question stringlengths 1 6.54k | choices listlengths 4 4 | answer stringclasses 4 values | rationale stringlengths 0 22.5k ⌀ | split stringclasses 1 value | dataset stringclasses 6 values | subject stringclasses 1 value |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
Enamel hypoplasia to permanent teeth resulting from trauma to primary teeth is called as | [
"Turner’s Teeth",
"Dens evaginatus",
"Pink tooth of mummery",
"None of the above"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
the above rash is seen in baby who is in nicu since 6days , possible cause ? | [
"candida gilbaa",
"measles rash",
"staph.aureus",
"tinea corporis"
] | A | image shown above is candidial rash. most commonly due to care givers hands - is mode of transmission . m/c is candida gilbaa> albicans ref : ananthanaryana 9th ed | train | med_mcqa | null |
First pathological change apparent in Nephrotic syndrome is | [
"Thickening of the glomerular capillary wall and effacement of podocyte foot processes",
"Segmental sclerosis of glomerulus",
"Break in basement membrane",
"Mononuclear infiltration"
] | A | Most forms of primary GN and many of the secondary glomerular diseases in human beings have immunologic pathogenesis. This view is largely based on immunofluorescence studies of GN in humans which have revealed glomerular deposits of immunoglobulins and complement in patterns that closely resemble those of experimental models. The consequences of injury at different sites within the glomerulus in various glomerular diseases can be assessed when compared with the normal physiologic role of the main cells involved i.e. endothelial, mesangial, visceral epithelial, and parietal epithelial cells as well as of the GBM as summed up in Table 22.8.<\p> text book of pathology harshmohan 6th edition page 662 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following statement regarding Nitric Oxide Synthase is TRUE? | [
"It is inhibited by Calcium",
"It accepts electrons from NADH",
"It catalyzes a dioxygenase reaction",
"It requires NADPH, FAD, FMN and Heme iron"
] | D | Nitric oxide synthase is an enzyme required for the synthesis of nitric oxide from arginine. It is a dimeric protein and contains heme, FAD, FMN, tetrahydrobiopterin and calmodulin. This enzyme utilises molecular oxygen and NADPH. Ref: Harper's Illustrated Biochemistry, 26th Edition, Page 572; Lippincott's Biochemistry, 2nd Edition, Page 85; Textbook of Biochemistry By D M Vasudevan, 3rd Edition, Page 178 | train | med_mcqa | null |
A subcentre in a hilly area caters to a population of: | [
"1000",
"2000",
"3000",
"5000"
] | C | Subcentres are established on the following basis: One subcentre for every 5000 population is general. One subcentre for every 3000 population in hilly, tribal and backward areas. Ref:Parks Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine By K.Park, 18th Edition, Page 696 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is derived from ectoderm | [
"Spleen",
"Gall bladder",
"CNS",
"Lung epithelium"
] | C | Neural crest cells forms peripheral nervous system ENDODERM - gives epithelial lining of respiratory & gastro intestinal tracts, biliary system, bladder & urethra. MESODERM (mesenchyme) : i). Paraxial mesenchyme(somite's & somitomeres) : Forms * sclerotome - veebrae & poions of neurocranium & axial skeleton. * myotome -all voluntary muscles of head, trunk & limbs. * dermatome - dermis of skin over dorsal regions. ii) Intermediate mesenchyme : -forms connective tissue of gonads, mesonephric & metanephric nephrons, smooth muscles & connective tissues of reproductive tracts. iii) Septum transversum : forms epicardium, fibrous pericardium, poion of diaphragm, esophageal mesentery, sinusoids of liver, tissue within lesser omentum & falciform ligament. iv) Lateral plate mesenchyme : * Splanchnopleuric layer : smooth muscles & connective tissue of respiratory tracts, intestinal tract, blood vessels & associated glands & abdominal mesenteries (spleen). * Somatopleuric layer : appendicular skeleton, connective tissues of limbs & trunk including cailage, ligaments & tendons. dermis of ventral body wall & limbs; mesenchyme of external genitalia Angiogenic mesenchyme = Endocardium of hea, endothelium of blood & lymphatic vessel vessels of choroid plexus, sinusoids of liver & spleen, circulating blood cells, microglia & tissue macrophages. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following muscles constitutes the rotator cuff muscles, EXCEPT: | [
"Supraspinatus",
"Infraspinatus",
"Teres major",
"Subscapularis"
] | C | The 4 muscles which constitute the rotator cuff are supraspinatus, infraspinatus, teres minor and subscapularis. They form a musculotendinous cuff around the glenohumeral joint. It provides muscular suppo primarily to the anterior, posterior, and superior aspects of the joint.Supraspinatus muscle: Its primary action is humeral abduction. The suprascapular nerve (C5-C6) and the suprascapular aery provide its innervation and blood supply.Infraspinatus muscle: Its primary action is lateral rotation of the humerus. The suprascapular nerve and the suprascapular aery provide its innervation and blood supply.Teres minor muscle: It causes lateral rotation of the humerus. The axillary nerve and circumflex scapular aery provide its innervation and blood supply.Subscapularis muscle: Causes medial rotation of the humerus with contraction. Upper and lower subscapular nerves and suprascapular, axillary, and subscapular aeries provide its innervation and blood supply.REF: Moon D.A., Foreman K.B., Albeine K.H. (2011). Chapter 30. Shoulder and Axilla. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following receptors mediate the release of ACTH by Vasopressin? | [
"V1a",
"V2",
"V3",
"V4"
] | C | Vasopressin acts on V3 or V1b receptors to release ACTH. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which is the investigation of choice for a sports injury of the knee - | [
"Ultrasonography",
"Plain radiography",
"Arthrography",
"Arthroscopy"
] | D | Investigation of choice for sports injuries of the knee is MRI.
