question stringlengths 1 6.54k | choices listlengths 4 4 | answer stringclasses 4 values | rationale stringlengths 0 22.5k ⌀ | split stringclasses 1 value | dataset stringclasses 6 values | subject stringclasses 1 value |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
All of the following structures passes through the guyon's canal, EXCEPT? | [
"Ulnar nerve",
"Ulnar aery",
"Ulnar vein",
"Flexor carpi ulnaris"
] | D | Guyon's canal is located superficially on the ulnar side of the carpus. The contents of this canal are the ulnar nerve which divides into superficial and deep palmar branch, ulnar aery and vein. Guyon's canal is bounded on the ulnar side by the pisiform, the hook of hamate, and hypothenar muscles. On the dorsal side it is bounded by flexor retinaculum and on the palmar side by the palmar carpal ligament. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following genes is associated with familial pulmonary aerial hypeension? | [
"BMPR2",
"VEGF",
"a1-antitrypsin",
"CFTR"
] | A | The first mutation to be discovered in familial pulmonary aerial hypeension was in the gene encoding bone morphogenetic protein receptor type 2 (BMPR2). Inactivating germline mutations in the BMPR2 gene are found in 75% of the familial cases of pulmonary hypeension and 25% of sporadic cases. BMPR2 is a cell surface protein belonging to the TGF-b receptor superfamily, which binds a variety of cytokines, including TGF-b, bone morphogenetic protein (BMP), activin, and inhibin. Haploinsufficiency for BMPR2 leads to dysfunction and proliferation of endothelial cells and vascular smooth muscle cells. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is not true about DIAGNOdent? | [
"It is based on the phenomenon of laser-induced fluorescence of the enamel.",
"Porphyrins present in carious tissue fluoresce when stimulated by DIAGNOdent.",
"It may not provide accurate estimation of caries lesion depth since it is detecting porphyrin fluorescence and not mineral content of enamel crystal str... | D | DIAGNOdent is based on the phenomenon of laser-induced fluorescence of the enamel where porphyrins present in carious tissue fluoresce when stimulated by DIAGNOdent. DIAGNOdent may not provide accurate estimation of caries lesion depth since it is detecting porphyrin fluorescence and not mineral content of enamel crystal structure.
The Canary System uses energy conversion technology (PTR-LUM) to image and examine the tooth. Pulses of laser light are aimed at the tooth, and the light is then converted to heat (Photothermal Radiometry or PTR) and light (luminescence or LUM), which are emitted from the tooth surface in response to the modulated pulses. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Filamentous fungi that infect the only superficial keratinized tissues is known as: | [
"Dermatophyte",
"Dimorphic fungi.",
"Mucormycosis",
"Candida"
] | A | Dermatophytes causes ringworm | train | med_mcqa | null |
Foster Kennedy syndrome is associated with all(o\\fBtLh)e following, except: | [
"Ipsilateral Anosmia",
"Contralateral Optic Atrophy",
"Olfactory groove meningioma",
"Contralateral Papilloedema"
] | B | Answer is B (Contralateral optic Atrophy): Foster Kennedy Syndrome is associated with ipsilateral optic atrophy and not contralateral optic atrophy The Foster Kennedy syndrome consists of ipsilateral anosmia, ipsilateral optic atrophy and contralateral papilledema | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following can be given in hepatic as well as in renal failure – | [
"Atracurium",
"Vecuronium",
"Pancuronium",
"Mivacurium"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Hydrogen breath test is/ae used for | [
"Lactose intolerance",
"GERD",
"H.Pylori",
"Irritable bowel syndrome"
] | A | <p>Davidson&;s principles and practice of medicine 22nd edition. *The lactose hydrogen breath test is an useful non invasive confirmatory investigation. <p> | train | med_mcqa | null |
In which of the following a 'Coeur en Sabot' shape of the heart is seen – | [
"Tricuspid atresia",
"Ventricular septal defect",
"Transposition of great arteries",
"Tetralogy of Fallot"
] | D | `Coeur en Sabot' refers to the radialogical appearance of heart in a patient with Tetralogy of Fallot. The cardiac silhouette resembles that of a 'boot' or Wooden shoe in 'Coeur en Sabot' . X-rav findings in TOF
Boot shaped heart (Coeur en sabot) o Oligemic pulmonary fields
Normal sized heart (no cardiomegaly) | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 24 year old medical student received booster dose of hepatitis B vaccination, following which she developed weakness in abduction and lateral rotation of arm. The lesion is most likely to be in which of the following nerve | [
"Surgeon's nerve",
"Musician's nerve",
"Nerve of Bell",
"Labourer's nerve"
] | A | Axillary nerve is called as Surgeon's nerve. Axillary nerve injury occur due to Fracture of surgical neck of humerus Inferior dislocation of humerus Inadveent IM injection Ref : Gray's Anatomy The Anatomical Basics of Clinical Practice 41 e pg 831. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Birth weight of all 10 babies born an in a nursing home on a day was 2.7 kg. Standard deviation is - | [
"0",
"1",
"0. 27",
"2.7"
] | A | Standard deviation is a measure of dispersion from central value.
