question stringlengths 1 6.54k | choices listlengths 4 4 | answer stringclasses 4 values | rationale stringlengths 0 22.5k ⌀ | split stringclasses 1 value | dataset stringclasses 6 values | subject stringclasses 1 value |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
Beta blocker without local anaesthetic effect is ? | [
"Metoprolol",
"Pindolol",
"Atenolol",
"All"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Atenolol b-blockers with membrane stabilizing (Local anaesthetic action o Pindolol o Acebutolol o Carvedilol o Betaxolol o Propranolol o Metoprolol o Labetalol | train | med_mcqa | null |
Neonatal Tetanus is said to be eliminated when the rate is | [
"> 10 per 1000 LB",
"< 0.1 per 1000 LB",
"< 1 per 1000 LB",
"> 1 per 1000 LB"
] | B | NNT Elimination (Classification of districts, India is based on 3 parameters: incidence rate, TT-2 or booster coverage and % attended deliveries) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Imaging techniques used in Uterus anomalies EXCEPT: | [
"HSG",
"MRI guided HSG",
"CT guided HSG",
"USG"
] | C | * Imaging studies, such as a hysterosalpingogram (HSG) and ultrasound, or an MRI are required to visualise the uterus and confirm that a congenital uterine anomaly is present. * A hysterosalpingogram is not considered as useful due to the inability of the technique to evaluate the exterior contour of the uterus and distinguish between a bicornuate and septate uterus. * In addition,laparoscopy and/orhysteroscopy may be indicated. REF : DAVID SUTTON 7TH ED | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following statement regarding sexual differentiation of the fetus is TRUE? | [
"Gonadal development begins at 10th week of intrauterine life",
"Y chromosome determines the differentiation of ovaries",
"Female external genitalia development is completed by 10 weeks",
"SRY protein is the testis determining factor"
] | D | The key to sexual dimorphism is the Y chromosome, which contains the testis determining gene called the SRY gene on its sho arm. The protein product of this gene is a transcription factor initiating a cascade of downstream genes that determine the fate of rudimentary sexual organs. The SRY protein is the testis determining factor; under its development occurs; in its absence, female development is established. Gonadal development is apparent from about 5 weeks of gestation as a thickened area of the urogenital ridge. The differentiation of the gonadal ridge into the testis by 43-50 days (7-8 wks) of gestation is a rapid phenomenon that contrasts with the slower and delayed development of the ovary, which will not become apparent until 140 days (20 weeks) of gestation with the formation of granular cells. Leydig cells are apparent by about 60 days and differentiation of the male external genitals occurs by 65-77 days of gestation. Ref: Langman's Embryology 10Ed Page 243-244; Moore's The Developing Human 7th Ed Page 304. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Incidence of sterility is maximum in pelvic inflammatory disease caused by : | [
"Staphylococci",
"Streptococci",
"Proteus vulgaris",
"Gonococci"
] | D | Gonococci | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which tarsal bone articulates with the tibia and fibula? | [
"calcaneus",
"cuboid",
"navicular",
"talus"
] | D | The talus is the bone that makes up the lower part of the ankle joint (the tibia and fibula bones of the lower leg make up the upper part of the ankle joint). The talus sits above the heel bone (calcaneus). | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following are anti-craving agents for alcohol withdrawal Except | [
"Fluoxetine",
"Nitrafezole",
"Naltrexone",
"Acamprosate"
] | B | Nitrafezole. Disulfiram, Metronidazole and Nitrafezole are deterrents. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is not degraded by colonic flora? | [
"Pectin",
"Lignin",
"Starch",
"Glucose"
] | B | Fermentation In Colon Both mictobiota and host obtain clear benefits from this association Bacteria supply the host with butyrate (main fuel for colonic epithelial cells) Bacterial fermentation products are absorbed and used as a source of energy Main sources of energy for intestinal bacteria are complexe carbohydrates: Starches & nonstarch polysaccharides (NSPs), also known as dietary fibre Lignin is not fermented by human colonic flora and attracts water thus producing bulk Cellulose are only paially fermented Fruit pectin are completely fermented Highly fermentable NSPs provide minimal bulk and slow transit time Constipation, diveiculosis and colon cancer are uncommon in populations with a high intake of roughage (I.e., water insoluble NSPs) Water-insoluble fibers (Lignin) Used for the treatment of constipation Water-insoluble NSPs (Pectin) Used to treat diarrhea Ref: Sabiston 20th edition Pgno : 1321 | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of following are true regarding recurrent pyogenic cholangitis except | [
"Equal incidence in males and females",
"More common in left lobe of liver",
"All are pigmented stones",
"GB stones are present in >50% cases"
] | D | Recurrent pyogenic cholangitis Infection is caused by bacterial contamination usually biliary pathogens, and biliary parasites, such as clonorchis sinensis, opisthorchis viverrini and Ascaris lumbricoides Paial obstruction of biliary tree caused by biliary sludge and dead bacterial cell bodies, which form brown pigment stones. Clinical features Patients present with frequent episodes of pain, fever and jaundice Biliary strictures and repeated episodes of cholangitis are the common, may lead to liver abscess and cirrhosis GB stones are present in <50% cases Ref: Sabiston 20th edition. Pgno :1507-1508 | train | med_mcqa | null |
The extra calorie intake required for a lactating mother is: | [
"400 Kcal",
"450Kcal",
"500 Kcal",
"550 Kcal"
] | D | Ans: D (550 Kcal) Ref: 21st edition ParkExplanation:In first 6 months of lactation, the extra calories required is 550 kcal.In next 6 months (7-12 months), the extra calories required is 400 kcal (See table below) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Centrilobular necrosis in the liver is due to -a) Halothaneb) Chronic venous congestionc) Yellow feverd) Hemorrhagic shock | [
"acd",
"bcd",
"abd",
"ab"
] | C | Centrilobular necrosis is also seen due to following liver toxins (7th/e p. 903) → Bromobenzene, halothane, Rifampicin, CCl4, Acetaminophen. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Lisch's nodule's are seen in? | [
"SLE",
"Systemic sclerosis",
"NF-1",
"Mixed connective tissue disorder"
] | C | Ans is 'c' i.e. NF-1 o A Lisch nodule is a pigmented hamartomatous nodular aggregate of dendiritic melanocytes affecting the iris. They appear as clear, yellow-brown, oval to round, dome-shaped papules that project from the surface of the iris. They are detected by slit lamp examination . These nodules typically do not affect vision, but are very useful in diagnosis.NF-1 is diagnosed if two of following sevens are present:-1) Six or more cafe-au-lait macules : > 5mm in prepubertal age and > 15 mm in postpubertal age.2) Axillary or inguinal freckling.3) Two or more Lisch nodules (hamartomas on iris).4) Two or more neurofibroma or one plexiform neurofibroma.5) A distinctive osseous lesion : Sphenoid dysplasia or cortical thinning of long bones.6) Optic glioma.7) A first degree relative with NF-1. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is used in the numerator for calculation of Still Bih rate: | [
"Foetal deaths weighing over 800 grams",
"Foetal deaths weighing over 1000 grams",
"Foetal deaths weighing over 1200 grams",
"All foetal deaths"
] | B | Foetal deaths weighing over 1000 grams in a year Still bih rate = ----------------------------------------------------------------- X 1000 Total live + stillbihs > 1000 grams in that year Ref: Park 21st edition, page 519 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which angular vein branch causes cavernous sinus thrombosis - | [
"Maxillary vein",
"Supraorbital vein",
"Infraorbital vein",
"Supratrochlear vein"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Supraorbital vein o Angular vein is formed by the union of supratrochlear and supraorbital veins. There is communication between the supraorbital vein and superior ophthalmic vein, a tributary of cavernous sinus.Veins of faceo The facial vein is the largest vein of the face with no valves,o It begins as the angular vein at the medial angle of the eye.o Angular vein is formed by the union of supraorbital and supratrochlear veins.o The angular vein continues as facial veins. Which joins the anterior division of retromandubular vein (i.e. deep facial vein) below the angle of the mandible to form common facial vein,o Common facial vein drains into the internal jugular vein.o Facial vein communicates with cevernous sinus through deep connectionsA communication between supraorbital and superior ophhthalamic veins .With the pterygoud plexus through deep facial vein.o Therefore, infection from the face can spread in retrograde direction and cause cavernus sinus thrombosis (CVT).o This is specially likely to occur in the presence of infection in the upper lip and in lower part of the nose,o This area is, therfore, called dangerous area of the face. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Krukenberg tumour is most commonly from: | [