However, amongst the given options, arthroscopy is the best. | train | med_mcqa | null |
ARDS is associated with - | [
"Acute pancreatitis",
"Trauma",
"Severe Falciparum Malaria",
"All of the above"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Forces arising from attractions between transient dipoles generated by the rapid movement of electrons of all neutral atoms? | [
"Hydrophobic forces",
"Covalent forces",
"Van der Waals forces",
"Electrostatic forces"
] | C | Van der Waals Forcesvan der Waals forces arise from attractions between transient dipoles generated by the rapid movement of electrons of all neutral atoms. Significantly weaker than hydrogen bonds but potentially extremely numerous, van der Waals forces decrease as the sixth power of the distance separating atoms. Thus, they act over very sho distances, typically 2 to 4 A.Ref: Harper&;s Biochemistry; 30th edition; Chapter 2 Water & pH | train | med_mcqa | null |
18 years old male developed meningitis 5 days after taking a bath in pond. The likely causative organism ? | [
"Meningococcus",
"Cryptococcus",
"Naegleria fowleri",
"Enterococcus"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Naegleria fowleriPrimary amebic meningoencephalitis (PAM) is an acute, fulminant, and rapidly fatal infection involving the central nervous system. It is caused by the parasite Naegleria fowleri, a free- living ameboflagellate found in soil and fresh or brackish water (lakes rivers, ponds | train | med_mcqa | null |
Nuclear family consist of - | [
"Husband, wife and son",
"Husband, wife and dependent children",
"Husband and wife only",
"Fathermother husband and wife"
] | B | - nuclear or elementary family consist of married couples and their children while they are still regarded as dependents. - husband plays the dominant role in nuclear family. Reference : Park's textbook of preventive and social medicine, 23rd edition, pg no:683,684 <\p> | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 25-year old male had pigmented macules over the palm, sole and oral mucosa. He also had anemia and pain in abdomen. The most probable diagnosis is - | [
"Albright's syndrome",
"Cushing's syndrome",
"Peutz-Jegher's syndrome",
"Incontinentia pigmenti"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following condition of mother is associated with LCHAD deficiency in a foetus? | [
"PCOD",
"HELLP syndrome",
"Molar pregnancy",
"Ectopic pregnancy"
] | B | Medium- and sho-chain 3-hydroxyacyl-CoA dehydrogenase deficiency or long-chain 3-hydroxyacyl-CoA dehydrogenase (LCHAD) deficiency involves loss of beta-oxidation of medium- and sho-chain fatty acids or long-chain fatty acids, respectively. As a result, the body cannot conve these paicular fatty acid chains to energy and increased levels build up in paicular tissues and organs causing damage. These diseases are present in infancy or later in life. Mothers carrying a fetus with LCHAD deficiency may also have liver disease as well as HELLP syndrome. Ref: The Big Picture: Medical Biochemistry > Chapter 7. Lipid Metabolism > Fatty Acid Metabolism > Fatty Acid Degradation (Table). | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is true statement regarding Rapport? | [
"Feeling of harmony that promotes a therapeutic relationship",
"Patient projecting feelings from past relationships to the doctor",
"Doctor projecting feelings onto the patient",
"Not significant in obtaining the history"
] | A | Ans. A. Feeling of harmony that promotes a therapeutic relationshipRapport is the spontaneous, conscious feeling of harmony that promotes the development of a therapeutic alliance. It implies an understanding and trust between the doctor and patient. Frequently, the doctor is the only person to whom a patient can talk about things that he or she cannot tell anyone else. Most patients trust their doctors to keep secrets, and this confidence must not be disobeyed. Transference describes the process of patients unconsciously projecting feelings from their past relationships to the doctor. When doctors unconsciously project their feelings to the patient, the process is called countertransference; these feelings are not directly related to rapport. For example, a patient may remind the doctor of his father's narcissism. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 13 year old male patient complains of pain in upper front teeth region and gives a history of fall on the ground while playing. Intra-oral examination reveals grade I mobility with maxillary left central incisor. Radiologic finding is suggestive of root fracture with 21. Which of the following could be the least favourable form of repair for this tooth? | [
"Healing with calcified tissue",
"Healing with interposition of connective tissue, in which the fractured root surfaces are covered by cementum with connective tissue fibers joining the two fragments.",
"Healing with interposition of bone and connective tissue, in which a bony bridge and connective tis... | D | Root fractures that occur in the apical half of the tooth are more likely to undergo repair. Fractures in the apical third are often repaired without treatment. In fact, many apparently are undetected until evidence of a calcified repair is seen radiographically sometime after the injury.
Andreasen has described four tissue reactions after root fracture:
(1) Healing with calcified tissue, which is characterized by a uniting callus of hard tissue that may consist of dentin, osteodentin, or cementum.
(2) Healing with interposition of connective tissue, in which the fractured root surfaces are covered by cementum with connective tissue fibers joining the two fragments.
(3) Healing with interposition of bone and connective tissue, in which a bony bridge and connective tissue are positioned between the fragments.
(4) Interposition of granulation tissue.
The last is the least favorable form of attempted repair, and the fracture will not heal spontaneously.
The teeth usually present unfavorable symptoms that may be accompanied by fistulas resulting from necrosis of the coronal portion and also sometimes the apical portion of the pulp. These teeth require follow-up endodontic treatment or extraction. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Factor required for erythrocyte stability: March 2010 | [
"Anky-rin",
"Spectrin",
"NADPH",
"All of the above"
] | D | Ans. D: All of the aboveThe membrane skeleton of RBC is made up in pa of spectrin and is anchored to the transmembrane protein band 3 by the protein ankyrin. Band 3 is also an impoant anion exchanger.The susceptibility of red cells to hemolysis is increased by deficiency of the enzyme glucose 6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD), which catalyzes the initial step in the oxidation of glucose the hexose monophosphate pathway. This pathway generates NADPH, which is needed for the maintenance of normal red cell fragilityHereditary spherocytosis is caused by abnormalities of the protein network that maintains the shape and flexibility of the red cell membrane. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 35 yrs old with a history of asbestos exposure presents with chest pain. X-ray shows a solitary pulmonary nodule in the right lower zone. CECT reveals an enhancing nodule adjoining the right lower costal pleura with comet tail sign and adjacent pleura with comet tail sign and adjacent pleural thickening. The most likely diagnosis is: | [
"Mesothelioma",
"Round atelectasis",
"Pulmonary sequestration",
"Adenocarcinoma"
] | B | B i.e. Round atelectasis Round atelectasis (folded lung or atelectatic asbestos pseudotumor) characteristically presents with comet tail signQ i.e. the presence of crowding of bronchi & blood vessels that extend from the border of the mass of collapsed lung to the hilum like a tail of comet. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Supracondylar fracture is usually caused by - | [
"Hyperflexion injury",
"Axial rotation",
"Extension injury",
"Hyperextension injury"
] | D | Supracondylar fracture (most common extension type) occurs due to hyperextension injury, usually due to fall on outstretched hand.
Flexion type of supracondylar fracture occurs due to fall directly on elbow. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Malignant prevalence in fibroid is : | [
"0.50%",
"1%",
"5%",
"10%"
] | A | 0.50% | train | med_mcqa | null |
Congenital infection in fetus with minimal teratogenic risk is: | [
"HIV",
"Rubella",
"Varicella",
"CMV"
