question stringlengths 1 6.54k | choices listlengths 4 4 | answer stringclasses 4 values | rationale stringlengths 0 22.5k ⌀ | split stringclasses 1 value | dataset stringclasses 6 values | subject stringclasses 1 value |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
Criteria for slaughter house ? | [
"Glass area should be 25% of floor area",
"Window ledes sloped 25deg",
"Doorways 1 meter high",
"None of the above"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Forcing of knowledge into mind | train | med_mcqa | null |
What is the probability that confounding factor fall to the right of 95% ? | [
"1 in 5",
"1 in 10",
"1 in 20",
"1 in 40"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e., l in 40 Similar to above question i) values out side the 95% (2SD) --> 4 5% (1 in 20). ii) values above (right to) the 95% (2SD) --> 2.5% (1 in 40) iii) values below (left to) the 95% (2SD) --> 2.5% (1 in 40) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Paget&;s disease also known as - | [
"Osteitis deformans",
"Osteitis fibrosa cystica",
"Osteochondritis",
"Osteomalacia"
] | A | Paget&;s disease also called as Osteitis deformans is a condition characterised by a tendency for one or bones to bend,get thickened and spongy. Tibia is affected commonly. The bone is soft and vascular initiallly but becomes dense and hard later. The disease begins after 40 years of age. Presenting complaints are dull pain,and bowing and thickening of affected bones. X rays show multiple confluent lytic areas with interspread new bone formation.serum alkaline phosphatase is elevated. REF:Essential Ohopaedics.Maheswari &Mhaskar.Edition 9 Pg no:317 | train | med_mcqa | null |
All the following are true of Eale's disease except | [
"Occurs in the young",
"Vitreous hemorrhage is present",
"Retinal detachment",
"Optic neuritis"
] | D | D. i.e. Optic neuritis Eales disease does not cause optic neuritisQ | train | med_mcqa | null |
Probing and irrigation is not done in - | [
"Lacrimal fistula",
"Acute dacryocystitis",
"Congenital dacryocystitis",
"Trauma to eye"
] | B | Main treatment consist of topical and systemic antibiotics and anti inflamatory analgesics . Ref :ak khurana 6th edition pg no:395 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Sheathed microfilaria is/are - | [
"W. Bancrofti",
"Loa-loa",
"M. Perstans",
"B. Malayi"
] | A | Covered by hyaline sheath The sheath is much longer than the embryo so that microfilaria can move forward and backward with in it . (refer pgno:165 baveja 3 rd edition) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Neuraxial blocks as a primary anesthetic technique can be used for following surgeries except: | [
"Lower abdominal surgery",
"Urogenital Surgery",
"Lower extremity surgery",
"Upper abdominal surgery"
] | D | Upper abdominal surgery, it is difficult to safely achieve a sensory level adequate for patient comfo with neuraxial anaesthesia. Thus for upper abdominal surgery epidural is used as an adjunct technique with general anaesthesia. Indications Indications for epidural nerve block can be divided into the following categories: Sole epidural anesthetic Epidural anesthetic in combination with spinal anesthetic This combination is referred to as combined spinal epidural (CSE). All of the indications noted above for sole epidural anesthetic may also be performed with CSE. Epidural anesthetic in combination with general anesthetic All of the indications noted above for sole epidural anesthetic may also be performed with CSE. Epidural analgesia combined with general anesthesia reduces the incidence of postoperative pneumonia in patients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease who are undergoing major abdominal surgery. Epidural analgesia Prolonged postoperative analgesia obtained by continuous or patient-controlled infusions of local anesthetics, opioids, adjuvants, or a combination thereof Labor epidural analgesia Single-shot epidural injection of depot form of morphine (Duramorph) can provide 6-24 hours of analgesia. Epidural for chronic pain management Disk herniation, degeneration, and spondylosis Radiculopathy - Spinal stenosis and facet ahropathy Sympathetic mediated/maintained pain of upper or lower extremities | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 22-year-old woman has had multiple episodes of aspiration of food associated with difficulty swallowing during the past year. On auscultation of her chest, crackles are heard at the base of the right lung. A barium swallow shows marked esophageal dilation above the level of the lower esophageal sphincter. A biopsy specimen from the lower esophagus shows an absence of the myenteric ganglia. What is the most likely diagnosis? | [
"Achalasia",
"Barrett esophagus",
"Plummer-Vinson syndrome",
"Sliding hiatal hernia"
] | A | In achalasia, there is incomplete relaxation of the lower esophageal sphincter with a lack of peristalsis. Most cases are "primary" or of unknown origin. They may be caused by degenerative changes in neural innervation; the myenteric ganglia are usually absent from the body of the esophagus. There is a long-term risk of development of squamous cell carcinoma. In Barrett esophagus, there is columnar epithelial metaplasia, but the myenteric plexuses remain intact. Reflux esophagitis may be associated with hiatal hernia, but myenteric ganglia remain intact. Plummer-Vinson syndrome is a rare condition caused by iron deficiency anemia; it is accompanied by an upper esophageal web. Systemic sclerosis (scleroderma) is marked by fibrosis with a stricture. | train | med_mcqa | null |
OVAL cells seen in stem cells of - | [
"Liver",
"Skin",
"Cornea",
"Bone"
] | A | Stem cells are located in sites called niches. These include:
Epidermal stem cells located in the bulge area of the hair follicle serve as stem cells for the hair follicle and the epidermis.
Intestinal stem cells are located at the base of a colon crypt, above Paneth cells.
Liver stem cells (commonly known as OVAL cells) are located in the canals of Hering, structures that connect bile ductules with parenchymal hepatocytes.
Corneal stem cells are located in the limbus region, between the conjunctiva and the cornea
The bone marrow contains hematopoietic stem cells as well as stromal cells capable of differentiation into various lineages. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The typical 'Orphan-Annie eye' nucleus is described in - | [
"Serous cystadenocarcinoma of ovary",
"Renal cell carcinoma",
"Papillary carcinoma of thyroid",
"Seminoma"
] | C | Papillary carcinoma: Accounts for 85% of thyroid malignancy in iodine-deficient areas Most common thyroid cancer in children and in persons exposed to external radiation Most often in women between 30-40 years Excellent prognosis Characteristic nuclear features: Ground glass (Orphan Annie) nuclei pseudoinclusions Nuclear grooves. Nuclear features are used as diagnostic criteria even in the absence of papillae. Papillary carcinoma: Most commonly spreads through lymphatics. Papillary carcinoma: Metastasize through lymphatics and have an excellent prognosis. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Type 1 diabetes mellitus patient presents with nasal septal and palatal perforation with brownish black nasal discharge probable diagnosis is: | [
"Rhinosporidiosis",
"Aspergillus",
"Leprosy",
"Mucormycosis"
] | D | (d) Mucormycosis(Ref. Cummings, 6th ed., 733)Diabetic patient (immunocompromised), with local tissue destruction with brownish black nasal discharge is suggestive of mucormycosis. The black discharge is due to the angioinvasive nature of mucormycosis (leading to vascular thrombosis and gangrene formation).Invasive aspergillosis and leprosy also present with nasal septal and palatal perforation but black discharge does not occur.Rhinosporidiosis presents with blood tinged nasal discharge from red polypoid mass of sporangia (mulberry or strawberry appearance) and there is no local destruction. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 25-year-old male complaints of pain in lower back region for three months. Has history of slipping of bathroom slippers. Mild weakness of both lower limbs but can walk without support. There is 30% sensory loss and has bladder symptoms. D12-L1 is tender. X-ray shows paradiscal destruction of vertebrae and MRI shows destruction with indentation of thecal sac. Management is: | [
"Wait and watch",
"Domiciliary ATT",
"Admit and ATT",
"ATT and Decompression"
