card test & ffoments sign.o Full flexion of elbow aggravates pain and paresthesia along ulnar nerve distribution.Treatmento Conservative : - Elbow extension splint to be worn at night,o Surgery : - Anterior transposition of ulnar nerve. | train | med_mcqa | null |
One of the following condition is not associated with clubbing : | [
"Primary biliary cirrhosis",
"Chronic bronchitis",
"Cryptogenic fibrosing alveolitis",
"Central bronchiectasis"
] | B | Answer is B (Chronic bronchitis): Chronic bronchitis does not cause clubbing Some causes of finger clubbing Respiratory Cardiovascular Bronchial carcinoma, especially epidermoid (squamous cell) type (major cause) Cyanotic hea disease Chronic suppurative lung disese Subacute infective endocarditis Bronchiectasis Lung abscess Miscellaneous Empyema Congenital -- no disease Cirrhosis Pulmonary fibrosis (e.g. cryptogenic fibrosing alveolitis) Inflammatory bowel disease Pleural and mediastinal tumours (e.g. mesothelioma) Primary billiary cirrhosis Crvptogenic organizing pneumonia | train | med_mcqa | null |
A patient comes to you complaining that whenever he takes aspirin for headache, he develops severe shoness of breath. Which of the following may be paly responsible for this effect? | [
"Leukotrienes",
"Prostaglandin E",
"Thromboxane A2",
"Prostacyclin"
] | A | Aspirin inhibits COX enzyme and results in the diversion of AA pathwaytowards LT synthesis. As LTs are powerful bronchoconstrictor agents, these may result in the shoness of breath in patients who are susceptible. Aspirin acetylated COX stas producing lipoxins (known as aspirin triggered lipoxins) that also have bronchoconstrictor propeies. | train | med_mcqa | null |
True about polymorphism is: (PGI Dec 2006) | [
"Single locus - multiple normal alleles",
"Single locus - multiple abnormal alleles",
"Single phenotype: single Iocus->multiple normal alleles multiple abnormal alleles",
"Single phenotype: Single !ocus->>multiple abnormal alleles."
] | D | Ans: D (Single phenotype, single locus, - multiple allele] Polymorphisms is single phenotype, single locus & mu Itipie normal allele(r)Polymorphisms# Clinically ,'iarmless variationQ of DNA sequence# Normal variation in DNA sequence that have frequency of at least 1%. Usally, they don't result in a perceptible phenotype i.e,phenotype same'Q.They constitutes: Single base-pair substitution (often) & Deletions and insertionsThey don't alter protein coding sequence probaly due to degeneracy of genetic code although it is possible that it might alter mRNA stability, translation or aminoacid sequences. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Contrast used in barium enema is – | [
"Barium oxide",
"Barium sulphide",
"Barium sulphate",
"Lead sulphate"
] | C | Barium sulfate is the traditional gastrointestinal contrast medium of choice. It is cheap and readily available, and its high density provides excellent contrast and definition. It is not absorbed by the gut and can, therefore, be used anywhere in the bowel. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following shows lowest frequency of cleft
lip and palate? | [
"Negroes",
"Afghanese",
"American Indian",
"Indian"
] | A | The incidence of cleft lip and palate is 1:600 live births and of isolated cleft palate is 1:1000 live births. The incidence increases in Oriental groups (1:500) and decreases in the black population (1:2000). The highest incidence reported for cleft lip and palate occurs in the Indian tribes of Montana, USA (1:276).
Although cleft lip and palate is an extremely diverse and variable congenital abnormality, several distinct subgroups exist, namely cleft lip with/without cleft palate (CL/P), cleft palate (CP) alone and submucous cleft palate (SMCP).
The typical distribution of cleft types is:
Cleft lip alone: 15%;
Cleft lip and palate: 45%;
Isolated cleft palate: 40%.
Cleft lip/palate predominates in males, whereas cleft palate alone appears to be more common in females. In unilateral cleft lip the deformity affects the left side in 60% of cases.
Key Concept:
The incidence increases in Oriental groups (1:500) and decreases in the black population (1:2000). The highest incidence reported for cleft lip and palate occurs in the Indian tribes of Montana, USA (1:276).
Reference: Bailey & Love’s short practice of surgery , 27th ed page no 688 | train | med_mcqa | null |
A person is HBsAg positive, but anti-HBsAg negative, what should be the next step | [
"Repeat test after 6months",
"Check if HBeAg is positive",
"Check HBV DNA load",
"Reassure the patient"
] | C | HBsAg indicates a current infection.Anti-HBs is generally interpreted as indicating recovery and immunity from hepatitis B virus infection. Anti-HBs also develops in a person who has been successfully vaccinated against hepatitis B.HBeAg is a hepatitis B viral protein. It is an indicator of active viral replication.HBcAg (core antigen) is a hepatitis B viral protein. It is an indicator of active viral replication.*replicative phase is characterized by the presence in the serum of HBeAg and HBV DNA levels well in excess of 10^3-10^4 IU/mL** chronic HBV infection can occur in the presence or absence of serum hepatitis B e antigen (HBeAg), the level of HBV DNA correlates with the level of liver injury and risk of progression. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most common cause of decrease in incidence of H.pylori in the western countries is due to | [
"Change in life style",
"Increased use of PPI",
"Chemotherapy",
"Mutation in organism"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Fetal hydrops is most commonly associated with: | [
"Cardiac anomalies.",
"Renal anomalies.",
"GI anomalies.",
"Skeletal anomalies."
