question stringlengths 1 6.54k | choices listlengths 4 4 | answer stringclasses 4 values | rationale stringlengths 0 22.5k ⌀ | split stringclasses 1 value | dataset stringclasses 6 values | subject stringclasses 1 value |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
All of the following statements are true regarding reversible cell injury Except | [
"Formation of amorphous densities in the mitochondrial matrix",
"Diminished generation of adenosine triphosphate (ATP)",
"Formation of blebs in the plasma membrane",
"Detachment of ribosomes from the granular endoplasmic reticulum"
] | A | Formation of Amorphous densities in mitochondrial matrix is a feature of irreversible injury and not reversible injury. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Daily insensible water loss through respiratory tract is | [
"100ml",
"200ml",
"350ml",
"700ml"
] | C | insensible water loss includes respiratory loss and water loss through skin Water loss through skin-350 Insensible loss through respiratory tract-350 Ref:Guyton and Hall textbook of medical physiology 12th edition pg 43 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Appreciation of color is function of? | [
"Rods",
"Cones",
"Both",
"None"
] | B | Ans. b (Cones). (Ref. Parsons, Disease of Eye, 19th /131; Khurana 3rd/ 250; Ganong, Physiology, 21st /166)COLOR VISION# Sensation of any colour is determined by the relative frequency of impulses for cone system# The appreciation of colors is function of cones and occurs in photopic vision.# Normal color vision is trichromatic, the basis of Young Helmotz theory of colour vision.# Other theories of color vision are:- Hering or Hurvich and James Law (trichromatic signal from cones fed into subsequent neural stage and exhibit spectral apponent and spectral non-opponent property), and- Edwin land wavelength theory.# Cones are photoreceptors tightly packed in fovea centralis where there are no rods and other layers of retina are very thin here.# Central part of fovea constitutes of cones and their nuclei largely; all other retinal layers are absent. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which form of DNA is seen predominantly. | [
"A",
"C",
"B",
"Z"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e. B form: Type of DNADNA can exist in several confirmation depending upon the base composition and under different physical conditions.These are :B- DNA (most common confirmation)A- DNAZ-DNA"Within the cells, most of the DNA is B - DNA although regions rich in guanine and cytosine base pairs may assume 2 - confirmation.A - DNA is not found under physiological condition. When B - DNA crystals are dried the long thin B - DNA molecules becomes short, stubby A-DNA". | train | med_mcqa | null |
Cyt-P-450 is inhibited by- | [
"Phenobarbitone",
"Cimetidine",
"Phenytoin",
"CCI4"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Cimetidine | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most common supratentorial tumor in children | [
"Craniopharyngioma",
"Meningioma",
"Astrocytoma",
"Oligodendroglioma"
] | A | M/c supratentorial tumor in children is craniopharyngioma. It is a suprasellar tumor.arising from embryonic rathkes pouch. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following are coverings of a mature graffian follicle, except: | [
"Theca externa",
"Theca interna",
"Germinal cells",
"Granulosa cells"
] | C | Coverings of the mature or graffian follicle are (From inner to outer) * Innermost layer is the the granulosa cells* The theca interna* The theca externa | train | med_mcqa | null |
Otomycosis is most commonly caused by | [
"Aspergillus",
"Candida Albicans",
"Mucormycosis",
"Histoplasmosis"
] | A | Fungal (otomycosis):- Caused by Aspergillus (most common) and candida (2nd most common)Rare causative fungus are Phycomycetes, Rhizopus, Actinomyces, PenicilliumRef: PL Dhingra, Diseases of Ear, Nose & Throat, 7th edition, pg no. 55 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Among the following IUCD's which has life span for 10 years? | [
"CuT380A",
"CuT200",
"Nova T",
"Multiload"
] | A | Ans. is a, i.e. CuT380ARef: Shaw 15th/ed, p227; Novak 14th/ed, p263Most of the IUCDs have an average life span of 3 years.Exceptions are:* Nova T/Multiload 375/Levonova- 5 years* CuT 380 A (also known as Paragard)- 10 years - Distributed free of cost* Progestasert- 1 years* CuT200 B- 4 years, in US and 3 years in India and in European countries* Levonorgestrel containing IUCD can be used for: (Mirona)- 7-10 years, but is approved for 5 years | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following statement is true ? | [
"Paul Bunnell test is used to diagnose measles",
"Rose Waaler test is a complement fixation test",
"Indirect hemagglutination test is less sensitive than gel diffusion test",
"Antigen antibody reaction cannot occur in the absence of electrolytes"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Antigen Antibody reaction cannot occur in the absence of electrolytes | train | med_mcqa | null |
Classical symptom of endocervical polyp is | [
"Cervical prolapse",
"Dyspareunia",
"Intermenstrual bleeding",
"Dysmenorrhea"
] | C | Intermenstrual bleeding is classical symptom of endocervical polyp. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Recognized GIT infections in AIDS include all except | [
"HSV",
"CMV",
"Cryptococcus neoformans",
"Atypical mycobacteria"
] | C | Cryptococcus neoformans usually causes a meningitis. Some of the GIT diseases in HIV/AIDS are - Oesophageal candidiasis small bowel disease large bowel diarrhoea ref - Davidsons medicine 23e pg 316 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following symptoms do you expect to see in a patient diagnosed with acute pyelonephritis | [
"Jaundice and flank pain",
"Costovertebral angle tenderness and chills",
"Burning sensation on urination",
"polyuria and nocturia"
] | B | Costovertebral angle tenderness, flank pain, and chills are symptoms of acute pyelonephritis.
Option A: Jaundice indicates gallbladder or liver obstruction.
Option C: A burning sensation on urination is a sign of lower urinary tract infection. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following are true for Bronchiolitis in children? | [
"Commonly seen in children between 1- 6 months of age, but can be seen upto 2 years",
"RSV is the most common causative organism",
"Disease usually occurs in winter and spring season.",
"All of the above"
] | D | Ans. D. All of the aboveBronchiolitis primarily affects young infants (1- 6 months some may be affected upto 2 years of age), clinical manifestations are initially subtle. Infants may become increasingly fussy and have difficulty feeding during the 2 to 5-day incubation period. A low-grade fever, usually less than 101.5degF, and increasing coryza and congestion usually follow the incubation period. In older children and adults, as well as in up to 60% of infants, respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) infection is generally confined to the upper airway and does not progress further. Over a period of 2-5 days, RSV infection progresses from the upper to the lower respiratory tract, and this progression leads to the development of cough, dyspnea, wheezing, and feeding difficulties. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Triple test for diagnosis of down's syndrome includes all of the following except : | [
"b - HCG",
"a- Fetoprotein",
"Serum HPL level",
"Serum oestriol level"
] | C | Answer is C (Serum HPL levels) Serum HPL is not included as a parameter within the 'triple test' fir downs syndrome Triple Test : It is used in the detection of Downs syndrome. Q In an affected pregnancy : - level of MSAFP is decreased Q - level of oestriol is decreased Q - levels of hCG is High (increased) Q This test only gives a risk ratio and result is considered positive if risk ratio is 1 : 2 For confirmation Amniocentesis has to be doneQ It is performed between 16 to 18 weeks.Q | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following metabolic cycles occur in mitochondria, except: | [
"Citric acid cycle (Kreb's cycle)",
"Glycogenolysis",
"Fatty acid oxidation",
"Electron transpo chain"
] | B | Citric acid cycle, fatty acid oxidation, and electron transpo chain are occurring in mitochondria. But glycogenolysis occurs in the cytoplasm. Ref: Free Radicals And Diseases: Gene Expression, Cellular Metabolism By Tilman Grune, Edition 2005, Page 43. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Average incubation period of typhoid is: | [
"2-3 days",
"5-8 days",
"10-15 days",
"15-30 days"
] | C | Ans. (c) 10-15 daysRef: Harrison's 18th ed ch-15211. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Submandibular gland is: | [
"Pure serous.",
"Pure mucous.",
"Mixed and predominantly serous.",
"Mixed and predominantly mucous."