"Lung",
"Breast",
"Stomach",
"Colon"
] | C | Ans: c (Stomach) Ref:Shaw, 13th ed, p. 401Krukenberg ovarian tumoursPrimary sites - Stomach (70%),Breast (6%),Colon (15%)Involvement of ovary by - Retrograde lymphaticsAlways bilateral with smooth surface.Maintaining the shape of ovaryNo tendency of adhesion (i.e. capsule remain intact).Histology: Signet ring cellsBRIDGE:signet ring cells are seen in Krukenberg tumour but sideroblasts are seen in v myelodysplatic syndrome. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Fetal alcohol syndrome is characterized by | [
"Large palpebral fissures",
"Thin vermillion border",
"Macrosomia",
"Hyperplastic philtrum"
] | B | Fetal alcohol syndrome - dysmorphic facies
Small palpebral fissure
Thin vermillion border
Microsomia
Hypoplastic phltrum. | train | med_mcqa | null |
McCallum's patch is diagnostic of : | [
"Infective endocarditis",
"Rheumatic endocarditis",
"Myocardial infarction",
"Tetralogy of fallout (TOF)"
] | B | Answer is B (Rheumatic endocarditis) Mac Callum's Patch is a fi'ature of mural endocarditis in Rheumatic fever. Mac Callum's Patch 'Mc.Callum's patch' is the region of endocardial surface in the posterior walldeg of left atrium just above the posterior leaflet of mitral valve. It appears as a 'map like' area of thickened, roughened, and wrinkled pa of endocardium. It is perhaps produced as a result of regurgitant jets. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which bone in foot is not attached by any muscle? | [
"Talus",
"Calcaneum",
"Metatarsals",
"Fibula"
] | A | Ans A TalusRef: Snell s Clinical Anatomy, pg. 354Ref states: "Numerous important ligaments are attached to talus, but no muscles are attached to this bone"Extra MileSUPERFICIAL GROUP OF MUSCLES IN THE POSTERIOR COMPARTMENT OF LEG (SPINAL SEGMENTS IN BOLD ARE THE MAJOR SEGMENTS INNERVATING THE MUSCLE)MuscleOriginInsertionInnervationFunctionGastrocnemiusMedial head-posterior surface of distal femur just superior to medial condyle; lateral head-upper posterolateral surface of lateral femoral condyleVia calcaneal tendon, to posterior surface of calcaneusTibial nerve Plantar flexes the foot and the kneePlantarisInferior part of lateral supracondylar line of femur and oblique popliteal ligament of kneeVia calcaneal tendon, to posterior surface of calcaneusTibial nerve Plantar flexes the foot and the kneeSoleusSoleal line and medial border of tibia; posterior aspect of fibular head and adjacent surfaces of neck and proximal shaft; tendinous arch between tibial and fibular attachmentsVia calcaneal tendon, to posterior surface of calcaneusTibial nerve Plantar flexes the foot | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 34-year-old woman presents with copious vaginal discharge with foul odour. Discharge is gray in color, microscopic examination reveals clue cells. The treatment of choice is:- | [
"Azithromycin",
"Fluconazole",
"Metronidazole",
"Clotrimazole"
] | C | BACTERIAL VAGINOSIS A fishy vaginal odor, which is paicularly noticeable following coitus. Vaginal secretions are gray and thinly coat the vaginal walls. The pH of these secretions is higher than 4.5 (usually 4.7 to 5.7). Microscopy of the vaginal secretions reveals an increased number of clue cells, and leukocytes are conspicuously absent. Severe BV, more than 20% of the epithelial cells are clue cells The addition of KOH to the vaginal secretions (the "whiff" test) releases a fishy, amine like odor. Metronidazole is drug of choice: | train | med_mcqa | null |
Foetus starts hearing by what time in intrauterine life: | [
"14 weeks",
"20 weeks",
"32 weeks",
"33 weeks"
] | B | Formation of cochlea is complete by 20 weeks & a fetus can hear by 20 weeks. | train | med_mcqa | null |
True about Posttraumatic fat embolism syndrome -a) Fracture mobility is a risk factor b) Associated diabetes pose a riskc) Bradycardia occursd) Thrombocytopeniae) On ABG PaO2 < 60 mm Hg on FIO2 < 0.4 | [
"abcd",
"bcde",
"abde",
"ade"
] | C | Mobility at fracture site and associated DM increase the risk of development of fat embolism syndrome. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Treatment of choice for fellow eye in acute angle closure glaucoma is | [
"Pilocarpine",
"Timolol",
"Surgical iridotomy",
"Laser iridotomy"
] | D | D i.e. Laser iridotomy | train | med_mcqa | null |
A child aged 3 years, presented with severe sensorineural deafness was prescribed hearing aids but showed no improvement. What is the next line of management- | [
"Fenestration surgery",
"Stapes mobilisation",
"Cochlear implant",
"Conservative management"
] | C | Common indications for cochlear implants
Severe to profound SNHL in both ears with a functioning auditory nerve.
Little to no benefit from conventional hearing aids.
Living in or desiring to live in the "hearing world".
High motivation, strong commitment and realistic expectations.
Strong social and educational support.
In the case of infants and young children having a family willing to work toward speech and language skills with therapy. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Premature baby weighing 1000 gms or less is most likely to suffer from: | [
"Cataract",
"Glaucoma",
"ROP",
"Retinal detachment"
] | C | Ans. c. ROP (Ref: Yanoff and Ducker Ophthalmology 3rd/606-611; Khurana 4th/264; Parson's 20th/299-300)Premature baby needs to be screened for Retinopathy of prematurity.A 28-week baby suffered from respiratory distress syndrome at birth. On day 14 of life, he developed sepsis, bio other co-morbidity way seen. He should be evaluated for retinopathy ofprematurity at 4 weeks of age.Retinopathy of Prematurrty/Retrolental FibroplasiaBilateral proliferative retinopathy occurring in premature infants (32 weeks or <1.5 kg) exposed to high concentration of O2 during first 10 days of lifeQ.Pathogenesis:Retinal vessels extend up to nasal edge of retina by 8th month of gestation but temporal peripheiy becomes vascularized, by a month after birth.O2 in high concentration leads to vasoconstrictionQ of these immature vesselsThis results in hypoxia followed by neovascularization and fibrous tissue proliferationQRetinal zones of involvement in ROP are divided in 3 zones and centre of retinal map for ROP is optic disc not the maculaQ as in other maps.Clinical features:The condition usually develops within 5-10 weeks of O2 exposureQ.The earliest sign being dilation of retinal veins and appearance of white patches in periphery of retinaQProphylaxis:All babies weighing <1500 gm or having a gestational period <32 weeks should be screened with indirect ophthalmoscopy between 32-36 weeks postconceptionQ.Premature infants should not be placed in incubator with an O2 concentration of more than 30%.Screening of premature infants at 1, 3 and 6 months and every 4 months upto the age of 4 years.Treatment:In initial stages (1 and 2) weekly examination and in advanced stages cryo or laser therapy with sclera buckling or vitrectomyQClassification on the basis of Severity :Stage I:First sign of ROP is the appearance of a thin, flat, white structure at the junction of vascularized retina posteriorly and avscuiar retina anteriorly.Stage II:Demarcation line develops into a pink or white elvation of thickened tissueStage III:Proliferation of vessels over the ridge and into vitreous (extravitreal fibrovascular proliferation)Stage IVa:Partial retinal detachment with macular sparingStage IVb:Partial retinal detachment with macula involvedStage V:Total retinal detachmentClassification on the basis of Anatomical Location:Location of the border between vascularized and avascular retina is an important prognostic sign, as there is a direct correlation between severity of disease and amount of avascular retina.Three zones are divided to describe the location of ROP.Location of the border in zone 1 is the most severe disease and in zone 3 is least.Zone 1:Circle, the center of which is the disc, and the radius of which is twice the distance of the disc of the fovea.Zone 2:Doughnut shaped region that extends from the anterior border of Zone 1 to within one disc-diamter of the orra serrate nasally and to the anatomic equator temporally.Zone 3:Encompasses the residual retina | train | med_mcqa | null |
Large way vegetation are characteristic of- | [
"SLE",
"SABE",
"Both",
"None"
] | B | Subacute endocarditis refers to infections by organisms of low virulence involving a previously abnormal hea, especially scarred or deformed valves. The disease typically appears insidiously and--even untreated--follows a protracted course of weeks to months; most patients recover after appropriate antibiotic therapy. characteristically results in bulky, friable vegetations composed of necrotic debris, thrombus, and organisms. The aoa, aneurysmal sacs, other blood vessels and prosthetic devices also can become infected. (Robbins Basic Pathology,9th edition,pg no394.) | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following are components of Dane Paicle except - | [
"Surface antigen",
"Core antigen",
"C-antigen",
"Delta antigen"
