question stringlengths 1 6.54k | choices listlengths 4 4 | answer stringclasses 4 values | rationale stringlengths 0 22.5k ⌀ | split stringclasses 1 value | dataset stringclasses 6 values | subject stringclasses 1 value |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
Cobra head sign on IVP is classically seen with | [
"Ureterocele",
"Ectopic ureter",
"Horse shoe kidney",
"Medullary sponge kidney"
] | A | Cobra head sign / Adder head / Snake appearance. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Prothrombin time is useful for | [
"Detection of clot retraction",
"Platelet count",
"In hemophilia",
"For evaluation in a patient taking anticoagulant drugs"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Symptomatic neonatal CNS involvement is most commonly seen in which group of congenital intrauterine infection – | [
"CMV and toxoplasmosis",
"Rubella and toxoplasmosis",
"Rubella and HSV",
"CMV and syphillis"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
In central serous retinopathy, in the macular region, there occurs | [
"Spontaneous detachment of neuro-sensory retina",
"Macular oedema",
"Detachment of pigment epithelium",
"Detachment of choroid"
] | A | Ans. . Spontaneous detachment of neuro-sensory retina | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most sensitive test for HIV infection - | [
"Western blot",
"PCR",
"Agglutination test",
"CFT"
] | B | repeat | train | med_mcqa | null |
A middle aged female presents with prolonged history of back pain followed by slowly progressive weakness of both lower limbs, spasticity and recent onset difficulty in micturation. On neurological examination there is evidence of dorsal myelopathy. MRI scan of spine shows a well-defined mid-dorsal intradural homogenous contrast enhancing mass lesion. The likely diagnosis is: | [
"Intradural Lipoma",
"Dermoid cyst",
"Epidermoid cyst",
"Spinal meningioma"
] | D | Answer is D (Spinal meningioma): The clinical picture and MR] findings of an intradural, contrast-enhancing lesion in the dorsal spine are typical of spinal meningiontas. `The typical clinical scenario of intraspinal meningiomas is a middle aged woman with signs and symptoms of cord or nerve root compression. The dorsal (Thoracic) spine is most commonly involved. At MR1 scan, the tumor typically appears as a well-circumscribed lesion iso-intense or slightly hypotense to the spinal cord. On T1 and T2 sequences with homogenous gadolinium (contrast) enhancement' -Learning Musculoskeletal Imaging (Springer) 2010/101 Meningiomas are typically characterized by isointense homogenous contrast enhancement. Epidermoid cyst, Dermoid cysts and Lipomas do not show contrast enhancement. Characteristic Features of Benign Extramedullary Spinal Tumors: Characteristic Meningioma Schwannoma Neurofibroma Age of presentation 5th-7th decade Sth decade 4th decade Spinal level predominance Thoracic (80%) All levels evenly Cervical (66%) Multiplicity Ito 2% Rare unless NF2 associated Common Propoion or primary spinal tumors 25% -33% 3.5% Gender predominance Female (75-80%) None None Associations More commonly psammomatous or transitional histologies NF2, merlin/schwannomin gene on chromosome 22 NF1, neurofibromin gene on chromosome 17 NF1, neurofibromatosis type 1; NF2, neurofibromatosis type 2 Spinal Meningiomas: Review Spinal meningiomas are believed to originate from arachnoid cap cells of neural crest or mesodermal origin (meningiomthelial cells). Spinal meningiomas are primarily intradural tumors, although extradural meningiomas have been repoed in 3-15% of cases. Majority of spinal meningiomas are extramedullary intradural tumors.Q Spinal meningiomas are the second most common spinal intradural tumors after nerve sheath tumors (Schwannomas) Schwannomas are the most common intradural spinal tumors. Spinal meningiomas are rare in children and are primarily believed to be tumors of Adults. Spinal meningiomas can be found at any age but they are most commonly seen in the 5th to 7th decade. The mean age of diagnosis is -50 years. Most spinal meningiomas occur in woman (75-85%) Spinal meningiomas are most commonly seen in middle aged femalese Spinal meningiomas may be seen in the cervical spine, thoracic spine or the lumbar spine, but are most frequently seen in the thoracic spine. Within the spinal axis, meningiomas are most frequently seen in the thoracic/dorsal spine (70-80%) Most meningiomas are slow growing benign tumors, however higher grade tumors with more aggressive behaviour compose as many as 10% of all meningiomas. The most common and initial symptom of intraspinal meningiomas is pain'. This is followed by variable degree of neurological deterioration, causing defecits depending on tumor location. Impairment of Autonomic pathways are generally uncommon but bowel or bladder involvement can occur as late findings with meningiomas MRI is the investigation of choice for diagnosis of spinal meningiomas At MRI the tumor typically appears as a well-circumscribed lesion iso-intense or slightly hypo-intense to the spinal cord on T I and T2 weighted images. MRI typically shows intense and near homogenous enhancement after contrast (homogenous gadolinium enhancement) The 'dural tail sign ' consisting of dural enhancement adjacent to dural attachment may he seen in spinal meningiomas but this is not specific to meningiomas and may be seen in other conditions like metastasis, sarcoidosis, lymphomas etc. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Response to iron in iron deficiency anemia is denoted by- | [
"Restoration of enzymes",
"Reticulocytosis",
"Increase in iron binding capacity",
"Increase in hemoglobin"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Reticulocytosis Response to iron therapy o When specific iron therapy is given, patients often show rapid subjective improvement, with disappearance or marked diminution of fatigue, lassitude, and other non-specific symptoms. This response may occur before any improvment in anemia is observed. The earliest hematological evidence of recovery is increase reticulocytes and their hemoglobin content. The reticulocytes attain a maximal value on the 5th to 10th day after institution of therapy and thereafter gradually return to normal. The reticulocyte response may not be detectable in mild iron deficiency anemia. The blood hemoglobin level is the most accurate measure of the degree of anemia in iron deficiency anemia. During the response to therapy, the red cell count may increase temporarily to values above normal, but the hemoglobin value lags behind. The red cell indices may remain abnormal for some time after the normal hemoglobin level is restored. As recovery occurs, a normocytic cell population gradually replaces the microcytic population; and one of the early signs of response to therapy is an increase in RBW from pretreatment level. When treatment is fully effective, hemoglobin reaches normal levels by 2 months after therapy is initiated, regardless of staing values. Of the epithelial lesions in iron deficiency, those affecting the tongue and nails are the most responsive to treatment. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Assertion: Spermicides containing non-oxynol-9 provide effective protection against STDs.
