question stringlengths 1 6.54k | choices listlengths 4 4 | answer stringclasses 4 values | rationale stringlengths 0 22.5k ⌀ | split stringclasses 1 value | dataset stringclasses 6 values | subject stringclasses 1 value |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
True about Neisseria gonorrhoea | [
"Kidney shaped",
"Isolated in PIKE's medium",
"Not transmitted through sexual contact",
"Protein II is useful for typing"
] | A | In smears from the urethral discharge in acute gonorrhea, the organism appears as diplococcus with the adjacent sides concave, being typically kidney-shaped Ref: Textbook of microbiology; Ananthanarayan and paniker's; 10th Edition; Pg:234 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Gram's stain of a smear from a sputum sample demonstrates gram-positive lancet-shaped diplococci in sho chains. Which of the following would most likely be identified after culturing? | [
"Chlamydia pneumoniae",
"Haemophilus influenzae",
"Streptococcus pneumoniae",
"Staphylococcus aureus"
] | C | Streptococcus pneumoniae is the most commonly identified causative organism for bacterial pneumonia. Up to two-thirds of bacteremic community-acquired pneumonias are due to this organism. 5-25% of healthy individuals carry S. pneumoniae in their pharynx. The classic description of S. pneumoniae on Gram's stain is that given in the question stem. S. pneumoniae can be verified by the Quellung reaction, or counter immunoelectrophoresis to determine serotypes of isolated strains or for case detection using sputum specimens (there are more than 80 distinct serotypes based on studies of capsular antigens). Chlamydia pneumoniae is not identified on the basis of Gram's stain, but rather, can be seen with Giemsa or immunofluorescence. Haemophilus influenzae is a gram-negative rod. Staphylococcus aureus is also a gram-positive coccus, but the classic description of this organism typically includes a reference to "grape-like clusters." Also know: In 2000, a pneumococcal conjugate vaccine (PCV) was introduced in which polysaccharide was conjugated with protein. This 7-valent vaccine stimulates T-dependent TH2 responses and is effective beginning at 2 months of age and is thus the standard for childhood immunization. Ref: Ray C.G., Ryan K.J. (2010). Chapter 25. Streptococci and Enterococci. In C.G. Ray, K.J. Ryan (Eds), Sherris Medical Microbiology, 5e. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A dental professional may be criminally liable if he/she commits a mistake ________. | [
"Accidentally",
"Contributory",
"Intentionally",
"Unintentionally"
] | C | Here the negligence is so great as to go beyond the matter of mere compensation.
Not only has the doctor made a wrong diagnosis and treatment, but also that he has shown such gross ignorance, gross carelessness or gross neglect for the life and safety of the patient that a criminal charge is brought against him. For this, he may be prosecuted in a criminal court for having caused injury to or the death of his patient by a rash and negligent act amounting to a culpable homicide under Section 304-A of the Indian Penal Code.
Essentials of preventive and community dentistry
5th edition
Soben Peter | train | med_mcqa | null |
Drug of choice in Zollinger Ellison syndrome is - | [
"Ranitidine",
"Omeprazole",
"Antacids",
"β-blocker"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
In abdominal aoic aneurysm indication of operation is when size of aneurysm is ? | [
">4 cm",
">5.5 cm",
">6 cm",
"6.6 cm"
] | B | <p> Abdominal aoic aneurysm: Most commonest type of large vessel aneurysm. 95% have associated atheromatous change. 95% occur below renal aeries. Symptomatic aneurysms may cause minor symptoms such as back and abdominal discomfos, before severe sudden abdominal pain due to rupture develops. Asymptomatic aneurysms are found accidentally on physical examination. Abdominal aoic aneurysms csn rupture into anteriorly into peritoneal cavity (20%) or posterolaterally to retroperitoneal space (80%). Anterior rupture leads to free bleeding into peritoneum whereas posterior rupture leads to retroperitoneal haematoma. The patient remain conscious but in severe pain. If no operation is performed , death is inevitable. Indications for surgery:- 1. Asymptomatic aneurysm more than 5.5 cm 2. Growth rate more than 0.5 cm per year. 3. Painful tender aneurysm 4. Thrombosed aneurysm, aneurysm with distal emboli. {Reference: SRB&;s manual of surgery, 5th edition , page no. 198} | train | med_mcqa | null |
The highest incidence of ectopic pregnancy amongst contraceptive users is observed with: | [
"Combined contraceptive pills",
"Copper T intrauterine contraceptive device",
"Progestase intrauterine device",
"Levonorgestrel intrauterine system"
] | C | - There is a slight increase in propoion of ectopic pregnancy post-failure of IUCD. The failure is highest with progesterone IUD. Progestase intrauterine device: - Rate of progesteron release = 65 mcg/day - Total progesteron content = 38mg - Shelf life = 1 to yrs - MC side effect is bleeding - 2nd MC side effect - pain | train | med_mcqa | null |
Risk factor for Ca colon is/are - | [
"Male sex",
"Red meat",
"Animal fat",
"NSAIDS"
] | B | ref Harrison20th edition pg 675 | train | med_mcqa | null |
All are true regarding mesothelioma except ? | [
"Bilaterally symmetrical",
"Associated with asbestos exposure",
"Histopathalogy shows biphasic pattern",
"Occurs in late middle age"
] | A | Mesothelioma arises from mesothelial lining of serous cavities like pleural cavity & rarely in peritoneal cavity & pericardial sac.Pleural mesothelioma is either solitary(benign) or diffuse (malignant).Malignant mesothelioma is associated with asbestos exposure and occurs in late middle age.Histologically , it has got a biphasic pattern with whorls of collagen & reticulin with interspersed fibroblasts. Reference:Textbook of pathology-Harsh Mohan-6th edition,page no:505 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Parofollicular cells develops from | [
"Ultimo - bractial body",
"Pharyngeal pouch 4",
"Pharyngeal pouch 3",
"Neural crest cells"
] | D | Parafolliculor cells derived from neural crest and ultino - brachail body.
