question stringlengths 1 6.54k | choices listlengths 4 4 | answer stringclasses 4 values | rationale stringlengths 0 22.5k ⌀ | split stringclasses 1 value | dataset stringclasses 6 values | subject stringclasses 1 value |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
Vitamin required for production of Thrombin is: | [
"Vitamin A",
"Vitamin D",
"Vitamin K",
"Vitamin E"
] | C | Vitamin K brings about post translational modification of ceain blood clotting factors. The clotting factor -II (Prothrombin) -VII -IX -X are synthesized as inactive precursors (zymogens ) in the liver. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The following statements regarding peritoneal ligaments are TRUE, EXCEPT: | [
"Gastrophrenic ligament is present between stomach and diaphragm above the spleen",
"Lienorenal ligament is present between spleen and kidney",
"Gastrocolic ligament is present between stomach and transverse colon",
"Phrenicocolic ligament is present between diaphragm and descending colon"
] | D | Phrenicocolic ligament is present between diaphragm and transverse colon. The peritoneal ligaments recognized in the greater omentum are:Gastrophrenic ligament: between the stomach and diaphragm above the spleenGastrolienal ligament: between stomach and spleenLienorenal ligament: between spleen and kidneyPhrenicocolic ligament: between diaphragm and transverse colonGastrocolic ligament: between stomach and transverse colonRef: Anatomy: Embryology, Gross Anatomy, Neuroanatomy, Microanatomy edited by Raymond E. Papka page 42 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is the investigation of choice for assessment of depth of penetration and perirectal nodes in rectal cancer - | [
"Trans rectal ultrasound",
"CT Scan pelvis",
"MRI Scan",
"Double contrast Barium enema"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., M.R.I. Scan | train | med_mcqa | null |
Patient complaining of retrosternal chest pain for more than half an hour is most likely to be: | [
"Angina",
"MI",
"CHF",
"Congenital heart problem"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
The neuroendocrine carcinoma arising from parafollicular 'C' cells of thyroid is: | [
"Papillary carcinoma",
"Follicular carcinoma",
"Medullary carcinoma",
"Anaplastic carcinoma"
] | C | MEDULLARY CARCINOMA OF THE THYROID (MCT)
These tumours arise from parafollicular ‘C’ cells which are derived from ultimobranchial bodies and not from thyroid foillicle.
These tumours present in two different ways.
Sporadic is common, seen in about 80-90% of cases.
Familial variety present as a part of multiple endocrine neoplasia (MEN).
MEN Type I
Pituitary adenoma
Parathyroid adenoma
Pancreatic adenoma
MEN Type IIa
Parathyroid adenoma
Phaeochromocytoma
Medullary carcinoma of thyroid
When it is associated with mucocutaneous neuromas involving lips, tongue, eyelids, it is called Sipple syndrome, with an occasional marfanoid habitus (MEN type IIb)
It has got a characteristic amyloid stroma
These tumours are not TSH-dependent and do not take up radioactive iodine
Hormones produced by MCT
Calcitonin
Prostaglandins
Serotonin (5-HT), ACTH
Spread
Both by lymphatics and blood, thus, worsening the prognosis.
Key Concept:
Medullary Carcinoma arises from parafollicular C cells which are derived from ultimobranchial bodies and not from thyroid follicle. The medullary carcinoma produces hormones such as Calcitonin, Prostaglandins and serotonin.
Reference: Manipal Manual of Surgery 4th ed page no 348 | train | med_mcqa | null |
All antiretroviral drugs produce peripheral neuropathy except ? | [
"Stavudine",
"Zalcitabine",
"Didanosine",
"lndinavir"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Indinavir Characteristic side effects of impoant antiretroviral drugs Lamivudin - Nausea, headache, fatigue. Stavudine - Peripheral neuropathy, lipodystrophy, hyperlipidemia, pancreatitis, rapidly progressive ascending neuromuscular weakness. Didanosine - Peripheral neuropathy, pancreatitis, diarrhea, nausea, hyperuricemia. Zalcitabine - Peripheral neuropathy, oral ulceration, pancreatitis. Zidovudin - Macrocytic anemia, neutropenia, nausea, headache, insomnia, asthenia. Tenofovir - Asthenia, headache, diarrhea, nausea, vomiting, flatulance, renal insufficiency. Eirenz - CNS effects, rash, T liver enzymes. Nevirapine - Rash, hepatitis, nausea, headache. Indinavir - Nephrolithiasis, nausea, indirect hyperbilirubinemia, headache, blurred vision, asthenia. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which nerves supply scalp? | [
"Infratrochlear",
"Zygomaticotempolar",
"Greater occipital",
"Auriculotemporal"
] | B | The scalp and temple are supplied by ten nerves on each side.out of these five nerves enter the scalp in front of the auricle.The remaining five nerves enter the scalp behind the auricle. nerves of the scalp and superficial temporal region. Sensory nerves; * supratrochlear *supraorbital * zygomaticotemporal * auriculotemporal motor nerve temporal branch of facial nerve. Ref BDC volume;3 sixth edition | train | med_mcqa | null |
Drug, NOT metabolised by liver is : | [
"Penicillin G",
"Phenytoin",
"Erythromycin",
"Cimetidine"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' Penicillin G Penicillin G is metalized mainly in kidneyApproximately 10% of the drug is eliminated by glomerular filtration and 90% by tubular secretionRest of the drugs given in the question erythromycin, cimetidine and phenytoin are metabolized in the liver. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 7 year old boy presents to the OPD with a painless limp. On examination, you observe that abduction and internal rotation of left hip are restricted. While attempting to flex the hip, the knee goes toward axilla. What is your probable diagnosis? | [
"Septic ahritis of hip",
"Tuberculosis ahritis of hip",
"Cong dislocation of hip",
"Pehes disease"
] | D | Pehes disease: Male > Female 4-8 years of age, self limiting/resolving Bilateral in 10-12 % of the cases Lateral subluxation of the femoral head Speckled calcification lateral to the capital epiphysis Gage sign-a radiolucent 'V' shaped defect in the lateral epiphysis and adjacent metaphysis Sagging Rope Sign--metaphyseal sclerotic band painless limp is the key point for the diagnosis. Examination findings: extremes of all movements are diminished. When the hip is flexed it may go into obligatory external rotation (Catterall's sign) and knee points towards axilla. (Normally goes towards mid-clavicular region) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most frequent epithelial tumors of ovary: | [
"Papillary serous cystadenoma",
"Brenners",
"Endometrioid",
"Mucinous cyst adenoma"
] | A | Ans. (a) Papillary serous cystadenomaRef. William's Gynecology, Ch 35; Epithelial tumors of ovaryEpithelial Ovarian Tumor Cell Types (Katz: Comprehensive Gynecology, 5th ed.) Approximate Frequency (%) Ovarian CancersSerous35-40Mucinous6-10Endometrioid15-25Clear cell (mesonephroid)5-10BrennerRareSEROUS TUMORS* Serous tumors are the most frequent ovarian epithelial tumors. The malignant forms account for 40% or more of ovarian cancers.* During frozen section evaluation, psammoma bodies are essentially pathognomonic of an ovarian-type serous carcinomaMUCINOUS ADENOCARCINOMAS* About 5 to 10 percent of true epithelial ovarian cancers are mucinous adenocarcinomas* These cells resemble cells of the endocervix or may mimic intestinal cells, which can pose a problem in the differential diagnosis of tumors that appear to originate from the ovary or intestine.ENDOMETRIOID ADENOCARCINOMAS* About 15 to 25 percent of epithelial ovarian cancers are endometrioid adenocarcinomas, the second most common histologic type.CLEAR CELL TUMORS* Comprising 5 to 10 percent of epithelial ovarian cancers, clear cell adenocarcinomas are the most frequently associated with pelvic endometriosis.* Microscopically hobnail cells are characteristic finding. These are cells with abundant glycogen and nuclei of the cells protrude into the glandular lumen.BRENNER TUMOR* These tumors constitute only 2% to 3% of all ovarian tumors.* Brenner tumors consist of cells that resemble the transitional epithelium of the bladder and Walthard nests of the ovary. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 6-year-old girl is diagnosed with meningitis. A lumbar puncture reveals numerous neutrophils and gram-negative diplococci. She is admitted to the hospital for antibiotic treatment, which is complicated by the fact that she is known to be allergic to b-lactams. What is the mechanism of action of the alternative drug of choice to treat this infant's meningitis? | [
"Blocks tRNA binding to the A site",
