question stringlengths 1 6.54k | choices listlengths 4 4 | answer stringclasses 4 values | rationale stringlengths 0 22.5k ⌀ | split stringclasses 1 value | dataset stringclasses 6 values | subject stringclasses 1 value |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
Which of the following is the most common cause of insulin resistance? | [
"Obesity",
"Post receptor defects",
"Liver dysfunction",
"Pancreatic dysfunction"
] | A | Obesity is probably the most common cause for insulin resistance. The risk for diabetes increases with BMI . It is not only the absolute amount but also the distribution of body fat that has an effect on insulin sensitivity. Central obesity(Abdoominal fat) is more likely to be linked than peripheral( gluteal fat). Obesity impacts in different ways through Free Fatty Acids , Adipokines etc. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most afferent fibers from the lateral geniculate nucleus terminate in the primary visual cortex is - | [
"Layer 1",
"Layer 2 & 3",
"Layer 4",
"Layer 5 & 6"
] | C | The axons from the lateral geniculate nucleus that form magnocellular pathway end in layer 4 of visual cortex, specifically in its deepest part, layer 4C. Many of the axons that form the parvocellular pathway also end in layer 4C. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Auer bodies are seen in -a) M1-AMLb) M3-AMLc) M6-AMLd) ALL | [
"ab",
"bc",
"c",
"d"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 42-year-old man presents with long-standing abdominal pain after meals, which is relieved by over-the-counter antacids. The patient has lost 9 kg (20 lb) in the past year. Physical examination reveals peripheral edema and ascites. Laboratory studies show decreased serum albumin but normal serum levels of transaminases and gastrin. Gross and microscopic examination of this patient's stomach would most likely show which of the following pathologic changes? | [
"Atrophic gastritis",
"Enlarged rugal folds",
"Intestinal metaplasia",
"Multiple hemorrhagic ulcers"
] | B | Menetrier disease /Hyperplastic hypersecretory gastropathy Mean age 30-60 years Rare disorder associated with excessive secretion of transforming growth factor (TGF)-a, which is an EGF receptor (EGFR) ligand, and hyperactivation of the epidermal growth factor receptor on gastric epithelial cells. Excessive EGFR activation causes diffuse hyperplasia of foveolar epithelium within the body and fundus Hypoproteinemia occurs to albumin loss across the gastric mucosa Secondary symptoms such as weight loss, diarrhea, and peripheral edema are commonly present Enlarged rugae are present in the body and fundus but the antrum is generally spared Risk of gastric adenocarcinoma is increased -Histology shows characteristic feature that is: Hyperplasia of surface and glandular mucous cells Marked intraepithelial lymphocytosis. Diffuse or patchy glandular atrophy The glands are elongated with a corkscrew-like appearance and cystic dilation present | train | med_mcqa | null |
Wood lamp is used to diagnose ? | [
"Psoriasis",
"Tinea versicolor",
"Pityriasis rosae",
"Erysipelas"
] | B | Ans. is b i.e., Tinea versicolor Diagnosis of TineaVersicolor Examination of scales in 10% KOH shows sho hyphae and round spores (Sphagetti and meat ball appearance). Wood lamp shows apple green fluorescence (blue-green fluorescence). Skin surface biopsy --> A Cyanoacrylate adhesive (Crazy glue) is used to remove the layer of stratum coreum on glass slide and then stained with PAS reagent. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Hydrogen peroxide is used in all of the following chemical tests for blood except: | [
"Benzedine test",
"Phenophthalein test",
"Ohotoluidine test",
"Teichmann's test"
] | D | D i.e. Teichman's test | train | med_mcqa | null |
b2 agonist with a long duration of action is | [
"Salbutamol",
"Terbutaline",
"Salmeterol",
"Albuterol"
] | C | A new generation of long-acting b2- selective agonists includes salmeterol (a paial agonist) and formoterol (a full agonist). Both drugs are potent selective b2 agonists that achieve their long duration of action (12 hours or more) as a result of high lipid solubility. These drugs appear to interact with inhaled coicosteroids to improve asthma control. Because they have no anti-inflammatory action, they are not recommended as monotherapy for asthma. An ultra-long-acting b agonist, indacaterol, is currently approved in Europe. It needs to be taken only once a day but is used only for the treatment of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Data on its efficacy and safety in the management of asthma are lacking. Reference: Katzung Pharmacology; 13th edition; Chapter 20; Drugs Used in Asthma | train | med_mcqa | null |
Mid day meal programme was first launched in: | [
"West Bengal",
"Tamil Nadu",
"Gujrat",
"Delhi"
] | B | Mid.day meal programme was introduced in a large scale in 1960s under the chief ministership of K. Kamraj Nadar in Tamil Nadu. Ref: National Health Programmes in India, J.Kishore, 10th edition pg: 453 | train | med_mcqa | null |
NGS stands for | [
"Next Generation Sanger",
"Next Genetic Sequencing",
"Next Generation Sequencing",
"Next Generation Spatial Separation"
] | C | Newer DNA sequencing technology Capable of producing large amounts of sequence data in a parallel manner | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which is pleuripotent stem cell ? | [
"Embryonic stem cell",
"Tissue stem cell",
"Adult stem cell",
"Hematopoietic stem cell"
] | A | Answer- A. Embryonic stem cellStem cellsEmbryonic stem cells : These are pleuripotent cellsAdutt stem cells | train | med_mcqa | null |
Ethambutol should be used very cautiously in childhood tuberculosis due to which of its side effect ? | [
"Ocular toxicity",
"Renal damage",
"Hepatotoxicity",
"Neurotoxicity"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Colon cut off sign in plain X-Ray of abdomen is seen in? | [
"Mesenteric ischemia",
"Intussusception",
"Acute pancreatitis",
"Acute cholangitis"
] | C | Abrupt termination of the gas within the colon at the level of the radiological splenic flexure is called colon cut off sign. Inflammatory infiltration of the phrenicocolic ligament leads to the spasm of the colon and lumen narrowing at the level where colon returns to retroperitoneum. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Treatment of presbyopia – | [
"LASIK",
"Concave lens",
"Convex lens",
"Radial keratotomy"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Basic pathology in rickets – | [
"Defective bone matrix formation",
"Defect in mineralization",
"Defect in osteoid formation",
"All of the above"
] | B | To know the pathophysiology of rickets, one should know the structure of bone.
Bone consists of -
Protein matrix i.e. osteoid --> also known as unmineralized bone.
Mineral phase, principally composed of calcium and phosphate, mostly in the form of hydroxyapatite.
In rickets osteoid (protein matrix) is formed normally but mineralization of this osteoid does not occur i.e. there is defective mineralization.
Rickets is a syndrome of diverse etiology characterized by defective mineralization of bone and epiphyseal cartilage (growth plate) of growing bones. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is TRUE regarding gastric emptying: | [
"Decreased by CCK.",
"Decreased by gastrin",
"Increased by secretin",
"Decreased by insulin."