Neural crest is the best option. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Benzidine test detects -a) Hemoglobinb) Myoglobinc) Porphobilinogend) Bilirubine) Biliverdin | [
"ac",
"a",
"ad",
"ab"
] | D | Benzidine test is based on the peroxidase activity of haematin, derived from oxidation of hair of haemoglobin (and methemoglobin). This enzyme, in the presence of H2O2 converts colourless salts into coloured bases. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Fumarase is an example of - | [
"Lyase",
"Hydrolase",
"Ligase",
"None"
] | A | Fumarase is a Lyase - Enzyme Commission Number- 4. This enzyme conves Fumarate to Malate in TCA cycle. ADDITIONAL READING: EC Number of Hydrolase is 3. Examples of hydrolases are all Digestive Enzymes, Phosphatase EC Number of Ligase is 6. Examples of ligases are Carboxylase Synthetases. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Following periodontal surgery the epithelial attachment
healing is completed in | [
"2 weeks",
"4 weeks",
"6 weeks",
"8 weeks"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which anaesthetic modality is to be avoided in sickle cell disease? | [
"General Anaesthesia",
"Brachial Plexus Block",
"Intravenous Regional Anaesthesia",
"Spinal Anaesthesia"
] | C | IV regional anaesthesia is useful for rapid anesthetization of an extremity (upper or lower). A rubber bandage is used to force the blood out of the limb and a tourniquet is applied to prevent the re-entry of blood.This causes risk of massive hemolysis due to low oxygen tension or hemolytic crisis due to low blood flow.All the other given methods above don&;t carry that risk. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 50 year old diabetic female presents with intense pruritis and discharge from vagina. Smear of the discharge shows budding yeast cells. What is the most likely causative agent? | [
"Candida albicans",
"Trichomonas vaginalis",
"Mobilincus",
"Chlamydia trachomatis"
] | A | For mucocutaneous candidiasis, a wet mount, scrapings or smears obtained from skin, nails, or oral or vaginal mucosa are examined under the microscope for hyphae, pseudohyphae, or budding yeast cells. Trophozoites of Trichomonas vaginalis are pyriform and 7-30 um long. They have five flagella. The large nucleus is usually located at the wider, anterior end and contains many chromatin granules and a small karyosome. The cytoplasm also contains many granules, but these are often not seen in Giemsa-stained specimens. Mobiluncus is a genus of gram-positive, anaerobic, rod-shaped bacteria. C. trachomatisis a Gram-negative bacteria, therefore its cell wall components retain the counter-stain safranin and appear pink under a light microscope. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which is a finding in lymphoid tissues in individuals with common variable hypogammaglobulinemia? | [
"Decreased B cell count",
"Increased B cell count",
"Normal B cell count",
"Absent B cells"
] | C | Common Variable Immunodeficiency Near Normal number of B cells in blood & LN Unable to differentiate to plasma cells Intrinsic B cell defects - defective CK receptor BAFF Also abnormal T cell regulation of B cells Both sexes equally; manifest in childhood or adolescence Presents as Recurrent sinopulmonary pyogenic infections Recurrent herpes V infection Persistent diarrhoea by G Lamblia RA Lymphoid malignancy | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following receptors are missing from the surface of the intestine? | [
"Temperature",
"Pressure",
"Distension",
"Touch"
] | C | The cold and warmth receptors ( thermoreceptors ) are located immediately under the skin at discrete separated spots. REF: TEXTBOOK OF MEDICAL PHYSIOLOGY GUYTON AND HALL, 12e Page no 706 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Treatment of choice for Wahin's tumor is: | [
"Superficial parotidectomy",
"Enucleation",
"Radiotherapy",
"Injection of a sclerosing agent"
] | A | Wahin's tumor or papillary cystadenoma lymphomatosum or adenolymphoma is 2nd most common benign tumor accounting for 5% of parotid gland tumors. It arises exclusively from parotid gland. It almost always occur in older males. (in 5th to 7th decade) There is increased risk in smokers Most common site is tail of parotid It is bilateral in 10% cases. It consists of papillary cystic pattern lined with cuboidal and columnar cells with core of lymphoid tissue. Treatment of choice is superficial parotidectomy but because of its benign nature and since it can be easily diagnosed cytologically, surgical removal is not always necessary especially in older or unhealthy persons. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The characteristic Nail finding in lichen planus is : | [
"Pitting",
"Pterygium",
"Beau's lines",
"Hyperpigmentation of the Nails"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' Pterygium//?e/. Page 191, 4/e, Pasricha]* Nail Findings in lichen planusNail involvement is seen in 10% of pts with lichen planusMild form of Nail involvement * Onychorrhexis - Slight roughness of Nail plate with longitudinal ridging and brittleness.Severe form of Nail involvement:* Anychia-Complete absence of nail plate* Pterygium-Skin fold from post nail fold starts overgrowing the nail plate to form pterygium.Other Disorders of Nail 1) Beau's Line-*Any severe systemic illness.2) Oncholysis-*Psoriasis* *Fungal infection *Thyrotoxicosis * *Tetracycline *Trauma3) Pitting-*Psoriasis* *Alopecia Areata *Lichen Planus *Eczema4) Ridging-*Lichen Planus*5) Koilonychia-*Iron deficiency Anaemia* *Lichen planus *Repeated exposure to detergents.6) Muehrcke's nail-*Severe hypoalbuminemia as in Nephrotic syndrome.7) Blue nails-*Wilsons disease* *Hemochromatosis *Antimalarial drug8) Brown nail-*Addison's disease* *Arsenic poisoning*9)Leukonychia-*Liver disease*10) Mee's Line-*Arsenic poisoning*Note : Nail involvement is not seen in DLE. | train | med_mcqa | null |
If a doctor gives a -false medical certificate to a patient, he is liable to be prosecuted under which section of the IPC - | [
"137",
"147",
"167",
"197"
] | D | 197 IPC: Issuing or signing (attesting) false certificate by a doctor is a criminal offence. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Calcinosis universalis occurs in – | [
"Ehlers Danlos syndrome",
"Christian Weber syndrome",
"Deimatomyositis",
"Scleroderma"
] | C | Calcinosis universalis is the diffue deposition of calcium salts in the skin, subcutaneous tissue and sometimes in connective tissue. It occurs in Juvenile Dermatomyositis. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 50 year old man suffering from carcinoma of prostate showed areas of sclerosis and collapse of T10 and T11 veebrae in X-ray.The spread of this cancer to the above veebrae was most probably through | [
"Sacral canal",
"Lymphatic vessels",
"Internal veebral plexus of veins",
"Superior rectal veins"
] | C | C. i.e. Internal veebral plexus of veinsValve less communication exist between prostatic & veebral venous plexuses through which Prostatic carcinoma can spread to the veebral column & to the skull.QThis communicating plexus is k/a Bateson's plexusQBony metastasis of prostate is mainly osteoblastic (sclerotic)QPelvis is the most common site for bony metastasisQ followed by Lumber > Thoracic veebra. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Intrauterine pressure is raised during labour to | [
"First stage - 40 to 50 mm Hg",
"Second stage- 100 to 120 mm Hg",
"Third stage - 100 to 120 mm Hg",
"All the above"
] | D | Intrauterine pressure during labor: First stage - 40 to 50 mm Hg Second stage- 100 to 120 mm Hg Third stage - 100 to 120 mm Hg | train | med_mcqa | null |
Low osmolarity ORS - false statment is | [
"Glucose concentration 75 mmol/liter",
"Sodium concentation 75 mmol/liter",
"Osmolarity is 311 mosm/liter",
"Postassium is 20 mmol/liere"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Osmolarity is 311 mosm/liter | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 50-year female has 2º deep burn involving 45% total body surface area (TBSA). Regarding her management which of the following statement (s) is/are true | [
"Give rapid normal saline infusion",
"9 litre of Ringer's lactate should be given in first 24 hr",
"Urine output should be maintained at 25-30 ml/hr",
"Half of the calculated fluid should be given in initial 8 hr"
] | D | SRBs manual of surgery,4th edition According to parkland regimen, 4ml/%burn/bodyweight/24hours.