"Causes misreading of mRNA",
"Inhibits formation of the peptide bond",
"Prevents translocation"
] | C | The girl in the vignette most likely has Neisseria meningitidis meningitis. The drug of choice is ceftriaxone, which is contraindicated by the child's known b-lactam allergy due to cross-hypersensitivity. The alternative drug of choice is chloramphenicol, which inhibits formation of the peptide bond (c) through inhibition of the transpeptidase reaction. Meropenem, a second alternative, is also a b-lactam with cross-hyper-sensitivity. Tetracycline, which blocks tRNA binding to the A site (a), is not used to treat meningitis and should not be used in children under 10. Aminoglycosides, which cause misreading of mRNA (b) and result in premature termination (e) of translation, as well as blocking initiation of protein synthesis, are not generally used to treat meningitis except in cases caused by Listeria. Macrolides prevent translocation (d) and are not used to treat meningitis. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Secondary attack rate of chicken pox is - | [
"60",
"50",
"90",
"40"
] | C | Secondary attack rate of chicken pox is high, upto 90%. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Folding of protein chain is due to : | [
"Amide bond",
"Hydrogen bonds",
"Phosphodiesterase bonds",
"Disulphide bond"
] | B | B i.e. Hydrogen bond | train | med_mcqa | null |
Defective chromosome associated with De-George syndrome is? | [
"7",
"15",
"17",
"22"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e., 22 Chromosome 22q 11.2 deletion syndromeo This syndrome encompasses a spectrum of disorders that result from a small deletion of band q 11.2 on long arm of chromosome 22. Clinical features are considered to represent two different disorders1) Di George syndromeo These patients have thymic hypoplasia with resultant T-cell immunodeficiency.o Other features include parathyroid hypoplasia (causing hypocalcemia), cardiac malformations & facial anomalies.o TBX-1 gene (a T-box transcription factor) is most closely associated with this syndrome. The target of TBX-1 include PAX 9, a gene that controls the development of the palate, parathyroid and thymus.2) Velo cardio facial sndromeo This syndrome is characterized by facial dysmorphism (prominant nose, retrognathia), cleft palate, cardiovascular anomalies, and learning disabilities. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Eosinophilia in necrosed tissue is due to ? | [
"Coagulation of proteins",
"Denaturation of enzymes",
"Denaturation of protein",
"Mitochondrial damage"
] | C | Necrotic cells show increased eosinophilia in hematoxylin and eosin (H & E) stains. It is mainly due to these 2 Factors Loss of cytoplasmic RNA (or ribonucleoprotein/RNP) which binds the blue dye, hematoxylin. Denatured cytoplasmic proteins which bind the red dye, eosin. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following test is used to differentiate the chromosome of normal and cancer cells? | [
"PCR",
"Comparative genomic hybridization",
"Western Blotting",
"Southern Blotting"
] | B | Comparative genomic hybridization (CGH) is a method that can be used only when DNA is available from a specimen of interest. This technology has been used to study cryptic chromosomal imbalances in patients with mental retardation and multiple congenital anomalies, as well as in prenatal diagnosis. It has also been used to detect microdeletions and microduplications in cancer and in previously unidentified genomic disorders. Ref: Schwaz S., Hassold T. (2012). Chapter 62. Chromosome Disorders. In D.L. Longo, A.S. Fauci, D.L. Kasper, S.L. Hauser, J.L. Jameson, J. Loscalzo (Eds), Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine, 18e | train | med_mcqa | null |
Commonest position of appendix is? | [
"Paracaecal",
"Retrocaecal",
"Pelvic",
"Subcoecal"
] | B | Retrocaecal is the mc position in 65percent cases in 12 o clock position followed by pelvic in 4 o clock position M/C :-retrocaecal>pelvic | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most common cause of glomerulonephritis is? | [
"Berger disease",
"Acute Glomerulonephritis",
"Chronic glomerulonephritis",
"Focal segmental Glomerulosclerosis"
] | A | Most common cause of glomerulonephritis is Berger disease. Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis is most common cause of nephrotic syndrome. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Best predictor for future risk of cardiovascular events, amongst the following is: | [
"hs CRP",
"Lipoprotein 'a'",
"Homocysteine",
"Interleukin 6"
] | A | Answer is A (hs CRP) hs CRP which is a serum marker of systemic inflammation has emerged as a major risk factor marker fir future cardiovascular events CRP and Future risk of cardiovascular events CRP when measured by high sensitivity assays (hs CRP) strongly and independently predicts risk of Myocardial Infarction, Stroke, Peripheral Aerial disease and Sudden Cardiac Death among healthy individuals hs CRP adds prognostic information at all levels of LDL cholesterol and at all levels of risk as determined by the Framingham risk score hs CRP is a better predictor of cardiovascular risk than lipoprotein 'a', homocysteine or interleukin 6 and an elevated hs CRP carries a significantly higher relative risk offitture cardiovascular events than any of the other individual factors Infact hs CRP may be a better predictor of cardiovascular risk than elevated LDL cholesterol levels `Absolute vascular risk is higher in individuals with elevated hs CRP levels and low levels of LDL cholesterol than in those with elevated levels of LDL cholesterol but low levels of hs CRP' | train | med_mcqa | null |
Poion of immunoglobulin molecule with molecular weight of 50,000 - | [
"Secretory piece",
"H Chain",
"L Chain",
"J piece"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., H chain . The H chain has molecular weight of 50, 000. . The L chain has molecular weight of 25, 000. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Werick's hemianopic pupillary response is seen in lesions at: | [
"Optic tract",
"Optic chiasma",
"Optic radiation",
"Lateral geniculate body"
] | A | Werick's hemianopic pupillary response is seen in lesions at Optic tract. Ref: Textbook of Ophthalmology By Nema, 3rd Edition, Page 247 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Boundaries of quadrilateral space include all except? | [
"Teres major",
"Long head of triceps",
"Neck of humerus",
"Deltoid"
] | D | Deltoid | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is a contraindication to nonoperative management of splenic injury? | [
"Prior hematologic disorder",
"HIV-positive patient",
"Hemodynamic instability",
"Multiple other solid-organ injuries"
] | C | Hemodynamic instability is the most pressing indication for operative treatment in a patient with splenic injury. In all other situations listed a trial of nonoperative management may be continued. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Storiform pattern of tumor cells in histopathology is seen in | [
"Retinoblastoma",
"Rhabdomyosalcoma",
"Fibrous histiocytoma",
"Medulloepethelioma"
] | C | Storiform or cart wheel pattern are characteristic of fibrous histiocytoma. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The mineral having action like vitamin E | [
"Calcium",
"Iron",
"Selenium",
"Magnesium"
] | C | Selenium is having action like VitE. Selenium acts as a nonspecific intracellular anti-oxidant. This action of Se is complementary to vitamin E. Availability of vitamin E reduces the selenium requirement. In Se deficiency, tissue vitamin E content is depleted. Reference: Vasudevan Textbook of Biochemistry pg no. 430 | train | med_mcqa | null |
In extraperitoneal approach, to left sympathectomy the following may be injured - | [
"Ureter",
"Gonadal vessels",
"A+B",
"IVC"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Frie's test is useful for diagnosis of - | [
"Mycoplasma",
"Rickettsia",
"Sarcoidosis",
"Chlamydia"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Chlamydiao Fries test (skin hypersensitivity test) was used for LGV (caused by chlamydia trachomatis),o But it is not used nowr because of high false positive results. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The procedure (in Class III restoration) shown is: | [
"Smoothening of enamel margin",
"Beveling of the external tooth surface",
"Refining the proximal walls",
"Flaring of proximal walls"
] | B | Larger preparations may require additional beveling of the accessible enamel walls to enhance retention by bonding these enamel margins, which are beveled with a flame-shaped or round diamond instrument.
