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Reverse transcription involves ?
[ "RNA dependent DNA synthesis", "DNA dependent RNA synthesis", "DNA dependent DNA synthesis", "RNA dependent RNA synthesis" ]
A
Ans. is 'a' he., RNA dependent DNA synthesis o Synthesis of RNA from DNA is called transcription.o In transcription. RNA is synthesized by RNA polymerase. RNA polymerase is also called DNA dependent RNA polymerase because it is dependent on DNA (non-coding strand) for RNA synthesis.o Reverse transcription, as the name suggests, is the reverse of transcription i.e. synthesis of DNA form RNA.o In reverse transcription DNA is synthesized by reverse transcriptase. Reverse transcriptase is also called RNA dependent DNA polymerase because it is dependent on RNA for DNA synthesis.
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Which structure is most dilated?
[ "Aorta", "Left atrium", "Left ventricle", "Right atrium" ]
B
Answer B. Left atriumThe chest radiograph reveals cardiomegaly, with splaying of the carina and an elevated left main bronchus. These findings are most suggestive of an enlarged left atrium.
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A child who had derangement of milestones and was hyperactive later on developed self mutilating behavior and hair pulling behavior. The child died a few years later. Which of the following enzyme is most likely deficient in the child?
[ "Phenylalanine hydroxylase", "HGP", "Adenosine deaminase", "Hexosaminidase A" ]
B
Delayed development, hyperactivity and self-mutilating behavior in a child who died later is suggestive of Lesch- Nyhan disease due to HGP deficiency. Phenylalanine hydroxylase deficiency- intellectual disability, hypopigmentation, musty body odour Adenosine deaminase deficiency- early vasculopathy, stroke, immunodeficiency Hexosaminidase A deficiency- Tay sachs disease: macular cherry red spots
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Hyperkinetic syndromes such as chorea and athetosis are usually associated with pathological changes in
[ "Motor areas of cerebral cortex", "Anterior hypothalamus", "Pathways for recurrent collateral inhibition in the spinal cord", "Basal ganglia complex" ]
D
null
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In MI the type of necrosis is:
[ "Caseous.", "Gangrenous.", "Liquefactive.", "Coagulative." ]
D
Sequential Pathologic Changes in Mycocardial Infarction
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A 4 year old girl has developed painful elbow after being jerked by forearm is it managed
[ "Reassure the parents and Analgesics", "Supinate the forearm", "Elevate the limb", "Open reduction to be done" ]
B
Is the case of pulled elbow. Managed by quickly supinating the forearm.
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Opso myoclonus is seen in -
[ "Neuroblastoma", "Nephroblastoma", "Retino blastoma", "Melanoma" ]
A
null
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Blood stained sputum may be the only symptom in?
[ "Bronchiectasis", "Carcinoma bronchus", "Adenoma bronchus", "Pulmonary T.B." ]
C
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Adenoma bronchus
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Isovolumetric relaxation ends immediately after
[ "AV Valve doses", "When ventricular pressure falls below aortic pressure", "When ventricular pressure falls below atrial pressure", "None of the above" ]
C
null
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Baonella heaselae causes all except -
[ "Oroya fever", "Cat scratch disease", "Bacillary angiomatosis", "SABE" ]
A
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Oroya fever Baonella henselae causes Cat scratch disease (Afipia felis also causes cat scratch disease) Bacillary angiomatosis (B. quintana also causes angiomatosis) Bacillary peliosis Bacteremia Endocarditis (SABE) Oroya fever is caused by Baonella bacilliformis.
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Regarding listerosis in pregnancy:
[ "Mode of Transmission of infection is sexual", "Is associated with meningoencephalitis of the newborn", "May present with skin rash at birth", "In labour liquor is meconium stained" ]
A
null
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Highest biological value of protein is seen in –
[ "Eggs", "Fish", "Soyabean", "Gram" ]
A
Egg protein is considered to be the best food protein by nutritionists. Net protein utilization, which combines in a single value, the biological value and digestibility is 100 for egg compared to 80 for meat and 75 for milk. Egg protein therefore is used as a reference protein. It is taken as the standard protein, against which the quality of other proteins is compared. Egg contains all nutrients except                  Carbohydrates Vitamin C
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Bradycardia during anaesthesia seen ina) Pancuronium b) Vecuronium c) Atracuriumd) Propofole) Succinylcholine
[ "ab", "bc", "cd", "de" ]
D
Bradycardia is caused by → Succinylcholine, propofol, opioids anaesthetics (Morphine, fentanyl and its cogneres). Tachycardia is caused by → Gallamine, Pancuronium, Rocuronium, Ketamine, Thiopentone, Methohexitone.
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Memory T cells can be identified by using the following
[ "CD 45RA", "CD45RB", "CD45RC", "CD45RO" ]
D
Ref Harrison 17/e p2021 CD45 (lymphocyte common antigen) is a receptor-linked protein tyrosine phosphatase that is expressed on all leucocytes, and which plays a crucial role in the function of these cells. ... These CD45-associated molecules may play an impoant role in regulatingCD45 tyrosine phosphatase activity and function. Present on memory T cells
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Modifications of bur design does not include which of the following?
[ "Increased use of crosscuts", "Extended heads on fissure burs", "Rounding of sharp tip angles", "Small diameter sizes" ]
A
As the effectiveness of small burs has increased, they have replaced larger burs in many procedures. Three other major trends in bur design are discernible: Reduced use of crosscuts Extended heads on fissure burs Rounding of sharp tip angles.  Crosscuts are needed on fissure burs to obtain adequate cutting effectiveness at low speeds, but they are not needed at high speeds. Because crosscut burs used at high speeds tend to produce unduly rough surfaces, many of the crosscut sizes originally developed for lowspeed use have been replaced by noncrosscut instruments of the same dimension for high-speed use. Ref: Sturdevant's art and science of operative dentistry. 4th edition page 333
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Riglers triad is seen in
[ "Gall stone ileus", "Post laparotomy intestinal obstruction", "Ischiorectal fistula", "Carcinoma head of pancreas" ]
A
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Gall stone Ileus Gall Stone Ileus* This type of obstruction tends to occur in the elderly secondary to erosion of a large gallstone through the gall bladder into the duodenum.* Classically, there is impaction about 60 cm proximal to the ileocaecal valve.* The patient may have recurrent attacks as the obstruction is frequently incomplete or relapsing as a result of a ball-valve effect.* The classical radiological sign of gall stone obstruction is Rigler'straid consisting of small bowel obstruction, pneumobilbia and atypical mineral shadow on radiographs of the abdomen.* Presence of two of these signs is considered pathognomic for intestinal obstruction and is present in 40 - 50% of gall stone ileus patients.* At laparotomy it may be possible to crush the stone within the bowel lumen, after milking it proximally. If not, the intestine is opened and the gallstone removed. If the gallstone is faceted, a careful check for other enteric stones should be made.* The region of the gall bladder should not be explored.
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Which of the following is not a sequelae of trachoma?