i.e 4*45*50=9000ml. Fluid requirements, first 24hours=9L first 8hours=4.5L 4.5L are infused in the next 16hours Hartmann's solution or ringer lactate is recommended
Regular assessment of the adequacy of resuscitation should be performed Blood products and colloid may also be given in addition to their requirements. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Blood supply of great toe is | [
"Dorsalis pedis aery",
"Lateral plantar aery",
"Metacarpal aery",
"Posterioibial aery"
] | A | The great toe is supplied by the first dorsal metatarsal aery the dorsalis pedis aery and plantar digital aery the medial plantar aery. Ref: Gray's 40e/p-1364 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Restrictive lung diseases show: | [
"Decreased TLC",
"Decreased RV",
"Decreased VC",
"All"
] | D | Restrictive lung diseases: it is extra pulmonary,paranchymal or pleural diseases which causes difficulty in expansion of the lung Ref: G K Pal Textbook of Practical Physiology 4th edition page number:165 | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 30-year-old lady presents with features of malabsorption and iron deficiency anemia. Duodenal biopsy shows complete villous atrophy. Which of the following antibody is likely to be present? | [
"Antiendomysial antibodies",
"Anti-goblet cell antibodies",
"Anti-Saccharomyces cerevisiae antibodies",
"Antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is a protease inhibitor ? | [
"Lamivudine",
"Saquinavir",
"Delavirdine",
"Zidovudine"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
shape of normal distribution curve- | [
"J shape",
"U shape",
"Bell shape",
"None"
] | C | Ref:Parks 23rd edition pg 849. Standard normal curve: It is a smooth, bell-shaped, perfectly symmetrical curve based on an infinitely large number of observations. The total area of the curve is 1 . Mean =0 Standard detion is 1 Mean, median and mode all coincide . | train | med_mcqa | null |
Pikes medium is for: | [
"Sterptococci",
"Mycobacterium",
"Borellia",
"Legionella"
] | A | Sterptococci | train | med_mcqa | null |
The sputum specimen of a 70 year old male was cultured on a 5% blood agar. The culture showed the presence of a-haemolytic colonies next day. The further processing of this organism is most likely to yield : | [
"Gram positive cocci in short chains, catalase negative and bile resistant",
"Gram positive cocci in pairs, catalase negative and bile soluble",
"Gram positive cocci in clusters, catalase posi- tive and coagulase positive",
"Gram negative coccobacilli, catalase positive and oxidase positive"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following does not predispose to abdominal wall dehiscence - | [
"Faulty technique",
"Malignancy",
"Raised intra abdominal pressure",
"Old age"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e. Old age | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 43-year-old trauma patient develops acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) and has difficulty oxygenating despite increased concentrations of inspired O2 . After the positive endexpiratory pressure (PEEP) is increased, the patient's oxygenation improves. What is the mechanism by which this occurs? | [
"Decreasing dead-space ventilation",
"Decreasing the minute ventilation requirement",
"Increasing tidal volume",
"Increasing functional residual capacity"
] | D | PEEP improves oxygenation by increasing functional residual capacity by keeping the alveoli open at the end of expiration. Extravascular lung water is shifted from the alveolar to the interstitial space. The overall result is to increase surface area for diffusive exchange of gases. Potential negative effects of increased PEEP include alveolar overdistention resulting in barotraumas (pneumothoraces), decreased venous return and decreased cardiac output, and increased minute ventilation requirements due to increased dead-space ventilation. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which one of the following drugs cause hypo magnesemia by increased excretion? | [
"Frusemide therapy",
"Cisplatin",
"Digitalis",
"Aminoglycosides"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Frusemide therapy "Loop diuretics cause the abolition of transepithelial potential difference that results in marked increase in excretion of Ca2++ and mg2++". | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following causes a dead end infection? | [
"C. tetani",
"V. cholerae",
"S. aureus",
"Hemophilus"
] | A | Ans. A. C. tetani.Since, there is no further human to human transmission, tetanus is a dead end infection.Dead end infections in humans-Tetanus, Legionnaire's disease, Leptospirosis, Lyme's diseaseRabies, JE, West Nile fever, Equine encephalitis, KFDCysticercosis, Hydatid disease, Trichinellosis, Babesiosis | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following drugs inhibits post-translational modification of viral proteins? | [
"Indinavir",
"Enfuviide",
"Lamivudine",
"Zalcitabine"
] | A | - PROTEASE INHIBITORS inhibits post-translational modification of viral proteins.- These include drugs like: INDINAVIR RITONAVIR LOPINAVIR AMPRENAVIR FOS-AMPRENAVIR ATAZANAVIR (Lowest risk of Lipodystrophy syndrome but can cause hyperbilrubinemia) SAQUINAVIR NELFINAVIR - These are metabolized by CYP3A4 and are CYP3A4 inhibitors themselves (Ritonavir Boosting - boost the other inhibitors)- These drugs can cause LIPODYSTROPHY SYNDROME: | GLUCOSE | LIPIDS INSULIN RESISTANCE WT. GAIN. It is also caused by Atypical Antipsychotics. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The term "trituration" means | [
"Lysing amalgam alloy",
"Mixing of amalgam alloy and mercury",
"Removal of excess of mercury",
"None of the above"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
All are primary colours except: September 2005 | [
"Green",
"Blue",
"Red",
"White"
] | D | Ans. D: WhiteThe primary colors normally are red, green, and blue. Because white colour, spectral colour or even extraspectral colour can be produced after mixing them in various propoions. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which one of the following is the most common initial symtoms of byssinosis - | [
"Chest tightness",
"Wheezing",
"Cough",
"Haemoptysis"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
ESR is a very critical investigation in the diagnosis of Tb. Which of the following is true about ESR in TB? | [
"No change in ESR",
"Confirms recovery from TB",
"ESR is raised because of increased RBC aggregate",
"ESR is raised due to decreased RBC size"
] | C | Ans. c. ESR is raised because of increased RBC aggregate (Ref: Robbins 9/e p99, 8/e p75)when an inflmmatory process is present, the high proportion of fibrinogen in the blood cuses RBCs to stick to each other. Erythrocyte Sedimentation rateFibrinogen binds to red cells and causes them to from stacks (rouleaux) that sediment more rapidly at unit gravity than do individual cells. This is the basis for measuring the ESR.ESR is simple test for systemic inflammatory response caused by any stimulus.The ESR is a simple non-specific screening test that indirectly measures the presence of inflammation in the body.It reflects the tendency of red blood cells to settle more rapidly in the face of some disease states, usually because of increases in plasma fibrinogen, immunoglobulins, and other acute-phase reaction proteins.Changes in red cell shape or numbers may also affect the ESR.Note that the ESR denotes merely the presence of tissue damage or disease, but not its severityIt may be used to follow the progress of the diseased state, or monitor the effectiveness of treatment.ESRIncreasedDecreased* PregnancyQ* InflammationQ* AnemiaQ* Rheumatoid arthritisQ* CancerQ* Kidney disorders* PolycythemiaQ* Sickle cell anemiaQ* Hereditary spherocytosisQ* Congestive heart failureQ | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is used as inhibitor in the composition of composite? | [