] | A | Ans. is a, i.e. HIVRef. Dutta Obs. 7/e, p 300Teratogenic effects have not been documented with HIV infectionRubella, varicella and CMV infections have all been linked to a variety of congenital malformation in the fetusEffects of maternal HIV infection in pregnancyOn motherOn fetusThe course of HIV in mother remains unaltered as a result of pregnancyMaternal mortality or morbidity are not increased by HIVMain problems a/w HIV infection during pregnancy are related to preterm birth and IUGR.No teratogenic effects have been reported. Preterm labor, IUGRNo teratogenic effectsHIVMeaslesInfluenzaMumpsInfections causing congenital malformation (teratogenic effect)RubellaVaricellaToxoplasmosisMumpsCMVParvovirus | train | med_mcqa | null |
Pancreatitis may be produced by following drugs | [
"Colchicine",
"L-Asperaginase",
"Ciprofloxacin",
"Nalidixic acid"
] | B | Drugs associated with pancreatitis Definitive cause (MAD CAT PET TV FM) 6-Mercaptopurine Azathioprine Dideoxyinosine Cytosine arabinoside 5-Aminosalicylate Tetracycline Pentamidine Estrogens Trimethoprim - Sulfamethoxazole Thiazide Valproic acid Furosemide Metronidazole Probable cause (PILAAS) Phenformin Procainamide Isoniazid L-Asperaginase Acetaminophen Alpha-Methyl-dopa Sulindac Ref: Sabiston 20th edition Pgno : 1526 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Chandler's index is used for - | [
"Ankylostoma duodenale",
"Ascaris lumbricoides",
"Strongyloides",
"Trichuris trichiura"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Choledochocele is which type of Choledochal cyst | [
"II",
"III",
"IV",
"V"
] | B | Todani Modification of Alonso-Lej classification Type I - Dilation of extrahepatic biliary tree Type Ia- cystic dilation Type Ib - focal segmental dilation Type Ic- fusiform dilation Type II - Diveicular dilation of extrahepatic biliary tree Type III - Cystic dilation of intra duodenal poion of common bile ducts (choledochocele) Type IVA- Dilation of the extrahepatic and intrahepatic biliary tree Type IVB- Dilation of multiple secretion of extrahepatic bile ducts Type V - Dilation confined to intrahepatic bile ducts (caroli's disease) Type VI - Cystic dilation of cystic duct (not included in Todani's modification) Ref: Sabiston 20th edition Pgno :1510-1511 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Burkitt&;s lymphoma is positive for? | [
"CD 5",
"CD 15",
"CD 20",
"CD 25"
] | C | Burkitt lymphomas are tumours of mature B cells that express surface IgM, CD19, CD2O, CD10 and BCL6 , a phenotype consistent with a germinal centre B cell origin. Reference : Robbins and Cotran Pathologic basis of disease.South Asia Edition volume 1.page no. 597 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Acety CoA is necessary for | [
"Aminoacid synthesis",
"Fatty acid synthesis",
"Glucose storage",
"All"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is the most common site for syphilitic aneurysm | [
"Descending aorta",
"Ascending aorta",
"Internal carotid artery",
"External carotid artery"
] | B | Syphilitic aneurysm most frequently occurs in ascending aorta. Syphilitic aneurysm occurs in tertiary stage of syphilis. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is not an Autosomal dominant disorder? | [
"Polycystic kidney disease",
"EDS",
"Osteogenesis imperfecta",
"Alkaptonuria"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Alkaptonuria | train | med_mcqa | null |
Used in Transamination: | [
"Pyridoxal phosphate",
"NADPH",
"NADP",
"FAD"
] | A | Transamination (first step in the catabolism of amino acids) is catalysed by transaminases. These enzymes use pyridoxal phosphate which is active form of pyridoxine (vitamin B6) as coenzyme. Biochemical Roles of Pyridoxine Trans-sulfuration Simple decarboxylation (mainly histidine, gluatamate, tryptophan) ALA synthase (Haem synthesis) Cystathionine synthase (synthesis of Cysteine) Alkaline phosphatase Glycogen phosphorylase (RLE in glycogen breakdown) Tryptophan metabolism, synthesis of Niacin (vitamin B3) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most common organism for causing infective endocarditis in native valve - | [
"Streptococcus Viridans",
"Enterococci",
"Staphylococci",
"Gram negative bacilli"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Phenytoin causes gingival: | [
"Inflammation",
"Hyperplasia",
"Atrophy",
"Aplasia"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Cushing's reflex is characterized by all except: | [
"Increased systolic BP",
"Increased heart rate",
"Irregular respiration",
"None of the above"
] | B | Cushing's reflex is seen in cases of increased intracranial tension characterized by:
Increased systolic BP
Decreased heart rate
Irregular respiration | train | med_mcqa | null |
Hyperprolactinemia is a side effect of | [
"Bromocriptine",
"Levodopa",
"Amantadine",
"Metoclopramide"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most common parotid tumor | [
"Pleomorphic adenoma",
"Adenocystic carcinoma",
"Epidermoid tumor",
"Adenocarcinoma"
] | A | Pleomorphic adenoma is a common benign salivary gland neoplasm characterised by neoplastic proliferation of parenchymatous glandular cells along with myoepithelial components, having a malignant potentiality. It is the most common type of salivary gland tumor and the most common tumor of the parotid gland. Refer robbins 9/e p556 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Opsonisation is by -a) IgAb) IgEc) IgGd) IgM | [
"ab",
"cd",
"bd",
"ac"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most common nephropathy in the world is | [
"IgA nephropathy",
"Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis",
"Minimal change disease",
"Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis"
] | A | IgA nephropathy (nuh-FROP-uh-thee), also known as Berger's disease, is akidney disease that occurs when an antibody called immunoglobulin A(IgA) builds up in your kidneys. This results in local inflammation that, over time, can hamper your kidneys' ability to filter waste from your blood. Refer robbins 9/e | train | med_mcqa | null |
True regarding parotid gland | [
"Mucinous gland",
"Covered by a thick fascia which is derived from deep cervical fascia",
"Facial nerve exits the gland anteromedially before dividing into 5 branches.",
"Receives secretomotor fibres from vagus nerve"
] | B | Covered by a thick fascia which is derived from deep cervical fascia
Parotid gland
Bilateral structure, and the largest of the salivary glands
Covered by a thick fascia which is derived from deep cervical fascia
Wrapped around the mandibular ramus, and secretes saliva through Stensen duct (or parotid duct) into the oral cavity, to facilitate mastication and swallowing and to begin the digestion of starches
Relations | train | med_mcqa | null |
A person was found dead with bluish green frothy discharge seen at the angle of mouth and nostrils. What is the most likely cause of his death? | [
"Arsenic poisoning",
"Copper sulphate poisoning",
"Mercury poisoning",
"Lead poisoning"
] | B | This man is showing features of copper sulphate (blue vitriol) poisoning as indicated by bluish green discharge from mouth and nostrils. Main features of copper sulphate poisoning are vomiting, abdominal pain and sometimes diarrhea. Vomitus usually have a bluish green hue. Later patients develop renal and hepatic damage with hemolytic anemia. Fatal dose of copper sulphate is 30gm. Treatment: involves chelation with penicillamine or EDTA or BAL. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Power of a study can be increased by- | [
"Increasing a error",
"Decreasing ss error",
"Decreasing a error",
"Increasing ss error"
] | B | <p> Decreasing ss error. Reference:Simple Biostatistics by Indrayan & Indrayan,1stbedition,page no: <\p> | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which villi is seen between 15th to 20th day after fertilization? | [
"Primitive",
"Primary",
"Secondary",
"Tertiary"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Secondary * Chorionic villi sprout from the chorion after their rapid proliferation in order to give a maximum area of contact with the maternal blood. These villi invade and destroy the uterine decidua while at the same time they absorb nutritive materials from it to support the growth of the embryo.* During the primary stage (primay villi formed on the 13th day following fertilization), the chorionic villi are small, nonvascular, and contain only the trophoblast. During the secondary stage (secondary villi formed on 16th day following fertilization) the villi increase in size and ramify, while the mesoderm grows into them; at this point the villi contain trophoblast and mesoderm.* During the tertiary stage (tertiary villi completed on 21st day) the branches of the umbilical vessels grow into the mesoderm; in this way, the chorionic villi are vascularized. At this point, the villi contain trophoblast, mesoderm, and blood vessels. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following test is positive in Anterior dislocation of shoulder? | [
"Thomas test",
"Barlow's test",
"McMurry's test",
"Duga's test"
] | D | • The following signs, associated with anterior dislocation of shoulder.