[ "Proptosis", "Tylosis", "Pseudocyst", "Dacrocystitis" ]
A
Proptosis REF: Khurana 4th ed p. 66 Sequelae of trachoma: Lids : entropion, tylosis, ptosis, madarosis , ankyloblepharon Conjuctiva: concretions, pseudocyst, xerosis, symblepharon. Cornea: opacity, ectasia, xerosis. Others: Dacrocystitis, chronic dacryoadenitis.
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Increased osmolar gap is not seen in poisoning of-
[ "Para-aldehyde", "Acetones", "Methanol", "Ethylene glycol" ]
A
Causes of High-Anion Gap Metabolic Acidosis *Lactic acidosis * Toxins *Ketoacidosis * Ethylene glycol Diabetic * Methanol Alcoholic * Salicylates Starvation * Propylene glycol *Pyroglutamic acid (5-oxoproline) *Renal failure (acute and chronic) reference : harrisons principles of internal medicine,19 E , page 318
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Investigation for definitive identification of cryptosporodium: March 2010
[ "ELISA", "Immunofluorescence test", "Demonstration of oocyte in feces", "Fluoroscent staining with auramine" ]
B
Ans. B: Immunofluorescence test Diagnosis of cryptosporidium is made by demonstration of oocyst in feces Methods of detection and confirmation of cryptosporodium Wet mount-In bright-field microscopy using differential interference contrast (DIC), oocysts appear as small round structures (4 to 6 im) similar to yeasts. They do not autofluoresce. Modified acid-fast stain-Oocysts (4 to 6 im) often have distinct oocyst walls and stain from light pink to bright red. In paicular, infections that are resolving can have colorless oocyst "ghosts." Mature oocysts may have discernible sporozoites (up to 4). Indirect fluorescent antibody assay-This technique offers the highest combination of sensitivity and specificity and is considered the gold standard. However, it does not provide a stained slide that can be archived. It requires special equipment (fluorescence microscope) and commercially available test kits. Methods for detection (but not confirmation) of Cryptosporidium Oocysts may be detected by the following methods, but should be confirmed by the diagnostic techniques listed above. Safranin stain-Oocysts of Cryptosporidium often (but not always) stain a bright reddish-orange color. This method, advocated for Cyclospora, is not widely used for Cryptosporidium because the Cryptosporidium oocysts may not always properly stain. - Trichrome stain-Oocysts may be detected, but should not be confirmed, by this method. This staining method is inadequate for definitive diagnosis because all oocysts will appear unstained. Oocysts appear as small round structures measuring 4 to 6 im. Other methods for detecting Cryptosporidium in stool. - Enzyme immunoassay (EIA)-The EIA does not rely on microscopy skills, is highly sensitive and specific, and is useful for screening large numbers of specimens. - Rapid immunochromatographic caridge assays-The rapid caridge assays may be used with preserved specimens and are quick and easy to perform
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Following data was obtained from a 20 year old medical student: tidal volume = 540 mL, paial pressures of CO2 in expired air & aerial blood ~ PECO2 = 20 mm Hg, PACO2 = 30 mm Hg: respiratory rate = 15/min. The alveolar ventilation would be:-
[ "4.2 L/min", "4.8 L/min", "5.2 L/min", "5.4 L/min" ]
D
Alveolar ventilation = (tidal volume - dead space volume) x Respiratory rate= (540 - 180) 115 = 5.4 L/min
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Maternal moality refers to maternal deaths from causes related to or aggravated by pregnancy and its management during -
[ "Pregnancy, child bih or first seven days after delivery", "Child bih or first foueen days after delivery", "First 28 days after delivery", "Pregnancy, child bih or first 42 days after delivery" ]
D
Maternal moality rate is total no.of female deatha due to complications of pregnancy, childbih or within 42 days of delivery from puerperal causes.REF.PARK'S TEXTBOOK OF PREVENTIVE AND SOCIAL MEDICINE.Editon-21.Page no.-514
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Which of the following is NOT a prodrug ?
[ "Enalapril", "Imipramine", "Sulphasalazine", "Cyclophosphamide" ]
B
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Contraindication of induction of labour among the following is
[ "Contracted pelvis", "Bad obstetrical history", "Diabetes", "Hea disease" ]
A
Methods to induce or augment labor are contraindicated by most conditions that preclude spontaneous labor or delivery. The few maternal contraindications are related toPrior uterine incisionType contracted or distoed pelvic anatomy,Abnormally implanted placentas, and Uncommon conditions such as active genital herpes infection or cervical cancer. Fetal factors include Appreciable macrosomiaSevere hydrocephalusMalpresentationNonreassuring fetal statusRef: Willaim&;s Obstetrics; 25th edition
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Which of the following cells secrete HCL?
[ "Surface Neck Cells", "Mucous Neck Cells", "Parietal Cells", "Chief Cells" ]
C
Parietal Cell secretes HCL and intrinsic factor Chief Cells secrete Pepsinogen and Gastric Lipase G cells secrets gastrin NO GOBLET CELLS IN GASTRIC GLANDS
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32 year old female presents with 15% burns following cylinder blast. How much fluid should be administered in first 8 hours of admissions, if she weighs 60 kg
[ "500 mL", "600 mL", "800 mL", "900 mL" ]
D
As per modified parkland formula : Volume = TBSA × Weight × 2    = 15 × 60× 2   = 1800 mL. Half of this volume is infused in first 8 hours.
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Absolute indication for cesarean section:
[ "Previous uterine scar", "Transverse lie", "Breech", "Vaginal Atresia" ]
D
Vaginal Atresia
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Lifespan of RBCs in premature neonate
[ "120 days", "60 days", "90 days", "40 days" ]
D
Adults - 120 days. Term infant - 60 - 90 days. Premature neonate - 35 - 50 days.
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Psoriasis is exacerbated by -
[ "Lithium", "B blockers", "Antimalarials", "All of the above" ]
D
Psoriasis is exacerbated by scratches, surgical incisions and injuries( isomorphic or koebners phenomenon), beta hemolytic streptococcal infection, HIV infection, antimalarials, lithium, beta adrenergic blocker, NSAIDs, coicosteroids withdrawal. From illustrated synopsis of dermatology and sexually transmitted diseases neena khanna 5th edition page no 45
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Which test is performed to detect reversible myocardial ischemia?
[ "Coronary angiography.", "MUG a scan.", "Thallium scan.", "Resting echocardiography." ]
C
Ans. is 'c' i.e. Thallium scan Assessment of myocardial perfusion using nuclear imaging techniques is being widely used for evaluation of Ischemic heart disease. The radioisotopes injected are thallium, sestamibiProcedureRadioisotopes are injected at rest and during stress (exercise) to produce images of myocardiumThe degree of uptake is directly proportional to blood flow.Principle - The images of myocardium is produced proportional to the uptake of regional blood flow. During stress the blood flow to an area is increased upto five times above the resting condition. But in the case of coronary artery stenosis the blood supply to the area supplied by the stenosed artery will not increase proportionately so the isotope uptake will be low and an area of hypoperfusion appear.In case of thallium what happens is that over the next several hours a complex process occurs that is known as redistribution'. Due to this process thallium continues to pour in the hypoperfused area and the final result is that an area which initially appeared as an area of reduced uptake becomes apparently normal over time.Note - In region of fibrosis (infarction or dead tissue) there will be no redistribution on delayed imaging.