"Para-toluidine",
"Butylated hydroxy toluene",
"Methyl ether",
"Tertiary amine"
] | B | Butylated hydroxy toluene inhibits polymerization during storage. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Following statements are true about Mifepristone except: | [
"It is used for induction of aboion",
"It is a selective progesterone receptor modulator",
"It is a glucocoicoid receptor agonist",
"It is progesterone receptor antagonist in endometrium"
] | C | Mifepristone: Progesterone antagonist with paial agonist activity. Administration of this drug to females early in pregnancy usually results in aboion of the fetus due to interference with the progesterone needed to maintain pregnancy. Mifepristone is often combined with the prostaglandin analog misoprostol (administered orally or intravaginally) to induce uterine contractions. It is SPRM: selective progesterone receptor modulator. Its action are: Progesterone R antagonist in endometrium Glucocoicoid R antagonist Androgen antagonist Its uses can be remembered as:M - Morning after PillsI - Induction of aboionF - FibroidE - Endometriosis P R - Progesterone receptor + cancer( Breast cancer and meningioma) I S : Increased Steroids (Cushing syndrome) Tone | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following are true about cryptorchidism, except | [
"Cryptorchidism is a risk factor for testicular tumor",
"Seminoma is the most common tumor",
"Contalateral testis is also at risk",
"Orchidopexy reduces the risk of malignancy"
] | D | Predisposing factors for testicular GCTs are Cryptorchidism Testicular feminization syndrome GCT of one testis is a risk factor for the other testis Testicular Ca in a sibling Klienfelter syndrome - is associated with mediastinal GCT Administration of estrogens (eg DES) to the mother during pregnancy is associated with increased incidence of testicular Ca in male offspring. Some points are woh mentioning about cryptorchidism Of the predisposing factors, cryptorchidism has the strongest association with testicular Ca. Increased risk is seen for both the testis i.e. the cryptorchid testes as well as the normally descended testes Abdominal cryptorchid testes are at a higher risk than inguinal cryptorchid testes. Seminoma is the most common type of testicular cancer seen in a cryptorchid testes Remember this : Placement of the cryptorchid testis into the scrotum (orchipexy) does not alter its malignant potential, however it facilitates examination and tumor detection ref, SRB manual of surgery 5th ed 1081pg | train | med_mcqa | null |
Dose of rifampicin in RNTCP is- | [
"600 mg",
"450 mg",
"300 mg",
"100 mg"
] | B | Under RNTCP Doses of first line antitubercular drugs are :- INH-600mg; rifampicin-450mg; pyrazinamide- 1500mg; ethambutol-1200mg; and streptomycin-750mg.
All drugs are given three times in a week, e.g. 450 mg rifampicin is given three times in a week. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A couple has two children affected with tuberous sclerosis. On detailed clinical and laboratory evaluation both parents are normal. Which one of the following explains the two affected children in this family? | [
"Non penetrance",
"Uniparental disomy",
"Genomic imprinting",
"Germline mosaicism"
] | D | Germline mosaicism, Both parents are normal. Typically, a person with only germline mosaicism will not be affected with the disorder caused by the mutation because the mutation is not in the other cells of the body, Mutation occurs during post zygotic period and is only in gonadal cell. Genetic testing using blood or tissue samples (other than germline tissue) from individuals who only have a germline mutation will be negative for the mutation. Because the mosaic germline mutation is present in the egg or sperm cell, it will also be present in all cells of the child developing from that germ cell. Eg : Osteogenesis imperfecta, Tuberous sclerosis. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The regional anaesthesia technique that would not be expected to provide appropriate analgesic benefit during the first stage of labor is | [
"Lumbar epidural",
"Pudendal nerve block",
"Lumbar sympathetic block",
"Paracervical block"
] | B | Pudendal nerve block during delivery mitigates somatic pain during second stage of labor. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 42 -year old man was referred with a 2-week history of fever weakness and bleeding gum. Peripheral smear showed pancytopenia. The bone marrow examination revealed 26% blasts frequently exhibiting Auer rods and mature myeloid cells. An occasional neutrophil with pseudo-Pelger-Huet anomaly was also noted: Which of the following cytochemical stains is most likely to be positive? | [
"Acid phosphatase",
"Non specific esterase",
"Myeloperoxidase",
"Toluidine blue"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Likely size of uterus at 8 weeks postpartum is: | [
"100 gm",
"500 gm",
"700 gm",
"900 gm"
] | A | Ans. is a, i.e. 100 gmRef. Dutta Obs. 7/e, p 145; Williams Obs. 24/e, p 669Weight of uterus:Immediately after delivery - 1000 gmAt the end of 1 week - 500 gmAt the end of 2 weeks - 300 gmAt the end of 4 weeks it weighs - 100 gm (Pre-pregnant state)At the end of 6 weeks it weighs - 60 gmAlso Know:Immediately following delivery, the fundus is just below the umbilicus (13.5 cm above the symphysis pubis/20 weeks gestational age size.). QInvolution of the uterusAfter 24 hours of delivery, height of uterus decreases by 1.25 cm/day. QUterus is a pelvic to organ. Q by the end of 2 weeks.Uterus returns almost to its normal size (pre-pregnant size) by the end of 8 weeks.The process by which the postpartum uterus returns to its pre-pregnant state is called as Involution.Involution is achieved by decrease in the size of muscle fibres Q (and not in the number). QPlacental site involution: Immedietly after delivery placental site is palm size. By the end of 2 weeks it is 3-4 cm in diameter.Note: Doppler U5G shows continuously increasing uterine artery vascular resistance during first five days postpartum. | train | med_mcqa | null |
32 years old pregnant lady presented with mild bleeding and pain. On examination uterus is tender and fetal hea sounds is absent. What is diagnosis? | [
"Abruptio placenta",
"Fetal distress",
"Ectopic pregnancy",
"Placenta Pre"
] | A | The above case history is suggestive ofAbruptio placenta C/F: Bleeding is painful Can be revealed, concealed or usually mixed Dark colored Feel of uterus: May be tense, tender and rigid FHS: Usually absent especially in concealed type Placenta in upper segment Vaginal examination: Placenta is not felt on lower segment. Blood clots should not be confused with placenta Management: At 32 weeks: Resuscitation Steroids to baby Sedation Do ARM and deliver the baby | train | med_mcqa | null |
How much time later should ROP screening be done for a 2 week old baby being treated in NICU for sepsis, who was born at 28 wk gestation? | [
"2 weeks",
"4 weeks",
"6 weeks",
"8 weeks"