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Glycolytic enzymes(s) inhibited by Fluoride : (PGI Dec 2008) | [
"Hexokinase",
"Aldolase",
"Enolase",
"Pyruvate Kinase"
] | C | Ans : C (Enolase) Enolase is inhibited by fluorideInhibitors of Glycolytic Enzyme -Shinde 7th/308-310FluorideFluoride inhibits the enzyme 'enolaseQNaFQ is used along with K-oxalate for collection of blood. If K-oxalate is used alone, then in vitro, glycolysis will reduce the glucose value in the sampleOther Functions of fluoride : It also acts as anticoagulant & act as an antisepticArseniteIt competes with inorganic Pi in the reaction of conversion of glyceraldehyde -3- P to 1,3- biphospho-glycerate & divert reaction in the manner in which no ATP is produced.D-gIyceraJdehyde-3-P + NAD' + PiGlycerai dehyde -3-P ---------dehydrogenase1, 3-biphosphaogIycerate + NADH + H+Iodoacetate & lodoacetamide# They bind irreversibly with the enzyme glyceraldehyde -3-P dehydrogenase & inhibit glycolysis.Bromohydroxyacetone - P# It inhibit enzyme phosphotriose isomeraseDihvd roxyacetone-PiPhosphotrioseiosmeraseD -glyceraldehyde-3-PAlso knowEnolase catalyse following reaction2 -phosphoglycerateenolase--------Mg2+ or Mn2+phosphenolpyruvateInhibitor in TCA cycleFluoroacetate inhibit aconitaseArseniteQ inhibit the conversion of a-ketoglutarate to succinyl-CoA catalysed by enzyme a-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase complexQMalonateQ inhibit succinate dehydrogenaseQ competitively. | train | med_mcqa | null |
HbA2 levels are increased in all Except: | [
"Alpha Thalassemia",
"Beta Thalassemia",
"Sickle cell anemia",
"Megaloblastic Anemia"
] | A | Answer is A (Alpha Thalassemia) Alpha Thalassemia are associated with reduced levels of HbA2 Causes of Increased HbA2 levels Beta thalassemia Sickle cell anemia Megaloblastic anemia Hypehyroidism Unstable Hemoglobinopathies Malaria (doubtful! cases) Causes of Decreased HbA2 levels Iron deficiency Anemia Alpha thalassemia Delta thalassemia Sideroblastic anemia Myelodysplastic syndromes Acute myelocytic leukemia (minor reduction) lib Lepore | train | med_mcqa | null |
The condition seen in the illustration is: | [
"Glandular form of acne rosacea",
"Form of acne vulgaris",
"Affects the scalp",
"A form of dermatofibroma"
] | A | Ans. A. Glandular form of acne rosaceaRhinophyma is a benign, slow growing tumor due to hypertrophy of the sebaceous glands of the tip of the nose. It is glandular form of acne rosacea. A pink lobulated mass is seen over the nose with superficial vascular dilation commonly in men past middle age. Bulk of tumor should be removed with a sharp knife or CO2 laser. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Direct zoonose is -a) Rabiesb) Brucellosisc) Taeniasisd) Hydatid disease | [
"ac",
"a",
"ad",
"ab"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which pa of the spine is most commonly affected in Rheumatoid ahritis: | [
"Cervical",
"Lumbar",
"Thoracic",
"Sacral"
] | A | Answer is A (Cervical): Rheumatoid ahritis commonly involves the joints of hands, wrist, elbow, knees, ankle, and feet in a symmetrical manner. Axial skeleton involvement is usually limited to Upper Cervical Spine. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All are true except? | [
"Penetration - Uncoating - Macromolecular synthesis Transcription, Protein synthesis, Replication - Assembly - Release by budding and lysis.",
"DNA viruses: Adenovirus, Human papilloma virus, Parvovirus B-19, BK and LC polyomavirus, Polio virus.",
"Gancyclovir: CMV: act on viral DNA.",
"Viruses causing congen... | B | Ans. B. DNA viruses: Adenovirus, Human papilloma virus, Parvovirus B-19, BK and LC polyomavirus, Polio virus.1. DNA viruses* Parvo viridae (ss DNA) (NE)* Adeno viridae (NE)* Papovaviridae (NE)* Hepadnaviridae (E)* Herpes viridae (E) (1-8)* Pox viridae (E)2. RNA Viruses* Picornaviridae* Rhabdoviridae* Orthomyxoviridae* Paramyxoviridae* Caliciviridae* Astroviridae* Coronaviridae* Togaviridae* Flaviviridae* Bunya viridae* Filo viridae* Arena viridae* Reoviridae DsRNA (+) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Non specific esterase is positive in all the categories ofANIL except- | [
"M3",
"M4",
"M5",
"M6"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e., M6 FAB classification divides AML into eight types Mo to M7. This scheme takes into account. (i) The degree of maturation (Mo to M.,) (ii) The lineage of leukemic blast (M4 to M7) Class Mo minimally differentiated AML M1 AML without differentiation 1 M2 AML with maturation M3 Acute promyelocytic leukemia M4 Acute myelomonocytic leukemia M5 Acute monocytic leukemia M6 Acute erythroleukemia M7 Acute megakaryocytic M2 is the most common type ofAML. M7 is the least common type ofAML Blast cells Myeloperoxidase negative Auer rods negative Express myeloid lineage antigen 3% blasts myeloperoxidase positive Auer rods positive Full range of myeloid maturation Myeloperoxidase positive Auer rods positive Maximum Auer rods Myeloperoxidase positive Both myelocytic & monocytic differentiation o Myeloperoxidase (+)ve o Auer rods (+)ve Myeloblastic o Nonspecific esterase (+) ve --> Monoblastic Nonspecific esterase (+)ve Myeloperoxidase & Auer rods (-)ve. Dysplastic erythroid precursors Myeloblasts seen in advanced, age Blasts, of megakaryocytic lineage o GP Ilb/II la or VWF (+)ve. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which is the treatment of choice for irradiation in Chordoma? | [
"Protons",
"Electrons",
"Gamma radiation",
"3D - C"
] | A | * Chordoma: * Slow-growing neoplasm * Arising from cellular remnants of notochord. * Arise from bone in skull base and along spinal cord. * Most common locations - # Cranially at clivus # In sacrum at bottom of spine * Radiation therapy: * Are relatively radioresistant * High doses of radiation required to control. * Hence, high focus radiation like proton therapy and carbon ion therapy are preferred than conventional radiation methods. * Close proximity to vital structures like brain stem, requires high precision and accuracy for any planned surgical resection. * Radiation with high accuracy and minimal damage with maximal safety is delivered. REF: DAVID SUTTON 7TH ED | train | med_mcqa | null |
Abnormal vascular patterns seen with colposcopy in case of cervical intraepithelial neoplasia are all except | [
"Punctation",
"Mosaicism",
"Satellite lesions",
"Atypical vessels"
] | C | Abnormal vascular pattern include punctation, mosaicism and atypical vessels. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All are true about acute appendicitis except: | [
"Clinically indifferent from Meckel diverticulum in children",
"Lymphoid hyperplasia may causes acute appendicitis",
"Pain shift to right iliac fossa",
"Ultrasound is more diagnostic than CT scan"
] | D | Ans: D (Ultrasound is...] Investigation L & B 26th/1206# The diagnosis of acute appendicitis is essentially clinicalThe premise that it is better to remove a normal appendix than to delay diagnosis does not stand up to close scrutiny, particularly in the elderly. A number of clinical and laboratory-based scoring systems have been devised to assist diagnosis. The most \videly used is the Alvarado score. A score of 7 or more is strongly predictive of acute appendicitis.In patients with an equivocal score (5-6), abdominal ultrasound or contrast-enhanced CTexamination further reduces the rate of negative appendicectomy. Abdominal ultrasound examination is more useful in children and thin adults, particularly if gynaecological pathology is suspected, with a diagnostic accuracy in excess of 90 per centContrast-enhanced CT scan is most use fid in patients in whom there is diagnostic uncertainty, particularly older patients, in whom acute diverticulitis, intestinal obstruction and neoplasm are likely differential diagnoses. Selective use of CT scanning may be cost-effective by reducing both the negative appendicectomy rate and the length of hospital stayImaging Harrison 19th/1987-88The effectiveness of ultrasonography as a tool to diagnosis appendicitis is highly operator dependent. Even in very skilled hands, the appendix may not be visualized. Its overall sensitivity is 0.86, with a