] | A | A i.e. Decreased by CCK | train | med_mcqa | null |
Diameter of an adult crystalline lens is: | [
"5-6 mm",
"7-8 mm",
"9-10 mm",
"11-12 mm"
] | C | Ans. 11-12 mm | train | med_mcqa | null |
True statement about dysthyroid eye disease (grave's opthalmopathy) is | [
"Decreased power of divergence",
"Most common cause of U/L proptosis in",
"Extreme exopthalmos is usually seen in hypothyroidism",
"On looking upwards lower lid does not follow eye movements"
] | C | C. i.e. Extreme exopthalmos is usually seen in hypothyroidism A mild exopthalmos is associated with thyrotoxicosis and an extreme exopthalmos may be associated with any state of thyroid activity, but usually in hypothyroidism often after thyroidectomy.Q Dysthyroid / Graves-Opthalmopathy or Endocrine / Malignant-Exopthalmos * Etiology Clinical Features Treatment Autoimmune in General (Thyrotoxicosis) Ocular * GuanethidineQ may which there is * SymptomsQ * Dalrympe's Sign- decrease lid antibody - Tiredness Retraction of upper eye lid producing Staring retraction caused by mediated attack - Emotional lability & Frightened appearanceQ over.action of on orbital - Heat intolerance Mn-"D for Dar" muller's muscleQ fibroblast - Weight loss * Von Graefe's Sign- * Systemic Steroids & primarily, extraocular - Excessive appetite - Palpitation Lid lag i.e on looking downwardsQ (towards Ground) upperlid follows tardily or not at all Radiotherapy (if steroids not muscles being * SignsQ Mn-"Graefe-Lid lag on looking Ground" effective) 1000 rad secondarily - Tachycardia (persist during * Stellwag's Sign- from each lateral involvedQ sleep)Q Infrequent blinking with deficient closure of po for reducing * Pathology - Hot, moist palms lidsQ orbital edema Mononuclear cell - Agitation Mn-"S for Still" * Aificial tears & inflammation - Thyroid goiter & bruit * IVRibius Sign- Lateral with presence of - Myopathy of proximal Decreased power of convergenceQ tarsorrhaphy to mucopolysacchri muscles Mn- "M for On looking Medially" prevent exposure des * Stages of development of * Enroth's Sign- keratopathy predominantly cardiac arrhythmias Fullness of eylids d/1 puffy Edematous * Prismatic glasses for hyluronic acid - Tachycardia which persist swelling diplopia together with during sleep Mn- "E for Edematous lid" * Orbital Interstial edema (characteristic)Q * Gifford's Sign- decompression & inflamatory - Multiple extra systole Difficulty in eversion of upper lid When steroid & cells - Paroxysmal atrial * Exopthalmos (Proptosis) have proved tachycardia * Weakness of extraocular muscles paicularly ineffective two wall - Paroxysmal atrial elevators (inferior oblique)Q causing diplopia (orbital floor & fibrillation * Conjunctival injection over inseion of recti medial wall - Persistent atrial fibrillation * Increased intra ocular pressure removed) not responding to digoxin * Superior limbic keratopathy decompression is done 28) Grade 4 Extraocular muscle involvement Q (limitation of movement & diplopia) Grade 5 Corneal involvement (exposure keratitis) Grade 6 Loss of Sight (d/t optic nerve involvement with disc pallor or papilloedema & visual field defect) " v:shapes="_x0000_s1026">Graves opthalmopathy is most common cause of U/L or B/L proptosis in adults between age of 25-50 yearsQ Werner Classification reflect severity of opthalmopathy and is well known by acronym of NO SPECS. Grade 0 - No signs or symptoms Grade 1 - Only signs (lid retraction with or without lid lag Q & mild proptosis) Grade 2 - Soft tissue involvement (chemosis, grit, lacrimation, photophobia, lid or conjuctival swelling) Grade 3 Proptosis Q (minimal28) Grade 4 Extraocular muscle involvement Q (limitation of movement & diplopia) Grade 5 Corneal involvement (exposure keratitis) Grade 6 Loss of Sight (d/t optic nerve involvement with disc pallor or papilloedema & visual field defect) | train | med_mcqa | null |
True statement about great sphenous vein | [
"It begins at lateral end of dorsal venous arch",
"It runs anterior to medial malleolus",
"It is accomponied by sural nerve",
"Terminates into popliteal vein"
] | B | Ansis 'b' i.e., It runs anteiror to medial malleolus | train | med_mcqa | null |
The following group of lymph nodes receives lymphatics from the uterus except: | [
"External iliac",
"Internal iliac",
"Superficial inguinal",
"Deep inguinal"
] | D | The uterus does not drain into the deep inguinal lymph nodes. Ref:Snell's Clinical Anatomy, 7th Edition, Pages 392-94 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Thyroid malignancies appear on USG as | [
"Hypoechoic",
"Anechoic",
"Hyperechoic",
"Isoechoic"
] | A | On sonography, thyroid tumors are solid,hypoechoic masses. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is not a branch of anterior trunk of vagus | [
"Motor nerve to gallbladder",
"Motor Nerve to pylorus.",
"Criminal nerve of grassi",
"Anterior nerve of latarjet"
] | C | Criminal nerve of grassi is a branch of posterior trunk. | train | med_mcqa | null |
In Ghon's technique of autops, organs are removed | [
"As organ blocks",
"One by one",
"En - Masse",
"Not removed"
] | A | Refer the byte "Autopsy technique and types". | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is the most sensitive method for detecting cervical Chlamydia trachomatis infection? | [
"Direct fluorescent antibody test",
"Enzyme immunoassay",
"Polymerase chain reaction",
"Culture on irradiated McConkey cells"
] | C | PCR and LCR are both sensitive and specific methods for detecting cervical Chlamydia trachomatis infection in women. Nucleic acid amplification test is the most sensitive method for detecting Chlamydia trachomatis in endocervical samples (CDC2002). PCR is a method to amplify minute amounts of genetic material. The reaction can thus be used for detecting very tiny amounts of pathogen. Prerquisite is the preparation of pathogen specific DNA primer. Ref: Women's Gynecologic Health By Kerri Durnell Schuiling, Page 131 ; Microbial Pathogenesis: A Principles-Oriented Approach, 1st Edition, By Bruce A. McClane, Page 156 ; Rapid Detection of Infectious Agents By Steven Specter, Page 87 ; Infections in Obstetrics and Gynecology: Textbook and Atlas By Eiko E. Petersen, Page 35 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Fibroids in pregnancy should be removed : | [
"In pregnancy",
"During cesarean section",
"In the early puerperium",
"Should not be removed"
] | D | Should not be removed | train | med_mcqa | null |
CD - 95 in apoptosis; the death receptors initiated through - | [
"Induces apoptosis when it engaged by fas ligand system",
"Cytochrom C binds to a protein Apoptosis activating (Apaf -1) factor - 1",
"Apoptosis may be initiated by caspase activation",
"Apoptosis mediated through DNA damage"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Induces apoptosis when it engaged by fas ligand system | train | med_mcqa | null |
Statins are given at night because ? | [
"HMG-CoA reductase activity is maximum in midnight",
"Statins are maximally absorbed in night",
"Statins have more potency in night",
"Convenient for patient to remember"
] | A | Ans. is'a' i.e., HMG-CoA reductase actiyity is maximum in midnight(Ref: KDT 7/e p.637; Clinical pharmacology 3d/ep.939)Because HMG-CoA reductase activity is maximum at midnight, all statins are administered at bed time to obtain maximum effectiveness.However, this is not necessary for atorvastatin and rosuvastatin, which have long plasma t 1/2. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Lateral boundary of anatomical snuff box is formed by ? | [
"EPL",
"EPB",
"FPL",
"FPB"
] | B | EPB | train | med_mcqa | null |
The most common side effect of IUCD which requires its removal | [
"Bleeding",
"Pain",
"Pelvic infection",
"Ectopic pregnancy"
] | B | Pain is the second major side effect leading to IUCD removal WHO estimates that 15-40 percent of the IUCD removal appears to be for pain only Pain may be experienced during the inseion and for a few days thereafter and during menstruation Reference: Park&;s textbook of preventive and social medicine, Page no: 498 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following vitamin deficiency causes pellagra? | [
"Thiamine",
"Ascorbic acid",
"Nicotinic acid",
"Cyanocobalamine"
] | C | Ans. c (Nicotinic acid). (Ref. Harrison, Medicine, 14th ed., 463)NIACIN# Function: CoA enzyme in redox reactions.# 1 mg of niacin is formed from 60 mg of tryptophan.# Deficiency: Pellagra (diarrhea, dermatitis, dementia and death if untreated).# Hartnup disease, malignant carcinoid syndrome and INH therapy may also cause niacin deficiency. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Marker for B lymphocytes | [