Duga's test
Hamilton ruler test
Caliway's test | train | med_mcqa | null |
Sudha, a lot 20 year old female developed antibiotic associated pseudomembranous colotis caused by Costridium difficile. Whinch of the following drugs is most likely to be effective in the treatment of this disease? | [
"Ampicillin",
"Clindamycin",
"Metronidazole",
"Chloramphenicol"
] | C | (Ref: KDT 6/e p791) Drugs used for the treatment of psudoembranours colitis are Metronidzole (Drug of choice) Vancomycin | train | med_mcqa | null |
Left sided sixth nerve palsy would lead to: | [
"Accomodation paresis of left eye",
"Ptosis od left eye",
"Adduction weakness of left eye",
"Diplopia in left gaze"
] | D | D. i.e. Diplopia in left gaze | train | med_mcqa | null |
A female presents with significant blood loss due to post-partum haemorrhage (PPH). What would be the shock index (HR/systolic BP)? | [
"0.3-0.5",
"0.5-0.7",
"0.7-0.9",
"0.9-1.1"
] | D | Shock index = heartrate/systolic BP
Normal = 0.5–0.7
If it becomes 0.9–1.1 it indicates massive blood loss and need for intensive resuscitation. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All are true about DMPA except : | [
"Failure rate of 0.3/100 WY",
"150 mg every 3 months",
"Weight loss",
"Glucose intolerance occurs"
] | C | Depomedroxyprogesterone Acetate It's a suspension of microcrystals of a synthetic progestin The regimen of 150 mg every 3 months is highly effective, producing pregnancy rates of about 0.3 per 100 women per year Women treated with DMPA experience disruption of the menstrual cycle and have initial spotting and bleeding at irregular intervals With continued administration, amenorrhea develops in 50% of women by 1 year and in 80% by 3 years Side effects: Persistent irregular vaginal bleeding Weight gain Glucose intolerance Reduction in HDL Ref: Noval and Bereks Gynecology; 15th Edition; Chapter 10 | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following are true for Craniopharyngioma except? | [
"Derived from Rathke's pouch",
"Can lead to central DI",
"Present in sellar or infrasellar location",
"Causes visual disturbances"
] | C | Craniopharyngioma: Benign Suprasellar tumor Derived from cells of Rathke's pouch. Lead to pressure on optic chiasma leading to bitemporal hemianopia. Can also lead to central DI. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most common complication of acute and chronic pancreatitis is | [
"Poal vein thrombosis",
"Pancreatic abscess",
"Pseudocyst",
"Pancreatic head mass"
] | C | .Complications of acute pancreatitis * Shock-hypovolaemic and septic * Respiratory failure and ARDS--Common in 7 days * Septicaemia--Common after 7 days * Hypocalcaemia * Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) * Acute renal failure * Pancreatic pleural--effusion (left sided 20%) * Pancreatic pseudo aneurysm * Pancreatic ascites * Colonic stricture * Pseudocyst of pancreas * Chronic pancreatitis * Splenic vein thrombosis * Pancreatic abscess. ref:SRB&;S manual of surgery,ed 5,pg no 618 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following sequence is TRUE about structures affected in blast injuries? | [
"Liver> bowel> lung>middle ear",
"Bowel>liver>middle ear> lung",
"Liver < bowel < lung < middle ear",
"Middle ear> bowel> lung> liver"
] | C | "The structure injured by the primary blast wave, in order of prevalence, are the middle ear, the lung, and the bowel" The hollow organ containing gas or air are most readily damaged by blast waves. The homogeneous tissues like liver and muscles are least likely injured. In the underwater blast, injuries occur mostly in gastrointestinal tract and less commonly in lungs. The lung injuries can introduce air into the circulatory system. Death may occur from systemic air embolism. Tympanic membrane rupture is a sensitive marker for primary blast injuries. Ref: Love & Bailey 24/e, p 298-300; Reddy 29e, p 216; Parikh, 6/e, p 4.183-4.184 | train | med_mcqa | null |
"Agarophobia" is described as which of the following? | [
"Fear of closed spaces",
"Fear of crowds",
"Fear of Night",
"Fear of Height"
] | B | Ans. B. Fear of crowdsAGORAPHOBIAa. Irrational & undue phobia of a particular situation is known as agoraphobia.b. This is an example of irrational fear of situation.c. It is commonest type of phobia encountered in clinical practice.d. Women outnumber men in suffering agoraphobiase. It is characterized by irrational fear of being in places away from familiar setting of homes.f. Although it was earlier thought to be a fear of open spaces only now it includes fear of open space, public places, crowded places, any other place where there is no escape from public view.g. In fact patient is afraid of all the places or situation from where escape may be difficult, or help may not be available if he suddenly develops embarrassing or incapacitating symptoms.h. These embarrassing or incapacitating symptoms are the classical symptoms of public phobia.i. A full-blown panic attack may occur (agoraphobia with panic disorder) or only a few symptoms like dizziness or tachycardia may occur (agoraphobia without panic disorder). | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is true about Facial recess? | [
"Medial to veical pa of facial nerve",
"Lateral to horizontal pa of facial nerve",
"Medial to horizontal pa of facial nerve",
"Lateral to veical pa of facial nerve"
] | D | O Facial recess or posterior sinus is a depression in posterior wall lateral to pyramid. O It is bounded medially by the veical pa of Facial nerve, inferiorly by the chorda- facial angle and superiorly by fossa incudis. O Surgically, facial recess is impoant, as direct access can be made through this into the middle ear without disturbing posterior canal wall (Posterior Tympanotomy) | train | med_mcqa | null |
A patient presents with complains of sciatica. On radioligical examination there was sclerotic lesions on his skull. Which of the following is most likely to be elevated in this patient ? | [
"CEA",
"Prostate specific antigen",
"Alkaline phosphatase",
"Alpha 1 antitrypsin"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Prostate specific antigen | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most common malignancy in children is | [
"ALL",
"AML",
"Neuroblastoma",
"Wilm's tumor"
] | A | Leukemia is most common malignancy in the pediatric age groupLeukemia/lymphoma =40% (ALL is more common than AML)CNS Tumor=30%Embryonal & Sarcoma=10%2nd most common is CNS Tumor (30%)(Refer: Nelson's Textbook of Pediatrics, SAE, 1st edition, pg no. 2437-2445) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which is the best marker of SLE ? | [
"Anti Sm antibodies",
"Anti dsDNA antibodies",
"Anti histone antibodies",
"Anti Ro Antibodies"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Anti dsDNA antibodies Antibodies to double - stranded DNA and the Smith (Sm) antigen are viually diagnostic of SLE". | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which is not associated with jaundice in infancy? | [
"Hereditary fructose intolerance",
"Maple syrup urine disease",
"Galactosemia",
"Crigler- Najjar syndrome"
] | B | Jaundice is not seen in maple syrup urine disease. It is seen in rest of the three conditions.Reference: Nelson Textbook of Paediatrics; 20th edition | train | med_mcqa | null |
Has its release inhibited by thyroxine. | [
"LH",
"PRL",
"TSH",
"GH"
] | C | Thyroxine (the end product) inhibits the release of TSH by the anterior pituitary. Thyroxine has no effect on the release of LH, PRL, GH, or FSH. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 55-year-old woman is admitted to the emergency department after a car crash. Physical examination reveals severe pain in the flexor muscles of the forearm; fixed flexion position of the finger; and swelling, cyanosis, and anesthesia of the fingers. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? | [
"Colles' fracture",
"Scaphoid fracture",
"Bennett's fracture",
"Volkmann's ischemic contracture"
] | D | Volkmann's contracture is a flexion deformity of the fingers and sometimes the wrist from an ischemic necrosis of the forearm flexor muscles. Bennett's fracture is a fracture at the base of the metacarpal of the thumb. Scaphoid fracture occurs after a fall on an outstretched hand and involves the scaphoid and lunate bones. Colles' fracture is also called silver fork deformity because the distal fragment of the radius is displaced posteriorly. Boxer's fracture is a fracture of the necks of the second and third (and sometimes the fifth) metacarpals. Smith's fracture is also called a reverse Colles' fracture and is caused when the distal radius is fractured, with the radial fragment angled forward. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 25-year-old female has been diagnosed to be suffering fromtuberculosis categorized as Category II (Sputum+ve relapse). The treatment regimen recommended under DOTS is - | [