The bevel is prepared by creating a 45-degree angle to the external surface and to a width of 0.5 to 2 mm, depending on the size of the preparation, location of the margin, and esthetic requirements of the restoration. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The pH of a freshly prepared stannous fluoride solution is approximately | [
"2.5",
"4.5",
"6.5",
"8.5"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following are true concerning a young epileptic, who has a grand mal seizure in the dental office? | [
"It is generally fatal",
"It is best treated by injecting phenytoin",
"They generally recover if restrained from self injury and oxygen is maintained",
"Use physical restraints judiciously"
] | C | DENTAL MANAGEMENT OF EPILEPTIC PATIENTS
Prevention of seizures can be best managed by:
Type and frequency of seizures prior to treatment.
Reduce stress. Diazepam is drug of choice.
Use of dental chair light avoided.
Appropriate drug therapy for seizures.
Due to the use of antiepileptic medication, typical fibrous gingival hyperplasia. Surgical removal necessary.
If seizure occurs in the dental chair, lower the chair to supine position.
Protect the patient from injuring himself.
Maintain a patent airway.
Give Diazepam 1mg/kg IV slowly up to 10mg.
Give oxygen.
If condition does not improve admit to hospital. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Primary carcinoma of the uterus may be of following types except : | [
"Adenocarcinoma",
"Adenosquamous carcinoma",
"Clear cell type",
"Large cell keratinising type"
] | D | WHO Histologic Classification of Endometrial Carcinoma 1. Endometroid adenocarcinoma Variations: Adenocarcinoma with Squamous differentiation Secretory adenocarcinoma Ciliated carcinoma Viloglandular 2. Serous 3. Clear cell carcinoma 4. Undifferentiated carcinoma 5. Mucinous carcinoma 6. Squamous cell carcinoma 7. Transitional cell carcinoma 8. Mixed cell type Reference: Textbook of Gynaecology; Sheila balakrishnan; 2nd edition; Pg no: 244 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Distance between nodal point and cornea in Listing's Reduced eye is | [
"7.2mm",
"9mm",
"12mm",
"15.3mm"
] | A | Answer- A. 7.2mmNodal Point- 7.2 mm behind the anterior corneal surface | train | med_mcqa | null |
Chronic liver disease patient with ascites and no bleeding varices. He presents with hematemesis and melena. What is the next step in management? | [
"Inj. vitamin K",
"Inj. Tranexamic acid",
"FFP transfusion",
"Platelet transfusion"
] | C | In patient of chronic liver disease, synthesis of clotting factors is reduced. Since this patient does not have varices, the cause of haematemesis in this patient is bleeding diathesis due to liver disease. Bleeding in such patients is treated with FFP in acute situations. Abnormalities in coagulation in CLD Decreased synthesis of clotting factors and impaired clearance of anticoagulants. Thrombocytopenia from hypersplenism due to poal hypeension. In patients with chronic cholestatic syndrome vitamin K absorption is frequently diminished as it requires biliary excretion for its absorption | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following hormones does not affect growth? | [
"Oxytocin",
"Somatotropins",
"Thyroid hormone",
"Estrogen"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
The metabolite accumulating in Wolman&;s disease is | [
"Amino acid",
"Sulfite",
"Glycogen",
"Cholesteryl ester"
] | D | Wolman Disease and Cholesteryl Ester Storage Disease:These autosomal recessive disorders are caused by lack of lysosomal acid lipase. After LDL cholesterol is incorporated into the cell by endocytosis,it is delivered to lysosomes where it is hydrolyzed by lysosomal lipase. Failure of hydrolysis because of the complete absence of the enzyme causes accumulation of cholesteryl esters within the cells. Hepatosplenomegaly, steatorrhea, and failure to thrive occur during early infancy, leading to death at the age of 1 yr.In cholesterol ester storage disease, a less-severe form than Wolman disease, there is low but detectable acid lipase activity.Reference: Nelson Textbook of Paediatrics; 20th edition; Chapter 86; Defects in Metabolism of Lipids | train | med_mcqa | null |
FAST stands for: | [
"Focused assessment with sonography for trauma",
"Focused abdominal sonography for trauma",
"Fast assessment with sonography for trauma",
"Fast assignment with sonography and tomography (computed)"
] | A | Ans. (a) Focused assessment with sonography for traumaRef: Sabiston 19/e p437* Focused ASSESSMENT is the correct term but even text books commonly use the term - "Focussed Abdominal Sonogram of Trauma"* We assess 6 areas as discussed in theory part* Old editions used to mention 4 areas are assessed.* To assess presence of blood in peritoneum or pericardium.* Focuses on six areas only: pericardial, splenic, hepatic, pelvic areas, Right and Left paracolic areas* It will detect blood more than 100ml only* It will not detect hollow viscus injury.* It cannot exclude injuries in Penetrating trauma.* Operator dependent.* In FAST we will not assess the grade of the injury - we will assess only whether is injury. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A man presents with chest pain. ECG shows ST-segment depression in leads V1-V4. Which of the following should not be given? | [
"Beta blocker",
"Thrombolytic",
"Morphine",
"Aspirin"
] | B | Thrombolytics like streptokinase, alteplase, reteplase are beneficial to patients with ST-elevated MI Max. benefit will be seen if they were given with 6 hours of the onset of MI Their use in ST depressed MI is contraindicated | train | med_mcqa | null |
95% of the values in the distribution corresponds to | [
"l.S.D",
"2. S. D",
"3. S.D",
"4. S.D"
] | B | B i.e. (2 SD) (701 Park 19th) (751-Park 20th)In normal distribution curve* 1 Standard deviation =68% of value.* 2 Standard deviation =95% of value* 3 Standard deviation =99.7% value* Standard normal curve - Smooth bell shaped, perfectly symmetrical**1. Total area of the curve is 1*2. Its mean is Zero3. Standard deviation is 14. The mean, median and mode all coinside** | train | med_mcqa | null |
All are true for Gradenigo's syndrome except- | [
"It is associated with conductive hearing loss",
"It is caused by an abscess in the petrous apex",
"It leads to involvement of the cranial nerve V and VI",
"It is characterised by retro-orbital pain"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Multiple myeloma is treated by all, EXCEPT: | [
"Lenalidomide",
"Boezomib",
"Thalidomide",
"All of the above"
] | D | Relapsed myeloma can be treated with novel agents including lenalidomide and/or boezomib. Thalidomide, if not used as initial therapy, can achieve responses in refractory cases. High-dose melphalan and stem cell transplant, if not used earlier, also have activity in patients with refractory disease. Ref: Harrison's principle of internal medicine 17th edition, chapter 106. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Stain used to diagnose premalignant lesion of lip is? | [
"Crystal violet",
"H & E",
"Toluidine blue",
"Giemsa"
] | C | ANSWER: (C) Toluidine blueREF: Indian journal of dental research 2007 Volume: 18 Issue: 3 Page: 101-105, Mehrotra et al. Molecular Cancer 2006 5:11 doi: 10.1186/1476-4598-5-11* Mitotic index is a clinically important parameter in cancer pathology.* Selective histochemical stains like toluidine blue, Giemsa and crystal violet have been used in tissues including the developing brain, neural tissue and skin.* Toluidine Blue detect efficiently and rapidly mitotic figures in sections of formalin-fixed paraffin-embedded human tissues especially in oral cavity | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following agents may be used in the management of chronic hypocalcemia, except- | [
"Etidronate",
"Thiazides",
"Elemental Calcium",
"Vatamin D analogs"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Arthritis involving DIP, PIP, 1st carpometacarpal with sparing of MCP and wrist joints is typical of - | [
"Osteoarthritis",
"Rheumatoid arthritis",
"Ankylosing spondylitis",
