question stringlengths 1 6.54k | choices listlengths 4 4 | answer stringclasses 4 values | rationale stringlengths 0 22.5k ⌀ | split stringclasses 1 value | dataset stringclasses 6 values | subject stringclasses 1 value |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
Cause of vaginal bleeding in an ectopic pregnancy is shedding of the endometrium. This endometrium is known as: | [
"Decidua vera",
"Decidua basalis",
"Decidua capsularis",
"Decidua rubra"
] | B | Decidua directly beneath blastocyst implantation becomes the deciduas basalis. The decidua capsularis overlies the enlarging blastocyst and initially separates the conceptus from the rest of the uterine cavity. The remainder of the uterus is lined by deciduas parietalis. By 14 to 16 weeks' gestation, the expanding sac has enlarged to completely fill the uterine cavity. The resulting apposition of the decidua capsularis and parietalis creates the decidua vera, and the uterine cavity is functionally obliterated. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Dacron Graft | [
"Nontextile synthetic",
"Textile synthetic",
"Nontextile biologic",
"Textile biologic"
] | B | Vascular graft Bioprosthetic Autograft Homograft (Allograft) Heterograft (Xenograft) Tissue engineered Synthetic Textile - Dacron Non-textile - ePTFE, polyurethane Dacron graft Woven Threads are interlaced in a simple over and under pattern both in lengthwise & circumferential directions Less porous, used where bleeding is a risk (thoracic Aoic aneurysmal surgery) Stiff & diffucult to handle, display more fraying of cut edges Knitted Yarns are looped around each other Yarn is oriented Predominantly in longitudinal or circumferential direction More stable, can be easily incised & resutured More porous than woven grafts, require preclotting prior to use Ref: Sabiston 20th edition Pgno :234 | train | med_mcqa | null |
peak expiratory flow: | [
"400-600 l/min",
"1200 L/min",
"Both",
"None"
] | A | Peak expiratory flow: it is maximum velocity in L per minute with which air is forced out of lung Ref: G K Pal Textbook of Practical Physiology 4th edition, page number:159 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Antihistaminic not much preferable in motion sickness among the following is: | [
"Cetirizine",
"Meclizine",
"Diphenhydramine",
"Fexofenadine"
] | D | 1st generation drugs better treat motion sickness than 2nd gen drugs due to high sedating nature Fexofenadine is a 2nd gen. antihistaminic Promethazine, diphenhydramine, dimenhydrinate, and meclozine have prophylactic value in milder types of motion sickness; should be taken one hour before staing journey. Promethazine can also be used in morning sickness, drug-induced and postoperative vomiting, radiation sickness. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Necrotizing granulomatous inguinal lymphadenopathy is caused by | [
"Syphilis",
"Granuloma inguinale",
"Sarcoidosis",
"Tuberculosis"
] | A | Primary syphilis - the regional lymph nodes are swollen, discrete, non-tender and rubbery. Ref: Baveja textbook of microbiology; 4th edition. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Ideal contraceptive for lactating mothers is: | [
"Barrier method",
"Combined OCP",
"Lactational amenorrhoea",
"Progesterone only pill"
] | C | lactational amenorrhoea An almost similar question was asked previously in 'All India' examination. Note that previously 'Most effective' contraceptive was asked. Now the question is different -Ideal' contraceptive is asked. Practically, there are no ideal contraceptives (neither for lactating women, nor for non-lactating women). An Ideal contraceptive is one which is - 100% effective, 100% safe, reversible with no side effects, and minimal effect on lactation. The Barrier methods and Combined OCPs can be easily ruled out; as barrier methods have high failure rates if used alone; while combined OCPs have a negative effect on breast milk production. Lactational amenorrhoea is the most ideal contraceptive for a lactating women, as it has viually no side effects, rather it has plethora of benefits for both mother and child. About effectiveness, it is almost equally effective to Progesterone only pills (POPs) when used perfectly. (see the below given table). Failure rates: Contraceptive method Typical use Perfect use LAM (6 months only) 2.0 0.5 IUD 0.8 0.6 POP 'mini pill' 8.0 0.5 Combined oral contraceptive 6-8 0.1 Barrier method 14 3.0 Lactational amenorrhoea (LAM) is a natural, safe and effective contraceptive method which can be used upto 6 months post paum if the following conditions are met. (Note that LAM is not pure simple exclusive breast feeding; following conditions need to be fulfilled) The mother should not experience vaginal bleeding after the 8 weeks postpaum. The baby is less than 6 months old. The baby is exclusively breastfed. Breast. feeding is done at least every 4 hrs. during the day and every 6 hrs during night. If the above conditions are fulfilled then LAM can give more than 98% protection from pregnancy. It has the added benefit of promoting exclusive breast feeding which is the ideal nutrition for infants. Lactational Amenorrhoea Advantages Disadvantages * Very effective if used perfectly * Can be used only for a sho * Has no side effects period (6 months post paum) * Promotes exclusive breast feeding, and therefore enhances maternal and infant health. * Does not require inseion of any device at the time of sexual intercourse * Can be initiated immediately postpaum * Is economical and requires no commodities or supplies * Reduces mother's lifetime risk of breast cancer. Physiology of LAM: Infant's suckling is the stimulus that initiates the state of lactational amenorrhea for breastfeeding women. The act of suckling elevates prolactin levels, and reduces GnRH from the hypothalamus. This reduces LH release thus inhibiting follicular maturation. This prevents ovulation. But, even with continued nursing, ovulation eventually returns after 6 months, so another method of contraception should be used 6 months postpaum, or sooner if the menses resume. Ovalation has been seen to resume even earlier in some patients, so some books advice 'Rule of 3' i.e. - another contraceptive method should be use along with LAM beginning from the 3rd postpaum month. - and if the women is paially breastfeeding or not breastfeeding, the contraceptive should begin by the 3rd postpaum week. Progesterone only pills are the most effective contraceptive during lactation amongst the options provided. They have drawbacks like: - Have to be taken regularly at the same time - Cause spotting or irregular bleeding, ectopic pregnancy, headache, nausea, acne, hirsuitism and weight gain | train | med_mcqa | null |
The risk factors of acute pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) are the following except : | [
"Menstruating teenagers who have multiple sex paners",
"lUD users",
"Women with monogamous paner who had vasectomy",
"Previous history of acute PID"
] | C | Risk factors of acute PID Menstruating teenagers Multiple sexual paners Absence of contraceptive pill use Previous history of acute PID IUD users Area with prevalence of STDs D.C.DUTTA&;S TEXTBOOK OF GYNAECOLOGY,Pg no:128,6th edition | train | med_mcqa | null |
Not true regarding arcus senilis | [
"Deposition of lipids in cornea",
"Seen in corneal periphery",
"There is clear margin between the limbus and the arcus deposition",
"It stas from superior cornea and then involves inferior cornea"
] | D | Arcus senilis usually stas from inferior cornea and then involves superior cornea. Arcus senilis Corneal degeneration. Deposition of lipids in cornea. Seen in corneal periphery. There is clear margin between the limbus and the arcus deposition. It stas from inferior cornea and then involves superior cornea. Does not invade visual axis. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Hormone replacement therapy is not | [
"Urogenital atrophy",
"Vasomotor symptoms",
"Prevention of osteoporosis",
"Prevention of CAD"
] | D | Answer- D (Prevention CAD)Hormone replacement therapy increases the risk of MI (coronary aery disease). The increased risk is attributed to progestin component.o H restore Ca++ balance, fuher bone loss is prevented and the excess fracture risk is nullified. o There is a higher incidence of breast cancer.o Risk for endometrial carcinoma is not increased as protective effect of progestin nullify the carcinogenic effect of estrogen.o There is increased risk for gall stone and migraine.o There is a small protective effective of H on colorectal cancer.Note :?o Usually in H combination of estrogen and progestin is given (combined H), except in hysterectimized women where estrogen alone is given.o With estrogen alone there is increased risk of endometrial cancer and decrease risk of coronary aery disease (as estrogen increases HDL and decreases LDL and triglyceride level).o So for H with estrogen alone the answer of this question will change. In that case it will be option 'a' i.e., increased risk of coronary aery disease. | train | med_mcqa | null |
An 80-year-old male with a testicular tumour- most probably it will be: (AI 2001) | [
"Lymphoma",
"Seminoma",
"Teratoma",
"Lipoma"
] | A | Ans: a (Lymphoma) Ref: Robbins, 7th ed, p. 1046Lymphomas account for 5% of testicular tumours and constitute the most common form of testicular neoplasm in men over the age of 60."The histologic type in most cases is the diffuse large cell lymphoma"Prognosis is extremely poor.Testicular tumoursSeminoma - 40%Teratoma - 32%Combined - 14%Lymphoma - 7%Interstitial - 1.5%Others - 5.5%"Pulmonary mets suggest that tumour is a teratoma" (Bailey, p. 1411) | train | med_mcqa | null |
In retinitis pigmentosa, following are true except – | [
"Pigments present",
"Pale waxy disc",
"Narrowing of vessels",
"ERG – normal"
] | D | ERG is markedly subnormal in retinitis pigmentosa.