] | A | Ans. A. Cardiac anomaliesCardiac anomaly is the most common anatomical abnormality associated with fetal hydrops. In general hydrops associated with a structurally abnormal heart carries a poor prognosis, as the anomaly is usually severe. Those hydropic fetuses with arrhythmia but with structurally normal heart usually respond to either transplacental or direct fetal therapy. In these cases, the prognosis is good. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Sites of Anatomical Ureteric constrictions are following except | [
"Ureteropelvic junction",
"Ureterovesical junction",
"Crossing of iliac aery",
"Ischial spine"
] | D | . | train | med_mcqa | null |
All the following are obstetric clinical criteria for diagnosis of Antiphospholipid Antibody Syndrome except: | [
"One or more unexplained deaths of a morphologically normal fetus at or beyond 10 weeks",
"Severe preeclampsia or placental insufficiency necessitating delivery before 34 weeks",
"Three or more unexplained consecutive aboions before 10 weeks",
"One or more episodes of aerial, venous or small vessel thrombosis... | D | Clinical and laboratory criteria for diagnosis of Antiphospholipid Antibody Syndrome Atleast one clinical and one laboratory criteria must be present for diagnosisThese tests must be positive on two or more occasions atleast 12 weeks apaClinical criteriaObstetric: One or more unexplained deaths of a morphologically normal fetus at or beyond 10 weeksOrSevere preeclampsia or placental insufficiency necessitating delivery before 34 weeksOrThree or more unexplained consecutive aboions before 10 weeksVascular: One or more episodes of aerial, venous or small vessel thrombosis in any tissue or organLaboratory criteriaPresence of lupus anticoagulant according to guidelines of the international society on thrombosis and hemostasisOrMedium to high serum levels of IgG or IgM anticardiolipin antibodiesOrAnti-beta2 glycoprotein-1 IgG or IgM antibody(Ref: William's Obstetrics; 25th edition) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Emile Durkheim is linked with work on which condition in psychiatry? | [
"Suicide",
"Obsessive compulsive disorder",
"Anxiety disorder",
"Schizophrenia"
] | A | Ans. A. SuicideSuicide (French: Le Suicide)It was a groundbreaking book in the field of sociology.It was written by French sociologistEmile Durliiheim and pubtshed in 1897.It was ostensibly a case study of suicide, a publication unique for its time that provided an example of what the sociological monograph should look like. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is NOT TRUE of chicken pox rash? | [
"Centripetal in distribution",
"Palms and soles are spared mostly",
"Pleomorphic rash",
"Scabs are infectious"
] | D | Rash of chicken pox appears on first day of fever. Appears first on the trunk and spreads to face, limbs usually sparing the palms and soles. It rapidly passes through the stages of macule, papule, vesicle and scab. Rash is pleomorphic in nature, i.e. all stages of rash may be present simultaneously Heals by scabbing around 4 to 7 days after beginning of rash. Scabs are non infectious. Ref: Park 21st edition, page 135-136 Chapter: Epidemiology in communicable diseases. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Physiological effect that is not produced by stimulation of Kappa opioid receptor is: | [
"Sedation",
"Diuresis",
"Miosis",
"Constipation"
] | D | Ans. D. ConstipationBecause of the stimulation of u receptor constipation will occur. They can be found in the intestinal tract.This will be the cause of constipation i.e. a major side effect of u agonists, due to inhibition of peristaltic action.a. Sedationb. Analgesiac. Miosisd. Dysphoriae. DiuresisAmong the five related receptors the k-opioid receptor will bind opium-like compounds in the brain which are responsible for mediating the effects of these compounds.It effects includes altering the: -a. Moodb. Perception of painc. Consciousnessd. Motor control | train | med_mcqa | null |
Latest method "Gail model'' of risk assessment is for | [
"Ovarian ca",
"Prostate ca",
"Breast ca",
"Lung ca"
] | C | Ans. (c) Breast cancer.(Ref Schwartz principles of surgery, 10th ed p-512)Because of the increased risk of breast cancer in US - Gail developed a most commonly used model to predict the cumulative risk of breast cancer. It includes the following factors# Age# Age at menarche# Age at 1st child birth# Number of breast biopsy specimens# History of atypical hyperplasia# Number of 1st degree relatives with breast cancer* A scoring is calculated by a software based on these and predicts the 5 year risk and life time risk of breast cancerFor Extra Edge - Know the other similar models used for cancer breast:# Clauss model# BRCAPRO model# Tyrer-Cuzick model | train | med_mcqa | null |
An Employer is responsible not only for his own negligence but also for activity done by his employee. This comes under | [
"Vicarious liability",
"State liability",
"Personal liability",
"Company liability"
] | A | (A) Vicarious liability # VICARIOUS LIABILITY:> Liability for act of another is a form of strict, secondary liability that arises under the common law doctrine of agency - respondent superior - the responsibility of the superior for the acts of their subordinate, or, in a broader sense, the responsibility of any third party that had the "right, ability or duty to control" the activities of a violator. It can be distinguished from contributory liability, another form of secondary liability, which is rooted in the tort theory of enterprise liability. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Select the drug which is neither analgesic, nor anti- inflammatory, nor uricosuric, but is highly efficacious in acute gout | [
"Colchicine",