"Psoriatic arthritis"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Osteoarthritis JointImportant arthritis involving the jointDistal interphalangeal jointProximal interphalangeal jointMetacarpophalangeal joint1st Carpometacarpal jointWristOsteoarthritis, Psoriatic arthritis, Reactive arthritisOsteoarthritis, RA, SLE, Psoriatic arthritisRA. pseudogout, hemochromatosisOsteoarthritisRA, Pseudogout, gonococcal arthritis, juvenile arthritisSpared jointo Wrist and MTPo DIPOsteoarthritisRA | train | med_mcqa | null |
In a patient PO2 is 85 mmHg, PCO2 -- 50mmHg, pH is 7.2 and HCO3 is 32 meq/1 is suffering from : | [
"Respiratory acidosis with compensatory metabolic alkalosis",
"Respiratory acidosis with compensatory metabolic acidosis",
"Metabolic acidosis",
"Metabolic alkalosis"
] | A | Answer is A (Respiratory acidosis with compensatory metabolic alkalosis) Because primary respiratory component is causing acidosis and metabolic component is compensatory by producing alkaosis, the acid base disorder is Respiratory acidosis with compensatory metabolic alkalosis. STEP 1 : What is the pH. Normal pH pH of patient Inference Is it acidosis or alkalosis 7.35 - 7.45 7.2 Decreased pH Acidosis STEP II : What component is primary and what is compensatory Parameter Inference Is change towards acidosis or alkalosis Is change in keeping with change in pH Final Inference pCO3 = 50mm Hg increased acidosis Yes Primary component is (Respiratory component) (pH=7.2 = Acidosis) respiratory (acidosis) HCO3- = 32 mmHg increased Alkalosis No Metabolic component is (metabolic component) (pH=7.2 = Acidosis) compensatory (alkalotic) STEP III : Final deduction Because the primary component is respiratory and the metabolic component is compensatory the acid base disorder is respiratory acidosis with compensatory metabolic alkalosis. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is not included in the triad of Reiter's syndrome – | [
"Conjuctivitis",
"Urethritis",
"Arthritis",
"Keratoderma blenorrhagica"
] | D | Classical triad of Reiter's syndrome is reactive arthritis, conjuctivitis and urethritis. Keratoderma blenorrhagica occurs, but it is not included in triad of Reiter's syndrome. | train | med_mcqa | null |
It is most difficult to perform apically positioned flap
procedure in: | [
"Facial surface of incisors",
"Lingual surface of incisors",
"Facial surface of third molars",
"Lingual surface of third molar"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following can determine the protein structure, EXCEPT: | [
"High performance liquid chromatography",
"Mass spectrometry",
"X-ray crystallography",
"NMR spectrometry"
] | A | HPLC is a technique used for enhanced and precise separation of even small amounts of biological and nonbiological molecules. It is a form of column chromatography used to separate, identify, and purify compounds.Must know:Mass spectrometry: The superior sensitivity, speed, and versatility of MS have replaced the Edman technique as the principal method for determining the sequences of peptides and proteins.X-ray crystallography: x-ray crystallography revealed the structures of thousands of biological macromolecules ranging from proteins to many oligonucleotides and a few viruses.Nuclear magnetic resonance (NMR) spectroscopy: Nuclear magnetic resonance (NMR) spectroscopy, a powerful complement to x-ray crystallography, measures the absorbance of radio frequency electromagnetic energy by ceain atomic nuclei. NMR spectroscopy analyzes proteins in aqueous solution. Not only does this obte the need to form crystals (a paicular advantage when dealing with difficult to crystallize membrane proteins), it renders possible real-time observation of the changes in conformation that accompany ligand binding or catalysis. Ref: Kennelly P.J., Rodwell V.W. (2011). Chapter 5. Proteins: Higher Orders of Structure. In D.A. Bender, K.M. Botham, P.A. Weil, P.J. Kennelly, R.K. Murray, V.W. Rodwell (Eds), Harper's Illustrated Biochemistry, 29e. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Hallmark feature of osteomyelitis is: | [
"Identification of sequestrum",
"Pain",
"Swelling",
"None of the above"
] | A | The hallmark of osteomyelitis is the development of sequestra. A sequestrum is a segment of bone that has become necrotic because of ischemic injury caused by the inflammatory process.
Reference: White and Pharoah's Oral Radiology Principles and Interpretation 7th edition page no 320 | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 70-year-old man presents with deterioration of vision 3 weeks after cataract extraction and IOL implantation. Slit lamp examination shows honeycomb maculopathy and Fluorescin angiography (FA) shows 'flower petal' hyperfluorescence. The most likely diagnosis is: | [
"Age related macular degeneration (ARMD)",
"Central serous Retinopathy (CSR)",
"Macular Dystrophy",
"Cystoid Macular Edema"
] | D | D i.e. Cystoid Macular Edema - Delayed onset unexpected visual loss, typically with onset in 3-4 weeks postoperatively, presenting as decreased central visual acuity with yellow spot in fovea, honey comb appearance on slit lamp examination, and flower petal or petaloid pattern hyper fluorescence on FA after cataract surgery is characteristic of cystoids maculr oedema (CMO). FA in central serous chorioretinopathy gives smoke stack and ink blot appearance. Cystoid Macular Edema (CME) Definition and Etiology - CME is a final common pathological response of retina to a variety of insults, consisting of fluid accumulation in outer plexiform (Henle's) layer and inner nuclear layer of the central macula that results in the formation of visible cystic space. - Initially fluid accumulates intracellularly in Muller cells, with subsequent rupture forming microcystic spaces. These coalesce into larger cavities and may progress to lamellar hole formation at the fovea with irreversible impairment of central vision. - CME is commonly a/w intraocular inflammations (eg pars planitis), vascular incompetence (diabetes & RVO), vitreoretinal traction, inherited diseases (eg RP or dominant CME), medications (epinephrine, latanoprost) and most commonly following cataract surgeryQ (k/a Irvine-Gass syndrome). Agiographically evident CME is seen in 60% ECCE, 20% ICCE and 10-20% phacoemulsification cases (all uncomplicated). Clinically significant CME with decreased visual acuity, however, is seen only in 0.2-3% patients. - Planned posterior capsulorrhexis during phacoemulsification does not 1/t an increase prevalence of CME, whereas those with inadveent rupture of posterior capsule &/or persistent vitreous traction to anterior segment are at highest risk. Diabetic retinopathy also increases incidence of post cataract CME. - Conditions a/w CME include Postoperative Vascular Inflammatory - Cataract surgery - Diabetic retinopathyQ - Eale's disease (ECCE > ICCE > - Retinal vein - Behcet's Phacoemulsification)Q obstruction (RVO)Q syndrome - Inadveent posterior - Ocular ischemic - Birdshot capsular rupture syndrome choroidopathy - Penetrating - Coat's disease - Pars planitis keratoplasty - Choroidal - Scleritis - Astigmatic corneal neovascularization - Idiopathic incisions - Idiopathic juxta foveal vitritis - Scleral buckling (for telangiectasia - CMV retinitis RD) - Acute hypeensive - Toxoplamosis - Laser iridotomy retinopathy - Sarcoidosis - Cryotherapy for - Radiation retinopathy retinal breaks - Retinal aerial Fundal Tumors - Pan-retinal photo macroaneurysm - Choroidal coagulation Inherited melanoma - Nd YAG laser - Retinitis pigmentosaQ - Choroidal capsulotomy (risk - Gyrate atrophy hemangioma reduced if delayed for _ Autosomal dominant - Retinal capillary 6 months after CME hemangioma cataract surgery) Topical Medications Tractional (in aphakic) - Vitreo macular - Prostaglandin tractional syndromeQ (latanoprost) - Idiopathic epiretinal - Adrenaline membrane (epinephrine) - Nicotinic acid Clinical Presentation - There is typically pre-existing cause such as cataract surgery (most common) or diabetic retinopathy etc. - Blurring and distoion : The major symptom is decreased central visual acuity. Accompanying symptoms include metamorphopsia, micropsia, scotoma, ocular irritation, photophobia and conjunctival injection. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following regarding Maternal Moality Rate (MMR) is not TRUE? | [
"Numerator includes total number of female deaths within 42 days of delivery",
"Denominator includes still bihs and aboions",