"2 (HRZE)3 + 5 (HR)3",
"2 (HRSZE)3 + (HRZE)3 + 5 (HR)3",
"3 (HRZE)3 + 2 (HRE)3 + 4 (HR)3",
"3 (HRSZE)3 + 1 (HRZE)3 + 6 (HRE)3"
] | B | - category II include sputum smear positive relapse, sputum smear positive failure and sputum smear positive treatment after default patients. - the treatment regimen for category II of DOTS is 2 (HRSZE)3 + (HRZE)3 + 5 (HR)3. Reference : Park's textbook of preventive and social medicine, 23rd edition, pg no:188 <\p> | train | med_mcqa | null |
Compulsion to excessive drinking is termed as: | [
"Kleptomania",
"Oniomania",
"Trichotillomania",
"Dipsomania"
] | D | Ans. (D). DipsomaniaKleptomania - An urge to steal small items that usually have very little value.Pyromania - When a person sets fires for enjoyment and pleasure.Pathological Gambling - The inability to stop gambling.Intermittent Explosive Disorder - Outbursts of anger or extreme temper tantrums.Trichotillomania - Hair loss caused by an impulse to twirl and pull hair.Dipsomania - An urge to drink continuously.Oniomania-Compulsive buyingPyromania - Urge to set things on fire. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Stain used for melanin- | [
"Masson Fontana",
"Prussain blue",
"Masson trichrome",
"Congo red"
] | A | HARSH MOHAN Textbook of pathology 6th edition pg no 13 TABLE 2.1: Common Special (Histochemical) Stains in Surgical Pathology (in Alphabetic Order of Constituents). Stain: Masson Fontana Component/Tissue: Melanin, argentaffin cells Dyes: Silver nitrate Interpretation:Melanin, argentaffin,chromaffin, lipofuscin: black Nuclei: red HARSH MOHAN Textbook of pathology 6th edition pg no 13 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Cholera like symptoms is produced by which of the following poisons | [
"Arsenic",
"Organophosphorus",
"Lead",
"Rat killer"
] | A | Gastroenteric type: This is the common form of poisoning. Symptoms sta by half an hour to 1 hour after ingestion. There will be abdominal pain, intense thirst and vomiting. Diarrhea stas which is soon accompanied by tenesmus. Stools are expelled frequently and involuntarily. Stools are colorless, odorless and watery resembling rice water stools of cholera, later becomes dark coloured and bloody. Ref: FORENSIC MEDICINE AND TOXICOLOGY Dr PC IGNATIUS THIRD EDITION PAGE 420 | train | med_mcqa | null |
The drug used in petit mal seizures and has a narrow spectrum of antiepileptic activity is | [
"Lamotrigine",
"Ethosuximide",
"Phenytoin",
"Primidone"
] | B | Ethosuximide and valproate are the drugs of choice for absence seizures and are more effective than lamotrigineReference: Katzung Pharmacology; 12th edition; Page no: 418 | train | med_mcqa | null |
A child presented with fever for 2 days, altered sensorium and purpuric rashes. His blood pressure is 90/60 mmHg. Treatment of choice is> | [
"IV Quinine",
"IV Artesunate",
"IV Penicillin",
"Chloroquine"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e. Penicillin .The clinical presentation of fever, altered sensorium and purpuric rashes, is highly suggestive of meningococcal meningitis.Purpuric rash in quite characteristic of meningococcemia.I. V. Penicillin is the treatment of choice for meningoccal inf. among the given options.The DOC for meningococcal infection is -IIIrd generation cephalosporin e.g. Cefotaxime, Ceftriaxone.Also RememberWaterhouse Friderichsen syndromeSeen in fulminant meningococcemiaadrenal insufficiency occurs* due Haemorrhage and necrosis in the adrenal glandsClinical presentation isprostrationhypotensionshock andUltimately coma and death. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Adamantinoma arises from | [
"Dental lamina",
"Endothelium",
"Odontogenic tissue",
"Basal oral mucosa"
] | C | Adamantinoma arises from odontogenic tissue which can be probably from enamel or dental lamina.So the most correct option,since it is classified under odontogenic tumours, is that it arises from odontogenic tissue SRB,5th,359. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Medical adrenalectomy is seen with - | [
"Vincristine",
"Vinblastine",
"Mitotane",
"Methotrexate"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
"Pseudopalisading" arrangement of malignant cells is characteristic of: | [
"Glioblastoma",
"Ependymoma",
"Oligodendroglioma",
"Medulloblastoma"
] | A | "The highest grade tumor of astrocytoma, known as glioblastoma, has a histologic appearance similar to anaplastic astrocytoma with the additional features of necrosis and vascular or endothelial cell proliferation and pseudo-palisading nuclei."
Glioblastoma is type of infiltrating astrocytoma (Classified as Grade 4).
Necrosis in glioblastoma often results in a SERPENTINE pattern in areas of hyper-cellularity.
Tumor cells collect along the edges of the necrotic regions, producing histologic pattern referred to as pseudopalisading pattern.
GLIOMAS
Gliomas are tumors of the brain parenchyma that histologically resemble different types of glial cells. The major types of tumor in this category are:
a. Astrocytomas
b. Oligodendrogliomas
c. Ependymomas.
ASTROCYTOMAS
Two major categories of astrocytoma, infiltrating and non-infiltrating types.
Infiltrating astrocytomas account for about 80% of adult primary brain tumors.
They are most frequent in the fourth through sixth decades.
They are usually found in the cerebral hemispheres.
The most common presenting signs and symptoms are seizures, headaches and focal neurologic deficits related to the anatomic site of involvement.
Infiltrating astrocytomas show a spectrum of histologic differentiation that correlates well with clinical course and outcome.
Based on the degree of differentiation, they are classified into four groups:
Pilocytic astrocytoma - Grade I - Most common
Astrocytoma - Grade 2
Anaplastic astrocytoma - Grade 3
Glioblastoma multiforme - Grade 4 - Least differentiated
PILOCYTIC ASTROCYTOMA
Pilocytic astrocytomas are relatively benign tumors, often cystic, that typically occur in children and young adults.
They are usually located in the cerebellum; also in the floor and walls of the third ventricle, the optic nerves, and occasionally the cerebral hemispheres.
A pilocytic astrocytoma is often cystic, with a mural nodule in the wall of the cyst; if solid, it is usually well circumscribed.
The tumor is composed of areas with bipolar cells with long, thin “'hairlike” processes that are GFAP positive: Rosenthal fibers, eosinophilic granular bodies, and microcysts are often present.
Necrosis and mitoses are absent.
OLIGODENDROGLIOMAS
These tumors constitute about 5% to 15% of gliomas and are most common in the fourth and fifth decades.
Patients may have had several years of neurologic complaints, often including seizures. The lesions are found mostly in the cerebral hemispheres, with a predilection for white matter.
Oligodendrogliomas are infiltrative tumors that form gelatinous, gray masses, and may show cysts, focal hemorrhage and calcification.
On microscopic examination, the tumor is composed of sheets of regular cells with spherical nuclei containing finely granular chromatin (similar to normal oligodendrocytes) surrounded by a clear halo of cytoplasm.
The tumor typically contains a delicate network of anastomosing capillaries. Calcification, present in as many as 90% of these tumors, ranges from microscopic foci to massive depositions.
With increasing cell density, nuclear anaplasia, increased mitotic activity and necrosis, the tumor becomes higher grade (anaplastic oligodendroglioma.)
Patients with oligodendrogliomas have a better prognosis than do patients with astrocytomas.
Current treatment with surgery, chemotherapy, and radiotherapy yields an average survival of 5 to 10 years.
Patients with anaplastic oligodendroglioma have a worse prognosis.
EPENDYMOMAS
Ependymomas most often arise next to the ependyma-lined ventricular system, including the central canal of the spinal cord.
In the first two decades of life, they typically occur near the fourth ventricle and constitute 5% to 10% of the primary brain tumors in this age group.
In adults, the spinal cord is their most common location; tumors in this site are particularly frequent in the setting of neurofibromatosis type 2.