] | D | (d)ATT and Decompression as bladder symptoms are present.Indications of surgery in any disease of spine- Deterioration in neural or clinical status on treatment- No improvement in neural or clinical status after conservative trial of 3-4 weeks or- Bowel bladder involvement | train | med_mcqa | null |
Anti IgE monoclonal antibody is - | [
"Certolizumab",
"Ofatumumab",
"Omalizumab",
"Canakinumab"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., OmalizumabSome Newer Monoclonal Antibodies1) Omalizumab-Anti - IgE antibody used for treatment of asthma2) Belimumab-B-lymphocyte stimulator (BLyS)-specific inhibitor. Used in adult patients with active, autoantibody - positive SLE.3) Canakinumab-Human monoclonal antibody against 1L - 1 Used in children and adults with cryopyrin - associated periodic syndrome (CAPS).4) Certolizumab-PEGylated anti - TNF (tumor necrosis factor) biological therapy Moderate to severe Crohn's disease in adults.5) Efalizumab-Against CD 11 for psoriasis6) Ipilimumab-Human cytotoxic T-lymphocyte antigen 4 (CTLA - 4) - blocking antibody. Treatment of Unresectable or metastatic melanoma.7) Naializumab-T/tof Multiple sclerosis.8) Ofatumumab-CD20 - directed cytolytic monoclonal antibody T/t of CLL9) Palivizumab-Used for RSV infections. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Hypochondriasis is | [
"Normal pre occupation with abnormal body functionL",
"Abnormal pre occupation with abnormal body function",
"Normal pre occupation with normal body function",
"Abnormal preoccupation with normal body function"
] | D | D i.e. Abnormal preoccupation with normal body functionHypochondriasis is persistent preoccupation with fear or belief of having serious disease based on person's own interpretation of normal body function ie Hypochondriasis is abnormal preoccupation about normal body functionQ. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is a True yeast | [
"Candida",
"Cryptococcus",
"Rhizopus",
"Aspergillus"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which organism causes toxin shock syndrome | [
"Pneumococcus",
"Escherichia coli",
"Staphylococcus aureus",
"Enterococcus"
] | C | Staphylococcal infections are characteristically localized pyogenic lesions. The common localized pyogenic staphylococcal infections are: Skin and soft tissue infections: Folliculitis, furuncle, abscess, wound infection, carbuncle, impetigo, paronychia and less often cellulitis. Musculoskeletal: Osteomyelitis, ahritis, bursitis and pyomyositis Respiratory: Tonsillitis, pharyngitis, sinusitis, otitis, bronchopneumonia, lung abscess, empyema and rarely pneumonia CNS: Abscess, meningitis and intracranial thrombophlebitis Endovascular: Bacteremia, septicemia, pyemia and endocarditis Urinary: UTI Ref: Textbook of Microbiology; Ananthanarayanan and Panicker; 10th Edition page 204 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which is the only phacomatosis to be inherited on an autosomal recessive basis: | [
"Ataxia-telangiectasia",
"Sturge-Weber syndrome",
"von Hippel lindau syndrome",
"Neurofibromatosis"
] | A | Ans. Ataxia-telangiectasia | train | med_mcqa | null |
Cause of Dupuytren's contracture is | [
"DM",
"Alcohol",
"Smoking",
"All of the above"
] | D | Ans. is `d' i.e., All of the above Dupuytren's contracture is characterized in the established phase by flexion contracture of one or more fingers from thickening and shoening of palinar aponeurosis. The exact etiology is unknow; However, the condition is more commonly associated with following conditions :- Epileptics taking phenytoin Alcoholic cirrhosis Diabetes AIDS Smoking Pulmonary TB Often both hands are affected (Bilateral disease), one more than the other. The earliest sign is a small thickened nodule in the mid-palm opposite the base of ring finger. Gradually this extends distally to involve the ring or little finger. There is a rare, curious association with fibrosis of the corpus Cavernosum. | train | med_mcqa | null |
True about local anaesthetic – a) Cocaine acts by decreasing norepinephrineb) Act by decreasing sodium entry into cellc) Lignocaine is an amided) Dibucaine is drug of choice for epidural anaesthesia | [
"a",
"c",
"ac",
"bc"
] | D | Local anesthetics prevent influx of Na+ by inhibiting Na+ channel.
Lignocaine (Lidocaine) is an amide.
Dibucaine is not used for epidural anesthesia. Lidocaine and bupivacaine are the most commonly used local anesthetics for spinal and epidural anesthesia. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following factors tend to increase the volume of distrubtion of a drug except | [
"High plasma protein binding",
"Low ionization at physiological pH values",
"High lipid solubility",
"High tissue binding"
] | A | Ref-katzung 10/e per,35 If a drug is highly bound to plasma proteins ,it is more likely to stay in blood.thus it's Vd will be less . Low ionization ours the distribution of a drug because unionized molecules can cross the membrane of blood vessels and the tissue More lipid soluble drugs can easily cross the membrane and are more likely to be highly distributed | train | med_mcqa | null |
Pancreatitis may be seen with all of the following antiretroviral agent except: March 2005 | [
"Lamivudine",
"Stavudine",
"Zidovudine",
"Didanosine"
] | C | Ans. C: ZidovudineSide effects of didanosine include upset stomach and diarrhea. It can also cause painful neuropathy and pancreatitis. Pancreatitis is a serious, potentially life-threatening complication that is more likely to develop in patients who have advanced HIV infection.Main side effects of stavudine are severe peripheral neuropathy; lipodystrophy; and, rarely, pancreatitis. Neuropathy, which can be irreversible, occurs as a side effect in as many as one-third of all patients with advanced HIV/ AIDS. Lamivudine is generally well tolerated-pancreatitis and neuropathy are rare. Hematological toxicity does not occur. Zidovudine side effects include fatigue, nausea, and headache. AZT is sometimes associated with a decrease in the number of red blood cells (anemia), neutropenia, lactic acidosis and prolonged use can lead to myopathy. | train | med_mcqa | null |
In ERG 'A' waves corresponds to NOT RELATED-MEDICINE | [
"Rods and cones",
"Nerve bundleftlayer",
"Aifact",
"Pigment epithelium"
] | A | ERGA wave Activity of rods and conesB wave Bipolar cellC wave Retinal pigment epithelium(RPE) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is not a second generation antihistamines | [
"Cyclizine",
"Fexofenadine",
"Loratidine",
"Acrivastine"
] | A | Antihistamines are classified as first generation and second generation compounds on the basis of CNS penetration and anticholinergic propeies. first generation antihistamines can penetrate blood brain barrier and possess additional anticholinergic propeies which are lacking in second generation drugs. cyclizine is a first generation Where are citirizen ,loratidine and fexofenadine are second generation drugs Refer Goodman and Gilman 12/e p92 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Split laceration resembles: Jharkhand 11 | [
"Incised wound",
"Abrasion",
"Gunshot wound",
"Contusion"
] | A | Ans. Incised wound | train | med_mcqa | null |
Treatment of peritonsillar abscess is: | [
"Abscess tonsillectomy",
"Conservative treatment",
"Drainage by Hilton's method",
"Abscess drainage and interval tonsillectomy"
] | D | Ans: D (Abscess drainage and interval tonsillectomy) Ref: Diseases of the Ear Nose and Throat by PL Dhingra.5th edn .20I0.pg279Explanation:Peritonsillar abscessAlso called as QuinsyPus collects between the capsule of the tonsil and the superior constrictorMixed infection of aerobes and anaerobesMore common in adultsPresents with fever, odynophagia muffled or hot potato voice, halitosis, trismusO/E unilateral tonsillar enlargement with congestion seen, pushing the uvula to the opposite side, enlarged and tender jugulodigastric nodes.Treatment is incision and drainage at the most prominent point or the junction of anterior pillar with the line drawn from the base of uvulaCan lead to parapharyngeal abscess | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following vitamins are anti-oxidants EXCEPT: | [
"Beta- carotene",
"Ascorbic acid",
"Vitamin E",
"Vitamin K"