specificity of 0.81.Ultrasonography, especially intravaginal techniques, appears to be most useful for identifying pelvic pathology in wo men. Ultrasonographic findings suggesting the presence of appendicitis include wall thickening, an increased appendiceal diameter, and the presence of free fluid.The sensitivity and specificity' of computed tomography (CT) are 0.94 and 0.95, respectively. Thus, CT imaging, given its high negative predictive value, may be helpful if the diagnosis is in doubt, although studies performed early in the course of disease may not have any typical radiographic findings."Pain is initially felt in umbilical region. After a few hours, the pain localizes to the right iliac fossa. This is called sh ifting pain of acute appendicitis"-blanipal 4A/828"Lymphoid hyperplasia narrows the lumen of the appendix, leading to luminal obstruction & later culminates to acute appendicitis'"- L& 3 26V1202Symptoms of appendicitis l&b 26th/1203Periumbilical colicPain shifting to the right iliac fossaAnorexiaNauseaCHILD REM L & B 26th/1203The diseases most commonly mistaken for acute appendicitis are acute gastroenteritis and mesenteric fymphadenitis. In mesenteric lymphadenitis, the pain is colicky in nature and cervical lymph nodes may be enlarged.It may be impossible to clinically distinguish Meckel's diverticulitis from acute appendicitis. The pain is similar; however, signs may be central or left sided. Occasionally, there is a history of antecedent abdominal pain or intermittent lower gastrointestinal bleeding."The sequence of abdominal discomfort and anorexia associated with acute appendicitis is pathognomonic. The pain is described as being located in the periumbilical region initially and then migrating to the right lower quadrant. This classic sequence of symptoms occurs in only 66% of patients Harrison 18th/2516"The classical features of acute appendicitis begin with poorly localised colicky abdominal pain. This is due to mid-gut visceral discomfort in response to appendiceal inflammation and obstruction. The pain is frequently first noticed in the periumbilical region and is similar to, but less intense than, the colic of small bowel obstruction."-L, & B 25th/ 1208-09Table (L & 3 26th ): The Alvarado (MANTRELS) score ScoreSymptomsMigratory RIF painAnorexiaNausea and vomitingTenderness (RIF)Rebound tendernessElevated temperatureLeukocytosisShift to left1112112110 Signs Total | train | med_mcqa | null |
The voice in a patient with bilateral abductor paralysis of larynx is | [
"Pubophonia",
"Phonasthenia",
"Dysphonia plicae ventricularis",
"Normal or good voice"
] | D | As both the cords lie in median or paramedian position, the airway is inadequate causing dyspnoea and stridor but the voice is good. Dyspnoea and stridor become worse on exeion or during an attack of acute laryngitis. Ref: PL Dhingra Textbook of Ear, Nose and Throat, Edition 7, page - 339 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Hysteresis in a hydrocolloid gel is | [
"Moisture absorption",
"Temperature lag between gelation and liquefaction temperature",
"Phenomenon of conversion of gel into sol",
"All the above"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Unmet need for contraception in a 35 years female is for ? | [
"Spacing bih",
"Limiting bih",
"Improve maternal health",
"Improve family health"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Limiting bih Many women who are sexually active would prefer to avoid pregnancy, but neveheless are not using any method of contraception.These women are considered to have 'unmet need' for family planning.The concept is usually applied to married women.According to the National Family Health Survey-3, Unmet need for family planning is highest (27.1%) among women below 20 years age and is almost entirely for spacing the bihs rather than for limiting the bihs.It is also relatively high for women in age group 20-24 years (21-1%) with 75% need for spacing and 25% for limiting the bih.Unmet need for contraception among women aged 30 years and above are mostly for limiting | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following statements is true regarding peusis? | [
"Neurological complication rate of DPT is I in 50000",
"Vaccine efficay is more than 95%",
"Erythromycin prevents spread of disease between children",
"The degree of polymorphonuclear Leukocytosis correlates with the severity of cough"
] | C | Neurological complications of DPT vaccine is due to peussis component. The estimated risk is 1: 170000 doses administered. Vaccine efficacy is 85%. Although several antibiotics are effective against B.peussis, erythromycin is the drug of choice Reference : Park&;s Textbook of preventive and social medicine, 24th edition.Pg no.174 | train | med_mcqa | null |
True about acute rheumatic fever is | [
"Aoic valve is most commonly involved",
"Chorea is late manifestation",
"Carditis is most common presentation",
"All patients have recurrent episode of streptococcal pharyngitis in past"
] | B | Chorea is a late manifestation of RHD. Ghai essential of pediatrics, eighth edition ,p.no:436 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Hypogonadotropic primary amenorrhoea is treated by? | [
"Gonadotropin therapy",
"Estrogens and progesterone",
"Assisted reproductive techniques",
"None of the above"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Gonadotropin therapyTreatment of Hypogonadotropic Primary Amenorrhoea:These women have FSH level less than 40 mIU/mL.Hypogonadotropinaemia leading to hypogonadism is usually the result of hypothalamic dysfunction, pituitary failure or systemic illnesses.Administration of GnRH helps to differentiate hypothalamic dysfunction from pituitary failure. In patients with pituitary failure systemic LH level will not rise after giving GnRH.Empty sella turcica, cause of pituitary failure, is characterized by herniation of subarachnoid membrane into the pituitary sella turcica.Absence of pituitary gland causes absence or low level of FSH and LH.In such patients gonadotropin hormone therapy is required for management of primary amenorrhoea. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most common cause of Acute Intestinal Obstruction in neonatal small bowel obstruction | [
"Jejunal atresia",
"Malrotation",
"Duodenal atresia",
"Acute Intussusception"
] | C | Duodenal atresia:occurs at the point of fusion between foregut and midgut .Diagnosis can be made antenatally charecteristic double bubble apperance in ultrasonography.the child vomits at bih and it is bile stained.(35% of all atresia). Jejunal atresia(15%of all atresia):early distension is lacking,but vomiting occurs early.Apple peel atresia with loss of symmetry is seen. Ref : BAILEY AND LOVE&;S SHO PRACTICE OF SURGERY,PG NO:1198, 24 th edition | train | med_mcqa | null |
Auditory coex is present in area: | [
"Area 41",
"Area 42",
"Area 44",
"Area 48"
] | A | The temporal operculum houses the primary auditory coex. This is coextensive with the granular area 41 in the transverse temporal gyri. Ref: Gray's anatomy 40th edition, Chapter 21 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Rectal adenoma is associated with ? | [
"Familial polyposis coli",
"Hypokalemia",
"Intussusception",
"Hemorrhoids"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Hypokalemia | train | med_mcqa | null |
Immediate sustained permeability in cells is increased by: | [
"Direct injury and necrosis",
"Endothelial gaps by histamine",
"Endothelial gaps by serotonin",
"Leucocyte mediated endothelial injury"
] | A | Direct endothelial injury, resulting in endothelial cell necrosis and detachment:
This effect is usually encountered in necrotizing injury, and is due to direct damage to the endothelium by the injurious stimulus e.g. In severe burns or lytic lesions.
Neutrophils adhere to the endothelium, and may also injure the endothelium.
In most instances, leakage starts immediately after the injury and is sustained at a high level for several hours, until the damaged vessels are thrombosed or repaired.
This reaction is immediate sustained response. All levels of microcirculation are affected, including venules, capillaries, and arterioles.