Because ependymomas usually grow within the ventricles. CSF dissemination is a common occurrence.
In the fourth ventricle, ependymomas are typically solid or papillary masses extending from the floor of the ventricle.
These tumors are composed of cells with regular, round to oval nuclei with abundant granular chromatin.
Between the nuclei there is a variably dense fibrillary background.
Tumor cells may form round or elongated structures (rosettes, canals) that resemble the embryologic ependymal canal, with long, delicate processes extending into a lumen. More frequently present are perivascular pseudo-rosettes in which tumor cells are arranged around vessels with an intervening zone consisting of thin ependymal processes directed toward the wall of the vessel.
Anaplastic ependymomas show increased cell density, high mitotic rates, necrosis and less evident ependymal differentiation.
The clinical outcome for completely resected supratentorial and spinal ependymomas is better than for those in the posterior fossa. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Page system of grading is used in | [
"Placenta pre",
"Abruptio placenta",
"Breech presentation",
"Ectopic pregnancy"
] | B | Page system of grading: depends upon the degree of placental abruption 0- Clinical features are absent 1 - Vaginal bleeding is slight,FHS is good, uterine tenderness is minimal or absent 2 - Vaginal bleeding is mild or moderate, uterine tenderness is present,Fetal distress occurs, shock is absent 3 - Bleeding is moderate to severe, uterine tenderness is marked, fetal death Ref: Dutta Obs 9e pg 239. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is NOT intracapsular:- | [
"Coronoid fossa",
"Radial fossa",
"Olecranon fossa",
"Lateral epicondyle"
] | D | Lateral and medial epicondyles are outside the capsular ligament. They are traction epiphysis. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All the following can be used to detect mutation, except: | [
"Single strand conformational polymorphism",
"Ligase chain reaction",
"Polymerase chain reaction",
"DNA Sequencing"
] | B | B i.e. Ligase chain reactionMutations can be detected by DNA sequencing PCR, PCR, single strand conformational polymorphism (SSCP), RFLP, and denaturing gradient gel electrophoresisQ. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 42-year-old man complains of headache when he wakes up in the morning. It lasts into the afternoon and then subsides. Headache has been present for a few months. CT scan shows a frontal lobe mass with focal areas of calcification. You strongly suspect the patient has | [
"An astrocytoma",
"A pinealoma",
"A meningioma",
"An oligodendroglioma"
] | D | A frontal headache when waking up in the morning and a computerized tomography (CT) scan showing a frontal lobe mass with focal areas of calcification are characteristic findings in oligodendrogliomas, which commonly involve the frontal lobe. These are tumors derived from oligodendrocytes that frequently locate in the cerebral hemispheres of adults 30 to 50 years of age. Calcifications are visible on routine skull films or CT in 90% of cases. They commonly have an admixture with other types of glial tumors, such as an astrocytoma (50%). Overall, oligodendrogliomas have a good prognosis but a high recurrence rate. Ref - Harrison's principles of internal medicine 20e pg 646 , pubmed.com | train | med_mcqa | null |
Split thickness skin graft is not taken up by:- | [
"Fat",
"Muscle",
"Deep fascia",
"Skull bone"
] | D | For skin graft to get accepted - the recipient bed should be vascularized For avascular places like bone, tendon, etc. - flap is used * Pedicel Graft or Flap Flap: Paially or completely isolated segment of tissue with its own blood supply Absolute Indications for Flaps Exposed bone Radiated vessel Brain Open joint or non-biological implant materials Pressure sores at bony prominences Full-thickness graft/Wolfe's Graft: - Consists of epidermis + full thickness of dermis. Only small graft can be taken For critical and small areas such as an eyelid, a full thickness graft is selected, so that contraction of the grafted material is minimum. Composite graft: Is a graft that contains tissue in addition to the epidermis and dermis. Depending on the donor site, it can contain subcutaneous fat, cailage, and even muscle. It is ideal for repair of deeper defects. Free Flap: - It involves autogenous transplant of vascularised tissues. There is devascularization from donor site & revascularization at recipient bed. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Symptomatic dermographism is commonly seen in _______ | [
"Acute urticaria",
"Chronic urticaria",
"Cholinergic urticaria",
"Urticarial vasculitis"
] | B | Ans. B. Chronic urticaria* Dermographism is commonly elicited in chronic urticaria patients.* Simple dermographism is defined as the triple response of local erythema due to capillary vasodilatation, followed by edema and a surrounding flare due to axon reflex-induced dilatation of arterioles after stroking the skin.* However, in <5%, it is accompanied by severe itching (symptomatic dermographism or factitious urticaria).* Patients complain of swelling and itching at sites of trauma, friction with clothing or scratching the skin. The itching is usually disproportionately severe compared with swelling and is often most severe at night.* The eliciting stimulus determines the shape of the wheals, but they are often linear from scratching or stroking.* Dermographism is usually idiopathic, but may sometimes follow a drug reaction (e.g. penicillin) or an infestation, including scabies.* It may last for months or years, or be present intermittently.* The reaction is mediated by IgE and neuropeptides.Note: Cholinergic dermographism is seen in some patients with cholinergic urticaria, whose dermographic response consists of an erythematous line studded with punctate wheals characteristic of cholinergic wheals. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Centenary year for X-ray is: | [
"1995",
"1999",
"1997",
"2001"
] | A | Ans. 1995 | train | med_mcqa | null |
The preferred gingival finish line for veneer metal restoration is | [
"Shoulder",
"Chamfer",
"Shoulder with bevel",
"Radial shoulder"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Regarding anaplastic carcinoma, which of the following statement is true? | [
"Common in young",
"Associated with p53 mutation",
"Surrounding neck tissue is usually free",
"Radiotherapy cures"
] | B | ATC is the most aggressive form of thyroid carcinoma with a disease-specific moality approaching 100%. A typical manifestation is an older patient with dysphagia, cervical tenderness, and a painful, rapidly enlarging neck mass. Patients frequently have a history of prior or coexistent DTC, and up to 50% have a history of goitre. Findings may also include superior vena cava syndrome. The clinical situation deteriorates rapidly into the tracheal obstruction and rapid local invasion of surrounding structures.p53 mutations are found in 15% of tumoursIt is 100% fatal if initially, it is operable thyroidectomy done. Postoperative external-beam irradiation or adjunctive chemotherapy adds little to the overall prognosis but should be consideredRef: Sabiston 20e, page no: 933 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Dementia of Alzheimer's type is not associated with one of the following : | [
"Depressive symptoms",
"Delusions",
"Apraxia and aphasia",
"Cerebral infarcts"
] | D | D i.e.Cerebral infarcts | train | med_mcqa | null |
Turcot’s syndrome is not associated with | [
"polyps",
"CHRPE",
"Brain tumors",
"Odontome"
] | D | Odontone is associated with garderner syndrome. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most common viral infection after Kidney Transplantation is: | [
"EBV",
"HSV",
"CMV",
"HBV"
] | C | Answer is C (CMV): CMV is the most common viral infection after Kidney Transplantation. 'CMV is the single most impoant viral infection in renal transplant recipients'- Critical Care Nephrology | train | med_mcqa | null |
Griesinger's sign is observed in which of the following condition? | [
"Abducent nerve paralysis",
"Otosclerosis",
"Lateral sinus thrombosis",
"Petrositis"
] | C | Griesinger's sign: Erythema and oedema posterior to the mastoid process resulting from septic thrombosis of the mastoid emissary vein. It is seen in lateral sinus thrombosis. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is the best inotrope agent for use in Right Hea Failure Secondary to pulmonary hypeension- | [
"Dobutamine",
"Digoxin",
"Milrinone",
"Halothane"