"Sulfinpyrazone",
"Naproxen",
"Prednisolone"
] | A | Colchicine Colchicine is neither analgesic nor anti- inflammatory, but it specifically suppresses gouty inflammation. It does not inhibit the synthesis or promote the excretion of uric acid. Thus, it has no effect on blood uric acid levels. pathophysiology of gout:- An acute attack of gout is staed by the precipitation of urate crystals in the synol fluid. On being engulfed by the synol cells, they release mediators and sta an inflammatory response. Chemotactic factors are produced - granulocyte migration into the joint; they phagocytose urate crystals and release a glycoprotein which aggravates the inflammation by: (i) Increasing lactic acid production from inflammatory cells - local pH is reduced - more urate crystals are precipitated in the affected joint. (ii) Releasing lysosomal enzymes which cause joint destruction. mech of action of colchicine:- Colchicine does not affect phagocytosis of urate crystals, but inhibits release of chemotactic factors and of the glycoprotein, thus suppressing the subsequent events. By binding to fibrillar protein tubulin, it inhibits granulocyte migration into the inflamed joint and thus interrupts the vicious cycle Toxicity:- Nausea, vomiting, watery or bloody diarrhoea and abdominal cramps occur as dose limiting adverse effects. Ref:- kd tripathi; pg num:-214 | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following conditions are associated with Hypehyroidism, except - | [
"Hashimoto's Thyroiditis",
"Grave's Disease",
"Toxic Multinodular Goiter",
"Struma ovary"
] | A | Question repeated Hashimoto's thyroiditis, also known as chronic lymphocytic thyroiditis, is an autoimmune disease in which the thyroid gland is gradually destroyed. Early on there may be no symptoms. Over time the thyroid may enlarge forming a painless goitre. Some people eventually develop hypothyroidism with its accompanying weight gain, feeling tired, constipation, depression, and general pains. After many years the thyroid typically shrinks in size. Potential complications include thyroid lymphoma. Hashimoto's thyroiditis is thought to be due to a combination of genetic and environmental factors. Risk factors include a family history of the condition and having another autoimmune disease. Diagnosis is confirmed with blood tests for TSH, T4, and antithyroid antibodies. Other conditions that can produce similar symptoms include Graves' disease and nontoxic nodular goiter. Hashimoto's thyroiditis, regardless of whether or not hypothyroidism is present, can be treated with levothyroxine. If hypothyroidism is not present some may recommend no treatment while others may treat to try to reduce the size of the goitre. Those affected should avoid eating large amounts of iodine; however, sufficient iodine is required especially during pregnancy. Surgery is rarely required to treat the goitre. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Left ovarian vein drains into | [
"Left renal vein",
"Internal iliac vein",
"Inferior vena cava",
"Azygos vein"
] | A | Ovarian veins crosses the ureter anteromedially halfway between bifurcation of the IVC and the point in which it joins the anterolateral inferior vena cava (IVC). The left ovarian vein ascends similarly into the abdomen but drains into the left renal vein. ref - BDC 6e vol2 pg384 | train | med_mcqa | null |
The number of plantar interossei in the sole? | [
"2",
"3",
"4",
"5"
] | B | Interosseous Muscles of the FootThese are small muscles placed between the metatarsal bones. There are three plantar and four dorsal interossei.Ref: Chaurasia; Volume 2; 6th edition; Page no: 115 | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 7-year old patient p. its with headache, paralysis of upward gaze, loss of ilOtt perception and accommodation, nystagmus and failure of convergence. CT scan showed homogenous hyperdense lesion above the sella and in the posterior pa of the third ventricle. MRI showed that the lesions were homogenous and isointense on T1 weighted imaging, and isointense onT2 weighted imaging with intense contrast enhancement. The most likely diagnosis is: | [
"Teratoma",
"Germinoma",
"Dermoid",
"Choroid plexus carcinoma"
] | B | Ans. b. Germinoma | train | med_mcqa | null |
Decreased level of serum Vit B6 is seen in | [
"CRF",
"INH therapy",
"CHF",
"Alcohol"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Osteoporosis is caused by ill except: | [
"Sarcoidosis",
"Old age",
"Hypoparathyroidism",
"Steroid therapy"
] | C | Answer is C (Hypoparathyroidism) : Osteoporosis is a feature of Hyperparathyroidism (not hypoparathyroidism). | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following opioid can be given intranasally? | [
"Tramadol",
"Pethidine",
"Butorphanol",
"Buprenorphine"
] | C | Butorphanol is full agonist at kappa & antagonist at μ receptor that can be given intranasally. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A patient loses the ability to flex his forefinger. The nerve that supplies the muscles that cause this action is formed from which of the following cord(s) of the brachial plexus? | [
"Lateral only",
"Medial and lateral",
"Medial only",
"Medial and posterior"
] | B | The muscles involved are the flexor digitorum superficialis and the flexor digitorum profundus. The flexor digitorum superficialis is completely supplied by the median nerve. The flexor digitorum profundus is supplied by both the ulnar (little finger side) and median (thumb side) nerves. Flexion of the forefinger is consequently dependent on the median nerve, which is formed by pa of both the medial and lateral cords of the brachial plexus.The lateral cord alone supplies the musculocutaneous nerve. The medial cord alone supplies the ulnar nerve.No nerve is supplied by both the medial and posterior cords . Ref: Moon D.A., Foreman K.B., Albeine K.H. (2011). Chapter 33. Hand. In D.A. Moon, K.B. Foreman, K.H. Albeine (Eds), The Big Picture: Gross Anatomy. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following statements about terbinafine is FALSE? | [