Reason: Non-oxynol 9 has apoptotic effects on HIV, gonococci and chlamydia. | [
"Both assertion and reason are true independently",
"Assertion is true, reason is false",
"Assertion is false, reason is true",
"Both assertion and reason are false"
] | D | Spermicides do not provide protection against STDs. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 3 yr. old female child presented with low grade fever, poor feeding and a rash shown below described as a 'slapped cheek ' rash. Which of the following is the predominant site of action of the above causative organism? | [
"Spleen",
"Liver",
"Bone marrow",
"Nerves"
] | C | The above scenario depicts Fifth disease/Erythema infectiosum caused by parvovirus B19. It shows a characteristic slapped cheek erythematous rash The predominant site is the erythroid precursors of the bone marrow and hence parvovirus B19 is also the causative agent of APLASTIC CRISIS in sickle cell disease patients. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Virus associated with cancer cervix: | [
". HPV",
"HIV",
"EBV",
"HTLV"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Epistaxis in elderly patient is commonest in | [
"Nasapharyngeal carcinoma",
"Foreign body",
"Bleeding disorder",
"Hypeension"
] | D | The major cause for epistaxis in an elderly person is hypeension. Ref: Dhingra 7e pg 198. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The weight of placenta at term is | [
"250 gm",
"500 gm",
"7500 gm",
"1000 gm"
] | B | (500 gm): Ref: 29-D, 23-H & BPlacenta at term. The mature placenta is a Fleshy, discoid organ weighing about 500 gm usually weighing about 1/6 of the fetal weight. It is about 20 - 25 cm in diameter and 2.5 cm thickness at term, about four-fifths ofplacenta is of fetal origin. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Vidian neurectomy is used for the treatment of ? | [
"Chronic vasomotor rhinitis",
"Benign positional paroxysmal veigo",
"Meniere's disease",
"Otosclerosis"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Vasomotor rhinitis Treatment of vasomotor rhinitis includes : ? 1) Conservative treatment Avoidance of physical factors which provoke symptoms. Antihistaminics and oral or nasal decongestants. Topical or systemic steroids 2) Surgical treatment Nasal obstruction can be relieved by measures which reduce the size of hyperophied nasal turbinate : -Cryosurgery, submucosal diathermy, Linear cauterization, paial or total turbinectomy, submucosal resection of turbinate. Excessive rhinorrhoea in vasomotor Rhinitis not corrected by medical therapy and bothersome to thepatient, is relieved by sectioning the parasympathetic secretomotorfibres to nose i.e., vidian neurectomy. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is a byproduct of hydrogenation of vegetable oils? | [
"Cis fatty acids",
"Trans fatty acids",
"Eicosanoids",
"Glycerol"
] | B | Trans fatty acids are isomers of cis fatty acids which are found in naturally occurring unsaturated fatty acids. They are formed during hydrogenation of vegetable oils in the production of margarine. The configuration of groups in a trans fatty acid is such that the acyl chains are on the opposite side of the double bond. Trans fatty acids not only raise the level of triglycerides, total and LDL cholesterol but also lower the level of HDL. Hence their consumption is associated with an increased risk of cardiovascular disease. The WHO recommends that the intake of trans fats should be less than 1% of the total energy intake. Reference: Harpers illustrated biochemistry 30th edition page 213 | train | med_mcqa | null |
A patient is brought to you with alleged history of assault and on examination there are 2 wounds, one on the lower jaw and one on the shin. He claims that it was caused by a knife that the assailant had with him. On examination the wound appears like an incised wound. Which of the following findings in the wound will be inconsistent with an injury caused by sharp knife? | [
"Clean cut edges which are well defined",
"Spindle shape wound",
"Bridging nerves and vessels",
"Regular margins"
] | C | In an incise wound the edges are clean cut and well defined usually with eveed margins. The edges may be inveed in the case of incised wounds on the scrotum. In case of incised wounds bridging tissue is not seen. Bridging tissue is suggestive of laceration and is caused a pa of the body being crushed or stretched beyond the limit of their elasticity. Note: - In areas where skin is close to the bone and subcutaneous tissue is scanty a lacerated wound may look like an incise wound. Ref: The Essentials of Forensic Medicine and Toxicology by Narayana Reddy, Edition 21, Page 156, 157 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most common cause of shunt infection following a Ventriculo-Peritoneal shunt is: | [
"Staph aureus",
"Staph epidermidis",
"Strepto viridans",
"Strepto pneumoniae"
] | B | V-P Shunt: Medical device that relieves pressure on the brain by draining the extra CSF from brain into peritoneum. Used to treat Hydrocephalus Major complications of V-P shunt: Occlusion --> characterized by headache, papilledema, emesis, mental status changes. Bacterial infection --> characterized by fever, headache, meningismus. MCC --> Staph epidermidis | train | med_mcqa | null |
Fetal abdominal circumference is measured at the level of : | [
"Stomach and umbilical vein, perpendicular to spine",
"Kidneys",
"Stomach parallel to spine",
"Liver and spleen"
] | A | Abdominal Circumference (AC) is measured in the transverse section of the fetal abdomen at the level of the fetal stomach and the umbilical poion of the poal vein.This is usually affected in IUGR and is less useful in dating as it is the parameter most affected by fetal growth. Refer page no 479 of Text book of obstetrics,sheila balakrishnan 2 nd edition. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Following statements are true with respect to &;discharge of blood from nipple&; EXCEPT | [
"It is occasionally normal",
"Suggests duct papilloma",
"Suggests carcinoma breast",
"Always needs fuhur evaluation"
] | A | .DUCT PAPILLOMA * Commonest cause of bloody discharge from nipple * It is usually single, from a single lactiferous duct * It blocks the duct causing ductal dilatation Clinical Features * Papilliferous swelling (projection), usually seen near the nipple orifice. * Blood stained discharge from the nipple is common. * But serous or serosanguinous discharge can also occur. * Single papilloma is not premalignant. * But multiple papillomas in many ducts can be premalignant. ref:SRB&;s manual of surgery,ed 3,pg no 466 | train | med_mcqa | null |
QRS complex is due to: September 2008 | [
"Ventricular repolarization",
"Atrial depolarization",
"Conduction through AV node",
"Ventricular depolarization"
] | D | Ans. D: Ventricular depolarizationQRS complex is due to ventricular depolarization and atrial repolarization. Normal duration is 0.08 sec. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The most effective medical treatment of nasal polypi is: | [
"Topical decongestant nasal drops",
"Anti-histaminic",
"Topical steroids",
"Non-steroid anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)"
] | C | Topical corticosteroids cause regression of nasal polypi. Anti-histaminic do not help in regressing polypi. NSAIDs can actually lead to formation of nasal polypi. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Regarding Fordyce spots – a) Represent internal malignancyb) Ectopic sebaceous glandsc) Present in axillaed) Found in healthy peoplee) Are erythematous | [
"c",
"d",
"bd",
"ac"
] | C | Fordyce's spot represents ectopic sebaceous glands.
Fordyce's spt is totally benign condition which occurs in normal people.
Sites of involvement → lips (most common), oral mucosa (second most common), vulva & Penis. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is uncommon symptom of deficiency of vitamin A: September 2010 | [
"Night blindness",
"Xerophthalmia",
"Keratomalacia",
"Polyneuropathy"
] | D | Ans. D: Polyneuropathy The most common cause of blindness in developing countries is vitamin A deficiency (VAD). Vitamin A is required for vision, maintenance of integrity of epithelial linings, growth and immunity. Deficiency leads to night blindness, dryness of the conjunctiva and cornea and finally liquefactive necrosis (keratomalacia) and ulceration of the cornea. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All are pathogens associated with pneumonia in chronic alcoholism, EXCEPT: | [
"Streptococcus pneumoniae",
"Oral anaerobes",
"Acinetobacter spp",
"H.influenzae"
] | D | The pathogens known to cause pneumonia in patients with chronic alcoholism are: Streptococcus pneumoniae Oral anaerobes Klebsiella pneumoniae Acinetobacter spp Mycobacterium tuberculosis Ref: Harrison, E-18, P-2132 | train | med_mcqa | null |
For which malignancy, intensity modulated radiotherapy (IM) is the most suitable? | [
"Lung",
"Prostate",
"Leukemias",
"Stomach"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Prostate Intensity modulated radiation therapy (IM) is an advanced mode of high precision radiotherapy that utilizes computer controlled X-ray accelarators to deliver precise radiation doses to a malignant tumour or specific areas within the tumour. The radiation dose is designed to conform to the three dimensional (3-D) shape of the tumour by modulating or controlling the intensity of the radiation beam to focus a higher radiation dose to the tumour while minimizing exposure to surrounding tissues. Note :IM can be used to treat lung cancers, but there are several technical reasons to delay the widespread use of 1M for lung Ca at this time. Currently Intensity moiilated radiotherapy is being used to treat cancers of: Prostate Gynaecologic cancers Head & Neck Liver Breast Brain Thyroid Lymphomas Lung Sarcomas | train | med_mcqa | null |
Lepromin test is positive in: March 2004 | [
"Syphilis",
"TB",
"Lepromatous leprosy",
"Tuberculoid Leprosy"
] | D | Ans. D i.e. Tuberculoid Leprosy | train | med_mcqa | null |
Lung is characteristically involved in - | [
"Churg-Strauss syndrome",
"HSP",
"PAN",
"ITP"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Churg-Strauss syndromeChurg- strauss syndrome o Also known as allergic granulomatosis and angitis.o It is a medium and small size vasculitis, invoves mainly the blood vessels of lungs, GIT, peripheral nerves, hea, skin, kidney.o As it is allergic, vasculitis it is associated with eosinophilia and asthma.o It is granulomatous necrotizing vasculitis.o It is associated with p-ANCA.StagesThis disease has three distinct stages ?o Stage l --> Involves the sinuses and the onset of allergies ---> nasal polyp, allergic rhinitis.o Stage 2 --> Acute asthma occurs.o Stage 3 --> The third and final stage involves the various organ systems -1. Peripheral nervous system --> Mononeuritis multiplex with severe neural pain.2. Skin -3 Palpable purpura, papules, ulcer, vesiculobillous lesion.3. Hea --> CHF4. Kidney Pauciimmune glomerulonephritis.5. Joints --> Migratory ahritis.6. Ear Conductive deafness.7. There is eosinophilia and raised IgE as occur with allergic conditions.8. Lung --> Nonfixed migratory pulmonary infiltrates. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following statements about Hairy cell leukaemia are true except: | [
"Splenomegaly is conspicuous",
"Results from an expansion of neoplastic T lymphocytes",
"Cells are positive for Tarate Resistant Acid phosphatase",
"The cells express CD25 consistently"
] | B | Answer is B (Results from an expansion of Neoplastic T lymphocytes) Hairy cell leukemia ica 'B' cell neoplasm and is characterked by expansion of neoplasticB cells (not T lymphocytes) Hairy cell leukemia: Hairy cell leukemia is a rare but distinctive form of chronic B cell leukemia that derives its name from the appearance of fine 'hair like projectionsdeg on the leukaemic cells (large B cells) * Characteristic cytochemical feature: Presence of tarate resistant acid phosphatase 'TRAP' 0 in neoplastic B cells * Cellular features/ Markers * Hairy cells express the pan B cell markers CD 19 and CD 20 and monocyte associated antigen CD 11 * Plasma cell associated antigen ( PCA-1) is also present - Robbins * Expression of CD 25, IL2 and specific adhesion molecules - Harrison 14th/695 * Clinical features * Present predominantly in the older age group > 40 yearsdeg result largely from infiltration of bone * Massive splenomegalydeg (hepatomegaly is less common) marrow liver and spleen * Lymphadenopathy * PancytopeniaQ * Recurrent infections * Treatment Q * Current treatment of choice is with purine analogues - Cladribinedeg * Other drugs used - Pentostotindeg - Interferon c(0 * Splenectomy used to be the standard treatment earlier | train | med_mcqa | null |
What is TRUE regarding Barrett's esophagus - | [
"Seen in females",
"Premalignant condition",
"Responds to conservative management",
"Squamous metaplasia is seen"
] | B | About option (a)
Barrett's esophagus is more common in men than in women (3 : 1 ratio)
About option (c)
Schwartz surgery and CSDT writes that Barrett's esophagus can be reversed but only with antireflux surgery (response to medications is not good). Read below lines from CSDT (13/e p438) Schwartz (9/e p841): CSDT writes-"A fundoplication may promote regression of the columnar epithelium. Many studies have shown that regression occurs in 15-50% of patients when the length of the Barrett segment is less than 3 cm."