In the question, there is only one central value (2.7 Kg) as all 10 babies have same weight. Thus, there is no dispersion. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following beta adrenergic agonist is used as an aerosol for treatment of bronchial asthma? | [
"Salbutamol",
"Ketotifen",
"Fluticasone",
"Monteleukast"
] | A | Ans: a (Salbutamol) Ref: KDT, 5 ed, p. 217Salbutamol (albuterol) is a highly selective beta 2 agonist.Inhaled salbutamol produces bronchodilation within 5 min and the action lasts for 2-4 hours.Drugs used tor bronchial asthma:Bronchodilators:a. Sympathomimetic-AdrenalineEphedrineIsoprenalinesalbutamolterbutalineb. Methylxanthines-Theophyllineaminophyllinec. Anticholinergics-AtropineIpratropium bromideTiotropium bromideLeukotriene antagonist:MonteleukastzafirleukastMast cell stabilizers:Sodium cromoglycateNedocromil, ketotifenLipoxygenase inhibitors:ZileutonPhosphodiesterase III/ IV inhibitor:PiclamelastCorticosteroids:a. Systemic-HydrocortisonePrednisoloneb. Inhalational-Beclomethesone dipropionateBudesonideFluticasone propionateFlunisolide | train | med_mcqa | null |
SVC syndrome is most commonly associated with: | [
"Mediastinal fibrosis",
"Lymphoma",
"Lung cancer",
"TB mediastinitis"
] | C | If the superior or inferior vena cava is obstructed, the venous blood causes distention of the veins running from the anterior chest wall to the thigh.The lateral thoracic vein anastomoses with the superficial epigastric vein, a tributary of the great saphenous vein of the leg. In these circumstances, a touous varicose vein may extend from the axilla to the lower abdomenThe most common cause of superior vena cava syndrome is cancer.Primary or metastatic cancer in the upper lobe of the right lung can compress the superior vena cava.Lymphoma or other tumors located in the mediastinum can also cause compression of the superior vena cava.Less often, the superior vena cava can become blocked with a blood clot from within.Invasive medical procedures (Blood clot (thrombus) formation that causes superior vena cava syndrome is a complication of pacemaker wires, dialysis, and other intravenous catheters that are threaded into the superior vena cava)Infection (syphilis and tuberculosis) is another cause of superior vena cava syndrome. Sarcoidosis (a disease that results in masses of inflamed tissue) may also cause this syndrome. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Peripheral cell membrane proteins are - | [
"Pump",
"Channel",
"Adhesion molecules",
"Enzyme receptors"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Adhesion molecules Proteins in cell membraneo Most of the membrane proteins are glycoproteins. There are following types of membrane proteins : -Integral (Transmembrane or intrinsic) Proteins : -These proteins pass 'through and through', i.e., they run (span) the entire length of lipid bilayer. Integral proteins are globular and amphipathic, consisting of two hy drophilic ends separated by an intervening hydrophobic region that traverses the hydrophobic core of the bilayer. Integral proteins interact by non-polar (hydrophobic) interacts with the fatty acyl groups of phospholipids in the cell membrane and require the use of detergents for their solubilization. Integral proteins are asymmetrically distributed across the membrane bi layer.Integral proteins function as channels (pores), receptors, ion pumps, carrier proteins and enzyme.Peripheral (Extrinsic) proteinsPeripheral proteins are present on the surface of the membrane and do not penetrate all the way through. They are located on both surface of membrane, outer and inner. Peripheral proteins do not interact directly with the phospholipid in the bilayer. They bound to the hydrophilic regions of the transmembrane proteins through electrostatic and hydrogen bonds. However, some (not all) proteins bind to membrane via a covalentently attached lipid anchor, i.e., interaction with polar (hydrophilic) lipid head groups in the membrane,As they do not interact directly with hydrophobic core of phospholipids, they do not require use of detergents for their release. They can be released by treatment with salt solutions of high ionic strength. Peripheral proteins serve as cell adhesion molecules (CAMs) that anchor cells to neighboring cells and to basal lamina. They also contribute to cytoskeleton when present on the inside of the membrane, e.g., spectrin, ankyrin, band 4.1 in RBCs. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following antihypeensive drug is avoided in patients with high serum uric acid levels? | [
"Hydrochlorothiazide",
"Enalapril",
"Prazosin",
"Atenolol"
] | A | Adverse effect ofHydrochlohiazideis hyperuricemia therefore contraindicated in gout. Enalapril, Prazosin and Atenolol has no affect on uric acid level. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Total score in standard minimental status examination (MMSE) is? | [
"25",
"30",
"32",
"35"
] | B | Ans. B. 30. (Ref. Harrison's medicine 17th/ Table 365-5)."The MMSE, an easily administered 30-point test of cognitive function, contains tests of orientation, working memory (e.g., spell world backwards), episodic memory (orientation and recall), language comprehension, naming, and copying."Discussion:Cognitive and Neuropsvchiatric Examination# Brief screening tools such as the mini-mental state examination (MMSE) help to confirm the presence of cognitive impairment and to follow the progression of dementia.# The MMSE, an easily administered 30-point test of cognitive function, contains tests of orientation, working memory (e.g., spell world backwards), episodic memory (orientation and recall), language comprehension, naming, and copying.# In most patients with MCI and some with clinically apparent AD, the MMSE may be normal and a more rigorous set of neuropsychological tests will be required.# In FTD, the earliest deficits often involve frontal executive or language (speech or naming) function. DLB patients have more severe deficits in visuospatial function but do better on episodic memory tasks than patients with AD.# Patients with vascular dementia often demonstrate a mixture of frontal executive and visuospatial deficits.# In delirium, deficits tend to fall in the area of attention, working memory, and frontal function.The Mini-Mental Status Examination PointsOrientation Name: season/date/day/month/year5 (1 for each name)Name: hospital/floor/town/state/country5 (1 for each name)Registration Identify three objects by name and ask patient to repeat3 (1 for each object)Attention and calculation Serial 7s; subtract from 100 (e.g., 93-86-79-72-65)5 (1 for each subtraction)Recall Recall the three objects presented earlier3 (1 for each object)Language Name pencil and watch2 (1 for each object)Repeat "No ifs, ands, or buts"l Follow a 3-step command (e.g., "Take this paper, fold it in half, and place it on the table")3 (1 for each command)Write "close your eyes" and ask patient to obey written command1Ask patient to write a sentence1Ask patient to copy a design (e.g., intersecting pentagons)1Total30 | train | med_mcqa | null |
The treatment of choice of angle closure glaucoma is – | [
"Parasympathomimetic drugs",
"Iridectomy",
"Trabeculoplasty",
"Timolol"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Lacrimal gland receives post ganglion innervation through? | [
"Submandibular ganglion",
"Pterygopalatine ganglion",
"Otic ganglion",
"Ciliary ganglion"
] | B | The secretomotor fibres run as follows: Lacrimatory nucleus--nervus intermedius-- facial nerve--geniculate ganglion--greater petrosal nerve--nerve of pterygoid canal--pterygopalatine ganglion--relay--zygomatic nerve--zygomaticotemporal--lacrimal nerve-- lacrimal gland. Ref: BD Chaurasia's HUMAN ANATOMY, Volume 3, 4th edition. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is a minor criteria for diagnosis of Rheumatic fever (RP) according to modified Jones criteria – | [
"ASO titre",
"Past history of Rheumatic fever",
"Fever",
"Subcutaneous nodules"
] | C | Fever is a minor criteria | train | med_mcqa | null |
Le Forte II is fracture of? | [
"Fracture running through alveolar ridge",
"Fracture running through zygomatic process of the maxilla, floor of orbit, root of nose",
"Fracture running through midline of the palate and zygomatico maxillary suture",
"Fracture running through lateral side of hard palate"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
The Basal Electrical Rhythm occurs in all pas of GIT, EXCEPT: | [
"Esophagus",
"Stomach",