"Its activity is restricted to dermatophytes",
"It is effective in onychomycosis",
"It is not effective in cryptococcal meningitis",
"It is kunlikely to produce anti-androgenic side effects"
] | D | (Ref: KDT 6/e p765) Terbinafine is a CIDAL drug against dermatophytes. It can be administered orally or can be applied topically. It acts by inhibiting the enzyme squalene epoxidase resulting in accumulation of toxic squalene. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Lisch nodules are seen in: March 2004 | [
"Albright syndrome",
"Neurofibromatosis",
"Tuberous sclerosis",
"Piebaldism"
] | B | Ans. B i.e. Neurofibromatosis Lisch nodule It is a pigmented hamaomatous nodular aggregate of dendritic melanocytes affecting the iris These nodules are found in neurofibromatosis type 1, and are present in greater than 94% of patients over the age of six. They are clear, yellow-brown, oval to round, dome-shaped papules that project from the surface of the iris. These nodules typically do not affect vision, but are very useful in diagnosis. They are detected by slit lamp examination. lmmunohistochemistry stains positive against vimentin and S-100, and points to an ectodermal origin. They are not found in neurofibromatosis type 2. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Decreased Radio iodine uptake is/are seen in - | [
"Toxic multinodular goiter",
"Grave's disease",
"Subacute thyroiditis",
"Autonomous nodular goitre"
] | C | Answer is option 3- subacute thyroiditis High RAIU is seen in :- graves disease, toxic nodule, autonomous nodular goitre, metastatic follicular thyroid carcinoma, hcg dependent hypehyroidism of trophoblastic disease. Low RAIU is seen in :- subacute thyroiditis, lymphocytic thyroiditis, postpaum thyroiditis, exogenous hypehyroidism. Ref - Harrisons internal medicine 20e topic thyroid from p2692 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Paradoxical Aciduria is seen - | [
"Congenital Hypertrophic Pyloric Stenosis",
"Duodenal Ulcer",
"Achalsia Cardia",
"Crohn's Disease"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Congenital Hypertrophic Pyloric Stenosis o Biochemical abnormality in congenital hypertrophic pyloric stenosis is a regular feature of AIIMS and AI examinations it has been repeated several times, o The biochemical abnormalities seen are:1. Hypokalemia2. Hypochloremia3. Alkalosis and4. Paradoxical aciduria | train | med_mcqa | null |
Ibuprofen is contraindicated in | [
"Patients having fever",
"Patients having asthma",
"Patients having amoebic dysentery",
"Patients having bronchitis"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Number of films required for full mouth radiographs of a child aged 10 years: | [
"4 films",
"12 films",
"14 films",
"20 films"
] | C | Full mouth survey radiographs: | train | med_mcqa | null |
Green STD kit contains | [
"Azithromycin, Cefixime",
"Secnidazole, Fluconazole",
"Acyclovir",
"Azithromycin, Doxycycline"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Right border of the hea in a chest X-ray is not formed by: | [
"WC",
"SVC",
"Right atrium",
"Aoa"
] | D | Ans. Aoa | train | med_mcqa | null |
Denominator for calculating infant moality rate is: September 2005 | [
"1000 population",
"1000 bihs",
"1000 live bihs",
"1000 pregnancies"
] | C | Ans. C: 1000 live bihs IMR = Number of deaths of children less than 1 year of age in a year X 1000/number of live bihs in the same year IMR is universally regarded a s not only as a most impoant indicator of the health status of a community but also the level of living of people in general, and effectiveness of MCH services in paicular. It is expressed as a rate per 1000 live bihs. | train | med_mcqa | null |
In children, hypothyroidism causes | [
"Acromegaly",
"Cretinism",
"Gigantism",
"Myxoedema"
] | B | Cretinism
Cretinism is caused by extreme hypothyroidism during fetal life, infancy, or childhood. This condition is characterized especially by failure of body growth and by mental retardation. It results from congenital lack of a thyroid gland (congenital cretinism), from failure of the thyroid gland to produce thyroid hormone because of a genetic defect of the gland, or from a lack of iodine in the diet (endemic cretinism).
A neonate without a thyroid gland may have a normal appearance and function because it was supplied with some (but usually not enough) thyroid hormone by the mother while in utero. A few weeks after birth, however, the neonate’s movements become sluggish and both physical and mental growth begin to be greatly retarded. Treatment of the neonate with cretinism at any time with adequate iodine or thyroxine usually causes normal return of physical growth, but unless the cretinism is treated within a few weeks after birth, mental growth remains permanently retarded. This state results from retardation of the growth, branching, and myelination of the neuronal cells of the central nervous system at this critical time in the normal development of the mental powers.
Skeletal growth in a child with cretinism is characteristically more inhibited than is soft tissue growth. As a result of this disproportionate rate of growth, the soft tissues are likely to enlarge excessively, giving the child with cretinism an obese, stocky, and short appearance. Occasionally the tongue becomes so large in relation to the skeletal growth that it obstructs swallowing and breathing, inducing a characteristic guttural breathing that sometimes chokes the child.