There is perivascular pigment deposition, pale- waxy disc and marked attenuation (narrowing) of retinal vessels | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is not a type of balance in complete denture occlusion. | [
"Bilateral lever balance",
"Unilateral occlusal balance",
"Bilateral occlusal balance",
"Protrusive occlusal balance"
] | A | Apart from other options, unilateral lever balance is a type of balance in complete denture occlusion. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Gene affected in breast cancer? | [
"WT1",
"p53",
"RAS",
"p83"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., p53 * Most common gene involved infamilial breast cancer - BRCA-1* Most common gene involved in sporadic breast cancer -p53* Most common gene involved overall (Hereditory plus sporadic) - p53* Maximum increase in susceptibility to breast cancer is seen with - p53 mutation (>90%) whether it is sporadic or Hereditary. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most common cause of fulminant diabetes is? | [
"Viruses",
"Diabetic Ketoacidosis",
"Non-ketotic hyperosmolar coma",
"Autoimmunity"
] | A | Bcz of virus - coxackie B, Mumps, Rubella Type IDM - insulinopenia Leading causes - 1) Autoimmunity 2) Fulminant DM | 3) Bronze DM - Hemochromatosis | train | med_mcqa | null |
The group of drugs used as subsidiary medicines in cancer treatment? | [
"Amefostine",
"Filgrastim",
"Cytochalasin",
"All of the above"
] | D | The above-given drugs are considered as cancer Protectants. Cytochalasin is a migrostatic or anti-metastatic drug.Ref: Sharma and Sharma 2nd e/pg 858. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The antifungal which has a bactericidal mode of action against dermatophyte infections in therapeutic doses is - | [
"Fluconazole",
"Terbinafine",
"Itraconazole",
"Ketoconazole"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Terbinafine | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following intravenous anaesthetic causes increase in cerebral O2 tension. | [
"Thiopentone",
"Propofol",
"Ketamine",
"Etomidate"
] | C | Ketamine increases cerebral oxygen consumption, cerebral blood flow and intracranial pressure - thus avoided in head injury patient Ketamine administration may be associated with lacrimation and salivation which can be attenuated by premedication with an anticholinergic agent such as glycopyrrolate. Etomidate, propofol, and thiopentone decrease CMRO2, CBF, and ICP. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The right gastroepiploic artery is a branch of - | [
"Right hepatic artery",
"Gastroduodenal artery",
"Hepatic artery",
"Superior mesenteric artery"
] | B | Right gastroepiploic artery → a branch of the gastroduodenal artery, which in turn is a branch of the common hepatic artery.
Left gastroepiploic artery → a branch of the splenic artery. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A severe blow to a permanent anterior tooth not
resulting in fracture, commonly leads to | [
"Pulpal death in the absence of treatment",
"Death of pulp despite treatment",
"Fracture of involved bone",
"Mobility of central incisors"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 26 year old man died suddenly during spoing activity. At autopsy the hea revealed chamber and septum Hyperophy. The most likely diagnosis is | [
"HOCM",
"DCM",
"Arrhythmogenic cardiac problem",
"Restrictive cardiomyopathy"
] | A | Answer is A. (HOCM): Sudden death following competitive spos in young individuals is characteristic of hyperophic obstructive cardiomyopathy (HOCM). The presence of chamber and septal hyperophy on autopsy confirms the suspected diagnosis of HOCM | train | med_mcqa | null |
A diabetic patient with hypertension, which drug is preferred: | [
"ACE Inhibitor",
"Beta blockers",
"CCB",
"Diuretics"
] | A | Ans. (a) ACE InhibitorRef Harrison's 18th ed. Ch 344* In a diabetic patient, hypertension can accelerate compli- cations of DM, particularly cardiovascular disease and nephropathy. In these patients ACE inhibitor is preferred. It slows down the progression of diabetic nephropathy.* American Diabetic Association recommends that all patients with diabetes and hypertension be treated with an ACE inhibitor or an ARB.* Subsequently, agents that reduce cardiovascular risk (beta blockers, thiazide diuretics, and calcium channel blockers) should be incorporated into the regimen.* While ACE inhibitors and ARBs are likely equivalent in most patients with diabetes and renal disease, the ADA notes:# In patients with type 1 diabetes, hypertension, and micro- or macroalbuminuria, an ACE inhibitor slowed progression of nephropathy# An ACE inhibitor or an ARB slowed the progression to macroalbuminuria in patients with type 2 diabetes, hypertension, and microalbumin-uria; and# ARB slowed the decline in GFR in patients with type 2 diabetes, hypertension, macroalbuminuria, and renal insufficiency. | train | med_mcqa | null |
For a survey, some schools were selected randomly from which classes were selected randomly and then sections were selected randomly and from which students were selected randomly, which type of sampling method is this | [
"Simple random",
"Cluster sampling",
"Stratified sampling",
"Multistage sampling"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Complicated cataract occurs at? | [
"Posterior capsule",
"Anterior capsule",
"Posterior cortex",
"Anterior cortex"
] | C | Ans. (c) Posterior cortexRef: Parson's 22/e, p. 268; American Academy of Ophthalmology p. 54Cataract secondary to intraocular diseases (Inflammatory and degenerative) is called complicated cataract.They occur due to posterior cortical atrophy. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Best available option to prevent MRSA infection in a hospital - | [
"Prophylactic antibiotics",
"Fumigation of wards",
"Proper hand washing",
"Use of disinfectants"
] | C | Ans. is 'c'i.e., Proper hand washing "Given the prominence of cross infection, hand hygiene is the single most important preventive measure in hospitals. " | train | med_mcqa | null |
The socioeconomic status of community is best indicated by | [
"IMR",
"Under 5 moality rate",
"Maternal moality rate",
"Perinatal moality rate"
] | A | Infant moality rate (IMR) is defined as the ratio of infant deaths registered in a given year to the total number of live bihs registered in the same year, usually expressed as a rate per 1000 live bihs. It is given by the formula: IMR= No. of deaths of children less than 1 year of age in a year --------------------------------------------------------------------x1000 No. of live bihs in the same year IMR is universally regarded not only as a most impoant indicator of the health status of a community but also of the level of living of people in general and effectiveness of MCH services in paicular. Infant moality rate is given a separate treatment by demographers because: IMR is the single largest single age-category of moality. Deaths at this age are due to a peculiar set of diseases and conditions to which the adult population is less exposed or less vulnerable. IMR is affected rather quickly and directly by specific health programmes and hence may change more rapidly than the general death rate. Ref : Park's Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine; 18th edition; Page-417 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Bariatric surgery operations include all except | [