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A 2 year old child is brought by parents with history of seizures and developmental delay. He has multiple hypopigmented macules over the back. What is the most probable diagnosis -
[ "Neurofibromatosis type 1", "Tuberous sclerosis", "Sturge weber's syndrome", "Linear Sebaceous nevus syndrome" ]
B
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Tuberous sclerosis History of seizures and multiple hypopigmented macules over the back (ash leap patch) suggest the diagnosis of tuberous sclerosis.
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The following is the commonest site for venous ulcer
[ "Sole of foot", "Lower 2/3 of leg", "Lower 1/3 of leg and ankle", "Middle 1/3 of leg" ]
C
Venous ulcers usually lie just proximal to the medial or lateral malleolus. Venous ulcers are accompanied by lipodermatosclerosis and hemosiderosis (if these are not present then the ulcer is probably not of venous origin). Ref : Bailey & Love 25/e p937
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Which of the following is not a test for diabetes mellitus
[ "Fasting blood glucose", "Random blood glucose", "D-Xylose test", "Oral Glucose tolerance test" ]
D
Answer is C (D-Xylose test): The D-Xylose test is a test for assessment of proximal small intestinal mucosa' fUnction. D- Xylose test is used to assess carbohydrate malabsorption and is not a test for assessment of Diabetes mellitus Fasting blood glucose, Random blood glucose and Oral Glucose Tolerance test are all used for assessment of diabetes mellitus. Criteria for the diagnosis of Diabetes Mellitus Symptoms of diabetes plus random blood glucose concentration 11.1 mmol/L (200 mg/dL) or Fasting plasma glucose 7.0 mmol/L (126 mg/dL) or Two-hour plasma glucose 11.1 mmol/L (200 mg/dL) during an oral glucose tolerance test.
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Which of the following stains is not used for C.diphtheriae:
[ "Albe's", "Kinyoun's", "Ponder's", "Neisser's" ]
B
Kinyoun's stain is not used for C.diphtheriae. 1.Stains used for metachromatic granules of Corynebacteria: Albe's, Ponder's, Neisser's Stains. 2. Kinyoun's stain is used for Mycobacterium tuberculosis: Acid fast staining Ziehl-Neelsen staining (hot method). Kinyoun's stain (cold acid fast staining). Gabbett's staining method.
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Ova in stool are not of diagnostic significance in?
[ "Strongyloides", "Entrobius", "Ankylostoma", "Trichuris" ]
A
Strongyloides REF: Harrison's 18th e chapter 217, Jawetz, Melnick, & Adelberg's Medical Microbiology, 24TH edition chapter 46 Table 46-4 The table clearly says that stool for ova/egg is not required for diagnosis of strongyloides PARASITIC NEMATODE Feature Ascaris lumbricoides (Roundworm) Necator americanus, Ancylostoma duodenale (Hookworm) Strongyloides stercoralis Trichuris trichiura (Whipworm) Enterobius vermicularis (Pinworm) Global prevalence in humans (millions) 807 576 100 604 209 Endemic areas Worldwide Hot, humid regions Hot, humid regions Worldwide Worldwide Infective stage Egg Filariform larva Filariform larva Egg Egg Route of infection Oral Percutaneous Percutaneous or autoinfection Oral Oral Gastrointestinal location of worms Jejunal lumen Jejunal mucosa Small-bowel mucosa Cecum, colonic mucosa Cecum, appendix Adult worm size 15-40 cm 7-12 mm 2 mm 30-50 mm 8-13 mm (female) Pulmonary passage of larvae Yes Yes Yes No No Incubation period (days) 60-75 40-100 17-28 70-90 35-45 Longevity 1 y N. americanus: Decades 5y 2 months 2-5 y A. duodenale: (owing to autoinfection) 6-8 y Fecundity 240,000 N. americanus: 5000-10,000 3000-7000 2000 (eggs/day/worm) 4000-10,000 A. duodenale: 10,000-25,000 Principal symptoms Rarely Iron-deficiency Gastrointestinal Gastrointes? Perianal gastrointes? anemia in heavy symptoms; tinal pruritus tinal or biliary obstruction infection malabsorption or sepsis in hyperinfection symptoms, anemia Diagnostic stage Eggs in stool Eggs in fresh stool, larvae in old stool Larvae in stool or duodenal aspirate; sputum in hyperinfection Eggs in stool Eggs from perianal skin on cellulose acetate tape Treatment Mebendazole Mebendazole Ivermectin Mebendazole Mebendazole Albendazole Pyrantel pamoate Albendazole Albendazole Pyrantel 704 I DNB CET Review Pyrantel pamoate Ivermectin Nitazoxanide Albendazole Ivermectin pamoate Albendazole
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Following operations are used for genital prolapse, EXCEPT:
[ "Fothergill's operation", "Fenton's method", "Ward Mayo operation", "Le Fo operation" ]
B
Fenton's method is used for perineoplasty. All others are surgical correction methods of genital prolapse. Types of operation for genital prolapse: Anterior colporrhaphy Colpoperineorrhaphy Repair of enterocele Pelvic floor repair (PFR) Fothergill's or Manchester operation Vaginal hysterectomy with PFR or Ward Mayo's operation Repair of vault prolapse Le Fo operation Cervicopexy or Sling operation or Purandare's operation Ref: Textbook of Gynaecology by D C Dutta, 4th edition, Page 198, 540.
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All are true regarding Wilm's tumour except -
[ "Pre Operative use of Actinomycin D", "Post Operative Radiotherapy", "Good prognosis in Infants", "Neuroblastoma is the commonest differential diagnosis" ]
A
null
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During autopsy for virology study which agent is used for storing tissue ?
[ "Sodium chloride", "Alcohol", "Spirit", "50% glycerine" ]
D
Ans. is 'd' i.e., 50% glycerine
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Due to direct effect of infection of tissues by HIV are the HIV/AIDS associated
[ "Cardiomyopathy", "Enteropathy", "Arthrofibromyalgia", "All of the above" ]
D
Ans. d (All of the above) (Ref. H - 18th/ 316)DIRECT EFFECTS/MANIFESTATIONS OF HIVDiseases of the Cardiovascular System# Acute bronchitis and sinusitis# Lymphoid interstitial pneumonitis (LIP)# Nonspecific interstitial pneumonitis (NIP).Diseases of the Cardiovascular System# HIV-associated cardiomyopathy (the most common clinically significant finding is a dilated cardiomyopathy associated with congestive heart failure - HIV cardiomyopathy)# Pericardial effusionsDiseases of the Oropharynx and Gastrointestinal System# Thrush# Hairy leukoplakia# Aphthous ulcers# Achlorhydria# AIDS enteropathy or HIV enteropathy (chronic diarrheal syndrome)Genitourinary tract# HIV-associated nephropathy# SIADH# HypogonadismMusculoskeletal# HIV- or AIDS-associated arthropathy# Painful articular syndrome# Arthralgias# Fibromyalgia# Reactive arthritis# Diffuse infiltrative lymphocytosis syndromeDermatological effects# Eosinophilic pustular folliculitis# Seborrheic dermatitis# KSNeurological diseases# Aseptic meningitis# HIV encephalopathy (AIDS dementia complex)# Stroke# Primary CNS lymphoma# Spinal cord disease, or myelopathy# Peripheral neuropathies# MyopathyOphthalmologic Disease# The most common abnormal findings on funduscopic examination are cotton-wool spots.Neoplasms# KS# Non-Hodgkin's lymphoma# Hodgkin's disease# Multiple myeloma# Leukemia# Melanoma; and# Cervical# Brain# Testicular# Oral# Lung, and# Anal cancers.