Endothelial cell detachment is often associated with platelet adhesion and thrombosis. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following syndromes are associated with craniosynostosis EXCEPT? | [
"Ape syndrome",
"Carpenter syndrome",
"Pfeiffer syndrome",
"Soto's syndrome"
] | D | Craniosynostosis -premature fusion of one or more cranial sutures Syndromes are associated with craniosynostosis:- Ape syndrome Crouzon syndrome Carpenter syndrome,& Pfeiffer syndrome. Soto's syndrome is also known as cerebral gigantism, and is associated with large head size. | train | med_mcqa | null |
In pediatric fracture of the body of the mandible which
of the following is true of fracture line? | [
"Downwards and forwards",
"Downwards and backwards",
"In a zigzag Line due to the presence of tooth buds",
"In a straight Line from above downwards"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
In an aphakic eye the anterior focal point from the anterior surface of cornea is about: | [
"15 mm",
"21 mm",
"23 mm",
"31 mm"
] | C | Ans. 23 mm | train | med_mcqa | null |
If annual growth rate of population is 1.2%, the population is likely to get doubled in: | [
"18--20 years",
"20--23years",
"28--35 years",
"47 -- 50 years"
] | D | Rate Annual GR % Yrs required Stationary No growth - Slow growth 0.5 >139 Moderate growth 0.5-1 139-70 Rapid growth 1-1.5 70-47 Very rapid growth 1.5-2 47-35 Explosive growth 2-2.5 35-28 Explosive growth 3-3.5 23-20 Explosive growth 3.5-4 20-18 | train | med_mcqa | null |
A pregnancy woman is diagnosed to suffering from Graves' disease. The most appropriate therapy for her would be: | [
"Radioiodine therapy",
"Total thyroidectomy",
"Carbimazole parenteral",
"Propylthiouracil oral"
] | D | Answer is D (Propylthiouracil): Propylthiouracil (PTU) is not associated with an increased risk of congenital malformations and is considered the drug of choice for treating hypehyroidism is Pregnancy. Hypehyroidism in Pregnancy Maternal Hypehyroidism in Pregnancy is usually due to Grave's Disease. TRAb crosses the placenta and if mother is thyrotoxic it must be assumed that the foetus is similarly affected The treatment of choice for thyrotoxicosis in Pregnancy is therapy with safe Antithyroid Drugs Thionamides (Carbimazole/Propylthiouracil) are equally effective in controlling Grave's Hypehyroidism in Pregnancy and are considered the drugs of choice. Amongst Carbimazole (Methimazole) and Propylthiouracil, Propylthiouracil is typically the preferred agent (Traditional drug of choice) Radioactive Iodine Therapy is contraindicated in pregnancy as it may destroy the fetal thyroid Thyroidectomy (Surgery) is rarely required during Pregnancy. When indicated preoperative treatment with antithyroid drugs and iodine is undeaken and surgery is performed during the second trimester Propylthiouracil Effective in controlling Grave's Hypehyroidism in Pregnancy Not associated with increased risk of congenital malformation (Aplasia Cutis Congenita has not repoed with the use of Propylthiouracil)) Considered the drug of choice for treatment of Hypehyroidism in pregnancy Considered the drug of choice for mothers during Breast feeding (Transferred to the milk one tenth as much as Carbimazole) Effective in controlling Grave's Hypehyroidism in Pregnancy Aplasia Cutis Congenita is a rare disorder repoed in neonates of mothers who received Methimazole (Carbimazole) during pregnancy. (Consensus: Insufficient data to establish a direct causal relationship) Considered as an effective alternative where Propylthiouracil is not available or cannot be used for any reason May be used in mothers during breast feeding at a low dose (Transferred to milk more than Propylthiouracil but usually does not adversely affect the infant's thyroid function) | train | med_mcqa | null |
True regarding pertussis vaccine is - | [
"95% of vaccinated are protected",
"Erythromycin should be given to contacts",
"Neuroparalytic Complication is seen in 1 in 15000",
"Leucocytosis is diagnostic"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Best approach for thoracic trauma is | [
"Midline sternotomy",
"Parasternal thoracotomy",
"Anterolateral thoracotomy",
"Posterolateral thoracotomy"
] | C | Here best option is anterolateral thoracotomy. Different approaches to the contents of the chest cavity are.. Left anterolateral thoracotomy : left lung and lung hilum, Thoracic aoa, left side of hea, origin of left subclan aery and lower oesophagus. Right anterolateral thoracotomy : Right lung and lung hilum, Azygos vein, Superior vena cava, Infracardiac inferior vena cava, Upper oesophagus, Thoracic trachea. Median sternotomy : Anterior aspect of the hea, Anterior Mediastinum, Ascending aoa and arch of aoa, pulmonary aeries and Carina of trachea. Indications for thoracotomy: 1.1000ml drained at inseion of chest drain. 2.Continued brisk bleeding >100ml per 15 min. 3.Continued bleeding >200ml per hr. for 3 or 4 more hrs . 4.Rupture of bronchus, aoa, oesophagus, diaphragm. 5.Cardiac tamponade. Reference : Bailey & love, 27th Edition, page no = 371. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which cranial nerve(s) is/are not involved in "Locked in syndrome"? | [
"9",
"10",
"11",
"12"
] | C | Locked-in Syndrome: A pseudo-coma state in which an awake patient has no means of producing speech or volitional movement Retains voluntary veical eye movements and lid elevation Pupils are normally reactive. Aphonic because of the involvement of pyramidal fibers Involvement of medulla leads to 9th, 10th, 12th nerves. Conscious, ale and awake as the tegmental Ascending Reticular Activating System (ARAS) is intact. Veical eye movements are intact as it is controlled by the interstitial nucleus of Cajal and the rostral pa of the M.L.F Horizontal movements are lost ,basalis pontis is involved- 6th cranial nerve involvement | train | med_mcqa | null |
Material required for vital pulpotomy for pulp preservation: | [
"Glutaraldehyde.",
"Ferricsulphate.",
"Ledermix.",
"All of the above."
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Shenton's line is a radiological line used to determine the pathology of: | [
"Hip",
"Ankle",
"Elbow",
"Shoulder"
] | A | Shenton's line is an imaginary semi-circular line joining medial coex of the femoral neck to lower border of the superior pubic ramus. Shenton's line is broken in posterior dislocation of the hip. Ref: Essential Ohopedics by Maheshwari, 3rd edition, Page 111. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is usually not seen in rheumatic heart disease? | [
"MS",
"TS",
"AS",
"PS"
] | D | Ans. d. PS (Ref: Harrison 19/e p 1547, 18/e p1930)Pulmonary stenosis (PS) is usually not seen in rheumatic heart disease.Major Causes of Valvular Heart DiseasesValve LesionEtiologiesMitral stenosis* Rheumatic feverQ* CongenitalQ* Severe mitral annular calcification* SLE, RAMitral regurgitationAcuteChronic* EndocarditisQ* Papillary muscle ruptureQ (post-MI)* Trauma* Chordal rupture/ leaflet flail MVP, IE)* MyxomatousQ (MVP)* Rheumatic feverQ* EndocarditisQ (healed)* Mitral annular calcification* Congenital (cleft, AV canal)* HOCM with SAM* Ischemic (LV remodeling)* Dilated cardiomyopathy* RadiationAortic stenosis* Congenital (bicuspid, unicuspid)Q* Degenerative calcificQ* Rheumatic feverQ* RadiationQAortic regurgitationValvularRoot disease* Congenital (bicuspid)Q* EndocarditisQ* Rheumatic feverQ* MyxomatousQ (prolapse)* Traumatic* SyphilisQ* Ankylosing spondylitisQ* Aortic dissectionQ* Cystic medial degenerationQ* Marfan's syndromeQ* Bicuspid aortic valve* Nonsyndromic familial aneurysm* AortitisQ* HypertensionQTricuspid stenosis* RheumaticQ* CongenitalTricuspid regurgitationPrimarySecondary* RheumaticQ* EndocarditisQ* MyxomatousQ (TVP)* CarcinoidQ* RadiationQ* Congenital (Ebstein'sQ)* Trauma* Papillary muscle injuryQ (post-MI)* RV and tricuspid annular dilatation* Multiple causes of RV enlargement (e.g., long- standing pulmonary HTN)* Chronic RV apical pacingPulmonic stenosis* Congenital* CarcinoidQPulmonic regurgitationValve diseaseAnnular enlargement* Congenital* Postvalvotomy Endocarditis* Pulmonary hypertension* Idiopathic dilation* Marfan's syndrome | train | med_mcqa | null |
Children from school went to summer camp got suffering from sore throat, rhinorrhoea, bilateral congested conjunctiva; causative agent is | [
"Rhinovirus",
"Enterovirus",
"Adenovirus",
"Coronavrus"
] | C | (C) Adenovirus # In children, ADENOVIRUSES cause a variety of clinical syndromes. The most common is an acute upper respiratory tract infection, with prominent rhinitis. On occasion, lower respiratory tract disease, including bronchiolitis and pneumonia, also develops. Adenoviruses, particularly types 3 and 7, cause pharyngoconjunctival fever, a characteristic acute febrile illness of children that occurs in outbreaks, most often in summer camps.> The syndrome is marked by bilateral conjunctivitis in which the bulbar and palpebral conjunctivae have a granular appearance. Low-grade fever is frequently present for the first 3-5 days, and rhinitis, sore throat, and cervical adenopathy develop. The illness generally lasts for 1-2 weeks and resolves spontaneously. | train | med_mcqa | null |