] | D | Ans. (d) Vitamin KRef: Harper's Biochemistry, 30th ed. pg. 554-555* Anti-oxidants are vitamin A, C and vitamin E (ACE). Most important of all is vitamin E.* Free-radicals are formed from exposure to sunlight and pollution and also as a byproduct of cell metabolism.* Alcohol, cigarette smoke, stress and even diet also affect the level of free-radical development in the body. Excellent antioxidants include Vitamin A, Vitamin E, Vitamin C, zinc, selenium, ginkgo biloba, grape seed extract, and green tea extract. | train | med_mcqa | null |
United Nation health agencies excluding WHO are ? | [
"UNICEF",
"FAO",
"UNESCO",
"All"
] | D | Ans. is 'All' United nations agencies (other than WHO) UNICEF (United nations international children's emergency fund). UNESCO FAO (Food & agriculture organization) UNDP (United nation development Programme) ILO (International labour organization) UNFPA (UN fund for population activity). | train | med_mcqa | null |
Drugs that crosses placenta is | [
"Isoniazid",
"Rifampicin",
"Pyrazinamide",
"All"
] | D | Reference KDT 6/e p748 All first line antitubercular drugs can cross placenta Streptomycin is contraindicated in pregnancy whereas other drugs are found to be safe | train | med_mcqa | null |
Normal protein excretion in urine(daily): | [
"0-20 mg",
"90-120 mg",
"500-1000 mg",
"100-500 mg"
] | B | The amount of protein in the urine is normally <150 mg/day.([?]90-120 mg) Protein handling at the glomerular filtration barrier : The endothelium is fenestrated (contains holes) and is freely permeable to water, small solutes, and most proteins; but not permeable to the blood cells. The basement membrane is a porous matrix of negatively charged proteins.The basement membrane is primarily considered as a charge-selectivity barrier; The processes of the podocytes interdigitate to cover the basement membrane and are separated by gaps called filtration slits. .They function primarily as the size-selective filter. It should also be noted that ~ Normally, the filtered proteins are almost entirely reabsorbed in the PCT; only a small quantity thus may appear in the urine. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The chemical name of Aspirin is? | [
"Methyl salicylate",
"Para-aminobenzoic Acid",
"Para-aminisalicylic acid",
"Acetyl salicylic acid"
] | D | Aspirin is Acetylsalicylic acid which conves to salicylic acid in the body, responsible for the action. ESSENTIALS OF MEDICAL PHARMACOLOGY;7TH EDITION; KD TRIPATHI; PAGE NO 195 | train | med_mcqa | null |
True about anterior intercostal aery | [
"Present in 1st to 11th intercostal space",
"Each intercostal space has two anterior intercosta aeries",
"Branch of internal thoracic aery",
"Branch of aoa"
] | C | The anterior intercostal branches of internal thoracic aery supply the upper five or six intercostal spaces. BD CHAURASIA&; S HUMAN ANATOMY UPPER LIMB THORAX VOL I SIXTH EDITION PAGE NO223 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Interferon gamma secreted by? | [
"CD4 T cell",
"CD8 cells",
"RBC",
"Neutrophils"
] | A | ANSWER: (A) CD4 T cellREF: Jawett s 24th edition section IV. Virology > Chapter 30. Pathogenesis & Control of Viral Diseases > Table 30-7See APPENDIX-19 for list of "CYTOKINES"Synthesis of InterferonsInterferons are produced by all vertebrate species. Normal cells do not generally synthesize interferon until they are induced to do so. Infection with viruses is a potent insult leading to induction; RNA viruses are stronger inducers of interferon than DNA viruses. Interferons also can be induced by double-stranded RNA, bacterial endotoxin, and small molecules such as tilorone. IFN-g is not produced in response to most viruses but is induced by mitogen stimulation.The different classes of interferon are produced by different cell types. IFN-a and IFN-b are synthesized by many cell types, but IFN-g is produced mainly by lymphocytes, especially T cells and natural killer (NK) cells. Dendritic cells are potent interferon producers; under the same virus challenge conditions, dendritic cells can secrete up to l000x more interferon than fibroblasts. APPENDIX -19Cytokines:NameMajor Cellular SourceSelected Biologic EffectsIFN-a,bMacrophages (IFNa)fibroblasts (IFNb)AntiviralIFN-gCD4+- T cells, NK cellsActivates macrophages, TH1 differentiationTNF-aMacrophages, T cellsCell activation, Fever, cachexia, antitumorTNF-a, LT (lymphotoxin)T cellsActivates PMNsIL-1MacrophagesCell activation, Fever (Pro inflammatory)IL-2T cellsT cell growth and activationIL-3T cellsHematopoiesisIL-4T cells, mast cellsB cell proliferation and switching to IgE, TH2 differentiationIL-5T cellsDifferentiation of eosinophil, activates B cellsIL-7Bone marrow stroma cellsT cell progenitor differentiationIL-8Macrophages, T cellsChemotactic for neutrophilsIL-10Macrophages, T cellsInhibits activated macrophages and dendritic cells, Anti-inflammatoryIL-12MacrophagesDifferentiation of T cells, activation of NK cellsGM-CSFT cells, macrophages, monocytesDifferentiation of myeloid progenitor cellsM-CSFMacrophages, monocytes, fibroblastsDifferentiation of monocytes and macrophagesG-CSFFibroblasts, monocytes, macrophagesStimulates neutrophil production in bone marrow | train | med_mcqa | null |
Raynaud's phenomenon what change is seen in vessels initial stage: | [
"No change",
"Thrombosis",
"Fibrinoid necrosis",
"Hyaline sclerosis"
] | A | Ans. (a) No change(Ref: Harrison 17th ed Table 243-1)Most common cause of Raynaud's Phenomenon -Primary or idiopathic.In initial stages of Raynaud's phenomenon no changes is seen late stages may show atherosclerosis or thrombosis | train | med_mcqa | null |
Injectable tetanus toxoid (TT ) is an example of: | [
"Active immunity",
"Passive Immunity",
"Native Immunity",
"Reaction Immunity"
] | A | The toxins produced by organisms such as Diptheria & Tetanus are detoxicated and used in preparation of Vaccines (Toxoids). This detoxified toxins when administered in the body can elicit immune response resulting in antibody production & memory. The Antibodies produced neutralize the toxic moeity produced during infection by these organisms thus providing active immunization to the body. Active Immunity Passive Immunity Definition Include humoral and cellular responses of host Results in Ab production in the body. Formed by transfer of ready made antibodies Host body does not produce its own Ab. Modes of acquiring Following clinical infection, subclinical/ inapparent infection or immunization with an Ag. Administering Ig / antiserum or transplacental transfer of Ab/ Transfer of lymphocytes. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following drugs is not suitable for management of essential tremors | [
"Diazepam",
"Levodopa",
"Metoprolol",
"Propranolol"
] | B | Essential tremors improve in about 50% of people with small amount of alcohol. Beta blockers and primidone and also diazepam can be given. But there is no use in giving levo dopa. Reference : Davidson, 23rd Edition, page no : 1115. | train | med_mcqa | null |
HDI includes all except - | [
"Income",
"Knowledge",
"Life duration and well being",
"Standard of living"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' i.e., Standard of living o Life expectancy at birth is a dimension of HDI (not life expectancy at one year).HUMAN DEVELOPMENT INDEX (HDDo HDI is a composite index combining indicators representing three dimensions.Components of HDIRecent (23"Ve & 22nAle of Park)Old (Previous editions)1. Longevity: - Life expectancy at birth2. Knowledey Mean years of schoolingy Expected years of schooling3. Income:-GNI per capita1. Longevity: - Life expectancy at birth2. Knowledgey Mean years of schooling (gross enrolment ratio)y Adult literacy rate3. Income: - GDP per capita | train | med_mcqa | null |
Epidemiologic Web Of Causation'theme by - | [
"Lui pasture",
"Robert Koch",
"McMahon and Pugh",
"None"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., McMahan and Pugh o Web of causation model was suggested by McMahon and Pugh in their book "Epidemiological Principles and Methods".o Germ theory of disease -Louis pasteuro Spontaneous generation theory - Aristotleo Multifactorial causation of disease - Pattenkoffer.o Intake offresh (citrus) fruits in prevention of scurvy - James Lindo Term 'Vaccination'- Edward Jennero Term 'Vaccine'- Louis Pasteuro Life cycle of plasmodium - Ronald Rosso Transmission of yellow fever - Walter Reedo First vaccine developed - Small pox (Edward Jenner)o First antibiotic - Penicillin (Alexander Fleming)o Growth chart - David Moley | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following strata of oral epithelium is engaged in mitosis? | [
"Basale.",
"Granulosum.",
"Corneum.",
"Spinosum."