"It is expressed as a rate and not ratio",
"It is expressed per 1000"
] | B | The denominator in Maternal Moality Rate includes the total number of live bihs in a paicular area during a paicular year and not the number of stillbihs and aboions. The denominator is inclusive of the total number of still bihs while calculating the Stillbih Rate and Perinatal Moality Rate. The numerator of the rate includes the total number of female deaths due to complications of pregnancy, childbih or within 42 days of delivery from puerperal causes in a paicular area during a given year. Maternal Moality Rate is expressed as a rate and not as a ratio. It is expressed as a rate per 1000 live bihs. Ref: Park's Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine, 19th Edition. | train | med_mcqa | null |
In bursting of skull due to firearm injury, a large poion of the brain may be thrown out of the bursting skull and found relatively intact. This is called as | [
"Kronlein shot",
"Back spatter",
"Billiard ball effect",
"Balling of shot"
] | A | During bursting of skull due to firearm injury, a large poion of the brain may be thrown out of the bursting skull and found relatively intact. This is called as kronlein shot. - is a very rare injury of the skull caused by a high-velocity bullet in close range. There is bursting of the skull and laceration of the dura mater with complete evisceration of the brain. The brain will get shattered. Back spatter: Once the bullet is fired, spattering of blood back into the barrel. 'Billiard Ball' Ricochet Effect: It occurs after the shotgun pallets strike an intermediate object like doors, etc. When a mass of shotgun pellets enters tissue, the first pellets which penetrate are slowed and struck from behind by the following pellets which can cause them to scatter through the tissue much like a cluster of billiard balls struck by the cue ball. On X ray, the dispersal of pellets may suggest a distant shot,but actually the weapon was fired from close range. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Thomas test detects | [
"Shortening of lower limb",
"Flexion deformity of hip",
"Lengthening of lower limb",
"Intractness of tendoachillis tendon"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Hair on end appearance in seen in- | [
"Thalasemia",
"Iron deficiency anemia",
"Hemochromatosis",
"Megaloblastic anemia"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Thalassemia * Hair on end appearance can be seen in the diploic space of the skull and has the appearance of long, thin vertical striations. This appearance is caused by alternating thickened trabeculae and radiolucent marrow hyperplasia* Hair on end appearance is characteristically and most commonly seen in thalassemia because marrow hyperplasia is more marked in this than other anemia.* Sickle cell anemia is the 2nd most common cause (after thalassemia).Other causes* Hereditary spherocytosis* G6PD or Pyruvate kinase deficiency* Severe iron deficiency anemia* Neoplastic: - Hemangioma, neuroblastic metastasis* Cyanotic heart disease | train | med_mcqa | null |
The risk factor in cholangiocarcinoma - | [
"Pancreatitis",
"Caroli disease",
"Pyelonephritis",
"Ulcerative colitis"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Caroli disease Cholangiocarcinoma o Cholangiocarcinoma is a malignancy of the biliary tree, arising from bile ducts within or outside the liver, o Risk factors All risk factors for cholangiocarcinomas cause chronic inflammation and cholestasis, which presumably promote the occurrence of somatic mutations or epigenetic alterations in cholangiocytes. Primary sclerosing cholangitis. Hepatolithiasis. Congenital fibro-polycystic disease of the biliary system (Caroli disease, choledochal cyst). Hepatitis B and C. Exposure to thorotrast. Opisthorchissinensis and clonorchiasis infection. | train | med_mcqa | null |
If the prevalene is very low as compared to the incidence for a disease, it implies - | [
"Disease is very fatal and/or easily curable",
"Disease is nonfatal",
"Calculation of prevalence and incidence is wrong",
"Nothing can be said, as they are independent"
] | A | Prevalence is less than incidence
1) Disease is very fatal
Most of the cases die, so at the time of calculating prevalence the number is usually less than the incidence.
2) Disease is very well curable either by rapid recovery or by treatment
Most of the cases recover, so at the time of calculating prevalence the number is usually less than incidence.
Prevalence is more than incidence
1) Disease is not fatal but very chronic
Due to increased duration, prevalence increases
2) Treatment prevent death but does not cure
Due to increased duration, prevalence increases. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Defect in Amyloid protein folding occurs in: | [
"Alzheimer disease",
"Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease",
"Scrapie disease",
"Bovine spongiform encephalopathy (BSE)"
] | A | PROTEIN MISFOLDING AND DISEASES- (1) Amyloidosis - Amyloids is used to refer to the altered proteins (with beta-sheets) that accumulate in the body, paicularly in the nervous system Alzheimer's disease is a neurodegenerative disorder Accumulation of beta amyloid. Other example of amyloidosis:- Type Protein Implicated Primary Principally light chains of immunoglobulins Secondary Serum amyloid (A (SAA) Familial Transthyretin; others:- apolipoprotein A-1, Cystain C, fibrinogen, gelsolin, Lysozyme Alzheimer's disease Amyloid b peptide (see Chapter 57, case no. 2) Dialysis - related b2 - microglobulin (2) Prion disease - Etiology:-Proteinaceous infectious agents No change in 1o structures and post translation modification Change in 3D structures (major change is replacement of alpha helix by beta sheets) Can act as template to conve non-infectious proteins (with cl-helices) to infectious forms Example - Transmissible spongiform encephalopathies (TSEs) and Creutzfeldt Jakob disease in humans. Scrapie disease - sheep Bovine spongiform encephalopathy (popularly known as mad cow disease) in cattle | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most common presentation of Neurocysticercosh is | [
"Seizures",
"Focal neurological deficits",
"Dementia",
"Radiculopathy"
] | A | (A) Seizures # NEUROCYSTICERCOSIS is the most common parasitic disease of the CNS worldwide.> Humans acquire cysticercosis by the ingestion of food contaminated with the eggs of the parasite T. solium,\> Eggs are contained in under cooked pork or in drinking water or other foods contaminated with human feces.> T. gondii is a parasite that is acquired from the ingestion of undercooked meat and from handling cat feces.> In cysticercosis, the clinical manifestations are variable.> Cysticerci can be found anywhere in the body but are most commonly detected in the brain, skeletal muscle, subcutaneous tissue, or eye> Clinical presentation of cysticercosis depends on the number and location of cysticerci as well as the extent of associated inflammatory responses or scarring.> Neurologic manifestations are the most common. Seizures are associated with inflammation surrounding cysticerci in the brain parenchyma. These seizures may be generalized, focal, or Jacksonian.> Hydrocephalus results from obstruction of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) flow by cysticerci and accompanying inflammation or by CSF outflow obstruction from arachnoiditis.> Signs of increased intracranial pressure, including headache, nausea, vomiting, changes in vision, dizziness, ataxia, or confusion, are often evident. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following are true regarding Raynaud's phenomenon except: | [
"It involves acral pas of fingers",
"Migratory thrombophlebitis exclusive for Raynaud's phenomenon",
"Drugs acting by inhibiting the beta-receptors in blood vessels also play a role",
"Emotional stress may also precipitate Raynaud's phenomenon"