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Henoch-Schonlein purpura is characterized by the deposition of the following immunoglobulin around the vessels?
[ "IgM", "IgG", "IgA", "IgE" ]
C
Henoch-Schonlein purpura, also referred to as anaphylactoid purpura, is a small-vessel vasculitis characterized by palpable purpura (most commonly distributed over the buttocks and lower extremities), ahralgias, gastrointestinal signs and symptoms, and glo merulonephritis. The presumptive pathogenic mechanism for Henoch-Schonlein purpura is immune-complex deposition. A number of inciting antigens have been suggested including upper respiratory tract infections, various drugs, foods, insect bites, and immunizations. IgA is the antibody class most often seen in the immune complexes and has been demonstrated in the renal biopsies of these patients. (Harrison&;&;s principle of internal medicine,18th edition,pg no.2797)
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Treatment for malignant melanoma is -
[ "Wide excision", "Radiotherapy", "Excision", "Chemotherapy" ]
A
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Wide excision Management of Malignant Melanomao Wide local excision of the primary tumor is the management of choice.The recommended margin of resection depends on the thickness of the tumor.Recommended Margins for Surgical Resection of Primary MelanomaTumor thicknessMargin Radius<1.0mm1.0cm1-4 mm2.0 cm>4 mm3.0 cm (Schwartz)Sabiston (18/ep773) and Harrison (17fep547) differ somewhat from Schwartz.According to Sabiston-Recommended Margins for Surgical Resection of Primary MelanomaTumor thicknessMargin RadiusIn situ0.5 cm<1.0 mm1.0 cm1-2 mm1.0-2.0 cm>2.0 mm> 2.0 cm (Sabiston)According to Harrison- Recommended Margins for Surgical Resection of Primary MelanomaTumor thicknessMargin RadiusIn situ0.5 cm< 1.0mm1.0cm> 1.0 mm2.0 cm (Harrison)o Sentinel lymph node biopsy is done for tumors more than 1 mm thick. If biopsy is positive complete lymph node dissection is done.Also knowTreatment of subungual melanoma - amputation of the distal digit to provide a 1 cm margin from the tumor. For fingers, amputation commonly involves only the distal phalanx; ray amputation is not required. (Sabiston 18/ep775)
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Neurofibromatosis 1 criteria except
[ "Brain tumor", "Acoustic neuromas", "Pseudoarthrosis", "Café-au-lait spots" ]
B
Ref. API Textbook of Medicine. Pg. 219
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The duration of a ventricular myocyte action potential is
[ "Approximately twice as long as the relative refractory period", "As long in duration as the QRS complex", "Nearly as long as the QT interval", "Twice as long in skeletal muscle" ]
C
The diagram depicts the relationship between the electrocardiogram (ECG) recorded on the surface of the body and the duration of a single ventricular myocyte action potential. The duration of the ventricular myocyte refractory period is nearly as long as the action potential, approximately 300 msec. The QRS complex of an ECG represents the electrical potential on the surface of the body produced by the wave of depolarization as it spreads through the ventricle and as each myocyte depolarizes (phase 0). The T wave represents ventricular repolarization (phase 3 in each myocyte). Note that the ST segment occurs during the plateau phase.
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The epithelial lining of the urethra below the opening of the ejaculatory ducts is -
[ "Stratified cuboidal epithelium", "Stratified columnar epithelium", "Transitional epithelium", "Stratified squamous epithelium" ]
B
Ans-Stratified columnar epithelium
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Vascular sign of Narath is positive in which of the follwoing ?
[ "Posterior dislocation", "Central dislocation", "Anterior dislocation", "Lateral dislocation" ]
A
Vascular sign of Narath: Patient in supine Palpate femoral aery in femoral canal Positive in hip dislocation - not palpable In fracture neck of femur - feeble pulsation Ref: maheswari 9th ed ohopedics
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Yawning is a feature of
[ "Alcohol withdrawl", "Cocaine withdrawl", "Cannabis withdrawl", "Opoid withdrawl" ]
D
Opoid withdrawl
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Which of the following is NOT true regarding gastroschisis and omphalocele?
[ "Intestinal obstruction is common in gastroschisis", "Gastroschisis is associated with multiple anomalies", "Umbilical cord is attached in normal position in gastroschisis", "Liver is the content of omphalocele" ]
B
Gastroschisis is a congenital anomaly characterized by a defect in the anterior abdominal wall through which the intestinal contents freely protrude. Unlike in infants born with omphalocele, in infants with gastroschisis the associated anomalies consist mostly of intestinal atresia. Ref: Hackam D.J., Grikscheit T.C., Wang K.S., Newman K.D., Ford H.R. (2010). Chapter 39. Pediatric Surgery. In F.C. Brunicardi, D.K. Andersen, T.R. Billiar, D.L. Dunn, J.G. Hunter, J.B. Matthews, R.E. Pollock (Eds), Schwaz's Principles of Surgery, 9e.
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Treatment of choice in acute congestive glaucoma-
[ "Pilocarpine", "Laser iridotomy", "Timolol", "Trabeculoplasty" ]
B
245 Laser iridotomy is the definitive treatnent in acute congestive glaucoma . Gonioscopy should be performed as soon as cornea becomes clear. Laser PI should be performed if PAS are seen in <270degangle . Laser peripheral iridotomy re establishes communication between posterior and anterior chamber, so it bypasses the pupillary block and immediately relieves the crowding of the angle. Ref: Comprehensive Ophthalmology AK Khurana 6th edition chapter-10 page no:
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Shingles are seen in -
[ "IMN", "Herpes zoster", "Chicken pox", "Small pox" ]
B
Herpes zoster or shingles characterized by rash consisting of GP of vesicles spread along with a dermatomal distribution REF:IADVLS DERMATOLOGY PGNO.73
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Regarding Anopheles mosquito true is all EXCEPT:
[ "Eggs are laid singly on water", "Larva don't have siphon", "Wings are spotted", "Pupa don't have siphon" ]
D
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Pupa don't have siphon
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Type of human papilloma virus associated with cacinoma cervix -
[ "Types 6, 12, 18", "Types 16, 18, 31", "Types 6, 8, 11", "Types 3, 10, 19" ]
B
HPV 16&18 related to cervical cancer REF:ANATHANARAYANAN MICROBIOLOGY NINTH EDITION PAGE.553
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Hamman's sign is seen in -
[ "Achalasia Cardia", "Diffuse Oesophageal Spasm", "Oesophageal perforation", "Carcinoma Oesophagus" ]
C
null
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The synaptic transmission in autonomic ganglia is usually
[ "Adrenergic", "Mediated by NO", "Cholinergic", "None of the above" ]
C
Ref: HL Sharma 3rd ed pg: 132 Major neurotransmitter is ACH followed by Nor epinephrine
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A child is spinned around by holding his hand by his father. While doing this the child staed crying and does not allow his father to touch his elbow. The diagnosis is
[ "Pulled elbow", "Radial head dislocation", "Annular ligament tear", "Fracture olecranon process" ]
A
Pulled elbow: Occurs in children between 2-5 years of age. The head of radius is pulled paly out of annular ligament when a child is lifted by the wrist. The child stas crying and is unable to move the affected limb. The forearm lies in the attitude of pronation. There may be mild swelling at the elbow. It is not possible to see the subluxated head on an x-ray because it is still cailaginous. Treatment: the head is reduced by fully supinating the forearm and applying direct pressure overhead of radius. A sudden click is heard or felt as the head goes back to place. Ref: Essential Ohopaedics, Maheswari & Mhaskar, Edition 9, Page no: 105
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Extensive pleural thickening and calcification especially involving the diaphragmatic pleura are classical features of -
[ "Coal worker's pneumoconiosis", "Asbestosis", "Silicosis", "Siderosis" ]
B
Diaphragmatic or pericardial calcification is almost pathognomonic sign of asbestosis.