"Duodenum",
"Colon"
] | A | Except in the esophagus and the proximal poion of the stomach, the smooth muscle of GIT has spontaneous rhythmic fluctuations in membrane potential between about -65 and -45 mV. Basic electrical rhythm (BER) is initiated by the interstitial cells of Cajal, stellate mesenchymal pacemaker cells with smooth muscle-like features that send long multiply branched processes into the intestinal smooth muscle. In the stomach and the small intestine, these cells are located in the outer circular muscle layer near the myenteric plexus; in the colon, they are at the submucosal border of the circular muscle layer. In the stomach and small intestine, there is a descending gradient in pacemaker frequency, and as in the hea, the pacemaker with the highest frequency usually dominates. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following infestation is associated with autoinfection? | [
"Ascaris lumbricoides",
"Strongyloides",
"Giardia",
"Gnathostoma"
] | B | Auto Infective life cycle is present in Strongyloides stercoralis. In this cycle, the rhabditiform larva's passage through the colon to the outside world is delayed by constipation or other factors. This allows it to transform into an infective filariform larva while still within the body of its host. This larva may then invade the internal mucosa (internal autoinfection) or perianal skin (external autoinfection) without an intervening soil phase. Strongyloidiasis is diagnosed by the presence of the larvae in the stool. When it is absent in the stool, it can be isolated from duodenal or jejunal aspirates. Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assays for antibodies to excretory-secretory or somatic antigens are now available in reference laboratories. Ref: Ray C.G., Ryan K.J. (2010). Chapter 53. Intestinal Nematodes. In C.G. Ray, K.J. Ryan (Eds), Sherris Medical Microbiology, 5e. | train | med_mcqa | null |
What poisoning retards putrefaction : | [
"Phosphorus",
"Arsenic",
"Mercury",
"Lead"
] | B | B i.e. Arsenic | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following facts is false regarding halothane? | [
"It is a pleasant smelling gas",
"| Vagal tone",
"Sensitises myocardium to catecholamines",
"It can cause postoperative hepatitis"
] | B | Halothane has little analgesic propeies but | vagal tone resulting in bradycardia, vasodilatation and hypotension. The frequency of postoperative hepatitis is approximately 1 in 4000 for multiple exposures. Ref: Oxford Handbook of Clinical Specialities, 8th Edition, Page 618. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A pregnant woman developed idiopathic cholestatic jaundice. The following condition is not associated: | [
"Intense itching",
"SGOT, SGPT less than 60 IU",
"Serum bilirubin > 5mg/dl",
"Markedly |ed levels of alkaline phosphatase"
] | C | Intrahepatic Cholestasis of Pregnancy Onset - Third trimester Present with pruritis, icterus or both Lab findings : Sr. bilirubin level <5 mg/dL With minimal or no elevation in transaminases. Alkaline phosophatase levels are elevated. Histopathology: Mild cholestasis with bile plugs in the hepatocytes of the centrilobular regions. Treatment Ursodeoxycholic acid & Cholestyramine acid are used for pruritis | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 25-year-old man presented with fever and cough for two months. CT chest showed bilateral upper lobe fibrosis and mediastinal enlarged necrotic nodes with peripheral rim enhancement. What is the most likely diagnosis? | [
"Sarcoidosis",
"Tuberculosis",
"Lymphoma",
"Silicosis"
] | B | Ans. Tuberculosis | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following cephalosporin has activity against methicillin resistant staphylococcus aureus? | [
"Ceftriaxone",
"Ceftazidime",
"Cefuroxime",
"Ceftobiprole"
] | D | Ceftobiprole (Zevtera/Mabelio) is a new 5th-generation cephalosporin for the treatment of hospital acquired pneumonia(HAP, excluding ventilator-associated pneumonia, VAP) and community acquired pneumonia (CAP). Ceftobiprole has high affinity for PBP2a of MRSA strains. REFERANCE:en.wikipedia.org | train | med_mcqa | null |
Blindness in child is most commonly due to | [
"Keratomalacia",
"Congenital cataract",
"Glaucoma",
"Injuries"
] | A | Most common cause of childhood blindness is vitamin A deficiency Refer: Khurana 6th edition page number 382 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is true about Mantle dentin | [
"1st formed dentin just beneath DEJ",
"Calcified by matrix vesicles",
"Both",
"None"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Example of active transport - | [
"Movement of water across cell membrane",
"Movement of oxygen across cell membrane",
"Cotransport of amino-acids with Na+",
"None of the above"
] | C | Ans, is 'c' i.e., Cotransport of amino-acids with Na+ Transport mechanismExamplesSimple diffusionMovement of fats, oxygen, CO2 through lipid portion of membraneFacilitated diffusionMovement of glucose and some amino-acidsOsmosisMovement of water into and out of the cellPrimary active transportSecondary active transportIons K+, Na+ Ca++, H+Glucose or amino-acid into the cel] along Na+ (Symport or cotransport)Ca+2 H+ out of the cell against Na (Antiport or countertransport) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Ifosfamide belongs to which Group of anticancer drugs | [
"Alkylating agent",
"Antimebolites",
"Mitotic inhibitors",
"Topoisomerase inhibitors"
] | A | Refer principles of Pharmacology 1st /869 KDT 6/e p 819 Ifosfamide is an alkyatingg agent | train | med_mcqa | null |
All are true about pigmented stones except: | [
"Seen in cholangiohepatitis",
"Secondary CBD stones",
"Primary CBD stones",
"More common in Asians"
] | B | Ans. (b) Secondary CBD stonesRef: Sabiston 19/e p 1485-1486* Black pigmented stones are seen in hemolytic states.* Brown pigmented stones can form in the bile duct itself (Primary Bile duct stone)* MC stone in Asian People* Hepato lithiasis - the commonest stone is Earthy Brown Stones | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 25-year-old female with history of multiple contacts presenting with growth on vulva, the probable diagnosis is: | [
"Condyloma accuminata",
"Verruca plana",
"Verruca vulgaris",
"Condyloma lata"
] | A | Ans. is a, i.e. Condyloma accuminataRef: Shaw 15th/ed, pl38, 139; Current diagnosis and treatment of sexually transmitted diseases, p92-93KEY POINTS* History of sexual exposure and growths on vulva is consistent with condyloma accuminata.* Condyloma accuminata:- It is a sexually transmitted diseaseQ caused by HPV 6Q, 16,Q and 18.Q- Warts are seen on the vulval area.Q- Warts are common in the regions affected most directly by coitusQ i.e. posterior fourchetteQ and lateral areas of vulva. These verrucous growths may coalesce to form large cauliflower growths.Q- Condyloma is associated with vulval,Q vaginal,Q and cervical cancers.Q- Diagnosis is by colposcopy which shows raised patches of aceto-white epithelium with speckled appearance.QLets also rule out other options.* Verrucous plana:- Hands and face are the most common siteQ, warts are not seen in genital area.- It is usually seen in children.Q- Sometimes, it can also occur in young women, but then face is the most common site involved.Q* Verruca vulgaris:- Here also the site of warts is different; usually affected areas are exposed parts of the bodyQ, handQ, feetQ, nails, arms, and legs, face, and scalp.* Condyloma lata:- Is the growth seen on genitalia in secondary syphilis.Q- The presence of these lesions without any other features of syphilis is very unlikely. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Russel bodies seen in | [
"Lymphocytes",
"Neutrophils",
"Macrophages",
"Plasma cells"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Gingiva are enlarged in leukemia because of | [
"Capillary dilation",
"Erythrocyte engorgement",
"Edema",
"WBC infiltration"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Chloroma is | [
"Lymphoma",
"Leukemia",
"Sarcoma",
"Carcinoma"
] | B | . | train | med_mcqa | null |
Nail patella syndrome is characterized by -a) Iliac hornb) Sacral hornc) Absent patellad) Knee deformitye) Dislocation of patella | [
"bce",
"bde",
"acde",
"abde"
] | C | The disease is characterized by :-
Unduly small or absent patella
Nail dysplasia (nail dystrophy) most commonly in thumbnail
Recurrent dislocation of patella
Postero-lateral subluxation of radial head
Bony excrescences on lateral aspect of the ileum, i.e. iliac horns.