] | C | Milrinone, commonly known and marketed under the brand name Primacor, is a medication used in patients who have hea failure. It is a phosphodiesterase 3 inhibitor that works to increase the hea's contractility and decrease pulmonary vascular resistance. Milrinone also works to vasodilate which helps allete increased pressures (afterload) on the hea, thus improving its pumping action. While it has been used in people with hea failure for many years, studies suggest that milrinone may exhibit some negative side effects that have caused some debate about its use clinically Overall, milrinone suppos ventricular functioning of the hea by decreasing the degradation of cAMP and thus increasing phosphorylation levels of many components in the hea that contribute to contractility and hea rate. Milrinone use following cardiac surgery has been under some debate because of the potential increase risk of postoperative atrial arrhythmias.] However, in the sho term milrinone has been deemed beneficial to those experiencing hea failure and an effective therapy to maintain hea function following cardiac surgeries. There is no evidence of any long term beneficial effects on survival.In critically ill patients with evidence of cardiac dysfunction there is limited good quality evidence to recommend its use Cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP) causes increased activation of protein kinase A (PKA). PKA is an enzyme that phosphorylates many elements of the contractile machinery within the hea cell. In the sho term this leads to an increased force of contraction. Phosphodiesterases are enzymes responsible for the breakdown of cAMP. Therefore, when phosphodiesterases lower the level of cAMP in the cell they also lower the active fraction of PKA within the cell and reduce the force of contraction. Milrinone is a phosphodiesterase-3 inhibitor. This drug inhibits the action of phosphodiesterase-3 and thus prevents degradation of cAMP. With increased cAMP levels there is an increase in the activation of PKA. This PKA will phosphorylate many components of the cardiomyocyte such as calcium channels and components of the myofilaments. Phosphorylation of calcium channels permits an increase in calcium influx into the cell. This increase in calcium influx results in increased contractility. PKA also phosphorylates potassium channels promoting their action. Potassium channels are responsible for repolarization of the cardiomyocytes therefore increasing the rate at which cells can depolarize and generate contraction. PKA also phosphorylates components on myofilaments allowing actin and myosin to interact more easily and thus increasing contractility and the inotropic state of the hea. Milrinone allows stimulation of cardiac function independently of b-adrenergic receptors which appear to be down-regulated in those with hea failure. Ref Davidson 23rd edition pg 467 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is the classical CSF finding seen in Tubercular Meningitis? | [
"Increased protein, decreased sugar, increased lymphocytes",
"Increased protein, sugar and lymphocytes",
"Decreased protein, increased sugar and lymphocytes",
"Increased sugar, protein and neutrophils"
] | A | Typical CSF findings in tubercular meningitis are increased protein, decreased sugar and increased lymphocytes. Ref: Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine, 16th Edition, Page 2487; Tuberculosis Research and Treatment Volume 2011 (2011), Aicle ID 798764, 9 pages. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All except one is known to cause precocious puberty | [
"Primary hypothyroidism",
"Congenital adrenal hyperplasia",
"Theca cell tumor of ovary",
"Secondary hypothyroidism"
] | D | Secondary hypothyroidism → results in hypogonadotropic hypogonadism → Delayed puberty. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Commonest presentation of neurocysticercosis is: | [
"Seizures",
"Focal neurological deficits",
"Dementia",
"Radiculopathy"
] | A | Answer is A (Seizures): "These is wide variety of presentation of Neurocysticercosis depending on the intensity of the infestation, the localization of cystecerci and the degree of inflammatory reaction. Epilepsy (seizure activity) is the most common manifestation occurring in upto 50% cases - API text book of Medicine 6th/784 Cysticercosis is infection with the larval stage (cysticercus) of T. sollum. These cysts are located in order of frequency in : CNS (Neurological manifestations are the most common) - Harrison's' 15th/1249 Subcutaneous tissue Striated muscle Globe of the eye | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is seen in PNH: | [
"Hemolysis",
"Pancytopenia",
"Thrombosis",
"All of the above"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 36-year-old woman has had increased malaise for 3 weeks and urine output <500 mL/day for the past 4 days. On examination, she has blood pressure 170/112 mm Hg and peripheral edema. Urinalysis shows protein 1+ and blood 3+, but no glucose or ketones. Urine microscopic analysis shows RBCs and RBC casts. Her serum urea nitrogen is 39 mg/dL, and creatinine is 4.3 mg/dL. Her serum complement C1q, C3, and C4 are decreased. A renal biopsy is performed, and immunofluorescence microscopy shows a granular pattern of staining with antibody to C3. Which of the following types of hypersensitivity reactions is most likely causing her renal disease? | [
"I (IgE-mediated systemic anaphylaxis)",
"II (Antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity)",
"III (Immune complex formation)",
"IV (Delayed-type hypersensitivity)"
] | C | The findings fit with the immune-mediated glomerular injury with antigen-antibody complex deposition, typical of an underlying disease such as SLE, and nephritic picture. Type I hypersensitivity may play a role in drug-induced acute interstitial nephritis. Type II hypersensitivity is present with anti-glomerular basement membrane diseases, such as Goodpasture syndrome. Type IV hypersensitivity plays a role in renal transplant rejection and some cases of drug-induced interstitial nephritis. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following drug decreases plasma renin activity? | [
"Enalapril",
"Nefidipine",
"Hydralazine",
"Clonidine"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Clonidine o Drugs which increase plasma renin activity (Diuretics, vasodilators, CCBs, ACE inhibitors) may be combined with drugs which lower plasma renin activity (sympatholytic drugs - b-blockers, clonidine, methyl dopa). | train | med_mcqa | null |
The features of OCD are A/E | [
"Irrationale thought",
"Egosyntonic",
"Resisting the idea",
"Persistence of idea"
] | B | B i.e. Egosyntonic | train | med_mcqa | null |
After a normal delivery, combined oral contraceptives can be staed for non breast feeding mother, after: | [
"2 weeks",
"6 weeks",
"12 weeks",
"Immediately after delivery"
] | B | Post paum use of combined oral contraceptives COC are contraindicated in breast feeding mothers (causes breast milk suppression) and can be staed after 6 weeks post paum COC can be used in non breast feeding mothers after 3 weeks if there are no persisting risk factors for VTE such as smoking, history of DVT, known thrombogenic mutations, peripaum cardiomyopathy COC can be safely staed after 6 weeks in non breast feeding mothers Here in this question, since there is no history suggestive of any risk factors for VTE, the better answer would have been 3 weeks, but since it is not in the options, the answer would be 6 weeks. Please note that COC should never be staed immediately post paum in any scenario since post paum period in itself is a high risk state for thromboembolism, maximum risk being in the first week. Progesterone only pills can be safely used in lactation, and can be staed as soon as contraception is required. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All are true about non-bacterial thrombotic endocarditis, except ? | [
"Cause emboli",
"Vegetation > 5 mm",
"No inflammatory reaction",
"Locally nondestructive"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Vegetation > 5 mm Nonbacterial thrombotic endocarditis (NBTE) NBTE is characterized by the deposition of small sterile thrombi on the leaflets of the cardiac valves. The lesions are small, ranging from 1 mm to 5 mm. They occur singly or multiply along the lines of closure of leaflet or cusps. They are composed of bland thrombi that are loosely attached to the underlying valve. The vegetations are not invasive and do not elicit any inflammatory reaction. Thus, the local effect of vegetations is usually unimpoant but they may be the source of systemic emboli. NBTE is often encountered in debilitated patients. It is seen in hypercoagulable states, e.g. cancer, promyelocytic leukemia, mutinous adinocarcinomas and increased estrogenic state. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Game Keeper's thumb is : | [
"Ulnar collateral ligament injury of MCP Joint",
"Radial collateral ligament injury of MCP joint",
"Radial collateral ligament injury of CMC joint",
"Ulnar collateral ligament injury of CMC joint"
] | A | Injury to the ulnar collateral ligament of the thumb metacarpophalangeal joint is commonly referred to as gamekeeper's thumb or skier's thumb.