Schwartz writes- "The common belief that Barrett's epithelium cannot be reversed is likely false. DeMeester and associates reported that, after antireflux surgery, loss of IM (intestinal metaplasia) in patients with visible BE was rare, but occurred in73% of patients with inapparent IM of the cardia. This suggests that the metaplastic process may indeed be reversible if reflux is eliminated early in its process, that cardiac mucosa is dynamic, and that, as opposed to IM extending several centimeters into the esophagus, IM of the cardia is more likely to regress following antireflux surgery.
Gurski and colleagues reviewed pre- and posttreatment endoscopic biopsies from 77 Barrett's patients treated surgically and 14 treated with PPIs. Histopathologic regression occurred in 28 of 77 patients (36.4%) following antireflux surgery, and in one of 14 (7.1%) patients treated with PPlsalone (P <.03). After surgery, regression from low-grade dysplastic to nondysplastic BE occurred in 17 of 25 (68%) patients and from IM to no IM in 11 of 52 (21.2%) patients. Both types of regression were significantly more common in short- (<3 cm) compared to long-segment (>3 cm) BE.
Although these studies do not conclusively prove the ability of antireflux surgery to reverse the changes of early BE, they do provide encouragement that, given early changes, the process may indeed be reversible."
More about the tit of Barret's oesophagus
First, the natural course of Barrett's oesophagus.
- Barrett's esophagus develops during healing of erosive esophagitis with continued acid reflux and the Barrett's esophagus progresses through a dysplastic stage before developing into adenocarcinoma. The stages are
- Erosive esophagitis → Metaplasia (Barrett's esophagus) → Low grade dysplasia → high grade dysplaisa → Adenocarcinoma
Treatment of Barrett's esophagus is same as for reflux esophagitis → Conservative (antacids, H2 blocking agents, elevation of the head of bed, and avoidance of smoking and alcohol etc.) and Anti-reflux surgery (Nissen's fundoplication is anti-reflux procedure of choice)
As there is substantial increased risk of cancer with Barrett's esophagus, a regular follow-up with endoscopy and biopsy is done. This allows detection of cancer at an early stage with improved long-term survival after resection
In the absence of dysplasia → Surveillance endoscopy every 12-24 months.
In the presence of low-grade dysplasia →
Patients with low grade dysplasia should be treated for 12 weeks with high-dose acid suppression therapy and then biopsy repeated. (the rationale for this approach is to decrease the mucosal inflammation by blocking acid secretion, allowing the pathologist a more accurate reading),If the repeated biopsy show metaplasia or high-grade dysplasia, the patient should be managed accordingly. If repeated low-grade dysplasia is seen- surveillance endoscopy is done every 6-12 months.
If high grade dysplasia is detected (the diagnosis must be confirmed by two experienced pathologist) → esophagectomy with removal of all columnar lined epithelium
or
if resection is not done, then the patient should be strictly followed at 3 monthly interval. If cancer is detected resection is done.
Rationale for esophagectomy in high grade dysplasia is based on the following considerations-
(a) cancer is already present in about 30 to 50% of patients operated for high grade dysplasia.
(b) cancer develops in about 50% fo patients during follow up.) | train | med_mcqa | null |
The concentration of O2 in adequate anaesthesia is – | [
"15%",
"18%",
"33%",
"50%"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
In a child with respiratory distress, failure to thrive. His sweat chloride leveles were estimated 35 meq/L and 41 meq/L. What is next best test to do cystic fibrosis for diagnosis aEUR' | [
"Nasal transmembrane potential difference",
"DNA analysis AF 508 mutation",
"CT chest",
"72 hour fecal fat estimation"
] | C | Trans epithelial nasal potential difference Diagnosis of cystic fibrosis Sweat chloride testing The sweat test is the standard approach to diagnosis. The diagnosis is made by elevated sodium and chloride level in the sweat > 60 meoll. Two tests on different days are required .for accurate diagnosis. A normal sweat chloride dose not exclude the diagnosis. Genotyping and other tests such as measurement of nasal membrane potential difference, pancreatic .function should be done if there is high clinical suspicion of cystic fibrosis. Nasal potential difference Measurement of nasal transepithelial potential difference in vivo can be useful adjunct in the diagnosis of cystic fibrosis. Individuals with cystic fibrosis demonstrate a significantly more negative baseline nasal potential difference, with the topical application of amiloride there is loss of this potential difference. Nasal potential difference is a sensitive test of electrolyte transpo (CFTR) function that can be used to suppo or refute a diagnosis of cystic fibrosis. Genetic analysis Cystic .fibrosis is an autosomal recessive disorder. It is caused due to defect in CFTR (Cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator) protein. Cystic fibrosis is associated with large number of mutations. More than 1500 CFTR polymoiphisms are associated with cystic fibrosis syndrome. The most prevalent mutation of CFTR is the deletion of single phenylalanine residue at amino acid 4.508 This mutation is responsible for high incidence of cystic fibrosis in nohern European populations. Approximately 50% of individuals with CF who are of nohern European ancestry are homozygous for 4.508 and > 70% carry at least one 4.508 gene. The remainder of patients has an extensive array of mutation, none of which has prevalence of more than several percent. Testing for cystic .fibrosis mutation was not possible because of the large no. of mutations associated with the disease. Now days commercial laboratories test for 30-80 of the most common CFTR mutations. This testing identifies > 90% individuals who carry 2 CF mutations. No where it is mentioned in the texts that testing only for 4508 is enough for diagnosis. Detection of atleast 2 CF mutations are necessary for making the diagnosis of cystic fibrosis. The patient has features of cystic fibrosis but sweat chloride levels are normal. - To diagnose cystic .fibrosis in this patient, another laboratory evidence demonstrating CFTR dysfunction is required. This can be done by two methods:? - Demonstrating abnormal potential difference - Demonstrating abnormal CF mutations. But the diagnostic criteria for cystic fibrosis requires. - Demonstration of two CF mutations (demonstration of single abnormal F508 mutation is not enough) So we are left with abnormal nasal potential difference. - It is an established laboratory evidence for CFTR dysfunction and is accepted as a diagnostic criteria to establish the diagnosis of cystic fibrosis. Diagnostic criteria for cystic fibrosis Presence of typical clinical features (respiratory, G.LT, genitourinary) OR A history of CF in a sibling OR A positive newborn screening test PLUS Laboratory evidence for CFTR Dysfunction Two elevated sweat chloride concentrations obtained on separate days OR Identification of two CF mutations OR An abnormal nasal potential difference | train | med_mcqa | null |
Palpable plaque with curved penis pointing to the side of plaque is a feature of | [
"Peyronies disease",
"Condyloma acuminate",
"Penile carcinoma",
"Hypospadias"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Peyronies disease * Unyielding palpable plaque in penis with erect penis bent, often dramatically, towards the side of the plaque is a feature of peyronies disease.Peyronie's disease* Peyronie's disease is a common cause of deformity of the erect penis.* Hard plaques of fibrosis can usually be palpated in the tunica of one or both corpora cavernosa. The plaques may be calcified.* The presence of the unyielding plaque tissue within the normally elastic wall of the corpus cavernosum causes the erect penis to bend, often dramatically, towards the side of the plaque.* The aetiology is uncertain but it may be a result of past trauma - there is an association with Dupuytren's contracture.* Disease may continue to progress or remit after 3-5 years.* When the deformity of the penis is causing distress, it may be possible to straighten it by placing non- absorbable sutures in the corpus cavernosum opposite the plaque. This reduces the elasticity in this region to balance that caused by the plaque (Nesbitt's operation). | train | med_mcqa | null |
For retraction of maxillary anteriors by 1 mm, space required is? | [
"1 mm",
"2 mm",
"0.5 mm",
"1.5 mm"
] | B | For every 1 mm of decrowding, same amount required for alignment.