Genu valgum
Congenital nephropathy | train | med_mcqa | null |
In the management of leprosy, Lepromin test is most useful for | [
"Herd Immunity",
"Epidemiological investigations",
"Prognosis",
"Treatment"
] | C | Uses of Lepromin test:
- Evaluation of CMI status of patients
- Aid to confirm the classification of Leprosy
- Estimation of prognosis of cases | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 60-year-old male presents with Cancer prostate. The tumor is limited to the capsule and it is palpable on PR examination. The patient is diagnosed as stage T1b. The best treatment would be: | [
"Radical prostatectomy",
"Chemotherapy",
"Palliative radiotherapy",
"Orchidectomy"
] | A | Ans. (a) Radical prostatectomyBailey 26th Edition, Page 1355* Radical prostatectomy is only suitable for localized disease (T1 and T2) and should be carried out only in men with a life expectancy of > 10 years. | train | med_mcqa | null |
For termination of pregnancy, consent is needed from | [
"Only woman",
"Only husband",
"Both paners",
"Consent not needed"
] | A | Pregnancy can only be terminated on the written consent of the woman. Husband's consent is not requiredPregnancy in a minor girl (below the age of 18 years) or lunatic cannot be terminated without written consent of the parents or legal guardianReference: Textbook of Obstetrics; Sheila Balakrishnan | train | med_mcqa | null |
Inferior turbinate is a: | [
"Pa of maxilla",
"Pa of sphenoid",
"Separate bone",
"Pa of ethmoid"
] | C | The superior and middle turbinates are pas of ethmoid bone whereas inferior turbinate is an independent separate bone. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Structural proteins are | [
"Fibrous",
"Globular",
"Branched",
"Compound"
] | A | Structural Proteins : COLLAGEN is the most abundant protein in mammals and is the main fibrous component of skin , bone , tendon cailage and teeth. Different arrangements of collagen fibrils in tissues are seen. Parallel bundles in tendons and sheets layered at many angles in skin. Heat denatured collagen is GELATIN. REF :DM VASUDEVAN TEXTBOOK , EIGHTH EDITION , Page no :40 and 41 | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of these fluids are isotonic except | [
"0.9% Normal saline",
"5% dextrose",
"Ringer lactate",
"3% Normal saline"
] | D | Isotonic fluids are 0.9% Normal saline, 5% dextrose, Ringer lactate. | train | med_mcqa | null |
True about co-arctation of aoa - | [
"Most common site is distal to the origin of the left subclan aery",
"Most common age of presentation is at 15-20 years",
"Upper rib notching is due to erosion by dilated collateral vessels",
"Right ventricular hyperophy"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Most common site is distal to the origin of left subclan aery Most common site of COA is distal to the origin of left subclan aery. Hemodynamics of COA during fetal life o In fetal life, blood from right ventricle passes to pulmonary aery and then to descending aoa through ductus aeriosus. o Blood from left ventricle passes to Aoa and then to innominate, left carotid and left subclan aery. o If constriction (coarctation) is proximal to ductus aeriosus (preductal or infantile coarctation), there is no obstruction to flow because constriction is not obstructing the flow of upper limb and lower limb ---> Collaterals are not formed. o If the constriction is distal to ductus aeriosus (post ductal or adult type coarctation of aoa), it causes obstruction of flow of desending aoa, and pas of body that are supplied by descending aoa, have impaired circulation -4 This stimulates formation of collaterals in fetal life. Hemodvnamics after bih o After bih, ductus aeriosus closes, so that blood flow to descending aoa from right ventricle does not occur and descending aoa must receive its total supply from left ventricle ascending aoa. o But there is obstruction due to coarctation. o In preductal coarctation, there are no collaterals --> Neonates become symptomatic immediatly --> Hypeension results in CHF. o In postductal coarctation, due to presence of collaterals neonates are spared from developing hypeension & CHF. o Due to obstruction, there is pressure overload to left ventricle Left ventricular hyperophy. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following statements about Guitlain-Barre syndrome are true, except- | [
"Inflammatory'",
"Demyelinating",
"Descending",
"Cranial nerve involvement"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Descending o Guillain Barre Syndrome is typically an 'ascending' (not descending) neuropathy.o Guillain Barre Syndrome is typically an acute inflammatory demvelinating polyneuropathy. The usually pattern is an ascending paralysis and cranial nerve involvement is common.o The acute immune-mediated polyneuropathies are classified under the eponym Guillain-Barre syndrome (GBS).o GBS is an acute monophasic paralyzing illness, usually provoked by a preceding infection.o Guillain Barre syndrome is thought to result from an immune response to preceeding infection that cross reactss to peripheral nerve.o The triggerring events for GBS is# Campylobacter jejuni (most common)# Cytomegalovirus# Epstein Barr virus# HIVOt her trigering events: -# Immunisation# Surgery# Trauma# Bone marrow transplantationo Historically, the GuiUain-Barre syndrome (GBS) was considered a single disorder:o It now is recoginized as a heterogeneous syndrome with several variant forms.o The major forms are : -# Acute inflammatory demyelinating polyradiculoneuropathy (AIDP).# The Miller Fisher syndrome (MFS).# Acute motor axonal neuropathy (AMAN)# Acute sensorimotor axonal neuropathy (AMSAN),Each form of GBS has distinguishing clinical, pathophysiologic and pathologic feature.Pathogenesiso One proposed mechanism for Guillain-Barre syndrome (GBS) is that an antecedent infection evokes an immune response, which in turn cross-reacts with peripheral nerve components because of the sharing of cross-reactive epitopes "molecular mimicry "o The end result is an acute polyneuropathy.o This immune response is directed towards the mvelin or the axon ofperipheral nerve.o Immune reactions directed against epitopes in Schwann cell surface membrane or myelin cause acute inflammatory demyelinating neuropathy (AIDP).o The pathology is that of multifocal inflammatory demyelination starting at the level of the nerve roots.o The earliest changes are frequently seen at the nodes of Ranvier.o Both the cellular and humoral immune responses participate in the process.o Invasion by activated T-cell is followed by macrophage-mediated demyelination with evidence of complement and immunoglobulin deposition on myelin and Schwann cell.o No specific myelin antigen have been identified.Symptomso The major clinical manifestations are motor manifestations i.e., weakness that evolves more or less symmetrically over a period of several days.o Weakness usually begins in the lower extremities and progressively involves the trunk, the upper limbs and finally the bulbar muscles a pattern known as landry ascending paralysisQ,o Proximal and distal muscles are involved relatively symmetricallyQ but asymmetry is seen in 9% of patientso Deep tendon reflexes usually disappearQ.o The weakness progresses in about 5% of patient to total motor paralysisQ with respiratory failureQ within few days.o Cranial nerve involvement can occur0.# The most common cranial nerve to be involved is facial nerveQ. Sometimes B/L facial nerve involvement can also occur. Other cranial nerves can be involved later on.o Disturbance of autonomicfunctionQ# (Sinus tachycardia and less often bradycardia, facial flushing, fluctuating hypertens ion and hypotension, loss of sweating or episodic profuse diaphoresis).o Urinary retention occurs in about 15% of patientsQ.# Bladder dysfunction usually occurs in severe cases.o Sensory involvement in case of Guillain Bar re svndrome-# Cutaneous sensory deficits e.g loss of pain and temperature sensation are usually relatively mild but function subserved by large sensory fibres such as deep tendon reflexes and proprioception are maximmally affected. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Palmar surface of hand represents: | [