"Gastric banding",
"Gastric by pass",
"Biliopancreatic diversion",
"Ileal transposition"
] | D | Ans. (d) Ileal transpositionRef: Sabiston 19th Edition, Page 363Malabsorptive* Jejunoileal and jejunocolic bypasses (no longer recommended)Restrictive* Vertical banded gastroplasty* Adjustable silicone gastric banding* Sleeve gastrectomyMostly restrictive (and partly malabsorptive)* Short-limb (50-100cm) Roux-En-Y gastric bypass* Long-limb (150cm) Roux-En-Y gastric bypassMostly malabsorptive* Biliopancreatic diversion with or without duodenal switch | train | med_mcqa | null |
Thiopentone is absolutely contraindicated in | [
"Porphyria",
"Moribund patients",
"Increased intracranial pressure",
"Meningitis"
] | A | (Porphyria): (381 -- KDT 7th edition; 536- Goodman 12th7or variegate)Thiopentone can precipitate acut intermittent or variegate porphyria in susceptible individuals therefore contraindicated. The abnormal synthesis of protoporphyrin (important in hemoglobin production) results in excess porphobilinogen. Barbiturates induce amino levulinic acid synthase, an enzyme responsible for phosphobilinogen synthesis, This leads to excessive porphobilinogen levels and can precipitate acute porphyric crises, that are manifested by severe abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, psychiatric disorders and neurologic abnormalities | train | med_mcqa | null |
30-year-male with chronic diarrhoea, anemia, raised liver enzymes. Most likely associated with - | [
"Antimitochondrial antibody",
"Anti-endomysial antibody",
"Anti-smooth muscle antibody",
"Antinuclear antibody"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
All the findings in wolf Parkinson white syndrome except | [
"Narrow QRS complexes",
"Normal QT interval",
"Slurred and tall QRS",
"Sho PR interval"
] | A | ECG shows a sho P-R interval (<0.12 s), slurred initial poion of the QRS (delta wave), and prolonged QRS duration produced by slow conduction through direct activation of ventricular myocardium over the AP Ref Harrison 20th edition pg 1435 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Epiphyseal plate fractures are classified by: September 2005 | [
"Herring's classification",
"Salter-Harris classification",
"Garden's classification",
"Pauwel's classification"
] | B | Ans. B: Salter-Harris Classification Salter-Harris classification (Type with the structure involved): Type I: The entire epiphysis Type II: Entire epiphysis + poion of the metaphysis Type III: Poion of the epiphysis Type IV: Poion of the epiphysis +poion of the metaphysis Type V: Nothing "broken off;" compression injury of the epiphyseal plate | train | med_mcqa | null |
A patient with fibronectin mesangial deposits was diagnosed having fibronectin nephropathy. Which of the following is NOT true about fibronectin nephropathy? | [
"Autosomal recessive inheritance",
"PAS positivity is seen in glomerulus and mesangial basement membrane",
"No deposition of any immune complexes or complement components on immunofluorescence microscopy",
"Glomerular enlargement with fibronectin deposition in mesangium and basement membrane is characteristic... | A | Fibronectin nephropathy: It is an autosomal dominant disease, presents with proteinuria and slowly progressive loss of renal function. The principle light microscopic change is glomerular enlargement and lobulation resulting from PAS and trichrome-positive mesangial deposits and mild mesangial proliferation. By immunofluorescence microscopy, the glomeruli do not consistently stain for immunoglobulin or complement components. The most consistent ultrastructural finding is large (giant), mesangial and subendothelial electron-dense deposits that mirror the location of the PAS-positive, fibronectin deposits. Ref: Heptinstall's Pathology of the Kidney By J. Charles Jennette, Robe H. Heptinstall, 2007, Page 931, 932, 933. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A baby has recently developed mouthing but has not developed stranger anxiety. Likes and dislikes for food. What is the most appropriate age of this baby – | [
"3 months",
"5 months",
"7 months",
"9 months"
] | B | Mouthing develops by 4 months, while stranger anxiety develops by 7 months.
So, the age of this child is between 4 to 7 months.
Amongst the given options best answer is 5 months. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following organisms is implicated in the causation of botryomycosis : | [
"Staphylococcus aureus",
"Staphylococcus albus",
"Pseudomonas aeruginosa",
"Streptococcus pneumonia"
] | A | Botyromycosis is a chronic granulomatous condition similar to mycetoma, usually involves the skin and characterized by granules in the pus, consisting of masses of bacteria generally staphylococcus aureus. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Antibody in cold agglutin disease is | [
"IgA",
"IgG",
"IgE",
"IgM"
] | D | Cold agglutinin disease (CAD): This designation is used for a form of chronic AIHA that usually affects the elderly. First, the term cold refers to the fact that the autoantibody involved reacts with red cells poorly or not at all at 37degC, whereas it reacts strongly at lower temperatures. As a result, hemolysis is more prominent the more the body is exposed to the cold. The antibody is usually IgM; usually, it has an anti-I specificity (the I antigen is present on the red cells of almost everybody)Harrison 19e pg: 659 | train | med_mcqa | null |
All the following drugs are used for Absence seizures except - | [
"Clonazepam",
"Phenytoin",
"Valproate",
"Ethosuximide"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Phentytoin First choice Alternatives o Absence seizure o Valproate o Lamotrigine o Ethosuximide o Clonazepam | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following medications should be dosed according to total body weight (TBW), instead of lean body mass in morbidly obese patients | [
"Pancuronium",
"Vecuronium",
"Morphine PCA",
"Succinylcholine"
] | D | Succinylcholine should be dosed according to total body weight (TBW), not lean body mass. Morbidly obese patients have elevated activity of pseudocholinesterase, the enzyme responsible for the metabolism of succinylcholine. Thus, dosing by total body weight is necessary to ensure complete relaxation prior to intubation. Morphine by PCA, vecuronium, and pancuronium should be dosed according to lean body mass. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All are zoonotic disease except - | [
"Brucellosis",
"Leptospirosis",
"Scabies",
"Rabies"
] | C | <p> Scabies is not a zoonotic disease. Reference:Park&;s textbook of preventive and social medicine,K.Park,23rd edition,page no:94. <\p> | train | med_mcqa | null |
The dangerous particle size causing pneumoconiosis varies from - | [
"100-150µm",
"50-100µm",
"10-501µm",
"1-5µm"
] | D | Pneumoconiosis
Pneumoconiosis is an occupational lung disease caused by the inhalation of dust.