] | A | The site of cell division (mitosis) occurs in the stratum basale (basal layer, stratum germinativum) of oral epithelium. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the follow ing is not an analeptic agent? | [
"Doxapram",
"Nikethamide",
"Doxacurium",
"Propylbucamide"
] | C | Ans: C (Doxacurium) Ref: A Complete Textbook of Medical Pharmacology S.K. Srivasthava, Vol 1, Avanchal Publishing Company 764Explanation:Doxapram. Nikethamide. Prethcamide are the analeptics, stimulate the medullary centre.Nikethamide is now withdrawn due to the risk of convulsion.Doxacurium is a competitive neuromuscular blocker while other drugs are known respiratory stimulants. | train | med_mcqa | null |
In Leprosy which of the following is not seen: | [
"Abnormal EMG",
"Voluntary muscle wasting",
"Decreased Proprioception",
"Decreased response to tactile sensation"
] | C | C i.e. Decreased proprioception - Nerves commonly involved in leprosy are. - Posterior tibial is the most frequently affected nerve f/b ulnarQ, median, lateral popliteal and facial. Ulnar & median nerve lesions are usually lowQ, causing small muscles but not deep flexor weakness, & anesthesia of two halves of hand (Rook - 32.13) - The most commonly affected nerve trunk is ulnar nerve at elbowQ. Insensitivity affects fine touch, pain and heat receptors but generally spares position & vibrating appreciationQ (Harrison 1383) Generation time of lepra bacilli is 12 - 13 days. Maximum no. of bacilli is shed in nasal secretions. Virchow cells are diagnostic. Lepra cells (Foam cells) are large undifferentiated histiocytesQ. Ist involved is Schwann cell. Ist sensation lost is temperature & pain. Propioception is carried by Goll & Burdech tract (posterior column) which is not involved in leprosyQ. Temperature & painQ lost earlier than touch & pressure. Leprosy mainly affects peripheral nerves, eventually lit muscle wasting. Myopathy, muscle wasting may Vt abnormal EMGQ. Posterior tibial (most common)Q. Ulnar (2" most common, most commonly Vt abscess)Q Peroneal/lateral popliteal Median & Facial Posterior auricular Supra orbital, supraclavicular, | train | med_mcqa | null |
Remnant cysts are typically located in which wall of vagina | [
"Posterior wall",
"Antero-lateral wall",
"Lateral wall",
"Apex of vagina"
] | B | Remnant cysts are typically located in antero-lateral wall of vagina. | train | med_mcqa | null |
True about erythema multiforme is | [
"Target lesions are characteristic",
"Haemorrhagic crusts may form on lips",
"Lesions resolve over 3 to 6 weeks",
"All of the above"
] | D | All of the above * Erythema multiforme. a. Target lesions are characteristic b. Haemorrhagic crusts may form on lips c. Lesions resolve over 3 to 6 weeks d. Severe erythema multiform with extensive bullous eruption of skin and mucous membranes is called Stevens-Johnson syndrome e. Lesions are distributed symmetrically on the dorsum of hands, feet, forearms, face and neck. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Leptospira canicola infection usually present as? | [
"Aseptic meningitis",
"Jaundice",
"Diarrhoea and vomiting",
"Lobar pneumonia"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Aseptic meningitis . L. cancicola causes Canicola fever which presents either influenza like illness or aspectic meningitis. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All are fibrinolytic, EXCEPT : | [
"Streptokinase",
"Urokinase",
"Alteplase",
"Epsilon amino caproic acid"
] | D | Ans. is 'd' Epsilon amino caproic acid Antifibrinolytic drugs are :Tranexamic acid*Epsilon aminocaproic acid*Aprotinin*Fibrinolytic drugs are : ,Streptokinase*Urokinase*rt-PA (Alteplase)* | train | med_mcqa | null |
Fifth clinical sign i.e., loss of function (functio laesa) was added by: | [
"Rudolf Virchow",
"Elie Metchinkoff",
"Louis Pasteur",
"George Bernard"
] | A | Acute inflammation Four cardinal signs of inflammation was given by Celsus. Rubor (redness) Tumor (swelling) Calor (heat) Dolor (pain). These signs are hallmarks of acute inflammation. A fifth clinical sign, loss of function (functio laesa), was added by Rudolf Virchow in the 19th century. Metchinkoff described process of phagocytosis. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Reflux esophagitis is prevented by -a) Long intraabdominal esophagusb) Increased intraabdominal pressurec) Right crus of diaphragmd) Increased intrathoracic pressure | [
"ab",
"bc",
"abc",
"bcd"
] | C | The principle barrier to reflux is the Lower esophageal sphincter. LES comprises the lower 4 cm of esophagus, where resting pressure within the lumen normally exceeds the intragastric pressure. This high intraluminal pressure at LES prevents the GE reflux. The LES is a physiological entity rather than any anatomical structure
Several factors contribute to the high intraluminal pressure of LES
a) Intrinsic musculature of distal esophagus
these muscle fibres differ from those in other areas of the esophagus in that they are in a state of tonic contraction. They normally relax with initiation of a swallow and then return to a state of tonic contraction.
Sling fibres of the cardia
Crura of the diaphragm
Intraabdominal pressure
- the intraabdominal pressure compresses the intraabdominal segment of esophagus (ie LES) and is probably the most important factor in preventing the reflux.
- CSDT writes - "Sphincter competance is a function of sphincter pressure, sphincter length and the length exposed to intraabdominal pressure".
- In cases of sliding hernia the gastroesophageal junction shifts to posterior mediastinum. The LES is then exposed to the low intrathoracic pressure instead of the high intraabdominal pressure. The low intrathoracic pressure is unable to prevent the reflux in sliding hernia.
Other factors apart from LES which prevent the reflux
The gastroesophageal angle - the oblique entry of esophagus has a valvular effect, in that it closes the esophagus when the gastric fundus distends
The folds of mucosa at the cardia helps in closing the LES when intragastric pressure rises.
The intrathoracic pressure has no role in preventing reflux. It's too low (ranging from -5 to +5 mm of Hg). | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is referred to as either physical barriers or physiologic processes (transport system) that separate the circulating blood from the brain extracellular fluid in the central nervous system (CNS)? | [
"Circle of Willis",
"Blood-brain barrier",
"Corticobulbar projections",
"Lateral corticospinal tract"
] | B | B: Blood-brain barrier serves to restrict and control the movement of substances between the general circulation and brain extracellular fluid.
A: The Circle of Willis is an arterial polygon formed as the internal carotid and vertebral systems anastomose around the optic chiasm or chiasma (partial crossing of the optic nerve). It provides blood to the brain and neighboring structures.
C: Corticobulbar projections have several functions including voluntary control over cranial nerves, relay to the cerebellum, activation of other descending pathways and modulation of sensory processing.
D: Lateral corticospinal tract is responsible for controlling the speed and precision of skilled movements of the hands. | train | med_mcqa | null |
True about tuberculin test are all except: | [
"Recent conversion in adult is an indication for ATT",
"INH prophylaxis is started, if the test is positive",
"No risk of developing TB, if tuberculin test is negative",
"May be false negative in immunocompromised patients"
] | C | A negative tubercle test indicates that the person has never come in contact with tubercle bacilli.