] | A | First screening - carried out at 32 weeks of post menstrual age (PMA) or 4 weeks of postnatal age, whichever is later In the given scenario, baby is born at 28 week gestation, so 1st screening should be done at 4 weeks postnatal age i.e 32 weeks PMA As the baby is already 2 weeks old screening for ROP should be done 2 weeks later. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 18 years old boy with history of Anterior dislocation of shoulder presents with | [
"Abduction and internal rotation",
"Abduction and external rotation",
"Flexion",
"Extension"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Bilateral Renal cell carcinoma is seen in- | [
"Eagle Barett's syndrome",
"Beckwith Weideman syndrome",
"Von HippelLindau disease",
"Bilateral Angiomyolipoma"
] | C | Ans. (c) Von Hippel Lindau disease(Ref: Robbins 9th/pg 953-955)Bilateral Renal cell carcinoma is seen in Von Hippel lindau diseaseVon Hippel-Lindau (VHL) syndrome: 50-67% of individuals with VHL (nearly all, if they live long enough) develop renal cysts & bilateral, often multiple, renal cell carcinomas.Current studies implicate the VHL gene in the development of both familial and sporadic clear cell tumors. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Regarding termination of drug action | [
"Drugs must be excreted from the body to terminate their action",
"Metabolism of drugs always abolishes their Pharmalogical activity",
"Hepatic metabolism and renal excretion are the two most impoant mechanism involved",
"Distribution of a drug out of bloodstream terminated drugs effect"
] | C | Ref-KDT 6/e p23 Action of drug can be terminated by hepatic metabolism or by anal excretion. Most of the dexa inactivated by metabolism. However some Ducks may be activated from inactive form (prodrugs) and others may produce active metabolite Some drugs main activate from Blood example decoction lives bloodstream and enters the hea to produce it's action | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following are true for Ramsay Hunt syndrome, EXCEPT: | [
"It has a viral etiology",
"It involves Vth cranial nerve",
"May involve VIIIth cranial nerve",
"Results of spontaneous recovery are excellent"
] | D | Herpes Zoster Oticus or Ramsay Hunt syndrome is characterised by facial paralysis, vesicular rash in the external auditory canal and pinna. Involvement of geniculate ganglion of sensory branch of facial nerve result in anaesthesia of face. Dizziness and hearing impairment can occur due to involvement of Vth and VIIIth cranial nerves. The prognosis for spontaneous recovery of normal facial function is poorer than in Bell's Palsy. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Babloo a 4 year male presents with history of seizures. On examination there is hypopigmented patches on face & mental retardation. Most probable diagnosis is: | [
"Neurofibromatosis",
"Tuberous sclerosis",
"Sturge Weber Syndrome",
"Incontinenta Pigmenti"
] | B | B i.e. Tuberous sclerosis | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is the hallmark of programmed cell death? | [
"Apoptosis",
"Coagulation necrosis",
"Fibrinoid necrosis",
"Liquefaction necrosis"
] | A | Apoptosis results from the activation of enzymes called caspases (so named because they are cysteine proteases that cleave proteins after aspaic residues). The activation of caspases depends on a finely tuned balance between production of pro- and anti-apoptotic proteins. Two distinct pathways converge on caspase activation: the mitochondrial pathway and the death receptor pathway.( Robbins Basic Pathology, 9th edition, page 19 ) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most common joint involved in gout is - | [
"Knee",
"Hip",
"MP joint of great toe",
"MP joint of thumb"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., MP joint of great toe {Ref: Harrison 17th/ep. 2165, 2166]o Gout is the common end point of a group of disorders that produce hyperuricemia.o It is marked by transient attacks of acute arthritis intitiated by crystallization of monosodium urate into the joints, leading eventually to chronic gouty arthritis and deposition of masses of urates in joints and other sites, creating tophi.o Most common joint involved in gout is big toe, i.e. metatarsophalangeal joint of great toe.o Tophi are pathognomic of gout. They are formed by large aggregations of urate crystals. The urate crystals are surrounded by -a) Macrophagesb) Lymphocytesc) Large foreign body giant cellso They are seen in the-a) Articular cartilages of jointsb) Periarticular ligamentsc) Tendons and soft tissuesd)Achilles tendone) Ear lobesf) Synovial fluido Less common sites of involvement are -a) Kidneyb) Nasal cartilagec) Skin of the finger tips, palms or soles. | train | med_mcqa | null |
In which of the following layers of cornea does iron deposition occur and result in the formation of Coat's ring? | [
"Epithelium",
"Bowman's membrane",
"Descemet's membrane",
"Endothelium"
] | B | Coat's ring is an oval deposition of iron and is usually located in the region of Bowman's layer and consists of discrete white dots located for the most pas in the inferior cornea where trauma has occurred. The white dots which consists of iron deposits are probably remnants of previous injury. The ring does not extend superficially or deeply into the cornea and observation is only needed. Ref: The Wills Eye Hospital: Atlas of Clinical Ophthalmology edited by William Tasman, M.D. page 57. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most common cause of stridor in children is: | [
"Laryngomalacia",
"Congenital laryngeal paralysis",
"Foreign body in larynx",
"Congenital laryngeal tumours"
] | A | (Laryngomalacia) (272-D)Laryngomalacia - (congenital laryngeal stridor)* It is the most common condition causing an inspiratory stridor at or shortly after birth.* It may persist throughout infancy & disappears by 2 years of age* Stridor increased on crying but subsides on placing the child in prone position, cry is normal.* Foreign bodies in the larynx are uncommon because they are either coughed out or causes fatal obstruction within a few minutes. If helps is not to hand. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A mutation that results in a value replacement for glutamic acid at position 6 of the B chain of hemoglobin 5 hinders normal hemoglobin function and results in sickle-cell anemia when the patient is homozygous for this mutation. This is an example of which of the following types of mutation? | [
"Deletion",
"Frameshift",
"Inseion",
"Missense"
] | D | Missense mutations are those in which a single base change (point mutation) results in a codon that encodes for a different amino acid residue. The effects of these types of mutations can range from very minor or even undetectable to major, depending on the impoance of the altered residue to protein folding and function. Nonsense mutations are also point mutations in which the affected codon is altered to a stop (nonsense) codon, resulting hi a truncated protein. Frame shift mutations are due to one or two base "pair inseions or deletions such that the reading frame is altered. These mutations generally lead to truncated proteins as well, since in most protein coding regions the unused reading frames contain numerous stop codons. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Compared to an unacclimatized person, one who is acclimatized to cold has: | [
"Higher metabolic rate in the cold, to produce more heat",
"Lower metabolic rate in the cold, to conserve metabolic energy",
"Lower peripheral blood flow in the cold, to retain heat",
"Various combinations of the above, depending on the environment that produced acclimatization."