"CD34",
"CD33",
"CD19",
"CD20"
] | B | Ref immunology by Roitt 6/e p 29; 30; 19 ;9/e p191 CD 19,20,22 are main markers of human B cells .othersB cell markers are CD72 and CD78 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Typical bodies in Bronchial mucosa from Sputum of Patient is seen in | [
"Bronchial asthma",
"Emphysema",
"Chronic bronchitis",
"Bronchiectasis"
] | A | Bronchial asthma (Body shown: Creola body) | train | med_mcqa | null |
In case of gout preservation of urine sample is done in- | [
"Normal saline",
"Fonnaline",
"Alcohol",
"Distilled water"
] | C | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Lymphoid tissue is seen in which parotid tumor | [
"Wahins tumor",
"Adenoid cystic",
"Mucoepidermoid",
"Pleomorphic adenoma"
] | A | wahin tumor is a benign and second most common salivary gland neoplasm. it almost exclusively arises in the parotid gland Microscopy: cystic spaces are embedded in a dense lymphoid stroma which closely resembles a normal lymph node. Lymphoid tissue is prominent with germinal centres and is composed of B and few T cells GENERAL AND SYSTEMIC PATHOLOGY RAMDAS NAYAK FIRST EDITION PGNO.368 IMAGE REF: GENERAL AND SYSTEMIC PATHOLOGY RAMDAS NAYAK SECOND EDITION FIG. 17.5 PAGE 473 | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 9 year old child disturbs other people, is destructive, interferes with the people are talking, does not follow instructions and cannot wait for his turn while playing a game. He is likely to be suffering from: March 2013 (h) | [
"Emotional disorder",
"Behavioural problem",
"No disorder",
"Attention deficit hyperactivity disorder"
] | D | Ans. D i.e. Attention deficit hyperactivity disorder Attention deficit hyperactivity disorder/ ADHD Easy distractibility/poor attention span, Impulsivity, Methyl-phenidylate and Atom-oxetiene are used in management | train | med_mcqa | null |
Uric acid is formed in humans in - | [
"Liver",
"GIT mucosa",
"Kidney",
"Joints"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e.,GIT mucosa Uric acid is produced in intestinal mucosal cells from dietary purines.The sources of purine nucleotides in the body are :?Synthesis of purine rings by body itself.Presense of purines in diet (dietary purines).this the usual source of purines also pyrimidines for the use of body.Human body is capable of synthesizing the purine and the pyrimidine rings de novo (anew) and also by salvaging (recycling) the nitrogenous bases arising from degardation of nucleic acid.Brain, RBCs and polymorphonuclear leucocytes cannot produce purines by de novo synthesis. Almost all other cells can produce purines by de novo synthesis | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which is false regarding Spaulding's criteria? | [
"Non critical items require only decontamination",
"Semi critical items are those which come in contact with mucous membrane or non intact skin",
"Semi critical items need low level disinfection",
"Cardiac catheters are examples of critical items"
] | C | Semitcritical items need low level disinfection . Non Critical - Objects that touch only intact skin require low-level disinfection processing; noncritical items are divided into noncritical patient care items and noncritical environmental surfaces. Critical Semicritical Noncritical Sterilization High-level disinfection Low-level disinfection Level germicidal action Kill all microorganisms, including bacterial spores Kills all microorganisms except high numbers of bacterial spores Kill vegetative bacteria, fungi and lipid viruses. Device Surgical instruments and devices; cardiac catheters; implants; etc Respiratory therapy and anesthesia equipment, GI endoscopes, endocavitary probes, Tonometers, Diaphragm fitting rings, etc Bedpans; crutches; bed rails EKG leads; bedside table, walls floors and furniture Method Steam, gas (ethylene oxide), hydrogen peroxide plasma or chemical sterilization High level disinfection (hydrogen peroxide, ohophthalaldehyde, Glutaraldehyde) Low-level disinfection (or detergent for housekeeping surfaces) High-level disinfection traditionally is defined as complete elimination of all microorganisms in or on an instrument, except for small numbers of bacterial spores. The FDA definition of high-level disinfection is a sterilant used for a shoer contact time to achieve a 6-log10 kill of an appropriate Mycobacterium species | train | med_mcqa | null |
Marker enzyme of mitochondria are/is - | [
"Na+ – K+ ATPase",
"Glutamate dehydrogenase",
"Lactate dehydrogenase",
"No specific enzyme"
] | B | Markers of Plasma membrane - 5 '-Nucleotidase, Adenylyl cyclase, Na+ K+ ATPase
Marker of Endoplasmic reticulum- Glucose-6-phosphatase
Markers of Golgi apparatus- GlcNAc transferase
Golgi mannosidase
Galactosyltransferase, Sialyltransferase
Marker of Mitochondria- ATP synthase, Glutamate dehydrogenase
Marker of Peroxisome- Catalase
Marker of Cytosol- LDH | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is x-linked recessive - | [
"G-6-PD deficiency",
"Neurofibromatosis",
"Thalassemia",
"Alkaptonuria"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., G-6-PD deficiencyX-linked Recessive disordersMusculoskeletalHematologicalImmuneMetabolicNervouso Duchene muscular dystrophyo Chronic granulomatous diseaseo Hemophilia A & Bo G-6-PD deficiencyo Agammaglobulinemiao Wiskott-Aldrich synd.o Diabetes insipiduso Lesch Nyhan syndromeo Fragile-X-syndromeo ColourblindnessX-linked dominant disorderso Vitamine D resistant ricketso Familial hypophosphatemia | train | med_mcqa | null |
Haemorrhage at macular spot in high myopia is called: | [
"Lacquer's lines",
"Foster-Fuchs fleck",
"Dalen-Fuchs nodules",
"Berlin's oedema"
] | B | Ans. Foster-Fuchs fleck | train | med_mcqa | null |
Earliest sensation to be lost in Hansens disease is:(1994) | [
"Pain",
"Touch",
"Vibration",
"Temperature"
] | B | Ans. bRef: Park, 17th ed, p. 242 & 18th ed, p. 252 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Muscle which dilates the palpebral apeure: | [
"Orbicularis oculi",
"Orbicularis oris",
"Levator palpebrae superioris",
"Levator labii superioris"
] | C | The levator palpebrae superioris muscle elevates and retracts the upper eyelid. | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following are common problems in preschool children except ___________ | [
"Temper tantrums",
"Sleep problems",
"Truancy",
"Pica"
] | C | Truancy and running away are never developmentally appropriate. Truancy may represent disorganization within the home, caretaking needs of younger siblings, developing conduct problems, or emotional problems including depression or anxiety. Whereas younger children may threaten to run away out of frustration or a desire to get back at parents, older children who run away are almost always expressing a serious underlying problem within themselves or their family, including violence, abuse, and neglect. Adolescent runaways are at high risk for substance abuse, unsafe sexual activity, and other risk-taking behaviors. Youth exhibiting truancy or running away should be referred for a mental health evaluation Ref.nelson 20th edition pg 175 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most commonly injured nerve in Incision shown | [
"Ilioinguinal nerve",
"Iliohypogastric nerve",
"Subcostal nerve",
"11th Thoracic nerve"
] | B | Ilia hypogastric nerve (McBumey's incision) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Natural killer cells attacks which of the following cells - | [
"Cells which express MHC 1",
"Cells which are not able to express MHC 1",
"MHC cells which express MHC 2",