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Ultrahigh-speed rotary cutting tools rotate at
[ "<60,000 rpm", "60,000-3,00,000 rpm", "3,00,000-5,00,000 rpm", "> 5,00,000 rpm" ]
B
null
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Ciprofloxacin should not be given to an asthmatic using theophylline because :
[ "Ciprofloxacin inhibit theophylline metabolism", "Theophylline inhibits ciprofloxacin metabolism", "Ciprofloxacin decreases effect of theophylline", "Theophylline induces metabolism of ciprofloxacin" ]
A
null
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Time taken for spermatogenesis is :
[ "50-60 days", "60-70 days", "70-80 days", "80-90 days" ]
C
The process whereby the germ cells is conveed into spermatids is called male gametogenesis or spermatogenesis. Sholy before pubey, the testicular cords become canalized and form the seminiferous tubules. Accompanying this change is the conversion of the germ cells into a group of spermatogonial cells. At regular intervals, spermatogonia arise from this stem cell cluster to sta the process of spermatogenesis (refer pg 47 Sheila Balakrishnan 2 nd edition)
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Which of the following is the pacemaker of the gastrointestinal tract?
[ "P cells", "Oxyntic cells", "Interstitial cells of Cajal", "Parietal cells" ]
C
Interstitial cells of Cajal are the pacemaker cells of the GIT that initiate the basic electric rhythm(BER). These are stellate mesenchymal pacemaker cells with smooth muscle-like features. In the stomach and the small intestine, these cells are located in the circular smooth muscle layer near the myenteric plexus. In the colon, they are at the submucosal border of the circular muscle layer. Ref: Ganong&;s review of Medical physiology 26th edition Pgno: 494-495
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Dye used in fluorescent microscopy -
[ "Thioflavin T", "Congo red", "Brilliant blue", "Auramine" ]
D
Ans. is `D' i.e., Auramine
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True about hepatitis E are all except: September 2005, 2010
[ "Transmitted by faeco-oral route", "Majority of patients develops chronic infection", "Caused by non-enveloped, positive-sense, single stranded RNA genomic ,HAV like virus", "Fulminant hepatitis occurs more frequently in pregnancy" ]
B
Ans. B: Majority of patients develops chronic infection HEV is transmitted the faecal-oral route. It is caused by non-enveloped, positive-sense, single-stranded RNA genomic, HAV like virus. Hepatitis E is a waterborne disease, and contaminated water or food supplies have been implicated in major outbreaks. In general, hepatitis E is a self-limiting viral infection followed by recovery. Prolonged viraemia or faecal shedding are unusual and chronic infection does not occur. Occasionally, a fulminant form of hepatitis develops, with overall patient population moality rates ranging between 0.5 - 4.0%. Fulminant hepatitis occurs more frequently in pregnancy and regularly induces a moality rate of 20% among pregnant women in the 3rd trimester. Since cases of hepatitis E are not clinically distinguishable from other types of acute viral hepatitis, diagnosis is made by blood tests which detect elevated antibody levels of specific antibodies to hepatitis E in the body or by reverse transcriptase polymerase chain reaction (-PCR). Unfounately, such tests are not widely available.
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Limbic system is concerned with all except:March 2008
[ "Higher function", "Emotion", "Memory", "Planned motor activity" ]
D
Ans. D: Planned motor activityThe term limbic lobe, or limbic system, is applied to the pa of the brain that consists of a rim of coical tissue around the hilum of the cerebral hemisphere and a group of associated deep structures--the amygdala, the hippocampus, and the septal nuclei. The region was formerly called the rhinencephalon because of its relation to olfaction, but only a small pa of it is actually concerned with smell
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Which among the following is NOT a common finding of the deciduous dentition?
[ "Tight contacts, absence of spacing", "Shallow overjet and overbite", "Flush terminal plane", "Ovoid arch form" ]
A
null
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Suicide is most common in -
[ "Depression", "Alcohol dependence", "Dementia", "Schizophrenia" ]
A
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Depression Causes/Risk factors for suicidePsychiatric disorders : - Depression (most common), alcoholism (2nd me), Drug/Substance dependence, Schizophrenia, Dementia.Physical illness : - Cancer, AIDS, Multiple sclerosis, Head trauma.Psychosocial factors : - Failure in love, marital difficulties, family dispute, illegitimate pregnancy.Biological factors : - Decrease in serotoninOther - Male sex, Age > 40 years, Single (Unmarried, divorced or widowed), previous suicide attempt, social isolation.
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Which of the following cannot be used as a surface local anaesthetic?
[ "Procaine", "Tetracaine", "Lidocaine", "Benzocaine" ]
A
null
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NARP syndrome is a type of-
[ "Mitochondrial function disorder", "Glycogen storage disorder", "Lysosomal storage disorder", "Lipid storage disorder" ]
A
Harrison's principles of internal medicine 17th edition *Neurogenic muscular weakness with ataxia and retinitis pigmentosa is a mitochondrial disease
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"Setting Sun" sign is seen in
[ "Hydrocephalus", "Meningitis", "Brain abscess", "CNS tumor" ]
A
(A) Hydrocephalus # Setting sun sign:> Retraction of the upper lid without upgaze so that the iris seems to ""set"" below the lower lid; suggestive of neurologic damage in the newborn, but usually clears up without sequelae> The setting-sun phenomenon is an ophthalmologic sign in young children resulting from upward-gaze paresis. In this condition, the eyes appear driven downward, the sclera may be seen between the upper eyelid and the iris, and part of the lower pupil may be covered by the lower eyelid. Pathogenesis of this sign is not well understood, but it seems to be related to aqueductal distention with compression of periaqueductal structures secondary to increased intracranial pressure.> However, it can also be transiently elicited in healthy infants up to 7 months of age by changes of position or removal of light (benign setting-sun phenomenon). The benign form might represent immaturity of the reflex systems controlling eye movements.> When persistent, this sign is one of the most frequent markers of elevated intracranial pressure, appearing in 40% of children with hydrocephalus (of any cause) and in 13% of patients with ventriculoperitoneal shunt dysfunction. It is an earlier sign of hydrocephalus than enlarged head circumference, full fontanelle, separation of sutures, irritability or vomiting. Consequently, this sign is a valuable early warning of an entity requiring prompt neuroimaging and urgent surgical intervention.