For every 1 mm of leveling the curve of spee, 0.5 mm space required in the arch.
For every 1 mm of incisor retraction, 2 mm space required. | train | med_mcqa | null |
On sectioning of an organ at the time of autopsy, afocal, wedge-shaped firm area is seen accompaniedby extensive hemorrhage, with a red appearance. Thelesion has a base on the surface of the organ. Thisfindings is typically of | [
"Lung with pulmonary thromboembolism",
"Hea with coronary thrombosis",
"Liver with hypovolemic shock",
"Kidney with septic embolus"
] | A | . Lung with pulmonary thromboembolism | train | med_mcqa | null |
Maxwell Lyon sign is seen in: | [
"Spring catarrh",
"Dendritic ulcerative keratitis",
"Symphathetic ophthalmitis",
"Angular conjunctivitis"
] | A | Spring catarrh | train | med_mcqa | null |
Wheat is deficient in which of the following amino acid | [
"Methionine and Lysine",
"Lysine and threonine",
"Threonine and Methionine",
"Arginine and Lysine"
] | B | Cereals deficient in Lysine & threonine.
Pulses deficient in Methionine & cyteine.
Maize deficient in tryptophan & Lysine. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Pyle's disease has, | [
"Epiphyseal dysplasia",
"Metaphyseal dysplasia",
"Diaphyseal dysplasia",
"Sclerosis of cortex"
] | B | Pyle's disease has - Metaphyseal dysplasia.
Engelmann's disease has - Diaphyseal dysplasia. | train | med_mcqa | null |
MYD88 L265P mutation is seen in? | [
"Hairy cell leukemia",
"Waldenstrom Macroglobulinemia",
"Multiple Myeloma",
"AML"
] | B | Ans. (b) Waldenstrom MacroglobulinemiaMYD88 (L265P) mutation is detectable in all patients with Waldenstro..m's macroglobulinemia, therefore representing a hallmark of the disease. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The recommended level of anti-coagulation for most patients is an INR of | [
"1.0-2.0",
"2.5-3.5",
"2.0-3.0",
"3.0-4.56"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
The "Human Development Index" focuses on all of the following except? | [
"Infant mortality",
"Life expectancy at birth",
"Knowledge and education",
"Gross National Income"
] | A | Human Development Index (HDI) is defined as "a composite index focusing on three basic dimensions of human development to lead a long and healthy life measured by life expectancy at birth; the ability to acquire knowledge, measured by mean years of schooling and expected years of schooling; and the ability to achieve a decent standard of living, measured by gross national income per capita in PPP US $. Thus the concept of HDI reflects achievements in the most basic human capabilities, viz, leading a long life, being knowledgeable and enjoying a decent standard of living. Hence, these three variables have been chosen to represent those dimensions. The HDI is a more comprehensive measure than per capita income. Income is only a means to human development, not an end. Nor is it a sum total of human lives. Thus by focussing on areas beyond income and treating income as a proxy for a decent standard of living. the HDI provides a more comprehensive picture of human life than income does. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Characteristic skin lesion in Peutz -Jeghers syndrome is | [
"Freckles",
"Lentigens",
"Adenoma sebaceum",
"Cafe -au- lait macules"
] | B | Peutz Jegher syndrome. Peutz-Jeghers syndrome- Autosomal dominant - Lentigens (increased melanocytes leading to hyperpigmented macules) - Site of lentigen - Perioral(lips),Buccal mucosa - Associated with GI polyp. (MC : Jejunal hamaoma)Freckles /ephelides* It is increased localized melanogenesis.* Normally seen in fairer skin colour (Skin type I,II)* Become dark on sun exposure Adenoma Sebaceum is seen in Tuberous sclerosis aka epiloia Cafe au lait macules is seen in Neurofibromatosis (dark color lesion over lighter skin). | train | med_mcqa | null |
The predominant immunoglobulin in saliva is | [
"IgA",
"IgD",
"IgE",
"IgG"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
OCPs are absolutely contraindicated in: | [
"Smoking > 10 cigarettes a day",
"Active liver disease",
"Diabetes mellitus",
"Mild hypeension"
] | B | Contraindications to combined OCPs: Absolute contraindications Relative contraindications Cancer breast and genitals Liver disease Uterine bleeding (undiagnosed abnormal) Thromboembolism (past or current) Cardiac anomalies Hyperlipidemia (Congenital) [MNEMONIC: CLUTCH) Pregnancy Age > 40 years Age > 35 and smoking Mild hypeension Chronic renal disease Epilepsy Migraine 0-6 months lactating mother Diabetes mellitus Gall bladder disease History of infrequent beeding / amenorrhoea | train | med_mcqa | null |
Disease having autosomal recessive inheritance -a) Cystic fibrosisb) Hydrocephalusc) Duchene muscular dystrophyd) Albinisme) Vitamin D resistant ricket | [
"b",
"ad",
"ac",
"ab"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Neurogenic shock in acute spinal injury is due to | [
"Loss of sympathetic tone",
"Loss of parasympathetic tone",
"Increased hea rate",
"Vasovagal attack"
] | A | Neurogenic shock presents with hypotension, anormal hea rate or bradycardia and warm peripheries.This is due to unopposed vagal tone resulting from cervical spinal cord injury at or above the level of sympathetic outflow (T1/T5). It should be treated with inotropic suppo,and care should be taken to avoid fluid overloadBailey and love 27e pg: 352 | train | med_mcqa | null |
In pleomorphic adenoma mutation occurs in: | [
"PLAG1 gene.",
"PLAM1 gene",
"PLAG2 gene",
"All of the above."