The development of pneumoconiosis depends on -
The amount of dust retained in the lungs and airways.
The size, shape of the particles → The most dangerous particle ranges from 1 to 5 µm in diameter because they may reach the terminal small airway and air sacs and settle in their linings.
Particle solubility and physiochemical reactivity.
Additional effects of other irritants (e.g. concomitant smoking).
Important pneumoconiosis
Cool worker's pneumoconiosis (CWP) → Coal Dust
Silicosis (grinder's disease) → Silica dust
Asbestosis → Asbestos Dust
Berylliosis → Beryllium dust
Siderosis → Iron dust
Byssinosis → Cotton dust | train | med_mcqa | null |
Method of autopsy in which various systems organs are removed en masse: | [
"Rokitansky",
"Virchow",
"Gasses",
"Lettulle"
] | D | Dissection techniques Defined by Organ by organ Virchow En block Ghon In situ method Rockitansky En masse Letulle | train | med_mcqa | null |
Palpable purpura are seen in all EXCEPT: | [
"Giant cell aeritis",
"HSP",
"Wegner granulomatosis",
"Polyaeritis nodosa"
] | A | Giant cell aeritis REF: Harrison's 18' ed chapter 53 table 54-16 "Giant cell aeritis being a large vessel vasculitis does not cause any purpura" CAUSES OF PURPURA: Palpable Non palpable Primary cutaneous Trauma disorder Solar purpura Steroid purpura Capillaritis Livedoid vasculopathy Systemic disorder Vasculitis Vascular fragility * Cutaneous small-vessel * Amyloidosis vasculitis (Henoch-Schanlein * Ehlers-Danlos syndrome purpura, Acute hemorrhagic * Scurvy edema of infancy, Uicarial Thrombi vasculitis, Cryoglobulinemic * DIC vasculitis, Erythema elevatum * Monoclonal cryoglobulinemia diutinum, Granuloma faciale) * TTP * Polyaeritis nodosa * Warfarin reaction Emboli Emboli * Acute meningococcemia * Cholesterol * Disseminated gonococcal * Fat infection Possible immune complex * Rocky Mountain spotted fever * Gardner-Diamond syndrome * Ecthyma gangrenosum (autoerythrocyte sensitivity) * Waldenstrom's hypergammaglobulinemic purpura Clotting disturbances * ITP * Abnormal platelet function * Clotting factor defects | train | med_mcqa | null |
Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy spares | [
"White matter of cerebrum",
"White matter of parietal lobe",
"White matter of periventricular area",
"Spinal cord and optic nerve"
] | D | Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy (PML) is a demyelinating disease which results from the reactivation of John Cunningham virus (JC virus) infecting oligodendrocytes(which provide suppo and insulation to axons in CNS) The term Leukoencephalopathy refers to all of the brain white matter diseases Toxic leukoencephalopathy or toxicspongiform leukoencephalopathy is a rare condition that is characterized by progressive damage (-pathy) to white matter (-leuko-) in the brain (-encephalo-), paicularly myelin, due to causes such as exposure to drug abuse, environmental toxins, or chemotherapeutic drugs | train | med_mcqa | null |
. During urethral catheterization in male patients, resistance is encountered at the following sites except- | [
"Base of navicular fossa",
"Mid-penile urethra",
"Urogenital diaphragm",
"Bulbomembranous junction"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
When two different chemical act on two different receptors and their responses is opposite to each other on the same cell is called as ? | [
"Physiological antagonism",
"Chemical antagonism",
"Reversible antagonism",
"Competitive antagonism"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Physiological antagonism Physiological antagonists are those that produce opposite action by acting on different receptors. Antagonism When one drug decreases or inhibits the action of other. Effect of drugs A+ B < effect of drug A+ effect of drug B. Antagonism may be : Physical Based on physical propey Chemical The two drugs react chemically and form an inactive product. Physiological/functional The two drugs act on different receptors or by different mechanisms, but have opposite ove effects on the same physiological function ie have pharmacological effect in opposite direction. Receptor The antagonist interferes with binding of the agonist with its receptor or inhibits the generation of response consequent to such binding. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 14-year-old boy complains of a 4-month history of fatigue, abdominal pain, and yellowing of his eyes and skin. Physical examination shows tremor of both hands, lack of coordination, and mild jaundice. An ophthalmic examination reveals Kayser-Fleischer rings. Degenerative changes are present in which of the following anatomic regions of the CNS in this patient? | [
"Cerebellum",
"Corpus striatum",
"Paraventricular white matter",
"Pons"
] | B | Wilson disease is an autosomal recessive condition in which excess copper may deposit in the liver and brain. Chronic hepatitis leads to cirrhosis in young people. Ocular lesions, so-called Kayser-Fleischer rings, represent deposition of copper in Descemet membrane in the iris. Lack of coordination and tremor (extrapyramidal neurologic symptoms) are related to degenerative changes in the corpus striatum. Deposition of copper is not observed in the other anatomic regions of the brain.Diagnosis: Wilson disease | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which subtype of Hodgkin lymphoma is associated with maximum incidence of "B" symptoms? | [
"Nodular sclerosis type",
"Mixed cellularity type",
"Lymphocyte predominant type",
"Lymphocyte rich type"
] | B | Mixed Cellularity type: Maximum incidence of B - Symptoms i.e. Fever, Weight loss, Night sweats Bimodal distribution - young & older than 55 years of age B Symptoms are d/t cytokines released by the inflammatory cells Maximum inflammatory cells are seen in Mixed cellularity subtype of HL- More secretion of cytokines- more B symptoms. Overall prognosis is very good. | train | med_mcqa | null |
AG2P1 to female has a history of previous preterm birth at 32 weeks. The percentage chances of preterm birth in this pregnancy are: | [
"5%",
"10%",
"15%",
"25%"
] | C | Ans. is c, i.e. 15%Ref. Williams Obs 24/e, p 841Recurrent spontaneous preterm births according to prior outcomeBirth outcomeSecond birth (<34 weeks) (%)First birth >=35 weeks5First birth <=34 weeks16First and second birth <=34 weeks41 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most common cause of subarachnoid hemorrhage is - | [
"Hypertension",
"Berry aneurysm",
"Intracranial tumors",
"Arterio-venous malformations (AVM)"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Patchy hair loss with hyperhidrosis of skin points to the diagnosis of - | [
"Alopecia aereata",
"Trichotillomania",
"Hypehyroidism",
"Adenoma sebacium"