Parija SC. Textbook of Microbiology & Immunology. Elsevier Health Sciences; 2014. Page: 355 | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 64-year-old woman is found to have a left- sided pleural effusion on chest x-ray. Analysis of the pleural fluid reveals a ratio of concentration of total protein in pleural fluid to serum of 0.38, a lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) level of 125 IU, and a ratio of LDH concentration in pleural fluid to serum of 0.46. Which of the following disorders is most likely in this patient? | [
"Uremia",
"Congestive hea failure",
"Pulmonary embolism",
"Sarcoidosis"
] | B | (Braunwald, 15/e, p 1513.) Classifying a pleural effusion as either a transudate or an exudate is useful in identifying the underlying disorder. Pleural fluid is exudative if it has any one of the following three propeies: a ratio of concentration of total protein in pleural fluid to serum greater than 0.5, an absolute value of LDH greater than 200 IU, or a ratio of LDH concentration in pleural fluid to serum greater than 0.6. Causes of exudative effusions include malignancy, pulmonary embolism, pneumonia, tuberculosis, abdominal disease, collagen vascular diseases, uremia, Dressler syndrome, and chylothorax. Exudative effusions may also be drug- induced. If none of the aforementioned propeies are met, the effusion is a transudate. Differential diagnosis includes congestive hea failure, nephrotic syndrome, cirrhosis, Meigs syndrome (benign ovarian neoplasm with effusion), and hydronephrosis. | train | med_mcqa | null |
An 82 year old woman, whose husband passed away 6 weeks ago after a long illness, is admitted to the hospital for worsening of her cardiac problems. During the hospital stay, a psychiatrist is invited to consult at the request of her daughters. The daughters think their mother is depressed, because she is tearful, often talks about her dead husband, and states that she had heard his voice several times. She blames herself for not having gone with him on his last visit to his sister, and she stas crying. She has never seen a psychiatrist before and has been "strong" all her life. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? | [
"Depression secondary to general medical condition",
"Dysthymia",
"Grief reaction",
"Major depressive disorder"
] | C | A normal or uncomplicated grief reaction after the loss of a beloved person may resemble depression in some ways (e.g., changes in sleep or appetite, sadness, withdrawal). However, as the loss becomes remote, the grief-stricken person is able to re- experience joy. Self-blame is focused on what was not done in relation to the deceased person. Illusions or hallucinations of the deceased person are common. The uncomplicated grief reaction can last several months, or longer, depending on the relationship to the deceased. Depression secondary to a general medical condition can be seen in association with cardiopulmonary disease, among other disorders; however, since the symptoms are related to the precipitating event, one would have to wait till the normal grief is resolved and then reassess the presence of symptoms of depression. The main diagnostic criterion of dysthymia involves milder symptoms of depression occurring every day for at least 2 years. Major depressive disorder can be precipitated by the loss of a beloved person, but it has a distinct quality even though some symptoms are the same. Suicidal ideation, guilt related to the person alone and not to the deceased person, and feelings of wohlessness are common. Significant functional impairment is typical. Ref: Ropper A.H., Samuels M.A. (2009). Chapter 24. Fatigue, Asthenia, Anxiety, and Depressive Reactions. In A.H. Ropper, M.A. Samuels (Eds), Adams and Victor's Principles of Neurology, 9e. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A Down syndrome patient is posted for surgery, the necessary preoperative investigation to be done is: | [
"Echocardiography",
"CT brain",
"X-ray cervical spine",
"USG abdomen"
] | A | a. Echocardiography > c. X-ray cervical spine(Ref: Nelson's 20/e p 610-615, Ghai 8/e p 637-639)Congenital heart diseases are more common in Down syndrome (in 50%), than atlantoaxial instability (20%); so a preoperative echocardiogram is warranted, so that management of child can be planned accordingly. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Stony dull note on percussion is characteristic of | [
"Pleural effusion",
"Consolidation",
"Pleurisy",
"Tuberculosis cavity"
] | A | Pleural Effusion - Percussion findings Stony dullness with increased resistance and no shifting dullness below the level of fluid.Skodaic resonance (boxy note) just above the effusionObliteration of Traube&;s space in left side effusionGrocco&;s triangle: Triangular area of dullness against veebral column, at the base of opposite lung, due to collapse&; of lungEllis&;S&; shaped curve(Refer: Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine, 18th edition, pg no: 2178-2180) | train | med_mcqa | null |
High dose of morphine is used without much danger in - | [
"Gall bladdersurgery",
"Labour",
"Myocardial infarction",
"Head injury"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Myocardial infarction o Morphine should be given promptly in myocardial infarction to allay apprehension and reflex sympathetic stimulation.About other optionso Morphine should be used cautiously in gall bladder and biliary tract dysfunction as it causes spasm of sphincter of oddi and can cause acute rise of intrabiliary pressure,o Used during labour, morphine can cause neonatal respiratory distress,o Head injury is a contraindication for morphine use.Precautions and contraindications of Morphine:Head injury: morphine is contraindicated in patients with head injury (KDT). Reasons are -By retaining C02 it increases intracranial tension which will add to that caused by head injury itself.Even therapeutic doses can cause marked respiratory depression in these patients.Vomiting, miosis, and altered mentation produce by morphine interfere with assessment of progress in head injury cases.Branchial asthma: Morphine can precipitate an attack by its histamine releasing action.Hypothyroidism, liver and kidney disease patients are more sensitive to morphineInfants and elderly are more susceptible to the respiratory depressant action of morphine.It is dangerous in patients with respiratory insufficiency (Emphysema, pulmonary fibrosis, corpulmonale), sudden deaths have occurred.Hypotensive states and hypovolemia exagerate fall in BP due to morphine.Undiagnosed acute abdominal pain - morphine can aggravate certain conditions e.g., diverticulitis, biliary colic, pancreatitis.Elderly male - chances of urinary retention are high.Unstable personalities - are liable to continue its use and become addicted. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Moderate exercise tachypnea is due to stimulation of which of the following receptor? | [
"Proprioceptors",
"J receptors",
"Lung receptors",
"Baroreceptors"
] | A | Afferent impulses from Proprioceptors and psychic stimuli are causes for hyperventilation during the beginning of an exercise Ref: Ganong 25th ed/page 658 | train | med_mcqa | null |
True about X-rays is? | [
"X-rays do not damage structure of all kind of biologic cells",
"In adult cell the effect of radiation are short term and reversible",
"Only central rays are harmful to patients",
"None of the above"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Standarised moality rate is standardised for | [
"Age",
"Disease",
"Region",
"A paicular time period"
] | A | .rates are only comparable if the populations upon which they are based are comparable.age adjustment or"age standardisation removes the confounding effect of different age structures and yields a single standardized or adjusted rate by which the moality experience can be compared directly.the adjustment can also be made for sex,race,parity etc. ref:park&;s textbook,ed 22,pg no 56 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is a contraindications for trial of labour? | [
"Mid pelvic contraction",
"Postmaturity",
"Post Caesarean pregnancy",
"All of the above"
] | D | Contraindications for trial of labour: Associated midpelvic and outlet contraction Presence of complicating factors like, Elderly primigravida Malpresentation Postmaturity Post Caesarean pregnancy Pre-eclampsia Medical disorders like hea disease, diabetes, tuberculosis etc. Where facilities for caesarean section is not available Ref: Textbook of Obstetrics D C Dutta, 6th edition, Page 355. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 19 year old young girl with previous history of repeated pain over medial canthus and chronic use of nasal decongestants, presented with abrupt onset of fever with chills and rigor, diplopia on lateral gaze, moderate proptosis and chemosis. On examination optic disc is congested. Most likely diagnosis is? | [
"Cavernous sinus thrombosis",
"Orbital cellulitis",
"Acute ethmoid sinusitis",
"Orbital apex syndrome"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Nikolsky sign not present in -a) Pemphigusb) Pemphigoidc) Vitiligod) Staphylococcal scalded syndrome | [
"cd",
"bc",
"bd",
"ac"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is not a fungal infection: September 2007 | [
"Blastomycosis",
"Cryptococcus",
"Actinomycosis",
"Histoplasmosis"
] | C | Ans. C: Actinomycosis Actinomycosis is an infectious bacterial disease caused by Actinomyces species such as Actinomyces israelii or A. gerencseriae. It can also be caused by Propionibacterium propionicus, and the condition is likely to be polymicrobial. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Kyasanur forest disease is transmitted by:September 2011 | [
"Mite",
"Tick",
"Mosquito",
"None"
] | B | Ans. B: TickVector for KFD in India is hard tick (Haemophysalis spinigera)Kyasanur Forest Disease/ KFDIt is a tick-borne viral hemorrhagic fever endemic to South Asia.The disease is caused by a virus belonging to the family flaviviridae, which also includes yellow fever and dengue fever.There are a variety of animals thought to be reservoir hosts for the disease, including porcupines, rats, squirrels, mice and shrews.The vector for disease transmission is Haemaphysalis spinigera, a forest tick.Humans contract infection from the bite of nymphs of the tick.The disease has a morbidity rate of 2-10%, and affects 100-500 people annually.The symptoms of the disease include a high fever with frontal headaches, followed by haemorrhagic symptoms, such as bleeding from the nasal cavity, throat, and gums, as well as gastrointestinal bleeding.An affected person may recover in two weeks time, but the convalescent period is typically very long, lasting for several months.There will be muscle aches and weakness during this period and the affected person is unable to engage in physical activitiesProphylaxis by vaccination, as well as preventive measures like protective clothing, tick control, and mosquito control are advised.An attenuated live vaccine is now available.Specific treatments are not available | train | med_mcqa | null |
Ligament suppoing the talus is | [
"Spring ligament",
"Deltoid ligament",
"Calcaneocuboid ligament",
"Cervical ligament"
] | A | SPRING LIGAMENT:- Also known as plantar calcaneonavicular ligament.Attachments-Anteriorly:plantar surface of navicular bone.Posteriorly: anterior margin of sustentaculum tali. Head of talus directly rests on upper surface of the ligament. The plantar surface of the ligament is suppoed by tendon of tibialis posterior medially,and by tendons of flexor hallucis longus and flexor digitorum longus laterally.Most impoant ligament for maintaining the medial longitudinal arch of foot. <img src=" /> {Reference: BDC 6E} | train | med_mcqa | null |
Evidence based ortho research is based on the following studies: | [
"Cohort",
"Cross Sectional",
"Systematic studies",
"RCT"
] | C | Evidence-based medicine pyramid.