Reference: GUYTON AND HALL TEXTBOOK OF MEDICAL PHYSIOLOGY, THIRTEENTH EDITION(INTERNATIONAL EDITION ) page no 963 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is not a feature of heat stroke | [
"Very high body temperature",
"Dry, hot skin",
"Sweating",
"Constricted pupils"
] | C | There is no sweating in heat stroke. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Positive indicator of health ? | [
"IMR",
"Child moality rate",
"MMR",
"Life expectancy"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Life expectancy | train | med_mcqa | null |
C3 convertase acts on - | [
"C4b2b",
"C4b2B3b",
"C4b",
"C3"
] | D | Ans- (D) C3 Reference- Jawetz Melnick & Adelbergs Medical Microbiology - 27E (2016) Page 142. The latter protein (C4b2b) is an active C3 convertase, whichsplits C3 molecules into two fragments: C3a and C3b. C14b2a is known as C3 convertase which activates C3 to C3a (chemotactic and anaphylotoxin) and C3b | train | med_mcqa | null |
Seoli cells in male secrete ? | [
"Testosterone",
"Dehydroepiandrosterone",
"MIH",
"Progesterone"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., MIHSeoli cells are stimulated by FSH and secrete :-i) Androgen binding protein (ABP)ii) Inhibiniii) Mullerian inhibiting substance (MIS) or Mullerian inhibiting hormone (MIH)Leydig cells are stimulated by LH and secrete androgens (testesterone), dihydrotestosterone, androstendione, dehydroepiandrosterone. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Side effects of diphenyl hydantoin may include all except: | [
"Gingival hyperplasia",
"Acute cerebellar syndrome",
"Inter-nuclear ophthalmoplegia",
"Megaloblastic anaemia"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 77-year-old woman presents with headaches and difficulty walking. She has an unbalanced gait and falls easily, especially when trying to walk upstairs. The tone is normal and there are no cerebellar findings. A CT scan reveals enlarged ventricles.For the above patient with neurologic symptoms, select the most likely structural pathology | [
"aqueductal stenosis",
"infectious process",
"enlarged foramina of Luschka",
"nutritional deficiency"
] | A | Adults may develop hydrocephalus as a result of occlusion of CSF pathways by tumors in the third ventricle, brain stem, or posterior fossa. In adults, the symptoms of obstructive hydrocephalus include headache, lethargy, malaise, incoordination, and weakness. Seizures do not usually occur. Dementia, altered consciousness, ocular nerve palsies, papilledema, ataxia, or corticospinal tract signs may be present. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Trigone of Bladder is derived from: | [
"Endoderm",
"Mesoderm",
"Ectoderm",
"All of Above"
] | B | Ans. B. MesodermDuring the fourth to seventh weeks of development the cloaca divides into the urogenital sinus anteriorly and the anal canal posteriorly. The urorectal septum is a layer of mesoderm between the primitive anal canal and the urogenital sinus. Urogenital sinus forms the urinary bladder. During differentiation of the cloaca, the caudal portions of the mesonephric ducts are absorbed into the wall of the urinary bladder. The mucosa of the bladder formed by incorporation of the ducts (the trigone of the bladder) is mesodermal. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following features is not seen ileocaecal tuberculosis? | [
"Pulled up caecum",
"Apple core appearance",
"Obliteration of angle between ileum and caecum",
"Narrowing of distal end of caecum"
] | B | Ans. Apple core appearance | train | med_mcqa | null |
All are true about diffuse axonal injury except | [
"Can occur even with tril trauma",
"Patient might be in comatose condition",
"CT might be normal",
"Type of primary brain injury"
] | A | Diffuse axonal injuryThis is a form of primary brain injury, seen in high-energyaccidents, and which usually renders the patient comatose. It is strictly a pathological diagnosis made at postmoem, but haemorrhagic foci in the corpus callosum and dorsolateral rostral brainstem on CT may be suggestive, although the CT often appears normal.Bailey and Love 27e pg: 336 | train | med_mcqa | null |
All statements are true for osteomalacia except: March 2012 | [
"Loosers zone on X-ray",
"Commoner in females",
"Raised serum calcium",
"Muscular weakness"
] | C | Ans: C i.e. Raised serum calcium Osteomalacia Looser's zone (pseudofractures) are radiolucent zones occurring at the sites of stress in osteomalacia (commonly at pubic rami) Osteomalacia is more common in women who live in "purdah" & lack exposure to sunlight Serum calcium & phosphate is low & alkaline phosphatase is high Muscular weakness (The patient feels very weak. He may difficulty in climbing up & down the stairs) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is suggestive of Acute renal failure? | [
"FENa<1",
"Renal Failure index <1",
"Blood urea nitrogen/cr ratio<20",
"Urine osmolality >1.010"
] | A | Renal indices in AKI The FeNa is the fraction of the filtered sodium load that is reabsorbed by the tubules, and is a measure of both the kidney's ability to reabsorb sodium as well as endogenously and exogenously administered factors that affect tubular reabsorption. As such, it depends on sodium intake, effective intravascular volume, GFR, diuretic intake, and intact tubular reabsorptive mechanisms. With prerenal azotemia, the FeNa may be <1%, suggesting avid tubular sodium reabsorption. In patients with CKD, a FeNa significantly >1% can be present despite a superimposed prerenal state. The FeNa may also be >1% despite hypovolemia due to treatment with diuretics. Low FeNa is often seen early in glomerulonephritis and other disorders and, hence, should not be taken as prima facie evidence of prerenal azotemia. Low FeNa is therefore suggestive, but not synonymous, with effective intravascular volume depletion, and should not be used as the sole guide for volume management. The response of urine output to crystalloid or colloid fluid administration may be both diagnostic and therapeutic in prerenal azotemia. In ischemic AKI, the FeNa is frequently >1% because of tubular injury and resultant inability to reabsorb sodium. Several causes of ischemia-associated and nephrotoxin-associated AKI can present with FeNa <1%, however, including sepsis (often early in the course), rhabdomyolysis, and contrast nephropathy ref - Harrison's 20e pg 2107 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which enzyme deficiency causes hemolytic anaemia – | [
"G–6–PD",
"Aldolase",
"Isomerase",
"Enolase"
] | A | Glucose 6 phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) deficiency
Normally, RBCs are protected from oxidant injury by reduced glutathione.