] | D | Ans. D. Various combinations of the above, depending on the environment that produced acclimatization. Acclimatization to cold produces several different (and contrasting) sets of changes, depending on the acclimatizing environment (and, perhaps, on characteristics of the population being acclimatized). | train | med_mcqa | null |
The following are indications for performing thoracotomy after blunt injury of the chest, except - | [
"1000 ml drainage after placing intercostal tube",
"Continuous bleeding through intercostal tube of more than 200 ml/hour for three or more hours",
"Cardiac tamponade",
"Rib fracture"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Vitriolage can be done by which of the plant: | [
"Croton tigilum",
"Arbus precagtorius",
"Bhilawanol",
"Calotropes"
] | C | Ans. (c) BhilawanolRef: The Essentials ofFSM by K.S. Narayan Reddy 31st ed. / 517Semi carpus anacardium (bhilawanol or marking nut): Juice applied to the skin produces irritation, painful blisters, followed by itching and eczematous eruption. Lesions formed resemble bruise which ulcerate and slough.Active principles: bilawanol and semicarpol* Used by washermen as marking ink on clothes* Used to produce artificial bruise* Used as abortifacient by an abortion stick | train | med_mcqa | null |
Cartilages and muscles of larynx and pharynx develop from? | [
"4th and 6th branchial arch",
"4th and 3rd branchial arch",
"3rd and 2nd branchial arch",
"2nd and 4th branchial arch"
] | A | Ans. A. 4th and 6th branchial arch.Clefts = ectoderm Arches = mesoderm Pouches = endoderm. The 4th arch gives rise to: most pharyngeal constrictors; cricothyroid, levator veil palatini and 6th arch gives rise to ail intrinsic muscles of larynx except cricothyroid. Cartilages: thyroid, cricoid, arytenoids, corniculate, cuneiform also develop from 4th amd 5th arches.Branchial arch derivativesPharyngeal ArchArch ArteryCranial NerveSkeletal elementsMuscles1Terminal Branch of maxillary arteryMaxillary and mandibular division of trigeminal (V)Derived from arch cartilages (originating from neural crest):- From maxillary cartilages: Alispenoid, incus- From mandibular: Meckel's cartilage, malleusUpper portion of external ear (auricle) is derived from dorsal aspect of 1st pharyngeal arch.Derived by direct ossification from arch dermal mesenchyme-Maxilla, zygomatic, squamous portion of temporal bone, mandibleMuscles of mastication (temporalis, masseter, and pterygoids), mylohyoid, anterior belly of digastric, tensor tympani, tensor veli palatini (originate from cranial somitomere 4)2Stapedius artery (embryologic) & cortiotympanic artery (adult)Facial nerve (VII)Stapes, styloid process, stylohyoid ligament, lesser horns and upper rim of hyoid (derived from the second arch/ Ritcher's cartilage; originate from neural crest).Lower portion of external ear (auricle) is derived from 2nd pharyngeal arch.Muscles of facial expression (orbicularis oculi, orbicularis oris, auricularis, piatysma, fronto-ooccipitalis, buccinator), posterior belly of digastric, stylohyoid, stapedius (originate from cranial somitomere 6)3Common carotid artery, most of internal carotidGlossophary- ngeal (IX)Lower rim and greater horn of hyoid (derived from the third arch cartilage; originate from neural crest ceils)Sytlopharyngeus (originate from cranial somitomere 7)4Left: Arch of aorta; Right: Right subclavian artery; Original sprouts of pulmonary art.Superior laryngeal branch of vagus (X)Laryngeal cartilages (Derived from the 4th arch cartilage, originate from lateral plate mesoderm)Constrictors of pharynx cricothyroid, levator veli palatine (originate from occipital somites 2-4)5Ductus arteriosus; roots of definitive pulmonary arteriesRecurrent laryngeal branch of vagus (X)Laryngeal cartilages (derived from the Se- arch cartilage; originate from lateral plate mesoderm)Intrinsic muscles of larynx (originate from occipital somites 1 and 2) Derivates of pharyngeal pouches:First pouchAuditory tube, which comes in contact with epithelial line of first pharyngeal cleft, where future external acoustic meatus will form.Distal portion will form tympanic cavity (lining will become eardrum).Proximal portion will become auditory tube.Second pouchForms buds that penetrate surrounding mesenchyme, which together form the palatine tonsilsThird pouchForms thymus and inferior parathyroid glandsFourth pouchForms superior parathyroid glandsFifth pouchForms utlimobranchial body Derivatives of pharyngeal clefts/grooves:Initially, four clefts exist; however, only one gives rise to a definite structure in adults.1st pharyngeal cleftPenetrates underlying mesenchyme and forms EAM. The bottom of EAM forms lateral aspect of tympanic cavity.2nd pharyngeal cleftUndergoes active proliferation and overlaps remaining clefts. It merges with ectoderm of lower neck such that the remaining clefts lose contact with outside. Temporarily, the clefts form an ectodermally lined cavity, the cervical sinus, but this disappears during development | train | med_mcqa | null |
The greatest degree of association with the severity of diabetic nephropathy in a 30-year-old diabetic is which of the following? | [
"Duration of disease",
"Type of disease",
"Retinal involvement",
"None of the above"
] | A | Duration of the illness contibuted to the severity and poor prognosis. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All comprise inherent propeies of a screening test except - | [
"Sensitivity",
"Specificity",
"Yield",
"Predictive accuracy"
] | C | Ans. 'c' i.e., Yield | train | med_mcqa | null |
Chromosome X is | [
"Metacentric",
"Submetacentric",
"Acrocentric",
"Telocentric"
] | B | Submetacentric - X-chromosome
Acrocentric - Y-chromosome | train | med_mcqa | null |
Molecular classification of breast cancer is based on which of the following | [
"Gene expression profiling",
"Expression of hormone receptors like ER, PR and HER-2 neu",
"Histology",
"Response to chemotherapy"
] | A | Refer Robbins page no 1061 Invasive carcinoma can be divided based on molecular and morpholog characteristic into several clinically impoant subgroups. Breast carcinoma have a wide variety of morphological apperance.One third can be classified morphologically into special histologic types some of which are strongly assosciated with clinically relevant biologic characteristic | train | med_mcqa | null |
An 11 year old type 1 diabetes mellitus patient was on CSII. While on holiday with her family she has become disoriented. On admission Na=126mEq/dl, potassium= 4.3mEq/dl, BUN= 100mg/dl, bicarbonate is 10mEq/dl and blood sugar is 600mg%. All are required for management except? | [
"ABG",
"Potassium hydrogen phosphate",
"Intravenous potassium",
"3% saline"
] | D | A patient of type 1 Diabetes mellitus is on Continuous subcutaneous insulin infusion. Due to device malfunction/tubing malfunction the delivery of insulin was halted. Since patients of type 1 diabetes are ketosis prone, she has gone into Diabetic ketoacidosis. The low bicarbonate points to acidosis. The patient's elevated blood sugar is drawing water into the intravascular compament and hence volume expansion explains the sodium deficit. However there is no need of hypeonic saline as correction of hyperglycemia by insulin shall suffice in managing sodium values. Hypeonic saline is only given in acute onset hyponatremia with neurological features. If severe hypophosphatemia can develop (<1mg/dl), phosphate should be replaced at no more than 3-4mmol/h infusion. Potassium replacement should be staed in 2nd to 3rd hour as acidosis begins to resolve. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 15 year old boy with epilepsy on treatment with combination of valproate and phenytoin has good control of seizures. Levels of both drugs are in the therapeutic range. All of the following adverse effects can be attributed to valproate except - | [
"Weight gain of 5 kg",
"Serum alanine aminotransaminase 150 IU/L",
"Rise in serum ammonia level by 20 01",