] | C | hypehyroidism Cutaneous manifestation:Fine velvety smooth skinWarm and moist skin due to increased sweating Localised/generalised hyperpigmentationPruritusFacial flush Palmar erythema, uicaria Pretibial myxoedema Thyroid acropachy. Hair changes:-fine thin hair, non scarring alopecia, alopecia areata. Ref Harrison20th edition pg 1203 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Not true about `Struvite Stones' is - | [
"better k/a staghorn calculus",
"these are triple phosphate stones",
"common in infected urine",
"usually seen in acidic urine"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' ie Usually seen in acidic urine Struvite stone tends to grow in alkaline urine* esp. when proteus organisms are present which split urea to ammonia". Types of Renal Calculus a) Calcium oxalate calculus (Most common*) - they have hard, small and jagged surface b) Phosphate calculus - calcium phosphate but can be combined calculus* ie Calcium amnomium magnesium phosphate also k/a struvite stones. - smooth and diy white and soltitary*. - seen in alkaline urine esp with proteus infection which split urea to ammonia. - this type of calculus may enlarge to fill all or most of the renal collecting system forming a staghorn calculus*. c) Uric acid and urate calculus - these are radioluscent* - Form in acidic urine - Most responsive to lithotripsy d) Cystein stones uncommon, seen in cystinuria - appear only in acidic urine* - they are pink to yellow when first removed but they change colour to a greenish hue when exposed to air. extremely hard stones - are relatively resistant to fragmentation by ESWL e) Xanthine calculi - are radioluscent* - are secondary to a congenital deficiency of xanthine oxidase f) Indinavir calculi Indinavir is a protease inhibitor used in AIDS patients. It results in calculi in --6% pt. who use. indinavir. Indinavir calculi are radioluscent. Rare Calculi Silicate stones - associated with the long term use of antacids containing silica Triamterene stones associated with antihypeensive medications containing trimterene are radioluscent | train | med_mcqa | null |
Persistent priapism is due to | [
"Sickle cell anaemia",
"Hairy cell leukaemia",
"Paraphimosis",
"Urethral stenosis"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Sickle cell anemia Priapism is defined as erection lasting for > 4 hours. Low-flow priapism may be due to any of the following: An excessive release of neurotransmitters Blockage of draining venules (eg, mechanical interference in sickle cell crisis, leukemia, or excessive use of intravenous parenteral lipids) Paralysis of the intrinsic detumescence mechanism Prolonged relaxation of the intracavernous smooth muscles (most often caused by the use of exogenous smooth-muscle relaxants such as injectable intra-cavernosal prostaglandin E I) Prolonged low-flow priapism leads to a painful ischemic state, which can cause fibrosis of the corporeal smooth muscle and cavernosal aery thrombosis. The degree of ischemia is a function of the number of emissary veins involved and the duration of occlusion | train | med_mcqa | null |
Rounding of internal line angles: | [
"Increases the resistance form of the tooth to fracture.",
"Increases the resistance to fracture of the restoration.",
"Increases the strength of the restoration .",
"All of the above"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Whats the minimum dose required for Tetracycline staining? | [
"5 mg/kg body weight",
"20 mg/kg body weight",
"25 mg/kg body weight",
"10 mg/kg body weight"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
"4 to 8 qualified people sitting and discussing a topic in front of a large audience" is known as: | [
"Symposium",
"Panel discussion",
"Workshop",
"Workshop"
] | B | Panel discussion comprises of 4 to 8 qualified persons who sit and discuss a topic in front of a large audience. The panel comprises of a chairman or moderator and from 4 to 8 speakers. The audience can interact with the panel. Panel discussion can be an extremely efficient method of mass education. Ref: Park 21st edition, page: 804. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Stage of Ovarian tumor with surgical spill | [
"Stage 1A",
"Stage 1B",
"Stage 1C1",
"Stage1C2"
] | C | Stage 1: tumor confined to ovaries or fallopian tubes. 1c: tumor limited to one or both ovaries. : Surgical spill : Capsule rupture before surgery or tumor on ovarian surface : Malignant cells present in ascites or peritoneal washings Reference : textbook of gynaecology Sheila balakrishnan, 2nd edition, pg no:277 <\p> | train | med_mcqa | null |
In BPH most common lobe involved is ? | [
"Lateral",
"Posterior",
"Median",
"Anterior"
] | C | Ans is C ie Median | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 23-year-old woman presents with cervical and mediastinal lymphadenopathy. Biopsy of a cervical lymph node reveals a nodular appearance with fibrous bands, effacement of the lymph node architecture, and numerous lacunar cells. Which of the following is true regarding this disorder? | [
"Benign neoplasm",
"Frequent association with EBV infection",
"Lacunar cells are positive for CD20 and CD45",
"Relatively orable clinical course"
] | D | * The diagnosis is Hodgkin lymphoma, Nodular sclerosis subtype. Most common subtype of Hodgkin lymphoma (65% to 70% of cases) It is most commonly seen in young adults with similar incidence in males and females. Overall, this subtype has a relatively orable clinical course with prognosis better than other types of Hodgkin lymphoma. Association with EBV is uncommon and less frequent (10-25%) than in mixed cellularity CHL. Lacunar cells are considered a Reed Sternberg cell variant, and the diagnosis of nodular sclerosis can be based on the finding of nodules separated by collagenous/fibrous bands and lacunar cells. Lacunar cells are positive for CD15, CD30 and negative for CD20, CD45 (LCA). Image shows Lacunar cells -Image shows Nodular sclerosis | train | med_mcqa | null |
True about type II hypersensitivity reaction is? | [
"May be complement mediated",
"Schultz dale phenomenin is a type 2 hypersensitivity",
"Antibody independent",
"Role of IgE"
] | A | Type II hypersensitivity reaction is initiated by IgG antibodies that react either with cell surface tissue antigen. c Cell or tissue damage occurs in the presence of complement or mononuclear cells. Reference : Anathanarayan & paniker's 9th edition, pg no: 162 <\p> | train | med_mcqa | null |
Areas which are not clearly visible in OPG is/are: | [
"Mandibular canine area",
"Coronoid process",
"Anterior body of mandible",
"All of the above"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
The national health policy is based on – | [
"Comprehensive health care",
"Subsidized health care",
"Socialized medicine",
"Equitable distribution of health resources"
] | A | National health policy points to:
Need of establishing comprehensive primary health care services to reach the population in the remotest areas of the country.
The need to view health and human developed as a vital component of overall integrated socioeconomic development.