"1% of total body surface area",
"2% of total body surface area",
"3% of total body surface area",
"4% of total body surface area"
] | A | Ans. A: 1% of total body surface area The use of a patient's own hand as a tool to estimate the area of burn injury is well documented. The area of the palmar surface of one hand has been estimated to be 1 percent of the body surface area. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Minimum alveolar concentration (MAC) is a measure of - | [
"Potency of anaesthetic agent",
"Speed of induction and recovery",
"Lipid solubility of agent",
"Toxicity of agent"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Potency of anaesthetic agent o Minimum alveolar concentration (MAC) - Measure of potency.o Blood : Gas partition coefficient - Blood solubility of anaesthetic agent and determines the speed of induction & recovery.o Oil: Gas partition coefficient - Lipid solubility of anaesthetic agent and is related to potency of anaesthetic agent. | train | med_mcqa | null |
RNA dependent DNA polymerase is | [
"DNA polymerase",
"RNA polymerase",
"Reverse transcriptase",
"Phosphokinase"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Reverse transcriptaseReverse transcriptase is an RNA dependent DNA polymerase that produces ds DNA from RNA template. It moves along the template in 3' 5' direction, synthesizing DNA is 5' -> 3' direction.It is seen in retro viruses (e.g. HIV). | train | med_mcqa | null |
True regarding iridocyclitis is/are? | [
"Associated with vasculitis",
"Can be treated with steroids",
"Not associated with trauma",
"Not common in old age"
] | A | (Ref: Parson's 21st/e p.229,230) There is no association between iridocyclitis and conjunctivitis. Conjunctivitis refers to the infalmmation of the conjunctiva. Both topical as well as systemic steroids are used in the treatment of iridocyclitis. Topical steroids are the treatment of choice. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The mechanism of action of sodium nitroprusside is? | [
"Increased cAMP",
"Increased guanylate cyclase",
"Calcium channel blockage",
"IC channel opener"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Increases Guanyl Cyclase o "Nitroprusside dilates both aerial and venous vessels, resulting in reduced peripheral vascular resistance and venous return. The action occurs as a result of activation of guanylyl cyclase, either release of nitric oxide or by direct stimulation of enzyme. The result is increased intracellular cGMP, which relaxes vascular smooth muscle". | train | med_mcqa | null |
A lady presented with non progressive dysphagia only for solids. Barium study showed proximal esophageal dilatation with distal constriction. The most likely diagnosis is: | [
"Peptic Stricture",
"Carcinoma Esophagus",
"Achalasia Cardia",
"Lower Esophageal Ring"
] | D | Lady in the question with non progressive dysphagia only for solids, and barium study showing proximal esophageal dilatation with distal constriction is suffering from lower esophageal ring. Esopageal schatzki ringsare smooth, circumferential, thin mucosal structures located in the distal esophagus at the squamo columnar junction. Solid food dysphagia occur with rings less than 13mm in diameter. Dysphagia is intermittent and non progressive. Barium swallow shows proximal esophageal dilatation with distal constriction. Symptomatic patients with a single ring can be treated with the passage of large >16mm diameter bougie dilator to disrupt the lesion, or endoscopic electrosurgical incision of the ring is done. Ref: Current medical diagnosis and treatment 2012, Chapter 15, 39'; Harrisons internal medicine 18th edition, Chapter 292. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Mobility of teeth is measured using: | [
"Periodontometer",
"Periotron",
"Spechtometer",
"Densitometer"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
A newborn has dribbling after feeds. He has respiratory distress and froths at the mouth. Diagnosis is – | [
"Tracheoesophageal fistula",
"Tetralogy of fallot",
"Respiratory distress syndrome",
"None of the above"
] | A | Tracheoesophageal fistula and esophageal atresia
Esophageal atresia is the most common congenital anomaly of the esophagus.
More than 90% are associated with tracheoesophageal fistula.
The most common variety is the one where the upper part of esophagus ends blindly and the lower part is connected to trachea by a fistula.
TEF should be suspected in all cases of hydramnios.
There may be associated anomalies → VACTERL (vertebral, anorectal, cardiac, tracheal, esophageal, renal, radial, limb) syndrome.
Presentations
Frothing and bubbling at the mouth and nose.
Coughing, cyanosis and respiratory distress.
Feeding exacerbates these symptoms, cause regurgitation, and may precipitate aspiration.
Aspiration of gastric contents via distal fistula can cause aspiration pneumonitis. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The facial nerve supplies motor fibers to which of the following muscles? | [
"Stapedius",
"Mylohyoid",
"Anterior belly of the digastric",
"Geniohyoid"
] | A | The facial nerve innervates muscles that develop from the second branchial arch, which includes the stapedius. This muscle is impoant in dampening loud sounds and is located in the middle ear cavity.Ref: Color atlas and textbook of human anatomy, Volume 3, 5th Ed By Werner Kahle, Michael Frotscher | train | med_mcqa | null |
Tumour most sensitive to radiotherapy is- | [
"Osteogenic sarcoma",
"Ewing's sarcoma",
"Chondrosarcoma",
"Osteoclastoma"
] | B | Ans- B Most Radio + chemo sensitive = Ewing's sarcoma Most Common Radiation induced And also the most radio resistant = Osteosarcoma | train | med_mcqa | null |
B lymphocytes are associated with - | [
"CD 19",
"CD 27",
"CD 4",
"CD 35"
] | A | Immature B cells express CD19, CD 20, CD34, CD38, and CD45R, but not IgM. For most mature B cells the key markers include IgM and CD19, a protein receptor for antigens (Kaminski DA. Front Immunol. 2012). Activated B cells express CD30, a regulator of apoptosis. Plasma B cells lose CD19 expression, but gain CD78, which is used to quantify these cells. Memory B cells can be immunophenotyped using CD20 and CD40 expression. Reff: General & Systemic pathology Pg: 126 | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following are the electrocardiographic features of Hyperkalemia, except- | [
"Prolonged PR interval",
"Prolonged QT interval",
"Sine wave patterns",
"Loss of P waves"
] | B | Early ECG changes of hyperkalemia, typically seen at a serum potassium level of 5.5-6.5 mEq/L, include the following: Tall, peaked T waves with a narrow base, best seen in precordial leads. Shoened QT interval. ST-segment depression . Ref Harrison 20th edition pg 1411 | train | med_mcqa | null |
All the following are true regarding acute anterior uveitis in ankylosing spondylitis EXCEPT – | [
"More common in female",
"Recurrent attacks occur",
"Fibrous reaction in anterior chambers",
"Narrowing of joint spaces and sclerosis of the sacroiliac joints"
] | A | Ankylosing spondylitis is more common in males. | train | med_mcqa | null |
In anterior mandibular occlusal projection, the central X-ray beam enters the patient's face through the: | [
"Tip of the chin",
"Tip of the nose",
"Floor of the mouth",
"Below the chin"
] | A | Anterior mandibular occlusal projection
Receptor Placement: Seat the patient tilted back so that the occlusal plane is 45 degrees above horizontal. Place the receptor in the mouth with the long axis perpendicular to the sagittal plane and push it posteriorly until it touches the rami. Center the receptor with the pebbled side (tube side) down, and ask the patient to bite lightly to hold the receptor in position.