"Cattle truck" appearance on fundoscopy | [
"Central serous retinopathy",
"Coat's disease",
"Central retinal artery occlusion (CRAO)",
"Retinopathy of prematurity (ROP)"
] | C | Ans. c (Central retinal artery occlusion (Ref: Parson's 20lh/302, A K Khurana 2nd/26, 253)CENTRAL RETINAL ARTERY OCCLUSION (CRAO)# Etiology/pathogenesis- There is usually an embolus or thrombus.- A yellow cholesterol embolus (Hollenhorst plaque) on the head of the optic nerve or in a branch of retinal artery confirms the diagnosis.- The most important causes of emboli are atherosclerotic plaques of the carotid arteries, arterial hypertension, and cardiac valve lesions.# Epidemiology- The prevalence of CRAO is 0.85 per 100,000 population in one year.- It is a disease of adulthood (in the sixth decade of life on average).- More common in males than in females. Involvement is bilateral in 1-2%, with the exception of temporal arteritis and other systemic vasculitides.# Clinical features- Patients present with sudden painless loss of vision.- Usually unilateral.- Direct pupillary light reflex is absent.- Retinal arteries are markedly narrowed.- Central part of mascular area shows 'cherry-red' spot due to vascular choroid shining through thin retina.- Segmented blood column within retinal veins ('cattle- track' appearance) is pathognomonic of central retinal artery occlusion.- The arteries are thin and the segmented blood flow in the retinal arteries can be observed in acute stages of the disease.# Diagnosis- Diagnosis is made clinically.- The diagnosis can be confirmed by fluorescence angiography.# Differential diagnosis- Differentiation between arteritic (Horton disease) and nonarteritic CRAO is very important because in Horton disease the fellow eye can become involved within a few days without appropriate treatment.# Treatment- There is no consensus currently about the efficacy of different forms of treatment.- Conservative treatment: globe massage, anterior chamber paracentesis, infusion treatment with pentoxifylline, hyperbaric oxygen, intravenous rTPA, or corticosteroid injection.- Invasive treatment: selective catheterization of the ophthalmic artery with administration of fibrinolytic drugs.# Prognosis.- The visual acuity on first presentation generally decides the prognosis.- Spontaneous improvements are observed in up to 15%.Various fundoscopic appearance Appearance on FundoscopyDiagnosis1Pinkish with central area of pallorNormal disc2HyperemiaPapilledema, papillitis3Pale discPartial optic atrophy4'Chalky white' discPrimary optic atrophy5'Yellow waxy' discConsecutive optic atroph6'Shot-silk' fundusPseudopapilitis7'Champagne pale cork'fundusChronic papilledema8Pale waxy disc with 'bone corpuscles' like pigmentary changesRetinitis pigmentosa9'Cattle truck' appearance (of retinal veins)CRAO10'Ink-blot/ Enlarging dot' pattern/ 'Smoke stake' patternCentral serous retinopathy11'Flower petal' appearanceCystoid macular edema12'Cotton wool'spotsMost common abnormality in AIDS13'Tomato sauce and cheese' OR 'Crumbled cheese and Ketchup' OR 'Brush-fire' OR 'Pizza pie' appearanceCMV retinitis14.Angioid streaks# Pseudoxanthoma elasticum# Pagets disease of bone,# Ehler Danlos disease# Sickle cell disease.15.Bull's eye maculopathyChloroquine16.Severe retinal telangiectesiaCoat's disease17.'Salt and pepper' fundus# Congenital rubella, syphilis, HSV, Varicella, mumps# Leber's amaurosis# Mayous-Batten disease# Thioridazine toxicity# Cancer associated retinopathy# Carriers of Choroideremia, albinism, Retininitis Pigmentosa.18."Sea Fan" RetinaSickle cell disease19.'Candle wax'appearanceSarcoid retinopathy20.Cherry Red spots(Mnemonic: Pick My QT Bags)# Niemann-Pick's disease# Multiple sulfatase deficiency# Quinine amblyopia# TaySachs disease# Berlin's edema (Commontio retinae) due to blunt trauma# CRAO# Gaucher's disease# Sandhoff disease# Sialidosis type 1 and 221.Cherry red spotsNOT seen in CRVOIn CRVO, Rubeosis iridis develops in about 50% of eyes, usually in 3 months (100-day glaucoma), and there is a high risk of neovascular glaucoma. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following structures undergo mass contraction except | [
"Ureter",
"Uterus",
"Urinary bladder",
"Gall bladder"
] | A | Urine production by the kidneys is a continuous process. The contraction of the ureter is peristalic and not mass contraction. All other options are organs which show mass contraction. | train | med_mcqa | null |
NOT of use in bipolar disorder: September 2012 | [
"Carbamazepine",
"Phenytoin",
"Sodium valproate",
"Lamotrigine"
] | B | B i.e. Phenytoin Phenytoin It acts to suppress the abnormal brain activity seen in seizure by reducing electrical conductance among brain cells by stabilizing the inactive state of voltage-gated sodium channels. Aside from seizures, it is an option in the treatment of trigeminal neuralgia in the event that carbamazepine or other first-line treatment seems inappropriate. It is sometimes considered a class lb antiarrhythmic. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 25-year-old woman complains of low-grade fever, fatigue, and persistent rash over her nose and upper chest. She also notes pain in her knees and elbows. A skin biopsy shows dermal inflammation and granular deposits of IgG and C3 complement along the basement membrane at the epidermal/dermal junction. Urinalysis reveals microscopic hematuria and proteinuria. The ANA is positive. The development of thromboembolic complications (e.g., deep venous thrombosis) in this patient is commonly associated with elevated serum levels of antibodies to which of the following antigens? | [
"ABO blood group antigens",
"Class II HLA molecules",
"Clotting factors",
"Phospholipids"
] | D | 1/3rd of patients with SLE possess elevated concentrations of anti-phospholipid antibodies. It predisposes these patients to thromboembolic complications (stroke, pulmonary embolism, deep venous thrombosis, and poal vein thrombosis). The clinical course of SLE is highly variable and typically exhibits exacerbations and remissions. The overall 10-year survival rate approaches 90%(Because of early detection & management). -Antibodies against clotting factors (choice C) or fibrinolytic enzymes (choice D) are not involved in the clotting tendency associated with SLE. Diagnosis: Systemic lupus erythematosus | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following statements about estrogen are TRUE EXCEPT: | [
"Decreases HDL",
"Increases triglycerides",
"Increases turnover of LDL receptors",
"Increases apolipoprotein A"
] | A | Estrogen decrease plasma LDL cholesterol while HDL and triglyceride levels are raised Estrogen's known effects on the cardiovascular system include a mix of positive and negative: Increases HDL cholesterol Decreases LDL cholesterol Promotes blood clot formation, and also causes some changes that have the opposite effect Dilates blood vessels so blood flow increases (Ref. Essentials of medical pharmacology TD Tripathi 7th edition page no.307) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Tetracycline is used for the prophylaxis of: | [
"Cholera",
"Brucellosis",
"Leptospirosis",
"Meningitis"
] | A | Ans. (A) Cholera(Ref: Katzung, 11/e p897, CMDT 2010, 1341, KDT 8/e p788)Tetracyclines are used for prophylaxis of both cholera (Katzung) as well as leptospirosis (CMDT). However, if we have to choose one, we will go with cholera, as the table on pg 897 of Katzung clearly writes tetracycline for cholera prophylaxis whereas in CMDT reference, doxycycline is used for prophylaxis of leptospirosis. | train | med_mcqa | null |
An elderly woman suffering from schizophrenia is on antipsychotic medication. She developed purposeless involuntary facial and limb movements, constant chewing and puffing of cheeks. Which of the following drugs is least likely to be involved in this side effect: | [
"Halperidol",
"Clozapine",
"Fluphenazine",
"Loxapine"
] | B | B i.e. Clozapine | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 2-year-old boy who is primarily on a milk based diet presents with a history of swollen bleeding gums, lethargy and pain while moving limbs. Most likely diagnosis of this patient is: | [
"Vitamin A deficiency",
"Vitamin B deficiency",
"Vitamin C deficiency",
"Vitamin D deficiency"
] | C | Ans. C. Vitamin C deficiencyVitamin C (Ascorbic acid) is structurally related to glucose. Humans and other primates do not synthesize vitamin C. Dietary sources include vegetables (cauliflower, broccoli, cabbage) and fruits (berries, citrus fruits) Vitamin C functions as a strong reducing agent or in electron transport within biological systems. Ascorbic acid is essential for normal function of leukocytes, fibroblasts, osteoblasts and microsomes and participates in metabolism of carnitine, serotonin and folate. Prolonged vitamin C deficiency results in Scurvy. In infancy, features of scurvy are anorexia, diarrhea, pallor, irritability and increased susceptibility to infections. Subperiosteal hemorrhages and long bone tenderness (Pseudoparalysis of lower limbs) can occur; radiologic abnormalities are frequent. In older children, hemorrhagic signs predominate, with bleeding from gums, conjunctiva and intestinal tract. The diagnosis is made by presence of characteristic physical findings and history of inadequate dietary intake of vitamin C. As in this case the child is on a milk based diet which is deficient in both vitamin C and Iron. Therapy includes 100-200mg of vitamin C orally or parenterally | train | med_mcqa | null |