Decentralized system of health care delivery with maximum community and individual self reliance and participation. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Bald tongue of sandwith is seen in deficiency of | [
"Niacin",
"Riboflavin",
"Vitamin B12",
"None of the above"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which is called as peripheral heart - | [
"Popliteus",
"Soleus",
"Plantaris",
"None"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Soleus o Soleus is known as 'peripheral heart' as it helps in venous return from lower limb. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Brown tumor of bone is seen in - | [
"Hyperparathyroidism",
"Hypoparathyroidism",
"Hypo-thyroidism",
"Hyperthyroidism"
] | A | Ans. (a) Hyperparathyroidism(Ref: R 9th/pg 1102)Skeletal Abnormalities in Hyperparathyroidism:*Osteoporosis- cortical bone more severely involved than medullary bone*Brown tumors: brown colour- due to increased vascularity, hemorrhage & hemosiderin deposition*Osteitisfibrosacystica (von Recklinghausen disease of bone) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Pterygium of the nail is seen in - | [
"Lichen planus",
"Psoriasis",
"Tinea unguium",
"alopecia areata"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Lichen planus Dorsal pterygiumo Winged appearance of nail due to a central fibrotic band divides a nail proximally in two.o Fibrotic band obstructs normal nail growth, eg lichen planus.Ventral pterygium or pterygium inversum unguiso Occurs on the distal undersurface of the nail, with forward extension of the nail bed epithelium dislocating the hyponychium and obscuring the distal groove.eg:- trauma, systemic sclerosis, Raynaud's phenomenon, lupus erythematosus, familial and infective. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most common urinary bladder tumour in childhood is? | [
"Haemangioma",
"Rhabdomyosarcoma",
"Transitional cell carcinoma",
"Squamous cell carcinoma"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Rhabdomyosarcoma | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 39-year-old man presents to his physician with the complaint of loss of peripheral vision. The subsequent magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) scan below demonstrates | [
"Cerebral atrophy",
"Pituitary adenoma",
"Optic glioma",
"Pontine hemorrhage"
] | B | This T1-weighted sagittal MRI scan reveals a dumbbell-shaped homogeneous mass involving the sella turcica and the suprasellar region. This lesion is most consistent with a pituitary adenoma, a benign tumor arising from the adenohypophysis. Pituitary adenomas are the most common sellar lesion and constitute 10-15% of all intracranial neoplasms. Macroadenomas (>10 mm) are generally non secreting tumors. Microadenomas (<10 mm) become clinically apparent from hormonal secretion. They may secrete prolactin (amenorrhea or galactorrhea), growth hormone (gigantism or acromegaly), or ACTH (Cushing syndrome). The tumor pictured is a macroadenoma. Its dumbbell shape results from impingement on the adenoma by the diaphragm of the sella turcica. The suprasellar extension seen here makes a frontal craniotomy rather than a transsphenoidal approach more appropriate. | train | med_mcqa | null |
An adverse effect of neuroleptic drugs is directly correlated positively to the antipsychotic potency of the different compounds. Which of the following is it? | [
"Sedation",
"Extrapyramidal motor disturbances",
"Postural hypotension",
"Lowering of seizure threshold"
] | B | (Ref: KDT 6/e p426, 431) Antipsychotic potency of typical antipsychotic drugs is related to their D2 receptor blocking action. D2 blocking action is also responsible for extrapyramidal adverse effects like muscle dystonia and Parkinsonism etc. | train | med_mcqa | null |
After digestion by restriction endonucleases DNA strands can be joined again by which of the following enzymes? | [
"DNA polymerase",
"DNA ligase",
"DNA topoisomerase",
"DNA gyrase"
] | B | DNA is cleaved into fragments by restriction endonucleases. After the fragments of DNA have base paired, the ends are covalently joined by the action of DNA ligase. Restriction enzymes in conjunction with DNA ligase can produce vector containing recombinant or hybrid or chimeric DNA. Ref: Essentials of Biochemistry By Naik, 2012, Page 335. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Commonest extracranial complication of CSOM | [
"Petrositis",
"Labyrinthitis",
"Subperiosteal abscess",
"Facial nerve paralysis"
] | C | Pus may break through mastoid coex leading to subperiosteal abscess which may even burst on surface leading to a discharging fistula It occurs as a sequence of mastoiditis which is a most common complication Ref: Dhingra 7e pg 84. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Topical immunomodulator used for the treatment of genital warts is : | [
"Imiquimod",
"Podophyllin",
"Interferon",
"Acyclovir"
] | A | Drugs used for viral warts (condyloma acuminata) are
Imiquimod: It is an immune response modifier, useful in the treatment of external genital and peri-anal warts topically. Mechanism of action against these HPV-induced lesions is unknown. 5% cream is applied 3 times weekly and washed off 6-10 hours after each application. Recurrences appear to be less common than with ablative therapies. Local skin reactions and pigmentary skin lesions are the important side effects.
Resiquimod is another immunomodulator, which is used topically for HSV.
Podophyllin acts by inhibiting the polymerization of tubulin monomers in the mitotic spindle.
Interferon α-2b may be used intralesional for condyloma acuminata.
Acyclovir is used for HSV-1, HSV-2 and varicella zoster virus. It is not useful for CMV infections. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Recurrent pain abdomen with intestinal obstruction and mass passes per rectum goes in our of ? | [
"Internal herniation",
"Stricture",
"Strangulated hernia",
"Intussusception"
] | D | Answer is 'd' i.e. Intussception | train | med_mcqa | null |
Metachromatic granules are found in - | [
"Diphtheria",
"Mycoplasma",
"Gardenella vaginalis",
"Staphylococcus"
] | A | The granules are often situated at the poles of the bacilli and are called polar bodies they are more strongly Gram positive than the rest of the bacterial cell stained with Loefflers methyelene blue the granules take up a bluish purple colur and are hence called Metachromatic Granules . they are also called volutin or babes ernest granules . these granules composed of plymetaphosphate and serve as storage granules Ref: Ananthanarayan & paniker's Textbook of microbiology 9th edition pg no 237 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Association of sexual precocity, multiple cystic bone lesions and endocrinopathies are seen in | [
"McCune-Albright's syndrome",
"Granulosa cell tumor",
"Androblastoma",
"Hepatoblastoma"
] | A | mc cube Albright syndrome characterized by recurrent ovarian cyst, cutaneous, skeletal & endocrine abnormalities. Figure : Cafe-au-lait skin pigmentation. (a) Skin lesions in a newborn demonstrating the characteristic association with the midline of the body, and distribution reflecting patterns of embryonic cell migration (developmental lines of Blaschko). (b) A typical lesion on the chest, face, and arm demostrating the irregular "coast of Maine" borders, relationship with the midline of the body, and distribution following developmental lines of Blaschko. (c). Typical lesions frequently found on the nape of the neck and crease of the buttocks Reference: Ghai essential of pediatrics, eighth edition, p.no:532. | train | med_mcqa | null |
In body pethysmography, a person is asked to expire against a closed glottis. What will be the change in the pressure in the lung and the box | [
"Increase in both",
"Decrease n both",
"Increase in lung decrease in box",