Projection of Central Ray: Orient the central ray with −10 degrees angulation through the point of the chin toward the middle of the receptor; this gives the ray −55 degrees of angulation to the plane of the receptor.
Point of Entry: The point of entry of the central ray is in the midline and through the tip of the chin. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Rural health scheme introduced by? | [
"Bhore committee",
"Mukherjee committee",
"Shrivastava committee",
"Mudaliar committee"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Shrivastava committee | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most severely affected child in Rh-isoimmunisation patients : | [
"Rh negative mother with Rh positive in 2nd child",
"Rh positive mother with Rh negative in 2nd child Rh positive mother with Rh negative in 15' child",
"Rh positive mother with Rh negative in 15' child",
"Rh positive mother with Rh positive in 2\"'d child"
] | A | Rh negative mother with Rh positive in 2nd child | train | med_mcqa | null |
Maximum blood flow in ml/kg/min is: | [
"Kidney",
"Hea",
"Brain",
"Adrenal"
] | A | Kidney | train | med_mcqa | null |
Commonest site of metastases is - | [
"Lung",
"Brain",
"Liver",
"Kidney"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
This is a specimen of nephrectomy, what is your diagnosis? | [
"Renal cell carcinoma",
"Renal papillary adenoma",
"Urothelial cancer of renal pelvis",
"Oncocytoma"
] | A | Oncocytoma, Renal papillary adenoma are benign tumors. (you need not do nephrectomy) In Urothelial cancer of renal pelvis, the tumor is in the renal pelvis (here it&;s in the periphery) This is a specimen of RCC- Clear cell typeClear cell carcinomas most likely arise from proximal tubular epithelium, and usually. occur as solitary unilateral lesions. They are bright yellow-gray-white spherical masses of variable size that disto the renal outline. The yellow color is a consequence of the prominent lipid accumulations in tumor cells.One of the striking characteristics of renal cell carcinoma is its tendency to invade the renal veinRef: Robbins Pathology; 9th edition; Page no: 954 | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following agents may be used for post coital contraception except: | [
"Danazol",
"CuT",
"RU - 486",
"High dose estrogen"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
All are relations of left ureter EXCEPT: | [
"Sigmoid mesentery",
"Bifurcation of common iliac aery",
"Quadratus lumborum",
"Gonadal vessels"
] | C | Left ureter is related posteriorly to psoas major muscle (not quadratus lumborum). Posterior relations:- Both the ureters run anterior to psoas major muscle and bifurcation of common iliac aery. Anterior relation:- Gonadal vessels cross the ureters anteriorly (medial to lateral) and descend down along with them. Medially the right ureter is related to inferior vena cava and left ureter is related to inferior mesenteric vein. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A couple has 4 children, all unvaccinated for Measles. A child got Measles on 5 August 2015. Two other children developed Measles by 15 August 2015. Secondary attack rate is: | [
"0%",
"33%",
"66%",
"75%"
] | C | In the given question, One primary case given rise to two secondary cases Total susceptible = 3 (4 children minus primary case) SAR = No. of secondary cases/ Total susceptibles X 100 So, SAR = 2/3 X 100= 66.6% | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following causative factors is not involved in the pathogenesis of Diabetic gangrene? NOT RELATED - MEDICINE | [
"Infection",
"Myelopathy",
"Atherosclerosis",
"Osteoahropathy"
] | B | Others Are Neuropathy, Microangiopathy, Glycosylation Of Hb And Proteins, Hyperglycemia | train | med_mcqa | null |
Probing and irrigation is not done in ? | [
"Lacrimal fistula",
"Acute dacryocystitis",
"Congenital dacryocystitis",
"Trauma to eye"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Acute Dacryocystitis Contraindications to probing and irrigation: The main contraindications are acute dacryocystitis and acute canaliculitis. In the setting of active infection, probing and irrigation is more likely to cause trauma because the lacrimal sac wall is inflamed and friable; it also can cause unnecessary pain and anxiety for the patient. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The "in office" non vital bleaching technique is | [
"Walking bleach",
"Power bleach technique",
"Thermo catalytic technique",
"Night guard technique"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Specific antibody for SLE is? | [
"Anti Sm antibodies",
"Anti-ds DNA antibodies",
"Anti-Histone antibodies",
"Anti Ro (SS-A) antibodies"
] | B | Ref image - Harrison's internal medicine 20e p2517 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Carbapenem with maximum seizure risk is | [
"Doripenem",
"Imipenem",
"Eapenem",
"Meropenem"
] | B | * Imipenem is a Carbapenem group of Beta-Lactam antibiotic with highest propensity to induce seizures compared to the other Carbapenem congeners. * Seizure is noted in 1.5% patients receiving Imipenen. Seizure risk is increased in patients receiving high doses in the presence of renal insufficiency and CNS lesions. Ref:- Goodman & Gilman Pharmacological Basis of Therapeutics 13th Ed; Pg num:- 1035 | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 50 year old woman with schizophrenia who has been taking a antipsychotic drug for the past 3 years has begun to show involuntary chewing and lip-smacking movements. Which can be the most likely possibility? | [
"Akathisia",
"Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome",
"Restless Legs Syndrome",
"Tardive Dyskinesia"
] | D | Ans. D. Tardive dyskinesiaTardive dyskinesia (TD) is a disorder that results in involuntary, repetitive body movements. This may include grimacing, sticking out the tongue, or smacking the lips.Additionally, there may be rapid jerking movements or slow writhing movements | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following are side effects of tacrolimus except - | [
"Nephrotoxicity",
"Ototoxicity",
"Neurotoxicity",
"Hepatotoxicity"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Ototoxicity Adverse effects of Tacrolimus o Nephrotoxicity (most common and dose limiting) o Neurotoxicity o Hepatotoxicity o GI toxicity o Alopecia o Hypeension o Hematological toxicity (Leucocytosis, thrombocytopenia) o Endocrine (hyperglycemia, hyperlipidemia) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Cryoprecipitate cannot be used in? | [
"Von-Wilbrand diseas",
"Hemophilia A",
"Hemophilia B",
"DIC"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Hemophilia B * Hemophilia B (Christmas disease) is due to deficiency of factor IX. Cryoprecipitate does not contain factor IX. Therefore cannot be used.* Fresh frozen plasma or recombinant factor IX is used for treatment.* Cryoprecipitate contains fibrinogen, factor VIIIc and vWF, and factor XIII. It is most commonly used in hypofibrinogenemia (e.g. in DIC).* It can also be used in hemophilia A and von-Willebrand disease (but recombinant factor and desmopressin are preferred in these conditions). | train | med_mcqa | null |
Upper and lower lips are formed from which embryonic processes: | [
"Maxillary and mandibular",
"Maxillary and median nasal",
"Maxillary, mandibular, lateral nasal and median nasal",