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15 mm/cm hyperpigmented lesion on shoulder enlarging and hair over it ?
[ "Melanocytic nevus", "Becker nevus", "Sebaceous nevus", "Comedo nevus" ]
B
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Becker nevus Becker Nevus Usually stas in adolescence as an irregular smooth hyperpigmented macule. Usually involves shoulder, anterior chest and scapular region, although any pa of the may be involved. Slowly grows in size of a palm wile acquiring thick dark hair. Often lesion resembling acne vulgaris in different stages may appear on surface. No treatment is required.
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A neonate born to infected hepatitis-B mother, should be treated with:
[ "Isolation", "Immunoglobulins", "Hepatitis-B-vaccine", "Immunoglobulins and hepatitis-B-vaccine" ]
D
D. Immunoglobulins and hepatitis-B-vaccine(Ref: Nelson's 20/e p 1942-1952)"Infants born to HbsAg positive mothers should receive both Hep B Ig and Hep B vaccine at separate sites within 12 hours of birth, followed by 2nd and 3rd dose of vaccine at 1 and 6 months.
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In hand surgery which area is called no man's land
[ "Proximal phalanx", "Distal phalanx", "Between distal phalanx crease and proximal phalanx", "Wrist" ]
C
C i.e. Between the distal phalanx crease and proximal phalanx
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A 42-year-old woman visits the outpatient clinic due to painful urination. A dipstick test reveals leukocytosis, which confirms the diagnosis of urinary tract infection. Which of the following is the best anatomic explanation for the fact that women are more susceptible to urinary tract infections than men?
[ "The vagina contains less bacterial flora than the penis.", "The prostate gland produces antibacterial prostatic fluids.", "The urethra is much shorter in females.", "The urethra is located within the vagina." ]
C
The membranous urethra is shorter in women than in men. Because of its close proximity to the vestibule in women, it commonly leads to infections of the urinary tract. The vagina contains more bacterial flora than the penis. The prostate in the male produces a clear, alkaline fluid, but it has not been proved that it protects against bacterial infections. The uterus has no known antibacterial functions. The seminal vesicles produce a fructose-characterized fluid that provides nutrients to the sperm for the journey through the female genital tract.
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A patient with history of chronic pancreatitis comes to you for regular follow up. Which vitamin deficiency can be expected in the patient
[ "Vit B1", "Vit K", "Vit B6", "Vit B3" ]
B
Chronic pancreatitis is associated with malabsorption and steatorrhea and can lead to deficiency. Fat soluble vitamins (A, D, E, K) though it is rare.
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Acoustic dip occurs at -
[ "2000Hz", "4000 Hz", "500Hz", "1500 Hz" ]
B
Acoustic dip is dip seen in pure tone audiometry due to noise trauma, which is seen typically at 4 kHz i.e. 4000 Hz.
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Most common cause of gas gangrene ?
[ "Cl welchii", "Cl septicum", "Cl novyi", "Cl histolyticum" ]
A
Ans. is 'a' i.e., CI welchii Most common cause of gas gangrene is Cl perfringens (Cl welchii) causing 80% of cases of gas gangrene. Other causes are Cl septicum, Cl novyi and Cl histolyticum.
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Not a complication of Hypertensive disorders of pregnancy -
[ "Eclampsia", "Pre-eclampsia", "HELLP", "Macrosomia" ]
D
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Macrosomia Complications of Hypertensive disorders of pregnancy Maternal complications Fetal complicationsPre eclampsia * Intrauterine deathEclampsia * Intrauterine growth restrictionCerebrovascular accidents (does not appear to be related to usually intracerebral hemorrhage the actual level of blood pressureAbruption placenta * Prematurity and its associatedHELLP (Hemolytic anemias, hazards (neonatal death, elevated liver enzymes, low pulmonary, renal and hepaticplatelets) dysfunction)Acute left ventricular failure * Antepartum and intrapartum with pulmonary edema asphyxia (more likely due toAcute renal failure anoxia associated with poorMicroangiopathic hemolytic placental blood flow, anemia (Hemolytic uremicsyndrome) the patient usually has evidence of severe widespread intravascular coagulation
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In a healthy subject, when is the PO2 of the blood leaving a pulmonary capillary lower than the PO2 in the alveolus served by that capillary?
[ "While breathing a low O2 gas mixture", "While performing an exercise in which the cardiac output doubles", "At the base of the lungs, where perfusion exceeds ventilation", "None of the above" ]
D
Blood spends about 0.75 sec in a pulmonary capillary; and under normal conditions, all of the gas exchange in the vessel occurs early. Because equilibrium is reached so rapidly (less than 0.25 sec for both O2 and CO2), blood at the end of a pulmonary capillary has the same P02 and PCO2 as alveolar gas, and gas ex­change is said to be "perfusion limited." Although increasing the cardiac output decreases the transit time of blood through the capillaries, only the most strenu­ous forms of exercise (cardiac output increases of 5 to 6 times above normal) result in a few mm Hg differ­ence between alveolar and end-capillary gas tensions. Gas exchange at a high altitude or anywhere in a normal lung (apex to base) remains perfusion limited.
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The type of suture represented by sagittal suture of the cranial vault is
[ "Serrate", "Denticulate", "Squamous", "Plane" ]
A
The joints in the skull are mostly sutures. Various types of sutures in the skull are, Plane suture - Eg. Internasal suture, mid palatal suture. Serrated suture - Eg. Sagittal and coronal suture (interparietal suture). Denticulate suture - Tooth like projections. Eg. Lambdoid suture. Squamous suture - Eg. Parieto-temporal suture.
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Acute onset of cough, stridor and respiratory distress in the absence of fever is suggestive of:
[ "Foreign body", "Acute asthma", "Aspiration Pneumonia", "Primary complex" ]
A
Ans. A. Foreign bodyImmediate symptoms of foreign body inhalation include choking, coughing, increasing respiratory distress or difficulty in speaking.
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Which of the following helps to create high medullary osmotic gradient?
[ "Thick ascending loop of henle", "Vasa recta", "Counter current exchanger system", "All of the above" ]
A
It creats high medullary osmotic gradient. It is by thick ascending loop of henle, collecting duct Medullary collecting duct. It maintains medullary osmotic gradient created by counter current multiplier. It is by Vasa recta
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Internal arcuate fibers of medulla comes from ?