Mission Indradhanush is for: | [
"Non - communicable diseases",
"Family planning",
"Safe water and sanitation",
"Universal immunization"
] | D | Mission Indradhanush-for 7 Preventable diseases Tb Polio Diptheria Peusis Tetanus Hepatitis b Measles + Rota, MR, IPV, JE | train | med_mcqa | null |
Pernicious anemia associated with - | [
"Gastric pathology",
"Renal pathology",
"Esophageal pathology",
"Oral pathology"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Gastric Pathology Anemias of Vitamin B12 Deficiency: Pernicious Anemiao Pernicious anemia is a specific form of megaloblastic anemia caused bv an autoimmune gastritis that impairs the production of intrinsic factor, which is required for vitamin B12 uptake from the g ut.o Histologically, there is a chronic atrophic gastriti smarked by loss of parietal cells, prominent infiltrate of lymphocytes and plasma cells, and megaloblastic changes in mucosal cells. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Sabre tibia is associated with: March 2004 | [
"Gonorhhoea",
"Congenital syphilis",
"Renal osteodystrophy",
"Rickets"
] | B | Ans. B i.e. Congenital syphilis | train | med_mcqa | null |
Characteristic features of Rokitanski-Kuster Hauser syndrome are all of the following except: | [
"Absent uterus",
"Absent vagina",
"Anovulation",
"46-XX"
] | C | Answer is C (Anovulation): Ovaries are normal and there is no reason for. anovulation. Meyer-Rokitansky-Kuster-Hauser Syndrome Absent vagina in a non functional uterus in a normal female (who is XX) Absent uterus with vaginal aplasia may thus be a feature of this syndrome. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 55-year-old diabetic man has a long history of renal failure. He is currently waiting for an organ for transplant and has been on hemodialysis in the interim. If this man develops amyloid deposits around his joints, they are likely to be composed of which of the following substances? | [
"Amyloid-associated protein",
"Amyloid light chains",
"Beta2 microglobulin",
"Calcitonin precursors"
] | C | Amyloid deposits appear similar by light and electron microscopy, but actually represent a heterogeneous population of proteins that have a common teiary structure forming a beta-pleated sheet. Questions about the type of amyloid seen in different disease states are orites on examinations. Here are two tables to help you out: Systemic amyloidosis: Chronic active diseaseAA amyloid from serum amyloid- associated (SAA) protein from liver (choice A)Myelomas and related diseasesAL amyloid from immunoglobulin light chain (choice B)Chronic hemodialysisBeta2 microglobulin (related to high plasma levels) (choice C)Nephropathic hereditary forms (familial Mediterranean fever)AA amyloid from SAA (choice A)Cardiomyopathic hereditary forms (senile systemic amyloidosis)Prealbumin/transthyretin Neuropathic hereditary syndromesPrealbumin/transthyretin Localized amyloidosis: Senile cardiac amyloidosisAtrial natriuretic peptide-related fibrilsCerebral amyloid in Alzheimer disease, Down syndromeCerebral amyloid in Alzheimer disease, Down syndromeMedullary carcinoma of thyroidCalcitonin precursors (choice D)Isolated, massive, nodular deposits (skin, lung, urogenital tract)AL from light chains (choice B) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Genomics is defined as :- | [
"Introduction of a gene sequence into a cell with an aim to modify the cell's behavior",
"To isolate a DNA sequence and then produce its multiple copies",
"Human manipulation of genetic material by recombinant techniques",
"To characterize the complete genetic makeup (structure and sequence of genes) of an or... | D | Genomics: Is the science which strives to define and characterize the complete genetic make-up(structure and sequence of genes) of an organism. Is also known as 'Study of genomes of organisms'. Genome: Is sum total of genetic information of an individual, encoded in structure of DNA. Genetics: Is the science which investigates roles and functions of a single gene. Gene therapy : Introduction of a gene sequence into a cell with an aim to modify the cell's behavior. Gene cloning: To isolate a DNA sequence and then produce its multiple copies. Genetic engineering: Human manipulation of genetic material by recombinant techniques. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 55-year-old smoker presents with a history of five episodes of macroscopic hematuria each lasting for about 4-5 days in the past five years. Which of the following investigations should be performed to evaluate the suspected diagnosis | [
"Urine microscopy and cytology",
"X-ray KUB",
"Ultrasound KUB",
"DTPA scan"
] | A | In this case, we should suspect carcinoma of the bladder ( transitional cell carcinoma ). Smokers are at a higher risk of developing TCC. It is more common in males -TCC(3:1). They usually present with painless gross hematuria. Thus the best investigation is urine microscopy and cytology for RBC's and malignant cells.
Other investigations for TCC include IVU, cystoscopy, biopsy/resection, USG abdomen to see bladder wall, pelvis, liver, lymph nodes, CT scan, MRI abdomen.
We can also suspect renal cell carcinoma which presents with haematuria and pain; more common in males and in smokers, for which urine microscopy is done for RBC's | train | med_mcqa | null |
Presbyopia occurs as a result of the following | [
"Shoening of eye ball",
"Hardening of lens",
"Thinning of the lens",
"Lengthening of eye ball"
] | B | Presbyopia (eyesight of old age) is not an error of refraction but a condition of physiological insufficiency of accommodation leading to a progressive fall in near vision. The cause of presbyopia is believed to be due to thickening and loss of flexibility of the lens in the eye. Reference: AK khurana 7th edition | train | med_mcqa | null |
True about panacinar emphysema: March 2011 | [
"Apical region commonly involved",
"Usually presents in 6th decade",
"Alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency",
"Involves whole lung"
] | C | Ans. C: Alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency Panacinar emphysema refers to abnormally large airspaces evenly distributed within and across acinar units. Panacinar emphysema is usually observed in patients with alphal-antitrypsin deficiency Emphysema/ pink puffers: Permanent and destructive enlargement of airspaces distal to the terminal bronchioles without obvious fibrosis and with loss of normal architecture Panacinar emphysema involves both central and peripheral poions of the acinus Smoking is the commonest precipitant Breathlessness is characteristic feature | train | med_mcqa | null |
Brush which should be used for normal healthy gingiva | [
"Hard",
"Medium",
"Soft",
"Super soft"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is absent in hemolytic anaemia? | [
"Increased indirect bilirubin",
"Jaundice",
"Increased reticulocyte count",
"Increased hematocrit"
] | D | Hemolytic anaemia
Increased indirect bilirubin
Jaundice
Decreased hematocrit | train | med_mcqa | null |
In cases of medical emergencies, an invasive technique
to deal with airway obstruction is: | [
"Chest thrust",
"Abdominal thrust",
"Mouth to mouth resuscitation",
"Laryngoscopy"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Preload is determined by - | [
"Enddiastolic volume",
"Endsystolic volume",
"Ventricular ejection volume",