] | B | Migratory thrombophlebitis is seen in: Raynaud's phenomenon Buerger's Disease Malignancies like Ca Pancreas-known as Trousseau Syndrome RAYNAUD'S PHENOMENON- It is episodic digital ischemia* On exposure of cold* Emotional stress* Use of vibrating tools- Manifested by - Sequential development of digital blanching, cyanosis and redness offingers and toes Sequence of EventsBlanching (Stage of local syncope)|Cyanosis (Stage of local asphyxia)|Redness (Stage of Recovery)BlanchingExposure of cold|Spasm of digital aerioles|Digits appear white CyanosisCapillaries & Venules dilates|Collection of deoxygenated blood|CyanosisRednessResolution of digital spasm|Increased blood flow in dilated aeries and capillaries|Bright red colour of digits Clinical features- Most common in Fingers > Toes- Radial, ulnar and pedal pulses are normalTypes1. Primary (Idiopathic) / Raynaud's disease2. SecondaryTreatment - To relieve spasm - Calcium channel blockers* Diltiazem* Nifedipine | train | med_mcqa | null |
Chronic Cor pulmonale is seen in all except: | [
"Pulmonary embolization",
"COPD",
"Cystic fibrosis",
"Primary pulmonary hypeension"
] | A | Answer is None or A (None or Pulmonary embolization): Recurrent pulmonary embolization leads to chronic cor pulmonale, but the question does not mention 'Recurrent' and hence this is the single best answer of exclusion COPD, Cystic Fibrosis and Bronchiectasis may all progress to chronic cor pulmonale Etiology of Chronic Cor Pulmonale Diseases Leading to Hypoxic Disease That Casue Occlusion of the Diseases That Lead to Parenchymal Vasoconstriction Pulmonary Vascular Bed Disease Chronic bronchitis Recurrent pulmonary Chronic bronchitis Chronic obstructive pulmonary thromboembolism Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease Primary pulmonary hypeension disease Cystic fibrosis Venocclusive disease Bronchiectasis Chronic hypoventilation Collagen vascular disease Cystic fibrosis Obsity Drug-induced lung disease . Pneumoconiosis Neuromuscular. disease Sarcoid Chest wall dysfunction Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis Living at high altitudes | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is example of Non-random sampling | [
"Probability sampling",
"Non-purposive sampling",
"Cluster random sampling",
"Clinical trial sampling"
] | D | Examples of Non-random (Non-probability sampling/ Purposive sampling) sampling: Convenience sampling Quota sampling Snow ball sampling Clinical trial sampling | train | med_mcqa | null |
The objective of the access cavity preparation is to gain direct access to | [
"Pulp chamber",
"Canal orifice",
"Apical foramen",
"Middle third of the canal"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Cyclic AMP acts as the second messenger for: | [
"ADH",
"Glucagon",
"Calcitonin",
"All of these"
] | D | Ans. D. All of theseCyclic AMP is a very important second messenger synthesized by ATP in the presence of adenylate cyclase. Here the hormones bind to the cell surface (Plasma membrane) receptors and stimulate the release of second messengers.Second MessengerHormonesc-AMPCatechol amines, ACTH, hCGADH, Calcitonin, FSH, TSH, PTH, GlucagonPhosphatidyl inositol/calciumTRH, GnRH, Oxytocin, ADH, Gastrin, CCK, Angiotensin IIKinase or Phosphatase cascadeInsulin, Prolactin, EGF, Fibroblast growth factor. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Bjork used the implants for predicting facial growth changes. This approach is called as: | [
"Longitudinal approach",
"Metric approach",
"Structural approach",
"Computerized predication"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following enzymes do not participate in a ping-pong reaction? | [
"Aminotransferases",
"Serine proteases",
"Pyruvate carboxylase",
"None of the above"
] | D | The term “ping-pong” applies to mechanisms in which one or more products are released from the enzyme before all the substrates have been added. Ping-pong reactions involve covalent catalysis and a transient, modified form of the enzyme.
Example- aminotransferases, serine proteases and pyruvate carboxylase.
Reference- Harper 30th edition Pg- 84 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is Not associated with congenital hypothyroidism? | [
"Thyroid agenesis",
"Wide open anterior fontanelle",
"Microcephaly",
"Drooling"
] | C | Infants born with congenital hypothyroidism may show no effects, or may display mild effects that often go unrecognized as a problem: excessive sleeping, reduced interest in nursing, poor muscle tone, low or hoarse cry, infrequent bowel movements, exaggerated jaundice, and low body temperature. If fetal deficiency was severe because of complete absence (athyreosis) of the gland, physical features may include a larger anterior fontanel, persistence of a posterior fontanel, an umbilical hernia, and a large tongue (macroglossia). Reference: GHAI Essential pediatrics, 8th edition | train | med_mcqa | null |
The following parasitic infections predispose to malignancies? | [
"Paragonimus westermani",
"Guinea worm infection",
"Clonorchiasis",
"Ancyclostoma"
] | C | Ans. (c) ClonorchiasisRef: Robbin's pathology 9th ed. /874-75* Clonorchis Sinesis: Cholangiocarcinoma* Schistosoma Hematobium: Squamous cell cancer of urinary bladder* Schistosoma Japonicum: Colorectal cancer | train | med_mcqa | null |
Polysulfide material is routinely not recommended because of: | [
"Unpleasant odor and taste",
"Low accuracy",
"Least permanent deformation",
"Highest curing shrinkage"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Delirium tremens is characterized by confusion associated with - | [
"Autonomic hyperactivity and tremors",
"Features of intoxication due to alcohol",
"Sixth nerve palsy",
"Korsakoff psychosis"
] | A | Automatic hyperactivity with tremors occurs in delirium. | train | med_mcqa | null |
4 little girl who was underweight and hypotonic in infancy is obsessed with food, eats compulsively, and, at age 4, she is already grossly overweight. She is argumentative; oppositional, and rigid. She has a narrow face, almond-shaped eyes, and a small mouth. What is her diagnosis | [
"Down syndrome",
"Fragile X syndrome",
"Fetal alcohol syndrome",
"Prader-Willi syndrome"
] | D | (D) Prader-Willi syndrome # Willi syndrome is a genetic disorder caused by a defect of the long arm of chromosome 15. Characteristically, children are underweight in infancy> In early childhood, due to a hypothalamic dysfunction, they start eating voraciously and quickly become grossly overweight,> Individuals with this syndrome have characteristic facial features and present with a variety of neurologic and neuropsychiatry symptoms including autonomic dysregulation, muscle weakness, hypotonia, mild to moderate mental retardation, temper tantrums, violent outbursts, perseveration, skin picking, and a tendency to be argumentative, oppositional, and rigid. | train | med_mcqa | null |
True regarding development of hea is/are A/E | [
"Dorsal mesocardium forms transverse pericardial sinus",
"Myosites arise from splanchopleuric mesoderm",
"Purkinje fibers develop from somatopleuric mesoderm",
"Neural crest cells have role in development of muscular sub pulmonary infundibulum"
] | C | C i.e. Purkinje fibers develop from somatopleuric mesoderm | train | med_mcqa | null |
Treatment of chronic phase of CML in pregnant women is - | [
"Imatinib",
"Leukapheresis",
"Spleenectomy",
"Interferon therapy"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Leukapheresis Role of leukapheresis and spleenectomy in management of CML* Intensive leukapheresis may control the blood counts in chronic-phase CML; however, it is expensive and cumbersome.* It is useful in emergencies where leukostasis-related complications such as pulmonary failure or cerebrovascular accidents are likely.* It may also have a role in the treatment of pregnant women, in whom it is important to avoid potentially teratogenic drugs.* Splenectomy was used in CML in the past because of the suggestion that evolution to the acute phase might occur in the spleen.* However, this does not appear to be the case, and splenectomy is now reserved for symptomatic relief of painful splenomegaly unresponsive to imatinib or chemotherapy, or for significant anemia or thrombocytopenia associated with hypersplenism. Splenic radiation is used rarely to reduce the size of the spleen. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Hang up angle reflex seen in - | [
"Hypothyroidism",
"Thyrotoxicosis",
"Sipple syndrome",
"Wermer syndrome"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Taste buds are absent in: | [
"Filiform papillae.",
"Fungiform papillae.",
"Circumvallate papillae.",
"Folliate papillae."