Reduced glutathione is generated from oxidized glutathione and the reducing equivalent for this reaction is provided by NADPH.
This NADPH is generated in HMP shunt by enzyme Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase, while oxidizing glucose-6-phosphate.
If G6PD is deficient, NADPH production will be reduced that results in increased susceptibility of RBC to oxidative damage because of unavailability of reduced glutathione.
So, whenever there is oxidant stress, e.g. by drugs, infection or foods, hemolysis occurs.
G6PD deficiency causes episodic intravascular and extravascular hemolysis. Important peripheral smear findings → Heinz bodies, Bite cells, Spherocytes. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Two weeks after a viral syndrome, a 2-year-old child develops bruising and generalized petechiae, more prominent over the legs. No hepatosplenomegaly or lymph node enlargement is noted. The examination is otherwise unremarkable. Laboratory testing shows the patient to have a normal hemoglobin, hematocrit, and white blood cell (WBC) count and differential. The platelet count is 15,000/mL. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? | [
"Von Willebrand disease (vWD)",
"Acute leukemia",
"Idiopathic (immune) thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP)",
"Aplastic anemia"
] | C | In children, ITP is the most common form of thrombocytopenic purpura. In most cases, a preceding viral infection can be noted. No diagnostic test identifies this disease; exclusion of the other diseases listed in the question is necessary. In this disease, the platelet count is frequently less than 20,000/mL, but other laboratory tests yield essentially normal results, including the bone marrow aspiration (if done). Complications are uncommon; significant bleeding occurs in only 5% of cases and intracranial hemorrhage is even rarer. The treatment of childhood ITP is controversial. Patients with mild symptoms such as bruising and self-limited epistaxis may be observed, while patients with significant bleeding should be treated. IVIG and corticosteroids are effective in causing a rapid increase in platelet count, but controversy exists surrounding the use of prednisone before ruling out leukemia with a bone marrow aspirate. For Rh-positive patients with a working spleen, the use of anti-D immunoglobulin also results in an increase in platelet count. For patients with chronic (> 1 year) ITP, a splenectomy may be necessary.Aplastic anemia is unlikely if the other cell lines are normal. vWD might be expected to present with bleeding and not just bruising. It is unlikely that acute leukemia would present with thrombocytopenia only. Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura is rare in children. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Chest X-ray findings in tuberculosis associated with HIV are all except: September 2005 | [
"Disseminated tuberculosis",
"Lupus vulgaris",
"Pleural effusion",
"Hilar lymphadenopathy"
] | B | Ans. B: Lupus vulgaris Lupus vulgaris is a cutaneous manifestation of tuberculosis. | train | med_mcqa | null |
For Tendon transfer, the most common tendon used | [
"Achillis tendon",
"Palmaris longus",
"Flexor carpi ulnaris",
"Tibialis posterior"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
What stimulates the gonads in male at 8 week to secret testosterone - | [
"Inhibin from corpus luteum",
"GnRH from hypothalamus of baby",
"Placental HCG",
"All of above"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Placental HCG During embryogenesis, In male embryo, at 6-7 week of gestatin, secretion of first anti-mullerian hormone (also k/o mullerian inhibiting substance) causes regression of mullerian duct. Then at 8-12 week, under influence of Placental HCG, testes staed producing testosterone. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Type of anemia seen in Rheumatoid ahritis is: | [
"Microcytic hypochromic anaemia",
"Macrocytic hypochromic anaemia",
"Normocytic hypochromic anaemia",
"Normocytic normochromic anaemia"
] | D | Answer is D (Normocytic normochromic anaemia): Wormoehromic, normoepie anaemia k frequently present in Rheumatoid ahritis. It is thought to reflect ineffective erythropoesis, large stores of iron are found in the bone marrow'- | train | med_mcqa | null |
Foster Fuch&;s spots are seen in - | [
"Hypermetropia",
"Myopia",
"Astigmatism",
"None"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e.. Myopia Examination findings in myopia o On examination following findings are seen : - Large prominent eyeball and cornea. In early cases of myopia, fundus is normal. Later there may be myopic crescents, Foster's fuch's spot at the macula, peripheral retinal (lattice & Snail track) degeneration, cystoid degeneration, vitreous liquefaction & opacities, posterior vitreous detachment (Weiss*reflex). | train | med_mcqa | null |
Would closure for clean wounds within 6 hours of injury without risk of contamination | [
"Primary closure",
"Delayed primary closure",
"Secondary closure",
"Tertiary closure"
] | A | Primary Closure
Also known as healing by primary intention Have a small, clean defect that minimizes the risk of infection Requires new blood vessels and keratinocytes to migrate only a small distance Surgical incisions, paper cuts and small cutaneous wounds usually heal by primary closure.