"None of the above"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Enddiastolic volume Factors affecting cardiac outputo Cardiac output is the product of stroke volume and heart rate. Hence any factor which affects either the stroke volume or the heart rate or both affects the cardiac output.A) Factors affecting stroke volume# Stroke volume, which is the amount of blood pumped by the heart during one stroke, depends mainly on three factors : -1) Preload (Degree of ventricular fdling during diastole) : - Cardiac preload is represented by volume of venous blood that distends the ventricle, i.e., venous return determines the preload. An increase in preload, i.e., increase in venous return results in a higher end-diastolic volume (Preload). This results in stretching of myocardial fiber and this increase in length of myofibril increases the strength of cardiac contraction in accordance with the Frank-Star ling law or Starling rs taw of the heart. According to Starling's law, greater the initial length of muscle fiber, greater is the force of contraction. The initial length of muscle fiber (length of fiber at the initiation of contraction/systole) refers to length of the fiber at the end of the diastole, i.e., end-diastolic fiber length. Thus, the factors which improve venous return increase the cardiac output by increasing end-diastolic ventricular volume and length, i.e., preload. Opposite is true for factors which decrease venous return.| Stroke volume| Stroke volumeFactors increasing end-diastolic ventricular muscle fiber length (Factors increasing venous return or preload)#Increased total blood volume#Increased venous tone#Increased pumping action of skeletal muscle#Increased negative intrathoracic pressure (e.g. inspiration)o Lying down from sitting or standing position# Sympathatic discharge causing decrease in venous capacitance by decreasing venous complianceFactors decreasing end-diastolic ventricular muscle fiber length (Factors decreasing venous return or preload)o Decreased total blood volumeo Decreased venous toneo Decreased pumping action of skeletal muscleso Less negative or positive intrathoracic pressure (expiration)o Sitting or standing (venous pooling of blood)Contractility of ventricle : - If the contractile strength of ventricle increases, stroke volume increases. Contractility is increased by increase in sympathetic discharge or circulating catecholamines (epinephrine), for example during exercise.After load (resistance offered to ventricular pumping action): - Left ventricle has to pump out blood against aortic resistance. Increased aortic resistance (e.g., high BP) tends to decrease stroke volume. Decreased peripheral resistance increases cardiac output e.g., in exercise, AVfistula or shunt, severe anemia (due to vasodialtion by anemic hypoxia), thyrotoxicosis (due to vasodilation caused by in- creased O2 consumption), and wet beri-beri.B) Factors affecting heart rate# Heart rate is predominantly under neurohumoral influence. Sympathetic stimulation increases heart rate and therefore cardiac output. Thus, sympathetic stimulation increases cardiac output massively by : (i) Increasing stroke volume by increasing contractility, and (ii) Increasing heart rate; but without increasing the end-diastolic volume. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Cold haemagglutinin is associated with - | [
"Anti IgM",
"Anti IgG",
"Anti IgA",
"Donath landsteiner antibody"
] | A | <p>In cold agglutinin disease, antibody is usually IgM which reacts with red cells poorly or not at all at 37 degree celsius ,whereas it reacts slowly at lower temperature . Donath - Landsteiner antibody is involved in paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria. Warm antibody immunohemolytic anemiaa are caused by UgH ir rarely ItS antibodies that are active at 37 degree celsius .</p><p>Harrison&;s principles of internal medicine 18 th edition 882.</p> | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the milestone develops first - | [
"Mirror play",
"Crawling",
"Creeping",
"Pincer grasp"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Mirror play o A child enjoys watching his own image in the mirror (mirror play) by 6 months. o A child crawls in the bed by 8 months. o Full creeping and crawling develop by 10 months. o Pincer grasps develops by 9 months. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The commonest gastric polyp is | [
"Hyperplastic polyp",
"Inflammatory polyp",
"Adenomatous polyp",
"Pa of familial polyposis"
] | A | .Metaplastic/hyperplastic Polyp -* Metaplastic- indicates a difference in appearance from normal mucosa. * Very minute in size- 1-2 mm. Multiple. * Common in rectum. Also occurs in other pas of colon. * Contains columnar epithelium, cystic dilatation, goblet cells, and lymphocytes. * Not a pre-malignant entity. ref:SRB&;s manual of surgery,ed 3,pg no 831 | train | med_mcqa | null |
2nd constriction in oesophagus is seen at the following site - | [
"Where it crosses left main bronchus",
"Crossing of aorta",
"At pharyngoesophageal junction",
"Where it pierces the diaphragm"
] | B | There are 4 esophageal constrictions. They are at 15cms, 22.5cms, 27.5cms and 37.5 to 40 cms, from the incisors. The second constriction is due to crossing of arch of aorta. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Transcription is the synthesis of | [
"Single stranded complimentary copy of DNA",
"Double stranded complimentary copy of DNA",
"Complimentary copy of RNA",
"Complimentary copy of rRNA"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which one of the tissues putrefies late: Gujarat 07; WB 09; Jharkhand 11; NEET 13; JIPMER 14 | [
"Brain",
"Prostate",
"Liver",
"Stomach"
] | B | Ans. Prostate | train | med_mcqa | null |
The internal pudendal aery arises from which of the following aeries? | [
"External iliac aery",
"Inferior vesical aery",
"Internal iliac aery",
"Inferior epigastric aery"
] | C | The internal iliac aery divides into an anterior and a posterior trunk near the greater sciatic foramen.Branches of ANTERIOR TRUNKUmbilical aeryObturator aeryUterine aeryInferior vesical and vaginal aery (females)Middle rectal aeryInternal pudendal aeryInferior gluteal aeryBranches of POSTERIOR TRUNKIliolumbar aeryLateral sacral aerySuperior gluteal aery | train | med_mcqa | null |
Denominator of crude birth rate is | [
"Number of death children",
"Number of living children",
"Mid year population",
"Total number of crude birth"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
About posterior cruciate ligament, the true statement is - | [
"Prevent posterior displacement of tibia",
"Attaches to lateral femoral condyle",
"Intra synovial",
"Inserted on medial side of medial femoral condyle"
] | A | Posterior cruciate ligament originates from the posterior part of the intercondylar area of tibia and inserts onto the anterior part of the lateral surface of the medial femoral condyle. It is intracapsular but extrasynovial and prevents posterior displacement of the tibia over the femur. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is ultrastructural feature of irreversible cell injury? September 2010 | [
"Formation of phagolysosomes",
"Formation of amorphous densities in the mitochondrial matrix",
"Formation of blebs in plasma membrane",
"Detachment of ribosomes from rough"
] | B | Ans. B: Formation of amorphous densities in the mitochondrial matrixIrreversible cell injuryAfter the initiation of irreversible death, the cell and its organelles sta to disintegrate, leading to rupture of the cells.Gradually, the cytotoxic edema stas to resolve and interstitial edema develops as the cell membranes disintegrate and the intracellular components become extracellular.This results in increased Brownian water motion and marked reduction in diffusion restriction.The neuronal death result in reduction of its markers (NAA) | train | med_mcqa | null |
First acceptable nomenclature for and classification of hand instruments was given by: | [
"G. V. Black",
"Marzouk",
"Sturdevant",
"Both 1 and 2"
] | A | G.V. Black among his many contributions to modern dentistry, is credited with the first acceptable nomenclature for and classification of hand instruments. His classification system enabled both dentists and manufacturers to communicate more clearly and effectively in regard to instrument design and function.
Ref: Sturdevant's art and science of operative dentistry. 4th edition page 309 | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 59 year old man with severe myxomatous mitral regurgitation is asymptomatic, with a left ventricular ejection fraction of 45% and an endsystolic diameter index of 2.9 cm/m2. The most appropriate treatment is: | [
"Mitral valve repair or replacement",
"No treatment",
"ACE inhibitor therapy",
"Digoxin and diuretic therapy"
] | A | Answer is A (Mitral valve repair or replacement) "Surgical treatment of severe MR should be considered even in asymptomatic patients or those with mild symptoms whose LV dysfunction is progressive with LV ejection fraction declining below 60%" | train | med_mcqa | null |
Oral combined contraceptive pills contain which one of the following sets of hormone : | [
"Ethinyl oestradiol. progestrogen and oestrone",
"Progestrogen and Ethinyl oestradiol",
"Progestrogen and oestrone",
"Oestrone and ethinyl oestradiol"
] | B | Progestrogen and Ethinyl oestradiol | train | med_mcqa | null |
Azzopardi effect is seen in which of the following lung tumours? | [
"Adenocarcinoma",
"Squamous cell carcinoma",
"Small cell carcinoma",
"Large cell carcinoma"
] | C | Microscopic features of small cell carcinoma: Small cells, that are generally smaller than three times the diameter of a small resting lymphocyte. "Salt and pepper" chromatin High mitotic count Basophilic staining of vascular walls due to encrustation by DNA from necrotic tumor cells (Azzopardi effect) is frequently present. Expression of neuroendocrine markers such as chromogranin, synaptophysin, and CD56. Electron microscopy shows dense-core neurosecretory granules. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is the COMMONEST intraocular tumour in children? | [
"Retinoblastoma",
"Malignant melanoma",
"Teratoma",
"Neuroblastoma"