[ "Dorsal nucleus of vagus", "Hypoglossal nucleus", "Nucleus of tractus solitariu", "Nucleus gracilis & cuneatus" ]
D
Ans. is 'd' i.e., Nucleus gracilis & cuneatusThe nucleus gracilis and cuneatus give rise to the internal arcuate fibres.The fibres cross to the opposite side where they form a paramedian band of fibres, called the medial lemniscus. In the lemniscus, the body is represented with the head posteriorly and the feet anteriorly.
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In children median diastema between maxillary permanent centrals closes with the eruption of
[ "Maxillary permanent first premolar", "Maxillary permanent central incisor", "Maxillary permanent canines", "Maxillary permanent second molars" ]
C
null
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Which of the following will be detected in flow cytometry?
[ "Polycythemia", "Thrombocytosis", "Leukocytosis", "Neutrophilia" ]
C
Flow cytometry is an extremely useful investigational tool that allows simultaneous multiparametric analysis of the physical characteristics defining WBC types using the principles of light scattering, excitation, and fluorochrome emission. As such, it can allow for the rapid identification and quantification of populations of WBC in any given patient sample based on the characteristic immunophenotype of the population subset.Also know:Flow cytometry can be a vital investigational tool for the hospitalist. It can be used in the initial workup of a new leukocytosis to identify a malignant versus a benign reactive cause. Flow cytometry also has direct uses in nonmalignant hematologic conditions, such as in the determination of CD4/CD8 count ratios in HIV-associated lymphocytopenia or in the diagnosis of rarer conditions such as paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria and Langerhans cell histiocytosis. Ref: Leonard B.J., Leber B. (2012). Chapter 174. Disorders of the White Cell. In G.V. Lawry, S.C. McKean, J. Matloff, J.J. Ross, D.D. Dressler, D.J. Brotman, J.S. Ginsberg (Eds), Principles and Practice of Hospital Medicine.
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Psoralen–A is used in the treatment of :
[ "Pemphigus", "Vitiligo", "Pityriasis alba", "Ichthyosis" ]
B
Psoralens (like trioxsalen and methoxsalen) along with UV-A are used to induce pigmentation in vitiligo.
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Pulses paradoxus is seen in:
[ "Shock", "Elderly", "Emphysema/Asthma", "High output state" ]
C
null
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A young adult presents with proptosis and pain in eye after 4 days of trauma to eye. Chemosis, conjunctival congestion and extraocular muscle palsy with inability to move eye are seen.Investigation of choice -
[ "MRI", "Digital subtraction angiography", "CT", "MR angiography" ]
B
Information in this question are :- Presentation 4 days after trauma Traumatic proptosis along with chemosis and conjunctival congestion Extraocular muscle palsy (ophthalmoplegia) Given the patient's clinical presentation of proptosis with chemosis and conjunctival congestion in the setting of cranio-facial injury, a traumatic carotid-cavernous fistula is suspected. Most likely diagnosis is carotico-cavernous fistula. Selective carotid angiography using digital subtraction techniques is the investigation of choice. Another condition which may present with similar features is CST, but it is very rare after trauma.
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C3 compliment is cleared by
[ "CD 59", "CD 55", "Factor D", "Factor E" ]
B
Answer- B. CD 55Decay accelerating factor (DAF; CD55) increases the dissolution of C3 convease.
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On stomach washing which poison turns to black on exposure to silver nitrate:
[ "Tik 20", "Celphos", "Malathion", "Arsenic" ]
B
B i.e. Celphos
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The mechanism of action of Sofosbuvir?
[ "Inhibits RNA dependent RNA polymerase of HCV", "Inhibits DNA dependent RNA polymerase of HCV", "Inhibits RNA dependent RNA polymerase of HBV", "Inhibits DNA dependent RNA polymerase of HBV" ]
A
Sofosbuvir is used orally for Hep C. Orally given once daily in combination with ledipasvir or ribavirin or PEG-interferon for 24 weeks. It is a Hep C NS5B polymerase inhibitor. Ref: HL.Sharma 3rd ed. Pg 800
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Variant of Giant cell tumor is
[ "Ossifying fibroma", "Non Ossifying fivroma", "Osteosarcoma", "Chondtoblastoma" ]
D
GCT is adult counterpa of chondroblastoma. Chondroblastoma is an epiphyseal tumor which occurs in 2nd decade while GCT is an epiphyseal tumor which occurs in adults Refer https ://emedicine. Medscape.com/aicle/125449-overview
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Injury to which of the following ligament gives positive pivot shift test in knee?
[ "Posterior cruciate ligament", "Anterior Cruciate ligament", "Medial collateral ligament", "Posterior elbow ligament" ]
B
Pivot test is used to detect injury to anterior cruciate ligament. It is the most frequent and most severe ligament injury to the knee. It usually occur from a torsional stress coupled with deceleration injury. Other tests used to detect anterior cruciate ligament tear are anterior drawer test and the Lachman test. Posterior drawer test is a test to detect injury to posterior cruciate ligament. Medial collateral ligament tear is detected by valgus stress test at 30 degree knee flexion. Lateral collateral ligament tear is detected by varus stress test at 30 degree knee flexion. Ref: Taylor's Musculoskeletal Problems and Injuries: A Handbook edited by Robe B. Taylor, page 218.
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Follicular dendritic cells, main function is -
[ "Catches antigen and presents it to T cells", "Catches antigen and presents it to B cells", "Phagocytic activity", "Produce immunoglobulins" ]
B
Answer- B. Catches antigen and presents it to B cellsA second type of cell with dendritic morphology is present in the germinal centers of lymphoid follicles in the spleen and lymph nodes and is called the follicular dendritic cells.Such cells play a role in humoral immune responses by presenting antigens to B cells and selecting the B cells that have the highest affinity for the antigen, thus improving the quality of the antibody produced.
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Hind milk is richer in -
[ "Carbohydrate", "Protein", "Fat", "Minerals" ]
C
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Fat o The composition of breastmilk varies at different stages after bih to suit the needs of the baby. o According to the postnatal period the breast milk is divided into - 1. Clostrum Is the milk secreted during the first three days after delivery. It is yellow and thick. It contains more antibodies and cells and high amounts of vitamins A,D,E and K. 2. Transitional milk Is secreted during the following two weeks (after clostrum). The immunoglobulin and protein content decreases while the fat and sugar content increases. 3. Mature milk Follows transitional milk. It is thin and watery but contains all the nutrients essential for optimal growth of the body. o According to feed the breast milk is divided into ? 1. Fore milk It is watery and is rich in protein, sugar, vitamins, minerals and water that satisfy the baby's thirst. 2. Hind milk Comes towards the end of feed Rich in fat content and provides more energy, and satisfies the baby's hunger. o The milk of mother who delivers prematurely differs from the milk of a mother who delivers at term - Preterm milk Contains more protein S, sodium, iron, immunoglobins and calories as they are needed by the preterm baby.