"Decrease in lung increase in box"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Bleeding ear discharge is mostly due - | [
"Glomus tumour",
"Otosclerosis",
"Otitis media with effusion",
"Acoustic neuroma"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Glomus tumour Differential diagnosis of blood stained ear discharge :* ASOM* Acute mastoiditis* CSOM* Aural polyp* Granulations* Glomus tumor | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 30 year old lady presents with features of malabsorption and iron deficiency anaemia. Duodenal biopsy shows complete villous atrophy. Which of the following antibodies is likely to be present : | [
"Antiendomysial antibodies",
"Anti-goblet cell antibodies",
"Anti-saccharomyces cerevisae antibodies",
"Antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies"
] | A | Answer is A (Antiendomysial antibodies): Evidence of Malabsorption together with charachteristic histopathological changes on small intestinal biopsy in the form of complete villous atrophy suggests the diagnosis of celiac spree / disease. Antibody studies are frequently used to identify patients with celiac disease. 'The antiendomysial antibody has 90 to 95% sensitivity and 90 to 95% specificity' in the detection of celiac disease. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Methods of leaning in psychiatry are all except | [
"Modelling",
"Catharsis",
"Exposure",
"Response prevention"
] | B | In modelling the person is neither exposed to it by step wise exposure or by sudden flooding but the patient is made to visualize a person who has no phobia for snakes handling the snakes, by looking in to their actions patient gets a feel that the act is doable and improves self-efficacy and hence improves anxiety * ERPT---------exposure response prevention therapy Here the patient is exposed to contamination like dust bin and now the patient has obsessional thoughts and would be worried and will be wishing to clean the hands but the therapist won't allow him to wash his hands because of which the anxiety builds up and then falls and thereby they will be relieved of their distress. Among the option catharsis is a type involved in psychoanalysis and group therapy where the patient openly revals about his unconscious desires and impulses and that help to vent out and improvement is noted in the same. Ref.Kaplon and sadock, synopsis of psychiatry, 11 th edition, pg no. 398 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Ring of fire on USG signifies- | [
"H. mole",
"Ectopic pregnancy",
"PCOD",
"Aneuploidy"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Ectopic pregnancy * The ring of fire sign also known as ring of vascularity signifies a hypervascular lesion with peripheral vascularity on colour or pulsed doppler examination of the adnexa due to low impedance high diastolic flow 1.* This sign can be seen ini) Corpus luteum cyst (more commonly)ii) Ectopic pregnancy | train | med_mcqa | null |
True about peripheral nerve injury in upper limb-a) Radial nerve injury cause anaesthesia over anatomical snuff boxb) Median nerve injury cause wrist dropc) Ulnar nerve injury cause claw handd) Index finger anesthesia is caused by median nerve injurye) Thumb anaesthesia is caused by ulnar nerve injury | [
"abc",
"ad",
"acd",
"bde"
] | C | Radial nerve injury causes wrist drop. Thumb anaesthesia is due to median nerve injury. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Vocal cord abductors is: | [
"Lateral cricoarytenoid",
"Posterior cricoarytenoid",
"CricothyroidThyroarytenoid",
"Thyroarytenoid"
] | B | Posterior cricoarytenoid | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the follow ing causes decrease in BP - | [
"Thromboxane A2",
"Vasopressin",
"NO",
"PGF2"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e, NOo Substances which cause vasodilatation, can cause fall in BP.o Substances which cause vasoconstriction, can cause rise in BP.Vasodilators (cause decrease in BP)Vasoconstrictors (casue increase in BP)o Kinins (Bradykinin)o PGEL,o PGI, (Prostacyclin)o VTPo ANPo Nitric oxide (NO)o Adrenaline & Noradrenalineo ADM (Vasopressin)o Angiotensin IIo Endothelinso PGF2o Thromhoxane-A, | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following statements are true regarding Epidural haeniatoma, EXCEPT | [
"Usually caused by disruption of middle meningeal artery",
"Hypodense shadow in CT scan",
"Lenticular shaped haemorrhage",
"Occurs following fracture of the temporal bone"
] | B | (B) Hypodense shadow in CT scan Hematoma typeEPIDURALSUBDURALLocation* Between the skull and the duraBetween the dura & the arachnoidInvolved vessel* Temperoparietal locus (most likely) - Middle meningeal artery* Frontal locus - anterior ethmoidal artery* Occipital locus - transverse or sigmoid sinuses* Vertex locus - superior sagittal sinusBridging veinsSymptoms* Lucid interval followed by unconsciousnessGradually increasing headache & confusionCT appearance* Biconvex lensCrescent-shaped | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is an RNA virus? | [
"Hepatitis B virus",
"Hepatitis C virus",
"Herpes virus",
"Adenovirus"
] | B | Ref: Ananthnarayan and Paniker's Textbook of Microbiology, 8th ed. pg. 545DNA and RNA virusDNA virusRNA virus* Pox virus: largest virus* Parvovirus: smallest virus* Adenovirus* Papovavirus* Hepadna virus* Herpesvirus* Rotavirus: only double stranded RNA virus* Orthomyxovirus* Reovirus* Bunya virus* Arena virus* Hepatitis A, C, D, E virus* Picorna, polio, coxsackie, echo and entero virus. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following are present in Superficial perineal pouch except: | [
"Sphincter urethrae muscles",
"Bulbospongiosus",
"Posterior scrotal nerves",
"Duct of Bulbourethral glands"
] | A | A i.e. Sphincter urethral muscles Root, crura & bulb of penis (i.e. 1 bulb/corpus spongiosa & 2 crura/corpora cavernosa), bulbospongiosus muscle, ducts of bulburethral gland, and posterior scrotal nerve/aery4 are contents of superficial perineal pouch.Deep perineal pouch contains bulbourethral glands, membranous urethra, sphincter urethrae muscle (internal urethral sphincter) and dorsal nerve of peris | train | med_mcqa | null |
Infection in burns is most commonly due to | [
"Pseudomonas",
"Streptococci",
"Staphylococci",
"Candida"
] | B | Infection in burns is most commonly due to Beta - hemolytic streptococci. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 55-year-old female presented to the ER with sudden onset of shoness of breath along with syncope. Chest x ray was unremarkable. ECG was done. On examination, some skin lesions were observed. What is the most likely diagnosis in the above case: - | [
"Carney syndrome",
"Hypothyroidism",
"Sarcoidosis",
"SLE"
] | C | This is a case of sarcoidosis. ECG shows complete hea block. Skin lesions shows erythema nodosum. Extrapulmonary sarcoidosis manifests as: - Conduction defects Joint lesions Hypercalcemia Neurological defects Hypothyroidism usually doesn't cause complete hea block. Carney syndrome is characterised by multiple lentigines and atrial myxomata. SLE may be associated with Erythema nodosum but doesn't cause complete hea block in adults. | train | med_mcqa | null |
In Alzheimer's disease which area of brain in involved- | [
"Cerebral cortex",
"Hippocampus",
"Cerebellum",
"A + B"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
The following complications during pregnancy Increase the risk of postpaum hemorrhage (PPH) except | [
"Hypeension",
"Macrosomia",
"Twin pregnancy",
"Hydramnios"
] | B | Predisposing factors for traumatic postpaum haemorrhage Instrumental delivery Vaginal bih after Caesarean Face to pubis delivery Precipitate labour Macrosomia (refer pgno:396 textbook of obstetrics sheila 2 nd edition) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Effective to change health behaviour and attitudes of people | [
"Workshop",
"Group discussion",
"Panel discussion",
"Demonstration"