] | D | Complete hepatitis B virus or Dane paicle -consist of outer envelope inner core. The genome has a 4 overlapping genes -S gene C gene P gene and X gene. REF:ANANTHANARAYAN AND PANIKER'S TEXTBOOK OF MICROBIOLOGY 9TH EDITION PAGE NO:543 and 544 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Hand-knee gait is seen in patients of: March 2013 (b, e) | [
"Leprosy",
"TB",
"Polio",
"Common peroneal nerve palsy"
] | C | Ans. C i.e. Polio Hand knee gait Extend of the paralysis in the lower limbs determines the walking ability of the patient with poliomyelitis. When one leg has a normal or nearly normal muscles power, and some residual power in the antigravity muscles (gluteus maximus, quadriceps, and triceps surae) of the other limb, the patient can walk without external suppo. If the flexion contracture develops in the knee joint of the effected limb, they often assume a hand-knee gait. Normally, the knee joint extends at heel strike, if it is unable to extend because of a weak quadriceps (unstable knee gait) or if the knee is fused in flexion, the patient will try to push it into extension with his hand. The hand-knee gait causes lurch in the limbs, which is tiring and painful. Many Patients fall down frequently and suffer injuries and fractures. Some abnormal gait patterns & causes Cerebellar - think drunk people. - Wide base/reeling on a narrow base; - Patient falls to side of lesion; - Feet raised excessively and placed down carefully. - The cerebellum deals with fine control. - Seen in any lesion of the cerebellum. - There are a whole heap of causes but these are the most impoant: CVA, alcohol, tumour, MS (multiple sclerosis) High-stepping - this is foot-drop. - Remember the "heel-on, toe-off" from above? - It's the opposite. - Foot doesn't dorsiflex before touching the ground. - In order to not trip over, patient need to lift it really high. - It dangles (hence "foot-drop") and lands toes-first. Causes include ? Local: common peroneal nerve palsy, sciatic nerve palsy, distal myopathy; spine: L4,5 root lesion; Generalised: peripheral neuropathy (alcohol, diabetes), motor neurone disease. Parkinsonian - this type of gait has a lot of specific features but the mains ones are: TRAPS- Resting tremor, Rigidity, Akinesia, Stooping posture, Shuffling gait - Mainly seen in idiopathic parkinson's disease. Sensory ataxia - broad base, bangs feet down clumsily (may have foot-drop), looks at feet throughout gait cycle. - Positive Romberg's sign.; - Generalised: peripheral neuropathy; - Spinal cord: cervical spondylosis, MS, B12/folate deficiency and bizarrely syphillis. Scissor - typical of cerebral palsy. - Walking on tip-toes (plantar flexed feet), flexed kneed, adducted and internally rotated hip, ridigity, excessive adduction in leg swing and contractures in all spastic muscles. Waddling - broad-base; duck-like waddle; - Pelvis tilts away from lifted leg; - Forward curvature of lumbar spine; and - Marked body swing. - CDH, proximal myopathy, being overweight and being pregnant Antalgic - patient leans on affected side taking rapid, heavy step. - The step on the unaffected side is slower. Usually caused by hip osteoahritis. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Indication of aspiration in liver abscess: | [
"Left lobe abscess",
"Deep & less than 5 cm size",
"Multiple",
"Recurrent"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e. Left lobe abscess | train | med_mcqa | null |
A young male patient who is a case of schizophrenia was staed on haloperidol 5 mg. On 3rd day, he came to the hospital accompanied by his father with uprolling of both eyes. A complete neurological examination revealed no spasticity or any other abnormalities. Visual acuity was found to be normal. Most likely diagnosis is: | [
"Acute dystonia",
"Seizures",
"Malingering",
"Akathisia"
] | A | Ans. a. Acute dystonia | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which hormone does not act through cAMP - | [
"TSH",
"Adrenaline",
"Insulin",
"ACTH"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Insulin TYPES OF RECEPTORSMembrane receptorso Present on the cell membrane.o Their drug.;hormone binding domain is extracellular and effector domain is intracellular,o These are:G protein coupled receptors - It may act through.Adenylyl cyclase| cAMP - TSH, FSH, LH, ACTH, glucagon, PTH, adrenaline, calcitonin, vasopressin (V2).| cAMP - PR1H (Dopamine)IP.-DAG (Ca2+ and protein kinase 'c') - Vasopressin (V1), oxytocin.Channel regulation (Ca+2, K+, Na+)Receptor with Intrinsic ion channels - (Nay K+, Ca-2 or Cl-)Enzyme linked receptorsIntrinsic enzyme receptors (tyrosine kinase receptors) - Insulin.JAK-STAT kinase binding receptors - Growth hormone, Prolactin.Intracellular receptors (transcription factors!o Present inside the cell and induce synthesis of specific protein by increasing the expression of specific gene.Cytoplasmic - Glucocorticoids. Mineralocorticoids, Androgens, Progestins. Nuclear - Thyroxine, Triiodothyronine, Estrogen, retinoic acid, Vit D. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following aery is present in anatomical snuff box: | [
"Anterior interosseous aery",
"Brachial aery",
"Radial aery",
"Ulnar aery"
] | C | Ans. C: Radial aery The boundaries of anatomical snuff box: The medial border of the snuffbox is the tendon of the extensor pollicis longus. The lateral border is a pair of parallel and intimate tendons, of the extensor pollicis brevis and the abductor pollicis longus. (Accordingly, the anatomical snuffbox is most visible, having a more pronounced concavity, during thumb extension.) The proximal border is formed by the styloid process of the radius The distal border is formed by the approximate apex of the schematic snuffbox isosceles triangle. The floor of the snuffbox varies depending on the position of the wrist, but both the trapezium and primarily the scaphoid can be palpated Deep to the tendons which form the borders of the anatomical snuff box lies the radial aery, which passes through the anatomical snuffbox on its course from the normal radial pulse detecting area, to the proximal space in between the first and second metacarpals to contribute to the superficial and deep palmar arches. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Regarding carbon monoxide toxicity true are all, except -a) Cytochrome toxicity is lethalb) Treated by 5% CO2c) PO2 is decreasedd) Shift HbO2 dissociation curve to lefte) Gaseous vasodilator | [
"ac",
"bc",
"ad",
"b"
] | A | CO to be lethal to cytochrome, the dose needs to be 100 times than that of the lethal dose.
Since Hb has more affinity to CO than oxygen, it results in anemic hypoxia. PO2 remain normal as it is the dissolved form. Hb-O2 dissociation curve shifts to left. Treatment for CO poisoning is by hyperbaric oxygen. But 95% O2 + 5% CO2 can also be used. CO is a gaseous vasodilator. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Clinical features of complicated cataract are all, EXCEPT | [
"Polychromatic luster",
"Axial spread of opacity",
"Opacity along sutures",
"Posterior subcapsular opacity"
] | C | C i.e. Opacity along sutures Complicated Cataract It may be posterior coical (in pathology of posterior segment) or anterior coical (in pathology of anterior segment) Opacity usually commence in posterior coex and spread axially Q Bread crumbs appearance Q Polychromatic lusture Q Vision is much impaired even in early stage, owing to the position of the opacity near the nodal point of the eye. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most common gene responsible for hereditary hemochromatosis is? | [
"HJV gene",
"HAMP gene",
"TfR2 gene",
"HFE gene"
] | D | harshmohan textbook of pathology 7th edition. *idiopathic haemochromatosis associated with over expression of HFE gene located on chromosome no 6 close to HLA gene locus and normally regulate intestinal absorption of iron. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Following surgery, a patient develops oliguria.. You believe the patient is hypovolemic, but you seek corroborative data before increasing intravenous fluids. The best data is? | [
"Urine sodium of 28 meq/L",
"Urine chloride of 15 meq/L",
"Fractional excretion of sodium less than 1",
"Urinel Serum creatinine ratio of 20"
] | C | When oliguria occurs postoperatively, it is impoant to differentiate between low output caused by the physiologic response to intravascular hypovolemia and that caus ed by acute tubular necrosis. The fractional excretion of sodium (FENa) is an especially useful test to aid in this differentiation. Values of FE < 1% in an oliquric setting indicate aggressive sodium reclamation in the tubules; values above this suggest tubular injury. Calculating the fractional excretion is simple: (urine Na x serum creatinine) + (serum sodium x urinary creatinine). In the setting of postoperative hypovolemia, all findings would reflect the kidney's effos to retain volume: the urine sodium would be below 20 meq/l, the urine chloride would not be helpful except in the metabolically alkalotic pent, the serum osmolality would be over 500 mOsm/kg, and the urine/serum creatinine ratio would be above 40. | train | med_mcqa | null |
IFN-β is secreted by | [
"Leucocytes",
"Fibroblasts",
"Nk cells",
"Macrophage"
] | B | IFN-α - Leucocytes.