Fastest type of closure by simple suturing, skin grafting or flap closure Secondary Closure Also known as healing by secondary intention Healing of a wound in which the wound edges cannot be approximated Requires a granulation tissue matrix to be built to fill the wound defect Requires more time and energy than primary wound closure Creates more scar tissue The majority of wounds close by secondary wound closure.
Delayed Primary Closure Also known as healing by tertiary intention. Combination of healing by primary and secondary intention
The wound is first cleaned and observed for a few days to ensure no infection is apparent, before it is surgically closed.
E.g. traumatic injuries such as dog bites or lacerations involving foreign bodies. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The most common type of elbow dislocation is | [
"Anterior medial",
"Posterior medial",
"Antero lateral",
"Postero lateral"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Following are features of ischemia in Anterior choroidal artery territory except - | [
"Hemiparesis",
"Hemisensory loss",
"Homonymous hemianopia",
"Predominant involvement of the anterior limb of internal capsule"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Household insecticide used for malaria | [
"Malathion",
"Pyrethrum",
"Paris green",
"Permethrin"
] | A | Malathion Malathion has the least toxicity of all organophosphorous compounds. The technical product is a yellow or clear- brown liquid with an unpleasant smell. Commercially, water- dispersible powders are available. Malathion is used in doses of 100-200 mg. per sq. ft., every 3 months. Because of its low toxicity, malathion has been recommended as an alternative insecticide to DDT. As a low volume (ULV) spray, malathion has been widely used for killing adult mosquitoes to prevent or interrupt dengue-haemorrhagic fever, and mosquito-borne encephalitis epidemics Ref:Park's TextbooK Of Preventive and Social Medicine 25th Ed Pgno: 820 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following stains is used to study fungal morphology in tissue sections – | [
"PAS",
"Von–kossa",
"Alzarin–red",
"Masson's Trichrome"
] | A | "The periodic acid schiff (PAS) and methenamine silver stains are valuable methods for the demonstration of fungal elements in tissue sections." | train | med_mcqa | null |
Drug which clears trypanosomes from blood and lymph nodes and is active in late CNS stages of African sleeping sickness | [
"Emetine",
"Melarsoprol",
"Nifuumix",
"Suramin"
] | B | Melarsoprol in cns stage, suramin in heamolymphaticstage, chagas disease nifuimox.Ref: Katzung 10/e p863 | train | med_mcqa | null |
In fracture surgical neck of humerus, the following nerve injury is common: | [
"Axillary",
"Radial",
"Ulnar",
"Median"
] | A | A i.e. Axillary | train | med_mcqa | null |
Main mechanism of combined OCP? | [
"Feedback inhibition of pituitary (causing of LH surge)",
"Change in camicalmues",
"Decreased motility and secretion of the fallopian tube",
"Prevent amputation"
] | A | Ans. A. Feedback inhibition of pituitary (causing of LH surge)The estrogen provides a negative feedback on the release of FSH and LH by the pituitary. The progestin inhibits LH release. Both synergize to inhibit MID cycle LH surge. As a result, ovulation does not occur. Interference with ovulation is the most common pharmacologic mechanism for preventing pregnancy | train | med_mcqa | null |
Hepatits C is associated with all except - | [
"PAN",
"Dermatomyositis like syndrome",
"Lichen planus",
"Psoriasis"
] | A | Hepatitis C This is caused by an RNA flavivirus. Acute symptomatic infection with hepatitis C is rare. Most individuals are unaware of when they became infected and are identified only when they develop chronic liver disease. Eighty per cent of individuals exposed to the virus become chronically infected and late spontaneous viral clearance is rare. There is no active or passive protection against hepatitis C virus (HCV). Hepatitis C infection is usually identified in asymptomatic individuals screened because they have risk factors for infection, such as previous injecting drug use , or have incidentally been found to have abnormal liver blood tests. Although most people remain asymptomatic until progression to cirrhosis occurs, fatigue can complicate chronic infection and is unrelated to the degree of liver damage. Hepatitis C is the most common cause of what used to be known as 'non-A, non-B hepatitis'. If hepatitis C infection is left untreated, progression from chronic hepatitis to cirrhosis occurs over 20-40 years. Risk factors for progression include male gender, immunosuppression (such as co-infection with HIV), prothrombotic states and heavy alcohol misuse. Not everyone with hepatitis C infection will necessarily develop cirrhosis but approximately 20% do so within 20 years. Once cirrhosis has developed, the 5- and 10-year survival rates are 95% and 81%, respectively. One-quaer of people with cirrhosis will develop complications within 10 years and, once complications such as ascites develop, the 5-year survival is around 50%. Once cirrhosis is present, 2-5% per year will develop primary hepatocellular carcinoma. Investigations Serology and virology - The HCV genome encodes a large polypeptide precursor that is modified post-translationally to at least ten proteins, including several antigens that give rise to antibodies in an infected person; these are used in diagnosis. It may take 6-12 weeks for antibodies to appear in the blood following acute infection, such as a needlestick injury. In these cases, hepatitis C RNA can be identified in the blood as early as 2-4 weeks after infection. Active infection is confirmed by the presence of serum hepatitis C RNA in anyone who is antibody-positive. Anti-HCV antibodies persist in serum even after viral clearance, whether spontaneous or post-treatment. Ref Davidson edition23rd pg877 | train | med_mcqa | null |
All are true about Klumpke's paralysis except | [
"Claw hand is never seen",
"Intrincsic muscles of hand are paralysed",
"Horner's syndrome can be associated",
"Involves lower trunk of brachial plexus"
] | A | Klumpke's paralysis
C8 and T1 roots involved.