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
In Japanese Encephalitis, pigs acts as - | [
"Amplifier",
"Definitive host",
"Intermediate host",
"Any of the above"
] | A | Pigs acts as an amplifier host REF:<\p> ANATHANARAYANAN MICROBIOLOGY NINTH EDITION PAGE.521(epidemiology) | train | med_mcqa | null |
All are related to criminal responsibility of insame except - | [
"Currens rule",
"Durhan rule",
"MeNaughten rule",
"Resp ispa loquitar"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Resp ispa ioquitar o Criminal responsibility of insane is judged by following rules :1. Mc Naughten rule (legal test or right or wrong test) :It states that an accused person is not legally responsible, if it is clearly proved that at the time of commiting the crime, person was suffering from such a defect of reason from abnormality of mind that he didn't know the nature and quality of act he was doing or that what he was doing was wrong i.e. a person is not responsible if he is not of sound mind.It is accepted in india as law of criminal responsibility and is embodied in section 84 IPC as - "nothing is an offence which is done by a person, who at the time of doing it, by reason of unsoundness of mind is incapable of knowing the nature of act, or that he is doing what is either wrong or contrary to law".2. Doctrine of partial responsibility - if a person is suffering from some weakness or aberration of mind (though not completely insane), he is only partially responsible for his actions, e.g. obsession states or depressions.3. Durban rule- Accused is not responsible for the act, if his act resulted from mental disease or defect.4. Currens rule- A person is not responsible if at the time of committing the crime, he did not have the capacity to regulate his conduct according to the requirements of law, as a result of his mental disease or defect.5. American law institute test-Insane lacks the capacity to appreciate the wrongfulness of his conduct or to confirm to the requirements of law, therefore he is not responsible for crimes committed.6. Norwegion system-No defendant considered insane or unconscious at the time of offence, may be punished. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following has no role in management of acute onset hyperkalemia? | [
"Intravenous bicarbonate",
"Nebulization with salbutamol",
"Calcium chloride",
"Intravenous regular insulin"
] | A | Acute onset hyperkalemia 1st line Management - Calcium chloride IV Insulin drip Salbutamol Nebulization Never CaCo3 Bicarbonate is only used when there is Metabolic acidosis present with value of pH range of 7.1 or lesser | train | med_mcqa | null |
What is the color-coding of bag in hospitals to dispose off waste sharps? | [
"Blue",
"Black",
"Red",
"Yellow"
] | A | Wasted sharps (scalpels, needles, syringes, blades, glass) are included in BMW Category 4 (Schedule I). Category 4 wastes are disposed off in Blue/white translucent bag (schedule ii) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which MRI sequence is used to detect brain edema? | [
"T1WI",
"FLAIR",
"SWI",
"DWI"
] | B | FLAIR stands for Fluid Attenuation Inversion Recovery Sequence This sequence is similar to T2 with suppression of CSF/Fluid signal so the Brain Edema can be seen better. Figure: FLAIR image showing edema in bilateral occipital lobe in a case of PRES(posterior reversible encephalopathy syndrome). | train | med_mcqa | null |
Pneumocytes are cells found in epithelial lining of: | [
"Alveoli",
"Bronchus",
"Trachea",
"Bronchioles"
] | A | PneumocytesTwo types of pneumocytes contribute to the maintenance of the alveoli of the lungsType I pneumocytes and Type II pneumocytes.These cells function to aid in gas exchange, secretion of pulmonary surfactant, and self-regeneration | train | med_mcqa | null |
Marfan's s syndrome associated with? | [
"Retinal detachment",
"Vitreous hemorrhage",
"Ectopia lentis",
"Roth spots"
] | C | Ectopia lentis REF: Khurana 4th ed p. 422, Pediatric ophthalmology: A clinical guide by Pamela Gallin Table 8-7 Repeat in June 2010 "Marfan's syndrome is the most common cause of subluxated lens of childhood" Differential diagnosis of dislocated/subluxated lens: Trauma Ectopia lentis et pupillae Aniridia Syphilis Megalocornea (X linked recessive) Marfan's syndrome Homocystinuria Hyperlysinemia Sulfite oxidase deficiency Weill- Marchesani | train | med_mcqa | null |
Seat belt injury commonly involves? | [
"Spleen",
"Mesentry",
"Femoral aery",
"Abdominal aoa"
] | B | Seat belt injury involves: Rupture ofmesentery or intestine or omentum 4 fold increased risk in thoracic trauma and 8 fold increase in abdominal trauma Shoulder belt may produce a linear abrasions Fracture of Lumbar spine | train | med_mcqa | null |
Biphasic reaction on blood pressure is seen With the administration of: | [
"Adrenaline",
"Nor adrenaline",
"Dopamine",
"Dopamine"
] | A | A moderate dose of adrenaline given by I.V produces a rapid increase in BP followed by a fall - a biphasic response. The systolic rises due to alpha 1 mediated vasoconstriction and beta 1 mediated increase in hea rate, the force of contraction and thereby cardiac output. Action on beta receptors is more persistent and as the action on alpha receptor wears off the action of beta 2 receptors gets unmasked resulting in decreased BP due to a fall in diastolic. From medical pharmacology Padmaja 4th edition page no 94,95 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Denominator in general fertility rate is - | [
"All women between 15-45 year age",
"All married women between 15-45 year age",
"Total number of live births",
"Total number of all births"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Ail women between 15-45 yr age Birth Rate =(No. of live birth during the yr/mid yr population) x 1000Crude Death Rate =(No.of deaths during the yr/mid yr population) x 1000General Fertility Rate =(No. of live birth during the yr/mid yr female population age 15-44) x 1000General Marital Fertility Rate =(No. of live births during the yr/mid yr married female population) x 1000Case Fatality Rate =(No of deaths due to a ds/no of cases due to the same ds) x 100Maternal Mortality Rate =(Total no. of female deaths d/t complication of pregnancy, child birth or within 42 days of delivery from puerperal causes'1' total no. of live birth) x 1000Still birth rate =(Foetal deaths weighing over l000gm i.e equivalent to 28 wks of gestation)/ (total live birth + still births over 1000 gms) x 1000)Perinatal Mortality Rate =(Foetal deaths weighing over 1000 gms i.e 28 wks gestation or more + early neonatal death within 7 days of birth), (to/a/ no. of live birth) x 1000Infant Mortality Rate =(No. of deaths of infants/no. of live births) x 1000Neonatal Mortality Rate =(No. of deaths of neonate/No. of live births) x 1000Under 5 mortality rate or child(No. of deaths of children less than 5 yrs of age in a given year/no. of live mortality rate = birth) x 10001-4 year mortality rate =(No. of deaths of children aged 1-4 yrs during a year,' total no, of children aged 1-4 yrs at the middle of the year) x 1000 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Who gave the basic concepts of "Analytical Psychology"? | [
"Sigmond Freud",
"Erik erikson",
"Anna Freud",
"Carl Jung"
] | D | Psychoanalysis : Sigmond Freud
Child psychoanalysis: Anna Freud
Analytical psychology: Carl Jung. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is not a feature of EDH due to burns | [
"Honeycomb appearance",
"Contains carboxyhemoglobin",
"Reddish purple in colour",
"Due to blood boiled in the diploic layer through emissary veins and venous sinuses"
] | C | EDH due to burns : Honeycomb appearance Contains carboxyhemoglobin CHOCOLATE colour Due to blood boiled in the diploic layer through emissary veins and venous sinuses It is known as heat hematoma. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The setting of posture before a planned movement is believed to be by | [
"Premotor cortex",
"Motor cortex",
"Frontal",
"Supplementary motor cortex"
] | A | Premotor cortex is believed to be involved in getting prepared the body for a planned movement, especially the control of proximal limb muscles needed to orient the body for movement. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most common pulmonary manifestation in AIDS | [
"TB",
"Pneumonia",
"Bronchiectasis",
"Mycobacterial avium intracellular"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Pneumonia Respiratory complications in AIDS Respiratory diseases in AIDS include A) Acute bronchitis and sinusitis They are caused by S. pneumoniae and H influenzae and are very common. B) Pulmonary diseases Pulmonary diseases are :- 1. Pneumonia Most common pulmonary manifestation is pneumonia : Bacterial pneumonia : It is caused most commonly by S pneumoniae and pneumococcal infection is the earliest serious infection in AIDS. H influenzae is also a common cause. P canna pneumonia : It is the most common cause of pneumonia in AIDS. Risk is greater when CD4 count less than 200/ml. 2. Tuberculosis In developing countries like India, most impoant pathogen is M tuberculosis. Other common pathogen causing TB is MAC (atypical mycobacteria). 3. Other pulmonary diseases These are fungal infections (cryptococcus, histoplasma, aspergillus), neopasms (Kaposi sarcoma, lymphoma) and idiopathic interstitial pneumonia. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Specific reason to disallow the sample for culture | [