The levels of evidence are appropriately represented by a pyramid as each level, from bottom to top, reflects the quality of research designs (increasing) and quantity (decreasing) of each study design in the body of published literature. For example, systematic reviews are higher quality and more labor intensive to conduct, so there is a lower quantity published. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Insulin promotes lipogenesis by all of the following ways except: | [
"Decreasing intracellular cAMP",
"Increasing the transpo of glucose into the cell",
"Inhibits pyruvate dehydrogenase",
"Increases activity of acetyl-CoA carboxylase"
] | C | C i.e. Inhibits Pyruvate dehydrogenase | train | med_mcqa | null |
A lady has history of previous child birth with neural tube defect. What is the dose of folic acid to be given to prevent to neural tube defect in this child | [
"4000 mcg in periconceptional period",
"400 mg after confirmation of pregnancy",
"400 mg in periconceptional period",
"4000 mcg in 1st / 2nd trimester."
] | A | Dose of folic acid for primary prevention is 400 mcg / day
Dose of folic acid for secondary prevention (prevoius child affected with neural tube defect) is 4000 mcg / day started in periconception period = 1 month before to 3 months after conception. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Pelvic brim in males - | [
"Circular",
"Elliptical",
"More Spacious",
"Hea shaped"
] | D | PELVIC BRIM OR INLET: It is hea shaped in males It is circular or elliptical more spacious diameters longer in females. REF: The Synopsis of Forensic Medicine by Dr K.S.Narayan Reddy 29th edition page no: 37. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the follow ing is an example of heterophile antibody test- | [
"Widal test",
"Weil-Felix reaction",
"Rose-wraler test",
"Blood grouping & cross matching"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Weil-Felix reaction Ref: Ananthanarayan 9th/ep. 109 &- 8th/e p. 108; Immunology Lachmann 4th/ ep. 1534. 1535]Heterophilic agglutination reactiono Some organisms of different class or species share closely related antigens.o When serum containing agglutinin (antibody) of one organism gives agglutination reaction with antigen of other organism, it is called heterophilic agglutination test.Examples areo Streptococcus M.G agglutination test for primary atypical pneumonia,o Weil - Felix reaction for typhus fever.o Paul Bunnell test for IMN. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The efferent limb of the cremasteric reflex is provided the- | [
"Femoral branch of the genitofemoral",
"Genital branch of the genitofemoral nerve",
"Ilioinguinal nerve",
"Pudendal nerve"
] | B | Ans. B. Genital branch of the genitofemoral nerveCremasteric Reflexa. Contraction of the cremaster muscle is elicited by lightly stroking the skin on the medial aspect of the superior part of the thigh with an applicator stick or tongue depressor. The afferent limb is ilio-inguinal nerve supplies this area of skin. Cremaster muscle is innervated by the genital branch of the genitofemoral nerve, derived from the first and second lumbar spinal nerves. The rapid elevation of the testis on the same side is the cremasteric reflex.b. This reflex is extremely active in children; consequently, hyperactive cremasteric reflexes may simulate undescended testes. A hyperactive reflex can be abolished by having the child sit in a cross-legged, squatting position; if the testes are descended, they can then be palpated in the scrotum.c. It may represent a protective reflex, and the cremaster may also have a role in testicular thermoregulation. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following statements about Non Small Cell Carcinoma of Lung (NSCCL) are true, Except: | [
"Contralateral mediastinal nodes are a contraindication to surgical resection",
"Single Agent Chemotherapy is preferred for patient > 70 years with advanced disease",
"Squammous Cell Carcinoma is the most common NSCCL amongst Asian population",
"Gefitinib is most effective for female smokers with adenocarcino... | D | Answer is D (Gefitinib is most effective for female smokers with adenocarcinoma on histology): Gefitinib is an oral 'small molecule Tyrosine kinase Inhibitor' (that inhibit signalling EGFR) approved for the treatment of patients with NSCCL. Data to suppo the use of Gefitinib in NSCCL are however diminishing and Gefitinib is most effective in females who have never smoked with adenocarcinoma on histology. Single agent cgemotherapy is prefered for elderly patients (> 70 years) American Society of Clinical Oncology (ASCO) recommends the use of single agent chemotherapy for elderly patients (> 70 years) with a poor performance status (2003 Guidelines) It has however now been stressed (2009 Guidelines) that age alone should not be used to select chemotherapy for patients with advanced NSCLC. Physiological Age (not chronological age) and performance status should be considered when selecting the chemotherapy regimen. Chemotherapy for Advanced (Stage IV) NSCLC Young patient Good performance status (PS < 2) Double agent chemotherapy is preferred for first line therapy Platinum based combinations are preferred over non platinum based combinations Elderly patient Poor performance status (PS 2) Single Agent Chemotherapy is preferred to reduce potential toxicity from chemotherapeutic agents. Vinorelbine or docetexal are often used for single agent chemotherapy in the elderly with a poor PS. Gefitinib is most effective for females with adenocarcinoma histology who have never smoked Gefitinib is an acceptable second line agent for treatment of patients with advanced NSCLC with adequate performance status when the disease has progressed during or after first line platinum based chemotherapy. Clinical Features that correlate with responsiveness to Gefitinib (Harrison) Female Sex Never smoking status Adenocarcinoma Histology Asian Ethinicity Contralateral Mediastinal nodes are a contraindication to Surgical Resection ALB. In otherwise fit individual, direct extension of tumour into the chest wall, diaphragm, mediastinal pleura or pericardium or to within 2 cm of the main carina does not exclude surgery. Though surgically resectable, patients with N2 (ipsilateral mediastinal) nodes may require neoadjuvant or adjuvant therapy. Contraindication to surgical resection in NSCLC (Davidson) Distant metastasis (M1) Invasion of central mediastinal structures including hea, great vessels. trachea and oesophagus (T4) Malignant pleural effusion (T4) Contralateral mediastinal nodes (N3) FEV, < 0.8L Severe or unstable cardiac or other medical condition Squammous Cell Carcinoma is the most common histological subtype of Lung Cancer in Asia (Including India) Most common lung cancer worldwide is adenocarcinoma Most common lung cancer in India (Asia) is squammous cell carcinoma Most common lung cancer in women is adenocarcinoma Most common lung cancer in smokers is squammous cell carcinoma Most common lung cancer in nonsmokers is adenocarcinoma Most common lung cancer in young patients is adenocarcinoma Most common lung cancer to metastasize is small cell carcinoma | train | med_mcqa | null |
All are features of hypernatremia, except - | [
"Convulsion",
"Elevated intracranial tension",
"Periodic paralysis",
"Muscle twitching"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is used for medical adrenalectomy? | [
"Mitotane",
"Methotrerate",
"Doxorubicin",
"5-Fluorouracil"
] | A | medical adrenelectomy or pharmacological adrenelectomy means- using medications or drugs to suppress the production of hormones from the adrenal gland Mitotane is highly effective in the long-term management of Cushing's syndrome but has a slow onset of action. Mitotane combined with fast-acting steroidogenesis inhibitors might avoid the need for emergency bilateral adrenalectomy in patients with severe hypercoisolism. KD Tripathi 8th ed | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 24-year-old male presented with a swelling on anterior aspect of neck. On examination the swelling was firm and moved with deglutination. Biopsy from the lesion has been shown. What is the typical finding and diagnosis? | [
"Orphan Annie eye nuclei; Follicular Ca thyroid",
"Orphan Annie eye nuclei; Papillary Ca thyroid",
"Hurthle cell change; Follicular Ca thyroid",
"Hurthle cell change; Papillary Ca thyroid"
] | B | Ans. (b) Orphan Annie eye nuclei; papillary Ca thyroid*High power shows nuclei of papillary carcinoma cells contain finely dispersed chromatin, which imparts an optically clear or empty appearance, giving rise to the ground glass or Orphan Annie eye nuclei. In addition, invaginations of the cytoplasm may give the appearance of intranuclear inclusions ("pseudoinclusions") or intranuclear grooves. The diagnosis of papillary carcinoma can be made based on these nuclear features, even in the absence of papillary architecture. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Cryosurgery is used in treatment of cervical intraepithelial neoplasia. It is appropriate in all except | [
"Transformation zone lying entirely on ectocervix.",
"Smooth cervical surface without deep crevices.",
"Cervical intraepithelial neoplasia -3.",
"CIN limited to two quadrants of the cervix."