Intrinsic muscles of hand paralysed.
Wrist and finger flexous are weak.
Unilateral Horner's syndrome.
Claw hand is seen. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Rennin is present in | [
"Gastric juice",
"Liver",
"Kidney",
"Lung"
] | A | Rennin is present in the Gastric juice whereas Renin is related to kidney. Ref: Ganong's review of medical physiology; 24th edition | train | med_mcqa | null |
An infant presents to OPD with a history of vomiting and poor feeding. The burnt sugar odor is present in baby's urine. Lab examination reveals elevated levels of leucine, isoleucine and valine. The most likely diagnosis is ? | [
"Phenylketonuria",
"Alkaptonuria",
"Tyrosinemia",
"Maple syrup urine disease"
] | D | The odor of urine in maple syrup urine disease (branched-chain ketonuria, or MSUD) suggests maple syrup or burnt sugar.
The biochemical defect in MSUD involves the α-keto acid decarboxylase complex. Plasma and urinary levels of leucine, isoleucine, valine and their α-keto acids and α-hydroxy acids (reduced α-keto acids) are elevated, but the urinary keto acids derive principally from leucine. Signs and symptoms of MSUD include often fatal ketoacidosis, neurological derangements, mental retardation, and a maple syrup odor of urine. The mechanism of toxicity is unknown. Early diagnosis by enzymatic analysis is essential to avoid brain damage and early mortality by replacing dietary protein by an amino acid mixture that lacks leucine, isoleucine, and valine.
Reference- Harper’s illustrated biochemistry. 30th edition page -304 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Time interval between invasion of the infection agent and appearance of first sign or symptom ? | [
"Serial interval",
"Incubation period",
"Quarantine",
"Period of infectivety"
] | B | Ans. is `b' i.e., Incubation period Incubation period o Clinical symptoms of an infectious disease are not produced immediatly after invasion of infectious agent into the host. o First infectious agent multiplies and produces some cellular/tissue response which results in clinical manifestations. So there is an interval between invasion of infectious agent and onset of clinical manifestations which is known as incubation period i.e., "the time interval between invasion by an inectious agent and appearance of the first sign and symptom of the disease in question". o The length of incubation period is characteristic of each disease. o There is minimum incubation period for each disease before which no illness can occur. Incubation period varies for different infection and also from person to person with same disease. It is so because incubation depends upon many factors : - i) Generation time of pathogen iii) Poal of entery ii) Infective dose iv) Individual susceptibility Median incubation period It is the time required for 50% of cases to occur following exposure. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A female patient presented with a hard, mobile lump in her right breast. Which investigation would be most helpful in making on diagnosis: | [
"FNAC",
"X-ray",
"Core needle biopsy",
"Mammography"
] | C | Large-needle (core needle) biopsy removes a core of tissue with a large cutting needle and is the diagnostic procedure of choice for both palpable and image-detected abnormalities. Core biopsy has the advantage that tumor markers, such as estrogen receptor (ER), progesterone receptor (PR) and HER2 overexpression can be performed on cores of tissue. Ref: Giuliano A.E., Hurvitz S.A. (2013). Chapter 17. Breast Disorders. In M.A. Papadakis, S.J. McPhee, M.W. Rabow, T.G. Berger (Eds), CURRENT Medical Diagnosis & Treatment 2014. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Following is a contact poison - | [
"BHC",
"BaSO4",
"A + B of above",
"Paris green"
] | A | Insecticides are substances used to kill insects.They are 3 gruops: contact poison,stomach poison,fumigants. Contact poisons- BHC,DDT,lindanediazinon,malathion,fenthion. Stomach paoisons are paris green and sodium flouride . Fumigants are hydrogencyanide,methyl bromide,sulpher dioxide. Parks textbook of preventive and social medicine.K Park. Edition 23.Pg no: 783 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which is the most common benign cardiac rhythm? | [
"Atrial premature contraction",
"Atrial fibrillation",
"Ventricular premature contraction",
"Ventricular tachycardia"
] | A | Atrial premature contraction mc benign rhythm during extended ECG monitoring. Asymptomatic, although some patients experience palpitations or an irregularity of the pulse. ECG -Identification of P wave that occurs before the anticipated sinus beat. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The most common causative organism for lobar pneumonia is - | [
"Staphylococcus aureus",
"Streptococcus pyogenes",
"Streptococcus pneumoniae",
"Haemophilus influenzae"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Low Vd means | [
"The drug has low half life",
"The drug does not accumulate in tissues",
"The drug has low bioavailability",
"The drug has weak plasma protein binding"
] | B | The volume of distribution (V) relates the amount of drug in the body to the concentration of drug (C) in blood or plasmaVd = amount of drug in body/concentration of drug (C)Drugs with low volumes of distribution have much lower concentrations in extravascular tissue than in the vascular compament.Katzung Pharmacology 12th edition Pg: 38 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Subsets and Splits
No community queries yet
The top public SQL queries from the community will appear here once available.