Injury occurs by fall on hand with forceful radial and palmar adduction of thumb as seen in skiers.
It is the most common injury of MCP joint. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Atheromatous changes of blood vessels affects early in | [
"Kidney",
"Hea",
"Liver",
"Spleen"
] | B | repeated question The risk factors are Constitutional- genetic abnormalities,family history , increasing age, male gender, hyperlipidemia,hypeension,cigaratte smoking, diabetes, inflammation Myocardial infarction is the main condition | train | med_mcqa | null |
Regional organization of WHO is situated at all the following places except | [
"Congo",
"China",
"Copenhagen",
"Manila"
] | B | WHO regional organizationsSoutheast AsiaNew Delhi (India)AfricaBrazzaville CongoAmericasWashington DC (USA)EuropeCopenhagen (Denmark)Eastern MediterraneanAlexandria (Egypt)Western PacificManila (Philippines)Park 23e pg: 921 | train | med_mcqa | null |
The stage of relatively rapid eruption from the time a tooth first penetrates the gingiva until it reaches the occlusal level is called : | [
"The pre-emergent spurt",
"The post-emergent spurt",
"Circumpubertal eruptive spurt",
"Juvenile occlusal equilibrium"
] | B | Once a tooth emerges into the mouth, it erupts rapidly until it approaches the occlusal level and is subjected to the forces of mastication. At that point, its eruption slows and then as it reaches the occlusal level of other teeth and is in complete function, eruption all but halts. The stage of relatively rapid eruption from the time a tooth first penetrates the gingiva until it reaches the occlusal level is called the postemergent spurt, in contrast to the following phase of very slow eruption, termed the juvenile occlusal equilibrium.
Contemporary orthodontics, Proffit WR, Fields Jr HW, Sarver DM. 4th edition, Page 90 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which body part has maximum representation in CNS? | [
"Urinary Bladder",
"Lower limb",
"Abdomen",
"Thumb"
] | D | Somatosensory cortical areas
Primary- Post central gyrus
Association area- parietal lobe
Secondary area- sylvian fissure
“size of the cortical receiving area for impulses from a particular part of the body is proportional to the use of the part”
Thumb and lips-maximum representation
Vertical columnar arrangement | train | med_mcqa | null |
In ductus venous, the fetal blood from the placenta reaches to the liver through | [
"Poal vein",
"Right umbilical vein",
"Inferior vena cava",
"Left umbilical vein"
] | D | when there is an increase in placental circulation, to facilitate the rapid transpo of blood through the liver ,a large passage is formed between left umbilical vein and right hepato cardiac channel.This passage is called ductus venosus REFERENCE: TEXTBOOK OF CLINICAL EMBRYOLOGY... VISHRAM SINGH SECOND EDITION....PAGE NO:241 | train | med_mcqa | null |
About Neuropeptide Y all are true except: | [
"It is mediated through melanocoicotropin hormone",
"Decreases thermogenesis",
"Its level decreases during starvation",
"Contains 36 aa residues"
] | C | its level decreases during starvation As mentioned in the previous question, NPY is an Orexigenic i.e. appetite stimulant. Thus its level increases during starvation to increase food intake and reduce energy expenditure (decrease thermogenesis). NPY is a neurohormone released by hypothalamus. The hypothalamus can sense the body's state of starvation or welfed through a peptide hormone released by adipocytes -Leptin. When the amount of adipose tissue increases (signalling excess energy storage), the adipocytes produce increased amounts of leptin. Leptin acts on hypothalamic nuclei initiating multiple actions that decrease body's fat storage. These actions are: (1) inactivation of NPY-AGRP neurons decreasing production of appetite stimulators, such as NPY and AGRP; (2) activation of POMC neurons, causing release of cc-MSH (melanocoicotropin) and activation of inelanocoin receptors; (3) increased production in the hypothalamus of substances, such as coicotropin-releasing hormone, that decrease food intake; (4) increased sympathetic nerve activity (through neural projections from the hypothalamus to the vasomotor centers), which increases metabolic rate and energy expenditure; and (5) decreased insulin secretion by the pancreatic beta cells, which decreases energy storage. Thus during starvation, leptin production is decreased causing increased levels of NPY. As mentioned in the previous question, there are 2 types of neurons in the hypothalamic nuclei regulating appetite i.e. 1) NPY-AGRP neurons - which release orixogenic substances NPY and AGRP. 2) POMC (proopiomelanocoin) neurons - which release a-MSH (a-Melanocyte stimulating hormone or melanocoicotropin) and CA (Cocaine and amphetamine regulated transcript). These are anorexigenic i.e. decrease food intake and increase energy expenditure. Note that some students were of the opinion that one of the option was - `NPY and melanocoicotropin have same effect'. In that case this is a false statement as NPY is orexigenic, increases food intake. Melanocoicotropin or MSH is anorexigenic, decreases food intake. "NPY is a polypeptide containing 36 amino acid residues"- Ganong 23/e p145 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most common association with Acanthosis nigricans ? | [
"Hypeension",
"DM",
"Obesity",
"Hypothyroidism"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Obesity Acanthosis nigricans is a brown to black, velvety hyperpigmentation of the skin. It is usually found in body folds, such as posterior & lateral folds of neck, axilla, groin, umblicus, forehead. It typically occurs in individuals younger than 40 years of age. Histopathologically papillomatosis is characteristically seen; however, there is no hypermelanosis and there is only mild acanthosis, if present. It is associated with : Obesity (most common) Endocrinopathies --> Hypothyroidism, hypehyroidism, insuline resistance diabetes, Cushing's disease, PCOD, Bloom syndrome. Internal malignancy --> Gastric adenocarcinoma. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The instrument formula of a Gingival margin trimmer is 12 1/2-100-7-14. This instrument cannot be used for: | [
"Distal gingival preparation",
"Mesial gingival preparation",
"Inlay preparation with steep gingival bevel",
"Onlay preparation with steep gingival bevel"
] | B | The gingival margin trimmer is designed to produce a proper bevel on gingival enamel margins of proximoocclusal preparations. When the second number in the formula is 90 to 100, the pair is used on the distal gingival margin. When this number is 85 to 75, the pair is used to bevel the mesial margin. The 100 and 75 pairs are for inlay/onlay preparations with steep gingival bevels. The 90 and 85 pairs are for amalgam preparations with gingival enamel bevels that decline gingivally only slightly. Among other uses for these instruments is the rounding or beveling of the axiopulpal line angle of two-surface preparations.
Ref: Sturdevant's art and science of operative dentistry. 4th edition page 315 | train | med_mcqa | null |
True about Bronchial Asthma is | [
"Allergic Hypo responsiveness of airway",
"Inhaled steroids are mainstay of treatment",
"Is seen in samter's triad along with urticaria",
"IgE levels are increased in intrinsic Asthma"
] | B | Bronchial Asthma is Hyper responsive of airway.
IgE levels are increased in Extrinsic asthma and normal in intrinsic asthmsa.
Samter's triad :
Asthma.
Aspirin sensitivity.
Nasal polyposis. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Parathyroid gland can he assessed by: | [
"Thallium scan",
"Technetium scan",
"Gallium scan",
"Thallium technetium substraction scan"
] | D | Ans. Thallium technetium substraction scan | train | med_mcqa | null |
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