"Lymphadenopathy"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Lymphadenopathy o Lymphadenopathy is due to phenytoin, not due to valproate. o Weight gain, hepatotoxicity (elevated serum alanine aminotransaminase) and hyperammonemia can be caused by valproate. | train | med_mcqa | null |
In a patient with bronchial asthma silent chest signifies | [
"Good Prognosis",
"Bad Prognosis",
"Grave Prognosis",
"Not a Prognostic sign"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Grave Prognosis Silent chest (Little/no air movement without wheezes in Bronchial Asthma suggests a grave prognosis/impending respiratory failure (Life threatening Asthma). Signs of impending respiratory failure include : Drowsiness or confusion Diaphoresis Bradycardia Paradoxical thoraco abdominal Signs of impending respiratory failure in Asthma Drowsiness or confusion Diaphoresis Bradycardia Paradoxical thracoabdominal movements PEFR < 33% Hypotension Pulsus paradoxus Hypercapnea Silent chest | train | med_mcqa | null |
H.P. inclusion bodies in trachoma are seen to be: | [
"Extracellular",
"Intracytoplasmic",
"Intranuclear",
"None"
] | B | Ans. Intracytoplasmic | train | med_mcqa | null |
Prolonged use of hydralazine for the treatment of hypertension is likely to cause: | [
"Gynaecomastia",
"Thrombocytopenia",
"Hemolytic anemia",
"Lupus erythematosis"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
The following are related to granulosa cells except : | [
"It has got no blood supply",
"In the fist half of the cycle, it has no steroidogenic function",
"Granulosa cells produce activin and inhibin",
"Estrogen stimulates the proliferation of granulosa cells"
] | B | Granulosa cells: within the theca interna lies the granulosa cell layer, which consists of cells 8-10microns in diameter, nucleus stained deep and cells contain relatively less cytoplasm.The granulosa layer itself is noninvasive and capillaries cannot be identified in it. Steroidogenesis During the follicular phase, under the influence of LH, androgens are produced in the theca cells. These androgens fuse into granulosa cells where they are aromatised under the influence of FSH into estrogens - estradiol predominantly After the ovulation, progesterone is synthesised from luteinised granulosa cells under the influence of LH. Ref: D.C. Dutta's Textbook of Gynaecology, 6th edition, page no: 72 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Number of optical isomers possible for Glucose is | [
"2",
"4",
"8",
"16"
] | D | Leber van Hoft rule for the number of stereoisomers is 2n where 'n' is the number of chiral centers. In open chain of glucose, there are 4 chiral centers. Hence it is 24 =16 isomers.Glucose, with four asymmetric carbon atoms, can form 16 isomers.Sugars have large numbers of stereoisomers because they contain several asymmetric carbon atoms.Ref: Harper&;s Biochemistry; 30th edition; Chapter 15; Carbohydrates of Physiological Significance | train | med_mcqa | null |
Deep inguinal ring is a defect in aponeurosis of: | [
"External oblique muscle of abdomen",
"Internal oblique muscle of abdomen",
"Transverse abdominis muscle",
"Transversalis fascia"
] | D | Ans. (d) Transversalis fasciaRef: Bailey & Love 26th ed. / 955* Deep inguinal ring is the opening in the transversalis fascia through which the ductus deferens and gonadal vessels (or round ligament in the female) enter the inguinal canal.* Located midway between anterior superior iliac spine and pubic tubercle, it is bounded medially by the lateral umbilical fold (inferior epigastric vessels) and inferiorly by the ilio-pubic tract. Indirect inguinal hernias exit the abdominal cavity through the deep inguinal ring. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Ash leaf macules are characteristic of | [
"Von Recklinghausen disease",
"Bournviller disease",
"Von Hipple -Lindau disease",
"Sturge - Weber syndrome"
] | B | Ash leaf macules are hypopigmental off - white coloured macules 1 - 3 cm in zise.It is seen is tuberous sclerosis (also known as Bournville's disease). | train | med_mcqa | null |
Dobutamine causes - | [
"Increased cardiac output",
"Marked increase in hea rate",
"Increased total peripheral resistance",
"Marked increase in BP"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Increased cardiac output o Only prominent action of dobutamine is in increase in force of cardiac contraction and cardiac output without significant change in hea rate, peripheral resistance and BP. o In comparison to dopamine, dobutamine :? i) Does not cause renal or mesentric vasodilation. ii) Does not cause coronary vasoconstriction (no effect on alpha receptors). iii) Does not cause release of endogenous norepinephrine and does not precipitate arrythmia. If has an effect on peripheral resistance , always decreases it (Dopamine can increase or decrease peripheral resistance depending on the dose). | train | med_mcqa | null |
Left testicular vein drains into: | [
"Inferior vena cava",
"Left renal vein",
"Right renal vein",
"Femoral vein"
] | B | Ans. B Left renal veinRef: BDC, Vol: 2 pg. 2236VENOUS DRAINAGE OF TESTIS* The veins emerging from the testis form the pampiniform plexus.* Out of this plexus finally one vein forms in each side:# On the right side: Drains into the inferior vena cava# On the left side: Drains into the left renal vein.* Femoral vein drains into external iliac vein.Remember: IVC is on right side, so the right side testicular vein drains here"And left side testicular vein drains into left renal vein. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Spike in action potential of a nerve is due to which ions | [
"K+",
"Na+",
"Cl-",
"All of the above"
] | B | Na+ enters the nerve cell and K+ leaves it during the action potential, the number of ions involved is minute relative to the total numbers present. (Ref: Ganong&;s review of medical physiology; 23rd edition; pg: 85) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Transcranial USG is done using which of the following probe | [
"linear",
"Curvilinear",
"Sectoral",
"Endocavitary"
] | C | *Sectoral/phase arrayed probe has a smaller footprint and is used in Chest USG,Echo,and Transcranial USG. TVS | train | med_mcqa | null |
Primary amenorrhoea is a feature of all EXCEPT: September 2012 | [
"Turner's syndrome",
"Stein-Leventhal syndrome",
"Rokitansky-Kustner-Hauser syndrome",
"Kallman syndrome"
] | B | Ans. B i.e. Stein Leventhal syndrome | train | med_mcqa | null |
'Limb salvage' primarily depends on - | [
"Vascular injury",
"Skin cover",
"Bone injury",
"Nerve injury"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Vascular injury It is not possible for any tissue to survive without a vascular supply | train | med_mcqa | null |
Not a disorder of protein misfoldig? | [
"Alzheimer's disease",
"Tuberculosis",
"Cystic fibrosis",
"CJD (Creutzfeld-Jakob disease)"
] | B | B i.e. TuberculosisAlizheimers, cystic fibrosis and prions diseases (eg Creutzfeld Jakob's disease, Kuru, fatal familia insomnia etc)Q occur due to protien misfolding. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Balthazar grading is used for acute pancreatitis based on findings on | [
"USG",
"CT",
"MRI",
"ERCP"
] | B | CT grading of acute pancreatitis - Balthazar grading. | train | med_mcqa | null |
In an Amenorrheic patient who has had pituitary ablation for a craniopharyngioma, which of the following regimens is most likely to result in an ovulatory cycle? | [
"Clomiphene citrate",
"Letrozole",
"Continuous infusion of GnRH",
"Human menopausal or recombinant gonadotropin, followed by hCG"
] | D | This Patient will not be able to produce endogenous gonadotropin, since her pituitary has been ablated. Patient need to be given exogenous gonadotropin in the form of human menopausal gonadotropin (hMG), which contains FSH and LH in various ratio for follicular growth. Timed administration of hCG, which takes the place of an endogenous LH surge, will be needed to complete oocyte maturation and induce ovulation. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Buerger's angle that indicates severe ischaemia is | [