"Cells which are not able to express MHC"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Cells which are not able to expres MHC I Null cells (Large granular lymphocytes) o Null cells are called so because they lack features of surface markers of both B and T lymphocytes. o The account for 5 to 10% of peripheral blood lymphocytes. o They are also called "large granular lymphocytes (LGL)" as they contain large azurophilic cytoplasmic granules. o They express Surface receptors for the Fe poion of IgG (CD-16) NCAM-I (CD56) o They proliferate in response to IL-2 o Many LGL express some lineage marker paicularly CD-8, CD-2. o LGLs arise in both bone marrow and thymic microenvironment. o Members of this group are : I. Antibody dependent cytotoxic cells (ADCC) o ADCC possess surface receptors for the Fc pa of Ig. o Capable of lysing or killing target cells sensitized with IgG. 2. Natural killer cells (NK Cells) Possess spontaneous cytotoxicity towards various target cells : - (i) Virus infected cells (ii) Malignant cells (iii) Transplanted foreign cells Cytotoxicity is not antibody dependent or MHC restricted o Activity is nonimmune as it does not require sensitization by prior antigenic contact. They have CD-56 and CD-16 on their surface o 1L-2 acts as a growth factor o Natural killer cell activity is augmented by interferon. o They release perforin which causes transmembrane pores through which TNF-I3 enters the cell and induce apoptosis. o NK cells are activated to LAK cells in the presence of IL-2 o Usually CD-3 negative but subset of NK cells are CD-3 positive called NK/T cells. o NK cells secrete TNF-a, GMCSF, perforin, IL-4. o NK cells do not kill normal cells. Why is it so? lets see : ? The NK cells express activating and inhibiting receptors. The functional activity of the NK cells is regulated by a balance between signal from these receptors. MHC class I molecules has inhibiting signal on NK cells and normal cell are not killed because inhibiting signals from normal MHC class I molecules overside activating signals. The ability of NK cells to kill target cells is inversly related to target cell expression of MHC class I molecule. If virus infection or neoplastic transformation reduces the expression of MHC I, inhibitory signals are interrupted and lysis of target cells occur. 3. Lymphokine activated killer (LAK) cells o These are NK - cells treated with IL-2 o Kill tumor cells more efficiently than unstimulated NK cents. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The typical appearance of 'Granulation tissue' is due to | [
"Thrombosed capillaries",
"Budding ends of capillaries",
"Densely packed collagen",
"Chronic inflammatory cells"
] | B | The term granulation tissue derives from its pink, so, granular appearance on the surface of wounds, and the characteristic histological features include the formation of the new vessels (angiogenesis) with budding ends of capillaries and proliferation of fibroblast. | train | med_mcqa | null |
True statements regarding halothane are all of the following except:- | [
"Unsuitable for pediatric population",
"Potentiates competitive neuromuscular blockers",
"Hepatitis may occur",
"Contraindicated in patients with cardiac arrhythmia"
] | A | Halothane It is a good anaesthetic but very poor analgesic agent. It can cause hepatitis on repeated use. It can also result in malignant hypehermia, which can be treated with dantrolene. It can result in post-anaesthetic chills and shivering. Pethidine is used for treatment of this condition. Halothane relaxes the uterus. Due to this propey, it is the agent of choice in internal version and manual removal of placenta (version can be accomplished easily in a relaxed uterus). However due to its uterine relaxing propey, it is contraindicated in labour, because if post-paum hemorrhage results, it will be difficult to control (contraction of uterus stops bleeding after labour). It sensitizes hea to the arrhythmogenic action of catecholamines. It is therefore contraindicated in patients with pheochromocytoma. It is also a cardiodepressant drug that causes hypotension, bradycardia and arrhythmias. It is the inhalational agent of choice in bronchial asthma due to its bronchodilator action. It is an excellent agent for induction in children. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Commonest cause of acute folliculitis (hair follicle infection) is | [
"Staphylococcus aureus",
"Beta hemolytic streptococcus",
"Propionibacterium acnes",
"Streptococcus viridans"
] | A | Acute folliculitis are of two types: superficial and deep. The most common causative organism is Staphylococcus aureus. Superficial folliculitis is also caused by Pseudomonas aeruginosa.Reference : page 41 IADVL's Concise Textbook of Dermatology | train | med_mcqa | null |
Best anaesthesia for status Asthmaticus is : | [
"Thiopentone",
"Ether",
"Ketamine",
"N2O"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e. Ketamine Ketamine causes Sympathetic stimulation which leads to Bronchodilatation so it is the anaesthetic of choice for Status Asthmaticus.It is more potent Bronchodilator than HalothaneAlso knowMuscle Relaxant of Choice in Asthma pancuronium*Muscle Relaxant to be avoided in Asthma - Metocurine & Succinyl choline* (d/t secretion of histamine) | train | med_mcqa | null |
Extent of etching should be: | [
"0.2 mm beyond the preparation",
"0.5 mm beyond the preparation",
"1.0 mm beyond the preparation",
"Any of the above"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
75% Lymph from breast goes to - | [
"Axillary L.N.",
"Subciavicular L.N,",
"Internal mammary' L.N.",
"Cephalic L.N."
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Axillary L.N. Lymph from Breast drains into the following lymph nodes|||Axillary nodesInternal mammary or ParasternalOthers like# Receives approx 75% of the drainage & are arranged in the following groups ;# Lateral# Anterior# Posterior a Central# Inerpectoral# Apical # Supracalvicular# Cephalic (deltopectoral)# Posterior intercostals# Subdiaphragmatico Clinical importance of lymphatic drainage of the breast is that carcinoma of the breast spreads mostly along the lymphatics to the regional lymph nodes.o The axiiiary nodes are divided into three levels according to their relation to pectoralis minor muscle* Level J - inferior to the lower border of the muscleLevel 11 - immediately behind its bellyLevel III - above and adjacent to the axillary vesselso Level I & Level II lymph nodes are dissected in modified radical mastectomy. o All three levels are removed inPatey s procedure of modified radical mastectomyRadical mastectomy | train | med_mcqa | null |
Treatment of thyroid storm includes all, EXCEPT - | [
"Propranolol",
"Radioactive iodine",
"Hydrocortisone",
"Lugol' s iodine"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Drug of Choice for absence seizure in children < 3 years of age is | [
"Ethosuximide",
"Carbamazepine",
"Lamtrigine",
"Phenytain"
] | A | Answer- A. EthosuximideEthosuximide is the DOC for absence seizures in children below 3 years of age as Na valproate may cause fulminant hepatitis in children below 3 years of age. Broadly. Na valproate is the DOC for absence seizures. | train | med_mcqa | null |
The mature cyst of Entamoeba histolytica differs from Entamoeba coli, in the following except- | [
"Size 6 to 15 microns",
"Nuclei are 1 to 4 in number",
"Karyosome is central in position",
"Chromatid bars seen"
] | D | cyst E.histolytica E.coli size 6-15micrometre 15-20 micrometre nucleus 1 to 4,central karyosome 1 to 8 ,eccentric karyosome chromatid bars rounded filamentous TEXTBOOK OF MEDICAL PARASITOLOGY,BAVEJA,3RD EDITION,PAGE NO 22 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Runners fracture occurs in which bone? | [
"Fibula",
"Femur",
"Tibia",
"All of the above"
] | A | Ans. (a) FibulaRef: Rockwood 7th ed. ch.: 19 | train | med_mcqa | null |
A patient was advised Treadmill test, but he had lost both his limbs and then he was advised a stress test. The drug used for this test is: | [
"Dopexamine",
"Dopamine",
"Dobutamine",
"Dipevefrine"
] | C | Uses of dobutamine Sho-term treatment of cardiac decompensation that may occur after cardiac surgery or in patients with congestive hea failure or acute myocardial infarction An infusion of dobutamine in combination with echocardiography is useful in noninvasive assessment of patients with coronary aery disease Stressing of the hea with dobutamine may reveal cardiac abnormalities in carefully selected patients. | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 22-year-old male had an outing with his friends and developed fever of 38.5degC, abdominal pain, diarrhea and vomiting after eating chicken salad 24 h back. Two of his friends developed the same symptoms. The diagnosis is: FMGE 08 | [
"Salmonella enteritis poisoning",
"Bacillus cereus poisoning",
"Staphylococcus aureus poisoning",
"Vibrio cholera poisoning"
] | A | Ans. Salmonella enteritis poisoning | train | med_mcqa | null |
A person has history of steatorrhoea of long duration. D-sylose was ordered. 5 hour urine sample show <4.5 g excretion after giving 25g D-xylose. What is/are the probable diagnosis | [
"Celiac disease",
"Pancreatitis",
"Blind loop syndrome",
"Heal disease"