] | A | Retinoblastoma is the most common ocular malignant tumor in children. It primarily occur due to a mutation in the retinoblastoma gene at chromosome 13q14. Most of the patients presents before 3 years of age. The most common presenting sign in children is leukocoria. Other common presentations includes strabismus, red eye, glaucoma, or pseudohypopyon. Neuroblastoma arises from neural crest tissue of the sympathetic ganglia or adrenal medulla. It accounts for 10% of pediatric malignancies and is the most common solid neoplasm outside the CNS. 50% of neuroblastomas are diagnosed before age 2 years and 90% before age 5 years. Clinical manifestations vary with the primary site of malignant disease and the neuroendocrine function of the tumor. Ref: Braverman R.S. (2012). Chapter 16. Eye. In W.W. Hay, Jr., M.J. Levin, R.R. Deterding, J.J. Ross, J.M. Sondheimer (Eds), CURRENT Diagnosis & Treatment: Pediatrics, 21e. Graham D.K., Quinones R.R., Keating A.K., Maloney K., Foreman N.K., Giller R.H., Greffe B.S. (2012). Chapter 31. Neoplastic Disease. In W.W. Hay, Jr., M.J. Levin, R.R. Deterding, J.J. Ross, J.M. Sondheimer (Eds),CURRENT Diagnosis & Treatment: Pediatrics, 21e. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The period of bility of a child is | [
"150 days",
"210 days",
"270 days",
"240 days"
] | B | Viability of a child Viability means ability of a child to have separate existence after it is separated from its mother. The period of bility is 210 days( 7 months or 28weeks) ref: FORENSIC MEDICINE AND TOXICOLOGY Dr PC IGNATIUS THIRD EDITION PAGE 347 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Corporobasal index is useful for determination of: | [
"Race",
"Age",
"Stature",
"Sex"
] | D | Corporobasal Index is an index used for testing sexual divergence based on differences between male and female sacrum. Ref: Journal of Anatomical Society of India 52(2) (2003), Pages 132-136; The Essentials of Forensic Medicine and Toxicology By Dr K S Narayan Reddy, 27th Edition, Pages 56, 57 | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the folowing are FALSE about Erb's paralysis EXCEPT? | [
"Supination of forearm",
"Injury to lower trunk of Brachial Plexus",
"Inability to initiate abduction",
"Decreased sensation on medial side of hand"
] | C | Injury to the upper trunk of brachial plexus causes Erb's paralysis. Nerve roots involved = C5 - C6 Muscles paralysed - Biceps brachii Brachialis Deltoid Brachioradialis Supraspinatus Infraspinatus paly Supinator Deformity: k/a - policeman / poer / waiter's tip hand Arm hangs by the side, adducted & medially rotated Forearm extended & pronated Disability: loss of the fall movements: Abduction & lateral rotation of arm at shoulder Bicep with supinator jerk lost Sensory loss over small area of deltoid. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The clinical diagnosis of threatened aboion is presumed when a bloody vaginal discharge appears through a closed cervical os during: | [
"First half of pregnancy",
"Second half of pregnancy",
"Third trimester",
"All"
] | A | A;First half of pregnancy | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following intrinsic laryngeal muscles is NOT derived from branchial arch VI: | [
"Cricoarytenoid muscle",
"Interarytenoid muscle",
"Thyroarytenoid muscle",
"Cricothyroid muscle"
] | D | Ans. (d) Cricothyroid muscleRef: Inderbir Singh's Embroyology, 7th ed. /119-120* All intrinsic laryngeal muscles is derived from branchial arch VI EXCEPT cricothyroid muscle.* Cricothyroid muscle is derived from branchial arch IV. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Decrease in gastric acid secretion by all except - | [
"Ranitidine",
"Omeprazole",
"Sucalfate",
"Perenzepine"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., SucralfateDrugs for peptic ulcer1. Reduce gastric acid secretiunH, antihistaminic - Cimetidine, Ranitidine, Famotidine, Roxatidine.Proton pump inhibitors - Omeprazole; Lansoprazole. Pantoprazole, Rabeprazole, Esomeprazole.Anticholinergics - Pirenzepine, propantheline, oxyphenonium.Prostaglandin analogue - Misoprostol, enprostil, rioprostih2. Neutralization of gastric acid (antacids)Systemic - Sodium bicarbonate, sodium citrate.Non systemic - Magnesium hydroxide, Mag. trisilicate. aluminium hydroxide, Magaldrate. calcium carbonate.3. Ulcer protectivesSucralfate, colloidal bismuth subcitrate, Prostaglandin analogue.4. Anti H. pylori durgsAmoxicillin, clarithromycin, metronidazole, Tinidazole. tetracycline. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A graft from an identical twin | [
"Allograft",
"Autograf",
"Isograft",
"Xenograft"
] | C | Allograft different individual same species Autograft same person Xenograt different species Isograft - identical twins REF : ROBBINS 10TH ED | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following stage of Breast Ca corresponds with following feature? Breast mass of 6 x 3 cm. size Ipsilateral supraclavicular lymph node Distant metastasis cannot be assessed | [
"T4 N3 MX",
"T4 N1 M1",
"T4 N0 M0",
"T3 N3c MX"
] | D | According to TNM staging system for breast cancer, T3: Tumor >5 cm in greatest dimension N3c: Metastasis in ipsilateral supraclavicular lymph node(s) MX: Distant metastasis cannot be assessed Ref: Hunt K.K., Newman L.A., Copeland E.M., Bland K.I. (2010). Chapter 17. The Breast. In F.C. Brunicardi, D.K. Andersen, T.R. Billiar, D.L. Dunn, J.G. Hunter, J.B. Matthews, R.E. Pollock (Eds), Schwaz's Principles of Surgery, 9e. | train | med_mcqa | null |
What is the color-coding of bag in hospitals to dispose off human anatomical wastes such as body pas : | [
"Yellow",
"Black",
"Red",
"Blue"
] | A | Human anatomical wastes such as human tissues, organs, and body pas are classified as Waste Category No. 1. They are disposed in plastic bags with a yellow color code and treated by Incineration or deep burial. Ref: Park's Textbook Of Preventive And Social Medicine By K. Park, 19th Edition, Page 649; Park's Textbook Of Preventive And Social Medicine By K. Park, 18th Edition, Page 599 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Earliest sign of pulmonary venus hypeension on chest radiograph is: | [
"Pleural effusion",
"Kerley B lines",
"Cephalization of veins",
"Kerley a lines"
] | C | Ans. Cephalization of veins | train | med_mcqa | null |
In which of the following types of leukemia is methotrexate administered for CNS prophylaxis - | [
"ALL",
"AML",
"CLL",
"CML"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
APGAR score includes following parameters except | [
"Heart rate",
"Muscle tone",
"Blood pressure",
"Body tone"
] | C | Ans. c (Blood pressure) (Ref Text book of PSM by Park 22nd/492)APGARSCALE# In 1953, American anesthesiologist, Virginia Apgar, published her new method for evaluating the newborn infant. This scoring system which became known as the APGAR scale later evolved into the standard for medical practice.# The test is administered at one minute and five minutes after birth. If there are problems with the infant, an additional score may be repeated at a 10-minute interval.# For a Cesarean section the baby is additionally assessed at 15 minutes after delivery. The table below displays the criteria used in the APGAR scale.Test0 Points1 Point2 PointsActivity (Muscle Tone)AbsentArms & legs extendedActive movement with flexed arms & legsPulse (Heart Rate)AbsentBelow 100 bpmAbove 100 bpmGrimace (Response Stimulation or Reflex Irritability)No responseFacial grimaceSneeze, cough, pulls awayAppearance(Skin Color)Blue-gray, pale all overPink body and blue extremitiesNormal over entire body - Completely pinkRespiration(Breathing)AbsentSlow, irregularGood, crying# After the infant is examined, the scores are totaled.# A score of 7-10 is considered normal.# A newborn with a score of 4-7 may require additional resuscitative measures while a score of 3 and below necessitates immediate medical attention.# It is important to remember that the APGAR score is strictly used to determine the newborn's immediate condition at birth and does not necessarily reflect the future health of the baby. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following are associated with Bladder cancer | [
"Naphthylamines",
"Nickel",
"Arsenic",
"Lead"
] | A | Now following has been mentioned as possible bladder carcinogens:
b-napthylamines
Benzidine
Paraamino-diphenyl
Auramine
Magenta | train | med_mcqa | null |
Blood gas measurements of a patient shows the following values pH 7.2, pCO2 80 mm Hg, p02 46 mm Hg. Which of the following could be the most probable diagnosis: | [
"Acute asthma",
"Acute exacerbation of COPD",
"ARDS",
"Severe pneumonia"
] | B | Answer is B (Acute exacerbation of COPD): The patient in question is presenting with type II Respiratory failure (Decreased PaO2 and increased PaCO2) which indicates an obstructive lung disease. Amongst the options provided Asthma and COPD, both are examples of obstructive lung diseases. Obstructive lung disease with elevated PCO2 is more characteristic and common in acute exacerbations of COPD than in Acute Asthma and hence acute exacerbation of COPD is the single best answer of choice. Acute Asthma and COPD are both examples of Obstructive lung diseases. Both conditions may present with the above picture but an elevated PCO2 is more characteristic of COPD than asthma | train | med_mcqa | null |
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