"Sample brought within 2 hr of collection",
"Sample brought in sterile plastic container",
"Sample brought in formalin",
"Sample obtained after cleaning the collection site"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Sample brought in formalin Guidelines for proper specimen collection 1) Collect specimen before administering antibiotics or antivirals when possible. 2) Collect specimen with as little skin contamination as possible to ensure that the sample collected represents the infected site. 3) Utilize appropriate collection devices. Use sterile equipment and aseptic technique to collect specimens to prevent introduction of microorganisms during invasive procedures. 4) Clearly label the specimen container with patient's name, hospital number or other identifying number (i.e. bih date, requisition number), date and time of collection. 5) Collect an adequate amount of specimen. Inadequate amounts of specimen may yield false-negative results. 6) If a specimen is collected through intact skin, cleanse the skin first. For example, use 70% alcohol followed by iodine solution (1 to 2% tincture of iodine or 10% solution of povidone iodine). 7) Collect fluid specimens in sturdy, sterile, screw cap, leak proof containers with lids that do not create an aerosol when opened. Specimens obtained by a physician using needle aspiration should be transferred to a sterile tube or anaerobi transpo l prior to transpo of the specimen to the laboratory. If there is little material in the syringe, the physician should draw a small amount of sterile nonbacteriostatic 0.85% NaCI through the syringe and then transfer the specimen to a sterile tube. Alternatively, and ONLY if the specimen will be compromised by transferring it from the syringe, a small amount of sterile 0.85% NaCI may be drawn into the syringe prior to removal of the needle. DO NOT TRANSPO SYRINGES WITH NEEDLES ATTACHED AND/OR RECAPPED. Attach syringe cap ONLY if necessary. The physician should use a protective device while removing the needle to avoid injury and should cap the syringe with a sterile cap prior to transpoing it to the laboratory. 9) Any Micorbiology and Virology specimens collected in formalin are UNACCEPTABLE for culture. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The following are the features of anovulatory menstruation except : | [
"The only symptom may be failure of conception",
"It is usually associated with painless periods",
"May be associated with premenstrual syndrome",
"May be associated with DUB"
] | C | Anovulatory DUB is characterised by irregular cycles,sho cycles with scanty flow or periods of amenorrhoea followed by prolonged and irregular bleeding Usually due to alteration in the hypothalamic-pituitary axis.More common in extremes of reproductive life and in PCOS. There is unopposed oestrogen stimulation of the endometrium and this Oestrogen withdrawal bleeding is characteristically painless irregular and prolonged,lacking the synchronous nature of normal menstruation. Reference :textbook of gynaecology, Sheila balakrishnan, 2nd edition,page 50 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following are normal findings in a term neonate, EXCEPT? | [
"Mongolian spots",
"Erythema toxicum",
"Subconjunctival hemorrhages",
"Erythema nodosum"
] | D | Normal finding in a Term Neonate are: Mongolian spots Erythema toxicum Stork bites Milia Peeling of skin Subconjunctival hemorrhages Breast engorgement Epstein Pearl Pre-deciduous teeth Vaginal bleeding on 3rd to 7th day Vaginal mucoid discharge Physiological phimosis Hymenal tags Cephalhematoma Caput succedaneum Ref: O.P.Ghai, 6th Edition, Pages 146-47 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is a bactericidal drug against Mycobacterium leprae? | [
"Erythromycin",
"Ofloxacin",
"Cotrimoxazole",
"Amoxicillin"
] | B | Answer- B. OfloxacinOfloxacin Over 99.9% bacilli were found to be killed by 22 daily doses of ofloxacin monotherapy | train | med_mcqa | null |
A Lower Segment Caesarean section (LSCS) can be carried out under all the following techniques of anaesthesia, EXCEPT: | [
"General anaesthesia",
"Spinal anaesthesia",
"Caudal anaesthesia",
"Combined Spinal Epidural anaesthesia"
] | C | Caudal anaesthesia may be used for perenial operations. It is not indicated in Lower segment caesarian section. Fuher it is associated with potential risk of penetrating the fetal head in obstetric practice. Ref:Textbook of Anaesthesia By Aitkinhead, 4th Edition, Pages 568, 641, 643 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Gerlach tonsil in waldayers ring is: | [
"Tubal tonsil",
"Palatine tonsil",
"Pharyngeal tonsil",
"Lingual tonsil"
] | A | Waldayers ring Contents Pharyngeal Tonsil (Adenoids) Tubal Tonsils (Gerlach's Tonsils) Palatine Tonsils (The Tonsils) Lingual Tonsils | train | med_mcqa | null |
In a patient presenting with a swelling of the thyroid, the radionuclide scan showed a cold nodule and the ultrasound showed a non cystic solid mass. The management of this patient would be:- | [
"Lobectomy",
"Hemithyroidectomy",
"Eltroxin",
"Radio Iodine therapy"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e. Hemithyroidectomy .A discrete solid swelling of the thyroid is mostly treated surgically by hemithyroidectomy. Biopsy of the resected segment is performed and if carcinoma found a total or near total thyroidectomy is done.A cystic swelling is treated by aspiration and surgery is performed only if it recurs or cytology is suspicious of malignancy.A discrete thyroid swelling is:malignant in 15% of cases.a follicular adenoma in 30-40% of cases.remainder are non-neoplastic i.e. colloidal degeneration, cysts or thyroiditis.Thus most of the discrete thyroid swelling are non-neoplastic and benign, still surgery Is the mainstay of treatment because of the risk of leaving a malignant nodule.Role of Isotope scanAn isotope scan divides thyroid swellings into - 'Hot', 'Warm' and 'Cold' nodule.Hot rules out malignancy.Cold favours malignancy andWarm in equivocal.Even though cold nodule favours malignancy only a very small percentage of them (~ 15%) turn out to be malignant, so isotope scanning is of very little use in distinguishing between malignant and non-malignant swellings and is rather obsolete now.Eltroxin for TSH suppression is used only for a small number of cases. It is tried for 6-12 months. If the swelling regresses, well and good. If it does not surgery is performed. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Indication of surgery in benign hyperplasia of prostate is | [
"Post void urine volume is 200 ml",
"Weakened urinary stream",
"Dysuria",
"Residual urine < 100 ml"
] | A | Indications for surgery in BPH are: * Prostatism *Acute retentionof urine *Chronic retention of urine with residual urine > 200ml*Complications like hydroureter, hydronephrosis, stone formation, recurrent infections, bladder changes.*HematuriaReference : page 1045 SRB's manual of surgery 5th edition | train | med_mcqa | null |
What is the Size of this blade used in incision and Drainage | [
"11 size",
"13 size",
"15 size",
"22 size"
] | A | There are 3 blades commonly used by Surgeons: - * 11' size- For Incision and Drainage of Abscess, Aeriotomy * 15' Size- For precise cosmetic incisions * 22' Size- For Long Incisions and Laparotomy Incisions Ref:- Surgery Sixer 3rd Edition; Pg num:- 39 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which one of the following surgical procedures is considered to have a clean- contaminated wound? | [
"Elective open cholecystectomy for cholelithiasis",
"Herniorrhaphy with mesh repair",
"Lumpectomy with axillary node dissection",
"Appendectomy with walled off abscess"
] | A | .Elective open cholecystectomy for cholelithiasis is clean contaminated Hernioplasty and mastectomy or clean Appendicetomy with controlled infection is contaminated, | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following represents ventricular depolarization on ECG? | [
"PQ",
"PR",
"QRS",
"ST"
] | C | P wave which represents atrial depolarization.
The QRS complex represents ventricular depolarization and the ST-T-U complex (ST segment, T wave, and U wave) represents ventricular repolarization.
The J point is the junction between the end of the QRS complex and the beginning of the ST segment.
Atrial repolarization (ST and T) is usually too low in amplitude to be detected, but it may become apparent in conditions such as acute pericarditis and atrial infarction. | train | med_mcqa | null |
After how many days does Delayed ischemic neurological deficit occurs in SAH? | [
"1",
"7",
"15",
"30"
] | B | Delayed ischemic neurological deficit refers to the focal neurological deficits which occurs between 3 and 10 days (avg. 7 days) after the SAH. It is caused by cerebral vasospasm which correlates with the amount of bleeding in subarachnoid space It is managed with nimodipine &IV fluids. Prevention of hypoxia and hypotension along with control of ICP is helpful | train | med_mcqa | null |