] | B | Group discussion is considered a very effective method of health communication. It permits the individuals to learn by freely exchanging their knowledge, ideas and opinions. Where long-term compliance is involved (cessation of smoking) group discussion is considered valuable. Ref : Park 23rd edition Pgno : 680 | train | med_mcqa | null |
The most severe form of Ehler Danlos syndrome is | [
"Type 1",
"Type 8",
"Type 4",
"Type 2"
] | C | Ehlers danlos syndrome *A genetic defect in the synthesis of fibrillar collagen*Of all the types, type IV (vascular type) is the most severe form as it involves internal organs*Common type - Type VI (kyphoscoliosis type) caused due to a defect in lysyl hydroxylase*Type VII - defect in type 1 collagen*Type IV - Defect in type 3 collagen*Type I and II - Defect in type 5 collagen ( Ref: Robbins 8/e p146) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is the single MOST sensitive status for evaluating body iron status? | [
"Serum transferrin saturation",
"Serum ferritin",
"Serum iron",
"Hemoglobin concentration"
] | B | The single most sensitive indicator of body iron status is serum ferritin level. Levels of < 10 mcg/ L indicates iron deficiency. Ref: Park 21st edition, page 576. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is ester local anesthetics - | [
"Cocaine",
"Lidocaine",
"Mepivacaine",
"Prilocaine"
] | A | Local Anaesthetics are divided in two group Aminoamide and Aminoesters Aminoester - sho acting - cocaine , procaine and chloroprocaine long acting - Benzocaine and Tetracaine Aminoamide - intermediate acting - lignocaine , prilocaine ,mepivacaine long acting - Bupivacaine , Ropivacaine , Dibucaine Aminoester Local Anesthetics: They are unstable in solution and they are metabolized by plasma cholinesterase CNS lacks esterase enzymes and so intrathecally injected local anesthetics are metabolized only after diffusion to the blood. More incidence of allergic reactions. Aminoamide Local Anesthetics: They are stable in solution and undergo enzymatic degradation in the liver. Allergic reactions are rare. Exceptions to the above: cocaine is an amino ester but is metabolized by hepatic carboxylesterase and aicaine (an amide) is inactivated by plasma carboxylesterase. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Unable to consolidate long-term memory | [
"Frontal",
"Parietal",
"Temporal",
"Hippocampus"
] | D | Hippocampus is the are where sho-term memory gets processed to long term. Therefore lesions affecting hippocampus leads to difficulty in consolidating long-term memory. Ref: Ganong&;s review of medical physiology; 23rd edition; pg:290. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Deltoid ligament is attached to all except: | [
"Medial malleolus",
"Medial cuneiform",
"Medial cuneiform",
"Medial cuneiform"
] | B | B i.e. Medial cuneiform | train | med_mcqa | null |
Concurrent administration of tetracyclines is most likely to impair the action of | [
"Lincomycin",
"Chloramphenicol",
"Erythromycin",
"Penicillin"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
BRCA I is located on which chromosome ? | [
"17p",
"17q",
"13p",
"13q"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., 17q | train | med_mcqa | null |
Reabsorption of uterine septum in a fetus occurs by how many weeks of gestation normally | [
"20",
"22",
"24",
"28"
] | A | Uterine Septum resorption occurs by 20 weeks of gestation. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All are mesodermal in origin except | [
"Dilator pupillae",
"Chroid",
"Iris",
"Ciliary body"
] | A | EMBRYOLOGY OF EYE Surface ectoderm: S-Skin of eyelids/appendages L-Lens L-Lacrimal gland E-Epithelium of cornea/conjunctiva Neuroectoderm: R-Retina O-Optic stalk/optic nerve M-Muscles of iris(sphincter and dilator pupillae) E-Epithelium of iris/ciliary body secondary/teiary vitreous Neural crest: Neural- optic nerve coverings myelin sheath(by oligodendrocytes) ciliary ganglion melanocytes Mesenchymal- cornea (except epithelium of cornea) sclera (except temporal sclera) orbital bones Trabecular meshwork Schlemms canal Ciliary body muscles Iris/ciliary body stroma Mesoderm; Temporal sclera Blood vessels Extraocular muscles Primary vitreous Ref: Human Embryology, Inderbir Singh, 10th edition, page no: 113 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Red infarct is seen in ? | [
"Liver",
"Kidney",
"Brain",
"Lung"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Lung Red (Hemorrhagic) infarct : - Ovary, Lungs, Small intestine. White/Pale (anaemic) infarct : - Solid organs like hea, Spleen, Liver, Kidney, Brain. INFARCTION An infarct is an area of ischemic necrosis by occlusion of either the aerial supply or venous drainage in a paicular tissue. Pathogenesis Mostly it is caused by interrupted blood supply. "Nearly 99% of all infarcts results from thrombotic or embolic events and almost all result from aerial occlusion". Other causes of interrupted aerial supply are local vasospasm, extrinsic compression of a vessel by tumor, twisting of vessel e.g., in testicular torsion, expansion of atheroma due to hemorrhage within the plaque. Venous obstruction usually cause congesion, edema, infarction does not occur because bypass channels rapidly open after the thrombus, providing some outflow from the area, which inturn improves aerial inflow. Infarct cause by venous thrombosis is more likely in organs with a single venous outflow channel, such as in testis and ovary. Types of infarct Infarcts are classified on the basis of their color. Infarcts are classified into either Red (Haemorrhagic) or White or Pale (anaemic) infarcts, reflecting the amount of haemorrhage. Red infarcts (Haemorrhagic) : occur with : Venous occlusions (eg ovarian torsion); In loose tissues (such as lungs); In tissues with dual circulation (e.g. Lung & S. intestine) In tissues that were previously congested because of sluggish venous out flow. When flow is reestablilshed to a site of previous aerial occulusion and necrosis. White or Pale infarcts : occur with : Aerial occlusions, or In solid organs e.g. Hea, spleen, Liver, kidney and brain where the solidity of tissue limits the amount of haemorrhage that can seep into the area of ischaemic necrosis. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Aldosterone synthesis is stimulated by which of the following: | [
"ACTH",
"Hyperkalemia",
"Hypernatremia",
"Exogenous steroids"
] | B | Ref. Guyton. 13th edition. Page. 969 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Patent foramen ovale is due to | [
"Failure of closure of sinoatrial orifice",
"Failure of fusion of septum primum and endocardial cushion",
"Failure of fusion of septum primum and septum intermedium",
"Failure of fusion of septum primum and septum secondum"
] | D | The primitive atrium is divided into left and right atria by an interatrial septum which is formed by fusion of septum primum and septum secundum. The sequence of events are as follows
Septum primum arises from the roof of the common atrium (primitive atrium) and grows caudally towards septum intermedium (fused AV cushions).
Foramen primum is formed between the free border of growing septum primum and fused AV cushions (septum intermedium).
Shortly afterwards the septum primum fuses with septum intermedium (fused AV cushions), obliterating foramen primum
Foramen secundum is formed by degeneration of cranial part of septum primum.
Septum secundum grows caudally to the right of septum primum and overlaps the foramen secundum. The passage between septum primum and septum secundum is called foramen ovale. After birth, foramen ovale closes by fusion of septum primum with septum secundum. Failure of fusion of these two septa results in patent foramen ovale. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Subsets and Splits
No community queries yet
The top public SQL queries from the community will appear here once available.