] | A | Coeliac disease or celiac disease is a long-term autoimmune disorder that primarily affects the small intestine.Classic symptoms include gastrointestinal problems such as chronic diarrhoea, abdominal distention, malabsorption, loss of appetite and among children failure to grow normally. This often begins between six months and two years of age. Non-classic symptoms are more common, especially in people older than two years. There may be mild or absent gastrointestinal symptoms, a wide number of symptoms involving any pa of the body or no obvious symptoms.Coeliac disease was first described in childhood;however, it may develop at any age.It is associated with other autoimmune diseases, such as diabetes mellitus type 1 and thyroiditis, among others. The classic symptoms of untreated coeliac disease include pale, loose, and greasy stool (steatorrhoea), and weight loss or failure to gain weight. Other common symptoms may be subtle or primarily occur in organs other than the bowel itself.It is also possible to have coeliac disease without any of the classic symptoms at all.This has been shown to comprise at least 43% of presentations in children. Fuher, many adults with subtle disease may only present with fatigue or anaemia. Many undiagnosed individuals who consider themselves asymptomatic are in fact not, but rather have become accustomed to living in a state of chronically compromised health. Indeed, after staing a gluten-free diet and subsequent improvement becomes evident, such individuals are often able to retrospectively recall and recognise prior symptoms of their untreated disease which they had mistakenly ignored. Ref Davidson edition23rd pg 830 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Meyer cotton Grading system used for | [
"Laryngocoele",
"Subglottic stenosis",
"Laryngomolocia",
"TB larynx"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Example of metallo enzyme is ? | [
"Lysyl oxidase",
"Lysyl hydroxylase",
"Prolyl hydroxylase",
"Glucosyl transferase"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Lysyl oxidaseLysyl oxidase is a metalloenzyme (copper containing | train | med_mcqa | null |
A child with decreased levels of LH, FSH and Testosterone presents with delayed pubey. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis - | [
"Klinfelter's syndrome",
"Kallman's syndrome",
"Androgen Insensitive syndrome",
"Testicular Infection"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Kallman's syndrome Kallman's syndrome is an X-Linked disorder characterized by deficiency of GnRH with a resultant decrease in FSH and LH levels producing an isolated Hypogonadotrophic Hypogonadism. Kallman's syndrome may be seen in both men and women but is more common in men. It is typically also associated with agenesis or hypoplasia of the olfactory bulb producing anosmia or hyposmiaQ. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Perifascicular atropy of muscle fibres is seen in - | [
"Steroid myopathy",
"Dermatomyositis",
"Inclusion body myositis",
"Nemaline myopathy"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., Dermatomyositis o Dermatomyositis is a connective-tissue disease related to polymyositis that is characterized by inflammation of the muscles and the skin. o It is a systemic disorder that may also affect the joints, the esophagus, the lungs, and, less commonly, the hea. o On the muscle biopsy, there are two classic microscopic findings of dermatomyositis. They are : mixed B- & T-cell perivascular inflammatory infiltrate and perifascicular muscle fiber atrophy. o It is associated with autoantibodies, especially anti-Jol antibody. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Cataplexy is characterized by? | [
"Hypnopompic hallucinations",
"Nocturnal penile tumescence",
"Decreased muscle tone",
"Somnambulism"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., Decreased muscle tone * Cataplexy is the most common accessory symptom of Narcolepsy and is characterized by sudden decrease in muscle tone, either, local or generalized. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following conditions cannot be assessed by a cephalogram: | [
"Mandibular Lateral asymmetry",
"Vertical facial discrepancy",
"Increase posterior height",
"Decreased anterior height"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Drug induced lupus can be identified by- | [
"Anti-histone antibodies",
"Double stranded DNA antibodies",
"Antinuclear antibodies",
"Anti-SM antibodies"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
The surface marking of the arch of aoa is as follows | [
"Behind the manubrium sterni",
"2nd intercostal space",
"3rd intercostal space",
"Left 2nd costal cailage"
] | A | ARCH OF AOA It lies behind the lower half of the manubrium sterni.Its upper convex border is marked by a line which begins at the right end of the sternal angle,arches upwards and to the left through the centre of the manubrium and ends at the sternal end of the left second costal cailage.Note that the beginning and end of the arches are at the same level.When marked on the surface as descried above the arch looks much smaller than it actually is because of foreshoening. BD CHAURASIA 'S HUMAN ANATOMY VOL.1,FIFTH EDITION | train | med_mcqa | null |
Prussak's space is bounded below by | [
"Fibers of lateral malleolar fold",
"Shrapnell's membrane",
"Sho process of malleus",
"Neck of malleus"
] | C | Anatomy of middle ear Boundaries of Prussak's space: Superior - Fibers of lateral malleolar fold Inferior - Sho process of malleus Lateral - Shrapnell's membrane Medial - Neck of malleus Ref : Diseases of ENT by Dhingra 6th edition Pgno : 449 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Gonioscopy is used for | [
"Anterior chamber angle",
"Posterior chamber angle",
"Anterior surface of lens",
"Posterior chamber"
] | A | Gonioscopy describes the use of a goniolens in conjunction with a slit lamp or operating microscope to gain a view of the iridocorneal angle, or the anatomical angle formed between the eye&;s cornea and iris. Reference: AK Khurana 7th Edition | train | med_mcqa | null |
The genetic mutation most commonly linked with congenital central hypoventilation syndrome is: | [
"Mutation in sodium channel alpha 1 subunit",
"Mutation in paired like homeobox 2B gene",
"Mutation in outer dynein arm",
"All of the above"
] | B | b. Mutation in paired like homeobox 2B gene(Ref: Nelson's 20/e p 2148)Congenital central hypoventilation syndrome (CCHS) or Ondine curse is most commonly related to a PHOX2B fpaired-like homeobox 2B) mutation, which presents in the neonatal period and also associates with autonomic problems (Hirschsprung disease) and neural crest tumorsIn the classic case of CCHS, symptoms of alveolar hypoventilation are manifest in the newborn period and during sleep only--with diminished tidal volume and a typically monotonous respiratory rate with cyanosis and hypercarbia. In more severe cases of CCHS, the hypoventilation is manifest during wakefulness and sleep. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Decreased dietary intake of potassium is incriminated in leading to all except? | [
"Hypeension",
"Stroke",
"CHF",
"Diabetes mellitus"
] | D | Reduced dietary K+ are implicated in the pathophysiology and progression of hypeension hea failure, and stroke. For example, sho term K+ restriction in healthy humans and patients with essential hypeension induces Na+Cl-retention and hypeension. Correction of hypokalemia is paicularly impoant in hypeensive patients treated with diuretics, in whom blood pressure improves with the establishment of normokalemia. Since hypeension and Coronary aery disease patients if untreated can develop CHF, reducing incidence of these will reduce incidence of CHF. | train | med_mcqa | null |
True regarding lens of eye | [
"Ectoderm of origin",
"Avascular",
"Epithelium is single layer",
"All of the above"
] | D | LENS Transparent , Biconvex & crystalline structure placed in patellar fossa Develop from the surface ectoderm Lens transparency is due to Avascularity of the lens Epithelium is single layering Lens capsule semipermeable in character | train | med_mcqa | null |
The first trimester of pregnancy completes by | [
"10weeks",
"12weeks",
"13weeks",
"14weeks"
] | D | TrimestersIt has become customary to divide pregnancy into three equal epochs of approximately 3 calendar months. Historically, the first trimester extends through completion of 14 weeks, the second through 28 weeks, and the third includes the 29th through 42nd weeks of pregnancy. Thus, there are three periods of 14 weeks each.Reference: William's Obstetrics; 24th edition; Chapter 9; Prenatal care | train | med_mcqa | null |
Klebsiella pneumonia is | [
"Lobar pneumonia with absent air bronchogram sign",
"Involves lower lobe predominantly",
"Cavitation is common",
"Pleural effusion is not commonly seen"
] | C | Klebsiella pneumonia :
Air bronchogram sign positive.