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
The following antibiotic accentuates the neuromuscular blockade produced by pancuronium: | [
"Streptomycin",
"Erythromycin",
"Penicillin G",
"Chloramphenicol"
] | A | * Aminoglycosides (like streptomycin and gentamicin) can accentuate the neuromuscular blockade produced by competitive blockers (like pancuronium). * Mechanism of neuromuscular blockade produced by aminoglycosides is the inhibition of presynaptic release of ACh. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Advantage of NiTi over K-files? | [
"Increased flexibility",
"Low resiliency",
"Resistance to breakage",
"Less expensive"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
False statement regarding this condition: | [
"Associated with HLA DR4, DR5, DQ3",
"Exclamation mark seen",
"Spares grey and white hairs",
"Itching and scaling seen"
] | D | Ans. d. Itching and scaling seenAlopecia AreataInitial lesion is a circumscribed, totally bald, smooth patchExclamation mark hairs seenHLA DR4, DR5, DQ3 associatedSpares grey white hairs leading to "Going white/Turning grey overnight phenomenon"No itching or scaling | train | med_mcqa | null |
Pathological manifestation of chronic alcoholism include all of the following except - | [
"Piecemeal necrosis",
"Balloning degeneration",
"Microvesicular fatty changes",
"Central hyaline sclerosis"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Piecemeal necrosis | train | med_mcqa | null |
Drug used for intralesional injection of keloid is - | [
"Prednisolone",
"Triamcinolone",
"Androgen",
"Hydrocortisone"
] | B | Triamcinolone acetonide is the drug used for intralesional injection of steroid.
Also know
Treatment of hypertropic scars
Since nearly all hypertrophic scars undergo some degree of spontaneous regression, they are not t/t in early phases. If the scar is still hypertrophic after 6 months surgical excision and primary closure of the wound is indicated.
Other modalities used for t/t of HTS.
Pressure application - particularly useful for burn scars.
Silicone sheet application
Intralesional injection of triamcinolone is the t/t of choice for intractable HTS. | train | med_mcqa | null |
CA-125 is marker for: September 2007 | [
"Breast cancer",
"Ovarian cancer",
"Pancreatic cancer",
"Colon cancer"
] | B | Ans. B: Ovarian cancerCA-125 is an antigen present on 80 percent of nonmucinous ovarian carcinomas.It is defined by a monoclonal antibody (0C125) that was generated by immunizing laboratory mice with a cell line established from human ovarian carcinoma.It circulates in the serum of patients with ovarian carcinoma and was therefore investigated for possible use as a marker. CAl25 is often elevated in patients with ovarian cancer, its level following the patient's clinical course.With surgical resection or chemotherapy, the level correlates with patient response. Thus, it is superior to other markers such as CEA.Because of the low prevalence of ovarian cancer, the test is not itself useful in screening. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Eale's disease | [
"Recurrent anterior uveitis",
"Recurrent vitreous haemorrhage",
"Recurrent macular haemorrhage",
"Recurrent subconjuctival haemorrhage"
] | B | It is an idiopathic inflammation of the peripheral retinal veins, characterised by recurrent vitreous hemorrhage. Etiology not exactly known, but consider to be a hypersensitivity reaction to tubercular protiens. Bilateral disease, typically affecting young adult males. Ref : khurana 6 th edition , page no. 265 Eales disease (ED) is an idiopathic, inflammatory retinal venous occlusive disease characterized by 3 stages: vasculitis, occlusion and retinal neovascularization, leading to recurrent vitreous hemorrhages and vision loss. Ref AK khurana 6/e p240 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Drug causing icthyosis and hyperpigmentation, when used in leprosy is - | [
"Rifampicin",
"Dapsone",
"Clofazimine",
"Ethionamide"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Clofazimine o Adverse effects of clofazimine 1. Skin ---> Reddish-black discolouration of skin, dryness of skin and itching, Discolouration of hair and body secretions, acneform eruptions and phototoxicity, conjuctival pigmentation. 2. GIT --> Enteritis with loose stools, nausea, abdominal pain, anorexia and weight loss. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All are true regarding hyper IgE syndrome except: | [
"Inheritance is as a single locus autosomal dominant trait with variable expression",
"Coarse facial features",
"Recurrent staphylococcal abscesses involving skin, lungs",
"High serum lgE with low igG, lgA and lgM"
] | D | Hyper IgE syndrome or Job's syndrome:Broad nose, kyphoscoliosis, osteoporosis, and eczemaPrimary teeth erupt normally but do not deciduateRecurrent sinopulmonary and cutaneous infections which are less inflamed (cold abscesses)IgE level is increased but others like IgG, IgA, and IgM are normal(ref:Harrison's 17/e p384, 2061; 18/e p482) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Manifestations of epidemic Dropsy are all except – | [
"Gastrointestinal bleed",
"Cutaneous hemangiomas",
"Breathlessness",
"CHF"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Gastrinoma a/w | [
"Diarrhoea",
"Constipation",
"Achlorhydria",
"Multiple superficial gastric ulcers"
] | A | Diarrhoea is due to hypergastrinaemia.It is associated with severe ulcers,not superficial SRB's manual of surgery,5th edition,710. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which IUCD acts for 10 years | [
"Cu-T 200 B",
"Nova-T",
"Cu-T 380A",
"Multi load-250"
] | C | Cu T 308A is approved for use for 10 years However, it is demonstrated to maintain its efficacy over at least 12 years of use Reference: Park&;s textbook of preventive and social medicine, 23rd edition, Page no: 497 | train | med_mcqa | null |
In plasma sterilization control used is aEUR' | [
"Bacillus subtilis",
"Bacillus stearothermophilus",
"C. Perfringes",
"C. tetani"
] | B | Bacillus stearothermophilus Sterilization is generally defined as the process of completely destroying ble microorganisms including structures such as spores. Standandard practice in sterilization process is to include sterility indicator along with the aicles to be sterilized. The use of sterility indicators allows a direct and sensitive approach to test the effectiveness of the sterilization process. Sterility indicators can be biological or chemical. Biological indicators A biological indicator is broadly defined as a characteristic preparation of specific microorganism that provides a defined and stable ressitance to specific sterilization procedures. The biological indicators selected should provide a greater challenge to the sterilization process than the bioburden in or on the product. Microorganisms widely recognized as biological indicators are spore forming bacterias because these organisms are significantly more resistant than the normal. - With the exception of ionizing radiation process, these microorganisms are significantly more resistant than the normal micro flora. A biological indicator can be used to assist in the performance qualification of the sterilization equipment and in the development and establishment of a validated sterilization process for a paicular process. "Biological indicator used in plasma sterilization is Bacillus stearothermophilus". Plasma sterilization Plasma is described as the fouh state of matter (It is neither liquid, gas or solid). it is defined as reactive cloud of ionized atoms, electrons and neutral atomic paicles. In order to generate the plasma for sterilization, matter (for example H202) a gaseous state is exposed to strong electrical or magnetic .field. This is performed in a vaccum so that high temperature are not required. In practice, a hydrogen peroxide solution is dispersed in a vaccum chamber creating a plasma cloud. This result in the generation (ionisation) of a cloud of charged paicles and free radicals that interact with vital cell component. The free radicals generated during this process interacts with vital cell component (mainly nucleic acids and destroy them). Sterilization occurs as a result of the dual phase process of the oxidative propeies of the vapour and plasma. Gas plasma is capable of penetrating medical packaging, is safe to use and the sterilization cycles are easy to control and monitor. The temperature attained in these process is not very high so there is no risk of damage of the instruments as in Heat methods. Biological indicators for various sterilization methods B. stearothernzophilus spores are used to monitor -Steam sterilization - Plasma sterilization (hydrogen peroxide) - Liquid peracetic acid sterilizers | train | med_mcqa | null |
Time taken for any project is estimated by ? | [
"Work sampling",
"Input/output analysis",