Idiopathic nephrotic syndrome is associated with the following except- | [
"Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis",
"Minimal change disease",
"Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis",
"Mesangioproliferative glomerulonephritis"
] | C | Etiology of nephrotic syndrome idiopathic nephrotic syndrome -Minimal change disease -Mesangioproliferative glomerulonephritis - Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis secondary nephrotic syndrome -Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis -membranous nephropathy | train | med_mcqa | null |
A patient presented with the complains of abdominal pain, vomitingand fatty stools. On fuher questioning, the patient told that he was taking a drug since past few days. A diagnosis of Biliary sludge syndrome was made. Which of the following is the most likely drug involved? | [
"Ceftazidime",
"Ampicillin",
"Rifampicin",
"Ceftriaxone"
] | D | Gentamicin is an aminoglycoside and is excreted renal route. BILE secreted anti-microbial agents CEF in - Cefoperazone, Ceftriaxone R - Rifampicin E - Erythromycin N - Nafcillin A - Ampicillin L - Lincosamides (Clindamycin) DISEASE - Doxycycline ceftriaxonecan precipitate with calcium, like what occurs with bilirubin, and soceftriaxone-associatedbiliary sludgeis mainly composed of a calcium-ceftriaxonecomplex. | train | med_mcqa | null |
TRH stimulates the release of? | [
"Prolactin only",
"TSH only",
"Both",
"None"
] | C | ANSWER: (C) BothREF: Guyton's physiology 22nd edition Table 74-1 Page 907Thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH), also called thyrotropin-releasing factor (TRF), thyroliberin or protirelin, is a tropic tripeptide hormone that stimulates the release of thyroid-stimulating hormone and prolactin by the anterior pituitary. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which is not included in RNTCP- | [
"Active case finding",
"Directly observed",
"X-ray is diagnostic",
"Drugs given daily"
] | A | Under the RNTCP active case finding is not pursued. Case finding is passive Ref:PARK&;S TEXTBOOK OF PREVENTIVE AND SOCIAL MEDICINE 23rd edition pg 429 | train | med_mcqa | null |
A child, Ramu has swallowed the contents of 2 bottles of a nasal decongestant whose primary ingredient is α adrenoceptor agonist drug. The signs of α activation that may occur in this patient include: | [
"Tachycardia",
"Dilatation of pupil",
"Vasodilation",
"All of the above"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
The Antiepileptic drug, Phenytoin therapeutic blood level is | [
"0-9 mcg/ml",
"10-19 mcg/ml",
"20-29 mcg/ml",
"30-39 mcg/ml"
] | B | (B) 10-19 mcg/ml# SERUM PHENYTOIN LEVELS:> Therapeutic range is 10-20 mcg/mL.# Total phenytoin levels (mcg/mL) - Typical corresponding Signs & Symptoms: Lower than 10- Rare Between 10 and 20 - Occasional mild nystagmus Between 20 and 30 - Nystagmus Between 30 and 40 - Ataxia, slurred speech, nausea, and vomiting Between 40 and 50 - Lethargy and confusion Higher than 50 - Coma and seizures | train | med_mcqa | null |
Function of ubiquitin in the cell is: | [
"Degradation of intracellular protein",
"Endocytosis",
"Exocytosis",
"Plays an important role in acute inflammation"
] | A | Ref: Koeppen BM, Stanton BA. Skeletal Muscle Physiology. In: Berne & Levy Physiology 6th ed. Mosby; 2008 p 250. & Hershko A, Ciechanover A. The uhiquitin system. Anna Rev Biochem. 1998:67:425-79.Explanation:"One factor thought to contribute to the decreased protein synthesis and increased protein degradation during periods of mechanical inactivity is the release of a ubiquitin ligase (MuRF2) from titin. MuRF2 also promotes protein degradation through ubiquitination "The ubiquitin systemThe selective degradation of many short-lived proteins in eukaryotic cells is carried out by the ubiquitin system.In this pathway, proteins are targeted for degradation by covalent ligation to ubiquitin. a highly conserved small protein.UBIQUITIN-mediated degradation of regulatory- proteins plays important roles in:Cell-cycle progressionSignal transductionTranscriptional regulationReceptor dow n-regulationEndocytosisImmune responseDevelopmentProgrammed cell death (Apoptosis) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Drug of choice for the treatment of a pregnant women with P vivax malaria as? | [
"Quinine",
"Chloroquine",
"Aemether",
"Paracetamol"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Chloroquine | train | med_mcqa | null |
According to CDC recommendations, HIV screening of pregnant women is:- | [
"Opt-in testing",
"Opt-out testing",
"Compulsory",
"Symptomatic"
] | B | Opt-out testing: means performing an HIV test after notifying the patient that the test is normally performed, unless patient may elect to decline or defer testing. OPT-in testing: testing is offered and the patient is required to actively give permission before it can occur. WHO and CDC recommends opt-out testing policies in health care settings. Opt-out testing has a higher testing rate than opt-in testing. It does not eliminate the need for informed consent. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Functional bracing is now the gold standard in nonoperative management of which fractures ? | [
"Fracture shaft humerus",
"Fractures of both bones of the forearm",
"Fracture shaft tibia",
"Fracture Shaft Femur"
] | A | Answer- A. Fracture shaft humerusPrinciple- it relies on the hydrostatic splintage of the fracture due to contraction of muscles in a tight compamentIt has now become the gold standard of conservative management of humerus fractures. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Whiplash injury is tear of which ligament | [
"Ligamenta flava",
"Ant. longitudinal ligament",
"Post.longitudinal ligament",
"Supraspinal ligament"
] | B | . | train | med_mcqa | null |
Bacteriophage carries gene for which of the following ? | [
"Cholera toxin",
"Heat labile toxin of E. coli",
"Verocytotoxin of EHEC",
"Anthrax toxin"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Verocytotoxin of EHEC | train | med_mcqa | null |
Inferior cerebellar peduncle has all of the following tracts, EXCEPT? | [
"Ventral spinocerebellar tract",
"Olivo cerebellar tract",
"Dorsal spinocerebellar tract",
"Pontocerebellar tract"
] | A | Afferent fibers from the ventral spinocerebellar tract enter the cerebellum superior cerebellar peduncle. The inferior cerebellar peduncle contains many fiber systems from the spinal cord. They are:Cuneocerebellar and the dorsal spinocerebellar tractsFibers from the lateral reticular nucleusOlivocerebellar fibers from the contralateral inferior olivary nucleusFibers from the vestibular division of nerve VIIIFibers that arise in the vestibular nucleiAll fibers are afferent to the cerebellum. Ref: Waxman S.G. (2010). Chapter 7. The Brain Stem and Cerebellum. In S.G. Waxman (Ed), Clinical Neuroanatomy, 26e. | train | med_mcqa | null |
QRS duration greater than 0.16 seconds is seen in? | [
"Bundle branch block",
"Sick sinus syndrome",
"Mobitz 1",
"Mobitz 2"
] | A | ANSWER: (A) Bundle branch blocksREF: Harrisons 18th ed chapter 228, Practical Clinical Electrophysiology by Peter J. Zimetbaum,Mark E. Josephson Page 143Normal QRS duration: 0.06 - 0.1 secondsRAISED QRS DURATION IS SEEN IN:Ventricular tachycardia (Assume any wide QRS-complex tachycardia is VT until proven otherwise)Right bundle branch blocks (up to 0.14 sec)Right bundle branch blocks with VT (> 0.14 sec)Left bundle branch blocks (up to 0.16)Left bundle branch blocks with VT(> 0.16)Intraventricular block (as seen in Hyperkalemia, quinidine, procainamide)Implanted ventricular pacemakerNOTE: * Mobitz I heart block (Type 1 Second-degree AV block) is characterized by progressive prolongation of the PR interval on the electrocardiogram (BCG) on consecutive beats followed by a blocked P wave (i.e., a 'dropped' QRS complex). After the dropped QRS complex, the PR interval resets and the cycle repeats.* Mobitz II heart block (Type 2 Second-degree AV block) is characterized on a surface ECG by intermittently non conducted P waves not preceded by PR prolongation and not followed by PR shortening | train | med_mcqa | null |
Inferior thyroid vein drains into - | [
"Internal jugular vein",
"Superior vena cava",
"Brachiocephalic vein",
"External jugular vein"
] | C | Venous drainage of the thyroid:-
Superior thyroid vein - Drains into an Internal jugular vein.
Middle thyroid vein - Drains into the internal jugular vein.
Inferior thyroid vein - Drains into a Left brachiocephalic vein.
Fourth thyroid vein of Kocher - Drains into the internal jugular vein. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All are precancerous lesions of oral cavity except - | [
"Leukoplakia",
"Erythroplakia",
"Diffuse oral submucous fibrosis",
"Diffuse aphthous ulcers"
] | D | Lesions with an increased risk of malignancy
Premalignant condition : - Leukoplakia, Erythroplakia, Speckled erythroplakia, chronic hyperplastic, candidiasis.
Conditions increasing risk : - Oral submucous fibrosis, syphilitic glossitis, sideropenic dysphagia (Paterson Kelly syndrome).