Involves upper lobe.
Cavitations and pleural effusion is common. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Interpeducular fossa contains all except : | [
"Mammiallary bodies",
"Posterior perforated substance",
"Occulomotor nerve",
"Opthalmic nerve"
] | D | D i.e. Ophthalmic nerve | train | med_mcqa | null |
Loss of pulmonary surfactant in premature infant – | [
"Pulmonary edema",
"Collapse of alveoli",
"Elastic recoil of lungs",
"All of these"
] | D | Effects of surfactant deficiency
Decreased compliance --> Increased elastic recoil
Atelectasis
Interstitial edema
Hyaline membrane formation | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is a mood stabilizer? | [
"Lithium",
"Haloperidol",
"Amitriptyline",
"Diazepam"
] | A | Ans: a (Lithium) Ref:Katzung, 10th ed, p 455Lithium carbonate is often referred to as an "antimanic" drug, and is considered a "mood-stabilizing" agent because of its primary action of preventing mood swings in patients with bipolar affective (manic-depressive) disorder. Concentrations considered to be effective and acceptably safe are between 0.6 and 1.25 mEq/L. The range of 0.9-1.1 mEq/L isfavoured for treatment of acutely manic or hypomanic patients. Somewhat lower values (0.6-0.75 mEq/L) are considered adequate and are safer for long-term use for prevention of recurrent manic-depressive illness.Adverse Effects & ComplicationsMany adverse effects associated with lithium treatment occur at varying times after treatment is started.Some are harmless, but it is important to be alert to adverse effects that may signify impending serious toxic reactions.A. NEUROLOGIC AND PSYCHIATRIC ADVERSE EFFECTSTremor is one of the most common adverse effects of lithium treatment, and it occurs with therapeutic doses. Propranolol and atenolol, which have been reported to be effective in essential tremor, also alleviate lithium-induced tremor. Other reported neurologic abnormalities include choreoathetosis, motor hyperactivity, ataxia, dysarthria, and aphasia. Psychiatric disturbances at toxic concentrations are generally marked by mental confusion and withdrawal. Appearance of any new neurologic or psychiatric symptoms or signs is a clear indication for temporarily stopping treatment with lithium and close monitoring of serum levels.B. DECREASED THYROID FUNCTIONLithium probably decreases thyroid function in most patients exposed to the drug, but the effect is reversible or nonprogressive. Few patients develop frank thyroid enlar gement, and fewer still show symptoms of hypothyroidism. Although initial thyroid testing followed by regular- monitoring of thyroid function has been proposed, such procedures are not cost-effective. Obtaining a serum TSH concentration every 6-12 months, however, is prudent.C. NEPHROGENIC DIABETES INSIPIDUS AND OTHER RENAL ADVERSE EFFECTSPolydipsia and polyuria are common but reversible concomitants of lithium treatment, occurring at therapeutic serum concentrations. The principal physiologic lesion involved is loss of responsiveness to antidiuretic hormone (nephrogenic diabetes insipidus). Lithium-induced diabetes insipidus is resistant to vasopressin but responds to amiloride.An extensive literature has accumulated concerning other forms of renal dysfunction during long-term lithium therapy, including chronic interstitial nephritis and minimal-change glomerulopathy with nephritic syndrome. Some instances of decreased glomerular filtration rate have been encountered but no instances of marked azotemia or renal failure.Patients receiving lithium should avoid dehydration and the associated increased concentration of lithium in urine. Periodic tests of renal concentrating ability should be performed to detect changes.D. OEDEMAOedema is a common adverse effect of lithium treatment and may be related to some effect of lithium on sodium retention. Although weight gain may be expected in patients who become edematous, water retention does not account for the weight gain observed in up to 30% of patients taking lithium.E. CARDIAC ADVERSE EFFECTSThe bradycardia-tachycardia ("sick sinus") syndrome is a definite contraindication to the use of lithium because the ion further depresses the sinus node. T-wave flattening is often observed on ECG but is of questionable significance.F. USE DURING PREGNANCYRenal clearance of lithium increases during pregnancy and reverts to lower levels immediately after delivery. A patient whose serum lithium concentration is in a good therapeutic range during pregnancy may develop toxic levels following delivery. Special care in monitoring lithium levels is needed at these times. Lithium is transferred to nursing infants through breast milk, in which it has a concentration about one-third to one-half that of serum. Lithium toxicity in newborns is manifested by lethargy, cyanosis, poor suck and Moro reflexes, and perhaps hepatomegaly.An earlier report suggested an increase in the frequency of cardiac anomalies, especially Ebstein anomaly, in lithium babies. However, more recent data suggest that lithium carries a relatively low risk of teratogenic effects.G MISCELLANEOUS ADVERSE EFFECTSTransient acneiform eruptions have been noted early in lithium treatment. Some of them subside with temporary discontinuance of treatment and do not recur with its resumption. Folliculitis is less dramatic and probably occurs more frequently. Leukocytosis is always present during lithium treatment, probably reflecting a direct effect on leukopoiesis rather than mobilization from the marginal pool. This adverse effect has now become a therapeutic effect in patients with low leukocyte counts.Haloperidol is an antipsychotic and is butyrophenone derivativeThe butyrophenones and congeners tend to be more potent and to have fewer autonomic effects but greater extrapyramidal effects. | train | med_mcqa | null |
TB infection is due to deletion of which of the following genes? | [
"ATG5",
"BCL-2",
"PTEN",
"P-53"
] | A | ATG 5 Gene isresponsible for controlling function of macrophages which leads to autophagy . Autophagy is a highly conserved process that degrades ceain intracellular contents in both physiological and pathological conditions. Autophagy-related proteins (ATG) are key players in this pathway, among which ATG5 is indispensable in both canonical and non-canonical autophagy. Recent studies demonstrate that ATG5 modulates the immune system and crosstalks with apoptosis. However, our knowledge of the pathogenesis and regulatory mechanisms of autophagy in various immune related diseases is lacking. Thus, a deeper understanding of ATG5&;s role in the autophagy mechanism may shed light on the link between autophagy and the immune response, and lead to the development of new therapies for autoimmune diseases and autoinflammatory diseases like TB,T2DM,SLE. In this focused review, we discuss the latest insights into the role of ATG5 in autoimmunity. Although these studies are at a relatively early stage, ATG5 may eventually come to be regarded as a "guardian of immune integrity." Notably, accumulating evidence indicates that other ATG genes may have similar functions. REF : robbins 10th ed | train | med_mcqa | null |
TF/P ratio for PCT for many substances are shown in diagram below. Which of them represents urea? | [
"1",
"2",
"3",
"4"
] | B | Ans. B. 2Line 1: Not reabsorbed or actively secreted in PCT e.g. PAH, Creatinine, Inulin.Line 2: Freely filtered and poorly reabsorbed like UreaLine 3: no change in concentration along PCTLine 4: Bicarbonate: 90% is reabsorbed in PCT decreasing its tubular fluid concentration Line5: Solute fully reabsorbed in PCT like glucose. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which is not a feature of the posterior urethral valve – | [
"Palpable bladder",
"Painful stress incontinence",
"Recurrent UTI",
"Hydronephrosis"
] | B | Back pressure in posterior urethral valve causes hydronephrosis and distended bladder.