"Network analysis",
"System analysis"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Network analysis o PE is a type of network analysis which can estimate the time needed to complete the project. Programme Evaluation and Review technique (PER'] PER I is a management technique which makes possible more detailed planing and more comprehensive supervision. PE is method to analyze the involved tasks in completing a given project, especially the time needed to complete each task, and identifying the minimum time needed to complete the total project. The essence of PE is to construct an arrow diagram. which represents the logical sequence in which events must take place. o It is possible with such a diagram to calculate the time by which each activity must be completed, and to identify those activities that are critical. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Feature of Henoch-Scholein purpura includes -a) Occur only in elderly personb) Palpable purpurac) Thrombocytopeniad) Arthralgia | [
"bd",
"d",
"ab",
"ac"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Stem cells are? | [
"Labile",
"Stable",
"Permanent",
"None"
] | A | Ans. is A Labile o Based on their proliferative and regenerative capacity, cells are divided into:- 1) Labile cells (continuously dividing cells) or intermitotic cells # These cells have capacity to proliferate and regenerate throughout the life. They always remain in cell cycle and have very short Go-phase (quiescentphase). Example are:- i) Surface epithelium (stratified squamous) of skin, oral cavity, vagina and cervix. ii) Lining mucosa of all excretory ducts of glands (Salivary gland, pancreas, biliary duct). iii) Columinar epithelium of GIT (Intestinal mucosa) and uterus. iv) Transitional epithelium of the urinary tract. v) Bone marrow cells and hematopoietic cells. vi) Basal cells of epithelia. 2) Stable or quiescent or reversible postimitotic cells # They have limited capacity to proliferate and regenerate. They remain in Go phase of cell cycle but can enter in G1 phase when stimulated i.e., they usually remain quiescent, but proliferate in response to stimuli. Example are:- i) Parenchymal cells of liver, kidney and pancreas. ii) Mesenchymal cells, e.g., fibroblast and smooth muscles. iii) Vascular endothelium iv) Osteoblast, chondroblast v) Resting lymphocytes and other leukocytes. 3) Permanent or nondividing or irreversible postmitotic cells # They cannot divide and regenerate. These cells are nondividing and have left the cell cycle, i.e., they do not belong to any phase of cell cycle. Example are:- i) Neurons ii) Cardiac muscle iii) Skeletal muscle. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Oral glucose tolerance test in children is done with | [
"1.5 gm/kg glucose",
"1.75 gm/kg glucose",
"2 gm/kg glucose",
"2.5 gm/kg glucose"
] | B | Ideal weight of the glucose taken for glucose tolerance test for children are 1.75gm/kg glucose . Obtain a fasting blood sugar level, then administer an oral glucose load (2 g/kg for children aged < 3 y, 1.75 g/kg for children aged 3-10 y , or 75 g for children aged >10 y). Check the blood glucose concentration again after 2 hours. A fasting whole-blood glucose level higher than 120 mg/dL (6.7 mmol/L) or a 2-hour value higher than 200 mg/dL (11 mmol/L) indicates diabetes. However, mild elevations may not indicate diabetes when the patient has no symptoms and no diabetes-related antibodies. Reference: GHAI Essential pediatrics, 8th edition | train | med_mcqa | null |
RET gene mutation is associated with which malignancy- | [
"Pheochromocytoma",
"Medullary carcinoma thyroid",
"Lymphoma",
"Renal cell carcinoma"
] | B | Harshmohan textbook of pathology 7th edition. RET gene is a proto oncogene normally code for RET receptor . If point mutation happens it produces Multiple endocrine neoplasia type 2A and type 2B , medullary carcinoma of thyroid. . | train | med_mcqa | null |
Vaginal pH is most acidic during? | [
"Menstruation",
"Pregnancy",
"Puerperium",
"Newborn"
] | B | ANSWER: (B) PregnancyREF: 12th edition of Novak's Gynecology p-192, Jeffcoate 7ed p. 27The pH of the normal vagina is lower than 4.5, which is maintained by the production of lactic acid. Estrogen-stimulated vaginal epithelial cells are rich in glycogen. Vaginal epithelial cells break down glycogen to monosaccharaides, which can then be converted by the cells themselves and lactobacilli to lactic acid.pH of vagina changes with ageAGEVaginal pHNewborn4.5-76 week old7PubertyAlkaline to acidicReproductive age4-5.5Pregnancy3.5-4.5Late menopause6-8 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Coracoid process is a kind of epiphysis - | [
"Atavistic",
"Pressure",
"Traction",
"Aberrant"
] | A | Atavistic epiphysis
Phylogenetically an independent bone, which in man becomes fused to another bone
Examples:
Coracoid process of the scapula Posterior tubercle of talus Os trigonum
TYPES OF EPIPHYSES:
1. Pressure epiphysis
Articular and takes part in weight transmission
Examples: Head of femur Condyles of tibia Lower end of radius
2. Traction epiphysis
Non articular and does not take part in weight transmission
Provide attachment to a tendon which exerts traction
Examples: Trochanter of femur Tubercles of humerus Mastoid process
3. Atavistic epiphysis
Phylogenetically an independent bone, which in man becomes fused to another bone
Examples:Coracoid process of the scapula Posterior tubercle of talus Os trigonum
4. Aberrant epiphysis Not always present
Examples: Head of 1 st metacarpal Base of other metacarpals | train | med_mcqa | null |
Blue color of contusion seen at | [
"First day",
"2-3 days",
"4-5 days",
"5-6 days"
] | B | The age of contusion Time since injury color change first day red(Hb) 2-3 days blue(deoxyHb) 4-5 days bluish black/brown(hemosiderin) 5-6 days greenish(hematoidin) 7-10days yellow(bilirubin) By 14 days normal ref: FORENSIC MEDICINE AND TOXICOLOGY Dr PC IGNATIUS THIRD EDITION PAGE NO 118 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Pisiform aiculates with - | [
"Scaphoid",
"Trapezium",
"Triquetral",
"Lunate"
] | C | Triquetral | train | med_mcqa | null |
Treatment of choice in severe cystic acne: | [
"Isotretinoin",
"Tretinoin",
"Benzoyl peroxide",
"Azelaic acid"
] | A | Ans. (a) IsotretinoinRef Katzung 11th ed. /1308, 1455; KDT 854* 13-cis-Retinoic acid (Isotretinoin) is an analogue of vitamin A. It is used for the treatment of severe cystic acne* Isotretinoin (Accutane) is a synthetic retinoid currently restricted to the treatment of severe cystic acne that is refractory to standard therapies.* It appears to act by inhibiting sebaceous gland size and function.* Half life-10-20 hours.* Common side effect: hypervitaminosis A, dryness of skin and mucous membrane.* Teratogenic effect: Extremely high risk of CNS, face, ear, and other malformations. Risk is equal throughout all the three trimester.Also Know* AI-trans vitamin A (Tretinoin): effective topical agent in the treatment of acne vulgaris. It is a potent comedolytic and stimulate epidermal cell turnover, resulting in peeling.* Benzoyl peroxide is an effective topical agent in the treatment of acne vulgaris# MOA of benzoyl peroxide- its antimicrobial activity against P acnes and to its peeling and comedolytic effects.* Azelaic acid effective in the treatment of acne vulgaris.# MOA of azelaic acid- antimicrobial activity against P acnes as well as an in vitro inhibitory effect on the conversion of testosterone to dihydrotestosterone. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Common natural flora of skin are -a) Streptococcusb) Staphylococcus aureusc) Candida albicansd) Bacteroides fragilise) Propionibacterium acnes | [
"bcde",
"abcd",
"acde",
"abce"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 16 year old female patient reported with chief complaint of small ulcers on the cheek and tongue since once week. Mild rise in temperature was noted on general examination. On oraL examination, multiple ulcers were noted on the buccal and labial mucosa. She also reported that she is having her board exams in a week.
The management of such a case would be | [
"Antibiotics and analgesics",
"Symptomatic treatment, topical steroids and relaxation",
"Anti-fungal medications",
"Systemic steroids"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 5-year-old boy while having dinner suddenly becomes aphonic and is brought to the casualty with a complaint of respiratory distress. What should be the appropriate management? | [
"Cricothyroidotomy",
"Emergency tracheotomy",
"Humidified oxygen",
"Heimlich maneuver"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
True regarding specificity - | [
"Identifies false +ve",
"Identifies false -ve",
"Identifies true + ve",
"Identifies true -ve"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
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