IFN-β - Fibroblasts.
IFN-γ - T4 and Tc cells, Nk cells. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Method of testing resistance to drugs in TB are all EXPECT: | [
"Radiometric broth method",
"Molecular method",
"Disk diffusion method",
"PCR"
] | C | ANSWER: (C) Disk diffusion methodREF: Jawetz's, Melnick, 8i Adelbergs Medical Microbiology, 24 " edition chapter 24. Mycobacteria, Textbook of microbiology Anantnarayan 6th edition page 331Antitubercular Susceptibility Tests:Antitubercular drug susceptibility methods used are:Resistance ratio methodProportion methodAbsolute concentration methodMolecular methodRadiometric broth methodHigh pressure liquid chromatographyPCR | train | med_mcqa | null |
After administrating live vaccine, immunoglobulins are given after - | [
"1 week",
"2 weeks",
"10 weeks",
"12 weeks"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
All the following features are morphological features of apoptosis except | [
"Cell shrinkage",
"Chromatin condensation",
"Inflammation",
"Apoptotic bodies"
] | C | Ref, Robbins 7/e p27,9/e p56. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following murmur increases on standing | [
"Mitral stenosis",
"Mitral regurgitation",
"hyperophic obstructive cardiomyopathy",
"ventricular septal defect"
] | C | * HOCM is associated with a midsystolic murmur(loudest along the left sternal border / between the left lower sternal border and the apex. * The murmur is produced in both MR and dynamic left ventricular outflow obstruction. Therefore its configuration is a hybrid between regurgitant and ejection phenomena. The murmur intensity varies from beat to beat and after provocation maneuvers and does not exceed grade 3. The murmur increases in intensity following maneuvers that increase the degrees of outflow tract obstruction like reduction in preload or afterload (vasodilators, standing, valsalva). The intensity of murmur is decreased by maneuvers that increase preload (volume administration, passive leg raising, squatting) or afterload (vasopressors, squatting) or that reduce contractility (beta blockers). Ref:- Harrison'sTM Principles of Internal Medicine 20th edition; Pg num:- 243 | train | med_mcqa | null |
A child presents with barotrauma pain.There is no inflammation of middle ear, management is: | [
"Antibiotics",
"Paracetamol",
"Suppurative",
"Grommet tube inseion"
] | C | Treatment consists of teaching the patient valsalva manoeuvre. If this fails, politzerization or Eustachian tube catheterization is carried out. If fluid is present a myringotomy may be necessary and occasionally in resistant cases, grommet inseion may be required until the middle ear mucosa has returned to normal. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Hasse's formula used in pregnancy to? | [
"Estimate fetal age",
"Identify fetal blood group",
"Identify fetal sex",
"Identify fetal congenital malformations"
] | A | ANSWER: (A) Estimate fetal ageREF: Textbook of Forensic Medicine and Toxicology by Nagesh Kumar Rao - Page 321Hasse's formulaIf the crown heel length is known then the intrauterine age of fetus is calculated as:If CH length is up to 25 cm thenIU age = Square root of CH lengthIf the CH length is > 25 cm thenIU age = 1/5 of CH length | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 60 year old man, who is a known case of LV Aneurysm post MI in 2017, presents with recurrent episodes of syncope. Today after having a strong coffee he developed syncope and was rushed to the hospital. What is the best way to prevent such episodes from developing again? | [
"Daily oral amiodarone",
"DC shock 200J",
"Implantable Cardioveer defibrillator",
"Catheter ablation"
] | C | The ECG shows hea rate of 300/min with broad complex tachycardia. Axis is indeterminate. This indicates a monomorphic Ventricular Tachycardia. In acute setting DC shock 200J Biphasic should be given. However recurrence of VT episodes can occur due to structural damage in form of LV aneurysm. Hence Implantable cardioveer defibrillator is the best method to prevent recurrent VT episodes Catheter ablation is done for idiopathic monomorphic VT. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 50-year-old patient presented with attacks of the intractable nausea, vomiting and hiccups. Even after giving medication the attack didn't subside. MRI head All of the following are true about the structure involved except: - | [
"Bilaterally paired structure, located at the caudal limit of the floor of the fouh ventricle.",
"Chemoreceptive area that triggers vomiting in response to the presence of emetic substances in the blood",
"Along with nucleus tractus solitarius and the dorsal motor nucleus of the vagus, it makes up the so-called... | D | The structure affected in the above condition is Area postrema. The area marked on the MRI images is the area postrema. Area postrema: - B/L paired Located at caudal limit of floor of the 4th ventricle Chemoreceptive area Triggers vomiting in response to presence of emetic substances in blood. Dorso-vagal complex = NTS+ Dorsal nucleus of vagus Densely vascularized structure Has high permeability for circulating blood signals | train | med_mcqa | null |
Treatment in 6 month old child with acute watery diarrhoea without signs of dehydration is –a) Mothers milk and household fluidsb) ORS and antibioticsc) Mothers milk and antibioticsd) Mothers milk and ORS | [
"b",
"c",
"ad",
"ab"
] | C | Treatment plan to prevent dehydration - Plan A
The mother should be educated to use increased amount of culturally appropriate home available fluids. In addition, they should be given ORS packets for use at home.
Breast feeding should not be discontinued. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 10 year old child has violaceous papule and pterygium of Nails, the diagnosis is : | [
"Psoriasis",
"Lichen Planus",
"Pemphigus",
"Pemphigoid"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' Lichen Planus Violaceous papules and pterygium clinches the diagnosis of lichen planusImp, point about lichen planusPruritic Papular disorder involvingFlexural surface*Mucous membraneGenitaliaClinical FeaturesAge group 30-60 yrsLesions arePolygonal*Plain topped*Papules*Purple*The lesions are Symmetrical and usually effectForearm and wristsLower legs & thighGenitaliaPalms and solesMucosal involvement (especially the buccal mucosa) occurs in 2/3 cases.Other characteristic features :Wickham's Striae* - Delicate white lines on surface of lesionKoehler phenomenon * Nail Involvement - Occurs in 10% cases {pterygium*, Anychia) Scalp lesions - Scarring Alopecia* occurs. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Capillary refill time in a child with shock is? | [
">1 second",
">2 seconds",
">3 seconds",
">4 seconds"
] | C | Capillary refill is a simple test that assesses how quickly blood returns to the skin after pressure is applied.
It is carried out by applying pressure to the pink part of the nail bed of the thumb or big toe in a child and over the sternum or forehead in a young infant for 3 seconds.
The capillary refill time is the time from release of pressure to complete return of the pink colour. It should be less than 3 seconds.
If it is more than 3 seconds the child may be in shock. Lift the limb slightly above heart level to assess arteriolar capillary refill and not venous stasis.
This sign is reliable except when the room temperature is low, as the cold environment can cause a delayed capillary refill.