The risk is doubtful: - Oral lichen planus, DLE, Dyskeratosis congenita. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Global rupture due to blunt trauma is indicated by | [
"Blow out fracture",
"Lens sublu xati on",
"Contusion + haemorrhage + low intraocular pressure",
"Proptosis and decreased mobility of muscle"
] | C | C i.e. Contusion + Haemorrhage + Low intraocular pressure Complications of Blunt Trauma Voissius ring (on anterior surface of lens) Q Rossette shaped cataract Q Angle recession with secondary glaucoma Q Global rupture indicated by contusion, haemorrhage & low intraocular pressure Q Hyphaema with elevated lop | train | med_mcqa | null |
In a chronic alcoholic all the following may be seen in the liver except | [
"Fatty degeneration",
"Chronic hepatitis",
"Granuloma formation",
"Cholestatic hepatitis"
] | C | Refer Robbins page no 842 | train | med_mcqa | null |
What is meant by Ca colon stage Mc ? | [
"Hepatic metastasis.",
"Extension upto serosa & lymph node",
"Extension upto serosa",
"Extension upto mucosa"
] | B | Ans. is `b' i.e., Extension upto Serosa and lymph nodesStaging of colon carcinomaDukes Numerical Pathological descriptionA I Ca limited to mucosa & submucosa13, I Ca extends to submuscularisB2 II Ca extends to serosaC III Ca involves regional lymph nodesD IV Distant metastasis in liver, lung etc.Following information has been added in 8th/e of Robbins o Liver is the most common site for metastasis of colon carcinoma. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is associated with a reduction of cAMP in the serum? | [
"Glucagon",
"Somatostatin",
"Thyroxine",
"Prolactin"
] | B | Somatostatin, the growth-hormone-inhibiting hormone is secreted as paracrine by D cells in the pancreatic islets and by similar D cells in the gastrointestinal mucosa. It exists in tissues in two forms, somatostatin 14 and somatostatin 28, and both are secreted. Somatostatin inhibits the secretion of gastrin, VIP, GIP, secretin, and motilin. Its secretion is stimulated by acid in the lumen, and it probably acts in a paracrine fashion to mediate the inhibition of gastrin secretion produced by acid. It also inhibits pancreatic exocrine secretion; gastric acid secretion and motility; gallbladder contraction; and the absorption of glucose, amino acids, and triglycerides. Why is this question frequently asked? Somatostatin and it's analogue Octeotride is associated with a lowering of cAMP levels in serum and in cholangiocytes. The hepatic cysts are derived from cholangiocytes that have undergone self-proliferation and differentiation and secrete fluid in pa due to the intracellular second messenger, cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP). Renal cysts in polycystic disease grow in response to cAMP and that a reduction in cAMP levels attenuates kidney disease progression. Thus, the preclinical studies provides a strong rationale for evaluating the potential role of octreotide in the treatment of human polycystic disease of the liver and kidneys. This is the current area of reaseach for a possible new therapy for polycystic liver and kidney dissease. Currently there is no known medical treatment. Hence, this is an impoant current topic for exams. Ref: Longo D.L., Fauci A.S., Kasper D.L., Hauser S.L., Jameson J.L., Loscalzo J. . Possible New Therapy for Polycystic Disease of the Liver and Kidneys: A Potential Role for Somatostatin. In D.L. Longo, A.S. Fauci, D.L. Kasper, S.L. Hauser, J.L. Jameson, J. Loscalzo (Eds), Schwaz's Principles of Surgery, 8e. | train | med_mcqa | null |
True about rupture of diaphragm:a) Chest X-rayb) DPLc) Repair by laprotomyd) Laproscopy | [
"bcd",
"acd",
"ac",
"ab"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Commonest neurological tumour associated with NF-2:- | [
"Acoustic neuroma",
"Optic glioma",
"Cafe-Au-Lait macules",
"Meningioma"
] | A | NF is a type of genetic condition Gene Chromosome Protein Features NF 1 17 Neurofibromin - Cafe-au-lait-macules (CALM) NF 2 22 Merlin -Vestibular Schwannoma (Acoustic neuroma): commonest neurological tumour. -Giant Neurofibromas, Meningioma - Axillary Freckling | train | med_mcqa | null |
Autoimmune diseases associated with Sjogren syndrome are all except? | [
"RA",
"Mixed connective tissue disorder",
"SLE",
"Addisons disease"
] | D | Ans. is `d' i.e., Addisons diseaseSjogren syndromeSjogren syndrome is a chronic disease characterized by dry eyes (keratoconjuctivitis sicca) and dry mouth (xerostomia) resulting from immunological mediated destruction of the lacrimal and salivary glands. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Superficial paial thickness burn is caused due to involvement of: | [
"Epidermis",
"Papillary dermis",
"Reticular dermis",
"Dermis"
] | B | First-degree (superficial) burns: Involves only the epidermis The burn site is red, painful, dry, and with no blisters. Second-degree (paial thickness) burns: Second-degree burns involve the epidermis and pa of the upper (papillary) dermis layer of skin. The burn site appears red, blistered, and may be swollen and painful. Third-degree (full thickness) burns: Third-degree burns destroy the epidermis and dermis and may go into the subcutaneous tissue. The burn site may appear white or charred Fouh degree burns: Fouh degree burns also damage the underlying bones, muscles, and tendons. There is no sensation in the area since the nerve endings are destroyed. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All are true regarding agammaglobulinemia except - | [
"Loss of germinal centre in lymph node",
"Normal coical lymphocytes",
"Normal coical lymphocytes in paracoex and medulla",
"Decreased red pulp in spleen"
] | B | In agammaglobulinemia all classes of immunoglobulins are grossly depleted in the serum. Tonsils & Adenoids are atrophic. Lymph node biopsy reveals depletion of cepls of bursa dependent areas. Plasma cells and germinal centres are absent even after antigenic stimulation. There is marked decrease in the poion of B cells in circulation. Ref: Ananthanarayan & Panikers textbook of microbiology 9th edition pg.no. : 171,172 | train | med_mcqa | null |
In forceful expiration, which of the following neurons gets fired? | [
"VRG",
"DRG",
"Pneumotaxic centre",
"Chemoreceptors"
] | A | - Located in each side of medulla, about 5mm anterior & lateral to dorsal respiratory group of neurons is ventral respiratory group of neurons, found in nucleus ambigus rostrally & nucleus retroambigus caudally. - Neurons of VRG remain almost totally inactive during normal quiet respiration. so, normal quiet breathing is caused only by repetitive inspiratory signals from DRG transmitted mainly to diaphragm & expiration results from elastic recoil of lungs & thoracic cage. - When respiratory drive for increased pulmonary ventilation becomes greater than normal, respiratory signals spill over into VRG from basic oscillating mechanism of DRG - As a consequence, VRG contributes extra respiratory drive as well - Electrical stimulation of few of neurons in VRG cause inspiration & others cause expiration, thus these neurons contribute to both inspiration & expiration. - They are especially impoant in providing powerful expiratory signals to abdominal muscles during very heavy expiration. Pneumotaxic center: Primary effect is to control "switch off" point of inspiratory ramp, thus controlling duration of filling phase of lung cycle. - Main function is to limit inspiration which has secondary effect of increasing rate of breathing because limitation of inspiration also shoens expiration & entire period of each respiration Chemoreceptors: - Sensors that detect changes in Co2, O2, pH. - Based on anatomical position divided into Central chemoreceptors Peripheral chemoreceptors | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most impoant blood supply to stomach: | [
"Left gastric aery",
"Sho gastric aery",
"Right gastro epiploic aery",
"Left gastro epiploic aery"
] | A | Ans. a. Left gastric aery Most impoant blood supply to stomach is left gastric aery. 'The left gastric aery is the branch of celiac axis and is the largest aery supplying the stomach. '- Surgery.. Basic Science and Clinical Evidence, by Jeffrey A. Noon/489 Stomach has rich blood supply arising from celiac trunk and its branches in the form of right and left gastric, right and left gastroepiploic and sho gastric aeries. 'In the lesser omentum, locate the blood vessels which parallel the lesser curvature of the stomach. The largest vessel is found near the esophagus and is the left gastric aery. The left gastric aery arises from the celiac trunk and follows the dorsal body wall to reach the upper end of the lesser curvature of the stomach to enter the lesser omentum.'- www.slu. edu/.../Dissection%2025%20-%20 Stomach%20 and%20 Intestine 'The aerial supply to the stomach comes predominantly from the coeliac axis although intramural anastomoses exist with vessels of other origins at the two ends of the stomach. The left gastric aery arises directly from the coeliac axis.' Blood Supply of Stomach Stomach has rich blood supply arising from celiac trunk and its branches in the form of right and left gastric, right and left gastroepiploic and sho gastric aeries. Blood Supply of Stomach: Left gastric aeryQ : Branch of celiac trunk (Largest) Right gastric aeryQ: Branch of hepatic aery Right gastroepiploic aeryQ: Branch of gastroduodenal aery Left gastroepiploic aeryQ: Branch of splenic aery Sho gastric aeriesQ: Branch of splenic aery | train | med_mcqa | null |
Hyaline membrane is seen in: September 2011 | [
"Acute glomerulonephritis",
"Respiratory distress syndrome",
"Pneumonia",
"Cholestatic jaundice"
] | B | Ans. B: Respiratory distress syndrome A homogenous eosinophilic membrane (hyaline membrane) plastering the alveolar ducts and terminal bronchioles is found in idiopathic respiratory distress syndrome HMD/ Hyaline membrane disease: Most babies with HMD shows clinical findings of respiratory distress in the delivery room or during the first few hours of life Hyaline membrane is made up of fibrin Seen in diabeteics mothers and premature babies X-ray shows a reticulogranular/ reticulo-nodular pattern or ground glass appearance, uniformly distributed throughout both lungs fields | train | med_mcqa | null |
A young lady presents with repeated episodes of excessive eating followed by purging by use of laxatives. What is she suffering from? | [
"Bulimia nervosa",
"Binge eating",
"Schizophrenia",
"Anorexia nervosa"
] | A | This patient is suffering from purging type of bulimia nervosa. In this, patients engages in binge eating followed by engaging in self induced vomiting, misuse of laxatives, diuretics, enemas, or other medications, fasting or excessive exercise as compensatory behaviour to prevent weight gain. For diagnosing this condition, the binge eating and inappropriate compensatory behaviors should both occur at least twice a week for 3 months. In non purging type of Bulimia nervosa, patients uses fasting or excessive excercise as compensatory behaviors.Co morbidities of Bulimia Nervosa are:Mood disorder (24-88%)Anxiety (2-3%)OCD (3-80%)Substance abuse (9-55%)Personality disorders Ref: CURRENT Diagnosis & Treatment: Psychiatry, 2nd Edition, Chapter 26 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Subsets and Splits
No community queries yet
The top public SQL queries from the community will appear here once available.