There is thin urinary stream and urinary stasis causes recurrent UM. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Following modification occurs in Gs subunit which leads to watery diarrhea in cholera | [
"ADP ribosylation",
"ATP-ADP transfer",
"Phosphorylation",
"Dephosphorylation"
] | A | A i.e. ADP ribosylation | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which vaccine among the following options is not kept in the freezer component in Cold Chain | [
"OPV",
"Measles",
"DPT",
"Rubella"
] | C | Ans. is 'c' i.e., DPT o A vaccine which must be stored in the cold part but never allowed to freeze. # Typhoid # DPT # TT # Hepatitis B # DT # BCG # Diluents Important facts- o All vaccines are usually stored (for routine storage) in the refrigerator (ILR), i.e. at +2 to +8degC (even OPV). o But OPV is stored in the freezer at -20 to -40degC, if required for prolonged storage. o Measles, mumps and rubella (MMR) can also be stored in the freezer (i.e. freeze-dried). o Vaccines which must never be allowed to freeze are typhoid, DPT, TT, DT, BCG, hepatitis B and diluents. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Treatment of choice for vocal nodule is | [
"Radical excision",
"Microlaryngoscopic removal",
"Cryotherapy",
"Wait and watch"
] | B | Treatment of vocal nodules Early cases of vocal nodules can be treated conservatively by educating the patient about the proper use of voice. With this treatment, many nodules in children disappear completely. Surgery is required for large nodules or nodules of long standing in adults. They are excised with precision under an operating microscope either with cold instruments or laser avoiding any trauma to the underlying vocal ligament. Speech therapy and re-education in voice production are essential to prevent their recurrence. Ref: Textbook of diseases of ENT, PL Dhingra, 7th edition, pg no. 343 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Paralysisof 3rd, 4th, 6th nerves with involvement of ophthalmicdivisionof5thnerve, localizes the lesion to | [
"Apex of orbit",
"Brainstem",
"Cavernous sinus",
"Base of skull"
] | C | Ipsilateral ophthalmoplegia causing diplopia occur due to 3rd, 4th & 6th cranial nerves.
6th nerve passes through cavernous sinus and others are related to the lateral wall of cavernous sinuses. | train | med_mcqa | null |
One gram of hemoglobin when fully saturated can com-bine with and carry___ ml of oxygen. | [
"0.39",
"1.39",
"13.9",
"139"
] | B | Ans. b (1.39). (Ref. Ganong Physiology 21st ed. 671)# Normal oxygen uptake is 250 mi/min# 1 gm of Hb carries 1.34 ml of oxygen# 02 dissociation curve is sigmoid in shape# The oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve, the curve relating percentage saturation of the O2-carrying power of hemoglobin to the P02, has a characteristic sigmoid shape due to the T-R interconversion.# When blood is equilibrated with 100% O2 (PO2 = 760 mm Hg), the normal hemoglobin becomes 100% saturated. When fully saturated, each gram of normal hemoglobin contains 1.39 mL of O2. However, blood normally contains small amounts of inactive hemoglobin derivatives, and the measured value in vivo is lower. The traditional figure is 1.34 mL of O2.# In vivo, the hemoglobin in the blood at the ends of the pulmonary capillaries is about 97.5% saturated with 02 (PO2 = 97 mm Hg). Because of a slight admixture with venous blood that bypasses the pulmonary capillaries (physiologic shunt), the hemoglobin in systemic arterial blood is only 97% saturated.# The arterial blood therefore contains a total of about 19.8 mL of 02 per dL: 0.29 mL in solution and 19.5 mL bound to hemoglobin. In venous blood at rest, the hemoglobin is 75% saturated and the total O2 content is about 15.2 mL/dL: 0.12 mL in solution and 15.1 mL bound to hemoglobin.# About 250 mL of O2 per minute is transported from the blood to the tissues at rest.Also remember;GAS CONTENT OF BLOODmL/dL of Blood Containing 15 g of HemoglobinArterial Blood (PO2 95 mm Hg;Venous blood (PO2 40 mm Hg;PCO2 40 mm Hg; Hb 97%PCO2 46 mm Hg; Hb 75%Saturated)Saturated) GasDissolvedCombinedDissolvedCombinedO20.2919.50.1215.1CO22.6246.42.9849.7N20.9800.980MYOGLOBIN# It is an iron-containing pigment found in skeletal muscle.# It resembles hemoglobin but binds 1 rather than 4 mol of O2 per mole.# Its dissociation curve is a rectangular hyperbola rather than a sigmoid curve. Because its curve is to the left of the hemoglobin curve, it takes up O2 from hemoglobin in the blood.# It releases O2 only at low PO2 values, but the PO2 in exercising muscle is close to zero.# The myoglobin content is greatest in muscles specialized for sustained contraction.# The muscle blood supply is compressed during such contractions, and myoglobin may provide 02 when blood flow is cut off. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Crypta magna is seen in | [
"Nasopharyngeal tonsil",
"Lingual tonsil",
"Tubal tonsil",
"Palatine tonsil"
] | D | APPLIED ANATOMY OF PALATINE (FAUCIAL) TONSILS Medial surface of the tonsil is covered by nonkeratinizing stratified squamous epithelium which dips into the substance of tonsil in the form of crypts. Openings of 12-15 crypts can be seen on the medial surface of the tonsil. One of the crypts, situated near the upper pa of tonsil is very large and deep and is called crypta magna or intratonsillar cleft. It represents the ventral pa of second pharyngeal pouch. From the main crypts arise the secondary crypts, within the substance of tonsil. Crypts may be filled with cheesy material consisting of epithelial cells, bacteria and food debris which can be expressed by pressure over the anterior pillar. Ref:- Dhingra; pg num:-257 | train | med_mcqa | null |
Hypoplastic defects in the enamel appears in radiographs as | [
"Brown spots running horizontally",
"Radiotucent areas",
"Sclerotic areas over the surface of a tooth",
"Radio opaque areas"
] | B | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
The plateau phase of Myocardial action potential is due to: | [
"Eflux of Na+",
"Influx of Ca++",
"Influx of K+",
"Closure of voltage gated K+ channels"
] | B | Influx of Ca++ | train | med_mcqa | null |
A 65-year-old gentleman is having tremors, rigidity and reduced mobility. He is likely to be benefited by? | [
"Bromocriptine",
"Alpha methyl dopa",
"Reserpine",
"Acyclovir"
] | A | Ans. is 'a' i.e., Bromocriptine o Major pathology in parkinsons disease is -Decrease in nigrostriatal dopaminergic neurons.Increase in cholinergic activity:Two major strategies for the treatmentof parkinson's disease is | train | med_mcqa | null |
All of the following enzymes are involved in oxidation-reduction reactions, except: | [
"Dehydrogenases",
"Hydrolases",
"Oxygenases",
"Peroxidases"
] | B | Hydrolases does not belong to oxidoreductase family. Oxidoreductases are enzymes which catalyse the transfer of electrons from one molecule (reductant) to another molecule (oxidant). It plays a major role in biodegradation pathways. Enzymes present in oxidoreductase family are oxygenase, reductase, dehydrogenase and peroxidase. Ref: Microorganisms in Environmental Management: Microbes and Environment By T. Satyanarayana, Bhavdish Narain Johri, Anil Prakash, Page 233; Biochemical Engineering By Gummadi, Page 89 | train | med_mcqa | null |
FALSE statement about the Streptococcus is: | [
"M protein is responsible for production of mucoid colonies",