In such a situation check the pulses and decide about shock | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most common mode of transmission of polio virus- | [
"Droplet infection",
"Fecal-oral route",
"Blood transfusion",
"Vertical transmission"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Fecal-oral routeo Polio transmission is mostly restricted to developing countries where fecal-oral route is the most common mode of transmission.Polio Viruso Belongs to Picomaviruso A nonenveloped RNA virus (ss RNA).o Has four viral proteins, VP1-VP4. VP 1 Carries the major antigenic site.o Three types - Type 1,2 and 3o Type 1 is most common and causes most epidemicso Type 2 usually causes endemic infectionso Type 3 also causes epidemics.Pathologyo Virus multiplies selectively in neurons and destroys them,o Earliest change - Chromatolysis (Degeneration of nissel bodies)o Lesions are mostly in the anterior horns of the spinal cord.Some important points about poliovirus strains* (Type I. II. III)o Most common cause of epidemics*- Type Io Most difficult to eradicate* - Type I (because vaccine response to it is not good)o Most common cause of vaccine induced paralytic poliomyelitis*-Type III (due to mutation)o Most commonly associated with paralysis* -Type Io Most effective antigen -Type IIModes of transmission1. Fecal-oral route-Most common in developing countries.2. Droplet infection-More important in developed countries (through inhalation or through conjuctiva) | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 12 year old girl complains of pain persisting in his leg for several weeks with a low grade fever. A radiograph reveals a mass in the diaphyseal region of the left femur with overlying cortical erosion and soft tissue extension. A biopsy of the lesion shows numerous small round cells, rich in PAS positive diastase sensitive granules. The most likely histological diagnosis is : | [
"Osteogenic sarcoma.",
"Osteoblastoma.",
"Ewing's sarcoma.",
"Chondroblastoma"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e. Ewing's Sarcoma Small round cells rich in PAS positive diastase sensitive granules confirms the diagnosis of Ewing's sarcoma.The histopathological features of Ewing's sarcoma are:Small round cells having scant cytoplasmThese cells are rich in glycogen* this glycogen filled cytoplasm is detected by staining with periodic acid - shiff (PAS +ve)These cells are diastase sensitive. Diastase is an enzyme which splits glycogen.Homer wright rosettes* (the tumor cells are arranged in circles around a central fibrillary space)Remember: The other round cell tumours of boneOsteosarcomaReticulum cell sarcomaMetastatic neuroblastomaAlso RememberGross pathological features of Ewing's sarcoma:The tumour arises in the medullary cavity from the endothelial cells.New bone formation may extend along the shaft and sometimes it appears as fusiform layers of bone around the lesion, (onion peel effect)*The tumour erodes the cortex early often extending into the soft tissues with radiating streaks of ossification and reactive periosteal bone at the proximal and distal margins, (these features the 'sunray appearance' and codman's triangle are usually associated with osteosarcoma but they are just as common in Ewing's sarcoma)Clinical features of Ewing's sarcomaIt occurs most commonly between the age of 10-20 years especially in the tibia, fibula or clavicle.The patient presents with pain and swelling often arising in the diaphysis Sometimes fever is also associated with it confusing it with osteomyelitis | train | med_mcqa | null |
Ichthyosis may be associated with: September 2003 | [
"Carcinoma lung",
"Carcinoma breast",
"Leukemia",
"Lymphoma"
] | D | Ans. D i.e. Lymphoma | train | med_mcqa | null |
Biuret test is used for detection of | [
"Carbohydrate",
"Cholesterol",
"Protein",
"Steroid"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
In ectodermal dysplasia all of the following structures are affected except: | [
"Hair",
"Nails",
"Teeth",
"Salivary glands"
] | D | (Note:- Option '4' is correct according to shafer 4th edition. Actually all the 4th options are involved in ectodermal hypoplasia. Hypoplasia of salivary glands with resultant xerostomia is also seen in ectodermal dysplasia.) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Dapsone is used in the treatment and therapeutic diagnosis of: | [
"Leprosy",
"Dermatitis herpetiformis",
"Acne vulgaris",
"Lupus vulgaris"
] | B | ANSWER: (B) Dermatitis herpetiformisREF: Journal of Investigative Dermatology Symposium Proceedings (2004) 9, 47-51 (http:/./ www.nature.com/jidsp/journal/v9/nl/full/5640132a.html) Therapy of Skin Diseases, By Yoshiki Miyachi, page 433The responsiveness of DH to dapsone:Responsiveness to dapsone was once considered a diagnostic criterion for DH. A number of other dermatoses clearly respond to dapsone, howTever and the list of dapsone-responsive dermatoses includes all of those listed in table given below. One would think that dapsone's mechanism of action would be specifically related to IgA antibody and possibly related to neutrophil chemotaxis, but the exact mechanism by which dapsone is effective in these dermatoses has not been established. It is known that dapsone has no effect on antibody or complement deposition. | train | med_mcqa | null |
True about Dual sex therapy is? | [
"Patient alone is not treated",
"Uses sildenafil",
"It treats sexual perversions",
"It is used for people with dual gender identities"
] | A | Patient alone is not treated REF: Kaplan and sadock's synopsis in psychiatry 9th ed p. 700The theoretical basis of dual-sex therapy is the concept of the marital unit or dyad as the object of therapy. In dual-sex therapy, treatment is based on a concept that the couple must be treated when a dysfunctional person is in a relationship. Because both are involved in a sexually distressing situation, both must paicipate in the therapy program. Dual sex therapy aka "Master and Johnson therapy"Types:Sensate focusing(i) Used for impotence(ii) Focuses on stimulation of organs other than genitals for sexual arousalSqueeze technique or semen's technique(i) Used for premature ejaculation(ii) Female paner squeezes the coronal ridge at the inevitability of male ejaculation, hence delays ejaculation. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A punch biopsy shows carcinoma rectum with fixed mass. X-ray chest normal, which of the following is least useful investigation- | [
"Rigid proctoscope",
"Barium enema",
"CT chest",
"MRI- abdomen and pelvis"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
All are true regarding hypertrophic cardiomyopathy,Except- | [
"Digoxin is helpful",
"Irregular thickness of septa",
"Dynamic obstruction",
"Double apical impulse"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Edema of hands & feet in infants is characterised | [
"Klinefelter's syndrome",
"Noonam syndrome",
"Turners syndrome",
"Fragile x syndrome"
] | C | Edema of hands and feet is associated with turner syndrome. Turner syndrome is identifiable at bih by presence of LYMPHEDEMA ,cystic hygroma and left sided obstructive cardiac lesions. Reference : Ghai TB of pediatrics 8th edition pg 537. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Temporary hardness of water is primarily due to the presence of | [
"Calcium and magnesium sulphates",
"Calcium and magnesium chlorides",
"Calcium and magnesium bicarbonates",
"Calcium and magnesium nitrates"
] | C | Temporary hardness (Carbonate hardness) due to Calcium & Magnesium salts of Bicarbonates. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which one of the following is the nodal ministry for Integaed Child Development Services (ICDS) programme centre? | [
"Ministry for Human Resource Development",
"Ministry for Rural Development",
"Ministry for Health and Family Welfare",
"Ministry of women and child development"
] | D | <p> Ministry of women and child development. Reference:Park&;s textbook of preventive and social medicine,K.Park,23rd edition,page no:90. <\p> | train | med_mcqa | null |
Infection with colitis is caused by | [
"Enterobius vermicularis",
"Trichuris trichura",
"Strongyloides",
"Clonorchis"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Strongyloides Strongvloidiosis . It is most frequently asymptomatic . In symptomatic cases the following lesions may be observed. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All the following drugs are used to prevent relapse and maintain abstinence in cases of alcohol withdrawal except - | [
"Disulfiram",
"Acamprosate",
"Naltrexone",
"Propranolol"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Propranolol Drugs used for alcohol dependence to prevent relapse are:o Naltrexaneo Nalmefeneo Acamprosateo Disulfiramo Ondansetrono Topiramate | train | med_mcqa | null |
Gall bladder bile is different from hepatic bile in that it has: | [
"Less fatty acids",
"Less water",
"More chloride",
"Less solids"
] | B | Gall bladder contains less water (92 g/dl) compared to hepatic bile (97.5g/dl). Bile gets concentrated in the gall bladder as water and and large amount of electrolytes are absorbed are reabsorbed by the gall bladder mucosa. Comparison of gall bladder bile and hepatic bile: Liver bile Gall bladder bile Water 97.5 g/dl 92 g/dl Bile salts 1.1 g/dl 6 g/dl Bilirubin 0.04 g/dl 0.3 g/dl Cholesterol 0.1 g/dl 0.3 - 0.9 g/dl Fatty acid 0. 12 g/dl 0.3 - 1.2 g/dl Lecithin 0.04 g/dl 0.3 g/dl Sodium 145 mEq/l 130 mEq/l Potassium 5 mEq/l 12 mEq/l Calcium 5 mEq/l 23 mEq/l Chloride 100 mEq/l 25 mEq/l Bicarbonate 28 mEq/l 10 mEq/l Ref: Concise Textbook Of Physiology For Dental Students 2/e By Yogesh Tripathi, page 258 | train | med_mcqa | null |
The parasympathetic secretomotor fibres to parotid traverse through the following except - | [
"Otic ganglion",
"Tympanic plexus",
"Greater petrosal nerve",
"Aurico temporal nerve"
] | C | Secretomotor pathway to the parotid gland :- | train | med_mcqa | null |
Actions of Bradykinin include all of the following, EXCEPT: | [
"Vasodilatation",
"Bronchodilatation",
"Increased vascular permeability",
"Pain"
] | B | Kinins cause marked bronchoconstriction and not bronchodilatation. Their effect on other smooth muscles is not prominent. Ref: Essentials of Medical Pharmacology By KD Tripathi, 5th Edition, Pages 455 - 456; Textbook of Medical Physiology By Guyton and Hall, 10th Edition, Pages 181, 290, 399, 552, 725, 742. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is not true about Bronchoalveolar carcinoma - | [
"Adenocarcinoma",
"Stromal invasion with desmoplasia",
"Preservation of alveolar structure",
"Grows along pre-existing anatomical structures"
] | B | Ref:Textbook of pathology (Harsh mohan) 6th edition,page no.501 Bronchiolo-alveolar carcinoma is characterised by cuboidal to tall columnar and mucus-secreting epithelial cells growing along the existing alveoli and forming numerous papillary structures . Ultrastructurally, these tumour cells resemble Clara cells or less often type II pneumocytes. it is a type of adenocarcinoma.Thre is preservation of alveolar structure and grows along pre-existing anatomical structures. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the most common type of fingerprint ? | [
"Arch",
"Composite",
"Loops",
"Whorls"
] | C | About 60 - 70% people have loop pattern in their fingerprints.