"Mandibular and median nasal"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
A patient comes with history of unresponsive fever and cough. X-ray revealed pneumonia. Sputum examination showed gram positive, paially acid fast bacteria with branching filaments that grows on sheep blood agar. The most likely etiologic agents is: | [
"Actinomycetes",
"Nocardia",
"Aspergillosis",
"Pneumococci"
] | B | Ans. (b) i.e. Nocardia | train | med_mcqa | null |
Branch of Right Coronary artery -a) Obtuse marginalb) Acute marginalc) Posterior interventriculard) Diagonal | [
"ab",
"bc",
"cd",
"ad"
] | B | Branches of Right Coronary artery are
- Acute marginal
- Posterior descending/interventricular
- Infundibular
- Nodal branch (in 65%)
- Atrial, anterior and posterior ventricular
Branches of Left coronary artery are
- Anterior descending/interventricular
- Circumflex
- Left diagonal
- Obtuse marginal
- Left conus
- Nodal (in 35%)
- Atrial, anterior and posterior ventricular | train | med_mcqa | null |
An adult patient with a Class II molar relationship and a cephalometric ANB angle of 2 degrees has which type of malocclusion? | [
"Class II dental malocclusion",
"Class II skeletal malocclusion",
"Class I dental malocclusion",
"Class II skeletal malocclusion"
] | A | The molars are Class II but the skeletal relationship described by a normal ANB measurement is normal, so the malocclusion is dental in origin. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Transformation zone moves out under the influence of all except: | [
"Age",
"Pregnancy",
"OCP's",
"Puberty"
] | A | Ans. is a, i.e. Age.Ref: Novaks 15th/ed, p576-578Squamo columnar insction/Transportation zone* SCJ is found in external os in neonates* But it is a dynamic part & does not remain restricted to it. It moves with age and hormonal influence.* The original SC Junction is marked by the presence of nobothian cysts and glandular openings.The TZ moves inside (not out) with age.It moves outIn pregnancyAt pubertyWith OCP use* M/c site of origin of CIN or cancer cervix is Transformation Zone. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Gold standard study for Clinical research is: | [
"Randomised double-blind trial",
"Systematic meta-analysis",
"Ecological study",
"Retrospective cohort study"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Nucleosides consist of? | [
"sugar + phosphate",
"Sugar + uric acid",
"Base + sugar",
"Base + sugar + phosphate"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 17 year old athletic girl complains of anterior knee pain on climbing stairs and on getting up after prolonged sitting, likely diagnosis | [
"Blount's disease",
"Chondromalacia patella",
"Nail - patella syndrome",
"Bursitis"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 25-year-old primigravida witti 20 weeks of pregnancy has a first episode of asymptomatic bacteriuria. The risk of having pyelonephritis is; | [
"No risk with first episode",
"5%",
"15%",
"25%"
] | D | If not treated,asymptomatic bacteriuria 25% women will develop pyeloneohritis in pregnancy mostly in 3rd TM. Refer page no 274 of Text book of obsteics,sheila balakrishnan 2 nd edition. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which is a not an essential criteria according to WHO for normal semen analysis : | [
"Sperm count > 20 million / ml",
"Volume > 1 ml",
"Sperm with normal morphology (strict criteria) > 15%",
"Motility > 25% with rapidly progressive motilityTubal pathology"
] | B | Volume > 1 ml | train | med_mcqa | null |
Branched septate hyphae are found on cornmeal smear, in a case of corneal ulcer. Causative fungus is | [
"Candida",
"Mucor",
"Aspergillus",
"Histoplasma"
] | C | Mucor is aseptate. Candida produces pseudohyphae. Aspergillus infection is caused by inhalation of mycelial fragments resulting in respiratory diseases, disseminated aspergillosis in brain, hea, kidney and superficial infections like sinusitis, mycotic keratitis and otomycosis. It is caused by A.fumigatus, A.flavus. On microscopy, it shows non pigmented septate hyphae with characteristic dichotomous branching at an angle of approximately 45degrees. Ref: Textbook of Microbiology, Ananthanarayan and Paniker; 9th edition | train | med_mcqa | null |
A pa of adjacent intestine will be removed in: | [
"Enterogenous cyst",
"Chylolymphatic cyst",
"Dermoid cyst",
"Mesothelial cyst"
] | A | Enterogenous Cyst Derived either from a diveiculum of the mesenteric border of the intestine or from a duplication of the intestine. Thicker wall than a chyloymphatic cyst and it is lined by mucous membrane, sometimes ciliated. Content is mucinous and is either colorless or yellowish brown as a result of past hemorrhage. Muscle in the wall of an enteric duplication cyst and adjacent bowel has a common blood supply. Removal of the cyst always entails resection of the related poion of intestine. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following statements regarding ticlopidine is TRUE ? | [
"It blocks GpIIb/IIIa receptors on platelet membrane",
"It prevents ADP mediated platelet adenylyl cyclase inhibition",
"It inhibits thromboxane A, synthesis in platelets",
"It does not prolong bleeding time"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
An 11-year-old boy had a sore throat, no cough, tonsillar exudates, and 38.3deg C fever 3 weeks ago, and a throat culture was positive for group A b-hemolytic Streptococcus. On the follow-up examination, the child is afebrile. His pulse is 85/min, respirations are 18/min, and blood pressure is 90/50 mm Hg. On auscultation, a diastolic mitral murmur is audible, and there are diffuse rales over both lungs. Over the next 2 days, he has several episodes of atrial fibrillation accompanied by signs of acute left ventricular failure. Which of the following pathologic changes occurring in this child's heart is most likely to be the cause of the left ventricular failure? | [
"Amyloidosis",
"Fibrinous pericarditis",
"Mitral valve fibrosis",
"Myocarditis"
] | D | This boy developed acute left ventricular failure, an uncommon but serious complication of acute rheumatic fever. Pancarditis with pericarditis, endocarditis, and myocarditis develop during the acute phase. Myocarditis led to dilation of the ventricle so severe that the mitral valve became incompetent. Rheumatic heart disease is now uncommon, and the number of children that require prophylactic antibiotic therapy to prevent just one case is >10,000. Chronic inflammatory conditions may produce reactive systemic amyloidosis, but this is unlikely to occur given the limited and episodic nature of the streptococcal infection that causes rheumatic heart disease. Fibrinous pericarditis can produce an audible friction rub, but it is not constrictive, and the amount of fluid and fibrin is not great, so no tamponade occurs. Myocardial necrosis associated with myocarditis is patchy, and the ventricle does not rupture to produce tamponade. Fibrosis and fusion of the mitral valve leaflets develop over weeks to months and indicate chronic rheumatic valvulitis. Verrucous vegetations are small and may produce a murmur, but they do not interfere greatly with valve function and do not tend to embolize. | train | med_mcqa | null |
By definition pigment stone Contain how much percentage of cholesterol | [
"<10",
"<20",
"<30",
"<60"