] | C | Cryosurgery is generally not favoured for treatment of CIN-3 due to higher rates of disease persistence following treatment, and lack of histologic specimen to exclude occult invasive cancer. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is the most common site of tubal ligation: | [
"Ampulla",
"Isthmus",
"Interstitial",
"Fimbria"
] | B | In India tubal ligation is still done by the Pomeroy operation and entry is mostly by Minilap, though Laparoscopic procedures have increased substantially. A loop is made by holding the tube by an allis forceps in such a way that the major pa of the loop consists of isthmus i.e. at the junction of proximal and middle third. Isthemic sterilization is best since , if required, a re anastomosis at the isthmo isthmic site has the best chance of success | train | med_mcqa | null |
Following hormonal levels are increased in small cell carcinoma of lung except: | [
"ACTH",
"Growth hormone",
"ANF",
"AVP"
] | B | Propey Small cell carcinoma Location Central location Paraneoplastic syndrome ACTH Calcitonin Gastrin Releasing peptide AVP ANF Response to chemotherapy Superior response | train | med_mcqa | null |
The daily extra calorie requirement in a normal pregnancy is: | [
"50",
"150",
"450",
"300"
] | D | The energy requirements of women are increased by pregnancy (+300 kcal daily throughout pregnancy) and lactation (+550 kcal daily during the first 6 months, and +400 kcals daily during the next 6 months) over and above their normal requirements. Ref: Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine by K Park, 19th edition, Page 502. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is not seen in middle third fracture of the face? | [
"Face lengthening",
"Face shoening",
"Teeth malocclusion",
"CSF rhinorrhea"
] | B | Fracture of the middle third of face may be Le Fo fracture and if it through the middle third of nose it may be Le Fo 2 or Le Fo 3, symptoms of which areFacial swelling and deformityMalocclusion, Epistaxis, Elongated face, Nose block, Diplopia, CSF rhinorrhoea, Infraorbital paraesthesiasRef: Hazarika; 3rd ed; Pg 356 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is the most common location of hypeensive intracranial hemorrhage? | [
"Pons",
"Thalamus",
"Putamen",
"Subcoical white matter"
] | C | In order of frequency, the most common sites of hypeensive intracerebral bleed are the lentiform nucleus, especially the putamen, supplied by the lenticulostriate aeries, the thalamus, supplied by posterior perforating aeries off the posterior cerebrobasilar aery bifurcation, the white matter of the cerebral hemispheres (lobar hemorrhages), the pons, supplied by small perforating aeries from the basilar aery; and the cerebellum, supplied by branches of the cerebellar aeries. Ref: Clinical Neuroanatomy, 26th Edition By Stephen G. Waxman, Chapter 12 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Injectable tetanus toxoid is an example of: September 2006 | [
"Reactive immunity",
"Active immunity",
"Passive immunity",
"Herd immunity"
] | B | Ans. B: Active immunity Passive immunity: Immunity produced by the transfer to one person of antibodies that were produced by another person. Protection from passive immunity diminishes in a relatively sho time, usually a few weeks or months. For example, antibodies passed from the mother to the baby before bih confer passive immunity to the baby for the first 4-6 months of life. Passive immunity may be induced by: By administration of an antibody containing preparation (Immunoglobulin or antisera) By transfer of maternal antibodies across the placenta Active immunity: The production of antibodies against a specific agent by the immune system. Active immunity can be acquired in two ways: By contracting an infectious disease -- such as, for example, chickenpox; or By receiving a vaccination which may be a killed vaccine, a live attenuated vaccine or toxoid Active immunity is permanent. The individual is protected from the disease all their life | train | med_mcqa | null |
Fibrous scar in myocardial infection in well established by - | [
"6 weeks",
"6 months",
"6 days",
"30 days"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Ludwigs angina usually begins in - | [
"Submandibular space",
"Sublingual space",
"Parotid space",
"Retropharyngeal space"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Submandibular space o Ludwig's angina is a rapidly spreading bilateral cellulitis that involves the floor of mouth, under the tongue,o Floor of mouth is comprised of sublingual space, submandibular space and submental space,o Ludwig's angina usually begins in the submandibular space, and then rapidly spreads to involve the subligual space, usually on a bilateral basis.o Most common cause is infection of the root of the teeth (Dental infection), especially 2nd and 3rd mandibular molar.o Other causes are mouth injury, mandibular fracture, and submandibular sialadenitis. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Biphasic pattern on histology is seen in which tumor | [
"Rhabdomyosarcoma",
"Synol cell sarcoma",
"Osteosarcoma",
"Neurofibroma"
] | B | Synol cell sarcoma arises from primitive Mesenchymal tissue that differentates into epithelial and spindle cellls | train | med_mcqa | null |
The facial space that is divided by styloid process into an anterior and posterior compartment is | [
"Pterygomandibular",
"Lateral pharyngeal",
"Retropharyngeal",
"Infratemporal"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Hair-on-end appearance is associated with all of the following except: March 2010, September 2010 | [
"G-6-PD deficiency",
"Sickle cell anemia",
"Aplastic anemia",
"Thalassemia"
] | C | Ans. C: Aplastic Anemia Hair-on-end skull: Thin fine linear extensions radiating out from the skull that look on an X-ray like hair standing "on-end" from the skull, an appearance associated with hemolytic anemias such as: Sickle cell disease Thalassemia G-6-PD Deficiency Hereditary spherocytosis Elliptocytosis Pyruvate kinase deficiency. The "hair" represents the accentuated trabeculae extending between the inner and outer skull tables through the diploe in the expanded bone marrow space (because the bone marrow has expanded due to the excessive breakdown of red blood cells). The "hair" appears to be "on end" because the trabeculae are oriented perpendicular to the inner and outer tables of the skull. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The most common causative organism for lobar pneumonia Is | [
"Staphylococcus aureus",
"Streptococcus pyogenes",
"Streptococcus pneumoniae",
"Haemophilus influenzae"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 3–year–old boy presents with fever; dysuria and gross hematuria. Physical examination shows a prominent suprapubic area which is dull on percussion. Urinalysis reveals red blood cells but no proteinuria. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis – | [
"Acute glomerulonepluitis",
"Urinary tract infection",
"Posterior urethral valves",
"Teratoma"
] | C | It is a case of Posterior Urethral Valve presenting with Urinary tract Infection.