The order of Frequency is
Loops (60 - 70%)
Whorls
Arch
Composite | train | med_mcqa | null |
Hemorrhagic pericarditis is seen in - | [
"Uremia",
"TB",
"Neoplasm",
"All"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e., All Pericarditis may be of following types A. Acute pericarditis o Acute pericarditis is the most common pathological process involving the pericardium. o It is characterized by accumulation of fluid in the pericardial space, i.e. pericardial effusion. o It may be divided, depending on the type of exudate that accumulates in the pericardium. 1. Fibrinous and serofibrinous pericarditis o These two anatomic forms are the most frequent type of o There is serous fluid mixed with fibrinous exudate. o Common causes include acute MI, Dressler syndrome, uremia, radiation, SLE, RF and trauma. May resolve or organized. 2. Serous pericarditis o There is serous inflammatory exudate. It is characteristically produced by non-infectious inflammation, such as RF, SLE, scleroderma, tumors, and uremia. May resolve without any consequences. 3. Purulent pericarditis o This is due to infection with a pyogenic organism. o There is accumulation of purulent exudate (Pus). o Resolution is unusual, and the usual outcome is organization. Because of the great intensity of inflammatory response, the organization frequently produce chronic constrictive pericarditis. 4. Hemorrhagic pericarditis o An exudate composed of blood mixed with a fibrinous or suppurative effusion accumulate in the pericardial space. o Most common cause is neoplastic involvement of the pericardial space. o Other causes are T.B., Uremia (API medicine - 434), Cardiac surgery, patients with bleeding diathesis. 5. Caseous pericarditis o Accumulation of caseous material in pericardial space. Almost invariably due to TB. B. Chronic or Healed pericarditis o Chronic pericarditis is inflammation that begins gradually, is long lasting, and results in fluid accumulation in the pericardial space or thickening of pericardium. o Chronic pericarditis may also occur as a healed stage (organization) of acute pericarditis. o Chronic pericarditis may be of following types ? 1. Adhesive pericarditis It is the stage of organization and healing by formation of fibrous adhesions in the pericardium following fibrinous, suppurative or hemorrhagic pericarditis. o Chronic adhesive pericarditis differs from chronic constrictive pericarditis in not embarrasing the function of hea. 2. Chronic constrictive pericarditis o Characterized by dense fibrous or fibrocalcific thickening of the pericardium resulting in mechanical interference with the function of the hea and reduced cardiac output. o The condition usually results from a long standing preceding causes such as - (i) Tubercular pericarditis (ii) Purulent pericarditis (iii) Haemopericardium 3. Pericardial plaques (milk spots, soldier's spots) o These are opaque, white, shining and well circumscribed areas of arganization with fibrosis in the pericardium. o They are seen most frequently on the anterior surface of right ventricle. o They arise from healing of preceding pericarditis. | train | med_mcqa | null |
True about pneumococcal vaccine is a) Not given if age is less than 2 years b) Not given in splenectomy patients c) Polyvalent d) Derived from capsular protein | [
"ab",
"ac",
"ad",
"bd"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Web of causation of disease, which statement is most appropriate? | [
"Mostly applicable for common diseases",
"Requires complete understanding of all factors associated with causation of disease",
"Epidemiological ratio",
"Helps to suggest ways to interrupt the risk of transmission"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following condition should not considered if JVP rises on deep inspiration? ?-? | [
"Constrictive pericarditis",
"Restrictive cardiomyopathy",
"Complete hea block",
"Atrial fibrillation"
] | D | JVP rises on deep inspiration is called as kussmaul's sign Kussmaul's sign is seen in all conditions where the right side of hea is not functioning properly; Ability of right ventricle to accommodate is decreased. In constrictive pericarditis -Right side of hea will not be functioning normally because there will be calcification. In restrictive cardiomyopathy - Right side of hea will not be functioning normally because there will be fibrosis. In complete Hea block causes CANON, A waves In Atrial fibrillation - Twitching Absent P wave in ECG; A wave absent in JVP Power | So not rise of JVP in atrial fib Remember: kussmaul's breathing associated Diabetic Ketoacidosis | train | med_mcqa | null |
A couple, with a fimily history of beta thalassemia major in a distant relative, has come for counseling. The husband has HbA2 of 4.8% and the wife has HbA2 of 2.3%. The risk of having a child with beta thalassemia major is - | [
"50%",
"25%",
"5%",
"0%"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e., 0% | train | med_mcqa | null |
True about Rabies virus is - | [
"Rabies is diagnosed by immunofluorescence",
"Rabies causes life long immunity",
"Rabies has various strains of viruses",
"Rabies vaccine is always live attenuated"
] | A | The method most commonly used for diagnosis is the administration of rabies virus antigen by immunofluorescence. REF:ANANTHANARAYAN AND PANIKER'S TEXTBOOK OF MICROBIOLOGY 9TH EDITION PAGE NO-533 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Water shed Infarct in brain | [
"Occurs in the proximal poion of main aeries",
"Occurs in the central poion of main aeries",
"Occurs in the terminal poion of main aeries",
"None"
] | C | *Water shed infarcts occurs at distal territories between the major cerebral aeries watershed stroke is defined as a brain ischemia that is localized to the vulnerable border zones between the tissues supplied by the anterior, posterior and middle cerebral aeries. The actual blood stream blockage/restriction site can be located far away from the infarcts. Watershed locations are those border-zone regions in the brain supplied by the major cerebral aeries where blood supply is decreased. Watershed strokes are a concern because they comprise approximately 10% of all ischemic stroke cases.The watershed zones themselves are paicularly susceptible to infarction from global ischemia as the distal nature of the vasculature predisposes these areas to be most sensitive to profound hypoperfusion Ref Harrison20th edition pg 2456 | train | med_mcqa | null |
DNA microarrays allow detection of Gene mutations using? | [
"Polymerase Chain Reaction",
"Cloning",
"Southern Blotting",
"Hybridization"
] | D | ANSWER: (D) HybridizationREF: Harrisons 17 Edition, Table 62-9 chapter 62, Biology by Raven Tata McGraw-Hill Education p 331, http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/DNA_microarray"A DNA microarray (also commonly known as gene chip, DNA chip, or biochip) is a collection of microscopic DNA spots attached to a solid surface. The core principle behind microarrays is hybridization between two DNA strands, the property of complementary nucleic acid sequences to specifically pair with each other by forming hydrogen bonds between complementary nucleotidebase pairs"MethodPrincipleType of Mutation DetectedCytogenetic analysisUnique visual appearance of various chromosomesNumerical or structural abnormalities in chromosomesFluorescent in situ hybridization (FISH)Hybridization to chromosomes with fluorescently labeled probesNumerical or structural abnormalities in chromosomesSouthern blotHybridization with genomic probe or cDNA probe after digestion of high molecular DNALarge deletion, insertion, rearrangement, expansions of triplet repeat, amplificationPolymerase chain reaction (PCR)Amplification of DNA segmentExpansion of triplet repeats, variable number of tandem repeats (VNTR), gene rearrangements, translocations; prepare DNA for other mutation methodsDNA sequencingSequencing of DNA segments clonedinto plasmid vectorsDirect sequencing of PCR productsPoint mutations, small deletions and insertionsRestriction fragmentpolymorphism(RFLP)Detection of altered restriction pattern of genomic DNA (Southern blot) or PCR productsPoint mutations, small deletions and insertionsMicroarraysHybridization of PCR products to midtype or mutated oligonucleotidesPoint mutations, small deletions and insertionsGenotyping of SNPs | train | med_mcqa | null |
Cervical ripening is mainly due to the action of : | [
"PGE2",
"PGF2",
"PGI2",
"PGG7"
] | A | PGE2 | train | med_mcqa | null |
The intracytoplasmic inclusion bodies are diagnostic of: | [
"Rabies",
"Measles",
"Adenovirus",
"Mumps"
] | A | Rabies | train | med_mcqa | null |
In all of the following increased cardiac silhouette sign is seen except: | [
"Tetralogy of Fallot's",
"Pericardial effusion",
"Aoic regurgitation",
"Ebstein anomaly"
] | A | A i.e. Tetralogy of Fallot's | train | med_mcqa | null |
Adenomatoid odontogenic tumour is characterized histologically by | [
"Polyhedral epithelial cells",
"Tubular / duct like cells",
"Stellate shaped cells",
"Stratified squamous epithelial cells"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Erythematous lesions with Collarets of scales on trunk | [
"Pityriasis rubra",
"Pityriasis rosea",
"Pityriasis versicolor",
"Pityriasis alba"
] | B | . | train | med_mcqa | null |
Gluten free diet is beneficial in - | [
"Psoriasis",
"Exfoliative dermatitis",
"Dermatitis herpetiformis",
"Pemphigoid"