] | C | Pigment stone is the name used for stones containing <30% cholesterol Classification of gallstones Cholesterol Black pigment Brow pigment Location Gall bladder and bile duct Gall bladder and bile duct Bile ducts Major constituent Cholesterol Bilirubin pigment polymer Calcium bilirubinate Consistency Crystalline with nucleus Hard Soft, Friable % Radiopaque 15% 60% 0% Ref: Bailey and love 27th edition Pgno :1120 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Anterioposterior stability of the eyeball is provided by all except | [
"Orbital fat",
"S. O",
"S. R",
"Suapensory ligament of eye"
] | A | Suapensory ligament extends from posterior lacrimal crests to lateral tubercle. The Anterioposterior stability to the eyeball is provided by the tenons capsule of facia bulbi | train | med_mcqa | null |
DIC is seen most commonly seen in which AML type? | [
"M2",
"M3",
"M4",
"M5"
] | B | ANSWER: (B) M3REF: Wintrobes Clinical Hematology 11thedchapter 3Acute Promyelocytic Leukemia (AML tl5; 17) (q22;ql2) Acute promyelocytic leukemia (APL) is diagnosed in less than 10% of all AML cases. A variant of APL is knowm as microgranular M3 (or hypogranular) because the granulation is significantly less than in the traditional M3. Accurate diagnosis of APL is important because of the danger of potentially fatal disseminated intravascular coagulation, which can be initiated by procoagulants contained in the granules. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A resident at the emergency depament is preparing for a lumbar puncture in a 26 years old female with suspected subarachnoid bleeding. Although she presented with altered sensorium, CT brain was found to be normal. During LP, which structure is pierced after the spinal needle crosses interspinous ligament? | [
"Ligamentum flavum",
"Arachnoid membrane",
"Areolar tissue",
"Subarachnoid space"
] | A | Skin | Sub cutaneous fascia | Supra/inter spinous ligament | Ligamentum flava | Dura mater | Arachnoid mater | Return of CSF | train | med_mcqa | null |
Schwalbe's line is? | [
"The posterior limit of Descemet s membrane of cornea",
"The posterior limit of Bowmans membrane of cornea",
"The anterior limit of Descemets membrane of cornea",
"The posterior limit of Bowmans membrane of cornea"
] | A | Ans. (a) The posterior limit of Descemet's membrane of corneaRef: Khurana 4th ed p 90 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Antipsychotic drug with maximum hypotensive effect - | [
"Fluphenazine",
"Trifluperazine",
"Thioridazine",
"Haloperidol"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Double bubble sign is seen in - | [
"Ladd's band",
"Annular pancreas",
"Duodenal atresia",
"All of the above"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e., All of the above o Double bubble sign is seen in duodenal atresia, duodenal web, deudenal stenosis, Ladd's band, Annular pancreas, Malrotation of gut, preduodenal vein.Single Bubble signCongenita] hypertrophic pyloric stenosisDouble Bubble signDuodenal atresiaDuodenal webDuodena] stenosisLadd's bandAnnular pancreasMalrotation of gutPreduodenal veinTriple Bubble signJejunal or proximal ileum atresiaMultiple Bubble signIleal atresia | train | med_mcqa | null |
The following statements regarding Turner syndrome are true except. | [
"Occurrence of Turner syndrome is influenced by maternal age",
"Most patients have primary amenorrhoea",
"Most patients have sho stature",
"Edema of hands and feet is an impoant feature during infancy"
] | A | Answer is A (Occurrence of Turner's syndrome is influenced by maternal age) : Maternal age constitutes an impoant influence on the incidence of Down's syndrome. Occurance of Turner's syndrome is not affected by maternal age. Turner's syndrome is the most common cause of primary amenorrhea. At pubey sexual maturation fails to occur and primary amenorrhea is common. Sho stature is characteristic of Turner's syndrome. Lymphoedema of the dorsum of hands and feet is also a characteristic finding in patients with Turner's syndrome. | train | med_mcqa | null |
MAO inhibitors should not be used with - | [
"Buprenorphine",
"Pethidine",
"Pentazocin",
"Morphine"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Pethidine o Nonselective MAO inhibitors interact with many food constituents and drugs : 1-Cheese reaction o Ceain varieties of cheese, beer, wines, picked meat and fish, yeast extract contain large quantities of tyramine, dopa. o In MAO inhibited patients these indirectly acting sympathomimetic amines escape degradation in the intestinal wall and liver --> reaching into systemic circulation they displace large amount of NA from adrenergic nerve endings Hypeensive crisis, cerebrovascular accidents. This can be treated by Lv. injection of a rapidly acting a-blocker eg, phentolamine. Prazosin and chlorpromazine are alternative. 2. Reserpine, guanethidine, tricyclic antidepressant. o Rise in BP and body temprature can occur when these drugs are given with MAO inhibits --> due to their initial NA releasing or uptake inhibiting action. 3. Levodopa Excitement and hypeension occur due to increase V" of DA that is produced from levodopa. 4. Antiparkinsonism anticholinergic Symptoms of atropine poisoning occur. 5. Brabiturates, opoids, alcohol, antihistamininc o Action of these drugs is intensified and prolonged. 6. Pethidine o High fever, sweating, excitation, delirium, convulsion and respiratory depression occur. o This is due to excess production of norpethidine (normally it is minor metabolites). o MAO inhibitors inhibit hydrolysis but not detmethylation more norpethidine is produced. 7. SSRIs o MAO inhibitors produce serotonine syndrome when given with SSRIs. | train | med_mcqa | null |
During the course of evaluation of a case of polycythemia following investigation may be required to establish the cause EXCEPT - | [
"Ervthropoietin level",
"Aerial blood gas analysis",
"Bone marrow examination",
"Serum iron profile"
] | D | <p>In secondary polycythemia,erythropoietin levels are raised. Bone marrow examination shows erythroid hyperplasia . Aerial blood gas analysis to look for oxygen saturation .</p><p>Reference :Harsh mohan textbook of pathologysixth edition pg no 359.</p> | train | med_mcqa | null |
The precailagenous analog to bone arises from? | [
"Ectoderm",
"Endoderm",
"Mesenchyme",
"Mesoderm"
] | C | There are two major modes of bone formation, or osteogenesis, and both involve the transformation of a preexisting mesenchymal tissue into bone tissue. The direct conversion of mesenchymal tissue into bone is called intramembranous ossification. This process occurs primarily in the bones of the skull. In other cases, the mesenchymal cells differentiate into cailage, and this cailage is later replaced by bone. The process by which a cailage intermediate is formed and replaced by bone cells is called endochondral ossification Ref:Inderber singh Embryology. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Gram staining sequence is | [
"Carbol fuchsin – Iodine – Acetone – Methyl violet",
"Methyl violet – Iodine – Acetone – Carbol fuchsin",
"Methyl violet – Acetone – Iodine – Carbol fuchsin",
"Carbol fuchsin – Acetone – Iodine – Methyl violet"
] | B | Primary stain – Crystal violet or Methyl violet
Mordant – Gram's iodine
Decolorizer – Acetone or Ethanol
Secondary stain – Safranin or Carbol fuchsin | train | med_mcqa | null |
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