PUV is the most common cause of obstructive uropathy in a male child.
The key to diagnosis are -
Age and sex of the patient
Urinary tract infection is rare in a male child, greater than one year old and less than 5 years old. Presence of urinary tract infection in this age group suggests, the presence of some obstructive uropathy. ( posterior urethral valve in this case)
Presence of Suprapubic dullness
Presence of suprapubic dullness suggests urinary retention, which is seen in this case due to obstruction caused by posterior urethral valves: | train | med_mcqa | null |
The drug NOT used in prostatic carcinoma : | [
"Finasteride",
"Diethyl stilbestrol",
"Testosterone",
"Flutamide"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' Testosterone Medical management of Testicular CaThe aim is to reduce the testosterone level or its effect producing chemical castrationThe drugs areGnRH analogue* (leuprolide acetate*)Initially it produces a rise in LH and FSH which increases testosterone level initially but after sometimes due to down regulation of receptors on pituitary LH & FSH decrease there by decreasing TestosteroneAntiandrogen (Flutamide)*Estrogen (Diethylstilbestrol)*Finasteride*prevents the conversion of testosterone to its active component. It is a 5 alpha reductase inhibitor*Second line t/tKetoconazole*Aminoglutethimide* | train | med_mcqa | null |
Superior rectal vein drains into- | [
"Inferior mesenteric vein",
"External iliac vein",
"Internal iliac vein",
"Internal pudendal vein"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Inferior mesenteric vein o Superior rectal vein drains into inferior mesenteric vein,o Inferior rectal vein drains into internal pudendal vein. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A patient comes to u with an ill defined, irregularly shaped gingival erosions which are painful and are of short duration, a few months later skin lesions were also noticed, on histopathological examination Tzanck cells were found, probable diagnosis is: | [
"Lichen planus.",
"Pemphigus Vulgaris.",
"Angioneurotic oedema.",
"Behcet syndrome."
] | B | Oral manifestations:
Oral lesions common and precede skin lesions by months
Intact bullae are rare; patients usually present with ill-defined, irregularly shaped, gingival, buccal, palatal erosions, which are painful and slow to heal
Erosions extend peripherally with shedding of the epithelium. | train | med_mcqa | null |
True about osteoporosis - | [
"Low calcium",
"Low phosphate",
"Cod fish vertebrae",
"Raised alkaline phosphatase"
] | C | Osteoporosis is a metabolic disease.Its characterised by diffuse reduction in bone density.due to decrease in bone mass.It occurs when rate of bone resorption exceeds bone formation. C/f: Loss of bone mass leads to loss of strength so that trivial trauma is sufficient to cause a fracture. A slight loss of height and increased kyphoisis duevto compression of anterior part of vertebral bodies. Radiological findings- Loss of vertical height of a vertebra due to collapse.
Cod fish appearence- The disc bulges into the adjacent vertebral bodies so that the disc becomes biconvex. Ground glass appearence Serum calcium ,phosphorous and alkaline phosphatases are within normal limits.
Total plasma proteins and albumins may be low. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which is false regarding ether? | [
"Highly inflammable",
"Causes hyperglycemia",
"Good muscle relaxation",
"Rapid recovery"
] | D | Ether anaesthesia has major demerit of slow induction and slow recovery. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Deoxigenated Blood is carried by all except: | [
"Pulmonary Aery",
"Umbilical Vein",
"Right ventricle",
"Umbilical A"
] | B | B i.e. Umbilical Vein - Umblical vein and pulmonary veins carry oxygenated bloodQ. Whereas umbilical and pulmonary aeries carry deoxygenated bloodQ. - Deoxygenated blood (with 62% 02 saturation) leave umbilical aeries to be oxygenated at placenta whereas, umbilical veins carry oxygenated blood from the placenta with Hb02 saturation of - 80% (as compared to 98% saturation in adults aerial circulation). - Right ventricle pump deoxygenated blood through pulmonary aery into pulmonary capillaries where it is oxygenated. And then oxygenated blood is carried through pulmonary veins to left atrium. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Activated charcoal can be used in all poisoning except | [
"Barbiturates",
"Opioids",
"Alcohol",
"Cyanides"
] | D | Activated charcoalcharcoal Uses: in poisoning like Barbiturates Opiates Strychnine Digitalis Salicylic acid Phenol Benzodiazepines Nicotine Phenothiazines Anti- epileptics Alcohol It is not useful in poisoning with corrosives, heavy metals, cyanide, hydrocarbons. Ref: FORENSIC MEDICINE AND TOXICOLOGY Dr PC IGNATIUS THIRD EDITION PAGE 401 | train | med_mcqa | null |
For calculating drug dosage, which of the following formula is not age-dependent: | [
"Young's formula.",
"Cushing's rule.",
"Cowling's formula.",
"Clark's rule."
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following liners when exposed to oral fluids result in diminishment of their antimicrobial effectiveness? | [
"MTA",
"Calcium hydroxide",
"Both",
"None"
] | C | MTA and calcium hydroxide undergo a transformation of hydroxide to calcium carbonate from exposure to carbon dioxide in the blood and oral fluids, causing their antimicrobial effectiveness to diminish. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Koebner's phenomenon is not seen in: | [
"Vitiligo",
"Psoriasis",
"Dermatitis herpertiformis",
"Lichen planus"
] | C | Ref: Thappa DM. The isomorphic phenomenon of Koebner. Indian J Dermatol Venereal Leprol 2004;70:187-9.Explanation:The Koebner phenomenon is the development of isomorphic pathologic lesions in the traumatized uninvolved skin of patients who have cutaneous diseases.Koebner phenomenon signifies activity of the disease.Types of Koebner phenomenon:1. True isomorphic phenomenon:There appear to be three disease processes that display the true isomorphic response of Koebner:PsoriasisLichen planusVitiligo.2. Pseudoisomorphic phenomenon:The Koebner phenomenon also seen in infectious diseasesWartsMolluscum contagiosumBehcet's diseasePyoderma gangrenosum.3. Occasionally occurring isomorphic phenomenon:In this category, diseases occasionally localize to sites of trauma, e.g.Cancer (gastric, testicular or mammary )Darier's diseaseErythema multiformeHailey-Hailey diseaseKaposi's sarcomaKyrle's diseaseLichen sclerosus et atrophieusPellagraPerforating folliculitisReactive perforating collagenosis.Koebner response in psoriasis:The reported incidence of Koebner response in psoriasis varies from 11-75%.The latent period between injury to uninvolved skin and appearance of disease is usually 10-14 days, but it may range from 3 days to several years.The "reverse" Koebner response:The reverse Koebner reaction is seen when an area of psoriasis clears following injury. | train | med_mcqa | null |
How much ethinyl estriol does the new low dose oral contraceptive pill contain (in micrograms) | [
"20",
"25",
"30",
"35"
] | A | Composition of 'New low dose OCP' : (Brand name : Femilon/Elogen) Ethinyl estradiol: 0.02mg (20 mcg) Desogestrel: 0.15mg(150 mcg) Composition of Combined OCP: MALA-N Ethinyl estradiol: 0.03mg (30mcg) Norgestrel : 0.15mg (150mcg) Ref: Internet, Organon-India website | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is the contribution of Germany to public health? | [
"Socialization",
"Pasteurization",
"Development of baths, sewers, aqueducts for sanitation",
"Instituting compulsory sickness insurance"
] | D | Germany led the way by instituting compulsory sickness insurance in 1883 Ref: Park's textbook of preventive and social medicine; 23rd edition | train | med_mcqa | null |
Death of the mother from an automobile accident comes under | [
"Direct maternal death",
"Indirect maternal death",
"Nonmaternal death",
"None of the above"
] | C | Nonmaternal death: Death of the mother that results from accidental or incidental causes not related to pregnancy. An example is death from an automobile accident or concurrent malignancy(Ref: William's Obstetrics; 25th edition) | train | med_mcqa | null |
The diagnostic laboratory finding in nephrotic syndrome: | [
"Elevated blood urea",
"Severe anaemia",
"Massive albuminuria",
"Hyper glycaemia"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
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