] | C | <p>DERMATITIS HERPETIFORMIS Chronic intensely pruritic vesiculobullous disorder. Site- extremities and trunk Clinical features:- Intense episodic pruritus. Skin lesions- erythematous papules which rapidly turn into tiny firm grouped vesicles Vesicle rupture and crusted excoriated lesions seen. Disease worsens on dietary intake of gluten namely wheat barley and rye. Gluten sensitive enteropathy occurs in almost DH Cases. Usually it is asymptomatic, some show symptoms of malabsorption. So Gluten free diet is essential for DH Patients. {Reference: IADVL textbook of dermatology, vishalakshi Vishwanath pg no.285}</p> | train | med_mcqa | null |
Oduvanthalai poisoning is associated with: CMC (Vellore) 14 | [
"Hypokalemia",
"Hyponatremia",
"Respiratory acidosis",
"Metabolic alkalosis"
] | A | Ans. Hypokalemia | train | med_mcqa | null |
A persistent left superior vena cava usually drains into | [
"Right atrium",
"Inferior vena cava",
"Coronary sinus",
"Right superior vena cava"
] | C | Persistent left superior vena cava (PLSVC) is the most common thoracic venous anomaly. Autopsy studies in unselected patients have shown that the frequency of PLSVC is 0.3%. This anomaly is frequently observed in patients with congenital hea disease and has occasionally been repoed in patients without evidence of other congenital abnormalities.1, 2 Persistent left superior vena cava is the result of a persistent patency of an embryological vessel (left anterior cardinal vein) that is present during the early developmental period. It usually drains into the right atrium through a dilated coronary sinus.3, 4 However, in some cases, it may drain directly into the left atrium producing a right-to-left shunt,5, 6 or directly into the right atrium. In most of these cases the right superior vena cava may be present and may or may not communicate with the left superior vena cava.7 Persistent left superior vena cava is generally discovered fouitously without clinical signs. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A microscopic feature of seminoma include all of the following except - | [
"Gland formation",
"Lymphocytic infiltration",
"Monomorphic cells",
"Destruction of seminiferous tubules"
] | A | Microscopic features of Seminoma
Sheets of uniform (monomorphic) cells, i.e., seminoma cells,
Sheets are divided into poorly demarcated lobules by delicate septa of fibrous tissue.
Septa is infiltrated with T- lymphocytes.
Sometimes prominent granuloma
Seminoma cell has the following features
Large and round to polyhedral.
Distinct cell membrane
Clear or watery appearing cytoplasm.
A large central nucleus with one or two prominent nuclei.
Cytoplasm contains glycogen.
Placental alkaline phosphatase and keratin positive. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following are features of Lymph node histology except | [
"Subcapsular sinus present",
"Both Efferent and Afferent are present",
"Coex and Medulla are present",
"Red pulp and White pulp are present"
] | D | Red pulp and White pulp are present in spleenHistologically, a lymph node is subdivided into three regions: coex, paracoex, and medulla. All three regions have a rich supply of sinusoids, enlarged endothelially lined spaces through which lymph percolates.The afferent lymph vessels pierce the capsule on the convex surface of the node and empty their lymph into the subcapsular sinus. This sinus is continuous with the coical sinuses and delivers the lymph into the medullary sinuses, eventually to enter the efferent lymphatic vessels.Reference: Krishna Garg Histology; 5th edition; Page no: 92 | train | med_mcqa | null |
All are true about pheochromocytoma except: | [
"90% are malignant",
"95% occur in the abdomen",
"They secrete catecholamines",
"They arise from sympathetic ganglions"
] | A | Only 10% are malignant. They are also called 10 % tumors because 10% are bilateral, 10% are extra adrenal, 10% occur in pediatric patients, 10% are familial. One "traditional" 10% rule that has now been modified peains to familial cases. It is now recognized that as many as 25% of individuals with pheochromocytomas and paragangliomas harbor a germline mutation in one of at least six known genes | train | med_mcqa | null |
IQ = 35-47; classified according to WHO is | [
"Mild mental retardation",
"Moderate mental retardation",
"Severe mental retardation",
"Profound mental retardation"
] | B | (Moderate mental retardation) (502- Park 2(fh)WHO gave the following classification of mental retardationMild mental retardationIQ = 50-70Moderate mental retardationIQ = 35-49Severe mental retardationIQ = 20-34Profound mental retardationIQ = Under 20. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following can be done by 15 months child | [
"Walks alone",
"Transfers object hand to hand",
"Builds tower of 2 cubes",
"All of the above"
] | D | A child walks without suppo 13 months onwards Transfers objects at 7 months Builds a tower of 2 cubes at 15 months Speaks 10 words with meaning at 18 months Speaks 2 word sentences at 2 years. Ref: Nelson's 20th edition, page 66. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A man is using nasal drops continuously for long period of time. What can be the possible adverse effect from its use? | [
"Mulberry turbinate",
"Allergic rhinitis",
"Vasomotor rhinitis",
"Rhinitis Medicamentosa"
] | D | Continuous use of nasal decongestants for a long period of time result in severe mucosal edema, hyperemia, and nasal obstruction. On physical examination, the nasal mucosa will be thickened, erythematous, and edematous and will lack appreciable decongestion on topical decongestant application. Treatment of this condition includes complete cessation of the offending agent, followed by the use of nasal saline lavage and nasal topical steroids. Use of oral decongestants and a course of oral coicosteroids may help hasten symptom resolution and increase patient compliance. Resolution usually takes 3-4 weeks. Complications of untreated rhinitis medicamentosa include poor healing after nasal surgery, septal perforation, and formation of synechiae. | train | med_mcqa | null |
About IUCD all are true except : | [
"Multiload 375 is a third generation IUCD",
"Lippes loop and Cu T 200 have same pregnancy rate",
"IUCD can be used as emergency contraception",
"LNG IUD has half life of 5 years"
] | A | Multiload IUCD is an copper carrying IUCD which is of second generation LNG containing IUCD is Mirena which is a hormone releasing IUCD with a half Life of 5years IUCD's can be used as emergency contraception Ref: Shaw Gynecology 17 e pg 257. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is a Mortality Indicator? | [
"Life Expectancy",
"Notification Rate",
"DALY",
"Bed turn-over ratio"
] | A | Ans. (a) Life Expectancy* Life Expectancy is a 'Positive mortality indicator'ALSO REMEMBER* DALY is a type of disability rate* Bed turn-over ratio is a type of heath care utilization rate | train | med_mcqa | null |
Mandibular nerve passes through - | [
"Formanen rotundum",
"Foramen lacerum",
"Stylomastoid foramen",
"Foramen ovale"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Foramen ovale FORAMENSTRUCTURES PASSING THROUGH ITForamen ovaleMandibular nerveAccessory meningeal arteiyLesser petrosal nerveEmissary vein(MALE)Foramen spinosumMiddle meningeal arteryEmissary veinNervus spinosus(MEN)Foramen lacerummeningeal branch of ascending pharyngeal arteryGreater petrosal nerve unites with deep petrosal nerve to form the nerve of the ptery goid canalCarotid canalInternal carotid artery and the sympathetic plexus around itForamen rotundumMaxillary nervePterygoid canalVidian nerve (nerve of pterygoid canal)Vidian arteryStylomastoid foramenFacial nerveJugular foramenInternal jugular veinEmissary veinOccipital arteryInferior petrosal sinus9th, 10, 11th nervesHypoglossal canal12th nerveMeningeal branch of ascending pharyngeal arteryrGreater palatine foramenGreater palatine vesselsAnterior palatine nervesIncisive foramenGreater palatine vesselsnasopalatine nervesLesser palatine foramenMiddle and posterior palatine nerves.Internal accoustic meatusFacial N.Auditory N.Nervus intermedius(wrisberg)Labyrynthine vessels | train | med_mcqa | null |
Main enzyme involved in digestion of fatty food- | [
"Lingual lipase",
"Gastric lipase",
"Pancreatic lipase",
"Phospholipase"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Pancreatic lipase o Ebner's glands on the dorsum of the tongue secrete lingual lipase and the stomach also secretes a lipase (gastric lipase}.o However, they are of very little significance in fat digestion.o Fat digestion essentially begins in the duodenum with entry of pancreatic and biliary secretions.o Pancreatic juice contains lipase (pancreatic lipase), the most important enzyme for fat digestion.o The pancreatic lipase digests triglycerides (triacylglycerois) into free fatty acids and 2-monoglycerides (2- monocyiglycerols).o Pancreatic lipase hydrolyzes 1-and 3-bonds of triglycerides with relative sparing of 2-bonds, so the principal products of its action are free fatty acids and 2-monoglycerides. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Vitamin k is responsible for the carboxylation of which amino acid in the clotting factors | [
"Aspaate",
"Glutamate",
"Proline",
"Lysine"
] | B | Ref Robbins 8/e p 119;9/e p119 The vitamin K-dependent carboxylase carries out the posttranslational modification of specific glutamate residues in proteins togamma-carboxy glutamic acid (Gla) in the presence of reduced vitamin K, molecular oxygen, and carbon dioxide. | train | med_mcqa | null |
True about serology of rickets is – | [
"a",
"b",
"c",
"d"
] | C | Rickets is a metabolic disorder of growing bone (immature skeleton) primarily caused by lack of -
i) Vitamin D or ii) Calcium or iii) Phosphate
The end result is defective mineralization of bone.