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OCP are associated with which of the following complication (Repeat 2009)
[ "Papilledema", "optic neuritis", "colourblindness", "Papillitis" ]
B
Ans b (Optic neuritis)Ophthalmic complication of OCP central retinal artery occlusion prethrombosis of central retinal vein perivasculitis, inflammation of anterior segment of the eye ' macular hemorrage Papillitis & lesions of optic nerve causing variable degree of visual loss
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A 60 year old man is suspected of having endobronchial carcinoma: what should be the best investigation
[ "CT guided FNAC", "bronchoscopy and biopsy", "Sputum cytology", "X-ray chest" ]
B
Fibreoptic bronchoscopy and biopsy is the investigation of choice in patients suspected endobronchogenic carcinoma,as endobronchial lesions are not reliably visualised on CT Ref Harrison 19th edition pg 246,247,512
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Follman's balanitis is caused by -
[ "Trichomonas", "Candida", "H. Ducreyl", "None" ]
D
Follman's balanitis is seen in syphilis.
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Conduction velocity of nerve is reduced in all of the following conditions, except -
[ "Acute Motor Axonal Neuropathy (AMAN)", "Acute Inflammatroy Demyelinating Neuropathy (AIDP)", "Hereditary Sencory Motor Neuropathy (HSM)", "Multifocal Motor Neuropathy" ]
A
null
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"Double bubble" sign with absent distal bowel air shadows on X-ray abdomen is characteristic of
[ "Duodenal webs", "Duodenal atresia", "CHPS", "All of the above" ]
B
Ans. b (Duodenal atresia) (Ref. Bailey and Love 26th/ 119)Duodenal atresia may take the form of a membrane or the proximal and distal duodenum may be completely separated. Prenatal ultrasound finds a 'double bubble' in the fetal abdo- men with polyhydramnios. There is an association with Down syndrome. Postnatally, there is bilious vomiting if the atresia is distal to the ampulla. A plain abdominal x-ray also shows the double bubble. Repair is by duodenoduodenostomy. Occasionally, there is a duodenal membrane with a modest central perforation, which may delay symptoms until later childhood. Important radiological GI signsX-RAY/Ba sign Diagnosis1. Single Bubble Sign2. Double Bubble Sign # CHPS# Duodenal atresia# Ladd's band# Annular pancreas# Malrotation of gut# Preduodenal vein3. Triple Bubble Sign multiple4. Bubble Signs Jejunal or proximal ileum atresia Ileal atresia5. Rigler's sign6. Football sign7. Dog's cape sign8. Falciform ligament sign}Pneumoperitonium9. Sentinel loop sign10. Colon cut-off sign11. Renal halo sign12. Gasless abdomen}Acute pancreatitis13. Seagull or Mecedes Benz sign14. Rigler's triad Gall stones (Triradiate)Gall stone ileus# Pneumobilia# Ectopic gallstone# Small bowel obstruction15. "Arc-like" calcification in RUQ16. "Tooth-like" calcification in pelvis Liver hydatid cystOvarian dermoid17. Distorted fundic bubble18. Fracture 9-11 ribs19. Loss of splenic outline20 Elevation of left hemidiaphragm}Splenic trauma21. Multiple air-fluid levels with stepladder pattern22. "String of beads" sign (pathognomonic)}Small bowel obstruction23. Liver overlap signFlank overlap signDIO overlap signCoffee-bean signInverted U/V signOmega signBent inner tube sign}Sigmoid volvulus24. Carman's meniscus signCa stomach (malignant ulcer)25. Hampton's lineBenign gastric ulcer26 Ram's horn stomach & 'Pseudo-Billroth' appearanceCrohn's disease (WB 09&SuperSp 11)27. String signCHPS28. String sign of KantorCrohn's disease29. Inverted umbrella signSterling signPulled up/contracted caecumString sign}Ileaocaecal Tb30. Segmentation and flocculation of BariumDiffuse non-specific SB dilatationJejunization of ileumMoulage sign (Loss of mucosal details)}Barium features of Malabsorption31. "Saw-tooth" apperance Diverticulosis32. Thumb print sign Ischemic colitis33. Claw sign andCoiled spring sign}Intussusception34. Hat sign Colonic polyp35. "Apple core" appearance Ca colon36. Mucosal granularity (earliest sign)Loss of haustrationsUlcersPseudoploypsLead pipe or pipe stem colon}Ulcerative Colitis (UC)37. Angiodysplasia of Colon38. Solitary Rectal Ulcer39. Colitis cystic profunda}Generally Ba Studies reveal no abnormality
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The mutation in cystic fibrosis is on which chromosome ?
[ "7p", "7q", "5p", "5q" ]
B
Ans. is 'b' i.e., 7q Cystic fibrosis Cystic fibrosis is an inherited disease of the mucus and sweat glands. Cystic fibrosis follows on autosomal recessive transmission. There is a defect in ion transpo of epithelial cells that affects fluid secretion in i) Exocrine glands (pancreas) ii) Epithelial lining of respiratory, gastrointestinal and reproductive tract.
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Which of the following is a predisposing factor for carcinoma of breast
[ "Sclerosing adenosis", "Epithelial hyperplasia", "Fibrocystic disease of breast", "Fibroadenoma" ]
B
Proliferative lesions relative risks for developing invasive breast cancer Non - proliferative changes :7.0% Relative risk = 1.0 Adenosis Cysts and apocrine change Ductal ectasia Mild epithelial hyperplasia of usual type Proliferative disease without atypia : 26% Relative risk= 1.5 - 2.0 Hyperplasia of usual type, moderate or florid Papilloma Sclerosing Adenosis Proliferative disease with atypia :4% Relative risk=4-5 Atypical ductal hyperplasia Atypical lobular hyperplasia
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Iodine isotope used for radio ablation of thyroid in Graves' disease is:
[ "I-125", "I-123", "I-131", "I-124" ]
C
Radio-isotopes Half-life Uses I-131 8 days Radio ablation of thyroid gland Systemic radiotherapy of thyroid metastasis I-125 60 days Brachytherapy (prostate cancer) Radio-immunoassay I-124 4 days Positron emitter (PET) I-123 13 hours Functional scanning of thyroid gland Thyroid scintigraphy Radio-active Iodine Uptake (RAIU)
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The dietary fats are transmitted from GIT to adipocytes in the form of
[ "Diacyl glycerol", "Triacylglycerol", "Fat misseles", "Chylomicrons" ]
D
TG derived from intestinal absorption of fats are transpoed in the blood as a lipoprotein complex called chylomicrons. Chylomicrons are small microscopic paicles of fats, about 1m in diameter and are responsible for transpo of exogenous (TG) in the blood. * Similarly, TG that are synthesised in Liver cells is conveed to lipoprotein paicles, called very low-density lipoproteins (VLDL) and thrown into the circulation. VLDL is mainly concerned with transpo of endogenous TG. In addition to above: * Fatty acids released from adipose tissue by hydrolysis of TG are thrown in the circulation as free fatty acid (FFA). They are carried in non-esterified state in plasma, hence also called NEFA. In circulation, FFA/ NEFA combines with albumin and are carried as albumin-FFA complex. Some 25 to 30 mols of FFA are present in combination with one mol. of albumin.Ref: Textbook of Medical Biochemistry 8th Edition Dr (Brig) MN Chatterjea, Rana Shinde page no: 445
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