"M protein is the major surface protein of group A streptococci",
"Mucoid colonies are virulent",
"Endotoxin causes rash of scarlet fever"
] | A | Strains with well marked capsules produce mucoid colonies. Streptococcus pyogenes can be typed based on surface proteins to M,T,R. M protein is most impoant of these. It act as a virulence factor by inhibiting phagocytosis. It is antigenic and antibody to this promotes phagocytosis of coccus. M protein is heat labile and acid stable but susceptible to tryptic digestion. Also know: Pyrogenic exotoxins (erythrogenic, dick, scarlatinal toxin) -dick test is used to identify children susceptible to scarlet fever, a type of acute pharyngitis with erythematous rash. The M protein itself is a fibrillar coiled-coil molecule with structural homology to myosin. Its carboxy terminus is rooted in the peptidoglycan of the cell wall, and the amino-terminal regions extend out from the surface. The specificity of the multiple serotypes of M protein is determined by variations in the amino sequence of the amino-terminal poion of the molecule. Antigenicity and functions differ in domains of the molecule. There are more than 80 M protein serotypes present. Ref: Ray C.G., Ryan K.J. (2010). Chapter 25. Streptococci and Enterococci. In C.G. Ray, K.J. Ryan (Eds), Sherris Medical Microbiology, 5e. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Chances of an offspring being affected when one parent is autosomal dominant heterozygote ? | [
"25%",
"50%",
"100%",
"None"
] | B | Ans. is 'b' i.e., 50% | train | med_mcqa | null |
Baonella quintana causes: | [
"Trench fever",
"Scrub typhus",
"Endemic typhus",
"Epidemic typhus"
] | A | Ans. is. 'a' i. e., Trench fever | train | med_mcqa | null |
The following are true about measles- | [
"It is an RNA virus",
"Causes Koplik's spots on the conjunctiva",
"Acute catarrhal conjunctivitis is a known features",
"All the above"
] | D | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Unilateral proptosis with bilateral VIth nerve palsy, diagnosis is: | [
"Grave's disease",
"Retinoblastoma",
"Pseudotumour of orbit",
"Cavernous sinus thrombosis"
] | D | D i.e. Cavernous sinus thrombosis | train | med_mcqa | null |
Most common vascular tumor in AIDS patient is | [
"Kaposi's sarcoma",
"Angiosarcoma",
"Lymphangioma",
"Lymphoma"
] | A | Ref Robbins 8/e 523_524 KS is caused by a virus called human herpes virus 8 (HHV-8), also known as Kaposi's sarcoma-associated herpes virus (KSHV). KS develops when infected cells that line lymph or blood vessels begin to divide without stopping and spread into surrounding tissues. Whereas most cancers begin in one pa of the body and may later spread to other areas, KS usually appears as lesions (abnormal bumps, spots or patches) on the skin or on mucosal surfaces (such as inside the mouth or in the genitals). Lesions can also develop in other pas of the body, such as in the lungs, lymph nodes or gastrointestinal tract. Having visible KS lesions can be upsetting. Nonetheless, they may develop very slowly without causing any serious complications. If KS is confined to the skin or lymph nodes without causing any swelling, it usually responds very well to treatment with anti-HIV drugs. Infection with HHV-8, the virus which causes KS, is widespread among gay men and in African countries. The virus can be found in saliva and may be passed on during sex, including through wet kissing, oral sex, and using saliva as a lubricant during sex. It can also be spread when adults pre-chew food for infants. There isn't a vaccine to prevent HHV-8 infection. A normally functioning immune system can usually keep HHV-8 infections under control and suppress the abnormal growth of cells into KS lesions. Most people who have HHV-8 never get KS. However, when the immune system is weakened and an unhelpful activation of the immune system in response to HHV-8 occurs, KS may develop. Generally, KS is a rare cancer in people who don't have HIV. Nonetheless, cases do occur in HIV-negative people, paicularly in people who take medications that suppress the immune system (such as coicosteroids). It is also one of the most common cancers in African countries, with large numbers of cases in people who don't have HIV. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Bulls eye type of appearance in I.0.P.A is seen in | [
"Lingually placed mandibular III molar",
"Buccally placed mandibular III molar",
"Inverted mandibular III molar",
"Disto angular impaction"
] | A | null | train | med_mcqa | null |
Distance between x-ray source and film cassette should be: | [
"60 inches",
"50 inches",
"65 Inches",
"55 inches"
] | C | 3 distances
x ray source – midsaggital : 5 Feet : 60” : 152.4 cm
mid saggital – film cassettes : 15 cm Acc to Jacobson
18 cm = 7” = Gurkeerat sing
x – ray source – film casetes : 176 ~ 170 cm
around 66” | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which is the most common causative agent of gas gangrene? | [
"Cl. histolyticum",
"Cl. novyi",
"Cl. septicum",
"Cl. perfringens"
] | D | Clostridium perfringens is the most common causative agent of gas gangrene. Gas gangrene: Established agents: C. perfringens (Most Common, 60-80%) and C. novyi and C. septicum (20-40%). Probable agents: C. histolyticum, C. sporogenes, C. fallax, C. bifermentans, C. sordellii, C. aerofoetidum and C. teium. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Ghotna is:- | [
"Heavy wooden log rolled on leg",
"Compressing the thighs with two roads",
"Tying the limps to the pole",
"Electric shock to genitalia"
] | A | Ghotna: Rolling a wooden log over the thighs up and down, while the log is weighed by one or two policemen standing on it Cattle prod: Electric shock especially over the genitals Sham execution: Victim is blind folded and asked to stand before a wall and then threatened that a vehicle is going to hit him. He hears the sound of a vehicle very near to him, causing fear and shock. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Which of the following is used for management of this 65 year-old patient with respiratory distress. Bedside Echo shows an Ejection fraction of 45%. | [
"Lasix, Nitrates and Sacubitril- Valsaan",
"Lasix, Norepinephrine and Sacubitril- Valsaan",
"Lasix, Nitrates and morphine",
"Lasix, ACEI and digoxin"
] | C | The CXR shows evidence of bat wing oedema which is seen with Acute decompensated CHF which is managed by: L--> Lasix M-->Morphine N-->Nitrates O-->Oxygen P-->Positioning of the patient. | train | med_mcqa | null |
Chronic complication of malaria - | [
"Splenomegally",
"Nephrotic syndrome",
"Pneumonia",
"Hodgkin's disease"
] | A | P.falciparum Forms in peripheral blood-ring forms and gametocytes (crescent shaped) A) Most pathogenic B). No relapses in P.falciparum-exo-erythrocytic schizogony is absent C). Complications-pernicious malaria,black water fever D)pernicious malaria-1). Cerebral malaria-hyperpyrexia, coma,paralysis.Brain is congested.Capillaries of the brain are plugged with parasitised erythrocytes 2). Algid malaria-cold clammy skin leading to circulatory failure 3). Septicaemic malaria- high continuous fever with involvement of various organs Black water fever * Previously infected * Intravascular haemolysis fever and haemoglobinuria * Autoimmune mechanism * Bilious vomiting+prostration+black urine(refer pgno:60 baveja 3 rd edition) | train | med_mcqa | null |
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