Depending on the cause - Rickets is classified into following types -
Clinical variants of Rickets | train | med_mcqa | null |
Drug used in congenital hea disease to keep PDA patent | [
"PGEi",
"PGE2",
"PGI2",
"Indomethacin"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., PGE, Prostaglandin El (PGE1) infusion usually effective in keeping the ductus aeriosus open before surgical intervention to reduce hypoxemia and acidemia before surgery in ductus dependent lesion like. Pulmonary atresia TOF with severe PS TOF with pulmonary atresia Transposition of great aeries with VSD and PS Indomethacin is used for ductal closure | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 8 years boy with headache, supracellar mass, with bilateral hemianopia, showing the following MRI scan of head. What is the diagnosis | [
"Craniopharyngioma",
"Pituitary apoplexy",
"Nasopharyngeal fibroma",
"Hypothalamic glioma"
] | A | (A) Craniopharyngioma[?]Craniopharyngioma:Craniopharyngioma are pituitary gland tumor develop from the embryogenic remnants in pituitary gland.Present at any time during childhood, tumor is congenital &d arises from squamous epithelial cell rests of the embryonic Rathke's pouch.The neoplasm is usually cystic & benign.Clinical presentation:Headaches and raised ICPVisual symptoms: 20% of children & 80% adults.Hormonal imbalances:Short stature and delayed puberty in childrenDecreased libido; Amenorrhoea; Diabetes insipidusBehavioural change due to frontal or temporal extension.Growth failure; Signs of increased intracranial pressure; Endocrine abnormalities such as diabetes insipidus and delayed puberty (<10% of cases); Retarded Bone age.X-ray of skull may show calcificationMost preferred treatment is micro surgical excision & transcranial route through craniotomy.Tumor cyst can be aspirated or malignant craniopharyngiomas are treated with radiotherapy or implants.Types of Non Cancerous Brain Tumors seen in ChildrenChordomasMeningiomasCraniopharyngiomaPineocytomasGangliocytomasPituitary AdenomaGlomus JugulareSchwannomasOther Options[?]Pituitary apoplexy:Pituitary apoplexy or pituitary tumor apoplexy is bleeding into or impaired blood supply of the pituitary gland at the base of the brain. This usually occurs in the presence of a tumor of the pituitary, although in 80% of cases this has not been diagnosed previously.The most common initial symptom is a sudden headache, often associated with a rapidly worsening visual field defect or double vision caused by compression of nerves surrounding the gland.This is followed in many cases by acute symptoms caused by lack of secretion of essential hormones, predominantly adrenal insufficiency[?]Nasopharyngeal fibroma:Nasopharyngeal fibroma is a benign tumour but locally invasive and destroys the adjoining structures. It may extend into: Nasal cavity causing nasal obstruction, epistaxis and nasal discharge.Cranial cavity: Middle cranial fossa is the most common.There are two routes of entry:-By erosion of floor of middle cranial fossa, anterior to foramen lacerum. The tumour lies lateral to carotid artery & cavernous sinus.-Through sphenoid sinus, into the sella. Tumour lies medial to carotid artery.Surgical excision is now the treatment of choice. Radiotherapy has been used as a primary mode of treatment.Hormonal therapy as the primary or adjunctive treatment.Recurrent and residual lesions have been treated by chemotherapy.[?]Hypothalamic glioma:Rare tumors cause diencephalic syndrome in infants.Fail to thrive, loss of subcutaneous fat & suffer sleep & respiratory disturbances.Precocious puberty seen in older children.Associated histological types include glioma, pinealoma, teratomas & hamartomas. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Pudendal nerve root value: | [
"L5 S1 roots",
"S1 S2 roots",
"L2 L3 roots",
"S2 S3S4 roots"
] | D | Pudendal nerve arises from the sacral plexus in the pelvis( S2- S4). Pudendal nerve is nerve of perineum. External urethral sphincter supplied by pudendal nerve. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is an intraabdominal Wolffian remnant in females? | [
"Ganer duct cyst",
"Paoophoron",
"Baholin cyst",
"Fimbrial cyst"
] | B | Intraabdominal Wolffian remnants in the female include a few blind tubules in the mesovarium--the epoophoron--as well as similar ones adjacent to the uterus--collectively the paroophoron. The epoophoron or paroophoron may develop into clinically identifiable cysts and are included in the differential diagnosis of an adnexal mass Mesonephric or Wolffian vestiges can persist as Ganer duct cysts. These are typically located in the proximal anterolateral vaginal wall but may be found at other sites along the vaginal lengthRef: Congenital Genitourinary Abnormalities | train | med_mcqa | null |
What is not the management of a 1.6 cm bulbar urethral stricture in a patient with h/o pelvic fracture? | [
"Dilatation with a catheter",
"Internal Urethrotomy",
"Excision followed by end-to-end urethroplasty",
"Excision f/b reconstruction using buccal mucosa"
] | D | Management of patients of urethral stricture:1. Dilatation2. Optical internal urethrotomy at 12"0 clock Position - only performed for sho bulbar stricture3. If length of stricture up to 2cm - Excisions with end to end Anastomoses4. If length of stricture > 2cm - Excision with tissue transfer for reconstruction (Buccal mucosa (MC used);Bladder mucosa; Penile skin) | train | med_mcqa | null |
In Marfan's syndrome which of the following will be seen in eyes: | [
"Infero-nesal subluxation of lens",
"Supero-temporal subluxation of lens",
"Corneal edema",
"Increased IOP"
] | B | Ans. (b) Supero-temporal subluxation of lensRef: Khurana 4th ed./ 202* Marafans syndrome is an autosomal dominant condition.* Subluxation of lens is a common finding, which is seen in upward and temporal area, bilaterally symmetrical.* Other abnormalities includes: spider finger, long extremities, high arched palate and dissecting aortic aneurysm with normal IQ.Also KnowSuluxation of lens also seen in-* Homocystinuria: Autosomal Recessive condition; Downward and nasally displaced lens.* Weil marchesani syndrome: Forward subluxation and spheroaphakia* Sulphite oxidase deficiency: ectopia lentis is universal ocular feature* Ehler's danlos syndrome* Hyperlysinemia* Stickler syndrome | train | med_mcqa | null |
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