"120°",
"80°",
"60°",
"30°"
] | D | If Buerger's angle is < 30°, it indicates severe ischaemia. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following are the electrocardiographic features of severe hyperkalemia, EXCEPT: | [
"Sine waves pattern",
"Loss of P waves",
"Peaked T waves",
"Presence of U waves"
] | D | U waves in ECG are seen in cases of hypokalemia. ECG changes in hyperkalemia according to increasing levels of serum potassium are: (mEq/L) ECG Changes 6.5-7.5 Prolonged PR interval, tall peaked T waves, sho QT interval 7.5-8.0 Flattening of the P wave, QRS widening 10-12 QRS complex degradation into a sinusoidal pattern Ref: Tintinalli's Emergency Medicine: A Comprehensive Study Guide, 7rd Edition, Chapter 21 ; Tarascon Pediatric Emergency Pocketbook By Dr. Rothrock, Page 65 | train | med_mcqa | null |
All are true for Mooren's ulcer except: | [
"Peripheral ulcerative keratitis",
"Advancing edge is undermined",
"Perforation is common",
"Floor of ulcer is quickly vascularised"
] | C | Ans. Perforation is common | train | med_mcqa | null |
Chronic renal failure with inappropriately high haemoglobin levels may be seen with | [
"Hypeensive nephropathy",
"Ischaemic nephropathy",
"Diabetic nephropathy",
"Polycystic renal disease"
] | D | Clinical features Haemoglobin and erythropoietin levels in polycystic kidney disease increases Common clinical features are shown in Box 15.21. Affected people are usually asymptomatic until later life but hypeension usually occurs from the age of 20 onwards. One or both kidneys may be palpable and the surface may feel nodular. About 30% of patients with PKD also have hepatic cysts (see Fig. 22.39, p. 893) but disturbance of liver function is rare. Sometimes (almost always in women) this causes massive and symptomatic hepatomegaly, usually concurrent with renal enlargement but occasionally with only minor renal involvement. Berry aneurysms of cerebral vessels are an associated feature in about 5% of patients with PKD. This feature appears to be largely restricted to ceain families (and presumably specific mutations). Mitral and aoic regurgitation is frequent but rarely severe, and colonic diveicula and abdominal wall hernias may occur. Investigations The diagnosis is usually based on family history, clinical findings and ultrasound examination. Ultrasound demonstrates cysts in approximately 95% of affected patients over the age of 20 and is the screening method of choice, but may not detect small developing cysts in younger subjects. Cysts may also be identified by other imaging modalities, such as MRI (Fig. 15.15). Simple renal cysts may occur in normal individuals but are uncommon below the age of 30. The following criteria exist for an ultrasound diagnosis of PKD in patients with a family history but unknown genotype: * 15-39 years of age: at least three unilateral or bilateral kidney cysts * 40-59 years of age: at least two cysts in each kidney * 60 years or older: at least four cysts in each kidney. It is now possible to make a molecular diagnosis by mutation screening of PDK1 or PDK2 but this is seldom used in routine clinical practice because the PKD1 gene is so large and has many possible mutations. Next-generation sequencing allows faster and simpler genetic screening for PKD1 and PKD2. This is likely to be used in cases with an unceain diagnosis (young patients, few cysts, lack of family history), for workup of living kidney donors, or for screening for mutations associated with a worse prognosis (see below). Screening for intracranial aneurysms is not generally indicated but can be done by MR angiography in families with a history of subarachnoid haemorrhage. The yield of screening is low, however, and the risk:benefit ratio of intervention in asymptomatic aneurysms in this disease is not clear. Ref Harrison20th edition pg 288 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Toxigenicity of C. diphtheria is determined by- | [
"Elek's gel ppt test",
"Aselole's reaction",
"Nagler's reaction",
"All"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Elek's gel ppt test | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following are cariogenic substances except: | [
"Selenium.",
"Vanadium.",
"Lead.",
"Magnesium."
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
The Common "Primary" Tumor of Hea is: | [
"Rhabdomyoma",
"Fibroma",
"Myxoma",
"Lipoma"
] | C | Myxoma | train | med_mcqa | null |
Trismus is due to spasm of which muscle? | [
"Orbiculis",
"Lateral pterygoid",
"Mentalis",
"Medial pterygoid"
] | D | Ans. D Medial pterygoidRef: Gray's Anatomy 41st ed. P 552* Trismus/Lock jaw is painful reflex muscle spasm. It occurs due to spasm of muscle of mastication and leads to inability to open the oral cavity* Trismus occurs due to involvement of masseter or medial pterygoid muscle or due to sub mucosal fibrosis.* Note: Infection of pterygomandibular region can cause trismus, which usually affects medial pterygoid muscle. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A full thickness wound having length greater than the depth caused by a sharp object is described as | [
"Stab wound",
"Slash wound",
"Lacerated wound",
"Incision wound"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most common etiolopathogenetic cause of glaucoma is: March 2012 | [
"Raised pressure in episcleritic veins",
"Decreased outflow",
"Increased formation of aqueous humour",
"Increased scleral outflow"
] | B | Ans: B i.e. Decreased outflow A sustained increase in intraocular pressure may be due to increased formation of the aqueous humour, difficulty in its exit, or a raised pressure in the episcleral veins of these, the first & last rarely occur, and it follows that raised intraocular pressure is essentially due to an increased resistance to the circulation of the aqueous at the pupil and/ or its drainage through the angle of the anterior chamber. | train | med_mcqa | null |
What is the recommended period of isolation for a suspected case of diphtheria? | [
"7 days",
"10 days",
"12 days",
"14 days"
] | D | All suspected or confirmed cases and carriers of diphtheria should be isolated preferably in a hospital for at least 14 days or until proved free of infection by two consecutive nose and throat swabs taken 24 hours apa. Ref: Park 21st edition, page 150. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The occipital bone provides attachment to all except: | [
"Trapezi us",
"Ligamentum nuchae",
"Sternocleidomastoid",
"Rectus capitis"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is true about Colie's fracture? | [
"Intra - articular fracture of distal radius with palmar displacement",
"Intra - articular fracture of distal radius with dorsal displacement",
"Extra - articular fracture of distal radius with palmar displacement",
"Extra - articular fracture of distal radius with dorsal displacement"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Extra - articular fracture of distal radius with dorsal displacement * Code's fracture is an extra-articular fracture at the distal end of radius, at its cortico-cancellous junction with dorsal displacement. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Hanging curtain sign seen in? | [
"Pityriasis rosea",
"Pityriasis Versicolor",
"Pityriasis rubra pilaris",
"Pityriasis lichenoides chronica"
] | A | ANSWER: (A) Pityriasis roseaREF: Dermatology. 1995; 190(3): 252. PubMed PMID: 7599393, Clinical Pediatric Dermatology - By Thappa page 104PITYRIASIS ROSEAThe primary eruption, herald patch (Mother spot) is a single oval or round patch with a central wrinkled salmon colored area and a darker peripheral zone separated by a "collarette of scales" (when stretched across the long axis, the scales tends to fold across the line of stretch, the so called Hanging curtain sign) | train | med_mcqa | null |
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